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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy.

, India
A.P, TELANGANA, KARNATAKA, TAMILNADU, MAHARASHTRA, DELHI, RANCHI
A right Choice for the Real Aspirant
ICON CENTRAL OFFICE, MADHAPUR - HYD
Sec: Sr. ICON ALL Date: 28-12-18
Time: 09:00 AM to 12:00 Noon Max.Marks:360

Name of the Candidate (in Capital letters):_______________________________________________

Roll Number : in figures

: in words______________________________________________________________

Examination Centre number:

Name of Examination Centre (in Capital letters):___________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature:_______________________ 1. Invigilator’s Signature:_____________________

Jee Main_GTM-5
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)
This booklet contains 34 printed pages. The Booklet Code
PAPER: CHEMISTRY, PHYSICS& MATHEMATICS
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS: 11th Jan Students

1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with only Black Ball Point Pen.

2. The test is of 3 hours duration.

3. The test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.

4. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Chemistry, Physics and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each
correct response.

5. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 4 for correct response of each question
1/4 (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from
the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.

6. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each question will
be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction 5
above.

7. Use Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/marking responses on the Answer Sheet.

8. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc., except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.

9. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is given
at the bottom of each page.

10. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

11. Also tally the serial number of the booklet and Answer sheet are the same as that on this booklet in case of
discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the invigilator for replacement of both the
test booklet and Answer Sheet.

12. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet.

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)
CHEMISTRY
1. A diatomic molecule has a dipole moment of 1.2D.If the bond distance is
1A . The fraction of an electric charge present on each atom is
1) 10% 2) 20% 3) 25% 4) 50%
2. Amongst LiCl, RbCl, BeCl2 and MgCl2 the compounds with the greatest
and least ionic character respectively are
1) LiCl and RbCl 2) RbCl and BeCl 2
3) RbCl and MgCl2 4) MgCl2 and CaCl 2
3. The electronegativity of H and Cl are 2.1 and 3.0 respectively. The correct
statement about the nature of HCl is
1) 17.23% ionic 2) 83.4% ionic 3) 50.3% ionic 4) 100% ionic
4. The crystal field-splitting for Cr+3 ion in octahedral field changes for

ligands, I  ,H2O, NH3, CN ion increasing order is

I  H 2O  NH 3  CN CN  I  H 2O  NH 3
1) 2)
CN  NH  H O  I
3 2 3 2 NH  H O  I  CN
3) 4)
5. Which of the following is most likely structure of CrCl3 .6 H 2O if 1/3 of
total chlorine of the compound is precipitated by adding AgNO3 to its
aqueous solution?
1) CrCl3 .6 H 2 O 2) Cr  H 2O 3 Cl3   H 2O 3
3) Cr  H 2O  4 Cl2  Cl.2 H 2O 4) CrCl. H 2O 5  Cl2 .H 2O
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)

6. Consider FeSO 4   A  B  C , (B) and (c) are gases (A) is red brown
solid (B) can be oxidized to (C) also turns acidified K 2Cr2 O7 solution
green. (A) dissolves in HCl to give deep yellow solution (D) gives blue
color (E) with potassium ferrocyanide. Identity A, B, D and E.
1) Fe 2O3 , SO2 , FeCl3 , Fe  CN  2

2) Fe2O3 , SO3 , FeCl3 , KFeIII  FeII  CN 6 

3) Fe 2O3 , SO2 , FeCl3 , KFeIII  FeII  CN 6 

4) FeO, SO2 , FeCl2 , KFe III  Fe  CN 6 

7. When K 2CrO4 is added to CuSO4 solution, there is formation of CuCrO4 as


well as CuCr2O7 . Formation of Cu Cr2 O7 is due to
1) basic nature of CuSO4 solution
2) acidic nature of CuSO4 solution
3) CuSO4 oxidises CrO 4 2 to Cr2 O 72
4) This is the typical property of CuSO4

