CHECKPOINT QUESTIONS

GENERAL EDUCATION (NATURAL SCIENCE)

1. Which of the following statements is definitely true about the nature of science?
a. Science will help make the world a better place to live in.
b. Science can always uncover the truth in the realm of nature.
c. Scientific work requires a dedication that excludes the lives of people in other
fields of work.
d. Theories in science can be disproved by testing: a well established theory can be
demolished with a single observation.
2. Which of the following is the best description of a scientific law?
a. It is enforced by nature and cannot be violated.
b. It is the exact report of the observations of scientists.
c. It is the theoretical explanation of natural phenomenon.
d. It is the generalized statement of relationships among natural phenomenon.
3. When scientists investigate, it is said that they follow the scientific method. How will you
logically arrange the essential steps in the scientific method?
1. make a hypothesis
2. recognize the problem
3. formulate the simplest generalization
4. perform experiments to test the prediction
5. predict the consequences of the hypothesis
a. 1, 4, 2, 3, 5 c. 2, 5, 1, 3, 4
b. 2, 1, 5, 4, 3 d. 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
4. A paint technologist used different kinds of white paint on two concrete walls. He comes
back every two months and observes the painted areas with a hand lens. Which of the
following questions could be a possible problem for this experiment?
a. Which paint color is best for concrete walls?
b. Do walls need to be painted with different colors?
c. Which kind of white paint faded fastest under the sun?
d. Which part of the concrete wall needs to be repainted?
5. In an experiment to determine whether or not the temperature of the water affects the
rate at which salt dissolves, the independent variable is
a. the amount of salt
b. the temperature of the water
c. the amount of water
d. the rate at which salt dissolves
6. A mineral supplement designed to prevent the flu was given to two groups of people
during a scientific study. Dosages of the supplement were measured in milligrams per
day, as shown in the table. After 10 weeks, neither group reported a case of the flu.
Which procedure would have made the outcome of this study more valid?
a. test only one group with 200 mg of the supplement
b. test the supplement on both groups for 5 weeks instead of 10
weeks
c. test a third group that receives 150 mg of the supplement
d. test a third group that does not receive the supplement
7. Acid rain can have a pH between 1.5 and 5.0. The effect of acid rain on the environment
depends on the pH of the rain and the characteristics of the environment. It appears that
acid rain has a negative effect on plants. To test the effect of pH on the early growth of
bean plants in the laboratory, which of the following variables should be kept constant?
i. bean plants ii. pH of water
iii. the environment iv. amount of water
a. i, ii, iii b. ii, iii, iv c. i, iii, iv d. ii and iv
8. When a person says, “I think a steel ball and a marble will hit the ground at the same
time if I drop them from the same height at the same time,” that person is stating a
a. hypothesis c. inference
b. theory d. observation
9. Which of the following statements best describes the connection between science and
technology?
a. Scientists use the laws and principles discovered by technologists.
b. Technology is the part of science that deals with mechanical problems.
c. Technology involves the practical applications of scientific knowledge.
d. Science depends on technology for ideas and the organization of experimental
work.
10. Which of the following is a technological concept rather than a scientific concept?
a. Tungsten has a high melting point.
b. Metals are good conductors of heat.
c. Resistance is inversely proportional to current.
d. Fluorescent lamps are improved through methods of manufacturing.
11. An airplane travels east for 2 hours at a rate of 500km/h. Which of the following
quantities is a vector?
a. the time of travel c. the distance travelled
b. the displacement d. the speed of the plane
12. Which of the following is the best definition of velocity?
a. It is a description of the motion of a body.
b. It is a measure of how fast a body is moving.
c. It is the speed of a body and its direction of motion.
d. It is equal to the distance travelled divided by the time of travel.
13. Acceleration is defined as the change in
a. velocity divided by the time interval
b. distance divided by the time interval
c. time it takes to move from one place to another place
d. time it takes to move from one speed to another speed
14. Ignoring air resistance, an object in the state of free fall has a velocity that is
a. increasing at a uniform rate
b. decreasing at a uniform rate
c. changing at a uniform rate
d. constant
15. If a freely falling object were somehow equipped with a speedometer, its speed reading
would increase each second by
a. about 5 m/s c. about 10 m/s
b. about 15m/s d. a variable amount
16. The weight of an object of an object
a. refers to its inertia
b. is the quantity of matter it contains
c. is the force with which it is attracted to the earth
d. is basically the same quantity as its mass but expressed in different units
17. The acceleration produced by a net force on an object is
a. directly proportional to the mass
b. inversely proportional to the net force
c. in the same direction as the net force
d. all of the above
18. A player hits a ball with a bat. The action force is the impact of the bat against the ball.
What is the reaction to this force?
a. the weight of the ball
b. the air resistance on the ball
c. the force of the ball against the bat
d. the grip of the player’s hand against the bat
19. A sheet of paper can be withdrawn from under a container of milk without toppling it if
the paper is pulled quickly. The reason this can be done is that
a. the milk carton has inertia
b. gravity pulls very hard on the milk carton
c. the milk carton has very little weight
d. there are action and reaction forces
20. The force that accelerates a rocket into outer space is exerted on the rocket by the
exhaust gases. Which Newton’s law of motion is illustrated in this situation?
a. First law of motion
b. Second law of motion
c. Third law of motion
d. cannot be determined
21. Which device can convert mechanical energy to electrical energy?
a. battery c. motor
b. generator d. photovoltaic cell
22. In physics, work is done
a. in pushing against the wall
b. in supporting an object on your shoulder
c. in preparing school lessons
d. in lifting an object from the floor to the table
23. Which of the following statements correctly refers to renewable energy sources?
a. they refer to conventional energy sources
b. they are limited in supply
c. they can be replenished easily
d. they include fossil fuels and uranium
24. How is the conservation of mechanical energy described in a falling object?
a. A falling object loses kinetic energy and gains potential energy.
b. A falling object loses kinetic energy and loses potential energy.
c. A falling object gains kinetic energy and loses potential energy.
d. A falling object loses kinetic energy and loses potential energy.
25. The energy conversions involved in heat engines are
a. electromagnetic – mechanical – thermal
b. chemical – electromagnetic – thermal
c. chemical – thermal – mechanical
d. mechanical – chemical – thermal
26. A job is done slowly and an identical job is done quickly. Both jobs require the same
amount of work but different amounts of
a. energy
b. power
c. both energy and power
d. none of them
27. Which type of lever is a nutcracker?
a. first class lever
b. second class lever
c. third class lever
d. simple lever
28. Which of the following correctly describes the handle of a screw driver and a wrench
which can be used efficiently?
