1. Mrs.

Ditan wants to generate as many ideas as she can as the class is about to embark on a community health outreach program.
Which of the following will she employ?
A. Simulation b. Brainstorming
C. Snowballing d. Role playing
2. You want to teach facts and rules. Which one will you make use of?
A. Direct instruction b. Self-directed learning
C. Indirect Instruction d. Collaborative Model
3. Teacher, Charmaine an experienced teacher, does daily review of past lesson, Why?
A. To provide his pupils with a sense of wholeness and continuity.
B. To determine who among his pupils are studying.
C. To reflect on how he presented the previous lesson.
D. To introduce a new lesson
4. Teacher Arnel wants to teach the class the rules in playing basketball. Which method is most appropriate?
A. Direct Instruction c. Problem Solving b.Discovery d. Inductive Reasoning
5. When you teach, you often engage yourself in brainstorming. Which do you avoid?
A. Selectively involving pupils/students
B. Break down barriers
C. Generate many ideas
D. Increase creativity
6. Having a mock presidential election, complete with debate, discussion of issues and voting, teaches students __________?
A. The decision making skills
B. The skill to win in debates
C. The art of winning in an election
D. The skill to persuade
7. You have presented a lesson on the Mozarts music forms and styles. At the end, you ask if there are any questions. There are none.
You can take this to mean ______ .
A. Your students are not interested in the lesson.
B. You need to determine if the students understood everything you presented.
C. You need to ask specific questions to elicit responses.
D. Your students did not understand what you were talking about
8. Which of these are crucial skills for effective teaching?
I. Creation of new instructional materials
II. Classroom Management
III. Higher Order Thinking Skills
IV. Art of Questioning
A. I, II, III and IV b. II and IV c. I and III d. I and IV
9. Which practice helps the teacher maximize time for instruction?
A. Employ a reactive approach to discipline
B. Maximize discipline time
C. Avoid classroom routine; they make your students robots.
D. Minimize discipline time
10. Which practice promote sound classroom management?
A. Be reactive in approach.
B. Occupy students with extremely difficult task
C. Be preventive in approach
D. Give students very easy task to lighten their load.
11. Which statement on wait time is CORRECT?
A. Wait time turns off fast thinking students
B. For quality response, what and why questions require equal wait time.
C. The higher the level of the question, the longer the wait time.
D. Wait time turns off slow thinking students.
12. If you want your students to master solfege note reading, which activity is most appropriate to use?
A. Game b. Drill c. Simulation d. Reflection
13. To determine your pupils entry knowledge and skills which should you employ?
A. Interview c. Post-test
B. Focus Group Discussion d. Pre-test
14.Which can enhance the development of spatial intelligence?
a. Hands -on demonstrations c. Concept miming
b. Environmental study d. Concept mapping
15. If you like to know the value preferences of your students, which can help?
A. Rank Order c. Generating mental pictures
B. Hypothesizing d. Summarizing & note taking
16. For discussion of a topic from various perspectives, it is best to hold a ________.
A. Symposium c. Panel discussion
B. Brainstorming d. Debate
17. If you want to generate as many ideas as you want which one should you organize?
A. Debate c. Panel Discussion
B. Forum d. Small group discussion
18. To give opportunity for bonding and sharing, which approach can be of help?
A. Cooperative learning approach c. Constructivist approach
B. Exploratory approach d. Discovery approach
19. For empathy and for vale change and development, which is best?
A. Simulation c. Game
B. Role playing d. Drill
20. Which is one justification of the use of the lecture method?
A. When subject is very new and there are no references yet.
B. When students are poorly motivated.
C. When teacher is substituting for a regular teacher
D. When subject is very broad in scope.
21. Why do teachers use varied materials in class?
A. To promote HOTS c. To sustain the interest of the learners
B. To raise pupils’ awareness d. To keep the students busy all the time
22. A method whereby one or more exercise are repeated as many times as possible within a set of time.
A. Conceptual Approach c. Mastery Learning
B. Strategy Circuit Planning d. Simulation
23. A miniature representation of a large scale system or process.
A. Mastery learning c. Programmed instruction
B. Simulation d. Discovery approach
24. Teacher Jairus invited teacher Angelyn and they together help each other in making students learn to dance cha cha cha. This is
an obvious strategy called _________.
A. Brainstorming c. Team Teaching
B. Role Playing d. Cooperative Learning
25. Small group discussion is oftentimes referred to as _________.
A. Round Table discussion c. Discussion Procedure
B. Buzz Session d. Case Study
26. What will teacher Sarah use as an strategy if she wishes to develop students exercise of decision making. Where for example 10
students were asked to choose from among themselves who shall be the six players to play volleyball.
A. Tele-lecture c. Value voting
B. Fall out shelter d. Rank order
27.What technique or strategy will teacher Karl will use if she will help students develop their linking ability for example a number is
link to sports people., sports event or places
A. Loop a word c. Informance
B. Word association d. Values Clarification
28. If teacher Michelle wants her class to have fun while learning and develop sense of cooperation among each others may opt to
use?
A. Conscience Talk c. Learning Together
B. Group Investigation d. Debate Forum
29. Basketball, Volleyball and softball games can be as enjoyable and fun for all students if the teacher may employ this strategy.
A. Problem Solving Method c. Team Games Tournament
B. Activities Technique d. Demonstration Method
30. In teaching Folkdance steps the teacher assumes the responsibility of being the authority of the subject/concept or skills to be
taught and that there is scarcity of materials to be used by the learners, therefore it justifies teachers use of _________.
A. Informance c. Part Whole method
B. Lecture d. Whole Part method
31. Teacher Andrew wanted his Art Class to produce a close replica of an image that they will draw or sketch, he then provided them
with a sample of that image. The teacher is actually directing students in the usage of what strategy?
A. Directed or Dictated Method c. Copy Method
B. Patterns Method d. Prepared Outline Methods
32. The class activity is toward developing students artistic skills in the field of performing arts. If this is the intention of the teacher
he/she will use what strategy in Arts?
A. Copy Method c. Creative Expressive method
B. Self directed Method d. Patterns method
33. When teacher Mark in his Music class ask students to follow and sing along with the new song that they will learn for that day, He
actually uses what strategy?
A. Sight reading method c. Sing along method
B. Kodaly Method d. Part whole method
34. This method in teaching music is programmed based and which says that music education must start as early as possible because
of the link between brain development trough music based instruction.
A. The Phrase method c. Copy method
B. Orff- Schulwerk Activities d. Kodaly method
35. The method that teacher Mary Ann should use if she wants to develop students pitch and tonal memory should include hand
signals and solfege using ________.
A. Orff- Schulwerk Activities c. Phrase method
B. KOdaly Method d. Sight reading
36. When the Art Class of mam Rea in their activity follows her step by step direction in their painting activity, the teacher employs
what strategy?
A. Copy Method c. Prepared outline method
B. Patterns method d. Directed or dictated method
37. If the intention of the teacher for her lesson is for her students to attain maximum level of proficiency she must use a strategy
that will optimize learning which considers individual capacity and needs of learners, what strategy best fit the situation.
A. Mastery Learning c. Discovery and process approach
B. Conceptual Approach d. Integrated technique
38. Teacher Roziel wishes to establish and capitalize on achieving students well rounded personality through her lesson. Which of the
following strategies will be most appropriate.
A. Conceptual Approach c. Discovery and process approach
B. Simulation d. Integrated technique
39. There is a scarcity of materials in remote barrios. As a creative and innovative teacher , what must you do?
A. Just use the lecture method c. Buy commercially made materials
B. Prepare improvised materials d. Borrow materials from co-teachers
40. Showing films or picture at the beginning of a lesson is part of _________?.
A. Initiatory activity c. Evaluation activity
B. Development activity d. Culminating activity
41. In curriculum development, which teaching technique is used when with four to six speakers led by a chairperson together
discuss an important topic before an audience.
A. Panel discussion c. forum
B. Brainstorming d. Buzz session
42. Mam Michelle as PE Teacher wrote this objective in her lesson Plan “ to execute the five fundamental dance steps”. When
observed by the principal, she was showing her class how to execute the basic dance steps correctly. Why did the teacher use a
demonstration method to implement her objective?
A. It is a chance to show her expertise.
B. It is easier to imitate a teacher who shows the steps
C. No student knows how to execute the steps.
D. Class time is limited to ask student to execute.
43. In preparing instructional materials, what is the primary factor to be considered?
A. The objectives of the lesson
B. The diversity of the learners
C. THe methods and techniques
D. The technology available in the classroom
44. Why is there a need to write a lesson plan?
A. To comply with the requirements set by the school
B. To guide the teacher in the learning activities.
C. To get a good rating in the performance of appraisal.
D. To be able to show something during classroom observations.
45. Lessons objectives must go beyond recall, Which is concerned with recall?
A. To identify the provincial capitals of the following provinces.
B. To interpret the table on the population density of the continents.
C. To draw conclusions based on the observations
D. To distinguish facts from opinion.
46. Learning is reflective. It means that crucial action of construction meaning is mental, therefore we need to provide activities like
a. hands-on experiences
b. brainstorming
c. group dynamics
d. none of these
47. The practice of using rubrics is an example of
a. feed backing c. testing
b. judging d. self-evaluation
48. In teaching, the teacher should begin with
a. presentation of the new lesson
b. review of the previous lesson
c. motivation phase
d. lesson proper
49. Which serves as the starting point of the new lesson?
a. presentation of the new lesson
b. review of the previous lesson
c. motivation phase
d. lesson proper
50. Prevention of discipline problems begins with
a. communication with parents
b. strong ground rules
c. teacher`s determination to impose disciplinary actions.
d. the identification of the causes of disciplinary problems.
51. A student is learning a new complex motor skill. The student will most likely benefit from the principle of transfer of learning if
the:
a) A new motor skill is similar to one already mastered.
b) Student is open to feedback from both teachers and peers.
c) New motor skill is a discrete skill rather than a continous one.
d) Student has no preconcieved notions about the motor skill.
52. Once students demonstrate mastery of fundamental skills for rhythmic movement, it would be most appropriate to introduce
them next to which of the following styles of dance?
a) Freestyle dance b) modern dance c) contra dance d) line dance
53. A group of students are learning a creative movement pattern in which they form a line and perform a forward roll
simultaneously. Each time they execute the roll, one particular student rolls in a crooked line and bumps into a neighbor. To address
this problem, it would be most appropriate for the teacher to:
a) Ask the student to remain after class so that the teacher can assess the students attitude.
b) Observe the student’s roll to assess movement technique and provide individualized instruction.
c) Change the choreography to create larger spaces between students when they execute the roll.
d) Substitute an easier movement for the roll so all students will feel successful performing the routines.
54. According to principles of developmental psychology, which of the following best describes why participation in play activities is
particularly important to young children’s growth and development?
a) Virtually all of what children learn is derived from observing others thus young children learn how to behave by observing
older children at play.
b) Play settings provide the environments in which children the ability to overcome confusion related to appearance versus
reality.
c) Since play provides important information about gender roles, children with limited opportunities to play often experience
delayed development of gender identity.
d) Play allows children to try out and test new physical, social and cognitive behaviors which then become part of their
working memory.
55. The process of learning is primarily controlled by
a. teacher c. lesson plan
b. learner d. environment
56. It is the __________ that makes the student explore, choose, remain interested, participate actively and build self-confidence.
a. objective c. determination
b. motivation d. syllabus
57. If learning is a social activity, the approach should be
a. modular c. team building
b. self-evaluation d. independent study
58. When you use teaching you will
a. connect your lesson to the life experiences of your students
b. encourage the students to be active
c. give challenging questions
d. motivate the students
59. Learning is reflective. It means that crucial action of construction meaning is mental, therefore we need to provide activities like
a. hands-on experiences c. brainstorming
b. group dynamics d. none of these
60. The practice of using rubrics is an example of
a. feed backing c. testing
b. judging d. self-evaluation
61. In teaching, the teacher should begin with
a. presentation of the new lesson
b. review of the previous lesson
c. motivation phase
d. lesson proper
62. Which serves as the starting point of the new lesson?
a. presentation of the new lesson
b. review of the previous lesson
c. motivation phase
d. lesson proper
63. Prevention of discipline problems begins with
a. communication with parents
b. strong ground rules
c. teacher`s determination to impose disciplinary actions.
d. the identification of the causes of disciplinary problems.
64. Physical condition of the classroom that may lead to discipline problems
a. Excess allowance of the students.
b. Inconsistency of the teacher in carrying out the policies
c. Law related to corporal punishment
d. improper ventilation
65. Which statement is not true about the importance of establishing classroom routines?
a. Classroom routines will ensure learning.
b. It helps maximize time for instruction.
c. Facilitate the collection of instructional materials.
d. all of these

66. An example of intrinsic motivation.

a. a trophy for a first placer in a contest
 b. a medal for winning a debate
c. one big applause for a correct answer.
d. joining a seminar because they need it for personal development.

* For test items # 67-70, pls. refer to the given choices below:
CHOICES:
a. deductive method
b. inductive method
c. direct instruction approach
d. problem solving method
c 67. It is a teacher – directed and teacher dominated approach which is meant for the teaching of skills.
D 68. A teaching strategy that employs scientific method in searching for information.
A 69. A method that begins with the abstract rule, generalization, principle and ends with specific examples, and
concrete details.
B 70. It begins with specific details, concrete data and examples and ends with an abstract generalization rule or principle.
71. Which is the acceptable and effective way of dealing with discipline problems?
a. Denying a student some privileges due to unnecessary hyperactivity
b. Use nonverbal gestures, frown or a hard look to dissuade them from mischiefs
c. Giving additional homework.
d. Scolding and harsh words as a reprimand
72. Discipline is believed to be the exclusive responsibility of the teachers. They have the right to insist on proper behaviour. They
announce the rules that students are expected to follow. Good behaviour is rewarded and bad behaviour is dealt with accordingly. It
is termed as assertive discipline. This type of discipline may lead
a. to a well- disciplined class. c. to an autocratic classroom
b. to a democratic classroom d. ideal classroom
73. A “ hands-on-mind-on” activity.
a. a dancing lecture was given by the teacher but failed to demonstrate because of her
arthritis problem.
b. the student were required to observe while the teacher demonstrate the proper way of
deboning a milkfish.
c. after demonstrating the proper way deboning a milkfish the teacher require them
to perform the same activity.
d. none of these
74. It is a teaching strategy that emphasizes “learning by doing”
a. project method c. inductive method
b. demonstration method d. deductive method
75. Realism stands for the real things that are to be studied like real insects or plants. Real objects create concrete learning
experiences but it has also disadvantage such that
a. they are inexpensive.
b. the children are familiar with the real materials and their interest can easily be focused.
c. some are potential hazards.
d. all of these
76. The lesson may dominantly cognitive if
a. it is meant primarily for knowledge.
b. it is intended for the acquisition and honing of skills.
c. it mainly focused on values and attitude formation.
d. both a and c
77. The administration or direction of activities inside a classroom refers to
a. classroom routine. C. classroom management
b. classroom activities. D. all of these
78. A psychological climate contributes to a non-threatening atmosphere in order to enhance learning. This can be achieved by
a. ensuring there is proper lighting.
b. checking the proper arrangement of chairs.
c. seeing to it that students are on their proper mind set.
d. both a and b.
79. Learning can be maximized through
a. more visual aids than mere audio-aids.
b. combination of audio-visual aids.
c. multisensory aids.
d. both a and b.
80. The main strategy in teaching and learning MAKABAYAN is
a. demonstration c. project making
b. integration d. All of these
81. It is an action-filled through enactment of real life problem situation, a genuine, typical behaviour to answer real issues.
a. simulation c. role playing
b. problem solving d. micro teaching
82. It can diffuse tense situation and it can make the students relax.
a. humor c. sarcasm
b. storytelling d. reading
83. It is a record which includes learning events, outcomes of the event, worthiness of the outcome and causes of success and
failures. This refers to
a. narratives c. synectics
b. reading d. journal writing
84. When you use integrative teaching you will
a. connect your lesson to the life experiences of your student
b. encourage the students to be active
c. give challenging questions
d. motivate the students
85. When discussion is used as teaching strategy, it is intended to
a. witness the occurrence of natural forces.
b. highlights ones creativity and resourcefulness.
c. improve students’ critical thinking and reasoning.
d. both b and c.
86. A student arrives at school with several large bruises that he cannot explain. Which of the following is the appropriate course of
action for the teacher in this case?
a) Noting the incident in the childs records
b) Making contact with the childs primary caregivers
c) Following the school’s principle for mandated reporting.
d) Requesting a referral to the school psychologist
87. In a high school health class, students practice goal setting, decision-making and interpersonal communication skills while
discussing sexual activity and its consequences. The primary aim of this approach is not likely to encourage students to:
a) Prepare for the responsibilities of marriage, parenting And family life.
b) Avoid risk-taking behaviors that could result in a sexually transmitted infection or pregnancy
c) Reevaluate cultural values and beliefs about sexuality
d) Adopt popular and accepting attitudes about issues related to sexually and family planning
88. Which best illustrate the principle that Learning is an active process.
a. learning is multifaceted.
b. learning assumption is by the teacher may not always reliable.
c. for a learning to take place one must need it.
d. one can always learn no matter what.
89. Which is not a left brained learner?
a. A math wizard. b. Best in Science project.
c. A linguist. d. A poet.
90. Individuals make more progress learning if they have a clear objective. This is one feature of the principle of
A. readiness. B. primacy.
C. willingness. D. recency
91. Providing opportunities for a student to practice and then directing this process towards a goal is the basis of the principle of
A. learning. B. readiness.
C. exercise. D. Effect
92. The principle that is based on the emotional reaction of the learner is the principle of
A. effect. B. intensity.
C. primacy. D. recency
93. Which principle of learning implies that a student will learn more from the real thing than from a substitute?
A. Principle of primacy. B. Principle of intensity.
C. Principle of effect. D. Principle of exercise
94. Which principle of learning often determines the sequence of lectures within a course of instruction?
A. Principle of primacy. B. Principle of recency.
C. Principle of intensity. D. Principle of readiness.
95. Which principle of learning often creates a strong impression?
A. Principle of readiness. B. Principle of primacy.
C. Principle of intensity D. Principle of Effect
96. Which factor affecting perception has a great influence on the total perceptual process?
A. Self-concept. B. Goals and values.
C. Time and opportunity. D. Threat
97. Perceptions result when a person
A. gives meaning to sensations being experienced.
B. responds to visual cues first, then aural cues, and relates these cues to ones previously learned.
C. is able to discern items of useful information.
D. None of the above.
98. The factor which contributes most to a student's failure to remain receptive to new experiences and which creates a tendency to
reject additional training is
A. element of threat. B. negative self-concept.
C. basic needs. D. Individual goals
99. In the learning process, fear or the element of threat will
A. cause a student to focus on several areas of perception. B. narrow the student's perceptual field.
C. decrease the rate of associative reactions. D. lessens student participation.

