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NMAT BIOLOGY MOCK 1 SIMULATIONS (1116) 9.

Unique to meiosis is the failure of chromosomes to


replicate between
DIRECTIONS: Select the best answer to each of the a. telophase I and prophase II
following questions and blacken the appropriate space on b. prophase I and metaphase I
your answer sheet. c. prophase II and telophase II
d. telophase II and interphase
I. CELL BIOLOGY
10. Successful replication of chromosomes does not
1. The movement of water molecules from an area of require the presence of
greater concentration to an area of lesser concentration a. ribosomes c. Nuclear enzymes
across a selectively permeable membrane is called b. DNA template d. Adenosine triphosphate
a. diffusion c. active transport
b. osmosis d. passive transport 11. Which of the following contains a haploid (n) number
of chromosomes?
2. You would expect a cell with an extensive Golgi a. oogonia c. Leydig cells
apparatus to b. spermatids d. Sertoli cells
a. make a lot of ATP.
b. secrete a lot of material. 12. During mitosis, which stage is the only time when DNA
c. move actively. is doubled?
d. perform photosynthesis. a. G1 b. S c. G2 d. GO

3. The site of protein synthesis is the 13. Each time the water in a cell freezes slowly, long sharp
a. mitochondrion c. endoplasmic reticulum crystals spear through the membrane structures of the
b. nucleus d. ribosomes cell. However, in the frozen state, virtually no chemical
reactions occur. The most likely explanation for the bad
4. Metaphase is the stage wherein the taste of meat that has "freezer burn" from repeated
a. chromosomes migrate to opposite poles freezing is the destruction of
b. chromosomes reach the poles of the cell a. the Golgi bodies and their vesicles.
c. chromosomes align at the cell’s equatorial plate b. the Lysosomes and resultant autodigestion.
d. cytoplasm is divided into two c. Rough endoplasmic reticulum causing the release of
ribosomes.
5. Which of the following statements about mitosis is d. Ribosomes causing them to break into subunits.
incorrect?
a. The daughter nuclei are genetically identical to the 14. Most bacteria live in a solution that is hypotonic
parent nucleus. relative to the cytoplasm of the bacteria. The cell wall of a
b. Chromosomes separate during anaphase due to the bacterium is a peptidoglycan polymer that is tightly cross-
interaction of polar microtubules from opposite poles linked. This would therefore function to
pushing against each other. a. regulate the flow of most molecules into and out of the
c. Chromosomes separate during anaphase when the bacterial cell.
kinetochore microtubules shorten as they depolymerize. b. provide a rigid wall that prevents the cell from swelling.
d. Chromosomes move to the metaphase plate using c. provide a rigid wall that prevents the cell from
motor proteins, a kind of kinesin, attached to spindle shrinking.
fibers. d. confirm a close relationship to plant cells that have a
similar structure and live in hypotonic solutions.
6. In the fluid mosaic membrane model, the phospholipid
layer 15. Which is NOT a reason for the small size of cells?
a. is sandwiched between two protein layers a. Nutrients and wastes must enter and leave the cell
b. has proteins embedded in it through the plasma membrane.
c. lies on top a single protein layer b. The nucleus can only control a certain amount of
d. is covered by a single protein layer cytoplasm.
c. The increased number of organelles requires that
7. To release energy from ATP, the cell typically eukaryotic cells be smaller than prokaryotic cells.
a. Breaks the terminal phosphate bond d. Materials must be able to move quickly and efficiently
b. Breaks off all three bound phosphates through the cytoplasm.
c. Breaks the bond between the Adenine base and the
ribose sugar 16. Which of the following are NOT involved with the
d. Completely hydrolyzes the molecule in the Kreb's Cycle movement or transport of materials or organelles
throughout the cell?
8. Cell membrane carbohydrates participate in a. rough endoplasmic reticulum
a. transporting substances across membranes b. cytoskeleton
b. cell to cell recognition c. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c. attaching the membrane to the cytoskeleton d. lysosomes
d. attaching the membrane to the cell wall

