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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy.

, India
A.P, TELANGANA, KARNATAKA, TAMILNADU, MAHARASHTRA, DELHI, RANCHI
A right Choice for the Real Aspirant
ICON CENTRAL OFFICE, MADHAPUR - HYD
Sec: Sr. ICON ALL Date: 29-12-18
Time: 09:00 AM to 12:00 Noon Max.Marks:360

Name of the Candidate (in Capital letters):_______________________________________________

Roll Number : in figures

: in words______________________________________________________________

Examination Centre number:

Name of Examination Centre (in Capital letters):___________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature:_______________________ 1. Invigilator’s Signature:_____________________

Jee Main_GTM-6
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 29-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-6_Q’P_Code-B(12th Jan)
This booklet contains 29 printed pages. The Booklet Code
PAPER: MATHEMATICS, CHEMISTRY & PHYSICS
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS: 12th Jan Students

1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with only Black Ball Point Pen.

2. The test is of 3 hours duration.

3. The test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.

4. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Mathematics, Chemistry and Physics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each
correct response.

5. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 4 for correct response of each question
1/4 (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from
the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.

6. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each question will
be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction 5
above.

7. Use Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/marking responses on the Answer Sheet.

8. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc., except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.

9. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is given
at the bottom of each page.

10. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

11. Also tally the serial number of the booklet and Answer sheet are the same as that on this booklet in case of
discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the invigilator for replacement of both the
test booklet and Answer Sheet.

12. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet.

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 29-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-6_Q’P_Code-B(12th Jan)

MATHS
2
1. The circle z  2 intersects the curve whose equation is z 2   z   4 i in the

points A, B, C , D. If z1, z2 , z3 , z4 represent the affixes of these points, then

1) z1 z2 z3 z4  1

2) z1  z2  z3  z4  0

3) z1  z2  z3  z4  2
4) A rg z1  A rg z2  A rg z3  A rg z4  2 k , k  0,1 or  1

1 t2  2t
2. The eccentricity of the conic x  3  2  and y  is
 1 t  1 t2
2 2 2 3 3
1) 3 2) 3) 2 4)
3 2 2
2
3. The value of 2 min . x  1 , x  2  dx, is

1) 11 4 2) 9 4 3) 11 2 4) 9 2

4. Area of the triangle formed by the tangents at the points (4, 6), (10, 8) and
(2, 4) on the parabola y2 – 2x = 8y – 20, is (in square units)
1) 4 2) 2 3) 1 4) 8

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 29-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-6_Q’P_Code-B(12th Jan)
 a | x2  x  2 |
 2
, 1  x  2
 2  x  x
5. Let f  x    b , x2
 x   x
 , x2
 x2
([.] denotes the greatest integer function) if f(x) is continuous at x = 2, then
1) a = 1, b = 2 2) a = 1, b = 1 3) a = 0, b = 1 4) a = 2, b = 1
5 9 17 33
6. The sum of n terms of series 2  4  8  16  ..... is equal to

1) 2n + 2n 2) 2n + 2n 3) 2n + 1  2n 4) none of these

1 10 2n 10 2 2n 10 3 2n 10 2n
7. The value of  C1  C2  C 3  .....  is
81n 81n 81n 81n 81n

1)3 2) 2 3) 1 4) 0

dx
  x  3  x  1 
8. 4/5 6/5

1/5
1/5 5  x 3
1)   x  3 x  1  c 2) 4  x  1 
 
c

1/5
 x 1  6/5 4/5
3)  x  3  c 4)  x  3  x  1 c
 

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 29-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-6_Q’P_Code-B(12th Jan)

  
ln cot   x 
 4  
9. If xLt  1 , then the value of
0 tan x  equals
2
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4)
3
2 2 4 2
10. If the equation (  1)( x  x  1)  (  1)( x  x  1)  0 has two distinct
real roots then the set of all real values of the parameter  is

1) R  [2, 2] 2) [ 2, 2] 3) (2, ) 4) (, 2)