100. Which statement is true concerning motivations?

A. Motivations must be tangible to be effective.
 B. Negative motivations often are as effective as positive motivations.
C. Motivations may be very subtle and difficult to identify.
D. Motivation is most effective if students are not threatened.
101. Motivations that cause a student to react with fear and anxiety is;
A. negative. B. tangible.
C. difficult to identify. D. None of the above
102.Which is not describing a right brained learner.
a. Spatially intelligent. b. sociable
c. creative d. with high numeracy skills
103. For a motivation to be effective, students must believe their efforts will be rewarded in a definite manner. This type of
motivation is
A. tangible. B. subtle.
C. negative. D. None of the above.
104. Which is generally the more effective way for an instructor to properly motivate students?
A. Provide positive motivations by the promise or achievement of rewards.
B. Reinforce their self-confidence by requiring no tasks beyond their ability to perform.
C. Maintain pleasant personal relationships with students.
D. Must be firm in making decision.
105. Motivations in the form of reproof and threats should be avoided with all but the student who is
A. overconfident and impulsive. B. experiencing a learning plateau.
C. avidly seeking group approval. D. none of the above
106. At which level of learning do most instructors stop teaching?
A. Correlation. B. Application.
C. Understanding. D. Rote
107. The mental grouping of affiliated perceptions into a meaningful whole.
A. insights. B. conceptualization.
C. association. D. Application
108. Insights, as applied to learning, involve a person's
A. ability to recognize the reason for learning a procedure.
B. grouping of associated perceptions into meaningful wholes.
C. association of learning with change.
D. ability to critically analyzed learning correlations
109. When asking a student to explain how BMI affects an athletes speed, what level of learning is being tested?
A. Correlation. B. Understanding.
C. Application. D. Synthesis
110. According to one theory, some forgetting is due to the practice of submerging an unpleasant experience into the subconscious.
This is called
A. blanking. B. immersion.
C. repression. D. Rationalization

111. What level of knowledge is being tested if asked, "Who is the inventor of the game Volleyball?
A. Application. B. Understanding.
C. Rote. D. synthesis
112. For a motivation to be effective, students must believe their efforts will be rewarded in a definite manner. This type of
motivation is
A. tangible. B. subtle.
C. negative. D. positive
113. Which does not describe teaching as a vocation.
A. Teaching is a divine call.
B. Teaching is a way to preserve the culture and values of people.
C. Teaching is a government responsibility.
D. Teaching is a way to make a difference.
114. Which best describe teaching as a profession.
A. It requires mastery of skills and values.
B. It follows certain period of mastering specific field of expertise.
C. It requires legal certifications before one can attempt to teach.
D. If one sees it as a job.
115. Which does not describe teaching as a mission.
A. It is a task entrusted to you in this world. B. It is an assigned task thus everyone must prepare for it.
C. One must continuously improve oneself. D. It is something we choose.
116. Which does not belong to the group.
A. recency B. primacy C. duration d. readiness
117. It refers to the students theoretical knowledge
A. Rote B. Understanding C. Application D. Correlation
118. Which does not belong to the group.
A. Desire to learn B. Perform the skills
C. Knowledge of the results D. Correlation
119. People remember only what they want to refers to what principle of remembering.
a. Repetition B. Praise C. Association D. attitudes
120. This refers to Maslows Heirarchy of Needs associated with a person’s self-esteem and status.
 a. Social B. Self fulfillment C. Safety D. Egoistic
121. When a student refuses to participate in class instead displays attention seeking actions.
a. Aggression B. Compensation C. Denial of reality D. Rationalization
122. When a student reasons out for his failure to come early to class, he/she uses,
a. Aggression B. Compensation C. Rationalization D. Resignation
123. When a student points his problem at home and family for his failure in school.
A. Compensation B. Rationalization C. Projection D. Aggression
124. A set of preplanned actions intended to bring a specific goal from a lesson.
A. teaching strategies C. teaching methods
C. teaching techniques D. teaching models
125. Which is not part of the group.
A. Good behavior game. B. Token economies
C. Instant Activity D. Time out
126. Having student assist with equipment dispersal and return is a type of what strategies?
A. Interactive Management Strategies
B. Preventive Management Strategies
C. Strategies for grouping of students.
D. A and B only
127. Boys are on court 1 and girls should be at court 2, is what kind of practice grouping.
A. Cut and go B. discriminatory C. non-discriminatory D. group by ability
128. From the questions below, which would best checked for students understanding.
A. Is there any safety rule in playing volleyball?
B. Who can tell me 3 things to do before hitting volleyball?
C. Do you understand our lesson for today?
D. Is there 5 ways in improving static balance.
129. It refers to the wide range of operations that are intended to directly promote the intended learning outcomes in a lesson.
A. Managerial strategies. B. Instructional strategies
C. Teaching methods D. Teaching Strategies
130. In order to ensure the engagement of the students to the lesson for learning to occur they need or must be informed or become
aware of the lesson and its intended outcomes, this refers to?
A. Strategies for Task presentation B. strategies for Task structure and Engagement
C. Grouping strategies for task practice D. none of the above
131. Which is not part of the group.
A. lead up games B. play teach play
C. Modified games D. reflection task
132. This refers to the simpler version of a full game; it focuses on the acquisition of skills pertinent to a particular game or sport, but
without the knowledge of the student/learner.
A. scrimmage B. modified game C. lead up games D. Drills
133. In this learning activity the students are given little information about the task yet asked to practice, then along the process of
practicing the teacher denotes and facilitates learning by denoting common errors and correcting them right away.
A. Cooperative Tasks B. Role playing
C. Modified Games D. Play-teach play
134. Which is not part in grouping students for task practice
A.Safety B. Objectives of the task
C. Instructional model and techniques D. follow up strategies
135. Which is not part of the Strategies for task structure and engagement.
A. Teaching by invitation B. Developmental Appropriateness
C.Varying the task difficulty D. Follow-up
136. The following are the things that a teacher needs to consider in directing student engagement, except;.
a. learning goals b. domain priorities
c. domain interactions d. space and time
137. When cognitive domain is primary, critical thinking process includes the following, except;
A. broad and adventurous thinking B. Metacognition
C. causal and evaluative reasoning D. lesson strategies
138. A basic need that affects all of a person's perceptions is the need to
A. accomplish a higher level of satisfaction.
B. avoid areas that pose a threat to success.
C. maintain and enhance the organized self.
D. none of the above
139. Instruction, as opposed to the trial and error method of learning, is desirable because competent instruction speeds the
learning process by
A. emphasizing only the important points of training.
B. teaching the relationship of perceptions as they occur.
C. motivating the student to a better performance.
D. None of the above
140. Which will you emphasized in your health class when there are cases of dengue in the community where your school is located?
a) Improve on family nutrition c) maintain safe water supply
b) Fumigation of the community d) destroy breeding place of mosquitoes

PART II= PRACTICE TEST FOR LET-MAPEH

1. Which of the ff practices is most likely to lead to a dangerous outcome in competitive sports activities in which some physical contact
might occur?
a) Coaching students in a variety of offensive and defensive strategies during game play.
b) Pairing students or forming teams in which one student or team is bigger, stronger or more skilled than the other.
c) Modifying regulation playing field and court dimensions
d) Rotating students among different playing positions, including from offensive to defensive positions and vice versa.
2. Which of the ff competitive sports is particularly appropriate for promoting cooperation, honesty, and trust within and b/w teams
because of its emphasis on the “spirit of the game” and self-refereeing?
a) Touch rugby b) team handball c) slow pitch softball d) ultimate frisbee
3.which of the ff characteristics is most important in functioning effectively as a natural leader and positive role model in sports and
physical education activities?
a) The ability to talk to others into a particular course of action in an intentional way.
b) A view of leadership as a process for working with problems that need to be solved.
c) The belief that there are right and wrong responses in each situation and intervention is often necessary.
d) The ability to influence a group toward a particular goal in a non-judgemental, collaborative way.
4. In an outdoor education curriculum which of the following practices is most likely to help students develop an ethic of stewardship
toward the natural environment?
a) Instructing students how to pack as lightly as possible for hikes and camping trips.
b) Familiarizing students with the locations of national parks, wildlife refuges and forest in the locality.
c) Teaching students leave no trace principles and how to apply them in any outdoor setting.
d) Arranging to have students participate in annual national public lands day actvities.
5. Involving students in outdoor education courses such as orienteering, canoeing, hiking and etc. Is particularly effective for promoting
self esteem because the activities include built -in opportunities to:
a) Block out distractions completely and become meditative.
b) Experience a sense of accomplishment in reaching a goal or destination.
c) Enjoy time on ones own and focus on the body mechanics of the activity.
d) Attempt to set personal best records each time one participates.
6. During an outdoor field day at the end of the school year students will participate in a variety of physical activities. Which of the ff.
Organizational approaches to the days events is likely to be most effective in enhancing students self esteem and sense of self-worth?
a) Ensuring that the most activities emphasize coordination and balance rather than speed or strength.
b) Offering activities that allow students of varying fitness and skill levels to achieve individual success.
c) Including only activities that are cooperative rather than competitive in nature.
d) Recruiting responsible students and relying on them to help staff and run the activities.
7. Cooperative games and team sports help promote the development of positve traits and values primarily by providing opportunities
in which students can:
a) Study and emulate the interpersonal skills of a variety of adult role models.
b) Compete against themselves rather than against other individuals.
c) Remain confident and free of worries about the possibility that peers may make fun of them.
d) Observe and practice character building skills such as determination loyalty self control and civility.
8. Recreational games provides social benefits to participants primarily because:
a) Keep participants of all fitness levels equally challenged.
b) Require participants to take turns self-officiating.
c) Promote enjoyment and camaraderie among participants with similar interests.
d) Involve competition and scoring thus generating comments and discussions among participants.
9. Following a track meet against a rival team, a student and the pe teacher discuss the 200 meter. “ I cant believe i didnt place first in
the 200! I trained so hard during the last two weeks “’ Sorry to see you so disappointed. I know that race was really important to you.”
the teacher replies. This response is appropriate in this situation because it;
a) Provides an objective overview and downplays the loss.
b) Expresses admiration for the student’s performance in the race.
c) Affirms that the student set a goal and worked hard.
d) Acknowledges that the coach knows exactly how much time the student spent preparing for the race.
10. The goals of PE program include promoting student’s sense of self-worth and perception of physical competence as well as
fostering their appreciation and enjoyment of group and team games. These goals are specially designed to address which area of
student development?
a) Socio-emotional development b) intellectual development c) motor dev’t. d) moral development
11. Which of the following best describes a significant challenge in secondary high school PE programs?
a) Providing genuine field experience's for pre-service teachers seeking certification in PE.
b) Providing adequate time and activities to encourage students to adopt a lasting ethic of physical activity.
c) Locating school curriculum models designed to promote healthy and active lifestyle.
12. Which of the ff: best describes the advantage of school-community collaboration for PE activities?
a) Previewing the community facilities improves chances that students will continue to use it, which benefits both the facility
and the students.
b) The arrangement generates goodwill b/w the community and the school.
c) The facility provides a less stressful environment for both teachers and students.
13. Which of the ff: practices is most important to use in conference discussions with parent/guardians about the performance of Pe
students?
a) Assuring parents/guardians that all PE instruction is developmentally appropriate.
b) Addressing student stsrengths and achievements in addition to areas needing improvement.
c) Asking parents/guardinas whether their childs progress in Pe meet their expectations.
d) Describing the detail of the assessment tools and techniques used to evaluate student performance.
14. Which of the ff; is considered an unethical practice according to professional codes of conduct for Physical educators?
a) Using classroom observations, checklists, or other types of informal assessment data to inform or revise instruction.
 b) Discussing health related implications of a BMI with a guardian or parent.
c) Using PE assessment tool or test for a purpose for which it was not designed or validated.
d) Presenting aggregate or group fitness test results rather than individual student data to illustrate the need for fitness
resources.
15. Which of the ff; practices is most likely to protect PE teacher from potential charges of negligence in the event of a student injury in
class?
a) Providing students with developmentally appropriate instruction based on recommended skills and progressions.
b) Limiting feedback related to student performance of skills to positive individualized feedback or generalized group feedback.
c) Allowing students to sit out during any activities in which they feel anxious about participating.
d) Ensuring that instructional demonstrations of skills are perfectly executed and always accompanied by written descriptions.
16. Which of the ff; procedures is likely to be most important in ensuring PE facility remains free of safety hazards?
a) Documenting general safety concerns to both the parents and student and sending them to the school administration.
b) Making sure that the safety inspections occur regularly and that resulting concerns are quickly addressed.
c) Comparing PE safety procedures to occupational safety standards and matching procedures to industry standards.
d) Networking with PE teachers who serve similar school populations and discussing common safety issues.
17. In a gymnasium, which of the following conditions is most likely to pose the greater risk of injury during basketball games?
a) An emergency telephone mounted on the wall just beyond a baseline of the court.
b) A pile of mats in one corner of the gym outside the end line and baseline of the court.
c) A non-functioning overhead florescent light at a mid court.
d) A narrow safety zone b/w an end line of the court and a gym wall.
18. In order to have a smooth tournament, a good tournament official should possess:
a) Physical fitness b) game experience c) knowledge of the rules d) good judgment
19. An organization, in order to achieve its goal for sports competitions should be well-managed. It should be led by a person or
persons who has/have the following traits or qualities:
a) Systematic b) Knowledge c) hardworking d) all of the above
20. In double elimination, how many games are there for seven teams using the formula (n-1)*2?
a) 10 games b) 14 games c) 12 games d) 15 games
21. In the administrative and technical organizational chart for an athletic meet is headed by whom?
a) Superintendent b) technical committee c) Executive committee d) PE and Sports director
22. Responsible for expediting the schedule in the sports assigned to them are the sophomores athletic managers. Their duties include?
a) Supervision, assignment, procurement and evaluation.
b) Assembling and maintaining equipment
c) Posting the results of competitions.
d) Keeping records.
23. Handling an injured person takes a lot of courage to decide what action to take initially which action will you take first?
a) Keep yourself calm and act as prompt;y as possible.
b) Avoid moving the victim unnecessary
c) See how badly the victim was hurt.
d) Keep the victim lying down
24. Which of the following committee for sports takes initial planning in an athletic meet?
a) Ladder type b) round robin c.) single elimination d) double elimination
25. Which of the ff: activities is done before the tournament starts?
a) Determining bye b) drawing of lots c) seeding d) drawing of pairs.
26. The effective administration of intramural activities takes into account several considerations. Which of the following factors clarifies
the aspects of the activity?
a) Funds to run the competition c) ground rules to serve as guidelines for everyone
b) Schedule of games d) coaches and managers
27. What kind of tournament format eliminates a team after losing a game?
a) Double elimination b) ladder type c.) single elimination d) pyramid
28. Which of the following qualification should be considered in the selection of persons who provide intramurals leadership in the
school settings?
a) Understanding the growth, psychological and motor development of individuals
b) Knowledge of the tournament Planning methods and establishing leagues
c) Knowledge of sports safety and first aid
d) A sense of fun