8. Cl2  g   Ba  OH  2  X  aq   BaCl 2  H 2O
X  H 2 SO4  Y  BaSO4 ,

Y 
365K
 Z  H 2O  O2
Y, Z respectively, and magnetic behaviour exhibited by ‘z’ are
1) HClO4 , ClO2 , diamagnetic 2) HClO3 , ClO2 , paramagnetic
3) HClO3 , Cl2O , diamagnetic 4) HClO4 , Cl2 O7 , paramagnetic
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)
4
9. Name the structure of silicates in which three oxygen atoms of SiO 4  are
shared.
1) pyrosilicate 2) sheet silicate
3) linear silicate 4) Three dimensional silicate
HNO3 I2
10. White compound A   B   C (used to estimate CO). The
compound A is
1) P2 O5 2) I 2 O5 3) I4O9 4) S3O9
11. O-xylene on ozonolysis will give
O

CHO
and CH 3  C  CHO
1) CHO
O

CH 3  C  O
and CH 3  C  CHO
CH 3  C  O
2)
CH 3  C  O CHO

and
CH 3  C  O CHO
3)
O
CHO
CH 3  C  O

4)
CH 3  C  O
, CH 3  C  CHO and
CHO

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)

OH
1 Hg (OAC )2
major Product is
2 NaBH 4
12.

OH OH
O O

1) OH 2) OH 3) 4)
OH

PCC Dil.NaOH product "B" is


A B

13.
O
O
O O

1) 2) 3) 4)

O
CHO
conc.KOH H
(A) (B) structure of (B) is
 
CHO
O
14.
O O
O
O O
O
COOH O cook
O
O
CH 2OH CH 2OH
O O O
1) 2) 3) 4)

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)

KMnO4 / O H
SOCl2 PhCOONa
15. PhMe( A) 
..

 B  
or
A, H3O
  C    D
PCl5

Compound (D) is
1) PhCOCl 2) PhCONH 2 3) PhCOOH 4)  PhCO 2 O
O

Br2 Mg CH3 C CH3 


CH3  CH  CH 2 
 
Dry ether
   
H
( X )Major
16.
End product of above reaction is:
CH 2
CH 2  CH  CH 2  C  CH 3
1)
H 2C  CH  CH  C  CH 3

CH 3
2)
OH

H 2C  CH  CH 2  C  CH 3

CH 3
3)
H 2C  CH  CH 2  CH  CH 3  OH

CH 3
4)

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)
17. In which pair second ion is more stable than first?

(i) (ii)
CH 3
OH

(iii) (iv)
1) (i) and (ii) 2) (ii) and (iii)
3) (ii) and (iv) 4) (iii) and (iv)
18. The optical rotation of the  -form of a pyranose is 150.70 , that of the
 - form is 52.80 . In solution an equilibrium mixture of these anomers
has an optical rotation of 80.20 . The percentage of the  -form in
equilibrium mixture is
1) 28% 2) 32% 3) 68% 4) 72%
CooEt
pyridine
H  socl2  product is
ph
19. OH

Ph
CooEt Ph H CooEt
Ph CooEt
CooEt
Cl

Cl Ph
H H Cl H Cl
1) 2) 3) 4)

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)
O

NH 2OH Dil.H 2 SO4 540K


A B Nylon  6

20.
In above conversion structures of “A” and “B” are respectively
NH-OH
NH N-OH O

NH

1) 2)
N-OH O CN OH
NH N

3) 4)
21. The de – Broglie’s wave length for an electron in 10th Bohr’s orbit of
0
 
H-atom is  h  6.625  1034 J s 1 , me  9.1  1031 kg , and a0  0.529A 
 
0 0 0 0
1) 33.2 A 2) 16.6 A 3) 66.4 A 4) 332.4 A
22. What is the change in pH that results from the addition of 20ml of 0.1M
NaOH to a buffer made by combining 200ml of 0.07M benzoic acid with


100ml of 0.07M sodium benzoate K a of benzoicacid  6.4  105 
1) +0.31 2) +0.20 3) +0.18 4) –0.20

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)
23. A solution of sodium sulphide, Na2S in water has a vapour pressure of
17.5 mm Hg at a given temperature what is the mole fraction of Na2S in
this solution if the vapour pressure of pure water is 24.5 mm Hg at that
temperature?
1) 0.0476 2) 0.117 3) 0.143 4) 0.0953
24. Consider the following standard reduction potential
I 3   aq   2e  3I  aq  , E   0.53V
Cr 3  aq   e  Cr 2  aq  E   0.4V ,
Calculate  G   in KJ  for the following reaction at 25 C

cr 2 (aq)  I 3 (aq)  cr 3 (aq)  I (aq)