0 0 0 0
11. The arithmetic mean of 2sin 2 , 4sin 4 , 6sin 6 ,.....,180sin180 is equal
to
0 0 0
1) cosec1 2) sec1 3) cot1 4) None of these
12. The number of ordered pairs of positive integers (a,b) such that LCM of a,

b is 2 5 11 is


3 7 13

1) 2385 2) 2835 3) 3825 4) 8325


x2 y 2
13. From any point P lying in first quadrant on the ellipse   1 , PN is
25 16
drawn perpendicular to the major axis such that N lies on major axis. Now
PN is produced to the point Q such that NQ equals to PS, where S is a
focus. The point Q lies on which of the following lines
1) 2 y  3x  25  0 2) 3 x  5 y  25  0
3) 2 x  5 y  25  0 4) 2 x  5 y  25  0

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 29-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-6_Q’P_Code-B(12th Jan)
14. Let A1, A2, A3, …, A40 are 40 sets each with 7 elements and B1, B2, …, Bn
40 n

are n sets each with 7 elements. If A B


i 1
i
j1
j S
and each element

of S belongs to exactly ten of Ai's and exactly 9 of Bj's, then n =


1) 42 2) 35 3) 28 4) 36
15. If the line y = x + 2 does not intersect any member of family of parabolas
y2 = ax, (aR+) at two distinct point, then maximum value of latus rectum
of parabola is
1) 4 2) 8 3) 16 4) 32
 2 1 3 4  3 4 
16. Let three matrices A    , B  2 3 and C   2 3  then
 4 1    

 A( BC )   A( BC ) 2   A( BC ) 2 
t r ( A)  tr    tr    tr    ____ +  is equal
 2   4   8 
to = ______
1)6 2)9 3)12 4)10
sin  cos ec
t 1
A  dt ,B  1 t 1  t 2  dt then the value of
17. If
1 1 t2
A A2 B
e A B B2 1 
1 A2  B 2 1
1)2 2)1 3) 4)0
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 29-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-6_Q’P_Code-B(12th Jan)

18. The proposition  p  q   p is


1) neither tautology nor contradiction
2) a tautology
3) a contradiction
4) cannot be determined

sec x cos x sec 2 x  cot x cos ec 2 x


f  x   cos 2 x cos 2 x cos ec 2 x
19. Let then value of
1 cos 2 x cos ec 2 x
 /2
 f  x dx
 /4
  1  1
1) 0 2)  / 48 
3) 2  4) 1    log 2
15 2 2 8 2
20. The maximum value of x1/ x is
e
1) 1/ e
1/e
2) e 3) e 4) 1/e
2
21. The area of the figure bounded by y  9 x and y  3 x is
1) 1 2) 1/4 3) 1/2 4) 2
22. Let the population of rabbits surviving at a time ‘t’ be governed by the
dp  t  1
differential equation  p  t   200 . If p  0  100, then p  t  equals :
dt 2
t/2  t /2
1) 400  300 e 2) 300  200 e
t /2  t /2
3) 600  500 e 4) 400  300 e

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 29-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-6_Q’P_Code-B(12th Jan)

23. If each of a, b, c is orthogonal to the sum of the other two vectors and

a  3, b  4, c  5 then which of the following statement(s) is/are true


1) If a makes angles of equal measures with x,y,z axes, then tangent of this

angle is  2

2) range of | a  b | is 1, 7 

3) range of | b  c | is 1, 9

4) | a  b  c | =2 5
2 2
24. If the point (1,4) lies inside the circle x  y  6 x  10 y  p  0 and the
circle does not touch or intersect the coordinate axes, then
1) 0<p<34 2) 25<p<29
3) 9<p<25 4) 9<p<29
2
25. Equation of a common tangent to the curves y  8 x and xy  1 is

1) 3 y  9 x  2 2) y  2 x  1 3) 2 y  x  8 4) y  x2
26. If  ,  are eccentric angles of the extremities of a focal chord of the ellipse
x 2 /16  y 2 / 9  1, then tan   / 2 tan   / 2 