A) b and c b)b and d c) a and b d) a, b, c and d

29. The branch of PE and sports which is concern with the administration and facilitation of sports events.
a) Sports sociology b) sports management c) sports administration d) sports history
30. Coaches may engage in film review and chalk-talk sessions with prospective student-athletes who have committed
to the institution.
A)True. B)False.
31. Sally and Mary have started classes for their senior year of high school and have made arrangements to visit University College on
an OFFICIAL visit. Both Sally and Mary have registered with the NCAA Eligibility Center and are listed on University College's institutional
request list (IRL). Sally has taken the SAT on a national testing date under national testing conditions, obtained a copy of her high
school transcript from the high school guidance office and faxed it to University College, including the SAT scores. Mary has NOT taken
a standardized test on a national or state testing date, but she did take a practice PSAT exam after school. Mary also has obtained a
copy
of her high school transcript and faxed it to University College. Sally and Mary will be leaving tomorrow to make an official visit to
University College. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Neither Sally nor Mary have the necessary documentation to take their official visits.
B)Sally has the necessary academic documents to go on an official visit.
C)Mary has the necessary academic documents to go on an official visit.
D)Both Sally and Mary have the necessary academic documents to go on an official visit.
32. Which activity is NOT permissible during a dead period for a prospective student-athlete who has not signed a National Letter of
Intent (NLI), written offer of admission, financial aid or financial deposit?
A)Permitting a prospective student-athlete to make an official or unofficial visit.
B)Speaking at an awards banquet where no prospective student-athletes are present.
C)Calling a prospective student-athlete on the telephone.
D)Sending a prospective student-athlete an email.
33. A high school prospective student-athlete is required to present a PLAN standardized test score, taken on a national testing date
under national testing conditions or a state-administered ACT, prior to
making an OFFICIAL visit.
A)True. B)False.
34. All-World Report is a recruiting service that provides only video of prospective student-athletes and does not
provide information about or analysis of prospects. All-World Report is not a permissible recruiting service.
A)True. B)False.
35. An institution may provide funding, directly or through paid advertisements, to benefit a high school athletics program.
A)True. B)False.
36. A member institution may NOT provide entertainment to a prospective student-athlete's brother or sister (other than one of the
three complimentary admissions to a home athletics contest) during an OFFICIAL visit.
A)True. B)False.
37. In-person contact [off-campus or on-campus (official or unofficial visits)] may occur during a dead period with a prospective
student-athlete who has signed an NLI or written offer of financial aid with the institution.
A)True. B)False.
38. An institution's coach has been contacted by a recruiting/scouting service. In which of the following activities may the coach
participate?
A) Endorsement of the recruiting/scouting service.
B) Provide an interview to the recruiting/scouting service.
C) Serve as a consultant to the recruiting/scouting service.
D) All of the above are permissible activities for Division I coaches.
39. In regard to the renewal or nonrenewal of a student-athlete's athletics aid, which is NOT required of the institution?
A) Notification must be made on or before July 1 prior to the academic year in which the reduction or nonrenewal is to become
effective.
B) Notification of the reduction or nonrenewal must be in writing.
C) Notification of the reduction or nonrenewal must come from the institution`s regular financial aid authority.
D) Notification of the reduction or nonrenewal must include a written statement from the coach.
40. Which statement is TRUE regarding computer recruiting presentations?
A) Computer recruiting presentations may be shown only during an in-home visit or an official or unofficial visit.
B) Computer recruiting presentations may be shown during any permissible on or off campus contact.
C) Computer recruiting presentations may be created by an entity outside the institution.
D) B and C
41. Your institution MAY host, sponsor or conduct a group workout or combine (i.e., devoted to agility, flexibility, speed or strength
tests) involving prospective student-athletes, provided the athletics department staff is not involved in conducting the activity, except
for activities incidental to supervising the facilities.
A) True. B) False.
42. An individual becomes a RECRUITED prospective student-athlete when a coach initiates a telephone call with the prospective
student-athlete or the prospective student-athlete's parent or guardian on more than one occasion for the purpose of recruitment.
A)True. B) False.
43. Under what conditions may an institution provide an OFFICIAL visit to a prospective student-athlete?
A) The prospective student-athlete has presented the institution with a high school (or college) academic transcript.
B) The prospective student-athlete has presented the institution with a test score (PSAT, SAT, PLAN or ACT) taken on a national testing
date under national testing conditions (except that a state-administered ACT examination may be used to meet the requirement).
C) The prospective student-athlete has registered with the NCAA Eligibility Center and is placed on the institution`s institutional request
list.
D) All of the above must be satisfied before providing an official visit.
44. Which statement is FALSE regarding video/audio materials and computer generated presentations?
A) An institution may provide a prospective student-athlete with video or audio material that was not created for recruiting and includes
only general information about the athletics program.
B) The computer generated presentation may not include a prospective student-athlete`s name, picture or likeness.
C) The computer generated presentation may be created by an entity outside the institution.
D) The computer generated presentation may be posted on the institution`s Web site.
45. A prospective student-athlete who has signed a National Letter of Intent or the institution's written offer of admission and/or
financial aid or provided the institution a financial deposit in response to its offer of admission can be employed at a clinic that occurs
before the completion of his or her senior year.
A) True. B) False.
46. An institution may produce a computer recruiting presentation to be posted on the institution's Web site as long as the
presentation does not include any prospective student-athlete's name, picture or likeness.
A) True. B) False.
47. Which of the following applies to permissible computer recruiting presentations?
A) Permissible recruiting presentations may be shown, played for or provided to a prospective student-athlete.
B)Permissible recruiting presentations may be posted on the institution`s Web site.
C) Permissible recruiting presentation may NOT be personalized to include a prospective student-athlete`s name, picture or likeness.
D) All of the above
48. An individual is considered a representative of athletics interests (i.e., booster) ONLY during the period of time that the individual
makes donations to an institution's athletics program.
A) True. B)False.
49. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning an OFFICIAL visit?
A) An official visit may be made to an off-campus site 100 miles from campus if the institution is appearing in an athletics contest at
that site.
B) During the official visit a prospective student-athlete may receive complimentary tickets to a conference tournament.
C) A multi-sport prospective student-athlete may not receive more than five expense-paid visits and not more than one visit per
institution.
D) All of the above.
50. An institution's coach may produce a computer recruiting presentation and show it to a prospective student- athlete at the
prospective student-athlete's high school.
A) True. B) False.
51. A prospective student-athlete may take a maximum of ____ expense-paid visits to Division I institutions while in high school, with
not more than one permitted per institution and regardless of whether the prospective student- athlete is involved in more than one
sport.
A) Three. B) Four. C) Five. D) Ten.
52. A prospective student-athlete who has signed a National Letter of Intent (NLI) or has signed the institution's written offer of
admission or financial aid, or from whom the institution has received a financial deposit in response to an offer of admission, MAY make
an UNOFFICIAL visit during a dead period to the institution.
A) True. B) False.
53. An institution may cancel financial aid based on athletics ability, during the period of its award, because of a psychological
condition that prevents the recipient from participating in athletics.
A) True. B) False.
54. An athletics department staff member may do which of the following:
A) Endorse a noninstitutional event involving prospective student-athletes;
B) Endorse a prospective student-athlete`s team, coach or athletics facility;
C) Serve as a consultant for a non instiutional event involving prospective student-athletes;
D) None of the above.
55. It is permissible for an institution to mail a game program to the prospective student-athlete.
A) True. B) False.
56. During an OFFICIAL visit, an institution may entertain a prospective student-athlete by taking the prospective student-athlete to a
social event that is located within a ___________.
A) 30-mile radius of the institution`s main campus.
B) 50-mile radius of the institution`s main campus.
C) 100-mile radius of the institution`s main campus.
D) Unlimited mile radius of the institution`s main campus.
57. Institutional financial aid based in any degree on athletics ability MAY be reduced or canceled during the period of the award for
which of the following reasons?
A) An injury, illness, or physical or mental condition that prevents the recipient from participating in athletics.
B) The student-athlete renders himself or herself ineligible for intercollegiate competition.
C) For any athletics reason.
D) A student-athlete voluntarily withdraws from a sport at any time for personal reasons.
E) Both b and d.
58. Before a prospective student-athlete signs a National Letter of Intent or the institution's written offer of admission and/or financial
aid, or before the institution has received a prospective student-athlete's financial deposit in response to its offer of admission, at what
time is it permissible for a coach to make in-person, off-campus contact with a NONQUALIFIER who is enrolled in the first year at a two-
year college?
A) After completion of the first semester or quarter.
B) At any time during a permissible contact period.
C) After completion of the first year of enrollment in the two-year college.
D) After written permission has been received from the two-year college.
59. A group of prospective student-athletes are visiting campus for an OFFICIAL visit. The institution hosting the prospective student-
athletes wants to take them to the institution's home athletics contest at an off-campus site, within a 30-mile radius of campus. It is
permissible for the institution to provide the prospective student-athletes transportation to the competition.
A) True. B) False.
60: Which of the following is NOT a common element used to define management?
A:Values, policy, and strategy
B:Achievement of goals/objectives
C:Limited resources
D:With and through people

61: Current management theory stresses the concepts of employee involvement, employee empowerment, and _____.
A:employee knowledge and skills
B:managers' concern with the human component of employees
C:employee effectiveness
D:administrators' nonprofit organizations
62: The underrepresentation of women, minorities, and people with disabilities in the sport industry is an important issue for
sport managers who value _____ in the workplace.
A:fairness
B:diversity
C:uniformity
D:equality

63: Which of the following is NOT an appropriate title of a manager in a sport organization?
A:Health club manager
B:Coach
C:Athletic director
D:None of the above

64: _____ is a continuous process that involves establishing organizational mission statements, goals, objectives, tactics,
roles, and evaluation.
A:Planning
B:Leading
C:Evaluating
D:Organizing

65: The proper steps involved in recruiting and selecting the right person for getting the job done include:
A:advertising the position, checking references, reviewing completed applications, selecting the "best fit"
person, and choosing qualified people for the interview process
B:reviewing completed applications, choosing qualified people for the interview process, checking
references, advertising the position, and selecting the "best fit" person for the job
C:advertising the position, reviewing completed applications, choosing qualified people for the interview
process, checking references, and selecting the "best fit" person for the job
D:advertising the position, reviewing completed applications, choosing qualified people for the interview
process, checking references, and selecting the "best fit" person for the job

66: Sport managers must master their _____ in order to be successful.

A:leadership skills
B:organization skills
C:communication skills
D:evaluation skills

67: Which of the following is NOT a step in the classic model of decision making?
A:Generating alternatives
B:Managing technology
C:Evaluating alternatives
D:Problem statement/framing the problem

68: Sport organizations, like all organizations, have two types of leaders:
A:competent and proficient
B:perceptive and insightful
C:formal and informal
D:passive and proactive

69: _____ refers to the ability of workers to identify and acknowledge emotions when they occur, and instead of having an
immediate emotional response, to take a step back, allowing rational thought to influence their actions.
A:Emotional change
B:Motivation
C:Emotional intelligence
D:Empowerment
 70: _____ is the systematic study of values guiding our decision making.
A:Ethics
B:Managing
C:Administrating
D:Empowerment

71: _____ affect other people in a way that personal preferences do not.
A:Ethical reasons
B:Ethical dilemmas
C:Ethical decisions
D:Ethical values

72: Few areas of sport management present managers more difficulty than _____.
A:moral issues
B:ethical dilemmas
C:ethics
D:codes of conduct

73: Which of the following is not a sport management structure?

A:Professional tournament
B:League
C:Club
D:Municipality

74: Sport management structures evolve in response to:

A:broad social change
B:development of players' unions
C:changes in league commissioners
D:changes in the nation's economy

75: The number of women participating in outdoor activities ________ the number of men participating in outdoor activities.
A:is lower than
B:is higher than
C:equals

PHYSICAL EDUCATION PRACTICE TEST

AHLETICS
1. Where did track originate?
a. Rome b. Atlantis c. Greece d. Italy
2. What is a scratch?
a. Touching the ground beyond the take‐off board . b. Marking the area where the shot fell
c. Dropping out of an event d. Skipping a trail
3. What does boxed mean?
a. Stopping quickly and then deciding to start again on another approach
 b. Exchanging the positions of the feet after releasing the shot
c. Getting hit by a runner
d. Having a competitor in front and on the side
4. What is an anchor?
a. A nickname for the shot b. The final leg of a relay
c. The placement of the foot for the takeoff on the pole vault d. The spot where the contestant leaves the ground
5. Which event is not classified as a field event?
a. Shot put b. High jump c. Hurdles d. Javelin
6. Where should the runner look when hearing the command, “Set”?
a. At the starter b. At the finish tape c. Directly down to the ground d. At the group a few feet ahead
7. To what does kick refer?
a. The exchange of feet after a release b. The distance one member of a relay team must run
c. The trail leg in hurdling d. The increased speed at the end of the race
8. Why are staggered starts used?
a. To restrict fast runners b. To give slower runners a head start
c. To equalize distance when races are run on curves d. To help the starter see false starts more easily
9. How many shots are fired for a false start?
a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four
10. Which occurrence is a foul in all throwing events?
a. Leaving the circle from the back half after the throw has been marked
b. Bringing the foot in the air over the outside of the circle
c. Touching any area or surface outside the circle or on the scratch line before the throw is marked
d. Passing up one of the final throws
11. What is the recommended exchange for relays in which each leg is 200 meters or more?
a. Non‐visual b. Basket pass c. Visual d. Two looks
12. Where should you enter and leave the shot put circle?
a. Rear b. Left side c. Front d. Right side
13. How is a runner disqualified in the 100 ‐meter dash?
a. Having three false starts b. Crossing the finish with arms out‐stretched
c. Using a standing start d. Running in another runner’s lane
14. Why is flexibility a major objective in conditioning?
a. It aids in increasing endurance. b. It aids in preventing muscle injury.
c. It improves muscle explosiveness. d. It contributes to strength development.
15. What is the purpose of warming up?
a. To improve skill b. To build endurance c. To enlarge the muscles d. To reduce chance of injury

Volleyball
1.) volleyball was invented by?
a. James Naismith b. Michael Jordan c. William Morgan d. Sidney Crosby
2.) The purpose of volleyball is to put the ball into the __________ court such that it falls to the
_________ or cannot be returned over the net.
a. oppoenets, sky b. opponents, floor c. back, floor d. back, opponents side
3.) Volleyball was invented as an alternative to the game of ____________.
a. basketball b. badminton c. tennis
4.) Any player may “catch” the ball to prevent it from hitting the ground.
a. true b. false
5.) In volleyball, the rally point scoring method is used.
a. true b. false
6.) If a ball is incorrectly returned or not returned at all, it is called an “out”.
a. true b. false
7.) A game is won when a team has scored _____ points:
a. 12 b. 24 c. 15 d. 25
8.) A team must win a set by at least a ___ point advantage.
a. 1 b. 5 c. 2 d. 10
9.) A deciding set in a game is played to _____ points.
a. 15 b. 25 c. 20 d. 8

10. ) A block is counted as part of the maximum number of hits allowed per side..
a. true b. false
11. ) What happens after a fault is committed?
a. Nothing b. the play goes on
c. the ball is put back into play where the foul was committed d. a point for the non-offending team
12.) Which of the following situations is NOT a fault?
a. a player who touches the net b. a held ball
c. a player who steps over the centre line d. a ball that touches the net, but still goes over
13.) A ball may touch __________ of the body.
a. any part b. only the hands c. only the arms d. none of the above
14.) A player who blocks a ball is allowed to have a second simultaneous hit.
a. true b. false
15.) A ball landing on the boundary line is considered “out”.
a. true b. false
16.) Players rotate in a _______ fashion when they receive a serve.
 a. counter clockwise b. clockwise c. circular
17.) An “ace” occurs when:
a. a serve goes out b. a team scores a point
c. when the ball is served to the other team and no one touches it
18.) What is a “sideout”?
a. when the team that served the ball makes a mistake, causing the ball to go to the other team
b. after a long rally, the serving team wins the point
c. the server serves the ball out of bounds
d. after a serve, the receiving team hits the ball out of bounds
19.) What is it called when a player make a save from a very difficult spike?
a. Kill b. free ball c. Stuff d. dig
20.) What is it called when a player blocks a spike, send the ball back at the player who spiked it?
a. Kill b. free ball c. Stuff d. dig
21) Who is responsible for recording warnings, penalties and disqualifications on the scoresheet? [Rule 5-5-3g]
a.Second referee. b.Libero tracker. c.Timer. d.Scorer.
22. The line judge shall stop play when a player breaks the plane of the adjacent court before playing the ball while that court is
scheduled for competition. [Rule 2-3-1g, 5-8]
A.True b.False
23. The CF and LF of Team S go up for a block and both their hands are above the net when the ball contacts both players thus resulting
in a legal collective block. [Rule 9-5-1c (3)]
a.True b. False
24. The libero may participate in which of the following? [Rule 9-5-6]
A. Serve.
B. Completed attack if at the moment of contact the ball is entirely above the height of the net.
C. Set the ball with fingertips in front of the attack line resulting in a completed attack with the ball at the moment of contact
being above the height of the net.
D. Rotate to the front row.
25. The visiting team arrives with two head coaches. During the prematch conference the first referee shall have one coach designated
as the "head coach" for the match. [Rule 5-3-1h, 12-2-6]
A. True b. False
26. During any dead ball, the playing captain may request the number of time-outs used for his/her team. [Rule 6-3-2b]
A. True b. False
27 The libero sets a ball that is completely above the height of the net using overhead finger action in front of the attack line to the
right front, who completes an attack while the ball is completely above the height of the net. The official signals illegal attack. [Rule 9-5-
6b, Signal #8]
A. True b. False
28 Between sets, the coach may take a combined roster/lineup sheet from the officials' table to prepare his/her lineup for the next set.
[Rule 7-1-3]
A. True b. False
29 A loss of rally/point is awarded to the opponent when the lineup is submitted to the scorer three minutes prior to the end of timed
prematch warmups. [Rule 7-1-2 PEN 1]
A. True b. False
30 The libero or other possible substitutes, by rule, may be used as an exceptional subsitution. [Rule 10-3-6, 10-4-3b]
A. True b. false
31 Which of the following is not considered a team member? [Rule 6-1]
A. Coaches. B. Teammates. C. Managers. D. Media personnel.
32 The penalty for ball out of bounds is loss of rally/point awarded to the opponent. [Rule 2-3 PEN]
A. True b. False
33. The ball remains in play following a joust between opposing players. [Rule 9-4-6c]
A. True b. False
34. If a team has fewer than six eligible players prior to beginning the match, it is allowed to play. [Rule 6-2-1]
A. True b. False
35. Assistant coaches shall not: [Rule 12-2-5, 12-2-6]
A. Stand at the bench to greet a replaced player.
B. Confer with players during time-outs.
C. Spontaneously react to an outstanding play by a member(s) of their own team.
D. Stand to coach the team after the head coach receives a red card.
36. A served ball that hits the net but continues over the net completely between the net antennas into the opponent's court is: [Rule
8-1-1]
A. A service fault. B. A re-serve. C. A legal serve.D. Able to be blocked.