SCREW DRIVER WRENCH
a. long long
b. wide wide
c. long wide
d. wide long
29. Which of the following statements is true regarding simple machines being used with the
presence of friction?
a. work input is always greater than work output
b. work input is always smaller than work output
c. work input is always equal to the work output
d. cannot be determined
30. The efficiency of a simple machine is
a. always less than 100%
b. equal to 100%
c. always 50%
d. always more than 100%
31. Temperature is a measure of
a. the total energy in something
b. the total kinetic energy in something
c. the average energy in a substance
d. the average molecular kinetic energy in a substance
32. Heat is the
a. amount of energy all the molecules have
b. total amount of energy contained in the object
c. energy transferred between objects because of temperature difference
d. all of the above
33. When a cold spoon is put into a cup of hot coffee, the spoon heats up while the coffee
cools down. Which of the following is implied by this observation?
a. heat flows from a body with more thermal energy to a body with less thermal
energy
b. heat flows from a body with less thermal energy to a body with more thermal
energy
c. heat flows from a body with low temperature to a body with high temperature
d. heat flows from a body with high temperature to a body with low temperature
34. It refers to the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a
substance by a unit change in temperature.
a. specific heat
b. latent heat of fusion
c. latent heat of vaporization
d. calorie
35. A metal pan heats up faster than an equal amount of water. Which of the following
statements best explains this?
a. metals are better conductors of heat than water
b. metals are denser than water
c. metals have lower specific heats than water
d. metals have higher boiling points than water
36. Which of the following is true about volume and density when a metal is heated?
VOLUME DENSITY
a. increases increases
b. decreases decreases
c. increases decreases
d. decreases increases
37. Why are concrete roads interrupted at regular intervals by gaps?
a. so that asphalt can be put into those gaps
b. to give allowance for thermal expansion during hot summer days
c. to adjust the specific heat of concrete so that it does not get very hot during
summer
d. to adjust the specific heat of concrete so that it does not get very cold during
winter
38. Which of the following statements best describes a liquid?
a. the particles can move freely from one place to another
b. the particles have the highest kinetic energy as compared to the other phases of
matter
c. the particles are compactly arranged so that the density tends to be the greatest
as compared to the other phases of matter
d. the particles form a bulk with definite volume but without definite shape
39. Which of the following only includes exothermic processes?
a. melting and freezing
b. evaporation and condensation
c. sublimation and deposition
d. freezing and condensation
40. When heat is added to boiling water, its temperature
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains the same
41. As the atmospheric pressure increases, the boiling temperature of a liquid
a. increases c. remains the same
b. decreases d. cannot be determined
42. Melting snow
a. warms the surrounding air
b. cools the surrounding air
c. neither warms nor cools the surrounding air
d. does not change the temperature of the surrounding air but increases its humidity
43. What accounts for the cooling effect inside the refrigerator?
a. the refrigerator is properly insulated
b. vaporization of the refrigeration fluid
c. compression of the refrigerant into liquid
d. the motor converts electrical energy into thermal energy
44. A pressure cooker cooks food more rapidly than an ordinary pot with a loose lid because
a. the pressure forces heat into the food
b. the higher pressure lowers the boiling point of water
c. the higher pressure raises the boiling point of water
d. the higher pressure increases the specific heat of water
45. Which of the following statements explains why we feel cool after perspiring?
a. vapor in the air condenses in our skin
b. water coming out of our body is cold
c. pores in our skin allow cool air to enter
d. evaporating water in our skin produces a cooling effect
46. Why does apiece of metal feel colder than a piece of wood at the same temperature?
a. metal is colder than wood
b. metals allow heat to flow through them easily
c. metals have higher specific heat than wood
d. none of the above
47. What happens when air is heated?
a. It expands and it rises
b. It expands and sinks
c. It contracts and rises
d. It contracts and sinks
48. Which method of heat transfer is most closely associated with the formation of a cool
breeze that blows from the sea to the land during daytime?
a. conduction b. radiation c. convection d. induction
49. Heat transfer by convection occurs
a. only in gases c. only in gases and liquids
b. only in liquids d. in solids, liquids, and gases
50. Where should the heater in a water tank be placed to efficiently warm the water?
a. Near the top, because water is less dense at the top.
b. Near the bottom, because water is denser at the bottom.
c. Near the bottom, because warm water rises and cold water sinks.
d. Near the top, because it is easier to warm cold water from the top part of the
tank.
51. Where should an airconditioner be placed to efficiently cool a room?
a. Near the ceiling, because the air is less dense at the top.
b. Near the ceiling, because warm air rises and cold air sinks.
c. Near the floor, because the air is denser at a lower elevation.
d. Near the floor, because it is easier to cool warm air from the lower part of the
room.
52. During daytime, which heats up faster: the land or the sea?
a. the land
b. the sea
c. they heat up at the same time
53. Heat travels from the sun to the earth by means of
a. radiation c. conduction
b. convection d. induction
54. We wear light clothes especially during summer because white
a. absorbs heat c. reflects heat
b. disperses heat d. refracts heat
55. If a poor absorber of radiation were a good emitter, its temperature would be
a. lower than that of the surroundings
b. higher than that of the surroundings
c. the same as that of the surroundings
d. not be affected
56. Two pots are filled with boiling water. The pots are exactly the same size, but one pot is
white and the other is black. Which pot cools faster?
a. the white pot
b. the black pot
c. neither, they cool at the same time
57. Newton’s Law of Cooling states that the rate of cooling or warming depends on
a. the mass of the object
b. the volume of the object
c. the specific heat of the object
d. the difference in temperature of the object and the surroundings
58. Which of the following is true about two identical pots, one filled with boiling water and
the other an equal amount of lukewarm water, both left at room temperature?
COOLS FIRST COOLS FASTER
a. boiling boiling
b. lukewarm lukewarm
c. boiling lukewarm
d. lukewarm boiling
59. If you want to cook boiled eggs while in the mountains you should
a. use hotter flame
b. boil the eggs for a longer time
c. boil the eggs for a shorter time
d. not boil the eggs, because the water temperature won't get hot enough to cook
them
60. Heat can be transferred through conduction, convection, or radiation. When you place
your finger at the side of a flame of a burning candle, the warmth that you feel is
primarily caused by which mechanism of heat transfer?
a. conduction c. convection
b. radiation d. transpiration
61. Which of the following associations is correct?
a. sound electromagnetic transverse
b. light mechanical transverse
c. sound mechanical longitudinal
d. light electromagnetic longitudinal
62. What do you call the distance between two successive crests and two successive
troughs?
a. frequency b. wavelength c. amplitude d. period
63. What do you call regions of low pressure in a longitudinal wave?
a. crest c. compression
b. trough d. rarefaction
64. The term refraction refers to
a. bouncing back of light rays when they strike a mirror
b. bending of light rays when they pass obliquely from one medium to another
c. spreading of waves when it encounters a small opening
d. fact the light travels in a straight line in a uniform medium
65. Interference of waves occurs when
a. two or more waves combine
b. they bend around corners or opening
c. they slow down as they pass another medium
d. all of the above
66. What is the difference between the highest and the lowest note on the piano?
a. Highest note is always a softer sound
b. Highest note has more vibrations per second
c. Lowest note is always a louder around
d. Lowest note has more vibrations per second
67. Sound that is heard louder than the others has a greater
a. pitch c. wavelength
b. frequency d. amplitude
68. The sound produced by a piano differs from that of the violin even if both sounds have
the same pitch and loudness because of
a. Frequency c. overtones
b. Intensity d. amplitude
69. What do you call sound with frequency that is below 20 Hz?
a. supersonic c. infrasonic
b. subsonic d. ultrasonic
70. Sound travels faster through warm air than cold air. This is to be expected because the
faster – moving air molecules in the warm air bump into each other more often and
therefore
a. can transmit wave in less time
b. increases the temperature of the molecules
c. create regions of compression and rarefaction
d. passes the energy of the sound in a longer period
71. What happens to the speed of sound in air as temperature increases?
a. increases c. remains the same
b. decreases d. cannot be determined
72. Which of the following best describes the order of decreasing speed of sound in the
given media? 1. wood 2. sea water 3. copper 4. glass 5. air
a. 12345 b. 34125 c. 54321 d. 41325
73. What happens to the speed of sound as it travels from a denser to a less dense
medium?