7 8 9 54 8 7  23
1) 2)  3) 4)
7 5 23 54 9

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 29-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-6_Q’P_Code-B(12th Jan)
x2 y3 z4 x 1 y  4 z  5
27. The lines   and   are coplanar if
1 1 k k 2 1
1) k=0 2) k  1 3) k=2 4) k=3
x x
28. If both the roots of  2a  4  9   2a  3 3  1  0 are non-negative, then

5 5
1) 0  a  2 2) 2  a  3) a  4) a  3
2 4
29. The variance of first 50 even natural numbers is :
833 437
1) 2) 833 3) 437 4)
4 4
30. An aeroplane flying at a height of 3000m above the ground passes
vertically above another plane at an instant when the angles of elevation of
0 0
the two planes form the same point on the ground are 60 and 45
respectively. The height of the lower plane from the ground is

1) 1000 3 m 2) 1000 / 3 m

3) 500 m 4) 1500  
3 1 m

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 29-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-6_Q’P_Code-B(12th Jan)
CHEMISTRY
31. The frequency of first line of Balmer series in hydrogen atom is v0 . The
frequency of corresponding line emitted by singly ionised helium atom is :
v0 v0
1) 2v0 2) 4v0 3) 4)
2 4
32. The Vander Waals coefficient of the inert gases He, Ar and Xe are given
below

Inert gas a (atm.dm6.mol-2) b (10-2dm3mol-1)


He 0.34 2.38

Ar 1.337 3.20

Xe 4.137 5.16

Choose the appropriate pair to complete the following statement.


“The increase in the value of a signifies the increasing importance of
____interaction while increase in value in b is due to_____’’
1) Ion-ion; increased atomic volume
2) Induced dipole-induced dipole; increased atomic volume
3) Induced dipole-dipole; dipole-dipole interaction
4) Dipole-dipole; decreasing ionization energies

33. 1 mol A+ 3 mol B (volatile liquids)  PA = 300mm, PB =100mm  , mol


0 0

fraction of B in vapour state above solution is


1) 0.75 2) 0.25 3) 0.50 4) 0.66

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 29-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-6_Q’P_Code-B(12th Jan)
34. A radioactive element has a half life period of 140 days. How much of it
will remain after 1120 days
1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
32 256 512 128
35. Given the following reaction at equilibrium. Some inert gas is added at
constant Volume predict which of the following facts will be affected ?

1) More of NH 3 g  is produced

2) less of NH3 g is produced


3) No affect on the degree of advancement of the reaction at equilibrium

4) K P of the reaction is increased


36. The weight of magnesium which has same number of atoms are present in
8 gm of methane is
1) 48 gm 2) 120 gm 3) 60 gm 4) 56 gm
37. The internal energy change when a system goes from state A to B is
40 kJ/mol. If the system goes from A to B by a reversible path and returns
to state A by an irreversible path, what would be the net change in internal
energy?
1) 40 kJ 2) > 40 kJ 3) < 40 kJ 4) Zero

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 29-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-6_Q’P_Code-B(12th Jan)
38. The reduction potential of the hydrogen half-cell will be negative if
1) p(H2) = 1 atm and [H+] = 1M
2) p(H2) = 1 atm and [H+] = 2M
3) p(H2) = 2 atm and [H+] = 1M
4) p(H2) = 2atm and [H+] = 2M

39. In acidic medium, MnO4 is converted to Mn2+ when acts as an oxidizing

agent. The quantity of electricity required to reduce 0.05 mol of MnO4
would be
1) 0.01F 2) 0.05F 3) 0.25F 4) 0.15F
40. The slope of the straight line graph between log x/m and log P for the
adsorption of a gas on solid is
1) k 2) log k 3) n 4) 1/n

41.   A  
CH 3CH 2Cl  KCN  LiAlH 4
  B 
HNO 2
  C  N 2  H 2 O .
Compound (C) in the above reaction is
1) Propanal 2) Ethanol
3) Propenamine 4) Propanol
42. 4 – hydroxy acetanilide belongs to which of the following?
1) Antipyretic 2) Antacid
3) Antiseptic 4) Antihistamine

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 29-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-6_Q’P_Code-B(12th Jan)
43.

