9.

Doubling time (Td) can be calculated by:

(a) Td = 70 / r
(b) Td = r / 70
(c) Td = 70 × r
(d) Td = 70 + r

 Sustainable Development Goals and targets are to be achieved by-

a. 2020 b. 2025
c. 2030 d. 2050

e. 2015
Which of the following diseases are not covered under MDG?
A. HIV B. malaria
C. tuberculosis D. AIDS
E. Cholera
Besides the condom, which is another barrier method of birth control?
A-Diaphragm B- IUD
C. Withdrawal D. Sterilization
E- Norplant
How many Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) have been agreed to, by all the world’s nations, as part of
the 2030 Agenda?
 A. 17 B. 8
 C. 10 D. 12
 E. 16, plus a few statements about implementation that are not actually a Goal

Process in which water is passed through filter beds of sand and gravel to remove
smaller particles of dust is called

A. coagulation
B. sedimentation
C. filtration
D. chlorination
E.
What are the 1st sign and syptoms of rabies infection?

A – Hallucination and hydrophobia

B – flu like syptoms

c- diarrhea

d- coma

e- dementia

The type specific antigen (A, B or C) of influenza viruses is found on

which viral constituent?

Hemagglutinin

Neuraminidase

Lipid in viral envelope

Major structural protein

Nucleocapsid

Question 1

A virus such as influenza which emerges suddenly and spreads globally is called:
 a) Epidemic

b) Endemic

c) Pandemic

d) Zoonotic

Question 2

The influenza virus is mainly controlled in special "risk" sectors by:

a) Hygiene

b) Vaccination

c) Antiviral drugs

d) Humanised monoclonal antibodies

Question 3

Most pandemics have arisen from influenza viruses from which of the following animals?

a) Pigs

b) Wild birds

c) Bats

d) Humans

e) Whales

Question 4

The influenza virus has complicated genetics mainly characterised by which of the
following?

a) Genetic reassortment amongst 8 genes

 b) High levels of recombination

c) Rapid adsorption and fusion from without via a hydrophobic peptide

d) High fidelity RNA replicase enzyme

Question 5

Antivirals can be used prophylactically or therapeutically in persons in which of the

following circumstances?

a) If administered within 4 days of clinical signs

b) If used within 48 hours of first clinical signs

c) Used for the obese

d) Used in children under the age of 2 years where high virus spread is noted

Which of the following statements concerning antigenic drift in

influenza viruses is correct?
Your answer was correct

It is due to frame shift mutations in viral genes

It affects predominantly the matrix protein

It results in new sub types over time

It results in major antigenic changes

It is exhibited by only influenza A viruses

What virus commonly undergoes both antigenic shifts and antigenic

drifts?
Your answer was correct
 Rabies

HIV

Influenza This is the correct answer

Rotavirus

Ebola

The type specific antigen (A, B or C) of influenza viruses is found on

which viral constituent?
Your answer was incorrect

Hemagglutinin

Neuraminidase

Lipid in viral envelope

Major structural protein

Nucleocapsid

Question 1

A virus such as influenza which emerges suddenly and spreads globally is called:

Your answer:
c) Pandemic
 Feedback:
Endemic implies that infection is continual and epidemic implies a localised outbreak. Flu
when 'emerging', albeit rarely, is fast and global.
Page reference: 149
Question 2

The influenza virus is mainly controlled in special "risk" sectors by:

Your answer:
a) Hygiene
Correct answer:
b) Vaccination
Feedback:
Vaccine is the main strategy but hygiene, antivirals and monoclones have roles to play.
Page reference: 153
Question 3

Most pandemics have arisen from influenza viruses from which of the following animals?

Your answer:
b) Wild birds
Feedback:
The question is a little tricky but migrating birds are the ultimate reservoir of new influenza
viruses. Pigs, bats, humans and whales are not out of the picture entirely!
Page reference: 149
Question 4

The influenza virus has complicated genetics mainly characterised by which of the
following?

Your answer:
d) High fidelity RNA replicase enzyme
Correct answer:
a) Genetic reassortment amongst 8 genes
Feedback:
The only really wrong answer relates to high fidelity RNA replicase! But genetic
reassortment is top of the pile. Recombination is rare.
Page reference: 148
Question 5

Antivirals can be used prophylactically or therapeutically in persons in which of the

following circumstances?

