Disclaimer:

We received a similar board compilation last year. Even though only a few topics were similar from the previous exam, please don’t
forget to pay it forward to the next batch. Having this compilation helped me focus nung malapit na yung boards. Parang measure ko siya na kung
sakali matanong yung questions na to ulit, masasagot ko ba? Testmanship is important kasi minsan wala kang magagawa kundi mageliminate na
lang ng choices. Always remain humble and pray for inner peace and guidance. You made it this far and have already been greater than you have
ever imagined. Keep on moving forward.

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Make sure to master the basic sciences first before going to the 2 week subjects. Mastery of the basics will really help you have an easy
time to study the specialty subjects. Do not memorize everything in one sitting, but try to understand everything that you have read each time you
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review. The 2 reading will be the time that you will memorize. After you have read all the handouts or books per subject, make sure to study First
Aid for USMLE – THIS BOOK IS VERY HIGH YIELD AND IT WILL HELP YOU CORRELATE EVERYTHING.

As much as possible don’t believe in superstitions about the board exam. Sabi nila, wala namang mawawala pag naniwala ka sa mga
kasabihan. Pero sa totoo, ang nawawala ay yung faith mo kay God. PRAY HARD! But do not just pray. Study. STUDY HARD! Ora et Labora – Prayer
and Work. REST IF YOU MUST, BUT NEVER GIVE UP. Lastly, TRUST YOURSELF! YOU CAN DO IT! ANIMO!

COMPILATION DAY 1

BIOCHEM – Topnotch Handout + USMLE

TIPS FOR BIOCHEM: Master the topnotch handout. Make sure that you have also mastered Physiology and Pharmacology before taking this test,
because there were a lot of questions that were more of Pharmacology and Physiology rather than Biochemistry. Read end chapter questions of
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BRS Biochemistry and Harper’s 29 edition (a lot of copied questions).

1. How many net molecules of ATP are generated in the conversion of glucose to pyruvate? Two (2)
2. after 1 week of starvation? Brain uses glucose and ketone bodies as fuel sources
3. Essential Amino Acids: PVT TIM HALL always ARGues never TYRes
4. A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme: Inc Km but does not affect Vm
5. Not present in DNA? Uracil
6. Tetracycline, streptomycin and erythromycin inhibit: Protein synthesis in prokaryotes
7. vitamins required for reactions in the oxidation of pyruvate to CO2 and H20 except: Biotin
8. Prostaglandins can be derived from: Arachidonic Acid
9. Characterteristic of spingosine? Has a palmitoyl CoA and serine as precursors
10. characteristic of prostaglandins? synthesized from PUFA
11. In the conversion of cholesterol to bile salts? The double bond is reduced
12. RDS in premature newborns is caused by deficiency in the lungs of? Phosphatidylcholine
13. Primary bile acids? Cholic acid and Chenodeoxycholic acid (primary starts with “C”)
14. NO is derived from? Arginine
15. Glycine is an important precursor in the pathway for the biosynthesis of each of the following except ? Valine
16. The plasma and urine of patients with maple syrup urine disease contain elevated levels of each of the following AA except? Lysine
17. acts to increase the release of Ca from the ER? IP3
18. can be synthesized in humans? Niacin (Vit B3) – all other choices were EAA and EFA
19. essential fatty acid? Linoleic acid – Omega 6 and Linolenic Acid – Omega-3 (Arachidonic acid will only be essential if Linoleic is deficient)
20. Hemoglobin structure.. 2α2 β
21. Pellagra like manifestation may be seen in deficiency of this essential AA? Tryptophan
22. Cofactor for the synthesis of GABA, serotonin, epinephrine, dopamine and histamine from their respective precursor? Pyridoxal
phosphate
23. Type of bond of secondary protein structure?