O3 i Conc. NaOH


 A B
Zn / H2O ii H3O

The product B is

CH2OH COOH CH2OH


| | |
1) COOH
CH2OH
2) COOH 3) 4) CO2
Cl

tertiarybutoxide
  A B

44.
Where B is major product B is

1) 2) 3) 4)

Na / Dry ethere
Cl Br  ( A)
97%
45.
Product(A) obtained in above Wurtz reaction is:

1) 2) 3) 4)

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 29-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-6_Q’P_Code-B(12th Jan)
46. Which of the following is not correctly matched


1) phenol  CHCl3  NaOH  O  Hydroxy benzal dehyde
H 2 SO4
2) phenol  Phthalicanhydride  Phenetole ( Ethyl Phenyl Ether )

2 Br
3) phenol 
H O
Tribromophenol
2
 Acidification
4) Sodium phenoxide  CO2 
Pressure
 salicyclic acid
47. Write the IUPAC name of the product formed in the following reaction

 CH3 3 C  CH 2OH 


HBr

1) 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane 2) 1-Bromo-2,2-dimethylpropane
3) 2-Bromo-3-methylbutane 4) 1-Bromopentane
48. In Liebermann’s test, when a nitrite is added to phenol dissolved in
concentrated H2SO4 a red colour is obtained which is due to the formation
of compound having the structure

HO N=N OH O= =N OH
1) 2)

HO N=N O= =N
3) 4)
49. The two forms of D-glucopyranose are commonly described as
1) enantiomers 2) mutamers 3) epimers 4) anomers
50. Number of identical Cr – O bonds in dichromate ion is
1) 4 2) 6 3) 7 4) 8
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 29-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-6_Q’P_Code-B(12th Jan)

51. One mole of Ferric oxalate is oxidized by ‘x’ mole’s of MnO4 in acidic
medium. Hence value of ‘x’ is
1) 1.2 2) 1.6 3) 1.8 4) 1.5
52. Among the following species, the least bond angle around the central atom
is in :

1) O3 2) I 3 3) NO2

4) PH 3
53. Which of the following statements is not correct about potash alum?

1) Its empirical formula is K Al SO4  2 .12H 2O


2) Its aq.solutions is basic in nature
3) It is used in dyeing industries
4) Its aq.solutions is acidic in nature
CuSO4 Conc.H 2 SO4 1) NaOH + Na,K tartarate
54. Mg   MgSO4  A  B 2) Glucose

Guconic acid  C Red ppt 

Then ‘C’ is
1) Cu 2 O 2) CuO 3) Cu3O4 4) Cu

55. What is the magnetic moment (spin only) and hybridization of the brown

ring complex  Fe  H 2O 5 NO  SO4 ?


3 2 2 3
1) 3BM , sp d 2) 3BM , d sp
3 2 2 3
3) 15BM , sp d 4) 15BM , d sp

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 29-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-6_Q’P_Code-B(12th Jan)
56. On heating a mixture of NaBr and conc H 2 SO4 . we obtain

1) HOBr 2) HBr 3) Br2 4) HBrO3


57. Which of the following in the constituent unit of a cyclic silicate?
4 2 2 4
1) Si2O7 2) Si2O5 3) SiO3 4) Si2O4
58. Consider the following reactions :