a. increases c. remains the same
b. decreases d. cannot be determined
74. How fast does a wave move if its frequency is 2Hz and its wavelength is 3m?
a. 6 m/s b. 5 m/s c. 1 m/s d. 1.5 m/s
75. In a guitar, which string can produce a high pitch?
a. thin and long c. thin and short
b. thick and long d. thick and short
76. An echo is produced by
a. reflection of sound c. refraction of sound
b. superposition of be d. diffraction of sound
77. What results from multiple reflections of sound?
a. noise c. echo
b. music d. reverberation
78. What property of sound explains why is it easier to hear even the faintest sounds at night
than during the day?
a. reflection c. diffraction
b. refraction d. interference
79. What explains why we can hear around corners even if we cannot see the source of
sound?
a. reflection c. diffraction
b. refraction d. interference
80. The singer Carusso is said to have made a crystal chandelier shatter with his voice. This
is a demonstration of
a. an echo c. resonance
b. sound refraction d. interference
81. A material that reflects and absorbs any light that strikes it is _______.
a. opaque c. transparent
b. translucent d. luminous
82. Why are shadows formed?
a. light produces a dark area
b. light is dispersed in all direction
c. light travels in a straight line
d. light is scattered by a smooth surface
83. Objects are visible because of the light they
a. reflect c. absorb
b. diffuse d. refract
84. Which of the following associations involving electromagnetic radiation is correct?
WAVELENGTH FREQUENCY ENERGY
a. radio longest lowest least
b. radio shortest highest greatest
c. gamma longest lowest greatest
d. gamma shortest highest least
85. The visible light portion of the electromagnetic spectrum falls between
a. radio waves and microwave
b. radio waves and infrared rays
c. x – rays and gamma rays
d. infrared rays and ultraviolet rays
86. The separation of white light into colors of the spectrum is called
a. scattering c. dispersion
b. reflection d. refraction
87. When light travels from water to air, what happens to its speed?
a. increases c. remains the same
b. decreases d. cannot be determined
88. If you look at the pool of still water your face is clearly seen. Which of the following best
explains this?
a. scattering of white in different directions
b. regular reflection of light by the surface of still water
c. irregular reflection of light by the surface of still water
d. light is reflected from the surface of still water in different directions
89. A ray of light is reflected from a mirror. The angle of incidence is 20 0. The angle between
the incident ray and the reflected ray is
a. 100 b. 200 c. 300 d. 400
90. A person standing waist deep in a swimming pool appears to have short legs because of
a. reflection c. refraction
b. diffraction d. interference
91. When sunlight falls on bubbles, the band of colors seen is due to
a. dispersion c. reflection
b. interference d. scattering
92. The sun appears to be more reddish at sunset than at noon. Which of the following light
phenomena is responsible for this?
a. dispersion c. reflection
b. interference d. scattering
93. Which of the following can form a real image?
a. concave mirror c. diverging lens
b. convex mirror d. plane mirror
94. The image in a plane mirror is
a. erect but reversed
b. inverted but reversed
c. erect but not reversed
d. inverted but not reversed
95. What kind of mirror is used in automobile and trucks to give the driver a wider area and
smaller image of the traffic behind him?
a. convex mirror c. concave mirror
b. plane mirror d. any of these
96. When you are looking on a fish under water, in what direction should you aim your spear
to hit it?
a. above the fish
b. below the fish
c. directly to the fish
d. either below/above the fish
97. Which of the following is TRUE about light and seeing?
a. Light enters the eyes enabling people to see objects.
b. Light goes out from eyes, hits an object, and then returns to the eyes.
c. Light rays coming from an object meets light coming from a light source and then
enters the eyes.
d. Light hits an object, bounces, and then enters the eyes.
98. A nearsighted person needs a concave lens. This lens makes the image fall
a. beyond the retina of the eye
b. on the retina of the eye
c. before the retina of the eye
d. on the eyeball
99. Which of the following correctly relates the condition of the eyeball to the type of lens
that is used to correct a particular eyesight defect?
EYEBALL LENS
a. myopia long concave
b. hyperopia long convex
c. myopia short convex
d. hyperopia short concave
100. Farsightedness can usually be corrected using _______.
a. convex mirrors. c. convex lenses.
b. concave mirrors. d. concave lenses.
101. If a material becomes positively charged after being rubbed, what does it indicate?
a. it gains protons c. it loses protons
b. it gains electrons d. it loses electrons
102. If you comb your hair and the comb becomes negatively charged, your hair becomes
a. positively charged c. neutral
b. negatively charged d.cannot be determined
103. Rubbing an inflated balloon on your hair can make the balloon stick to a wall. This
happens in a low humidity environment. What charging process in involved?
a. charging by friction
b. charging by contact
c. charging by induction
d. charging by polarization
104. A conductor that is initially neutral charged by induction with grounding using a
negatively charged object. Which of the following statements is true about the conductor
after the charging process?
a. the conductor will be polarized
b. the conductor becomes positively charged
c. the conductor remains uncharged
d. the conductor becomes negatively charged
105. A rod with unknown charge attracts a plastic ball. Which of the following statements may
describe them?
a. the rod is positive and the ball is negative
b. the rod is negative and the ball is positive
c. the rod is charged and the ball is neutral
d. all of the above
106. What law states that the force of electrostatic interaction between two point charges is
directly proportional to the product of their charges and is inversely proportional to the
square of their separation distance?
a. Ohm’s Law c. Coulomb’s Law
b. Faraday’s Law d. Ampere’s Law
107. Two charges separated by a distance of 1 m exert a 1 – N force on each other. If the
charges are pushed to a separation of 2 m, what will be the force on each charge?
a. 1 N b. 1/4 N c. 8 N d. 16 N
108. Electricity cannot flow through which of the following?
a. series circuit c. open circuit
b. parallel circuit d. closed circuit
109. Which of the following are the major parts of a complete electric circuit?
a. battery, wires, switch, and capacitor
b. battery, wires, switch, and bulb
c. switch, wires, capacitor, and bulb
d. battery, switch, capacitor, and bulb
110. Circuit breakers and fuses protect a circuit from becoming
a. discharged c. insulated
b. overloaded d. grounded
111. In what way does a circuit breaker protect the appliances or electronic elements in a
circuit when there is short or overloading?
a. The circuit breaker absorbs the excess current.
b. The circuit breaker opens the circuit when the current exceeds a certain value.
c. The circuit breaker distributes the excess current to all the appliances in the
circuit.
d. The circuit breaker guides the current to the ground when it exceeds a certain
value.