37. Which contact of the ball listed below is illegal? [Rule 9-4-5]
A. When the ball is kicked.
B. When the ball is headed.
C. When one player contacts the ball with two or more parts of the body at the same instant.
D. When the ball gets held in the bend of the arms.
38. ) Since the libero’s jersey must be immediately and easily distinguished from the uniforms of his/her teammates, which would be
legal? [Rule 4-2-2]
A. Libero is solid white; teammates are blue and gold.
B. Libero is solid purple; teammates are solid navy.
C. Libero is half purple and half gold; teammates are solid gold.
D. Libero is white with black sleeves; teammates are white with black panels.
39. It is a service fault and the ball becomes dead when the served ball: [Rule 8-2-6a]
 A. Passes under the net.
B. Touches one of the server's teammates on the court.
C. Touches the ceiling or any obstruction.
D. When the ball is served,
E. all of these are service faults.
40. An illegal back-row attack shall not be called until the ball has completely crossed the net or is contacted by the opponent, legally
or illegally. [Rule 9-4-4, 9-5-5 NOTE]
A. True B.False
41. When a team has used all 18 substitutions, an exceptional substitution is permitted for an injured/ill player following certain
priorities. [Rule 10-3-6]
A. True B. False
42. The officials maintain administrative responsibilities for the contest through the completion of any required reports for events that
occurred during the contest itself. [Rule 5-1-3]
A. True B. False
43. Team A has only six players. One of the players is injured during set No. 1 and is not able to return to play. What happens from
there? [Rule 1-3-3, 6-2-2]
A. Play continues; a sideout/point is awarded whenever that injured player’s position rotates to serve.
B. Match is forfeited.
C. The injured player would be bypassed for service and the next player on that team would serve with no penalty.
D. The team manager can substitute for the injured player and play continues.
44. Which of the following is not an example of unnecessary delay? [Rule 9-9]
A. A coach/captain makes excessive requests for the serving order.
B. Failure to serve within five seconds of the signal to serve.
C. An illegal substitute enters or attempts to enter the set.
D. A team delays substitution.
45. The second referee will conduct the coin toss prior to the deciding set: [Rule 5-3-4d & 5-4-3b]
A. At center court. B. In front of the officials table. C. On the end line. D. At the first referee's stand.
46. ) The first referee calls an injury time-out when a player exhibits signs, symptoms or behaviors consistent with a concussion. [Rule 5-
3-3c(18)]
A. True B. False
47 A player may touch the floor completely across the center line with one or both feet/hands provided he/she does not interfere with
play by the opposing team. [Rule 9-5-7]
A. True B. False
48) The maximum combination of solid-colored panels on the ball is three, with one-third being white. [Rule 3-2-1]
A. True B. False
49 Who is required to attend the pre-match conference? [Rule 5-3-1h]
A. Captain(s). B. Head Coach. C. Captain(s) and head coach. D. Captain(s), head coach and assistant coach.
50. When a team commits a fault, the result is a loss of rally and the opponent shall receive a point. [Rule 1-3-1]
A. True B.False
51. Which of the following is legal? [Rule 12-2-7]
A. A teammate of Team A leaves the bench to receive medical attention.
B. A teammate of Team A leaves the bench to get a drink.
C. A teammate of Team A leaves the bench to warm-up before entering the set.
D. All are legal.
52. A visible undergarment may be of any color. [Rule 4-2-7]
A. True B. False
53. There shall be a 10-minute break between the second and third sets in a 3-out-of-5-set match. [Rule 11-5]
A. True B. False
54. The ball would remain in play when: [Rule 2-2-1]
A. A curtain hanging between two courts is moved by a player in order for his/her teammate to play the ball.
B. A player runs behind the team bench and returns the ball onto the playing court.
C. The ball reflects off the cables used to retract a ceiling-suspended net system on the side of net by team playing the ball.
D. The ball bounces off the wall which is 6 feet behind the endline.
55. Which of the following are responsibilities of the second referee? [Rule 5-4-1, 5-4-3]
A. Review duties and responsibilities with the scorer, libero tracker and timer.
B. Blow the whistle and give the signal for calls initiated by the second referee including time-outs and substitutions.
C. Manage illegal libero replacements.
D. All are responsibilities of the second referee.
56. Substitution requests prior to the start of the set shall be permitted and shall be recorded as a regular substitution in that set. [Rule
10-1-4]
A. True B. False
57. At the moment of serve: [Rule 6-4-3a]
A. All players except the server must be within the team’s playing court.
B. Players may be in any serving order.
C. The libero must be in the center back position.
D. The server must serve from the right back position.
58. If vertical tape makers are used, the antennas should be located: [Rule 3-1-5]
A. Directly over and perpendicular to the outer edge of the sideline.
B. Directly over and perpendicular to the inner edge of the sideline.
C. At the end of the net which is 12 inches outside the vertical tape marker.
D. Centered over the vertical tape marker.
59. The ball remains in play after contacting a player's foot. [Rule 9-4-5]
A. True B. False
60. It is unsporting conduct for a player to disrespectfully address which of the following? [Rule 12-2-9b]
A. Scorer. B. Line judges. C. Libero tracker. D. All are unsporting conduct.
61 The libero replacement zone is located near the sideline between the attack line and the end line. [Rule 2-1-8]
A. True B.False
62. Following the conclusion of the match, the first referee will check the scoresheet for accuracy. [Rule 5-4-3b (15)]
A. True B.False
63) In which of the following situations would the head coach lose his/her privilege to stand to coach? [Rule 12-2-6]
A. Player on the floor receives a yellow card for unsporting conduct.
B. Player on the floor is found wearing jewelry.
C. Member of the bench receives a yellow card.
D. He/she calls a third time-out.
64. Which of the following is not allowed by the head coach while standing? [Rule 12-2-8c]
A. Attempting to influence a decision by a referee. B. Coaching his/her team.
C. Calling a time-out. D. Requesting a substitution.
65. Only one libero may be designated by a team for the entire match. [Rule 6-4-2a]
A. True B. False
66. At the moment of serve, the second referee should be standing in this location: [Rule 5-4-2a]
A. On the endline opposite the server watching for foot faults.
B. On the floor opposite the first referee, away from the net on the receiving team’s side.
D. Behind the scorer to ensure accurate data is recorded. On the floor next to the first referee on the serving team’s side.
68. The ball remains in play if a player contacts the ball over a nonplayable area while in the air having left the floor from a playable
area. [Rule 2-4-2]
A. True B.False
69. Procedures for the libero replacement include: [Rule 10-4-1b]
A. The libero replacement must be completed during a dead ball prior to the contact of the ball for serve.
B. Libero replacements count as one of the allowable substitutions.
C. Libero replacements must take place between the center line and end line in front of the team's bench.
D.. The libero may be replaced only by the player whom he/she replaced.
70. At the moment of serve, the second referee should be standing in this location: [Rule 5-4-2a]
A. On the endline opposite the server watching for foot faults.
B. On the floor opposite the first referee, away from the net on the receiving team’s side.
C. Behind the scorer to ensure accurate data is recorded.
D. On the floor next to the first referee on the serving team’s sidE

BASKETBALL
1.) To acquire the ball after a missed shot is called a _______________
a. lay up b. foul c. free throw d. rebound
2.) A player may intentionally kick the ball for the teams benefit
a) true b) false
3.) How many points is a basket worth if shot from inside of the 3-point line?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
4.) Two technical fouls result in removal from the game.
a. true b. false
5.) A team in control of the ball in its front court cannot maintain or regain possession of the ball if it enters the back court, unless a
defensive player has touched it. This is called:
a. back and forth b. side to side c. front to back d. over and back
6.) A ______________ violation is called when a player moves more than two steps without dribbling the basketball.
a. running b. traveling c. palming d. body contact
7.) Basketball was created by a man named:
a. Jon Quincy b. Brad Johnson c. Homer Basketball d. James Naismith
8.) The ____________ attempts to prevent the opposing team from scoring a basket.
a. substitution b. offense c. defense d. refs
9.) Which shot has the highest percentage of going in the basket?
a. 3 point shot b. lay-up c. fade away d. free throw
10. ) A _________ occurs when a player breaks the rules in a way that does not involve contact.
a. foul b. violation c. block d. rebound
11. ) Personal contact against the body of an opponent by a player with the ball is called:
a. fastbreak b. charging c. traveling d. zone
12.) A free throw is worth how many points?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 1
13.) How many points do you get when you throw from the free-throw line?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
14.) A basketball game starts with a jump ball.
a. true b. false
15.) If your team has the ball, you are on defense.
a. true b. false
16.) In basketball a ______________ occurs when a player stops her dribble and then resumes it.
a. rebound b. double dribble c. held ball d. travel
17.) When you shoot from behind the 3 point line and land in front of the 3 point line after you shoot and the shot is made, it is worth 3
points.
a. true b. false
18.) This occurs when the player advances the ball, by herself, without dribbling it.
a. rebound b. double dribble c. held ball d. travel
19.) How many quarters are there in a basketball game?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
20.) A defensive strategy where everyone guards an area is called a zone defense.
a. true b. false
21.) A ______________ occurs when an offensive player reaches a desired position first, causing a defensive player to go around her;
delaying the progress of that defender.
a. assist b. pivot c. steal . screen
22.) What is the best position to guard an opponent?
a. face the opponent rather than the ball b. guarding as close to the opponent as possible
c. playing the opponent slightly to the right d. stay between the opponent and the basket
23.) What is the maximum number of fouls that a player can have before you foul out of a game?
a. 5 b.4 c. 3 d. 6
24.) What pass gives the best control and therefore is the most accurate?
a. chest pass b. one handed c. cross court d. lob pass
25.) This occurs when two players from opposite teams both have a firm grasp on the ball at the same time.
a. rebound b. double dribble c. held ball d. travel

BADMINTONTEST
1. How can the singles playing court best be described?
A. Long & narrow B. Long & wide C. Short & narrow D. Short & wide
2. What is the purpose of the line parallel to the back line and about 2 ½ feet closer to the net?
A. Out line for singles plaY b. Out line for singles serve
C. Out line for doubles play d. Out line for doubles serve
3. How many points does the server get for winning a rally?
A. 1 b.2 c.3 d. 5
4. How many points must be won by one player to complete a game of women’s singles?
A. 6 b. 11 c. 15 d.21
5. What portion of the body provides most of the power in badminton strokes?
A. Shoulder b. Wrist c. Arm d.Trunk
6. How should a player hold the shuttle to serve?
A. Pinch the feathers with the thumb & first two fingers
B. Cup the feathers with the thumb & index finger
C. Pinch the base of the shuttle with the thumb & index finger
D. Cup the base with the thumb & index finger
7. Which practice is not goodsportsmanship?
A. Congratulating an opponent on good shots
B. Stopping the service when an opponent is unready
C. Asking that points be replayed when shots are close to lines
D. Asking if the opponent is ready
8. When should the score be called out loud?
A. At the end of the game b. At the end of each point
C. When the score changes d. Before each serve
9. What term indicated a violation of the rules?
A. Fault b. Feint c. Let d. Replay
10. Players hit the shuttlecock back and forth to each other. What is this called?
A. Playing a point b. Rallying c. Pinging d. Hitting
11. What is the shot called that travels downward with great force?
A. Slam b. Drive c. Drop d. Smash
12. Which stroke is hit high to the back of the opponent’s court?
A. Lob b. Drive c.Clear d.Smash
13. Which stroke should barely clear the net and immediately fall into the opponent’s court?
A. Drop b. Drive c. Smash d. dink
14. How many points must be won by one team to complete a game of mixed doubles?
A. 15 b. 11 or 15,as decided before the match c. 21 d. 15 or 21, as decided before the match
15. When is a match completed?
A. When a player has won a game b. When a player has won 2 out of 3 games
C. When a player has won 3 out of 5 games d. When a player has won a seT
16. What are the service lines in a doubles badminton court?
a) short and n arrow b) long and narrow
c) long and wide d) short and wide
17. What is the legal height you are allowed to serve from?
a) between your w aist and shoulders b) anywhere from your shoulders down
c) anywhere below your waist d) you can serve from any area you choose
18. You are playing a game of singles, and the score is 8 – 5, in favour of you. Where on the court will you serve from?
a) serve from your left court across to the right b) serve from your left court straight across to the left
c) serve from you right court straight across to the right d) serve from you right court across to the left.
19. A good service strategy for singles is to serve most serves:
a) short and low b) long and low c) short and high d) long and high
20. True or False If during a rally the bird lands on the line it is considered out.
21. True or False The racquet may hit the net provided the bird lands in bounds.
22 True or False A point is scored by the receiving team when the server hits the bird into the net.
23 True or False In ready position, your racquet should be down low, and in front
24.True or False In doubles, the team to serve first serves from the right court first.
25 True or False In doubles both you and your partner may hit the bird before it goes over the net.

SOFTBALL TEST

1. How many balls rather than strike does it take to get to first base for free?
A. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
2. A runner must tag up before advancing bases on a caught fly ball?
A. True B. False
3. You are on base with two outs. Your teammate hits a ball into the air. You should.
a) Wait and see if the ball is caught before advancing to the next base
b) Go back to your base and tag up
c) Run as soon as the ball is hit
d) Stay at your base.
4. Each batting team gets _______ outs before their offensive turn is up and they have to go back to the field and play defense.
a) 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6
5. In softball a ________ means a fielder has secured the ball with their hands or glove
a) Double b. Catch c. Error d. Assist
6. Which is the only defensive player in softball to begin the game in foul territory
a) Pitcher b. Short stop c. Catcher d. Center field
7. A batter is credited with a _______ when they reach first base safely on a hit without aid of an error, or by way of a fielders choice or
force play at another base.
a) Altered bat b. Force play c. Dead ball d. Base hit.
8. What is the equipment that is needed in playing softball?
a) Bat b. Ball c. Glove or mitt d. All of the above
9. You are batting with a count of 0 balls and 2 strikes. You should:
a) Look for a pitch to drive c. Expand the strike zone
b) Lay down a bunt to surprise the defense d. Move slightly away from the plate and look for an inside pitch to pull
10. True or False The pitching rubber is 40 ft from the home plate
11. On a force out at second base the defensive player can:
a) Tag the runner b. Tag second base c. neither a or b is correct d. And b can be done
12. What is it called when you hit the ball and make it to the third base on a hit?
a) Single b. Double c. Triple d. Homerun
13. What is the distance between bases?
a) 45 ft b. 50 ft c. 55 ft d. 65ft
14. When a ball is hit to an infield position, an outfielders responsibility is to?
a) Stay in their position b back up that infielder c. Cover the closest base d. None of the above.
15. True or False A right fielder is located in the outfield behind the first baseman?
16. You are a runner on 3rd base, with less than 2 outs and your teammate hits a deep fly ball to center field. You should:
a) Immediately run for home plate
b) Go about half way home and wait to see if ball is caught or missed.
c) Immediately get back to base to tag up when ball is caught
d) Take 2 to 3 steps off 3rd and watch the ball.
17. In softball a ______ is recorded by the defense when two outs are made on the same play.
a) Single play b. Double play c. Triple play d. Chopped ball
18. What is it called when a runner is tryng to advance to a base and the fielder makes contact with the runner
a) Forced run b. Double play c. Interference d. Obstruction
19. True or False You are allowed to throw you bat after you hit the ball
20. True or False on a force out you only have to touch the base to get a runner out
21. True or False In softball two runners may occupy the same base.
22. True or False in softball a runner hit by a batted ball is out unless they are standing on a base when they get hit.
23. True or False Softball is played with a bigger ball than baseball
24. What is the position called between 2nd and 3rd base?
a) Utility b. Second baseman c. 3rd baseman d. Shortstop
25. In softball the ________ is that portion of fair territory between the infield and the fence.
A. Infield b. Outfield c. Red field d. greenfield.

ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY and KINESIOLOGY PRACTICE TEST