2 XS  3O2  2 XO  2 SO2

2 XO  XS  3 X  SO2
Then ‘X’ can not be :
1) Hg 2) Pb 3) Zn 4) Cu
59. Which of the following is the correct order
1) Boiling point : NH3 <PH3 <AsH3 <SbH3
2) Acidic strength: HF < HCl < HBr<HI
3) Thermal stabiity : H 2O<H 2S<H2Se<H2 Te
4) Bond angle : H 2O<H 2S<H 2Se<H 2Te
60. Which of the following is true ?
1) For the same metal, same ligands and metal - ligand distances the
splitting energy in case of tetrahedral and octahedral complexes is related as
 t   4 / 9  0
4 3
2) Both  Fe  CN  6  and  Fe  CN  6  has the same value of magnetic
moment
2 2
3) Both  Ni  CN  4  and  NiCl 4  possess the same geometry
3 3 2
4) Co  NH 3  6  , Co  CN  6  and CoCl  NH 3 5  absorb the light of
same wavelength
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 29-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-6_Q’P_Code-B(12th Jan)
PHYSICS
61. A river of width 500 m has flow velocity 3m/s. A man starts swimming
perpendicular to river flow at a speed of 4m/s relative to water.
Simultaneously a car starts moving on a road, that runs along the opposite
side of the river, with constant speed. The car starts from a point on the
other side that is exactly opposite to the point from where the man starts
swimming. The speed of the car if both, the car and the man, meet at the
same point at the moment man has crossed the river, is: (in m/s)
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 1
62. String 1 is connected with string 2. The mass per unit length in string 1 is
1 and the mass per unit length in string 2 is 41 . The tension in the strings
is T.A travelling wave is coming from the left. What fraction of the energy
in the incident wave goes into string 2?

1) 1/9 2) 4/9 3)2/3 4)8/9


63. A block of mass 1kg is kept on a rough horizontal plane. On farther side a
spring is located as shown. Floor is rough only upto 4.5m. Now the block
is imparted a velocity of 10 m/s, then determine the maximum compression
in spring? Take g = 10 m/s2.

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 29-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-6_Q’P_Code-B(12th Jan)
10 m/s 1000 N/m
  0.2
1kg

4.5m smooth

1) 0.082m 2) 0.041m 3) 0.118m 4) 0.22m


64. Two identical particles are attached at the ends of a light string which
passes through a hole at the centre of a table another particle on the table is
made to revolve with angular velocity 1 . One of the particles is made to

move in a horizontal circle as a conical pendulum with angular velocity 2

. If l1 and l2 are the length of the string over and under the table neither
l1
moves down nor moves up, the ratio is
l2

1 2 12 22
1) 2) 3) 2 4) 2
2 1 2 1

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 29-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-6_Q’P_Code-B(12th Jan)
65. A uniform circular disc of radius ‘r’ is placed on a rough horizontal surface
and given a linear velocity v0 and angular velocity 0 as shown. The disc
comes to rest after moving some distance to right. It follows that

1) 3v0  20 r 2) 2v0  0 r


3) v0  0 r 4) 2v0  30r
66. A uniform thin rod of mass m and length R is placed normally on surface of
earth as shown. The mass of earth is M and its radius is R. Then the
magnitude of gravitational force exerted by earth on the rod is

GMm GMm 4GMm GMm


1) 2) 3) 4)
2 R2 6R2 9R2 8R2

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 29-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-6_Q’P_Code-B(12th Jan)
67. Following are some statements about buoyant force on a body of certain
shape, immersed completely inside ideal fluid. Select the correct statement
(Liquid is of uniform density)
1) Buoyant force depends upon orientation of the concerned body inside the
liquid
2) Buoyant force depends on the density of the body immersed
3) Buoyant force depends on the fact whether the system is on moon or on
the earth
4) Buoyant force depends upon the depth of the body inside the liquid
68. A ball collides elastically with another ball of the same mass. The collision
is oblique and initially one of the balls was at rest. After the collision, the
two balls move with same speeds. What will be the angle between the
velocities of the balls after the collision?
1) 300 2) 450 3) 600 4) 900
69. A satellite is orbiting round the earth’s surface in a circular orbit very close
to the surface of the earth. Then,( compared to all possible orbits of the
given satellite)
1) The total energy of ‘earth plus satellite’ system is minimum.
2) The orbital speed of satellite is maximum.
3) The time period of revolution of satellite is minimum
4) All the above

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 29-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-6_Q’P_Code-B(12th Jan)
70. Consider two identical iron spheres, one which lie on a thermally insulating
plate, while the other hangs from an insulator thread. Equal amount of heat
is supplied to the two spheres : (neglect the heat loss to the surroundings,
these experiments are conducted separately.)

