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A right Choice for the Real Aspirant
ICON CENTRAL OFFICE, MADHAPUR - HYD
Sec: Sr. ICON ALL Date: 28-12-18
Time: 09:00 AM to 12:00 Noon Max.Marks:360
: in words______________________________________________________________
Jee Main_GTM-5
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr.ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-B(09th Jan)
This booklet contains 32 printed pages. The Booklet Code
PAPER: MATHEMATICS, PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS: 09th Jan Students
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with only Black Ball Point Pen.
3. The test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
4. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each
correct response.
5. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 4 for correct response of each question
1/4 (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from
the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
6. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each question will
be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction 5
above.
7. Use Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/marking responses on the Answer Sheet.
8. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc., except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.
9. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is given
at the bottom of each page.
10. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
11. Also tally the serial number of the booklet and Answer sheet are the same as that on this booklet in case of
discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the invigilator for replacement of both the
test booklet and Answer Sheet.
12. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet.
1) 1 2) log10
e 3) 10 4) No such x exists
50
2. If A is a matrix such that A2 I and if A I aA bI then
2 3 4 50
a 2 b2 a3 b3 a 4 b4
..... a50 b50
1) 0 2) 25050 3) 22001 4) 21275
3. The number of real values of '' a " for which the system of equations
2ax 2 y 3z 0, x ay 2 z 0 and 2 x az 0 has a nontrivial solutions
is
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
4. If , are the roots of the equation x 2 2 x 3 0 then the equation whose
1) x 2 3x 2 0 2) x 2 3x 2 0
3) x 2 3x 2 0 4) x2 2 x 3 0
5. If 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 ..... 0 then value of
4 3
5 7 9 11 13
1 1 1 1
..... is
1 3 5 7 9 11 13 15
1) 2) 3) 4)
8 6 4 36
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr.ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-B(09th Jan)
6. If a1, a2 , a3 ,..... be terms of an AP
a1 a2 ..... a p p2 a6
If , p q then
a1 a2 .... aq q2 a21
41 7 2 11
1) 2) 3) 4)
11 2 7 41
7. The negation of s r s is
1) s r 2) s r s 3) s r s 4) s r
8. Let A and B two sets containing 2 and 4 elements respectively. The number
subsets of A B having 3 or more elements is
1) 256 2) 220 3) 219 4) 211
9. Let N denote the set of all natural numbers and R be relation on N N
defined by (a, b) R c, d if ad ( b + c) = bc (a + d) then R is
1) Symmetric only 2) Reflexive only
3) Transitive only 4) Equivalence
10. 10 sealed envelopes contain five ‘A’s, three ‘B’ s, two ‘C’s One in each.
Students ranked 1 to 10 are asked to pickup one envelope each at random in
the same ranking order i.e student ranked 1 will pickup first, one envelope
at random and then student ranked 2 will pickup one envelope from
remaining, then ranked 3 pickup one from remaining and so on. When the
8th ranked student goes to select the envelope, the probability that the
remaining three envelopes contain one A, one B, one C is ____
1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 3 12 10
1) 3a 2 26a 55 0 2) 3a 2 32a 84 0
3) 3a 2 34a 91 0 4) 3a 2 23a 44 0
12. A team of four students is to be selected from a total of 12 students. The
total number of ways in which the team can be selected such that two
particular students refuse to be together and other two particular students
wish to be together only is equal to
1) 220 2) 182 3) 226 4) 495
13. The angle between the planes r .2 i j 2k 3 and
r .3i 6 j 2k 4 is _____
16 4 1 3
1) cos1 2) sin1 3) cos1 4) cos1
21 21 4 4
14. If two vertices of a triangle are 2,3 and 5, 1 , and its orthocenter is