24. True of Bohr effect?
25. True of spontaneous reactions?
26. During prolonged starvation which of the following AA can contribute most significantly to ketogenesis? Leucine
27. coenzyme of a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase?
28. competitive inhibiton of enzymes, which is true? Substrate and inhibitor resemble each other and binds to active site
29. GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter derived from glutamate through the process of? Decarboxylation (Enzyme is Glutamate
Decarboxylase)
30. Largest form of stored energy in the body? TAG in adipose tissue (Can produce 106 ATPs –new; 129 ATPS old)
31. Which immunoglobulin can pass the placenta? IgG
32. Which of the following statements correctly describes bile salts? They can act as detergents aiding in lipid digestions
33. The major function of skeletal muscle glycogen is to? Furnish immediate fuel supply during muscle activity
34. Which metabolic fuel does not cross the plancental barrier and thus cannot be sued as a source of fuel for the fetus? FA
35. which is a characteristic of fuel utilization by the heart muscle cells? The substrate of choice is fatty acids and the least preferred is
glucose
36. Major hormone implicated in DM? Insulin
37. Isoenzymes are types of enzymes that? Differ in AA sequence but catalyse the same chemical reaction
38. Which of the following causes a shift to left in the oxyhemoglobin curve?
39. A sample of DNA-RNA hybrid is to be examines for its component. The best method to utilize is? Northern blot
40. Deficiency of this vitamin causes hemolytic anemia? Vit. E
41. Type of mutation which results in a new codon specifying a different AA which may or may not cause variation in protein functions is
known as:? Missense
42. If 20% of DNA consists Guanosine nucleotides, how many percent are thymidine nucleotides? 30% (Chargaff’s Rule)
43. Major source of ATP production in the skeletal muscles of marathon runner? Oxidative phosphorylation
44. Which of the ff inhibits translocation during protein synthesis in prokaryotes? Erythromycin
45. Question on trypsin
46. Question on pepsinogen
 47. Which one of the following statements about the free energy change (ΔG) in a biochemical reaction is CORRECT? If ΔG is negative, the
reaction proceeds spontaneously with a loss of free energy.
48. A blood sample is taken from a 40-year-old man has been fasting completely for a week, drinking only water. Which of the following will
be at a higher concentration than after a normal overnight fast? Ketone bodies
49. Which one of following statements about the fed and fasting metabolic states is correct? In the fasting state glucagon acts to increase
the activity of lipoprotein lipase in adipose tissue.
50. Which one of following statements about the fed and fasting metabolic states is correct? Ketone bodies provide the main fuel for the
central nervous system in the fasting state.
51. Effects of fasting on TGA, LDL, etc.
52. Master fed vs fast state
53. Bonds between tertiary amino acids
54. Tastant of umami? Glutamate
55. Familiarize yourself with HMP pathway
56. Action of Hormone Sensitive Lipase
57. Cofactors of Dehydrogenases
58. Cofactor of Carboxylase: Biotin
59. Bilirubin Metabolism
60. Oxygen Dissociation Curve
61. Major Source of fuel for glucose according to the number of days of fasting
62. Master Gluconeogenesis
63. Major fuel store of the body: FAT!
64. Energy store of Carbs, Protein, Fat: 4,4,9 kcal/g
65. Fed vs Fasting State: what pathways will be activated? What enzymes will be phosphorylated/dephosphorylated?
66. Entropy vs enthalpy. Which of the following reactions will be spontaneous?
67. Competitive vs non competitive antagonist
68. Kwashiorkor vs Marasmus
69. What form of urea is excreted by humans?
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70. Make sure to read on end chapter questions of BRS Biochemistry and Harper’s 29 edition.