Your answer:
b) If used within 48 hours of first clinical signs
Feedback:
The NI's are important and active drugs but have to be used for optimum benefit as soon as
clinical signs appear. The golden rule is 'sooner the better!
Page reference: 153
Which of the following statements concerning antigenic drift in
influenza viruses is correct?

 It results in new sub types over time

 It affects predominantly the matrix protein
 It is due to frame shift mutations in viral genes
 It is exhibited by only influenza A viruses
 It results in major antigenic changes

1.
2.
3.
4. Rabies is spread by infected animals to other warm-blooded animals including people through
saliva (e.g. biting or licking)

True

False

5. Which of the following animals cannot carry the rabies virus?

Skunk

Cow

Deer
 Crow

6. If you get bitten or scratched by an animal you should:

Call or visit your doctor or nearest urgent care clinic

Clean the wound thoroughly with soap and water

Notify your local Public Health Unit

All of the above

7. What symptoms may indicate that a wild animal has rabies?

No fear of humans

Readily attacks other animals or objects

Becomes active during the day (e.g. bats flying around during the day)

Chews and bites on its own legs and feet

Becomes sluggish, slow moving

All of the above

8. Which of the following is not a symptom of rabies in humans?

Muscle spasms

Fever

Claustrophobia (fear of being in enclosed spaces)

Hydrophobia (fear of water)

Headache

Numbness around site of bite

9. Which of the following statements about rabies in people is false?

Rabies virus targets the brain and spinal cord

Rabies is almost always fatal once symptoms appear

 Rabies symptoms will almost always appear within a few days

Rabies can lead to organ failure, coma and death

10. All dogs and cats over three months old are required by law to get vaccinated for rabies.

True

False

11. How long does the observation period for a domestic animal such as a dog or cat that has bitten
someone last for?

7 days

10 days

23 days

35 days

12. Dogs and cats that are adopted from an accredited and reputable facility (e.g. Humane Society)
are always up-to-date with rabies vaccinations.

True

False

13. Ontario was formerly known as the "rabies capital of North America".

True

False

MCQ on Immunology- Immunization

1. The process of introduction of weakened pathogen into human

body is called

a) Immunization
b) vaccination

c) attenuation

d) none of these

2. The first vaccine was developed by

a) Louis Pasteur

b) Edward Jenner

c) Carl Landsteiner

d) Joseph Miester

3. The concept of vaccination was first developed by

a) Louis Pasteur

b) Edward Jenner

c) Carl Landsteiner

d) Joseph Miester4. The process of weakening a pathogen is called

a) vaccination

b) attenuation

c) immunization

d) virulence reduction

5. The first vaccine developed by Louis Pasteur was against

a) Pox virus

b) hepatitis virus
c) rabies virus

d)none of these

6. A vaccine can be

a) an antigenic protein

b) weakened pathogen

c) live attenuated pathogen

d) all of these

7. Passive immunisation include

a) introduction of antibodies directly

b) transfer of maternal antibodies across placenta

c) transfer of lymphocyte directly

d) all of these

8. Which of the following statement is true regarding vaccination

a) vaccination is a method of active immunisation

b) vaccination is a method of passive immunisation

c) vaccination is a method of artificial passive immunisation

d) vaccination is a method of natural passive

immunization

9. Active immunity may be gained by

a) natural infection
b) vaccines

c) toxoids

d) all of these

10. Which of the following is a combined vaccine

a) Hepatitis B vaccine

b) Hib vaccine

c) Var vaccine

d) DPT vaccine

11. The first recombinant antigen vaccine approved for human use is

a) Hepatitis B vaccine

b) Hib vaccine

c) Var vaccine

d)DPT vaccine

12. Plasmids encoding antigenic protein from a pathogen that is

directly injected into the cells where it express constitute

a) protein vaccines

b) nucleotide vaccines

c) DNA vaccines

d) recombined vaccines

13. All the given vaccines are attenuated or inactivated whole

pathogen except

a) salk

b) sabin

c) hepatitis A

d) tetanus14. Which of the following statements are true regarding polio

vaccines

a) Salk and Sabin are polio vaccines

b) Sabin is live attenuated polio vaccine

c) Salk is an inactivated polio vaccine

d) all of these

15. Which of the following is a polysaccharide vaccine

a) anthrax vaccine

b) rabies vaccine

c) hepatitis A

d) Hib vaccine

Answers

1. b) vaccination

2. a) Louis Pasteur

3. b) Edward Jenner

4. b) attenuation
5. c) rabies virus

6. d) all of these

7. d) all of these

8. a) vaccination is a method of active immunisation

9. d) all of these

10. d) DPT vaccine

11. a) Hepatitis B vaccine

12. c) DNA vaccines

13. d) tetanus

14. a) Salk and Sabin are polio vaccines

15.d) Hib vaccine (Haemophilus influenza type b)Which unique form does the rabies virus
take?