1. Which of the following would occur if somebody who exercises 4 times per week were to reduce to 2 times per week?
a) Reversibility b) progression c) overload d)individuality
2. Which of the following would increase the intensity of a resistance training session?
a) Increase the frequency the training is completed
b) Increase the rest between sets
c) Decrease the resistance lifted on each exercise
d) Reduce the rest time between sets
3. In order to apply the specificity, which of the following modes of training would be most appropriate for somebody who is training
for a 20 km run?
a) Stepper b) treadmill c) rowing machine d) upright cycle
4. Which of the ff adaptations would likely to occur to the skeletal system as a result to endurance training?
 a) Increased white and red blood cell production
b) Increased lactic acid tolerance
c) Improved posture
d) increased levels of myoglobin
5. Which of the ff is a benefit of exercise during pregnancy?
a) Lower energy reserves c) increased occurrence of back pain
b) Facilitates faster return to pre pregnancy weight d) reduced physiological well being
6. Which of the following health benefits would result from regular walking?
a. Increased blood pressure b. Decreased risk of CHD
c. Increased resting heart rate d. Decreased life expectancy
7. The development of balance would be required for which of the following activities?
a. Gymnastics b. Sprinting c. Swimming d. Running
8. Which of the following is a long term adaptation to muscular strength training?
a. Increased size of type ll muscle fibres b. Decreased number of type ll muscle fibres
c. Increased number of type ll muscle fibres d. Decreased size of type ll muscle fibres
9. What is the definition of muscular strength?
a. The ability of muscles to exert maximum force in one contraction
b. The ability of muscles to exert minimum force in one contraction
c. The ability of muscles to repeatedly exert maximum force
d. The ability of muscles to repeatedly exert minimum force
10. What body type has broad shoulders and a muscular build?
a. Ectomorph b. Mesomorph c. Endomorph d. Somatotype
11. Which of the following training outcomes requires speed during resistance training?
a. Muscular endurance b. Muscular strength c. Muscular power d. Muscular fitness
12. Which of the following will increase overload during a resistance training exercise?
a. Increasing the speed of repetition b. Decreasing the number of repetitions
c. Increasing the lever length d. Decreasing the range of movement
13. An ability to cope with stressful situations in everyday life and to make good decisions is an example of which component of total
fitness?
a. Social fitness b. Medical fitness c. Mental fitness d. Spiritual fitness
14. Which of the following defines physical fitness?
a. Maintaining an active lifestyle that contributes to maintaining levels of cardiovascular and muscular fitness and flexibility
b. Eating a variety of foods from major food groups and maintaining a calorie intake appropriate for needs and demands
c. Being free from disease and illness and making lifestyle choices that maintain this component
d. Awareness of and ability to manage and express emotions assertively and with respect to self and others
15. The equation force x speed represents which component of motor fitness/ skill related
fitness?
a. Reaction time b. Power c. Speed d. Agility
16. Which of the following defines balance?
a. The ability to change the position of the entire body in space with speed and accuracy
b. The ability of the body to remain centred over a base of support
c. The ability to perform smooth and accurate movements
d. Distance ÷ Time
17. Which of the following is a genetic factor influencing an individual’s training potential?
a. Diet b. Alcohol c. Smoking d. Body type
18. The 100m sprint primarily uses which of the following components of skill related fitness?
a. Speed b. Agility c. Balance d. Co-ordination
19. What is a plateau?
a. It is when continued adaptations to training no longer occur
b. It is a gradual decrease in physiological gains when training is ceased
c. It is the ability of the body to cope with specific training needs
d. It is the gradual increase of stress placed upon the body during exercise training
20. What is recovery time?
a. A gradual decrease in physiological gains when training is ceased
b. The ability of the body to cope with specific training needs
c. The gradual increase of stress placed upon the body during training
d. The period of time between training sets or training sessions
21. Which of the following principles is affected when an additional set of exercises is added to a resistance training programme?
a. Frequency b. Intensity c. Time d. Type
22. Which of the following should be avoided when programming for 14-16 year olds?
a. High intensity strength training b. Low intensity strength training
c. Functional pushing exercises d. Functional pulling exercises
23. Which of the following will result in weight gain?
a. Energy in + energy out b. Energy in > energy out
c. Energy in < energy out d. Energy in = energy out
24. Overload is generally considered
A. to be an outdated concept b. to have a negative impact on one’s fitness
C. to have a positive impact on one’s fitness d. to have no impact on the health related components of fitness.
25. Overload as applied in fitness, is defined as
A. placing increased demands on the systems of the body resulting in increased fitness levels
B. stressing the systems of the body at a rate that frequently causes injury
C. a phenomenon that causes a person to become muscle bound
D. a workout technique that requires a person to start with a high intensity level and t hen decrease the intensity level as time goes on.
26. F.I.T.T. refers to how
A. to apply the principle of specificity b. to apply the principle of progression
C. to apply the principle of relativity d. to apply the principle of overload
27. F.I.T.T. stands for
A.flexibility, intensity, target, training b.frequency, isotonic exercises, time, training
C. flexibility, isotonic exercises tendon, test d. Frequency intensity, time, type
28.. When creating a fitness plan of action, the three basic training principles one should employ include
A. specificity, progression and relativity. B. progression, relativity and overload.
C. relativity, overload and specificity d. overload, progression and specificity.
29. Increasing your heart rate during a step aerobics class is an example of increasing
A. Flexibility. B. Intensity. C.time. D. Target.
30. When participating in a weight training session, and you increase the sets and repetitions, you are increasing
A. the frequency. B. the isometric exercises. C. the time. D. the type of exercises.
31 You decide to go to yoga sessions at a local gym 3 days a week, instead of twice a week. This is an example of adjusting your
A. Frequency. B. isotonic exercises. C. target health related component. D. type of exercise.
32. The principle of progression means
A. Changing from a running routine to a weight training routine. B. gradually increasing the amount exercise being targeted.
C. starting easily and exercising for long periods of time. D. starting off quickly to jump start your exercise routine.
33. A person should use the principle of progression because
A. He might get bored and need to change from activity to activity.
B. his friends are progressing and they need to keep up.
C. his body has become accustomed to the workout and their progress has plateaued.
D. his body has become injured and the principle will jump start the recovery.
34. A sign or symptom that you have progressed too quickly using the FITT guidelines includes
A. Muscle atrophy over time b. Muscle growth over the course of a year
C. Lack of muscle growth over the course of a year. D. Muscle pain that doesn’t subside quickly
35. The principle of specificity means a person should perform only those exercises
A. a trainer advises her to do. B. that are specific to improving specific components of fitness.
C. she can do inexpensively specifically to save money. D. only when she has a goal specific to improving athletic skills.
36. Which of the following best portrays the principle of specificity in action?
A. A swimmer practices for the breast stroke 200m race by swimming in the ocean.
B. A marathoner runs intervals a week before the marathon.
C. A body builder preparing for a physique show performs a total body timed circuit 3 times a week for the month prior to the
show.
D. A mother prepares to walk around Disney world by walking up to 7 miles a day for weeks before arrival.
37. A structure composed of two or more tissues is termed:
a. organ b. serous membrane c. complex tissue d. organ system
38. A homeostatic imbalance:
a. must be restored by negative feedback mechanisms
b. is considered the cause of most diseases
c. is when the internal conditions of the body become more stable
d. only occur when positive feedback mechanisms are overwhelmed
39. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of life:
a. growth b. responsiveness c. reproduction d. organ systems
40. Which of the following is an example of applied physiology:
a. measuring the length of the femur on a fetus using ultrasound
b. locating an injury to a tendon in the shoulder using CT imaging
c. describing the process of how a toxin interferes with nerve impulse conduction
d. identifying the types of cells found in a biopsy sample of lung tissue
41. The elbow is _____ to the wrist:
a. distal b. lateral c. ventral d. proximal
42. The heart is ____ to the lungs:
a. superior b. dorsal c. medial d. lateral
43. The study dealing with the explanations of how an organ works would be an example of _____.
A) anatomy B) cytology C) teleology D) physiology
44. The exchanging of gases for the purpose of producing energy is called _____.
A) breathing B) respiration C) circulation D) responsiveness
45. The removal of a compound that the body no longer requires is called _____.
A) secretion B) excretion C) movement D) digestion

46. When a nurse takes someone's temperature, they are directly assessing a _____.
A) metabolic activity B) sign of illness C) vital sign D) core temperature
47. The process in which cells and organisms are able to maintain a stable balance of internal & external substances and forces is called?
A) equilibrium B) adaptation C) adjustment D) homeostasis
48. A system is defined as a group of _____ that function together.
A) cells B) tissues C) molecules D) organs
49. The _____ separates the thoracic from abdominal cavities.
A) pelvis B) rib cage C) diaphragm D) peritoneum
50. The following belong together except which one?
A) brain B) vertebral canal C) spinal cord D) stomach
51. The skin belongs to the _____ system.
A) nervous B) integumentary C) circulatory D) muscular
52. The wrist is _____ to the fingers with respect to the elbow.
 A) distal B) inferior C) superior D) proximal
53. Which of the following is flexible connective tissue that is attached to bones at the joints?
(A) Adipose (B) Cartilage (C) Epithelial (D) Muscle (E) Nerve
54 Each of the following is located in the mediastinum EXCEPT the
(A) aorta (B) esophagus (C) heart (D) pancreas (E) trachea
55. Which of the following is the body cavity that contains the pituitary gland?
(A) Abdominal (B) Cranial (C) Pleural (D) Spinal (E) Thoracic
56. Which of the following cavities are separated by the diaphragm?
(A) Abdominal and pelvic (B) Cranial and spinal (C) Dorsal and ventral (D) Pericardial and pleural (E) Thoracic and abdominal
57. In which of the following positions does a patient lie face down?
(A) Dorsal (B) Erect (C) Lateral (D) Prone (E) Supine
58. The physician directs the medical assistant to complete a request form for an x-ray study of the fibula. The procedure will be
performed on which of the following structures?
(A) Heel (B) Lower leg (C) Toes (D) Thigh (E) Pelvis
59 Oxygenated blood is carried to the heart by the
(A) aorta (B) carotid arteries C) inferior vena cava (D) pulmonary veins (E) superior vena cava
60. Exhaled air, when compared with inhaled air, contains more
(A) carbon dioxide and less oxygen (B) nitrogen and less carbon dioxide
(C) oxygen and less carbon dioxide (D) oxygen and less carbon monoxide (E) oxygen and less nitrogen
61. The muscle that is also known as the “six pack” is the
A. external oblique. B. rectus abdominus.
C. internal oblique. D. transverse abdominus.
62. Which of the following represents poor body mechanics or positioning?
A. bending at the waist to increase leverage
B. hands and arms relaxed to the side of the body
C. knees slightly bent with weight evenly distributed on both feet.
d. Shoulder relaxed.
63. What muscles flexes the elbow?
A. triceps and anconeus
B. brachialis, biceps brachii, and supinator
C. brachioradialis, supinator, and coracobrachialis
D. pronator teres, brachioradialis, and brachialis
64. Which specific joint in the body is the most mobile?
A. the shoulder B. the hip
C. the metacarpal-phalange D. the wrist
65. Ligaments are
A. slow to heal. B. receive poor blood supply.
C. attach bone to bone. D. All of the above are correct
66. Which of the following is not a function of the muscular system?
A. creating external and internal movement B. maintaining posture
C. production of heat D. exchange of gases
67. The largest joint in the body
A. shoulder. B. knee. C. hip. D. elbow
68. The function of ligaments is
A. to provide mobility. B. to stabilize the joint.
C. to cushion. D. None of the above are correct.
69. All of the following are types of connective tissue except
A. blood. B. cartilage. C. ligaments. D. organs.
70. The ability of a muscle to return to its original shape after being stretched is known as
A. irritability. B. contractibility. C. plastic elongation. D. PNF.
71. The three main types of connective tissue of the skeletal or muscular system are all of the following except
A. ligaments. B. joint capsule. C. cartilage. D. tendons.
72. The sternum articulates with how many ribs?
A. twelve pairs B. six pairs C. seven pairs D. five pairs
73. What is the largest muscle in the body?
A. Sartorius B. gluteus maximus C. quadriceps D. abdominas
74. The type of heat illness that is a medical emergency is
A. heat cramps. B.hypothermia. C.heat stroke. D.heat exhaustion.
75. The metacarpals are _______to the carpals.
A. proximal B. distal C. medial D. lateral
76. With your client’s elbow bent to ninety degrees, you apply resistance as he pulls his hand toward the navel. Pain is felt. This would
be inflammation of
A. latissimus dorsi. B. pectoralis major. C. subscapularis. D. All of the above are correct.
77. You are performing a push-up. You get about halfway off the floor and cannot push the rest of the way up. You struggle to go up,
but you cannot move. What type of muscle contraction is occurring on the biceps brachii?
A. isometric B. isotonic C. eccentric D. concentric
78. f a client has torn his or her supraspinatus muscle,he or she will not be able to
A. open a door. B. hold his or her arm out to the side.
C. push a grocery cart. D. None of the above is correct.
79. A concentric contraction of the biceps brachii results in
A. elbow extension. B. shoulder extension.
C. shoulder adduction. D. elbow flexion.
80. Thrusting the lower jaw forward is called
 A. protraction B. retraction. C.elevation. D. depression.
81. When the sole of the foot is turned outward, this is called
A. inversion. B. eversion. C. pronatiaon. D. supination.
82. The most distal bones of the foot are called
A. tarsals. B. phalanges. C. carpals. D. metatarsals.
83. Which of the following is an example of general motion?
a. An athlete during a 100 m sprint. b. The arm action of a swimmer in back stroke.
c. The winter Olympian gliding on ice. d. a male gymnast completing a full circle on the high bar.
84. Which of the following sporting examples is an application of Newton’s third law of motion?
a. In the sprint star, when the sprinter pushes down and back on the blocks apply and equal and opposite force on the sprinter.
b. In the 1500 m race, the athlete will continue to run with constant velocity unless acted upon an external force.
c. The large force exerted by a golf club on the gulf ball during a drive from the tee will cause the ball to accelerate quickly towards the
hole.
d. When an apple falls on the head of a famous footballer.
85. Which of the following statements does not apply to a body’s center of mass?
a. It is the point at which body is balanced in all directions. b. It determines the weight of the body.
c. Its position in body can change d. It can lie on a point outside of the body.
86. The muscle that is also known as the “six pack” is the
A. external oblique. B. rectus abdominus. C. internal oblique. D. transverse abdominus.
87. Which of the following represents poor body mechanics or positioning?
A. bending at the waist to increase leverage
B. hands and arms relaxed to the side of the body
C. knees slightly bent with weight evenly distributed on both feet.
d. Shoulder relaxed.
88. A muscle that flexes the knee and extends the hip is the
A. biceps femoris. B. rectus femoris. C. vastus lateralis. D. gluteus maximus
89. Which specific joint in the body is the most mobile?
A. the shoulder B. the hip C. the metacarpal-phalange D. the wrist
90. The mouth opens in a hinge-like motion due to which joint?
A. temporopteygoid joint B. maxilla-mandibular joint
C. ethmoid-sphenoid joint D. temporomandibular joint
91. How many types of synovial joints are there?
A. three B. four C. five D. six
92. Ligaments are
A. slow to heal. B. receive poor blood supply.
C. attach bone to bone. D. All of the above are correct.
93. The lubricating fluid that is found in moveable joints is called
A. serous fluid. B. synovial fluid. C. arthropometric fluid. D. diarthrotic fluid.
94. Which of the following is not a function of the muscular system?
A. creating external and internal movement B. maintaining posture
C. production of heat D. exchange of gases
95. The largest joint in the body
A. shoulder. B. knee. C. hip. D. elbow
96. The function of ligaments is
A. to provide mobility. B. to stabilize the joint. C. to cushion. D. None of the above are correct.
97. The three main types of connective tissue of the skeletal or muscular system are all of the following except
A. ligaments. B. joint capsule. C. cartilage. D. tendons.
98. The name of the upper jaw bone is the
A. zygomatic. B. masseter. C. mandible. D. maxilla.
99. The sternum articulates with how many ribs?
A. twelve pairs B. six pairs C. seven pairs D. five pairs
100. What is the largest muscle in the body?
A. Sartorius B. gluteus maximus C. quadriceps D. abdominas
101 The type of heat illness that is a medical emergency is
A. heat cramps. B. hypothermia. C. heat stroke. D. heat exhaustion.
102. A muscle synergistic to the biceps brachii is the
A. brachialis. B. coracobrachialis. C. brachioradialis. D. triceps.
103. When the hamstrings are acting as an antagonist, the movement is
A. hip extension. B. knee extension. C. knee flexion. D. Both A and C are correct.
104. Which muscle abducts the hip?
A. gluteus maximus B. gluteus medius C. hamstrings D. gracilis
105. The metacarpals are to the carpals.
A. proximal B. distal C. medial D. lateral
106. You are performing a push-up. You get about halfway off the floor and cannot push the rest of the way up. You struggle to go up,
but you will not move. What type of muscle contraction is occurring on the biceps brachii?
A. isometric B. isotonic C. eccentric D. concentric
107. An isometric muscle action is characterized by the production of force:
A. As a muscle lengthens due to extension of a joint.
B. Through movement generated in opposition to the downward pull of gravity.
C. As a muscle shortens due to flexion of a joint
D. Through tension and muscle contraction without movement.
108. An individual performs three sets of curls wit the same weights four days a week to strengthen the biceps. This best illustrates
which of the following principles of training?
 a) The principle of specificity of exercise
b) The principle of progression
c) The principle of reversibility of training effects
d) The principle of recuperation
109. Which of the following best describes how the principle of progressive overload should be applied in variable-resistance training
program designed to develop muscular endurance rather than strength?
a) Increasing the weight the muscles are required to resist over time.
b) Gradually increasing the number of repetitions of resistance exercises.
c) Decreasing the duration of rest intervals between different resistance exercises over time.
d) Gradually decreasing the length of time between resistance training sessions.
110. Exercise is generally an important part of treatment plans for people with diabetes because physical activity helps:
a) Protect the insulin-producing cells of the pancreas.
b) Reduce the build up of glucose in the blood.
c) Eliminate urinary problems associated with diabetes.
d) Prevent diabetes-induced changes in vision.
111. Vigorous cardiorespiratory fitness activities should be followed by cool-down and stretching activities in order to:
a) Trigger a final surge in metabolic rate before the body reverts to a resting rate.
b) Prevent sudden reduction in carbohydrates and glucose levels in the body.
c) Trigger a decrease in the level of growth hormone in the body.
d) Prevent muscle soreness and blood pooling in the extremities.
112. Which of the following best describes a physiological adaptation that results fro regular aerobic exercise training?
a) There is an increase in the maximum number of times the heart beats per minute.
b) The structure of the respiratory system is altered, causing beneficial changes in respiratory function.
c) The body is better able to produce energy from fat stored astriglycerides.
d) There is an increase in the percentage of fast twitch muscle fibers in the body.
113. An individual who currently jogs outdoors for exercise would like to try a low-impact alternative. The individual wants an aerobic
activity that would expend about as many calories as jogging and that would also tone lower body muscles such as the thighs and the
buttocks. Which of the following activities would be an appropriate initial consideration?
a) Pilates
b) Jumping rope
c) Bowling
d) Inline skating
114. Which of the following steps is most important to take first in selecting physical activities for inclusion in personal fitness plans?
a) Considering which types of activities are weather dependent and which are available year-round.
b) Determining the type of physical activities that one enjoys.
c) Searching for organizations or recreation departments that offer exercise classes in one’s community.
d) Estimating the costs associated with participating in different types of activities
115. Which of the following exercises would be most effective for developing core strength?
a) Push-up
b) Biceps curl
c) Abdominal curl up
d) Hamstring stretch
116. Body composition is a component of health-related fitness concerned primarily with the:
a) Absorption and use of nutrients by the body.
b) Ability of the skeletal system to give shape to the body.
c) Maintenance of bone mass in the body.
d) Relative proportions of fat and lean tissue in the body.
117. Which receives the impure blood coming from the different parts of the body through the superior and inferior vena cava?
a) Right ventricle c. Left atrium
b) Left ventricle d. Right atrium
118. Body composition is determined by which of the following formula?
a) Total weight-fat weight
b) Total weight-fat-free weight
c) Height in meters/weight in kg
d) Weight in kg/height in meters
119. What will you consider in designing a sound exercise program necessary in maintaining physical wellness?
a) Social preferences c. Individual needs
b) Individual differences d. Differences in body composition
120. This is where the complete process of digestion takes place.
a) Large intestine b Small intestine c. Stomach d. Mouth
PRACTICE TEST IN PHILIPPINE FOLKDANCE, FOREIGN FOLKDANCE AND OTHER DANCE FORMS