ANATOMY – Snell or Topnotch Handout + DLSHSI Lecture + USMLE

TIPS FOR ANATOMY: Make sure to attend the Anatomy review in HSI. It will make your life a lot easier in Anatomy, VERY HIGH YIELD. And also,
make sure that before attending the 3 day review in HSI, you have to have at least read the Topnotch reviewer or Snell before the class, so that
Anatomy will not be that much of an “alien” subject to you. Anatomy, together with Surgery was one of the few subjects which asked direct
questions during the boards (same examiner I guess, who was very kind to give easy to moderately hard questions) – meaning, most are recall, as
long as you have mastered the subject.

1. immunoglobin present in the mucosa? IgA

2. lateral rotator of the thigh?
3. allows limited movement? Intervetebral disc
4. Which of the following is the special function of epithelial cells?
5. Border of Calot’s triangle are cystic duct, lower border of liver and? Common hepatic duct
6. All of the following passes into the carpal tunnel except? ulnar nerve
7. Muscle of the floor of the mouth that can be separates the submental and __ and involved in the dental abscess: Mylohoid
8. Which of the following structures are increasing in number from the proximal conducting system towards the terminal bronchioles?
smooth muscles
9. Which among the following is bicuspid? Mitral Valve
10. A surgeon is about to perform cholecystectomy. The gallbladder can be localized in its fossa between the right lobe and? Quadrate Lobe
11. The 2nd rib is atypical because of this feature? tuberosity for serratus anterior
12. A 40/M, a known case of coronary artery disease, experiences severe crushing pain in the chest referred to the medial side of the arm
and armpit. Which nerve is responsible for the referred pain to the medial side of the arm? Intercostobrachial nerve
13. A 24/M, a member of the college varsity swimming team, comes in to you complaining of shoulder pain. On examination, you note pain
on the shoulder while in the mid-range of abduction. You are considering rotator cuff tendinitis, all of the following are components of
rotator cuff muscles except? Teres major
14. Which is affected by Klumpke paralysis? Distal branch of the brachial plexus
15. A 35/M, known case of Pott's disease, developed a psoas abscess.. On PE, you noted that he had 1+ patellar tendon reflex on the same
side and he had difficulty walking. What nerve is involved? Femoral nerve
16. A 24/M basketball player lands awkwardly from a rebound, and feels that his right knee has hyperextended, bent inward and popped.
The knee becomes swollen over the next few hours. On PE, you note a positive Lachman test. The patient has suffered a tear in the
ligament which prevents: Anterior displacement of the tiba on the femur
17. The nasolacrimal duct drains into which recess? Inferior meatus
18. vertebral level of xiphod process?T10
19. Dermatomal level of little toe? S1
20. Which among the following dermatomal level innervation is incorrect? S1 – perineum
21. Weight bearing joint that connects with the tibia
22. Specialized oval structure in the ears that is responsible for hearing?
23. Type of arteries in skeletal muscle? Continuous artery
24. Structure is transmitted by the inferior orbital foramen? infraorbital vein
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25. percussion of the borders of the heart extends from the sternum until? 5 LMCL
26. Which abdominal layer is found most superficial? Camper’s Fascia
27. Which is found in the frontal lobe? Broca’s Area
28. Which lobe is responsible for vision? Occipital
29. Tongue innervation of the anterior 2/3….
30. Not involved in taste sensation? Hypoglossal nerve
31. The blood supply of the appendix comes directly from: Ileocolic Artery
32. Which type of pelvis presents with a larger AP diameter compared to the transverse diameter? Anthropoid
33. A 33-year-old patient is suffering from a sudden occlusion at the origin of the descending (thoracic) aorta. This condition would most
likely decrease blood flow in which of the following intercostal arteries? Lower six posterior
 34. All of the posterior intercostal arteries came from the thoracic aorta except for the supreme intercostal artery which is a branch of?
Subclavian artery
35. Origin of blood supply of the suprarenal glands except? Superior mesenteric artery
36. Epithelial lining of the urinary bladder? Transitional epithelium
37. Cricoid cartilage can be seen at what vertebral level? C6
38. Which is a retroperitoneal organ? Duodenum
39. The moderator band of the heart which is unique to the right ventricle is responsible for the?
40. True of the bucket handle theory
41. Pain due to kidney stone is due to the innervation of the genitofemoral nerve which can radiate to the following structure?
42. What muscle can be found in between the tendon of tibialis posterior…….
43. Renal artery
44. True of anterverted uterus
45. Which of the ff muscles narrows the laryngeal inlet? Oblique arytenoid
46. Which one of the following process requires energy? Active transport
47. Howell Jolly bodies is comprised of?
48. Which among the following blood lineage does not differentiate anymore…
49. True of C fibers…
50. Dopamine is secreted by? mesencephalon
51. Narrowest part of the larynx in infants? Cricoid
52. Reticulocytes can be stained using? Romanowsky Stain
53. Blood supply of adrenals
54. Left vs Right renal vein
55. Rotator Cuff muscles: SItS
56. Perineal body origin and insertion
57. Nutcracker Syndrome
58. Romanowsky body
59. Effect of low calcium in body
60. Referred pain in ureteral stone – genitofemoral nerve
61. Lateral Rotator of Hip – Gluteus max
62. Klumpke – C8-T1
63. Foot Drop – Common Peroneal Nerve
64. Calcitonin – Parafollicular Cells
65. Hoarseness in a patient – Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve
66. Bladder – Transitional Epithelium
67. Part of spermatic cord except? Ductus Arteriosus
68. Head and neck nerves example chorda tympani is a branch of facial nerve for taste
69. What forms the rectus sheath below xiphoid process up to umbilicus
70. Procedure of choice for a pituitary tumor? Transphenoidal surgery
71. Sellick’s maneuver – Cricoid Pressure
72. Auscultatory location of the heart can be found at the?
73. Pringles Maneuver, what structure is not compressed
74. Functions of PTH vs Calcitonin, what cells will secrete them?
75. Degree associated with a retroflexed, anteverted uterus
76. Where is Angiotensin Converting Enzyme found
77. Master branches of the Aorta
78. Concept of water under the bridge applies to?
79. Which of the following drains directly to the IVC
80. Constrictions of the ureter

MICROBIOLOGY – USMLE + Antimicrobials section USMLE

TIPS FOR MICROBIOLOGY: One of the challenging exams last boards. Testmanship will be one of your friends during this exam. The exam was much
like for Medical Technologist rather than for Physicians. Mycology questions were hard. Don’t panic! If you don’t know the answer, skip it, but
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make sure you have read the question and the choices before skipping it, so that when you read it for the 2 time, you don’t have to read the very
long cases again, or try to cancel at least one among the choices.