112. Electric power is defined as
a. current times voltage
b. voltage divided by current
c. current divided by voltage
d. resistance times voltage
113. What do users of electricity pay for?
a. Time for using the electricity
b. Electrical energy used
c. Current through the appliances
d. Electrical power consumed
114. A heater uses 20 A when connected to a 110 V line. If the electric power costs 10 pesos
per kilowatt – hour, the cost of running the heater for 10 hours is
a. 0.22 pesos c. 0.55 pesos
b. 220 pesos d. 550 pesos
115. Which among the following is a characteristic of a series connection?
a. the current flowing through each load varies
b. there is only one current through each load
c. there is a common potential drop across all the loads
d. the sum of the resistance is lesser than the total resistance of the circuit
116. If the north pole of one magnet is brought near the south pole of another magnet, the
poles will
a. attract each other
b. repels each other
c. attract and then repel each other
d. not interact with each other at all
117. Several pins dangle from the south pole of a magnet. What is the induced pole in
the bottom of the lowermost paper clip?
a. North pole c. North or South pole
b. South pole d. cannot be determined
118. A compass is used to determine direction geographically. The needle deflects in
response to
a. earth’s geographic pattern
b. earth’s magnetic field
c. earth’s electric field
d. earth’s gravitational field
119. In a drawing of magnetic field lines, the stronger the field is,
a. the closer together the field lines are
b. the more nearly parallel the field lines are
c. the farther apart the field lines are
d. the more divergent the field lines are
120. Which of the following will be able to create an electromagnet?
a. nail, wire, switch c. nail, wire, magnet
b. nail, wire, battery d. nail, switch, battery
121. Matter is usually defined as anything that
a. has a consistent weight unless subdivided
b. has a specific volume, but in any shape or size
c. occupies space and emits energy in the form of visible light
d. occupies space and has mass
122. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Light has mass
b. Heat occupies space
c. Air has volume
d. Sound has both mass and volume
123. Many people confuse mass with volume. Which of the statements below will illustrate the
relationship between mass and volume?
a. Objects with large mass always have large volume
b. Mass and volume are both measured in kilograms
c. Volume is a measure of space; mass is a measure of the actual amount of matter
in a body
d. Objects with greater mass has greater inertia and hence will have greater volume
124. Which of the following is not a physical property?
a. the ductility of a metal
b. the freezing point of a liquid
c. the hardness of a metal
d. the corrosiveness of an acid
125. All of the following are chemical properties except
a. toxicity c. corrosiveness
b. solubility d. flammability
126. Which of the following is an example of an intensive property?
a. density b. mass c. volume d. length
127. Which of the following is an extensive property?
a. the density of water
b. the boiling point of water
c. the time it takes water to boil
d. the freezing point of water
128. Density is calculated by dividing mass with volume. Both mass and volume are physical,
extensive properties. Thus, density is an example of
a. chemical, extensive property
b. physical, extensive property
c. physical, intensive property
d. chemical, intensive property
129. The following describe chemical change except
a. A chemical change takes place when a solid is changed to liquid then changed to
gas
b. For a chemical change to take place, heat, light, or electricity is either needed or
given off.
c. Some examples of chemical change are souring of milk, ripening of fruit, and
digestion of food.
d. In a chemical change, a new substance is formed, with chemical properties that
are different from, the original substance.
130. Which is an example of a physical change?
a. rusting of iron
b. lighting a matchstick
c. ripening of mango
d. dissolving sugar in water
131. People crave for ice cream especially during the summer. What happens to ice cream
molecules as the ice cream melts?
a. release heat and move farther apart
b. absorb heat and move farther apart
c. absorb heat and move closer together
d. release heat and move closer together
132. Which is an example of a chemical change
a. boiling of water c. melting of butter
b. souring of milk d. dissolving salt in water
133. Which of the following best describes pure substances?
a. It has a definite composition.
b. It may be homogeneous or heterogeneous.
c. It changes the color of common indicators.
d. Its components can be separated by chemical means.
134. Carbon, titanium, and gold are examples of elements. Which of the following best
describes an element?
a. Element is the simplest form of matter.
b. Element can be broken down into simpler substances.
c. Element can be classified as homogeneous and heterogeneous.
d. Element is inert since they are commonly found free in nature.
135. A student heated a solid sample. She saw a red glow spread through the sample. At the
end of the experiment, a black solid had been formed. Which statement about the black
solid is true?
a. It is a separation of mixture.
b. It is a product of an element.
c. It is an evidence of the formation of a compound.
d. It is an indication that a physical change has occurred.
136. Which of the following best describes a mixture?
a. It is homogeneous
b. It has a definite composition
c. It changes the colors of common indicators
d. Its components are combined in any proportion
137. Jessie added one tablespoon of sugar in a mixture of instant coffee and hot water. The
resulting solution tastes sweet. Which characteristic of mixtures is best illustrated in the
situation?
a. The components can be mixed in any proportion.
b. The mixture may be homogeneous or heterogeneous.
c. The characteristics of the components are retained in the mixture.
d. The components of the mixture may be separated by ordinary physical means.
138. An odorless, colorless Liquid A boils at a temperature range of 105 – 1100C. What
inference can you draw based from this observation?
a. Liquid A is a mixture.
b. Liquid A is a compound.
c. Liquid A is an element.
d. Liquid A is a pure substance
139. Pure substances made or more than one element are called
a. compounds c. mixtures
b. alloys d. solutions
140. Which grouping is composed of pure substances only?
a. fog, dew, brine
b. ice, dry ice, table sugar
c. dew, dry ice, vinegar
d. ice, table salt, fog
141. Matter that consists of two or more substances mixed together but not chemically
combined is called a (an)
a. element c. compound
b. pure substance d. mixture
142. Which of the following statements is true regarding compounds and mixtures?
a. both compounds and mixtures are always homogeneous in nature
b. both compounds and mixtures are always heterogeneous in nature
c. compounds are physical combination of elements while mixtures are chemical
combination of pure substances
d. both compounds and mixtures are combinations; the former made up of different
elements and the latter made up of pure substances
143. How do solutions differ from compounds?
a. solutions are heterogeneous mixtures; compounds are homogeneous
b. solutions vary in composition; compounds have definite composition
c. solutions have definite composition; compounds vary in composition
d. solutions are formed in chemical reactions; compound combine physically
144. Copper is used for electrical wires because it is ductile. Which of the following describes
ductility of metals?
a. the softness of metals
b. can be drawn into fine wires
c. the hardness of metals
d. can be hammered forming this sheets
145. One of the physical properties of a metal, compared to a non –metal, is that the metal is
malleable. This means you can
a. see you reflection in it
b. pound it into thin sheet
c. use it to conduct electricity
d. pull it into a wire that will conduct electricity
146. Which of the following best describes a nonmetal?
a. They are ductile and malleable
b. They are good insulators
c. They have high tensile strength
d. They are hard and brittle
147. How will you distinguish between an acid and a base?
a. test with litmus paper
b. compare their boiling point
c. compare their density
d. test for the solubility of water
148. Large quantities of calcium carbonate are dumped into polluted lakes to fight the effect
of acid rain. It is inferred from this action that calcium carbonate is a/an__________.
a. acid c. neutral substance
b. base d. powdered substance
149. Which of the following acid groups is found in vinegar?
a. nitric acid c. acetic acid
b. sulfuric acid d. ascorbic acid
150. A solid grayish material was found to conduct heat and electricity. Burning the material
also produced a white residue. The solution formed from the residue turns red litmus to
blue. What is the nature of the solution?
a. Acidic c. Neutral
b. Basic d. Salty
151. When a solution of an acid and a base are mixed together,
a. a salt and water are formed
b. they lose their acid and base properties
c. both are neutralized
d. all of the above are correct
152. All of the following are inorganic compounds except
a. butane c. hydrazine
b. carbon dioxide d. calcium carbonate
153. A homogeneous mixture is made up of 95 percent alcohol and 5 percent water. In this
case, the water is (the)
a. solvent c. solute
b. solution d. any of them
154. If you will be asked to prepare a homogeneous mixture, which of the following materials
below will you use?