1. Which is not part of the group?

a. rhumba b. cha chacha c. samba d. waltz
2. Which does not characterize a natural/ untutored dance.
a. It is simply a creative dance b. It requires formal dance training
b. Artist’s freer expression d. anyone can dance it
3. Which best describe dancing.
a. a rhythmical movement of the body through music b. it expresses ideas and emotions
c. a form of exercise d. it narrates a story
4. Which is not part of the group?
a. solo /group dance b. court dance c. Ethnic dance d. festival dance
5. Which is not part of the group?
 a. promenade position b. left side by side
c. fall away position d. quick step
6. The spirit and the soul of Latin-American music and dance.
a. chacha b. rumba c. jive d. tango
7. This dance was first introduced in England in late 19 th century.
a. chacha b. boogie c, waltz d. tango
8. A combination of swing and mambo.
a. chacha b. boogie c. waltz d.tango
9. Which of the following country/culture has no influence on chacha development.
a. Mexican b. Afro-Cuban c. American d. Spanish
10. This kind of dance is solely for recreation or pleasure of the dancers/performers during formal
Parties and other social functions.
a. Ballroom dance b. Festival Dance
c. Social dance d. Ethnic Dance
11. Mans forward step taken outside woman on her right side. RF immediately infront of LF with the body slightly underturned in order
to maintain contact with the woman.
a. promenade position b. Fallaway position
c. Quickstep d. Left side by side position
12. Which of the following is not a generic name of rumba.
a. Son-montano b. Mambo c. Conga d. curacha
13. Dance which reflects the everyday life of the common man.
a. Art dance b. Social dance c. Folkdance d. Modern dance
14. Folk dancers usually have a distance of about 4-5 ft away from each other, this suggests that:
a. Filipino dancers never have a contact with each other.
b. Filipino dancers exhibit conservative culture.
c. Filipino dancers maintain distance to show respect to each other.
d. Filipino dancers are very timid and shy.
15. Mazurka Mindorena’s music is divided into how many music parts?
a. 3 parts b. 4 parts c. 5 parts d. 6 parts
16. In Mazurka Mindorena female dancers wear a Maria Clara-style costume while boys wear
a. Barong Tagalog and trousers b. Barong and trousers
c. Barong tagalong and black trousers d. Barong with sarong and trousers.
17. Mazurka is dance in the following step pattern.
a. step, cross-step b. step hop glide c. slide cut hop and swing d. slide cut hop
18. change step is dance in the following step pattern.
a. step cross step and close b. step close- step, step
b. slide cut and hop d. step close point
19. The following statement about folk dancing is true except,
a. Folk dancing improves and maintains grace and poise.
b. Folk dancing promotes Filipino culture.
c. Folk dancing started during pre-Hispanic era.
d. Folk dancing mirrors everyday life of Filipinos.
20. The following are the basic dance steps in mazurka Mindorena, except.
a. Mazurka b. hop step c. Sway Balance d. step point
21. In all the dance figures of Mazurka Mindorena, the couples;
a. Faces each other b. figures 1, 3 and 5 partners face each other.
c. figures 2, 4 and 6 partners face each other d. partners stand side by side
22. On this dance figure of mazurka Mindorena the couples executes double sway balance steps R,L alternately arms in 4 th
position R,L alternately.
a. figure I b. figure II c. figure III d. figure IV
23. What is a samal dance of noble women which shows off women’s dexterity and flexibility of the shoulder, elbow and wrists
joints?
a. Maglanka b. Jangguy c. Kandingan d. Sua-sua
24. Which of these humurous dance of Holland is depicting how a boy teasingly asks a bite from an apple?
a) Barbary Bell b. Kalvelis c. Dutch couple dance d. Oyda
25. Which of the following is the equivalent of the italian word “ballare”?
a) Folkdance b. Ballet c. Tap Dance d. Social Dance
26. Which dance depicts the act of mother fonding, caressing and feeding her baby?
a) Rabong b. Tinalabong c. Sinalampato d. Kalapati
27. Which is a dance performed after lutrina, a religious procession?
a) Vales Ybanag b. Balse Marikina c. Saya Sta. Isabel d. Valse Viaje
28. What is this dance term which is executed by swinging the arm downward passing infrom of the body as if scooping with the
trunk bending forward following the movement of the arm?
a) Sarok b. Salok c. Swing d. Hayon hayon
29. Joel is instructed by his PE teacher to dance habanera step pattern what rhythmic pattern will he use?
a) 1,2 and b. 1 and 2 c. 1,2,2 d. 1,2
30. Which of the following dance steps can be performed in 3 4 time music?
a) Hopsa b. Dutch step c. Break legs d. Rheinlander step
31. Which is a visayan dance term?
a) Sarok b. Bilao c. Jaleo d. Salok
32. From what region does Pandanggo Rinconada dance originate?
 a) Visayas b. Ilocos c. Tagalog d. Bicol
33. What dance is referred to as a lively festival dance which means “ to transfer from one place to another”?
a) Innalisan b. Lubi-lubi c. Te-silaw d. Ba-ingles
34. What is the visayan term which means “ to plae one forearm in front and the other behind the waist?
a) Hapay b. Jaleo c. Kumintang d. Hayon-hayon
35. Which steps have the same time signature?
a) Mazurka & minuet b. Polka and redoba c. Change step and waltz dance d. Pas de basque & hopsa
36. Who is the mother of folkdances and the national artist in Dance?
a) FRancisca Reyes Aquino b. RA Obusan c. Leonor Orosa d. Lucresia Kasilag
37. Originally this famous festival dance was a war dance.
a) Ati-atihan b. Sinulog c. Singkil d. Maglalatik
38. Which dance is not part of the group?
a) Chotis b. Pantomina de sorsogon c. Pandanggo sa ilaw
39. Philippine folkdances can be classified among the following categories except.
a) Place of origin b. Purpose c. Steps d. Music and costumes
40. This all can be performed in in 24 or 34 time except.
a) Bleking b. Arms in lateral position c. Close step d. Touch step

TABLE COMPLETION OF BASIC DANCE STEPS FOR 24 AND 34 TIME

Name of Basic Dance steps in 24 Step Pattern and counting Name of Basic Dance steps in 24 Step Pattern and counting
1. 1.
2. 2.
3. 3.
4. 4.
5. 5.
6. 6.
7. 7.
8. 8.
9. 9.
10. 10.
11. 11.
12. 12.
13. 13.
14. 14.
15. 15.

BELOW ARE NAMES OF DANCES FROM THE PHILIPPINES PLEASE CLASSIFY THEM ACCORDING TO THE CATEGORIES OF
DANCES WHICH ARE AS FOLLOWS;

Table 1.
1. Maria Clara Dances
2. Mountain and Igorot Dances
3. Muslim Dances
4. Rural and barrio dances suite
5. Tribal dances

Table 2.
6. Folkdances from Luzon and specific place/province from luzon
7. Folkdances from Visayas and specific place/province from Visayas
8. Folkdances from Mindanao and specific place/province from Mindanao

TABLE 1 OPTIONS

Bindian, Wasiwas, Sayaw Sa Bangko, maglangka, lumagin, Carinosa, dinuya,

Aray, Dugso, pattong, Sagayan Maglalatik, pangalay,
sakpaya, alcamfor, singkil, Bulaklakan, Tagabili sagayan,
rigodon de honor, banga, Chotis, asik, panderetas, Kuratsa,
Tinikling, Pandanggo sa Ilaw, Itik-itik Dumadel Udol Dance Karasaguyon havanera
de jovencita, Kalapati, Ragragsakan Tarektek

Maria Clara Dances Mountain and Igorot Muslim Dances Rural and Barrios Tribal Dances
Dance Suites
TABLE 2 OPTIONS

Kalapati La Jota Manilena Maglalatik Palu-palo Chotis Aray

Bindian Sayaw Sa Bangko Sublian Kuratsa Tinikling
Dugso
Pandanggo sa Ilaw-Lubang Itik-itik- Sagayan- Singkil
Kasaraguyon- Udol Maglangka Pangalay

Folkdances from Luzon and its Folkdances from Visayas and its Folkdances from Mindanao and its
specific Province specific Place specific place
eg. Pantomina sa Tinampo- Sorsogon

PRACTICE TEST HEALTH EDUCATION

1. It is the study of birth rate, death rate and migration.

a. demography b. geography c. gerontology d. thanatology
2. Which of the following helps in the increase of population?
a. deportation b. migration c. immigration d. exiles
3. A process when one develops awareness and understanding of population.
a. population b. demography c. population education
4. A process reducing population.
a. fertility b. migration c. mortality d. reproduction
5. It refers to the actual number of births applied to an individual or to a group.
a. fertility b. birth rate c. death rate d. migration
6. The following statements are population situations, except.
 a. If birth increases population grows.
b. If death exceeds birth population declines.
c. Migration either increases or decreases population.
d. Migration balances population through redistribution.
7. The following are some of the marked progress in medical science, except.
a. Immunization, b. Surgery c. Development of antibiotics d. feng shui practices
8. The overall coordinator of all the activities of the PPMP.
a. PopCom b. PPMP c. LGU d. DSWD
9. Sustainable Development is the main concern of the PRE framework and is looking at what social institution as focal
point?
a. Family b. community c. school d. barangay
10. Refers to the number of people living in a community.
a. population b. demography c. migration d. census
11. The following are factors why people migrate, except;
a. factors associated with the area of origin
b. factors associated with the area of destination
c. personal factors and those that affects directly people
d. localization
12. The main proponent of the Reproductive health Law.
a. Cong. Salvador Escudero b. Cong. Edcel Lagman
c. Cong. Mikey Arroyo d. Cong. Manny Pacquiao
13. Sound Health program in the community is aimed to protect and promote the health of the people, this may be best
implemented, when;
a. Providing safe and accessible water supply
b. Providing means of an effective sewage treatment and disposal.
c. Strong support between people who are the direct beneficiaries of the government programs on health promotion
and the officials implementing the program.
d. Manage efficient & effective means of combating agents of diseases.
14. Drugs are important but the use of it has
a. No limit b. limitations c. depends on the user d. all of the above
15. It is shown that by increasing the dosage again and again and eventually even large amounts will no longer bring the
feeling of well-being.
a. Withdrawal b. tolerance c. rehabilitation d. malnutrition
16. Drug abuse is common among
a. Teenager b. children c. Middle age d. adult
17. The poor man’s cocaine is
a. Morphine b. shabu c. codeine d. heroin
18. The policy making and coordinating agency in drug prevention
a. Dangerous Drug Board c. Department of Health
b. Drug Abuse Research Foundation, Inc d. NBI
19. Amphetamines are better known as
a. pot b. pep pills c. stick d. fine powder
20. One of the physiological effects of shabu is
a. Chest pain b. death c. hypertension d. all of the above
21. The slang name for shabu
a. Dexies b. ubas c. heart d. metamphetamine
22. The best way to solve a problem is to
a. Pretend not to have a problem b. Face the problem and find a solution c. Turn to drugs
23. Which best illustrates Wear and tear theory of aging?
a. It takes longer for the stomach of the elderly to digest food.
b. The dimming vision in later years.
c. Older people tends to be forgetful
d. Older people results to regressive behavior

24. “You are as old as you feel” is what theory of aging?

a. Disengagement theory b. continuing Theory c. Wear and tear theory d. Activity Theory
25. Known as the study of aging.
a. Thanatology b. gerontology c. psychology
26. Which best explains death?
a. permanent loss of life c. a only b. stoppage of vital organs functions d. a and b
27. Which is not true about death?
a. every living thing must and will die.
b. death and final and irreversible
c. grief responses are normal and necessary
 d. a person may prepare for it in denial
28. When couples are able to help and become partners in attaining their individual dreams they exercise________.
a. love b. growth c. cooperation d. care
29. When couples accept and love each other’s imperfections and attributes they exercise ________.
a. cooperation b. care c. understanding d. tolerance
30. When couples set principles that they both believed in and practice they exercise _________.
a. Growth b. shared philosophy c. sharing and giving d. care
31. Which is not part of the considerations for parenthood?
a. Happiness and stability of the marriage of couple involved.
b. Financial stability
c. Physical and emotional readiness.
d. home and resources
32. Which does not describe marriage?
a. A union of two people. b. A partnership based on love.
c. A dynamic relationship. d. The most enjoyable human relationship.
32. A disorder of behavior due to emotional tension.
a. organic psychoses b. neurosis c. denial d. disorientation
33. A person rationalizes when____________.
a. Like to take the blame for their faults.
b. Bribe their elders with promises.
c. substitute words for deeds.
d. always gives explanations or reasons for their failures rather than their faults.
34. When a person reaches a point where no further improvement can be expected, he is in so-called
a. development crisis b. learning plateau c. regression d. depression
35. Which best illustrates the importance of Family Planning?
a. Family planning ensures improvement of the quality of life.
b. Family planning ensures the integrity of marriage.
c. Family planning ensures the development of the children.
d. Family planning ensures the propagation of human species.
36. The oldest method of family planning method.
a. calendar method b. pill c. withdrawal d. rhythm method
37. A thin rubber cup that covers the cervix and prevents the sperm from entering the womb.
a. IUD b. diaphragm c. condom d. pill
38. Which best represent the moral aspect of family planning?
a. The moral value or disvalue of family planning lies on whether or not it contributes to the welfare of the country.
b. The moral value of family planning lies on the motivation of the couple in using contraceptives.
c. The moral value of family planning lies on the methods of contraception that have been developed.
39. Refuse collection is used to designate all solid waste materials from homes. If garbage collector is not available, what is
the best thing to do for proper garbage disposal?
a) dumping garbage into rivers or bodies of water
b) burning in an incinerator
c) burying it in the soil
d) all of the above
40. in compressing the chest of an adult victim, you will use:
a) 1 heel of hand b) the middle and ring fingers c) two heels of the hand one over the other
41. Which of the following sources of health information, products and services is the most reliable?
a) customs and superstitions c) family physician and local health officer
b) radio and tv advertisements d) quackery
42. water pollution results when water contains substances like harmful and posisonous chemicals. which of these
substances likely cause?
a) cardiovascular disease b) gastro-intestinal disease c) respiratory disease
43. which of the following is the best first aid for simple cuts?
a) wrap the cut with guava leaves b) use torniquet c) direct pressure to the cut portion and elevation

44. what food groups provides us with heat and energy?

a) vitamins b) carbohydrates c) protein d) minerals
45. Communicable diseases are caused by all of the ff; except:
a) viruses b) fungi c) carcinogens d) bacteria
46. What is most important in an ideal healthful community living?
a) lighting source b) good housing c) good water supply d) health of the family
47. A deadly strain of fever which originate from middle east is called:
a) Corona H1N1 b) avian flu virus c) MERS d) Anthrax virus
48. whihc of these may be prescribe to control extreme pain?
a) antibiotic b) opium c) stimulants d) morphine
49. Narcotics when not use properly may harm which part or organ of the human body?
 a) lungs b) kidneys c) brain d) liver
50. Which best describes an intelligent health consumer?
a) goes to the best doctor in town
b) participates actively in consumers organizations
c) evaluates health products and informations critically
d) informs others of their rights and privileges as consumers
51. Cardio respiratory fitness can best be defined as the ability to:
a) execute high intensity muscle conractions over and over again
b) generate force repeatedly without experiencing fatigue
c) engage in strenous physical activity without experiencing pain or stiffness
d) perform aerobic activity for sustained periods of time
52. Whihc of the following typically exerts the greatest influence on the development of gender roles?
a) Maslows heirarchy of needs c) body image
b) the socialization process d) sexual maturation
53. Which of the following is an important responsibility of both people who are in a dating relationship?
a) discussing the ways in which each partner could support the long term life plans of the other partner
b) maintaining open lines of communication about issues and concerns related to the relationships
c) regularly weighing the advantages and disadvantages of remaining in a committed relationship
d) evaluating ones dating partner in terms of how he or she is percieved by friends and acquantances
54. Among sexually active people, which of the following is a significant risk factor for contracting HIV?
a) having pre existing genetic blood disorder
b) being sexually involved with an individual who has had multiple partners
c) recieving a blood transfusion or organ transplant
55. according to research on human development, which of the following factors typically exerts the strongest positive
influence on the emotional health and wellness of older adults?
a) continuuing to work full time until well past the traditinal retirement age range
b) exploring a variety of alternative lifestyles and self-improvement programs
c) sustaining close relationships with friends, siblings and extended family members
56. Some health professionals believe that when a person ha little opportunity to act in a self-directed way, the person
may develop a deeply felt need for control. when this need is met through excessive control over one's body, t becomes a
coping behavior that is signifcant in the development of:
a) bipolar or manic depressive disorder c) anorexia or bulimia nervosa
b) schizophrenia d) asperger's syndrome
57. Which best describes the role of nonverbal communication?
a) decreasing the risk of confrontation c) alleviating the need for vrbal comunnication
b) negating cultural beliefs d) reinforcing verbal communication
58. Positive peer pressure resulting from membership in a clique is most likely to have which of the ff effects on an
adolescent's social development?
a) promoting feelings of competency c) increasing communication skills
b) encouraging healthy goal setting d) influencing spiritual beliefs
59. A young couple is expecting the birth of a child in several months. Because the wife's mother is widowed and lives
alone, the couple asks her to live with them and she accepts. Which of the ff types of diverse family structures is about to
be created?
a) nuclear b) extended c) blended d) nontraditional
60. Which of the following parenting strategies would be an effective first step in helping children cope in the event that a
parent becomes seriously ill?
a) engaging in weekly psychotherapy to manage behavioral changes
b) spending more time with extended family to alleviate stress.
c) reading books to understand medical treatments
d) providing opportunities to express feelings unconditionally
61. Which of the ff skills most effectively supports a young couple's ability to make appropriate parenting decisions?
a) communication b) career c) management d) social