1. Pox virus
2. Mentagrophyte rubrum
3. Mentagrophyte manum
4. Trichomoniasis
5. DOC for Trichuris trichura
6. Bacterial Vaginosis
7. Candidiasis
8. Charcoal Yeast Extract: Culture media for Legionella
9. Panton Valentine Leukocidin
10. Worm with slender head and long body
11. Mammillary/ Albuminous ova – Ascaris
12. Adult morphology of male vs female roundworm
13. Viral vs Bacterial meningitis, CSF results
14. Gardener, no sporothrix in choices
15. Washerwoman who keeps going into the water with lesions on her legs
16. Culture agars and morphology in stains and IF
17. State of Anergy
18. Epidermophytes
19. Dengue
20. Rabies
21. Romanowsky stain- reticulocyte; Romanowsky Body
COMPILATION DAY 2

PHYSIOLOGY – BRS Physiology + Kaplan Videos + Youtube + USMLE

TIPS FOR PHYSIOLOGY: This was a hard subject. Hard in the sense that the questions were too long and the choices were hard to cancel out, only to
find out after taking the boards that roughly 30-40 questions were directly copied from end chapter questions of Ganong and BRS Physiology. I
would like to stress this, DO NOT TRY TO MEMORIZE THE END CHAPTER QUESTIONS, BUT MAKE SURE TO READ ON IT, WHAT’S IMPORTANT IS YOU
UNDERSTAND IT DURING YOUR REVIEW DAYS. BUT COME DAY 2 OF THE BOARDS, THAT’S THE TIME THAT YOU WILL CRAM ON MEMORIZING THE
ANSWERS OF THE END CHAPTER QUESTIONS (ALL ABOUT TESTMANSHIP AND SHORT TERM MEMORY WHEN WORSE COMES TO WORST)

1. Solutions A and B are separated by a semipermeable membrane that is permeable to K+ but not to Cl−. Solution A is 100 mM KCl, and
solution B is 1 mM KCl. Which of the following statements about solution A and solution B is true? K+ will diffuse from solution A to
solution B until a membrane potential develops with solution A negative with respect to solution B
2. In a hospital error, a 60-year-old woman is infused with large volumes of a solution that causes lysis of her red blood cells (RBCs). The
solution was most likely? 300 mM urea
3. Which of the following is an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system (CNS)? γ-Aminobutyric acid (GABA)
4. Which autonomic receptor mediates an increase in heart rate?Adrenergic β1 receptors
5. A ballet dancer spins to the left. During the spin, her eyes snap quickly to the left. This fast eye movement is? nystagmus
6. The ventricles are completely depolarized during which isoelectric portion of the electrocardiogram (ECG)? ST segment
7. In the sinoatrial (SA) node, phase 4 depolarization (pacemaker potential) is attributable to? increase in Na+ conductance
8. During which phase of the cardiac cycle does second heart sound occur? Isovolumetric ventricular relaxation
9. During which phase of the cardiac cycle is ventricular volume lowest? Isovolumetric ventricular relaxation
10. Sodium conductance in the Brain is susceptible to changes of the following except?
11. Which receptor mediates slowing of the heart? Muscarinic receptors
12. An infant born prematurely in gestational week 25 has neonatal respiratory distress syndrome. Which of the following would be expected
in this infant? Collapse of the small alveoli
13. A 35-year-old man has a vital capacity (VC) of 5 L, a tidal volume (Vt) of 0.5 L, an inspiratory capacity of 3.5 L, and a functional residual
capacity (FRC) of 2.5 L. What is his expiratory reserve volume (ERV)? 1.5 L
14. Secretion of K+ by the distal tubule will be decreased by? spironolactone administration
15. Which of the following is an action of parathyroid hormone (PTH) on the renal tubule? Stimulation of adenylate cyclase
16. Cholecystokinin (CCK) inhibits? gastric emptying
17. When parietal cells are stimulated, they secrete? HCl and intrinsic factor
18. 41-year-old woman has hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, and decreased urinary phosphate excretion. Injection of parathyroid
hormone (PTH) causes an increase in urinary cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP). The most likely diagnosis is? hypoparathyroidism
after thyroid surgery
19. Question about poiseulle’s law
20. Odorant receptors are? located on neurons in the olfactory epithelium that project to mitral cells and from there directly to the
olfactory cortex.
21. Narcolepsy is triggered by abnormalities in the? hypothalamus.
22. The optic chiasm and corpus callosum are sectioned in a dog, and with the right eye covered, the animal is trained to bark when it sees a
red square. The right eye is then uncovered and the left eye covered. The animal will now? respond promptly to the red square in spite
of the lack of input to the left occipital cortex.
23. The effects of bilateral loss of hippocampal function include? production of inappropriate emotional responses when recalling events of
the recent past.
24. Which of the following is not a steroid? relaxin
25. ECG finding in first degree heart block?
26. Which part of the ECG corresponds to ventricular repolarization? the T wave
27. The dicrotic notch on the aortic pressure curve is caused by? closure of the aortic valve. S2
28. The velocity of blood flow? is higher in the veins than in the venules.
29. Which of the following causes relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle? vasoactive intestinal polypeptide
30. What is the clearance of a substance when its concentration in the plasma is 10 mg/dL, its concentration in the urine is 100 mg/dL, and
urine flow is 2 mL/min? 20 mL/min
31. Dehydration increases the plasma concentration of all the following hormones except? atrial natriuretic peptide.
32. Master actions of PTH and Vit. D
33. Computation of ERV, given other lung volumes
34. Baroreceptor concept
35. Macula densa action
36. Isolumetrix relaxation: S2
37. Make sure to check end chapter questions of ganong, BRS.