a) The virion has a dumbbell appearance

b) It is shaped like a bullet from a gun
c) The virus is star shaped
d) The virion is very pleomorphic

hoice Questions (MCQs) with

Answers on Current
Environmental Issues (GK)
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1. Today, the world’s number one problem is:
(a) Pollution

(b) Population explosion

ADVERTISEMENTS:

(c) Nuclear proliferation

(d) Natural calamities

2. The major cause of global population growth in the 18 and 19 centuries was:
ADVERTISEMENTS:

(a) Decrease in death rates

(b) Decrease in birth rates

(c) Industrial revolution

(d) None of the above

ADVERTISEMENTS:

3. Population explosion has occurred in the last:

(a) 500 years

(b) 300 years

(c) 700 years

(d) 150 years

4. The world has a population of:

(a) 4 billion

(b) 5 billion

(c) 6 billion
(d) 7 billion

5. Study of trends in human population growth and prediction of future growth is

called
(a) Demograph

(b) Biography

(c) Kalography

(d) Psychology

6. Which of the following is a problem not associated with population growth?

(a) Increased resource consumption

(b) Environmental pollution

(c) Food and energy storages

(d) None of the above

7. One of the critical mechanism by which the environment controls population of

species is:
(a) Spread of disease

(b) Removal of excreta

(c) Check on death rate

(d) Supply of food

8. If the rate of addition of new member’s increases with respect to the individual
lost of the same population, then the graph obtained has:
(a) Declined growth

(b) Exponential growth

(c) Zero growth

(d) None of the above

9. Doubling time (Td) can be calculated by:

(a) Td = 70 / r
(b) Td = r / 70
(c) Td = 70 × r
(d) Td = 70 + r
10. The number of babies produced per thousand individuals is called:
(a) Natality

(b) Mortality

(c) Immigration

(d) Emigration

11. Population pyramids are useful to:

(a) Express the population growth rates

(b) Express the age-sex distribution

(c) Indicate the birth rates

(d) Indicate the death rates

12. The zero population growth due to equal birth and death rates is called:
(a) Natural increase

(b) Demographic transition

(c) Fertility rate

(d) Replacement level

13. The average life expectancy around the world is currently:

(a) Decreasing

(b) Increasing
(c) Not changing

(d) Stabilizing

14. The force which acts against the achievement of the highest possible level of
population growth is known as:
(a) Saturation level

(b) Population pressure

(c) Carrying capacity

(d) Environmental resistance

15. Short-term properties of the atmosphere at a given place and time is referred
as:
(a) Climate

(b) Microclimate

(c) Season

(d) Weather

16. Global atmospheric temperatures are likely to be increased due to:

(a) Burning of fossil fuel

(b) Water pollution

(c) Soil erosion

(d) None of the above

17. Global Warming could affect:

(a) Climate

(b) Food production

(c) Melting of glaciers

(d) All of the above

18. Which of the following is not a solution of global warming?

(a) Reducing fossil fuel consumption

(b) Planting more trees

(c) Deforestation

(d) None of the above

19. Greenhouse effect is related to:

(a) Green trees on house

(b) Global warming

(c) Grasslands

(d) Greenry in country

20. Which of the following is not a ‘greenhouse gas’?

(a) Oxygen

(b) Carbon dioxide

(c) Chlorofluorocarbons

(d) Methane

21. Which important greenhouse gas other than methane is being provided from
the agricultural fields?
(a) SO

(b) Nitrous oxide

(c) Ammonia

(d) SO
22. Which of the following gases contributes maximum to the ‘Greenhouse effect
on earth?
(a) Carbon dioxide

(b) Methane

(c) Chlorofluorocarbons

(d) Freon

23. The greenhouse effect is due to:

(a) Penetrability of low wavelength radiations through O3 layer
(b) Impermeability of long wavelength radiations through CO of the atmosphere