62. Which of the following best describes the most effective way to prevent fungal diseases?
a) keeping clothes dry and maintaining good personal hygiene
b) thoroughly cooking animal food producst and avoiding infected water
c) exercising regularly and eating a balanced diet
d) washing hands regularly and avoiding contact with infected persons
63. Which of the following bes describes three common signs of cancer?
a) weakness and fatigue, weight loss, and inflammation of the joints
b) sores that do not heal, unusual bleeding, and the appearance or thickening of a lump on the body
c) severe headache, sensitivity to light, cataract formation
d) painful muscle spasms, persistent periods of nausea and vomiting, and feeling of pressure in the chest.
64. What is the common characteristics of chicken pox, measles, tetanus, diphteria and polio?
a) They are all caused by bacterial organisms.
b) they all do major damage to the immune system.
c) they are all diseases of the circulatory system.
d) they can all be prevented with vaccines
65. Which of the ff is considered a primary contributing factor in a young person's propensity to misuse alcohol or drugs?
a) living in an urban area b) being an only child c) being a child of a substance abuser d) having chronic illness
66. Which of the ff best describes why alcohol increases te likelihood of injury for people engaged in recreational
activities?
a) alcoholic beverages contain psychoactive drug called ethanol
b) alcohol use enhances sensory perception and causes exagerrated tactile sensations
c) alcohol use impairs motor reflexes and slows reaction time
d) alcoholic beverages containingredients that speeds up metabolism
67. Which of the following methods should one generally use first when trying to control bleeding from a wound?
a) applying pressure indirectly to the wound by placing the thumb or finger on apressure point
b) using a splint to create a pressure bandage
c) applying direct pressure to the wound and elevating the bleeding part
d) making a torniquet and applying it to the wound.
68. A shock victim should be place in which of the ff position?
a) on his or her side in the recovery position
b) on his or her back with the head elevated
c) in a semi sitting position
d) on his or her back with the legs elevated.
69. Noise pollution is most likely to cause which of the ff health problems?
a) dizziness and visual disorders
b) fatigue and memory impairment
c) headaches and tensions
d) hypersensitivity and nausea
70. Which of the ff school practices effectively minimizes the incidence of bullying behavior among the students.
a) developing a strict code of conduct as part of the handbook
b) conducting behavioral screenings annually
c) creating a standardized incident report forms
d) incorporating social skills training into the curriculum
71. A hgh school student receves anonymous, lewd messages on a public network website. This form of mediated
communication is a sign of?
a) teasing b) harrasment c) flirting d) abuse
72. Which of the ff individual practices would be most effective for supporting the local environment and the economy?
a) buying generic product rather than brand name products at a local retail businesses
b) donating household items and clothing to local charitable institutions
c) composting household food wastes
d) purchasing locally grown food and locally produced household items whenever possible
73. Which of the following best describes the primary aim of the three Rs of the waste heirarchy: reduce, reuse and
recycle?
a) to integrate the spillover costs of a given product into the market price of that product
b) to obtain maximum practical benfit from products while generating the minimum amount of waste
c) to ensure that waste generators pay an equitable share of the costs of wate disposal
d) to provide incentives for the properdisposal of nonhazardous commercial and industrial waste
74. Individuals who are exposd to persistent peer and media pressures to engage in unhealthy behaviors would benefit
most from:
a) expanding their circle of friends
b) understanding and practicing resistance skills
c) becoming vocal advocates of wellness
d) setting short and long term health goals
75. A teacher hears a small group of students making a homophobic comments and jokes in class. In this situation the
teacher has an immediate ethical responsibility to:
a) report the names of the students who made the comments and jokes to the principal.
b) actively respond to these instances of discrimination as they occur
c) examine his or her own teaching style and instructional approach for any evidence of bias
PRACTICE TEST- MUSIC

1. It refers to the distance between two adjacent pitches.

a. pitch b. degrees c. interval d. semitone
2. The distance between two pitches sounded simultaneously.
a. melodic interval b. harmonic interval c. natural minor d. tone row
3. The distance between two pitches sounded consecutively.
 a. melodic interval b. harmonic interval c. natural minor d. tone row
4. In counting the distance between pitches the number of the lower note is always____.
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
5. What does a perfect interval become when lowered a half step.
a. augmented b. minor c. major d. diminished
6. What does a major interval become when raised a half-step.
a. augmented b. minor c. major d. diminished
7. What does a perfect interval become when lowered a half-step.
a. augmented b. minor c. major d. diminished

8. What does a major interval become when lowered a half-step.

a. augmented b. minor c. major d. diminished
9. Which is not part of the group.
a. natural minor b. melodic minor c. harmonic minor d. chromatic minor

10. Which notes of the major scale are lowered to make the natural minor scale.
a. 3rd, 6th, 7th b. 3rd, 6th, 8th c. 2nd, 5th, 8th d. 2nd, 4th, 6th
11. The relative minor of D flat major.
a. Key of B b. Key Bb c. Key F d. Key of C
12. Which best explains the difference between a natural minor scale from a melodic minor scale.
a. 6th & 7th degrees are raised a half-step going up & naturalized going down.
b. 3rd, 6th, 7th degrees are always lowered to a half-step.
c. 3rd, 6th degrees are always sharpened.
d. Only the 6th and 7th degrees are sharpened.
13. Does minor scales have leading tones.
a. No B. Yes c. It depends on its relative major
14. Which best explains the relationship between key signatures and major scale.
a. A key signature serves as a home tone.
b. A key signature gives correct tonal pattern/steps for a major scale.
c. A key signature gives color to the tone of a major scale.
15. Which is the correct order of flats?
a. FBEADGC b. GDAEBFC c. BEADGCF d. FCGDAED
16. Which key has only one flat in it?
a. Fb b.Gb c. Ab d. Bb
17. Which minor key has four flats?
a. F min. b. E min c. G min d. A min
18. Which are the correct flats in the key of E major?
a. FBE b. GDA c. FCG d. BEA
19. How many flats are in the key of C major?
a. None b. 1 c. 2 d. 3
20. Which is the correct order of sharps?
a. FBEADGC b. GDAEBFC c. BEADGCF d. FCGDAED
21. Which minor key has seven flats?
a. Cb minor b. Ab min c. Gb min d. Eb min
22. What is the key signature having 4 sharps in it?
a. A b. E c. B d. F
23. Which best describe the location of a key signature?
a. at the beginning of music in the first measure before the time signature.
b. at the beginning of music between the clef sign and the time signature.
c. at the beginning of a staff after the g and f clef signs.

24. How many half-steps does an octave have?

a. 8 b. 10 c. 12 d. 14
25. Which is the correct tonal pattern of a major scale?
a. TTSTTTS b. TSTTSTS c. TTSTTST d. TSTTTTS
26. Between which degrees of the major scale do the half-steps occur?
a. 3-4, 6-7 b. 2-3, 7-8 c. 3-4, 7-8 d. 4-5, 6-7
27. What does accidentals do?
a. It lowers the interval b. It higher the interval c. It alters the pitch of a note d. It alters the tempo
28. Which is not a part of the group?
a. sharps b. flats c. clef d. natural
29. Where are accidentals written?
a. In front of a note b. In the same space/ line of a note c. A only d. B only e. A and B
30. In dealing with flat keys, which number is to be flattened?
a. 4th note b. 5th note c. 3rd note d. 7th note
31. In dealing with sharp keys, which note number is to be sharpened?
a . 4th note b. 5th note c. 3rd note d. 7th note
32. How long does the effect of accidentals last?
a. for an entire measure b. for an entire music c. for an entire staff d. for an entire clef
33. How many notes can accidentals be used with?
a. 7 b. 6 c. All of them d. 4 only
34. Which is not part of the group?
a. C sharp, Db b. F sharp, Gb c. E sharp, Fb d. C sharp, D
36. Which is not part of the group?
a. perfect b. major c. minor d. parallel augmented
37. How many flats does Ab minor have?
a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7
38. How many sharps does a B minor have?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5.
39. Which is not part of the triad?
a. root b. 3rd c. 4th d. 5th
40. Chinese Music experience some form of development on the following periods except;
a. Shang Dynasty b. Chou Dynasty c. Tang Dynasty d. Qin Dynasty
41. The overblown fifths as the basis of Chinese musical system is called.
a. Hus System b. Pien System c. Lu System d.Chiao System
42. A name use to distinguish a true mangyan.
a. Hanunuo b. Badyang c. Hanuot d. Tribo Basakano
43. A lyrical chant song of the pure mangyan.
a. Lambakun b. Ambahan c. Salidummay d. Batiwtiw
44. The manner of recording ambahan.
a. inscribing to a bamboo tube. b. carving in to a bamboo tube
c. sculpturing to a bamboo tube. d. none of the above
45. The ambahan is recorded in a bamboo tube called.
a. gitgit b. luka c. kudlong d. kawayan
46. Chinese ritual music is called.
a. yugio b. suyue c. karatong d. yayue
47. The Chinese secular music is called.
a. yugio b. suyue c. karatong d. yayue
48. Which of the following are Chinese changing/passing tones?
a. Pien Chiao and Pien Kung b. Pien chi and Pien shang
b. Pien Kung and Pien Yu d. Pien Chi and Pien Kung.
49. A Chinese song about a bamboo tube.
a. Hsiao b. Hua Ku Ko c. Feng Yang Song
50. The ambahan has a maximum line of about.
a. 143 b. 134 c. 434 d. 144
51. The scale where most of Asian Music is based at.
a. heptatonic b. septatonic c. both d. none of the above
52. The following are instruments of Mindoro except;
a. Gitgit b. batiwtiw c. kinaban d. debacan
53. The following are ensemble instruments of Mindoro except;
a. Buray-dipay b. Kalutang c. Gambal
a. continuous guidance of parents to their children.

54. The following are important contents of ambahan except;

b. For the elders to express their love to a person.
c. for the society to maintain good habits, beliefs and rituals of their ethnic group.
55. What best describe Romanticism.
a. A period when Industrial revolution and capitalism grew.
b. A period characterized by expansion in all aspects of life.
c. A period of experimentation in music.
56. The most important musical instrument of the romantic period.
a. Guitar b. violin c. harp d. piano
57. The following are the keynote theme of the Romantic period except;
 a. freedom b. political c. personal d. objectivity
58. Which of the following does not characterize Arts in the Romantic Period?
a. stressed individualism and emotion b. glorification of nature
c. exotic influences d. strong parallelism
59. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
a. Byron b. Allan Poe c. Longfellow d. Rodin
60. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
a. Chopin b. Delacroix c. Berlioz d. Verdi
61. Which is not a work of Chopin?
a. Polonaise b. etude c. Nocturne d. rhapsodies
62. Franz Liszt is known as piano virtuoso because;
a. He possesses extreme technical skills in instrumental music.
b. He is extremely good in playing piano.
c. He managed to developed high technical skills in playing piano and exploiting its resources.
d. He exploited very well the technical and tonalities of a piano instrument.
63. A short instrumental piece written as an introduction to a musical play or composition.
a. nocturne b. art song c. prelude d. overture
64. A musical drama.
a. play b. Broadway musical c. opera d. lied
65. The father of Italian Opera.
a. Francois Verdi b. Giuseppe Verdi c. Hector Verdi d. Tchaikovsky
66. He advocated nationalism in Norway through his music.
a. Schubert b. Berlioz c. Grieg d. Brahms
67. The master orchestrator of the romantic period.
a. Liszt b. Chopin c. Berlioz d. Verdi
68. Which is not part of the group?
a. La Donna E Mobile b. Rigoletto c. La Traviata d. II Trovatore
69. Known as the Prince of all Composers.
a. Mozart b. Chopin c. Beethoven d. Schubert
70. Which does not characterize modern art?
a. A contemporary styles of visual art b. emphasizes experimentation and sensibility
b. Artist’s freer expression d. subdued themes
71. Which does not represent Romantic music?
a. rhapsodies d. Art songs c. Broadway musical play d. symphony
72. What best describe Classical Period.
a. A period of Industrial revolution and Napoleonic war.
b. A period wherein cultural life was dominated by the aristocracy.
c. A period of experimentation in music.
d. The age of romance and adventure.
73. This is predominantly homophonic during the classical period.
a. tempo b. melody c. texture d. harmony
74. The following represents classical concepts except;
a. clarity b. restraint c. balance d. subjectivity
75. Which of the following does not characterize Classical Arts?
a. elegance b. formalized c. personal d. restrained
76. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
a. Goya b. Ingres c. Longfellow d. Compley
77. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
a. Mozart b. Haydn c. Schubert d. Beethoven
78. Wolfgang Amadeus Mozart is known as the “child prodigy” because;
a. He came from a very musical family.
b. He managed to create most of the worlds beautiful music’s.
c. He showed extreme gift and skills in music at a very early age.
d. He exploited very well the technical and tonalities of a piano instrument.
79. An instrumental piece written for a solo instrument.
a. rondo b. symphony c. sonata d. opera

80. An Italian Comic Opera.

a. Opera Comique b. Opera Buffa c. Singspiel d. Ballad Opera
81. A composition for an orchestra.
a. concerto b. sonata c. symphony d. opera
82. Which is not part of the group?
a. Magic Flute b. Moonlight Sonata c. Surprise Symphony d. Epitaph
83. Known as the most important musical form that was of the classical period.
 a. Sonata b. sonata- allegro c. rondo d. cadenza
84. Which does not represent Classical Music?
a. sonata d. minuet c. comic opera d. symphony
85. Grand March of Verdi in his Aida is in what time signature?
a. C b. 2/4 c. ¾ d. cut time signature
86. Which does not characterize Liszt music?
a. Usage of unconventional tones b. chromatics c. dissonances d. slow arpeggios
87. Which does not describe an Art song?
a. Compositions for solo voice and piano
b. Poetry and music are intimately fused
c. Typical forms used: strophic and through-composed
d. Originates from Hungary
88. Which is not part of the group
a. piccolo b. clarinet c. bassoon d. trumpet
89. The loudness and softness of sound?
a) Pitch b) duration c) intensity d) timbre
90. The length of time between the beginning and the end of a sound?
a) Pitch b) duration c) intensity d) timbre
91. The unique quality of the sound.
a) Pitch b) duration c) intensity d) timbre
92. The grouping of sounds and silences of varying duration, usually controlled by a regular beat?
a) Rhythm b) melody c) harmony d) form
93. The time, pace or speed of music?
a) tempo b) rhythm c) beat d) dynamics
94. The horizontal relationship among tones of successive pitches or tones that go up and down and remain the same?
a) Rhythm b) melody c) harmony d) form
95. The simultaneous sounding of tones in the vertical relationship among tones?
a) Texture b) melody c) harmony d) form
96. The system of organization that determines the structure of the musical composition.
a) Texture b) melody c) harmony d) form
97. The level of volume in music.
a) Tempo b) rhythm c) beat d) dynamics
98. The steady pulse of music.
a) Tempo b) rhythm c) beat d) dynamics
99. Consists of two number at the beginning of a musical staff.
a) Beat b)rhythm c) meter d) fermata
100. The symbols use to determine pitch and time.
a) Notes b) rests c) meter d) fermata
101. It means hold or silence.
a) Notes b) rests c) meter d) fermata
102. This means slow
a) Grave b) lento c) presto d) allegro
103. This means very fast
a) Largo b) lento c) presto d) allegro
104. This means moderately fast
a) Allegro b) adagio c) andante d) allegretto
105. What does piano means?
a) Soft b) loud c) very loud d) very soft
106. What does forte means?
a) Soft b) loud c) very loud d) very soft
107. If the meter is 3 4 what is the value of dotted crotchet?
a) 1 1/2 b. 2 c) 3 d) 1
108. If the meter is 3 2 what is the value of a half note?
A) 1 1/2 b. 2 c) 3 d) 1
109. If the meter is 6 8 what is the value of a quarter note?
A) 1 1/2 b. 2 c) 3 d) 1
110. What are the instruments that produce sounds by vibrating themselves?
a) Aerophones b) membranophones c) chordophones d) idiophones
111. What are the instruments that produce sound by vibration of the membrane?
A) Aerophones b) membranophones c) chordophones d) idiophones
112. What are the instruments that produce sound by vibration of the strings?
A) Aerophones b) membranophones c) chordophones d) idiophones
113. What are the instruments that produce sound by vibrating air?
A) Aerophones b) membranophones c) chordophones d) idiophones
114. Which of the following instruments is NOT a chordophone?
 a) Kettle drum b) cello c) guitar d) piano
115. What texture in music has one melody and its accompaniment?
a) Monophony b) homophony c) polyphony d) heterophony
116. In which period of music history is the rebirth of interest in the arts?
a) Renaissance period b) baroque period c) classical period d) romantic period
117. In which period of music history is the birth of an opera?
A) Renaissance period b) baroque period c) classical period d) romantic period
118. Which period of music history has the characteristics of having much ornamentation in styles?
A) Renaissance period b) baroque period c) classical period d) romantic period
119. Which period in music history was the sonata and symphony invented?
A) Renaissance period b) baroque period c) classical period d) romantic period
120. Etudes and program music were created in which period?
A) Renaissance period b) baroque period c) classical period d) romantic period
122. Which composer promoted music literacy through singing ( hand signals) as the key to musicianship?
a) Prokofiev b) grieg c) kodaly d) dalcrose
123. Who composed the song “the sound of music” ?
a) Andrew lloyd webber b) george gershwin c) rodger hammerstein d. Richard rodgers
124. Who composed “Phantom of the Opera” and “Cats”
A) Andrew lloyd webber b) george gershwin c) rodger hammerstein d. Richard rodgers
125. Which is NOT a characteristics of Philippine Indigenous Music?
a) 4 4 rhythm b) free rhythm c) interlocking melodies d) homogenous instrumnts.
126. What is zarsuela?
a) Filipino musical theater b) spanish theater novela c) spanish operetta d) filipino zarsuela
127. The composer of the Philippine National Anthem?
a) Francisco Santiago b) Jose Rizal c) Julian Felipe d) Jose Palma
128. The lyricist of the Philippine National Anthem
a) Francisco Santiago b) Jose Rizal c) Julian Felipe d) JOse Palma
129. The Father of Kundiman music in the Philippines.
a) Francisco Santiago b) Nicanor Abelardo c) Julian Felipe d) Lucio San Pedro
130. Who composed the avant garde ugma ugma?
a) Ernani Cuenco b) Ramon Santos c) Chino Toledo d) Jose Maceda
131. The Chinese Yin System consists of 8 sounds or materials. What are these sound or materials?
a) Clay, stone, metal, bamboo, wood, silk, skin and gourd
b) Clay, stone metal, bamboo, wood, silk, skin and gold
c) Clay ,stone, metal, bamboo, wood, silk, sliver and gold
d) Clay copper, metal, bamboo, nickel, silk, skin and gourd.
132. What are the three categories of Korean Court Music?
a) Aak, Hyang ak, and Tang ak c) Aak, Sog ak and Chong ak
b) Aak, Sog ak and Tang ak d) Aak, Hyang ak and Minsogak
133. What is a kayagum?
a) A four stringed KOrean lute c) A four stringed bowed instrument
b) A board zither d) A two stringed bowed instrument
134. What is a Pansori
a) A short lyric song b) a long lyric song c) narrative song d) dramatic song
135. What is a Sijo?
a) Korean short lyric song c) korean narrative song
b) KOrean long lyric song d) korean dramaric song
136. What scale is usually use in Japanese music?
a) Pentatonic scale b) major scale c) minor scale d) natural scale
137. What is gagaku?
a) Japanese folk music b) ancient court music c) buddhist ritual music d) japanese stringed music
138. What is a Kabuki?
a) Japanese traditional theater known for its drama c) Art of japanese flower arrangements
b) Japanese traditional puppet theater d) Japanese dramatic song
139. What is a koto?
a) A 3 stringed lute b) a 13 stringed lute c) a 13 stringed zither d) a 3 stringed zither
140. What are the two traditions of Indian Classical music?
a) Buddhist and hindustani music c) hindustani and Carma music
b) Buddhist and carnatic music d) hindustani and carnatic music
141. What is the melody of the Indian classical music?
a) Raga b) shruti c) Carma d) tala
142. What is the tonal center of the Indian Classical music?
a) Raga b) shruti c)carma d) tala
143. What is a tabla?
a) A pair of sisngle-headed drums played by a single performer c) An hour glass drum
 b) A two headed barrel drum popular in south india d) A drone instrument
144. What is a ranak-ek?
a) A gong circle c) A thai xylophone made of bamboo and hard wood
b) A two headed barrel drum d) Small hand cymbals
145. What is the mode of music in indonesia?
a) Pathet b) slendro c) colotomic d) pelog
146. What is indonesian ensemble comprised primarily of idiophones made of bronze or iron which includes a variety of
hanging gongs, horizontal gongs in a row and metallophones called?
a) Khruang Sai b) Piphat c) Gamelan d) Mahori
147.what is the name of the text of an opera?
a) Etude b) libretto c) aria d) prima lettre
148. What do you call a composition for an orchestra and a solo instrument?
a) Cantata b) fugue c) symphony d) concerto
149.sharps, flats and naturals are kinds of what?
a) Beat extenders b) accidentals c) directions d) counterpoints
150. What general term is given to a short piece of music that is played between two larger sections of music?
a) Overture b) interture c) interlude d) interval
151. What do you call the artificial method of singing used by male singers to reach high notes above their ordinary
ranges?
a) Castrato b) falsetto c) yodelling d) altissimo
152. What do you do with a plectrum?
a) You blow it. B) you hammer it c) you pluck with it d) you sit on it
153. What style of music is generally characterized by the combination of two or more melodies played simultaneously?
a) Syncopation b) counterpoint c) oratorio d) cantata
154. A nocturne is sung:
a) At night b) at a funeral mass c) at christmas d) at communion services
155. What is the largest member of the string family?
a) Viola b) cello c) violin d) double bass
156. What do you call the stress which falls naturally on the principal beats of the bear?
a) Syncopation b) upbeat c) downbeat d) accent
157. The demisemiquaver is another name for which note?
a) 8th note b) 16th note c) 32nd note d) 64th note
158. Vivace means?
a) Abrupt b) lively c) playfully d) sparkling
159. Sleeping beauty, swan lake and the nutcracker suite which became very famous ballets were works of which
composer?
a) Igor Stravinsky b) Nikolai Rimski c) Sergei Rachmanimoff d) Peter Llich Tchaikovsky
160. Which german composer wrote the opera Hansel and Gretel?
a) Engelbert Humperdinck b) Dietrich Buxtehude c) Robert Schumann d) Herre Stumatach