the origin and centroid lies on the line x y 7 , then the third vertex is
4 112 112 64 4 12
1) , 2) 3) , 4) 9,7
11 11 11 11
,
11 11
15. In a ABC is A 1, 2 and internal angular bisectors through B and C are
1) 0 2) a 2 b 2 c 2
ab bc ca
3)
2 2
3
a b2 c2 4)
3
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr.ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-B(09th Jan)
21. The plane 4 x 7 y 4 z 81 0 is rotated through a right angle about its
line of intersection with the plane 5 x 3 y 10 z 25 . The equation of the
plane in its new position is
1) x 4 y 6 z 102 2) x 8 y 13z 103
3) x 4 y 6 z 110 4) x 8 y 13 z 106
2 x 23 x 6
22. Lt
x 2 2 x
2 1 x
1) 12 2) 4 3) 8 4) 12
x 2 ax 1 x is rational
23. A function f x is defined as f x is
ax 2 2 x b x is irrational
continuous at x 1 and x 2 then the point P a, blies on
1) y-axis 2) x y 2 0
3) 2 x y 1 0 4) 2 x y 1 0
24. The three sides of a trapezium are equal, each being 8cm .The area of
trapezium, when it is maximum is
1) 24 3 sq.cm 2) 48 3 sq.cm
3) 72 3 sq.cm 4) 12 3 sq.cm
n x 2 1 dx , c is constant of integration
25. x2
c
n x 2 1
1)
2
n x 2 1
c 2)
x 2
1 2
2 x2 1 ln 2 1
3)
x 2 1 ln 21
c 4)
x 2 1 ln 2
c
2 ln 2 1 2 ln 2 1
1
xy is ______ sq.units
2
1) 1 ln 2 2) 3 ln 2 3) 3 2 ln 2 4) 1 2 ln 2
28. If c is arbitrary constant, then the sum of order and degree of differential
equation whose general solution representing family of curves
y 2 2c x c is
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) Can’t be determined
1 1 2
29. Number of solutions satisfying the equation in
sin x sin 2 x sin 4 x
0, 4 is
1) 0 2) 2 3) 4 4) 6
30. The angle of elevation of a tower CD at a point A due south of it is 60 and
at a point B due west of A the elevation is 30 . If AB 3 mt then height of
the tower is _____ mt
3 3 3 6
1) 2 3 2) 2 6 3) 4)
2 4
m1 a0
m2
x
Then choose the correct acceleration (a) versus displacement (x) graph.
a a
x
x
1) 2)
a a
3) 4)
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr.ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-B(09th Jan)
35. The breaking stress for a wire of certain material and radius ‘r’ is B . If
another wire of same material but twice the radius breaks at tension F, then
F
find
B r 2
1) 8 2) 4 3) 3 4) 2
36. A diatomic ideal gas is heated at constant volume until the pressure is
doubled and then heated at constant pressure until volume is doubled. The
average molar specific heat capacity for the entire process is
13R 19R 23R 17R
1) 2) 3) 4)
6 6 6 6
37. Two long co – axial and conducting cylinders of radius a and b (b > a) have
the gap between them filled with a material of conductivity . A constant
potential difference V is maintained between the two cylindrical shells. The
current per unit length flowing from one cylinder to the other is
4 4 2 2
1) V 2) V 3) V 4) V
b
l n
b a b
l n
b a
a a
38. In the circuit shown the current through
3 2 2
/\/\/\/\/\/\ /\/\/\/\/\/\ /\/\/\/\/\/\
/\/\/\/\/\/\
/\/\/\/\/\/\
/\/\/\/\/\/\
9V 8 8 4
/\/\/\/\/\/\/\
R1 500
15 V
/\/\/\/\/\/\/\
R2 1500
43. The adjoining figure represents the observed intensity of X – rays emitted
by two different tubes A and B as a function of wavelength . For the tube
A, the potential difference between the filament and target is VA and
atomic number of target is ZA . For the tube B, corresponding potential
difference is VB and the atomic number is ZB . The solid curve is for tube A
and dotted curve for tube B; then:
1) ZA ZB ;VA VB 2) ZA ZB ;VA VB
3) ZA ZB ;VA VB 4) ZA ZB ; VA VB
44. Gravitational potential on the surface of an isolated uniform solid sphere of
mass M and radius R is found to be V0 . A spherical cavity having radius R/2
is created inside the sphere which is touching the surface of original sphere.
The cavity is then filled with material having density 16 times that of
original sphere. A, B, C and D are consecutive points as shown in the figure
each R/2 apart. Gravitational potential at D is
D C B A
19 13
1) V0 2) 7V0 3) V0 4) zero
4 4
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr.ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-B(09th Jan)
45. In the given figure a ring of mass m, is kept on a horizontal surface while a
body of equal mass ‘m’ attached through a light string, which is wounded
on the ring. When the system is released the ring rolls without slipping.