1) -181 2) +181 3) 90 4) -90
25. Which of the following has maximum flocculation value ?
4
1)  Fe  CN 6  2) Cl 3) SO42 4) PO43

26. For a reaction A product, half-life measured for two different values of
initial concentrations 5 x 10-3 M and 25 x 10-4 M are 1.0 and 8.0 hrs
respectively. If initial concentration is adjusted to 1.25 x 10-3M,the new
half-life would be
1) 16 hrs 2) 32 hrs 3) 64 hrs 4) 256 hrs

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)
27. One mole of a mono atomic ideal gas initially at a pressure of 2 bar and
temperature of 273 K is taken to a final pressure of 4 bar by a reversible
path defined by p/v=constant. Taking C v to be equal to12.5 J mol1. K 1 . The
value of U / w for this process is calculated to be
1) -3 2) -1.5 3) +1.5 4) +3.0
28. In an atomic solid with BCC arrangement of atom the radius of the host
atom is 270 pm. A guest atom of largest size is present at one of the faces
without disturbing original unit cell dimension. If coordinates of the centre
of this guest atom are (a/2, a/4, 0) where “a” is the side length of unit cell,
radius of the guest atom would be closest to
1) 180 pm 2) 135 pm 3) 80 pm 4) 57.5 pm
29. The rate of diffusion of two gases X and Y is in the ratio of 1:5 and that of
“Y” and “Z” in the ratio of 1:6 the ratio of the rate of diffusion of Z with
respect to X is
1) 5:6 2) 1:30 3) 6:5 4) 30:1

30. A n  is oxidized by acidified KMnO4 solution in to AO3 . If 2.68 milli


n 1
moles of A requires 32.16 ml of a 0.05 M acidified KMnO4 solution for
complete oxidation, value of n is
1) 2 2) 3 3) 1 4) 5

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)
PHYSICS
31. A solid disc of uniform thickness has density that varies by quadrants as
shown, with number indicating relative densities. If x-y axes are as
indicated with centre of disc at origin, then the equation of straight line
drawn through origin and centre of mass of the disc is
y

3 1
x
4 2

x 3
1) y  x 2) y  3) y  2 x 4) y  x
2 7
32. The ratio of intensities between two coherent sources is 4: 1. The difference
in loudness in decibel (dB) between maximum and minimum intensity
sound when they interfere is
1) 10 log 2 2) 20 log 3 3) 10 log 3 4) 20 log 2
33. The excitation energy of hydrogen like ion to its first excited state is 40.8
Ev. The energy required to remove the electron from the ion in the ground
state is
1) 54.4 Ev 2) 62.6 Ev 3) 72.6 Ev 4) 58.6 Ev

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)
34. An ideal gas is allowed to undergo three processes separately.
Process I: a  b Process II: a  c Process III: a  d

These processes are plotted on the PV – diagram shown in the figure. If the
points OABC form a square then temperature of the gas decreases during.
Pr essure P

M
C B

b
. .
a

c . . d

A
O
Vo l u m e (V )

1) All the three processes I, II and III


2) the processes II and III only
3) the process I and III only
4) the process II only
35. A monoatomic ideal gas undergoes a process where in volume (V) changes
with absolute temperature (T) according to the equation V  V0 eCT , where

V0 is a constant and C  5  10 3 per Kelvin . The value of molar specific


heat capacity at a temperature of 1270 C is
1) 1.5 R 2) 2.5 R 3) 3.5 R 4) 4.5 R

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)
36. A ball is projected with speed v0  100 m / s at angle   300 with the
horizontal from a point O which is equidistant from two vertical walls A
and B. The walls are parallel to each other and their surfaces are smooth.
After undergoing inelastic collisions with the walls, the ball finally fall at
some point between the walls. If the coefficient of restitution between the
ball and the walls is 0.8 then the ball will reach the ground after (take
g=10 m/s 2 ) (Assume that the height of wall is very large compared to
maximum height reached by the ball)
A B

V0


O O 50 m

1) 10 sec 2) 9 sec 3) 6.4 sec 4) 5 sec


37. A solid sphere of radius R  20 cm and mass M  20 kg is kept on a
rough horizontal surface as shown in the figure. A horizontal force
F  40 N is applied at a height h  30 cm above the surface. The correct
statement about the acceleration (a) of the centre of mass of the sphere is