LEGAL MEDICINE AND MEDICAL JURISPRUDENCE – Handouts + UERM Reviewer

TIPS FOR LEGAL MEDICINE AND JURISPRUDENCE: Do not neglect this subject. One of the subjects that will give your average score a lift. Answer a
lot of recall questions and make sure to rationalize it. That is more than enough.

1. Qualified seduction
2. Icard’s Test
3. Illegal possession of prohibited drugs: minimum amount before one can go to prison
4. IQ levels
5. Manceras
6. Reckless and simple imprudence
7. What is the penalty for giving an unqualified med cert
8. Everything is in the handout/books/lecture. Make sure to master this subject.
9. Make sure to check the UERM review questions, rationalizing the questions and the choices there will give you a very good grade for
this subject.
PATHOLOGY – Topnotch Handout + USMLE

TIPS FOR PATHOLOGY: Do not be intimidated by the long questions and the sequential questioning. Make sure to look for clues in the question or
choices. Look for buzz words or buzz descriptions.

1. This disease is characterized by a distinctive heliotrope discoloration of the upper eyelids with periorbital edema that may accompany or
precede the onset of muscle disease? Dermatomyositis
2. Cases of pneumonia depending on the chest xray results, identify specifically the etiologic organisms:
a. Linear vertical streaks – viral
b. Pleural effusion – h. influenza, legionella
c. Patchy interstital, diffuse, perihilar – mycoplasma
d. Consolidation – s. pneumonia
e. With preference to lower lobes –
3. Nephro cases
4. Patient experienced hematuria, flank pain, abdominal mass…intraoperative a yellowish bulky mass was noted at the kidney. What the
diagnosis? Options were: Neuroblastoma, Wilm’s Tumor and Renal Cell Ca. Another variation of this question was the mass crosses the
midline with same choices.
5. Membrane proteins that recognize a variety of microbe-derived molecules and stimulate innate immune responses against the microbes?
Toll-like receptors
6. Deficiency of which enzyme is seen in gaucher’s disease? Glucosidase
7. Case of multiple myeloma
a. Patient complaining of back pain, weight loss with xray showing punched out lytic bone lesions on the spine. Which is the most
likely diagnosis ? Multiple myeloma
b. What finding is expected to be seen in the kidney biopsy?
c. How long is the life expectancy from time of diagnosis?
10. Case of Kawasaki…. What type of blood vessels are affected? Medium-sized
11. Cytokine involved in proliferation of bone marrow and T cells? IL-2
12. A 23-year old medical student who had overnight binge drinking suddenly developed boring abdominal pain relieved by doubling up.
Serum amylase and lipase were elevated. What type of necrosis occurs when pancreatic lipases were released in the substance of the
pancreas and peritoneal cavity? Fat necrosis
13. A 37-year-old woman presents with the acute onset of a productive cough, fever, chills, and pleuritic chest pain. CBC showed leukocytosis
with predominance of neutrophils. A chest x-ray reveals consolidation of the entire lower lobe of her right lung. Which of the following is
the most likely diagnosis? Lobar pneumonia
14. Case of SSPE
Teenager who suddenly presented with right sided weakness of the body, positive kernig sign etc, no other prominent in the history except for
previous varicella infection 2 weeks ago.
a. What is expected to be seen in the autopsy of the brain?
b. Question about measles
c. Treatment on measles….
15. Case of nephroblastoma
16. Case of asthma. Which of the following is the most likely histologic finding in this patient's airways? Bronchial smooth muscle
hypertrophy with proliferation of eosinophils
17. Case of bronchiectasis. Which of the following is the most likely histologic finding in this patient's airways? Permanent bronchial dilation,
which is filled with mucus and neutrophils
18. Case of COPD. Which of the following is the most likely histologic finding in airway remodeling?
19. How does TB granulation affect the heart.
20. Bronchongenic Carcinoma
21. B cell vs T cell
22. Cholesterolosis
23. Type 3 Hypersensitivity Reaction with histologic findings
24. Hemosiderin-laden: Pulmonary Edema
25. Multiple Myeloma: description of bence jones protein
26. Most common location of Gastric Ca
27. Chronic Bronchitis
28. Antemortem vs Postmortem Clots
29. Types of Hemolysis
30. Eczema
31. Lobular Carcinoma In situ
32. Crohn’s vs Ulcerative Colitis
33. Case series on HMole. A woman who was 8 weeks pregnant consulted for vaginal bleeding with passage of meaty material. D and C was
done. A few months after the procedure, there was recurrence of vaginal bleeding. What will you request first: Serial HCG, Ultrasound,
Endometrial and Cervical Biopsy?
34. A patient consulted for stabbing chest pain radiating to the arm, unrelieved by rest 1 week ago, suspecting he had an MI what laboratory
test would you order? CKMB, CKMM, Trop I?
35. Other than the liver, what other organ undergoes fatty change?
36. Types of Abortion
COMPILATION DAY 3