(1) ethanol (2) oil (3) water (4) butter
a. 1 & 2 b. 2 & 3 c. 3 & 4 d. 1 & 3
155. Your chemistry teacher asked you to prepare a heterogeneous mixture. Which of these
materials will you be using?
(1) sand (2) water (3) iodized salt (4) sugar (5) ethanol
a. 1, 2, and 3 c. 2, 3, and 4
b. 2, 4, and 5 d. 2, 3, and 5
156. One property that distinguishes solutions, colloids, and suspensions from one another is
the size of the particles of solute. Which of the following is the correct arrangement of
the three types of mixtures based on decreasing size of their solute particles?
a. solution – colloid - suspension
b. colloid – suspension - solution
c. suspension – colloid - solution
d. solution – suspension - colloid
157. What do you call a mixture that scatters light passing through it?
a. solution c. colloid
b. suspension d. all of them
158. Some cough syrup are shaken first before they are used. What characterizes these
products?
a. solution c. colloid
b. suspension d. mixture
159. Which of the following descriptions of colloids in terms of dispersed phase and
dispersing medium is incorrect?
DISPERSED DISPERSING
PHASE MEDIUM
a. mayonnaise liquid liquid
b. styrofoam gas solid
c. gelatin solid liquid
d. beaten eggwhite gas liquid
160. Colloids maybe dispersed in a gas, liquid, or solid. Which of the following colloidal
systems show a liquid dispersed in a gas medium?
a. clouds c. smoke
b. blood d. beaten egg white
161. The components of ink can best be separated using
a. evaporation c. filtration
b. centrifugation d. chromatography
162. Filtration is best used in separating mixtures that are composed of
a. two miscible liquids
b. a soluble solid in a liquid
c. two miscible solids
d. an insoluble solid in a liquid
163. What is the fastest way to obtain salt from salt water?
a. boiling c. filtration
b. distillation d. evaporation
164. What is the easiest way to separate oil and water if both oil and water need to be
recovered back?
a. distillation c. boiling
b. decantation d. filtration
165. Why is water considered a universal solvent?
a. It has a high density
b. It has a high specific heat
c. It dissolves polar and non – polar substances
d. It dissolves both polar and ionic substance
166. Which of the following is an assumption of Dalton’s atomic theory?
a. Atoms of an element have different masses.
b. When atoms combine to form compounds, they do so in ratios of small whole
numbers
c. An atom consists of a very small, positively charged nucleus
d. An atom is a sphere of positively charged material in which the detachable
electrons are embedded
167. Isotopes are atoms that have the same atomic number but different mass numbers. It
means also that isotopes are atoms that have
a. the same number of electrons but different number of protons
b. the same number of neutrons but different number of electrons
c. the same number of protons but different number of neutrons
d. the same number of protons but different number of electrons
168. Who discovered in 1932 the electrically neutral particle called neutron?
a. Joseph Thomson c. Robert Millikan
b. James Chadwick d. Eugen Goldstein
169. The scientist who proposed that an atom is mostly empty space with tiny positive core
called the nucleus
a. Dalton c. Thomson
b. Rutherford d. Bohr
170. In a neutral atom, the number of protons is equal to the number of
a. electrons c. neutrons
b. nucleons d. all of these
171. The mass of an atom is attributed to
a. protons and neutrons
b. electrons and neutrons
c. protons and electrons
d. protons only
172. How many protons, electrons and neutrons are present in Na?
a. 11 protons, 11 electrons, and 23 neutrons
b. 12 protons, 11 electrons, and 23 neutrons
c. 11 protons, 11 electrons, and 12 neutrons
d. 23 protons, 23 electrons, and 11 neutrons
173. An oxygen atom loses two electrons and forms the ion, 8 O . What is the number of
proton and electron?
a. 8 protons and 6 electrons
b. 8 protons and 8 electrons
c. 10 protons and 8 electrons
d. 8 protons and 10 electrons
174. An atom of non – metallic chlorine has mass number of 35 and 18 neutrons in the
nucleus. The anion derived from the atom has 18 electrons. What is the symbol of the
anion?
a. Cl1+ b. Cl1- c. Cl0 d. Cl2-
175. Lithium, sodium, and potassium are alkali metals belonging to Group 1A. What is the
valence electron of these elements?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
176. All of the following elements will have the tendency to give up electrons to be stable
except
a. Aluminum c. Chlorine
b. Calcium d. Potassium
177. Which of the following pairs of elements is likely to form an ionic compound?
a. I and Cl c. Al and N
b. Cl and Cl d. Mg and F
178. Which of the following bonds is polar covalent?
a. F – F c. Be – Cl
b. Na – Cl d. C – O
179. A covalent bond is formed when
a. electrons are gained by an atom
b. electrons are given up by an atom
c. electrons are shared between atoms
d. electrons are given up by one atom and taken in by another
180. If two atoms that differ in electronegativity combine by chemical reaction and sharing of
electrons, the bond that joins them will be
a. ionic bond c. polar covalent
b. nonpolar covalent d. metallic bond
181. What type of bonds generally involve nonmetal atoms?
a. covalent bonds c. ionic bonds
b. metallic bonds d. none of them
182. The chemical bond formed by the existing force of attraction between positive metal ions
and the pool or sea of valence electrons.
a. ionic bond
b. polar covalent bond
c. non-polar covalent bond
d. metallic bond
183. Hydrogen peroxide has been used as a rocket propellant. If the chemical formula of
hydrogen peroxide is H2O2, what is its empirical formula?
a. H2O b. HO c. H2O2 d. HO2
184. Which of the following has the greatest number of nitrogen atoms?
a. NH4NO3 c. HNO3
b. (NH4)3PO4 d. Ca(NO3)2
185. Which of the following chemical equations is correctly balanced?
a. 2Zn + 6HCl → ZnCl2 + 3H2
b. 2H2SO4 + 6NaOH → 2Na2SO4 + 3H2O
c. 2Mg + 6H2SO4 → 2MgSO4 + 3H2
d. 2Al + 6HNO3 → 2Al(NO3)3 + 3H2
186. During chemical changes or chemical reactions, which particles are gained, lost, or
shared?
a. protons inside the nucleus
b. neutrons inside the nucleus
c. electrons in the outermost energy level
d. electrons in the innermost energy level
187. Which of the following radiation is made up of a stream of particles identical to the
nucleus of helium?
a. alpha c. gamma
b. beta d. x ray
188. Which of the following is the correct arrangement of the three types of radiation in the
order of decreasing penetrating power?
a. alpha – beta – gamma
b. beta – alpha – gamma
c. gamma – beta - alpha
d. alpha – gamma – beta
189. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the three types of radiation as
they pass through a magnetic field?
a. alpha radiation has smaller deflection than beta radiation because of the greater
mass of alpha particles.
b. alpha and beta radiation are deflected in opposite directions because of their
opposite signs of charges
c. gamma radiation is undeflected because it has no mass
d. gamma radiation is undeflected because it has no electric charge.
190. War experts use energy in its discovery of nuclear bombs. When energy is released
from a nuclear fission, what occurs?
a. Atoms are split into fragments.
b. Energy is released from fission.
c. Decrease in mass nuclear bombs.
d. The energy possessed is used for bombing nations.