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)
F

1) a > 2 m/s 2 2) a = 2 m/s 2


3) a < 2 m/s 2 4) data is insufficient to predict
38. A uniform thin hemispherical shell is kept on an inclined rough surface
with its plane (circular face) parallel to the inclined plane as shown in the
diagram. When the shell is released, what will be the magnitude of initial
acceleration of the point A on the diameter AB. Assume that the friction is
sufficient so that the shell rolls without slipping.
B

450

6g 7g 15 g 3g
1) 2) 3) 4)
11 11 26 4
39. The adjoining diagram shows a tall cylindrical container kept on a
horizontal surface. From a tap water comes with constant rate q m3 / s .
Initially the container was empty. An orifice of area of cross section A is
made at some height h in the side wall of the container. If the horizontal
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)
range of the water jet in steady state is found to be 2h, then the relation
between h and q is

q2 q2
1) h  2 2) h 
gA 2 gA2
3q 2
3) h  4) Information is insufficient
2 gA2
40. Suppose a narrow, and straight tunnel passes through the centre of earth as
shown in the figure. Two small balls A and B are released simultaneously
at the two ends of the tunnel. The balls collide with each other and after
collision one ball comes to rest and the other ball just manages to escape
the earth’s gravitational field. If the coefficient of restitution between the
balls is e , then select the correct option.

A . . B

3 1
1) e  2) e 
2 2
1 3
3) e 4) information is insufficient to predict
2 2
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)
41. Two satellites of equal mass are revolving around earth, one in elliptical
orbit of semi-major axis 2R and the other in circular orbit of radius 2R (R is
earth’s radius). Which of the following quantities is different for the two
satellites?
1) Angular momentum 2) Mechanical energy
3) Time period 4) Torque about the centre of earth
42. A simple pendulum having a bob of mass m and relative density 1.5
oscillates with a certain time period in air. When the bob is attached with
two springs each having force constant k as shown in figure and whole
arrangement is kept in water, the new value of time period remains same as
it was in air. The value of k is (neglect viscosity of water)

2mg mg 3mg
1) 2) 3) 4) None of these
3l 3l 4l

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)
43. An ideal gas undergoes an isothermal process. The pressure (P) of the gas
is plotted against the mean free path  of the molecules. Select the correct
graph.

1) 2)

3) 4)

44. Pluto moves around sun in an elliptical orbit of eccentricity 0.25. When
Pluto moves from its aphelion (farthest distance from sun) to its perihelion
(minimum distance from sun), the work done by gravitational force of sun
is (take masses of Pluto and sun as m and M respectively and semi-major
axis of orbit as a)
15GMm 8GMm 4GMm
1) zero 2) 3) 4)
8a 15a 9a
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)
45. A block of mass 4 kg moves on a horizontal smooth surface with velocity
31.4 m/s as shown in the figure. The block collides with a spring of force
constant 100 N/m, attached with a wall. The average value of the force of
impact on the block due to the spring is

4kg
V k

1) 1600 N 2) 1200 n 3) 800 N 4) 400 N


46. A particle is projected with a certain velocity from point O at angle  0 with

the horizontal  0   0  900  .At time ‘t’ the angular momentum of the

particle with respect to point O is


1) directly proportional to t 2) directly proportional to t 2
3) independent of t 4) None of these
47. A solid sphere having radius 10 m and linear coefficient of thermal
expansion 5  10 -3 / 0 C lies on earth surface. The mass of the sphere is
200 kg and its specific heat capacity is 2.5 J / kg 0C . If temperature is

increased by 100 C , the amount of heat absorbed by the sphere is

 g  10 m / s  2

1) 500 J 2) 5000 J 3) 6000 J 4) 7000 J

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)
48. A non-conducting sphere of radius R and uniformly distributed charge Q is
fixed in a gravity free space and a particle having charge  q is projected
with a certain velocity v0 from point P , in such a way that it grazes the
sphere at point A as shown in the figure with kinetic energy K A . The value
 1
of K A is (diameter AB is parallel to initial velocity vector v0 , k  )
4 0
4R