A
B

1) temperature of A will be greater than B


2) temperature of B will be greater than A
3) their temperature will be equal
4) can’t be predicted
71. The circular head of a screw gauge is divided into 200 divisions and move
1 mm ahead in one revolution. If the instrument has a negative zero error of
0.05 mm and the reading on the main scale in measuring diameter of a wire
is 6mm and that on circular scale is 45, find the diameter of the wire.
1) 6.225 mm 2) 6.275 mm
3) 6.175 mm 4) 0.675 cm

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 29-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-6_Q’P_Code-B(12th Jan)
72. In the figure initial status of capacitance and their connection is shown.
Which of the following is incorrect about this circuit:

1) Final charge on each capacitor will be zero


2) Final total electrical energy of the capacitors will be zero
3) Total charge flown from A to D is 30  C
4) Total charge flown from A to D is 60  C
73. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C(without dielectrics) is filled by
dielectric slabs as shown in the figure. Then the new capacitance of the
capacitor is

1) 3.9C 2) 4 C 3) 2.4 C 4) 3 C

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 29-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-6_Q’P_Code-B(12th Jan)
74. The work functions for three different metals A, B and C are
Wa , Wb and Wc respectively where Wa  Wb  Wc . The graph between

stopping potential V0 and frequency  of incident radiation for them


would look like

V0 V0
A BC CBA

 
1) O 2) O

V0 V0
C BA A B
C

 
3) O 4) O

75. If the power factor changes from 1/2 to 1/4 then the increase in impedance
in AC circuit with constant resistance is
1) 20% 2) 50% 3) 25% 4) 100%

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 29-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-6_Q’P_Code-B(12th Jan)
o
76. A solid sphere of radius R1 and volume charge density   is enclosed
r
by a hollow sphere of radius R2 with negative surface charge density  ,
such that the total charge in the system is zero o is a positive constant and
R2
r is the distance from the centre of the sphere. The ratio R is
1

 o
1)  2)  /  o 3) o /  2  4)
o 
77. A beam of natural light falls on a system of 5 polaroids, which are arranged
in succession such that the pass axis of each polaroid is turned through 60°
with respect to the preceding one. The fraction of the incident light
intensity that passes through the system is
1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
64 512 256 128
78. Carbon monoxide is carried around a closed cycle abc, in which bc is an
isothermal process, as shown in the figure. The gas absorbs 7000 J of heat,
as its temperature increased from 300K to 1000K in going from a to b. The
quantity of heat ejected by the gas during the process ca is

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 29-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-6_Q’P_Code-B(12th Jan)

P2 b

P1 c
a

V1 V2

1)4200J 2) 5000 J 3) 9000 J 4) 9800 J


79. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
1) The resistance of intrinsic semiconductors decreases with increase of
temperature
2) Doping pure Si with trivalent impurities give p-type semiconductors
3) The majority carriers in n-type semiconductors are holes
4) A p-n junction can act as a semiconductor diode.
80. Calculate the charge on the capacitor long time after the assembling of the
circuit:
1
4V
3

3
1

 F

1) 5 C 2) 10 C 3) 15 C 4) zero


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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 29-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-6_Q’P_Code-B(12th Jan)
81. An isolated radioactive atom is taken from a radioactive sample whose

halflife is t0 . It is given that the atom is undecayed at time t = 0, Then the


interval in which the probability for the atom to decay is highest is

1) t  0,t0
  2) t  t0 ,3t0
  3) t  2t0 ,7t0  4) t  4t0 ,16t0 
82. An orbital electron in the ground state of hydrogen has magnetic moment
1 . This orbital electron is excited to 3rd excited state by some energy
transfer to the hydrogen atom. The new magnetic moment of the electron is
2 , then
1) 1  42 2) 21  2 3) 161   2 4) 41   2
83. Which of the following is the most appropriate statement regarding an
irreversible expansion of an ideal gas? [Increase in volume of gas is V .
All symbols have their usual meaning]
V
1) The work done by the gas W   0
Pgas dV
V
2) The work done by the gas W   0
Pgas dV