(c) Penetrability of low wavelength radiations through CO

(d) Impermeability of long wavelength radiations through O3 layer

24. The primary cause of acid rain around the world is:
(a) Carbon dioxide

(b) Sulphur dioxide

(c) Carbon monoxide

(d) Ozone

25. Acid rain is caused by increase in the atmospheric concentration of?

(a) Ozone and dust

(b) SO and NO

(c) SO and CO

(d) CO and CO

26. The primary air pollutant responsible for acid rains is:
(a) Carbon dioxide

(b) Sulphur dioxide

(c) Carbon monoxide

(d) Ozone

27. How many times more acidic a rain having pH = 5.6 will be in comparison to a
neutral rain having pH 7?
(a) 72 / 5.62 = 1.56
(b) 7 / 5.6 = 1.25

(c) 107 / 105.6 = 20

(d) 5.6 / 7 = 0.8

28. Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to checking and

controlling acid rains?
(a) Catalytic converters are installed in cars

(b) Expensive scrubbers are installed in industries and thermal power stations

(c) Use of petrol cars is promoted by discouraging the use of diesel cars

(d) None of the above

29. Ozone day is observed on:

(a) January 03

(b) March 26

(d) November 10

(c) September 16

30. Ozone layer is present in:

(a) Troposphere

(b) Mesosphere

(c) Stratosphere

(d) Thermosphere
31. Harmful U.V. radiations emanating from the sun are prevented from reaching
the Earth by the presence of ozone in the:
(a) Mesosphere

(b) Thermosphere

(c) Stratosphere

(d) Troposphere

32. Ozone layer of upper atmosphere is being destroyed by:

(a) Ozone

(b) PAN

(c) Aldehydes

(d) All of the above

33. Which one of the following gases can deplete the ozone layer in the upper
atmosphere?
(a) Methane

(b) Ammonia

(c) Sulphur dioxide

(d) Carbon dioxide

34. Peeling of Ozone umbrella, which protects us from UV rays, is caused by:
(a) CO

(b) PAN

(c) CFCs

(d) Coal burning

35. The ultraviolet radiations in the stratosphere are absorbed by:

(a) Oxygen

(b) Ozone

(c) Sulphur dioxide

(d) Argon

36. Formation of hole in Ozone is maximum over

(a) India

(b) Antarctica

(c) Europe

(d) Africa

37. The ozone hole appears in Antarctica during

(a) Late winter

(b) Peak summer

(c) Early winter

(d) Autumn

38. Increasing skin cancer and high mutation rate are the result of:
(a) Ozone depletion

(b) Acid rain

(c) CO pollution

(d) None of the above

39. Which of the following statements about ozone is true?

(a) Ozone is a major constituent of photochemical smog
(b) Ozone is highly reactive
(c) Ozone protects us from the harmful UV radiation of sun
(d) All of the above
40. Ozone layer thickness is measured in:
(a) Millimeter

(b) Centimeter

(c) Decibels

(d) Dobson units

41. Ozone depletion in the stratosphere will cause:

(a) Forest fires

(b) Increased incidence of skin cancer

(c) Global warming

(d) None of these

42. Nitrogen oxide and hydrocarbons released by automobiles interact to form:

(a) Sulphur dioxide

(b) Carbon monoxide

(c) PAN

(d) Aerosols

43. The first CFC was synthesised in:

(a) 1892

(b) 1920

(c) 1980

(d) 1800

44. This may be use as refrigerator:

(a) CFC
 (b) Carbon

(c) Acids

(d) Ozone

45. Chlorofluorocarbon releases a chemical harmful to ozone is:

(a) Chlorine

(b) Fluorine

(c) Sulphur dioxide

(d) Nitrogen peroxide

Answers:
1. (b); 2. (c); 3. (d); 4. (c); 5. (a); 6. (d); 7. (d); 8. (b), 9. (a); 10. (a); 11. (b); 12. (b); 13.
(b); 14. (d); 15. (d); 16. (a); 17. (d); 18. (c); 19. (b); 20. (a); 21. (b); 22. (a); 23. (b); 24.
(b); 25. (b); 26. (b); 27. (c); 28. (d); 29. (c); 30. (c); 31. (c); 32. (c); 33. (a); 34. (c); 35.
(b); 36. (b); 37. (b); 38. (a); 39. (d); 40. (d) 41. (b); 42. (c); 43. (a); 44. (a); 45. (a)
What is the main virulence factor(s) responsible for the pathogenesis of?

11- Cholera

12- Diphtheria.

13- Botulism.

14- Tetanus.

15- Haemolytic uraemic syndrome.

Process in which water is passed through filter beds of sand and gravel to remove
smaller particles of dust is called

F. coagulation
G. sedimentation
H. filtration
I. chlorination