V0 P

3R

A B

4kQq 5kQq 9kQq


1) 2) 3) 4) data is insufficient
5R 9R 10 R
49. In the circuit diagram shown below, if the potential difference across the
resistance R1 is V1 and that across R2 is V2 ,then the ratio V1 / V2 is
15 R1  2

5

2 5V
5
10V
2V
2
10

3V R2  4
1) 0.5 2) 1.0 3) 1.5 4) None of these

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)
50. A point charge q  30  C is located at distance 3R from the centre of a
neutral conducting sphere (radius R) as shown in the figure. When the
switch S is closed, the amount of charge flowing from the sphere into the
ground will be

. .
q

3R
S

1) 5 C 2) 10 C 3) 10 C 4) zero

51. In the circuit shown in the diagram the capacitance of the capacitors C1 , C2

and C3 are 4  F , 6 F and 12 F respectively and the switch S remains


closed for a long time. When the switch S is opened, which of the
following statements will be correct about the current flowing through the
battery B ?

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)
1) A finite and constant current will flow
2) A finite current will flow initially that will decrease exponentially with
time
3) No current will flow
4) Information is insufficient to predict.
52. A wire of length l is bent into a circular loop of radius R and carries a
current I. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is B. The same wire is
now bent into a double loop of equal radii. If both loops carry the same
current I and it is in the same direction, the magnetic field at the centre of
the double loop will be
1) Zero 2)2B 3) 4B 4) 8B
53. The current flowing in a wire fluctuates in a sinusoidal manner as described
in the current  i  versus time  t  graph as shown in the diagram. The root
mean square value of the current is:
i0  A 

2i0

i0

O
t s
1/2 1/2
 1  1/2  2 2 1
1) i0 
 2
 1

2) i0  2 1  3) 2 2 i0 4) i0 
2 


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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)
54. A small ball having charge q and mass m lies on a horizontal smooth
surface (take it as xy plane) at distance b from origin. A magnetic field
exists within the region enclosed by the circle x 2  y 2  b 2 and directed
towards negative z-axis as shown. If magnetic field starts to increase with
time as B  B0 1  t  , then

1) The ball will start to move towards +ve x-axis


bqB0
2) The magnitude of initial acceleration of the ball will be
2m
3) The acceleration of the ball will increase with time
4) All of the above
55. A sound detector D moves with constant speed on a circle of radius R and
centre at O in xy plane. A point source of sound S lies in xy plane at
distance 2R from the point O and emits sound of a given frequency. The
ratio of maximum frequency and minimum frequency recorded by the
detector is 11/9 and speed of sound is 340 m/s. The minimum time interval
in seconds between recording a maximum frequency and minimum
frequency is (Take R = 17 m)

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)
D

S
O

1) 3 2)  / 3 3)  / 2 4) 2 / 3
56. When a point light source is inside water (refractive index 4/3) at a depth H,
the fraction of light coming out of water is f When the light source is
moved to depth 2H, the fraction of light coming out of water becomes f '
then we can predict that
1) f '  0.5 f 2) f '  f 3) f '  0.25 f 4) f '  f / 
57. The adjoining diagram shows the biasing of an npn transistor in common
emitter configuration used in an amplifier. The design of the transistor is
such that 98% of the charge carriers passing through the emitter reach the
collector. If base current changes from 50  A to 100  A , then the
corresponding change in the voltage across the load resistance RL will be
RC
C .
. 5k
.
B
RL  10 k 

. E

1) 0.25 V 2) 0.5 V 3) 24.5 V 4) 49.0 V

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)
58. A Plano-convex thin lens is used to obtain the image of a point object O on
the screen S as shown in figure. The thickness of the lens in the middle is
0.5 cm and refractive index of the material of the lens is 1.5. If the
separation D between the object and the screen is to be minimum, then the
diameter of the aperture of the lens should be

1) 10 cm 2) 8 cm 3) 5 cm 4) 2.5 cm
59. In the table drawn below dN represents the number of molecules of an ideal

gas whose speed lies in the range  v  0.5 dv  to  v  0.5dv  at a


temperature of 300 K. Find the rms speed of the gas molecules at 600 K.
dN 100 1500 2500 230 1800 1000
 s / km 
dv
0
v  km / s  3 3 3 3 4 3 10 10 3