191. Arranged from the top to the bottom, which is the correct arrangement of the layers of
the earth?
a. outer core, mantle, crust, inner core
b. crust, mantle, outer core, inner core
c. outer core, mantle, inner core, crust
d. crust, mantle, inner core, outer core
192. Which elements make up most of the Earth's crust?
a. copper and nickel
b. iron and silicon
c. iron and nickel
d. oxygen and silicon
193. Scientists believe that one of the earth’s layers is a liquid. Which is this?
a. crust c. mantle
b. outer core d. inner core
194. Which of the following theories states that in the past, the earth consisted of one land
mass that broke apart into smaller landmasses?
a. Continental drift c. Plate tectonics
b. Seafloor spreading d. Big bang theory
195. What theory is used to explain the formation of the Earth's crust and its movements,
collision, and destruction?
a. Continental drift c. Plate tectonics
b. Magnetic stripes d. Sea-floor spreading
196. The vibration of the earth’s surface due to the release of stored energy when the
deformed rock ruptures or returns to its original size and shape.
a. earthquake c. tsunami
b. faulting d. tidal wave
197. Which of the following statements is true about earthquake prediction?
a. Earthquakes could be predicted 100%.
b. We could now determine the probable sites where earthquake could occur.
c. Seismologists could predict the time and day when an earthquake would occur.
d. There has been no attempt to predict an earthquake.
198. Which of the following statements in seismology is correct?
a. the focus and the epicenter of an earthquake are the same
b. both describe the exact location of the source of an earthquake
c. the focus describes the direction of earthquake wave movement while epicenter
tells where the earthquake originated
d. the focus is different from the epicenter because the epicenter is the point on the
surface of the earth directly above the focus
199. Which aspect of an earthquake is expressed by the Richter scale?
a. Intensity c. Magnitude
b. Location d. Speed
200. What usually causes tsunamis?
a. hurricanes
b. undersea earthquakes
c. high-pressure weather systems
d. the collision of ocean currents
201. What is the warning sign of an approaching tsunami?
a. high tide and low tide
b. flashflood in nearby beaches
c. coastal residents move to higher ground
d. rapid withdrawal of water from beaches
202. Which of the following does NOT describe a mineral?
a. They are inorganic.
b. They are found in nature.
c. They can be solid, liquid, or gas.
d. They are made up of an orderly arrangement of atoms with a definite crystal
structure.
203. Which of the following is not a mineral?
a. pyrite c. pearl
b. quartz d. halite
204. Which would most likely occur during the formation of igneous rock?
a. solidification of molten materials
b. recrystallization of unmelted material
c. compression and cementation of sediments
d. evaporation and precipitation of dissolved sediments
205. What is the correct sequence of the processes involved in the formation of sedimentary
rocks?
a. weathering, deposition, lithification, erosion
b. erosion, deposition, lithification, weathering
c. weathering, erosion, deposition, lithification
d. erosion, weathering, deposition, lithification
206. Geologists reconstruct many details of the earth’s history from rocks. What particular
rock type is used by geologists?
a. igneous c. sedimentary
b. metamorphic d. any of these
207. In which rock layer are remains of aquatic organisms commonly found?
a. igneous c. metamorphic
b. sedimentary d. any of them
208. What do you call the process by which rock breaks into pieces?
a. erosion c. weathering
b. lithification d. deposition
209. Broken pieces of rocks are removed from the parent rock by running water. This process
is called
a. erosion c. weathering
b. lithification d. crystallization
210. The source of energy that drives the hydrologic cycle is the
a. the sun
b. the ocean
c. the earth’s interior
d. latent heat from evaporating water
211. The hydrologic cycle consists of different processes involved in the unending exchange
of water from the surface to the atmosphere. Which is responsible for getting water into
the atmosphere?
a. evaporation c. condensation
b. sublimation d. melting
212. Which process in the water cycle is directly responsible for cloud formation?
a. condensation c. precipitation
b. infiltration d. evaporation
213. The most abundant chemical compound at the surface of the earth is
a. water
b. silicon dioxide
c. nitrogen gas
d. minerals of iron, magnesium, and silicon
214. A greater percentage of the earth’s surface is covered with water. However, nowadays
water shortage is one of the problems being faced by people worldwide. Why do you
think so?
a. A greater percentage of the world’s water is ocean water which is saltwater.
b. A greater percentage of our water bodies are polluted.
c. A greater percentage of our freshwater exist as glaciers and ice caps.
d. All of A, B, C.
215. In the troposphere what happens to the temperature as altitude increases?
a. It increases.
b. It decreases.
c. It remains the same.
d. It increases, then, at certain height, it decreases
216. The earth’s atmosphere is composed mainly of
a. nitrogen, oxygen, and argon
b. oxygen, nitrogen, and water vapor
c. oxygen, carbon dioxide, and nitrogen
d. oxygen, carbon dioxide, and water vapor
217. In which two temperature zones of the atmosphere does the temperature increase with
increasing altitude?
a. troposphere and stratosphere
b. troposphere and mesosphere
c. stratosphere and thermosphere
d. mesosphere and thermosphere
218. Which of the following gases has the greatest percentage in the earth’s atmosphere?
a. oxygen c. argon
b. nitrogen d. carbon dioxide
219. In which layer of the atmosphere is the ultraviolet radiation trapped?
a. troposphere c. mesosphere
b. stratosphere d. thermosphere
220. Air moving down a mountain slope is often warm because
a. it has been closer to the sun
b. this occurs only during summertime
c. it is compressed as it moves to lower elevation
d. cool air is more dense and settle to lower elevation
221. Why do people feel warmer just before it rains?
a. heat released by the condensation of water vapor
b. the clouds prevent heat from escaping from earth
c. the increased relative humidity makes them feel warmer
d. the warming is due to the heat absorbed by the evaporation of water
222. Wind is the horizontal flow of air. What is the underlying cause of wind?
a. Varying amount of water vapor in the air
b. Unequal heating of the earth’s surface
c. Rotation of the Earth
d. Ocean currents
223. What component of the atmosphere is responsible for the weather changes?
a. Nitrogen
b. Oxygen
c. Particulates
d. Water vapor
224. When water vapor in the atmosphere condenses to liquid water,
a. dew falls to the ground
b. a cloud forms
c. rain or snow falls to the ground
d. all of them are correct
225. Which of the following instruments determines the atmospheric relative humidity?
a. barometer c. psychrometer
b. anemometer d. sphygmomanometer
226. The condition of the atmosphere at any given time and place
a. weather c. climate
b. season d. none of them
227. At night, the wind blows from the land to the sea. This is because the cool air over the
land blows in to replace the warm air rising from the sea. This type of breeze is called
a. sea breeze c. both of them
b. land breeze d. none of them
228. Which weather change is most likely indicated by rapidly falling air pressure?
a. Humidity is decreasing.
b. Temperature is decreasing.
c. Skies are clearing.
d. A storm is approaching.
229. Clouds are visible indication of what is going on in the atmosphere. All of the following
are indicated by cumulonimbus clouds EXCEPT ___
a. fair weather
b. thunderstorm
c. more precipitation
d. vertical formation of clouds
230. Earth’s surface winds generally blow from regions of higher
a. air temperature toward regions of lower air temperature
b. air pressure toward regions of lower air pressure
c. latitudes toward regions of lower latitudes
d. elevations toward regions of lower elevations
231. Why do we see the sun rise in the east and set on the west?
a. the earth rotates from west to east
b. the earth revolves counterclockwise
c. the earth rotates from east to west
d. the sun rotates in a clockwise manner
232. If the earth stops spinning on its axis, which will likely happen?
a. There will be an increase in the number of days in a year.
b. The clouds will start to block the sun’s shadow.
c. The sun will start to revolve around the earth.
d. There will be no night and day.