TABLE COMPLETION:

Title Origin/Place/ Key Signature Scale Time/Meter Form

Country/Province (major/minor) Signature
Atin Cu pun
singsing
Sarong Banggi
Sakura
Zum Galigali
Khruang Sai
Burung Kaka tua
Insalidummay
Arirang
Feng Yang Song
Leron leron sinta
Pilipinas Kung
Mahal
Lupang Hinirang

PRACTICE TEST ART EDUCATION

1. Which Chinese term means the art of writing which ahs always been the most important of the arts?
a) Photolitography b) typography c) calligraphy d) photography
2. What is the famous contribution of India to World Architecture?
a) The bereaved b) Taj Mahal c) Shalo JOhan d) Stupa
3. Who was considered the famous painter of “rice painter”?
a) Fernando Amorsolo b) Carlos Francisco c) Victor Edades d) Fabian de laRosa
4. What is the most popular shadow play in Indonesia?
A) Wayang Golek b) wayang Kulit c) Wayang Topeng d) Wayang Wong
5. Who was considered as the father of abstract sculpture who sculpted “Bird in Space” and the Kiss”?
A) Alexander Archipenko b) Constantine Brancusi c) William Zorach d) August Rodin
6. Whose work of art was the famous “Pieta”? A) Donatello b) Bernini c) Michaelangelo d) Leonardo da Vinci
7. Marilyn is very fond of art works. She would like to decorate her room with different sizes of angles. These figurines are products of
what sculpture? A) Welding b) molding c) fabricating d) casting
8. Who was the architect-designer of the Cultural Center of Philippines, along Roxas boulevard in Pasay City?
A) Cesar Concio b) Julio Nakpil c) Leandro Locsin d) Pablo Antonio
9. Which principle of architecture is used in an old construction system that makes use of two vertical supports?
A) Cantilever b) post and intel c) Truss d) Skeleton construction
10. What style of painting characterizes most of Fernando Amorsolo’s paintings where real objects, scenery and activities are seen?
A) MOdern b) Naturalistics c) expressionistic d) impressionistic
11) The father of Philippine movies? A) George musser b) Vicente Salumbides c) Ramon Munroy d) JOse Nepomuceno
12. The Filipino Scupture who made the famous UP Oblation?
A) Anastacio Caedo b) Eduardo Castillo c) Guillermo Tolentino d) Napoleon Abueva
13. In what painting was the fine example of tonal values as used by Leonardo da Vinci in Chiaroscuro?
A) Strangers in Paris b) Last supper c) Mona lisa d) Death of St. Francis
14. JUan made a perspective where the exposure was in the roof. Which kind of perspective was used?
A) One point and two perspective b) linear and foreshortening c) area and space d) aerial
15. Which indian epic contained the primitive poem that embraces the entire cosmology Hinduism?
A) Mahabrahata b) Ramayana c) Dhampada d) Bhagavad Gita
16. IN which period of the Japanese History did samurai dominate the arts as it did in politics?
A) Kumakura period b) Edo period c) momoyama period d) muriomachi period
17. Balance, simpleness and realism could clearly b seen in the painting during the?
A) Renaissance period b) romantic period c) classical period d) 20th century
18. Considered as the Golden Age for Chinese Arts?
A) Song dynasty b) MIng dynasty c) mongol yuan dynasty d) tang dynasty
19. The teacher asks the students to come up with five drawings using vertical lines. These lines denote a feeling of?
A) Continuity b) sadness c) motion d) dignity
20. In what country is the sic limbs painting of a woman popularly known?
A) Assyria b) India c) Indonesia d) Malaysia
21. Which does not characterize modern art?
a. A contemporary styles of visual art b. emphasizes experimentation and sensibility
b. Artist’s freer expression d. subdued themes
22. A style of Art which was drew from Sigmund Freud’s association and interpretation of dreams.
a. Abstract b. Cubism c. Impressionism d. Surrealism
23. Which is not part of the process of photography?
a. Clearly choosing a subject b. Chemical process or the developing stage
b. Mechanical or the photo shoots stage d. Editing
24. Wayang is performed to mark important occasions like;
A) Birth, wedding or baptismal B) Birth, wedding or circumcision
C) Birth , wedding or death anniversary d) None of the above
25. This is the monkey dance in Bali, Indonesia A) Penchak b. Ramayana c) Kechak d. Barong
26. The Art of Indonesia is permeated by a strong cultural influence of?
A) Hindu-Buddhist b. Hindu-Arabic c) Rama Sita d. Islam
27. The style of Wayang is stylized and___________. A) Contemporary b. Orchestrated c. Caricatural d. mythical
28. The Wayang puppets are manipulated by a ___. A) Dalang b). Bulang c) Dulang d. Gamelan
29. Instrument ensemble essential to Wayang theatre. A) Gamelan b). Kulit c) Kulintang d. Gangsa
30. Japanese art of illusion. A) Noh drama b. Kabuki Theatre c) Bunraku d. Shogun
31. Kabuki as an art started in Kyoto in _______. A) 18th century b. 17th century c. 19th century d. 16th century
32. The Wayang counterpart of Japan. A. Shogun b. Kabuki c)Bunraku d. Noh Drama
33. The following are the usual themes of a Noh Drama except.
A) Spirit world b. Legends and mythical heroes
c.The adventure of a traveler d. historical events.
34. The following are the usual themes of Kabuki theater except.
A. Historical events b.. Supernatural c. Domestic issues d.love and tragedies
35. Which of the following is not TRUE about Asian theater.
A. Asian theater depicts the cultural roots of every Asian country. B. Asian theater is generally a reflection of Asian faiths.
C. Asian theater is symbolic to social statuses of people. D. Asian theater is purely religious.
36. One can only appreciates Kabuki theatre if;
A. He/she understands Japanese culture. B. He/she lives in Japan.
C. He/she understand Nippongo the language of Japan. D. He/she lives an ordinary life.
37. One cannot be an effective Dalang if he/she ;
A. Is not an artist. b. Is not a priest c. Is not a poet d. Is not articulate
38. Asian theater should be preserve because of the following reason except;
A. It helps in promoting Asian identity. b.It is an important Cultural heritage.
C. It is a reflection of asia’s rich culture. D. It is as elegant as the Greek dramas.
39. . Chinese painting is closely related to this art form.
a. music b. calligraphy c. religion d. movement
40. . Japanese artist’s aim is to convey a _____ rather than an object in their paintings.
a. feeling b. philosophy c. family d. word.
41. Indian art is suggestive of the following, except for one,
 a. sensualism b. dynamism c. eroticism d. faith
42. The following are qualities of Chinese painting except;
a. Its scroll or screen forms b. The exclusion of color
c. Men as the center or the essence of the picture. d. The sincerity of the feeling for nature.
43. All of the following are representations of a Japanese Painting except,
a. The Giant Wave Off Kaganawa b. Flowers and Birds c. Kamakura d. Ama No Hashidate by Sesshu
44. Which of the following is not a representation of an Indian Art?
a. Shiva Bronze b. Manjsuri c. Vinaya Pitaka d. Karahawatij
45. Chinese painting sought to suggest than to describe, this is best shown when;
a. Artist’s are realists. b. Artist’s are imaginative of anything which they can use as subject.
c. Their forms are specific and limited. d. Artist’s use emotions in painting.
46.. The following are important formats of Chinese painting except;
a. diagonal hand scroll b. vertical hanging scroll c. horizontal hand scroll d. small album-leaf
47. What do you call a painting which depicts natural scenery?
A. Genre b. Realism c. Still life d. Landscape
48. What is the general term that is given to a painting done on a wall?
A. Fresco b. Mural c. Sidework d. Mosaic
49. What do you call the movable sculpture of shapes cut out of sheet of metal or wood linked by wires in order to move freely?
A. Tapestry b. Mobile c. Fiffler d. Stabile
50. How do you call the representation of the lowering of Christ’s body from the cross?
A. Transfiguration b. Descension c. Deposition d. Pieta
51. What do you call the textile in which a pattern or image is woven?
A. Tapestry b. Mosaic c. Collage d. Croquet
52. How do you all a watercolor painting that uses opaque paint?
A. Gouche b. Tempera c. Pastiche d. Aquarelle
53. What do you call an art form in whih the subject of the picture is made up of inanimate objects?
A. Scenery b. Landscape c. Still life d. Genre
54. The word menas “irregular” is applied to a dominant style of art in the 17 th ad 18th centuries?
A. Baroque b. Rococo c. Chiaroscuro d. Vorticism
55. What do you call the style of art popular during the 1960’s characterize by repeating abstract patterns that create optical illusions?
A. Dada b. Illusionism c. Op art d. Phantasm
56. The term refers to a three-dimensional scene with a painted background usually displayed in museum?
A. Panorama b. Diorama c. Cinerama d. Historama
57. What do you call the representation of Virgin Mary in Art?
A. Madonna b. Pieta c. Immaculate Concepcion d. Creche
58. What do you call the balance of light and shade in a painting and the artist’s skill in handling this?
A. Holography b. Chiascuro c. Ebauche d. Contrast
59. What do you call the application of oil paint in thick solid masses to the canvass?
A. Gouache B. Impasto c. Fresco d. Secco
60. How do you call the building up of three dimensional forms by means of fashioning a soft malleable material?
A. Carving b. Sculpture c. Modeling d. Boucharde
61. What do you call the process of painting with pigments mixed with egg yolks and sometimes thinned by water?
A. Tempera b. Fresco c. Secco d. Tachisme
62. What is another name for a transparent water-color painting?
A. Ebauche b. Aquarelle c, gesso d. Intaglio
63. What is the name of the technique which was introduce by Picasso and Braque and consists of sticking of one layer over another in
order to form a complete picture?
A. Mosaic b. Cubism c. Collage d. Montage
64. How do you call a painting to scenes from everyday life?
A. Still life b. Genre c. Action painting d. Underpainting
65. How do you call the first coat or undercoat in an oil painting?
A. Ebauche b. Glisso c. Cantabile d. Underpainting
66. What do you call the art school which deliberately combines the styles of other artist’s works?
A. Stabile b. Eclectic c. Pastiche d. Fauvist
67. Which italian painted the last supper and the MOnalisa?
A. Leonardo da Vinci b. Raphael c. Titian d. Michelangelo
68. Who decorated the ceiling of the Sistine Chapel with magnificent paintings?
A. Leonardo da Vinci b. Domenico Ghirlandajo c. FRa Angelico d. Michelangelo
69. Who painted the Spolarium? A. JUan LUna b. Felix Hidalgo c. Loreto Perez d. Emilio Neri
70. An OLd house, The Baptism and the Antipolo Street are well known works of which painter?
A. Jaime Foradada b. Felipe Roxas c. Leonardo Santos d. Fabian delaRosa
71. Who painted Awit, LIna, To the Market, The Supreme Sacrifice and Binyag ng Panganay?
A. Vicente Manansala b. Fernando Amorsolo c. Arturo Santiago d. Telesforo Sugcang
72. Who painted the peacock and Sisa La Loca? A. Pablo Amorsolo b. Felix R. Hidalgo c. Paulino Marquez d. Rodelio De GUzman
73. Which National Artist from Tondo was influenced by cubism and rose to fame with works Gadgets, Stairway to heaven, symphony and the Man and
Woman? A. Cesar legaspi b. Nestor Leynes c. Disodado Lorenzo d. Juan Luna
74. Which French sculptor created the “thinker and the Orpheus?
A. Auguste Rodin b. Jean Arp c. Antoine Coysevox d. Textou Calubaieum
75. Who made the sculptures Pieta in 1948 and David in 1514?
A. Donatello b. Andrea del verrocchio c. Antonio canova d. Michelangelo
76. Who created the statue of Zeus, which is one of th Seven Wonders of the World?
A. Praxiteles b. Chares c. Phidias d. Myron
77. What is the name of the first, the simplest and only Greek order which normally has no base?
 A. Ionic b. Doric c. Corinthian d. Tuscan
78. The Cathedral of St Sophia is the finest achievement of which style of architecture?
A. Byzantine b. Gothic c. Romanesque d. Baroque
79. What do you call the broad crowing feature of a column?
A. Entablature b. Keystone c. Pedestal d. Capital
80. What general term is used to describe any curved structure used to support the weight of the material above it?
A. Architrave b. Arch c. Bridge d. Pier
81. What do you call the open central hall of a Roman house?
A. Piazza b. Forum c. Vianne d. Atrium
82. What do you call the arched support which extends from a column or pier to the wall?
A. Cantilever b. Cloister c. Flying buttress d. Ribbed vault
83. Who was the original architect of Sts. Peter’s Church in Rome?
A. Donato Bramante b. Michelangelo Buonarotti c. Bonnano Pisano d. Arrigo Fallaschino
84. What do you call the principal front of a building?
A. Gable b. Arcade c. Facade d. Frontier
85. What do you cal the second Greek order that has its capital with carved spiral scrolls?
A. Ionic b. Doric c. Corinthian d. Tuscan
86. What do you call ancient Egyptian tomb with slopping sides and a flat roof?
A. Mastaba b. Ziggurat c. Pagoda d. Pyramid
87. What do you call the series of arches which is supported by columns of piers?
A. Collonade b. Mullion c. Arcade d. Entablation
88. How do you call a roof that is hemispherical in shape?
A. Geoid b. Dome c. Corbel d. Vault
89. What is the name of the Greek order which has a capital that is decorated with carvings of leaves of the acanthus plant?
A. Ionic b. Doric c. Corinthian d. Tuscan
90. What do you call a circular building with seats rising in tiers around an open arena?
A. Auditorium b. Coliseum c. Amphitheater d. stadium