PHARMACOLOGY – Topnotch Handout + USMLE

TIPS FOR PHARMACOLOGY: Before studying this subject, make sure that you have a very good background of Physiology. Physiology is the
backbone for this subject. A lot of memorization for this subject. Again, Physiology is the key to Pharmacology. I also suggest that you make your
own handwritten summary table/chart for you to have easier categorizations of the different drugs. First Aid for USMLE contains very high yield
sections in Pharmacology, if you are having a hard time with the handouts, you may check the First Aid book and hopefully it will make your
Pharma studying easier.

1. A patient is taking warfarin. If drug A is given which affects the enzyme CYP450, which of the following effects will be observed?
a. Taking Rifampicin will reduce its metabolism.
b. He needs to take an increased dose of warfarin
c. His doctor needs to decrease the dose of Warfarin
d. No change is needed
2. DOC for Malaria prophylaxis
3. If a woman with seizures maintained on Lamotrigine found out she was pregnant, she has had no recurrence of seizure for 5 months.
What would you advise her?
a. Continue taking the drug.
b. Increase dose of the drug
c. Shift drug to Carbamazepine
d. Give the drug every other day.
4. A man maintained on NTG for angina noticed that his once a day daily dosing of NTG no longer works and he experiences angina
everyday despite rest. What will you advice?
a. Give 2 tabs on the same time everyday
b. Convert to patch
c. Continue OD dosing but to be taken at different times of the day
d. Rest some more
5. DOC for meningococcal prophylaxis
6. Patient with African sleeping sickness with cerebral manifestations is treated with: Suramin alone, Melarprostol alone, Suramin +
Melarprostol?
7. DOC for severe Malaria
8. MOA and drug interactions of Digoxin
9. Chemo drugs and side effect
10. Alendronate side effects
11. Patient is on her 2nd week pregnancy and was diagnosed with hyperthryroidism. Give appropriate mgt. Options were PTU, Methimazole,
RAI
12. Questions in Biochem that are related to Pharmacology & Renal/Cardio Physio
13. DOC for Neurocysticercosis
14. What drug inhibits absorption of cholesterol? Ezetimibe,
15. Drugs on Alzheimer’s disease donepezil etc..
16. pharmacokinetics of lithium
17. Enzyme inhibitors and inducers

SURGERY – Topnotch Supplemental Handout or Absite + USMLE

TIPS FOR SURGERY: Mastery of Anatomy is the key for this subject. Like the Anatomy exam, this exam was relatively fair in giving out direct recall
questions or questions answerable by dissecting the choices given.

1. During modified radical neck dxn, the ff structure is not an issue. Options: external jugular vein, carotid artery, CN XI, SCM
2. Acute Appendicitis Surgery:
3. Ophtha questions
4. Esophagus
5. Know when to assess first using radiographs vs laparotomy or operating immediately
6. Know the initial and definitive treatment (depends on the case given), abdominal stab wound management?
7. Diagnostic of choice for hirschsprung disease
8. A good 10 questions were all about GERD
9. Type of ulcer located in the body of the stomach
10. Most common site of perforation in the large intestine
11. SMA syndrome: Patient was found to have bilous vomiting. Upon utz the sma was found compressing the duodenum. At what position
will there be relief of symptoms: prone, lateral, supine, standing?
12. Peritoneal Lavage
13. Procedure of choice for a pituitary tumor: transphenoidal surgery

INTERNAL MEDICINE – IM Platinum + Experience + incorporation of everything that you have learned + USMLE

TIPS FOR INTERNAL MEDICINE: I suggest that you study this subject last, since this subject needs you to apply everything that you have learned
from the basic sciences. The questions in this exam were case questions made up of about 3-5 questions per topic. Again, do not be intimidated
with the lengthy questions. The examiner usually gives clues or buzz words within the question or within the preceding questions – testmanship.