233. The time it takes for the precession of the earth’s axis to complete one turn is
a. 1 year
b. 100 years
c. 1000 years
d. 26000 years
234. What do you call the earth’s motion around the sun?
a. rotation c. revolution
b. precession d. none of these
235. What do you call the point in the orbit of a planet where it is farthest from the sun?
a. apogee c. perigee
b. aphelion d. perihelion
236. How are latitude and longitude lines drawn?
a. Latitude lines are parallel and longitude lines meet at the poles.
b. Latitude lines are parallel and longitude lines meet at the equator.
c. Longitude lines are parallel and latitude lines meet at the poles.
d. Longitude lines are parallel and latitude lines meet at the equator.
237. What is the consequence of the inclination of the earth’s axis of rotation?
a. weather c. seasons
b. global warming d. day and night
238. In the Northern Hemisphere, the longest day occurs on the
a. winter solstice c. vernal equinox
b. summer solstice d. autumnal equinox
239. During the winter, the days are
a. shorter than the nights
b. the same length as the night
c. longer than the nights
d. none of them
240. When it is summer in the northern hemisphere, in the southern hemisphere it is
a. autumn c. spring
b. summer d. winter
241. During summer in the southern hemisphere, we see the sunrise early and sunset late.
Why is this so?
a. the tilt is changing in amount
b. the tilt of the axis is towards the sun
c. the tilt of the axis is away from the sun
d. the tilt is either away from nor toward the sun
242. Why does air temperature usually decrease towards the poles?
a. there is plenty of ice near the poles
b. air generally moves towards the equator
c. cold air near the poles prevents heating of the land
d. areas near the poles receive less solar energy per unit area
243. Where is the sun directly overhead at noontime if it is winter in the Northern Hemisphere
a. Tropic of Cancer c. equator
b. Tropic of Capricorn d. Arctic Circe
244. It refers to the condition wherein the sun rises late and sets early.
a. summer solstice c. spring equinox
b. winter solstice d. autumnal equinox
245. Earth is farthest from the Sun during the Northern Hemisphere’s summer, and Earth is
closest to the Sun during the Northern Hemisphere’s winter. During which season in the
Northern Hemisphere is Earth’s orbital velocity greatest?
a. winter c. summer
b. spring d. fall
246. If a solar eclipse occurred 2 weeks ago, what would be the phase of the moon today?
a. first quarter c. full
b. last quarter d. new
247. Which of the following conditions regarding the positions of the earth, moon and the sun
could possibly result to a solar eclipse?
a. the sun is between the earth and the moon
b. the moon is between the sun and the earth
c. the earth is between the sun and the moon
d. the earth, moon, and sun are at right angles to each other
248. A lunar eclipse can happen only when the moon’s phase is
a. new c. full
b. gibbous d. crescent
249. How do you describe the positions of the earth, moon, and the sun if the high tide is
lower than average and the low tide is higher than average?
a. they are perpendicular to each other
b. they are aligned with each other with the moon in between
c. they are aligned with each other with the earth in between
d. they are aligned with each other with the sun in between
250. What will happen if the moon’s period of rotation and period of revolution is the same?
a. The moon will eventually move faster in its orbit that the earth.
b. Observers on earth will clearly see all the surfaces of the moon.
c. Observers on earth will only see half of the surface of the moon always.
d. The moon will eventually capture the atmosphere of the earth
251. The least range between high tides and low tides occurs during
a. full moon
b. new moon
c. quarter moon phases
d. an eclipse
252. The phases of the moon depend on the position of the
a. moon only
b. earth only
c. earth and moon only
d. earth, moon, and sun
253. How long does it take for the moon to rotate once?
a. 27 ⅓ days
b. 24 hours
c. 29 ½ days
d. 365 days
254. How much time does it take for the moon to go through all its phases?
a. 27 ⅓days
b. 29 ½ days
c. 30 days
d. 31 days
 255. Which kind of tide occurs during a new moon phase?
a. High tide
b. Low tide
c. Neap tide
d. Spring tide
256. The solar system formed from
a. an expanding galaxy
b. a cloud of gas and dust
c. an enormous explosion
d. a black hole
257. What do all the inner planets have in common?
a. They have the same diameter.
b. They have the same period of rotation.
c. They have the same period of revolution.
d. They are small and have rocky surfaces.
258. The actual brightness of a star depends on its
a. size and temperature
b. distance and temperature
c. color and temperature
d. distance and color
259. Which of the following shows the relationship between the apparent brightness and
distance of stars?
a. The nearer the star, the brighter it appears as we see it.
b. The nearer the star, the dimmer it appears as we see it.
c. The farther the star, the brighter it appears as we see it.
d. Distance has nothing to do with the apparent brightness of the star.
260. Which of the objects listed below is the largest in size?
a. stars c. nebula
b. planets d. galaxies
261. Which three planets are known as terrestrial planets because of their high density and
rocky composition?
a. Mercury, Venus, Mars
b. Jupiter, Saturn Uranus
c. Venus, Neptune, and Pluto
d. Uranus, Neptune, Pluto
262. In which group are the parts listed from the oldest to the youngest?
a. solar system, Milky Way galaxy, universe
b. Milky Way galaxy, solar system, universe
c. universe, solar system, Milky Way galaxy
d. universe, Milky Way galaxy, solar system
263. The name for a chunk of rock, as it travels from space to the earth’s surface
a. meteoroid, meteor, meteorite
b. meteoroid, meteorite, meteor
c. meteor, meteoroid, meteorite
d. meteor, meteorite, meteoroid
264. In majority of stars, the most common element is
a. oxygen c. helium
b. hydrogen d. argon
265. Among the terrestrial planets, which exhibits greenhouse effect due to extreme amount
of carbon dioxide in its atmosphere?
a. Earth c. Mars
b. Mercury d. Venus
266. The solar system is composed of the Sun, planets, and the minor members. Identify the
3 minor members of the solar system.
a. Asteroids, comets, meteors
b. Asteroids, comets, meteorites
c. Asteroids, comets, meteoroids
d. Asteroids, comets, variable stars
267. Which among the following is evidence that the universe is an expanding universe?
a. Motion of the sun around an external axis
b. Motion of the earth around the sun
c. Precession of planets
d. Red shift phenomenon
268. Antares is a red star, Arcturus is an orange star, while the Sun is a yellow star. Which is
an arrangement according to star age from youngest to oldest?
a. Antares, Arcturus, Sun
b. Sun, Antares, Arcturus
c. Arcturus, Antares, Sun
d. Sun, Arcturus, Antares
269. Which of the following is the best description of Pluto?
a. it is the smallest planet in the Solar System
b. it is the largest Kuiper Belt object beyond the orbit of Neptune
c. it is a long period comet formed in the Oort Cloud
d. It is an asteroid that can also be considered as a planetoid
270. Where can the asteroid belt be found?
a. between Earth and Mars
b. between Jupiter and Saturn
c. between Mars and Jupiter
d. between Venus and Earth
271. A common feature of a giant planet is
a. no atmosphere c. a thick atmosphere
b. one or no moon d. slow rotation
272. Mars is a planet named after the Roman god of war Ares. What are the two natural
satellites of Mars?