Choose the correct option. (Neglect mass of the pulley)
m
Ring Pulley
2g
1) Acceleration of the centre of mass of ring is
3
2g
2) Acceleration of the hanging body is
3
3) Frictional force (on the ring) acts towards right
4) Frictional force (on the ring) acts towards left
46. One end of an ideal spring is fixed at point O and other end is attached to a
small disc of mass m which is given an initial velocity v0 perpendicular to
its length on a smooth horizontal surface. If the maximum elongation of the
l0
spring is then ( l0 = natural length, k = stiffness of the spring) ( initially
4
the spring is in it’s natural length)
V0
O
v
1) Velocity at maximum elongation is 0
5
3v0
2) Velocity at maximum elongation is
5
5l0 k
3) v0
12 m
l0 k
v
4) 0
12 m
47. The chain of length L is released from rest on a smooth fixed incline with
x = 0 as shown in the figure. Determine velocity v of the chain when a half
of the length has fallen in m/s. (Neglect edge effect of inclined).
0
30
5 3g l gl 8gl
1) gl 2) 3) 4)
8 8 8 5
30 d D=3m O
B
Screen
1) the intensity at O is 4 I0
2) the intensity at O is zero
3) the intensity at a point on the screen 4mm from O is 4 I0
4) the intensity at a point on the screen 4mm from O is zero
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr.ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-B(09th Jan)
51. Two coherent narrow slits emitting light of wavelength in the same phase
are placed parallel to each other at a small separation of 3 . The light is
collected on a screen S which is placed at a distance D from the slits.
The smallest distance x such that the P is a maxima
[exclude x = 0]
P
x
x
x x O
S1 S2
D
1) 3 D 2) 8D 3) 5 D 4) 5
2
52. Charge Q coulombs is uniformly distributed throughout the volume of a
solid hemisphere of radius R metres. Then the potential at centre O of the
hemisphere in volts is
1 Q 1 3Q 1 Q 1 3Q
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 0 8R 4 0 4R 4 0 4R 4 0 2R
2 2
1) î 2) î 3) î 4) î
2 0 R 2 0 R 4 0R 4 0R
54. The magnetic field due to a current carrying square loop of side ‘a’ at a
point P located symmetrically at a distance of a/2 from its centre (as shown)
is
P
a /2
2 0 i 0 i 2 0 i
1) 2) 3) 4) zero
3 a 6 a 3 a
55. Figure shows a circuit consisting of a series combination of alternating
voltage source, a switch, an inductor and a light bulb. The switch is closed,
and the circuit is allowed to come to equilibrium, so that the light bulb
L Iron
~ S
1 1
1) BV1l 2) BV2l 3) B V2 V1 l 4) B V2 V1 l
2 2
i) HNO2 HF H 2 F NO2
P Q R S P Q R S
1) A C D B 2) B D C A
3) D A B C 4) A B D C
70. An aqueous solution of " X " is added slowly to an aqueous solution of "Y "
as shown in List-I. The variation in conductivity of these reaction given in
List-II. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the
code given the list.
X
Y
Energy
Re action
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr.ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-B(09th Jan)
1) A two-step exothermic reaction having an activation energy = X
2) A two-step endothermic reaction having an activation energy = Y
3) A two-step exothermic reaction having an activation energy = Y
4) A two-step endothermic reaction having an activation energy = X
72. Identify the incorrect statement amongst the following
1) Liquid nitrogen does not sticks to the polls of magnet whereas liquid
oxygen does.
2) NO2 is brown in colour at room temperature but colourless below 00C.
3) Bond order of CN and N2 are equal but CN is more reactive
4) NO+ is having lower bond strength than NO.
73. The hybridization of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO2 , NO3 and NH 4
respectively are
1) sp, sp 3 and sp 2 2) sp, sp 2 and sp 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
83. Reagents required to perform the given transformation is
1) 2)
3) 4)
88. Which of the following compounds will not dissolve in aqueous NaOH?
1) 2)
3) 4)
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 28-12-18_Sr.ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-5_Q’P_Code-B(09th Jan)
H
NaI
H3C Br
acetone
[X]
C2 H5
89. In the given reaction [X] will be
H H
H3C I I CH3
C2H5 C2 H5
1) 2)
H3 C
CH3
3) Mixture of (1) and (2) 4)
90. Tautomer of which of the following can show geometrical isomerism
1) CH3–CHO 2) CH3CH2–CHO
O
3) (CH3)2CH–CH=O 4)