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17. Which of the following would you not expect to be 25. Water is primarily transported and translocated
associated with a plasma membrane? through the
a. Glycoproteins c. Cholesterol a. phloem b. xylem c. cork d. bark
b. Phoshpolipids d. mRNA
26. During what stage of photosynthesis are ATP and
18. After being formed by the ribosomes located on the NADPH converted to ADP + Pi and NADP+?
endoplasmic reticulum, what is the next organelle to which a. the light-dependent reactions
a protein could be transported? b. the light-independent reactions
a. Mitochondria c. both of the above
b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum d. none of the above
c. Golgi apparatus
d. Nucleus 27. Which of the following statements about
photosynthesis is true?
19. Which of the following is NOT offered as evidence in a. The light-dependent reactions can occur only in the
support of the endosymbiotic theory, the belief that a light, the light-independent reactions only in the dark
eukaryotic cell has evolved as a "committee" of b. Photorespiration is more efficient at producing glucose
prokaryotic cells? than is photosynthesis
a. Mitochondria and chloroplasts are similar in size and c. The light-dependent reactions produce the energy-rich
structure to some species of bacteria. compounds that are used to run the light-independent
b. The ribosomes of chloroplasts and mitochondria are reactions
similar to eubacteria. d. All of the above are true
c. Mitochondria and chloroplasts can actively break away
from eukaryotic cells and live on their own. 28. Plant development involves the activity of homeotic
d. Mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own DNA genes which control
coding separate from the eukaryotic nucleus. a. the orientation of the roots and stems
b. the start of germination
II. BOTANY c. the formation of seeds
20. The oxygen given off by plants during photosynthesis d. the patterned formation of organ tissues
comes from the
a. activation of chlorophyll 29. The primary function of the light-dependent reactions
b. splitting of carbon dioxide molecules of photosynthesis is to:
c. breakdown of glucose molecules a. produce carbon dioxide.
d. splitting of water molecules b. use ATP to make glucose.
c. convert light energy to glucose.
21. The earliest photosynthesizers probably used what as d. produce energy-rich ATP and NADPH.
a source of hydrogen?
a. H2S b. H2O c. CO2 d. C6H12O6 30. The plant cell's central vacuole
a. provides the plant cell with support.
22. The response of roots growing downward is referred b. stores nutrients and cellular waste products.
to as c. is a reservoir for water.
a. negative gravitropism d. All choices are correct
b. positive gravitropism
c. negative phototropism 31. The condition that is needed by most seeds to break
d. positive phototropism dormancy is
a. exposure to heat
23. During which stages of the life cycle of flowering b. abrasion of the seed
plants are animals important? c. exposure to cold
a. During seed germination d. exposure to moisture
b. During pollination
c. During seed dispersal 32. Micronutrients are
d. B & C a. available in the soil only in small amounts
b. required by plants in small amounts
24. Which of the following statements accurately describes c. small molecules required by plants
the relationship between photosynthesis and cellular d. useful, but not required by plants
respiration?
a. Photosynthesis occurs only in autotrophs; cellular 33. The principal end product of photosynthesis is
respiration occurs only in heterotrophs a. amino acid
b. Photosynthesis uses solar energy to convert inorganics b. hexose sugar
to energy-rich organics; respiration breaks down energy- c. enzymes
rich organics to synthesize ATP d. proteins
c. Photosynthesis involves the oxidation of glucose;
respiration involves the reduction of CO2
d. the primary function of photosynthesis is to use solar
energy to synthesize ATP; the primary function of cellular
respiration is to break down ATP and release energy
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III. ECOLOGY AND GENERAL ZOOLOGY 44. Based on surface-area to volume considerations, we
would predict that populations of mammals that live in
34. The evolution of sexual reproduction may have colder climates should have _______ bodies than
occurred based on all of the following except populations of the same species in warm climates.
a. as a means to keep animals within a population in close a. smaller b. larger C. leaner D. taller
proximity
b. as a means to correct damage to the double strands of 45. Which of the following is not an outcome of high
the DNA population density?
c. through independent assortment, offspring have new a. toxic waste accumulation
combinations of genes that can be beneficial b. mortality increase
d. through crossing over, there is an unlimited amount of c. predators tend to ignore prey that is overabundant
genetic variability in the population d. reproduction reduction

35. Taxonomy involves grouping organisms in specific 46. Jon found an organism in a pond and he thinks it’s a
groups sharing similar characteristics. Which statements freshwater sponge. His friend Liz thinks it looks more like
are true? an aquatic fungus. How can they decide whether it is an
I. Tautonyms are more common in animals than plants. animal or a fungus?
II. The most specific level is the species. a. see if it can swim
III. Structural, genetic, embryological and biochemical b. figure out whether it is autotrophic or heterotrophic
characteristics are assessed. c. see if it is a eukaryote or prokaryote
d. look for cell walls under a microscope
a. I and II b. II and III c. I and III d. I, II and III
47. Which of the following categories include the largest
36. Tropism: plants; ________: animals number of species?
a. autotrophy b. heterotrophy c. taxis d. reproduction a. invertebrates c. insects
b. chordates d. vertebrates
37. In rainforests, nutrients are most abundant in
a. topsoil b. subsoil c. run-off d. tree trunks IV. ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY

38. Which of the following populations is most likely to go 48. Which of the following pairs of body systems primarily
extinct? regulate the activities of the other systems?
a. a very small population in an unstable environment a. cardiovascular and muscular systems
b. a moderate-sized population of r strategists b. nervous and endocrine systems
c. a large population with lots of genetic variability c. lymphatic and integumentary systems
d. all would be equally likely to go extinct d. endocrine and lymphatic systems

39. An ecologist who focuses on the individual could study 49. Air entering the lungs of a patient through a
all of the following, except tracheotomy (a tube inserted directly into the trachea) is
a. morphology c. behavior colder and drier than normal, which often causes lung
b. physiology d. death rate crusting and infection. This occurs primarily because the
air
40. In the ecology of population, r-selected species tend a. enters the respiratory system too rapidly to be filtered
to: b. is not properly humidified by the larynx
a. have fewer offspring c. does not flow through the nasal passageways
b. survive longer than the other species c. does not flow past the mouth and tongue
c. care for their offspring until maturity
d. be smaller organisms 50. When you exhale, air passes through the respiratory
structures in which of the following sequences?
41. The fact that many forms of aquatic animals look alike a. alveolus, trachea, bronchus, bronchiole, larynx,
even though they had diverse ancestors can be attributed pharynx, nasal cavity
to __________________. b. alveolus, bronchiole, bronchus, trachea, pharynx,
a. convergent evolution larynx, nasal cavity
b. divergent evolution c. alveolus, bronchiole, bronchus, trachea, larynx,
c. development of geographic races pharynx, nasal cavity
d. chance alone d. alveolus, bronchiole, bronchus, larynx, trachea,
pharynx, nasal cavity
42. In the binomial system of taxonomy, the first word of
an organism’s scientific name is its
a. species b. genus c. phylum or division d. kingdom

43. The rate at which a population of a given species will


increase when no limits are placed on its rate of growth is
called its __________.
a. maximum growth c. carrying capacity
b. biotic potential d. optimal potential
NMAT Sample 10 3