1) 3 3 km / s 2) 3 6 km / s 3) 9 km / s 4) 9 / 2 km / s

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)
60. The diagram drawn adjoining shows a circuit used for obtaining a constant
voltage across the load resistance R L  200 . The zener diode in the
circuit has breakdown voltage of 10V. Find the correct range of the supply
voltage VS in which it can fluctuate so that we always get a constant
voltage across RL . The maximum power rating of the zener diode is 5W.
100 

.
Vs
RL  200 

1) 0  VS  10V 2) 10V  VS  60V

3) 60V  VS  100V 4) VS  100V

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)
MATHS
61. If f : R  R be a function satisfying
f  x  y 2   1  2 x  f  x   f ( y 2 )  2 xf ( y ), x, y  R, Then which of the

following statements is true


1) f(x) is odd function 2) f(x) is even function
3) f(x) is neither even not odd 4) f(x) is both odd and even
61
62. Let cos2    and sin 2    are the roots of the equation x 2  4 x  0
16
.Then equation whose roots are Tan 2 and cot 2  is
1) x 2  4 x  1  0 2) x 2  10 x  1  0
3) x 2  10 x  1  0 4) x 2  14 x  1  0
63. The number of 3-digit numbers pqr such that p  q  r and 2q  p  r is
1) 12 2) 32 3) 36 4) 256
64. If the curve y=f(x) passes through (1,1) and satisfies the differential
equation 2x2 ydx-x3dy=y2dx Then f(2) is equal to
2 4 4 16
1) 2) 3) 4)
 log 2   1 log 2 log 2e  log 2   1
65. The shadow of a pole of height  
3  1 meters standing on the ground is

found to be 2 meters longer when the elevation is 300 then when the
elevation was  .Then  is
1) 750 2) 600 3) 450 4) 300

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)
66. If f : R  R be a continuous and differentiable function such that

f(x)=f(10-x) and slope of tangent at x=-5 is 2 then f I  5   f I 15  is equal


to
1) 0 2) 2 3) -2 4) -4
67. Let A and B be two sets of complex numbers defined as follows
A   z : z  6  z  2  10, B   z : z  6  3 Then the number of elements

common to both A and B is


1) 1 2) 2 3) 4 4) 0
       
68. Let a  a1i  a2 j  a3k be a unit vector in  3 and b  2i  3 j  6 k . Given
     
that there exist a vector C in 3 such that a  c  5 and b . a  c   35
which of the following statement is correct

1) if a lies in y z plane then a2  3a3

 3
2) if a lies in x y plane, then a1  a2
2

3) if a lies in x z plane then a1  2a3
 
4) b is always parallel to c

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)
69. Let a, b  R consider the system of linear equations 2 x  ay  6 z  8,
x  2 y  bz  5 and x  y  3z  4 .which of the following statement is
INCORRECT
1) if a=2, then the system of equation have infinitely many solution
2) if a=5,b=3 Then the system of equations have no solution
3) if a  2 and b=3 Then the system of equations have no solution
4) if a  2 and b  3Then the system of equations have a unique solution
70. Let A=  f / f : R  R and ‘B’ be a relation defined on set A such that

 Lim f ( x) 
B   f , g  x 2019  R; f , g  A , relation B is
 g ( x) 
1) reflexive, symmetric and transitive
2) reflexive, transitive but not symmetric
3) reflexive, symmetric but not transitive
4) reflexive, but neither symmetric nor transitive
n
x18  1  p( x ) 
71. If  1
dx can be expressed as
10 x 5
 c where p(x) is
x 54
 3x 42  2 x 
36 6

polynomial in ‘x’ of lowest possible degree. Then number of distinct real


solutions of p(x)=0 is
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 4

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)
th
72. If the n term of the sequence 0,1,1,2,3,5,8,13,21…… be given by an and

lim an1
n  m Then value of [2m] is [where [ . ] denotes G.I.F)
an
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
73. If two vertices of a triangle are (-2,3) and (5,-1) orthocentre lies at the
origin, centroid on the line x  y  7 ,Then the third vertex is
1) (7,4) 2) (8,14) 3) (12,21) 4) none of these
74. Let tangent and normal to the parabola y2  8x drawn at (2,4) intersect the
line lx  y  3 at the points A and B respectively. If AB subtends a right

angle at the vertex of the parabola then sum of all possible values of l is

1) 2 2) 1 3) 0 4) -1

75. Length of the latus rectum of the hyperbola xy  3x  4 y  8  0

1) 4 2) 4 2 3) 8 4) none of these
1 18
ex e x
76. If    dx, Then I=  dx 
0 x 1 17 x  19