1. Leprosy
2. Scleroderma
3. PSGN diagnosis
4. PSGN etiology
5. Most common etiology of nephrotic syndrome in adults
6. Dermatomyositis
7. Pathologic finding that distinguishes dermatomyositis from SLE
8. Acute Appendicitis
9. Most common cause of acute appendicitis
10. Bronchogenic carcinoma
11. 60 retired flight stewardess presented with hemoptysis, weight loss….chest xray was done revealing a mass in the upper lobe. What is the
most likely predisposing factor to the disease?
a. What should be done next? Bronchoscopy washing and biopsy
b. If bronchoscopy was done and found a perihilar mass, what is the most likely diagnosis?
12. Psoriasis
a. Patient presented with silvery scales present also among his brother anf grandfather. Which is a no-no in the treatment of
psoriasis?
13. Esophageal cancer
a. business man… patient presented with dysphagia on solid then liquid food, weight loss etc.. what is the most likely diagnosis?
Esophageal cancer
b. What is the most likely predisposing factor to the disease?
14. Meningitis
a. College student living in dorm, suddenly developed seizure, signs of meningeal irritation etc.. what is the most common
etiologic agent?
b. What should be the treatment?
c. What should be given as post expo prophylaxis to others.
15. A lot of Dermatology questions
16. ESRD patient on dialysis developed multiple vesicular lesions on the scalp, prone to infection…. what is the most likely predisposing
factor?
a. What is the most likely diagnosis?
b. Pathophysiology?
17. Case of anaphylaxis to pen G in a patient with syphilis.
a. treatment? epi
b. what should the doctor did before injecting the Pen? skin test? ask history on other inecjted med... etc.
18. a hyperthyroid patient experienced MI, management for the hyperthyroid. Options: PTU, methimazole, RAI, thyroidectomy
19. BMI
20. Differentiate GERD from MI and Chole
21. Contact Dermatitis
22. Atopic Dermatitis
23. Master actions of PTH and vit D, came out on almost all subjects!
24. Case on MI. How many hours post MI will you find histologic changes in the heart 2-3h or 4-6?..
25. Case on Leprosy. tuberculoid vs lepromatous leprosy.. which of them has hyperesthesia?.. lab result +/- lepromin test,
26. pre renal/intrinsic/post renal AKI
27. action of compression stockings for DVT?
COMPILATION DAY 4

OB-GYNE – Topnotch Handout + HSI Reviews/Lectures + USMLE

TIPS FOR OB-GYNE: The SI lectures in DLSUMC were very helpful. Experience during your clerkship and senior internship will help you a lot with this
subject. Look for context clues!

1. Differences among the types of pelvis

2. Boundaries of the inner pelvis
3. Episiotomy
4. Complications of a breech delivery
5. Zavanelli maneuver
6. Ritgen maneuver
7. Procedure of choice for a perimenopausal woman with AUB
8. Many questions on precocious puberty
a. If a 6 yo was brought to you by her mother with complaint of unilateral growth of breast tissue, what will tell the parent:
i. The condition can lead to central precocious puberty
ii. There is no need to worry
iii. She has to start taking GNRH agonist
iv. She needs to have surgery
9. Surgical decision. When to do hysterectomy, TAHBSO
10. When is the earliest time in determing the gender of the fetus by UTZ?
11. linea terminalis
12. Teratogenic drugs. Ex. Which among the anti-fungal drugs are most teratogenic?
13. Bartolin cyst management marsupialization.
14. Endometriosis on IE will palpate nodules on posterior cul de sac
15. Very few dystocia questions
16. Endometriosis vs adenomyosis
17. types of forceps,
18. maneuvers for breech delivery
19. abruptio placenta
20. quadruple screening

PEDIATRICS Topnotch Handout + Experience + USMLE

TIPS FOR PEDIATRICS: Look for context clues. Just like IM, application of all the subjects is needed for this subject. Don’t be intimidated with the
long questions. Testmanship is the key, look for context clues!