3) The pressure of the gas is not defined during the process


4) The pressure of the gas is greater than surroundings during the process

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 29-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-6_Q’P_Code-B(12th Jan)
84. A particle vibrates in SHM along a straight line. It’s greatest acceleration is
5 2cms 2 and when it’s distance from the equilibrium position is 4cm,
1
the velocity of the particle is 3 cms . Then
1) The amplitude is 5cm
2) The amplitude is 10cm
3) The period of oscillation is 2 sec
4) Both 1 and 3
85. Sound wave of angular frequency  travels with a speed v in a medium
of density  and bulk modulus B. Let k be the propagation constant. If P
and A are the pressure amplitude and displacement amplitude respectively
then the intensity of sound wave is

vP 2 P2 P2
1) 2) 3) 4) All the above
2B 2 B 2v
86. A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and separation between the
plates d, is charged by a constant current I. Consider a plane surface of area
A/2 parallel to the plates and drawn simultaneously between the plates, the
displacement current through this area is:
I I I
1) I 2) 3) 4)
2 4 8
87. The focal lengths of the objective and eye-piece of a microscope are 3cm
and 5cm respectively. If the magnifying power for the relaxed eye is 60
then length of the tube is
1) 30cm 2) 36cm 3) 40cm 4) 25cm
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 29-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-6_Q’P_Code-B(12th Jan)
88. A charged particle of specific charge  is released from origin at time t = 0
 
with velocity V  V0 iˆ  V0 ˆj in magnetic field B  B0iˆ . The coordinates of

the particle at time t  are
B0
 V0 2V0 V   V0 
1)  , ,  2)  2 B  , 0, 0 
 2 B0  B0 B0   0 
 2V0 V0   V0 2V0 
3)  0, B  , 2 B   4)  B  , 0,  B  
 0 0   0 0 
89. Find the torque acting on the current carrying loop, carrying a current I as
shown in the below fig. Given all the sides are of same length ‘a’ and a

uniform magnetic field of B  iˆ exists in the region.

1) 3a Ikˆ 2) a Ikˆ
2
3) 2a Ijˆ
2 2
4) zero
90. A radio signal has a frequency of 10 M Hz. The least length of the antenna
required for the transmission of the signal is
1) 7.5 m 2) 5 m 3) 5.5 m 4) 3.5 m

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 29-12-18_Sr. ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-6_Q’P_Code-B(12th Jan)
Read the following instructions carefully:
1. The candidates should fill in the required particulars on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point Pen.
2. For writing/marking particulars on the Answer Sheet, use Black Ball Point Pen only.
3. The candidates should not write their Roll Numbers anywhere else (except in the specified
space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
4. Out of the four options given for each question, only one option is the correct answer. 5. For
each incorrect response, ¼ (one–fourth) marks of the total marks allotted to the question
(i.e. 1 mark) will be deducted from the total score. No deduction from the total score,
however, will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet.
6. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as under no circumstances (except for
discrepancy in Test Booklet Code and Answer Sheet Code), another set will be provided.
7. The candidates are not allowed to do any rough work or writing work on the Answer Sheet.
All calculations/writing work are to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test
Booklet itself, marked ‘Space for Rough Work’. This space is given at the bottom of each
page of the booklet.
8. On completion of the test, the candidates must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator
on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet
with them.
9. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator.
10. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, should
leave his/her seat.
11. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator and any Electronic device like mobile phone, pager etc. is
prohibited.
12. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Examination body with
regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as
per Rules and Regulations of the Examination body.
13. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
14. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers,
pager, mobile phone, electronic device or any other material except the Admit Card inside the
examination room/hall.

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