1)  e18 2)  e18 3)  e 18 4)  e18

77. Area of the region bounded by x 2  y 2  6 y  0 and 3y  x 2 is

9 9 9
1)  12 2) 6 3) 9  24 4) 6
2 4 2

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)
21
 1 
78. The term independent of x in the expansion of  x   2  is
 x 

1) T22 2) T21 3) T11 4) none

 z 1  
79. If arg     Then length of the path traced by the points in the
 z 1 4
locus is

3
1) 2) 3 2 3) 6 2 4) 3
2

 25  Lim  1  cos5x 
80. If f(x) is continuous and f    4 then x0
f 2  is equal to
 2  x 
1) 1/4 2) 0 3) 8 4) 4
81. Let p,q be two statements, then    p  q    p  q  is logically equivalent
to
1) q 2) p  q 3) p 4) p   q
82. A group of 10 items, has arithmetic mean 6.If arithmetic mean of 4 of them
is 7.5 then Mean of remaining items is
1) 6.5 2)5.5 3)4.5 4)5
x 1 y 1 z 1 x 3 y  k z
83. If the lines   and   intersect, then the
2 3 4 1 2 1
value of K is
3 9 2 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 9 2
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)
84. The number of solution (s) of the equation

sin x  cos x  min  


3, a 2  4a  5 ; a  R is

1) 1,if a<2 2) 2 if a>2


3) 0 if a=2 4) infinitely many for any aR

85. A square matrix P satisfies P2=I-P, where I is an identity matrix , If


Pn=5I-8P,Then n=
1) 4 2) 5 3) 6 4) 7
86. A fair die is tossed eight times. The probability that a third six is observed
on the eight throw is
7c2 55 7c2 54 7c2 55 7c2 54
1) 2) 3) 10 4)
68 68 6 66
87. From the point P(2,1),a line of slope m  R is drawn so as to cut the circle
x 2  y 2  1. In points A and B If we vary the slope m, the greatest possible

value of PA+PB will be


2 10
1) 2) 3) 2 5 4) 4
5 5
88. The distance of the point (1,0,2) from the point of intersection of the line
x  2 y 1 z  2
  and The plane x-y+z=16 is
3 4 12
1) 2 14 2) 8 3) 3 21 4) 13

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)
89. Consider The sequence 1,2,2,3,3,3,- - -- where ‘n’ occurs n times. Then the
number at 2007th term is
1) 61 2) 62 3) 63 4) 64
90. The real number ‘a’ for which the equation x 3  2 x  a  0 has two distinct
real roots in
[0, 1]
1) lies between 1 and 2
2) lies between 2 and 3
3) lies between -1 and 0
4) does not exist

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-D(11th Jan)
Read the following instructions carefully:
1. The candidates should fill in the required particulars on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point Pen.
2. For writing/marking particulars on the Answer Sheet, use Black Ball Point Pen only.
3. The candidates should not write their Roll Numbers anywhere else (except in the specified
space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
4. Out of the four options given for each question, only one option is the correct answer. 5. For
each incorrect response, ¼ (one–fourth) marks of the total marks allotted to the question
(i.e. 1 mark) will be deducted from the total score. No deduction from the total score,
however, will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet.
6. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as under no circumstances (except for
discrepancy in Test Booklet Code and Answer Sheet Code), another set will be provided.
7. The candidates are not allowed to do any rough work or writing work on the Answer Sheet.
All calculations/writing work are to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test
Booklet itself, marked ‘Space for Rough Work’. This space is given at the bottom of each
page of the booklet.
8. On completion of the test, the candidates must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator
on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet
with them.
9. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator.
10. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, should
leave his/her seat.
11. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator and any Electronic device like mobile phone, pager etc. is
prohibited.
12. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Examination body with
regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as
per Rules and Regulations of the Examination body.
13. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
14. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers,
pager, mobile phone, electronic device or any other material except the Admit Card inside the
examination room/hall.

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