1. Age in months based on motor, sensory social development

2. Post exposure rabies prophylaxis of patient presenting with cat 2 bite?
3. Post exposure prophylaxis to be given to the infant if the mother developed vesicular lesions 2 days after delivery?
4. Post exposure prophylaxis for tetanus
5. Case of asthma of a boy who have attacks every morning but no disturbances in sleep or academic performances. What level of control?
Mild persistent
6. Case of asthma presenting controlled, what should be given? Salbutamol prn
7. Case of asthma which is resistant to salbutamol. What will you give?
8. A 12months baby present with high fever, sore throat, dyspnea with air hunger, drooling. His mouth is kept open and he was leaning
forward. What is the most likely diagnosis? Epiglottitis
a. What is the part of the airway affected? Epiglottis
b. What is the etiologic agent? Hemophilus influenza type B
c. What should be done to immediately secure the airway?
9. Case of nephrotic syndrome. What is the cut off value for proteinuria?
10. Which is false of nephrotic syndrome? C3 level are normal.
11. Teenager patient, athlete, who still don’t have menstruation but with nipple budding, mother is worried since all of the other classmates
already had their menstruation except for her daughter. What should you advise? Reassure the parent that it is normal.
12. Patient presented with mild anemia given the following CBC results, (in numbers but it shows microcytic hypochromic anemia) without
splenomegaly and no signs of extravascular hematopoiesis. what is the most likely diagnosis? thalassemia trait
13. Patient presented with polyuria, polydipsia and dehydration. Hypernatremia in urine, hyponatremia in serum. Patient was given a steroid
and salbutamol for his asthma medication with notice of improvement of symptoms… what is the diagnosis? SIADH
14. Patient presented with polyuria, polydipsia and dehydration, Hyponatremia in urine, hypernatremia in serum was subjected to water
deprivation test showing marked improvement. What is the diagnosis? CDI
15. Case about Hemorrhagic Disease of the Newborn
a. What is the cause of the disease? Deficient clotting factors due to vit K deficiency
b. What is the immediate therapy? FFP
16. Patient has hematochezia with severe paroxysmal abdominal pain and cries every attack but plays comfortably during no attack. Patient
was also observed to curl up during attacks of abdominal pain. You also palpated a sausage shape mass on PE. What is the most likely
diagnosis? Intussusception
17. A mongoloid patient presented with billous post prandial vomiting. You’re primary impression is? Duodenal atresia
18. Teenager patient presented with burning pain in the epigastric area relieved by intake of food. What is the most likely diagnosis? PUD
19. Newborn presented with respiratory distress and post prandial regurgitation of milk after trial of feeding. What is the most likely
diagnosis? TEF
20. Newborn presented with respiratory distress with frothy regurgitation and unable to pass ng OGT. What is the most likely diagnosis? TEF
21. Cyanotic child presented at the ER with difficulty of breathing with increase intensity of cyanosis when crying. Patient was observed to
squat to relieve the symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis? TOF
a. What should you do immediately at the ER? Position the patient in knee-chest and administer oxygen
b. Thereafter patient was noted to have weakness of the left half of the body… what is the most likely complication? Cerebral
thrombosis
22. A 5 month old on cow milk infant formula presented with maculopapular rash. What can be given as an alternative?
 23. Which part of the DPT vaccine is associated with seizure? Pertussis
24. A newborn is noted to have IUGR, jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, rash, microcephaly and intracranial calcifications. He most likely has
intrauterine infection with? CMV
25. Which of the the following antisezire drug is associated with hyperactivity of the children? Phenobarbital
26. Patient was diagnosed to have “small seizures” which type of seizure does she have?
a. What is the drug of choice?
27. Patient was diagnosed with leukemia affecting the Philadelphia chromosome.. wich type is it? CML
28. Remember CSF values
29. Endocrine problem: Central vs Nephrogenic DI vs SIADH
30. Osmotic vs Secretory Diarrhea
31. Know the different blood dyscrasias, ALL, CML, APML, CLL; Behcet Disease;
32. Developmental mile stones at 6,8,10 and 12-15 months
33. know the different types of bleeding disorders with emphasis on its corresponding cbc value
34. On xray of the wrist, which carpal bone is seen to ossify first?
35. A child was scratched on his leg by his pet cat. No bleeding noted. What will you give the child? A.Rabies vaccine only B.Rabies vaccine +
IG C. Rabies IG only D. Nothing more
36. A newborn was delivered via NSD, you heard a popping sound and noted depression of the suprasternal notch, what is the most likely
cause? Pneumonia, Atelectasis, ARDS, TTN?
37. Pox virus
38. Toxoplasmosis

PREVENTIVE MEDICINE – PRETEST PREV MED + PRAYERS + MORE PRAYERS.

TIPS FOR PREVENTIVE MEDICINE: PRAY HARD. PRAY REALLY REALLY HARD! Only about 5-15% of what you have studied will come out. PRAY HARD!
st
TESTMANSHIP IS THE GOLDEN KEY! DO NOT GIVE UP! PRAY HARD! PRAY HARD! About 10-12 questions from the 1 chapter of PrevMed PreTest
book were directly copied. PRAY HARD!

1. In what position can you generate the greatest strength and highest resistance against the supporting structure and least tension in the
muscles and tendons? Lateral decubitus, sitting, lying, neutral position?
2. What’s the name of the WHO campaign on antibiotic resistance program launched in 2015?
3. What is Jon Snow’s contribution to medicine?
4. What is the highest cause of morbidity in the workplace? Musculoskeletal strain
5. If disease A, B, C, D can cause disease individually but needs factor X for all diseases to occur simultaneously, which is true of factor X? A.
It is necessary. B. It is sufficient. C. It is both necessary and sufficient
6. If a government project does what is it is supposed to do, it is..? efficient, effective, both, reliable?
7. 4S of anti zika program of DOH
8. PhilHealth qualified members.
9. Vitamin A prophaxis. Options : Primary level protection, secondary, specific protection, rehabilitative?
10. Prev Med copied questions from Pretest Family Medicine 3rd edition 3, 15, 16, 18, 19, 21, 22, 23, 24, 29,30, 32, 33, 34, 35, 37, 59, 60
11. Risk of having a risk factor.
12. Mexican translator...
13. Relating to the patient culturally.
14. There's a question about slope—the answer is "m."
15. formula of NNT and NNH.
16. formula of Linear regression.
17. Standard deviation rule of 68 95 99%
18. which type of graph is suited on a given scenario
19. Type 1 and 2 error
20. levels of prevention
21. prevalence vs incidence