a. Phobos and Deimos
b. Titan and Triton
c. Ganymede and Callisto
d. Europa and Io
273. What is the biggest natural satellite in the Solar System?
a. Ganymede
b. Callisto
c. Europa
d. Io
274. The planets in the solar system
a. can support human life
b. revolve around the sun
c. have the same surface temperature
d. are exactly the same size
275. Which among the planets is known as the morning and evening star as viewed from
Earth?
a. Mars
b. Mercury
c. Neptune
d. Venus
276. In the binomial system of classification, organisms are given two names. What is it
composed of?
a. family and genus name
b. order and genus name
c. local and international name
d. genus and species name
277. Which is the correct way of writing the scientific name of butterfly tree?
a. Bauhina pupurea c. Bauhina Pupurea
b. Bauhina pupurea d. Bauhina Pupurea
278. Members of the same phylum are more alike than members of the same ___________.
a. order b. class c. kingdom d. family
279. Which of the following is true as we move from domain to species level of classification?
CHARACTERISTICS NUMBER OF ORGANISM
a. becomes more general increases
b. becomes more specific decreases
c. becomes more general decreases
d. becomes more specific increases
280. The fossil of an organism is found near a hot spring. This single – celled organism has a
cell wall and no nucleus. Into which of the following groups would you classify this
organism?
a. domain Archaea
b. kingdom Plantae
c. kingdom Protista
d. kingdom Fungi
281. The animal phylum that contains the largest number of different species is the
a. echinoderms c. chordates
b. arthropods d. roundworms
282. Animals are grouped based on their structural similarities. Identify which pair of animals
is closely related.
a. snake and toad
b. whale and shark
c. bat and monkey
d. salamander and turtle
283. A dinner in a seafood restaurant includes clams, squid, and tuna. What phyla are
represented?
a. porifera and mollusca
b. cnidaria and chordata
c. mollusca and chordata
d. mollusca and arthropoda
284. A certain plant with needle – like leaves and cone – bearing usually grow and reproduce
in cold places. What is the classification of this plant?
a. angiosperms c. gymnosperms
b. bryophytes d. monocots
285. Angiosperms are also known as
a. cone bearing c. seed bearing
b. flower bearing d. spore bearing
286. The scientists who formulated the cell theory were ________.
a. Theodore Schwann and Matthias Schleiden
b. Anton van Leeuwenhoek and Robert Hooke
c. Zacharias Janssen and his brother
d. Johannes Purkinje and Hugo von Mohl
287. The cell theory has three parts. The first states that all organisms are made up of two or
more cells. The second states that the cell is the basic unit of all living things. What does
the third part state?
a. Cells were discovered by accident.
b. Single – celled organisms are protists.
c. All cells come from existing cells.
d. DNA is contained in a cell’s nucleus
288. A cell is observed to contain a nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplast. From this
information you can conclude that the cell is
a. a bacteria c. a plant cell
b. an animal cell d. a prokaryotic cell
289. A marine biologist has dredged up a previously unknown animal species from the
seafloor. There are important characteristics that he needs to examine in order to
classify it as an animal. Which among these are the characteristics he should consider?
a. with cell walls
b. microscopic, prokaryote
c. multicellular, heterotrophic eukaryote
d. with chloroplasts, can produce their own food
290. Which of the following statements describes a plant cell?
a. they have chloroplasts but no mitochondria
b. they do not have any centrioles yet divide
c. they have a cell wall but no plasma membrane
d. they have a large central vacuole but do not have endoplasmic reticulum
291. Which of the following is common to a plant and animal cell?
a. chloroplast c. centrioles
b. cell wall d. mitochondrion
292. Which of the following organelles are common in cells that synthesize and secrete
proteins?
a. chloroplast and vacuole
b. mitochondria and lysosome
c. mitochondria and chloroplast
d. rough endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus
293. How are mitochondria like chloroplasts?
a. they are both in animal cells
b. they have the same structure
c. they are both concerned with energy
d. they both absorb the energy coming from the sun
294. Which type of cell would probably provide the best opportunity to study lysosomes?
a. nerve cell c. bacterial cell
b. muscle cell d. phagocytic white blood cell
295. The powerhouse of the cell is the ________.
a. mitochondria c. endoplasmic reticulum
b. nucleus d. nucleolus
296. Air is exhaled from the body by passing through which order of structures?
a. pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchus
b. alveolus, bronchiole, bronchus, trachea
c. bronchus, bronchiole, trachea, pharynx
d. trachea, alveolus, bronchus, bronchiole
297. Which blood transfusion would agglutinate blood?
a. A donor ---> A recipient
b. A donor ---> AB recipient
c. A donor ---> O recipient
d. O donor ---> AB recipient
298. How do the heart and lungs work together to replace oxygen in the blood?
a. Blood enters the lungs, where it is filled with oxygen, and then the blood is sent
to the heart.
b. Blood fills with oxygen in the heart, and then the lungs remove the carbon
dioxide.
c. The heart pumps blood into the lungs, where it is then filled with oxygen.
d. The heart removes carbon dioxide from the blood, and then the lungs fill it with
oxygen.
299. Young people stand straight. Very old ones usually stoop. Why?
a. Sedentary lives of the old.
b. Habit of stooping developed in the old.
c. Greater gravitational pull on the old than on the young.
d. Bones of the old have become weak and soft and their joints become loose.
300. Why is it not quite possible for viruses to live and multiply in the outer layers of our skin?
a. The outer layer of the skin has dead cells only.
b. The outer layer of the skin has oil which is harmful to viruses.
c. The outer layer of the skin has a lower temperature unsuitable for viruses.
d. The outer layer of the skin has salt from perspiration which is harmful to viruses
301. A gene can be all of the following except
a. a set of instructions for a trait
b. a complete chromosome
c. instructions for making a protein
d. a portion of a strand of DNA
302. The diploid chromosome number in an organism is 42. The number of chromosomes in
its sex cells is normally
a. 21 b. 42 c. 63 d. 84
303. An organism has four pairs of chromosomes. One of its cells undergoes mitosis. How
many cells are produced? How many chromosomes are present in each cell?
a. 1 cell/ 2 pairs of chromosomes
b. 2 cells/ 4 pairs of chromosomes
c. 4 cells/ 8 pairs of chromosomes
d. 2 cells/ 2 pairs of chromosomes
304. Which type of reproduction leads to offspring that share characteristics of two parents?
a. binary fission
b. asexual reproduction
c. budding
d. sexual reproduction
305. Most vertebrates reproduce sexually. When does fertilization occur in sexual
reproduction?
a. when a male animal releases sperm and a female animal releases eggs
b. when part of an organism breaks off and begins to grow independently
c. when the cells of an embryo begin to differentiate and become specialized
d. when the nucleus of a sperm cell fuses with the nucleus of an egg cell
306. The primary functions of leaves are_________.
a. photosynthesis and transpiration
b. transpiration and respiration
c. respiration and digestion
d. respiration and photosynthesis
307. The primary functions of the root are ___________.
a. conduction and storage
b. storage and anchorage
c. anchorage and absorption
d. absorption and conduction
308. The characteristic which does not point to a dicotyledonous plant is _______.
a. lack of cambium
b. leaves with netted venation
c. secondary growth
d. flowers in fours or fives or multiples of these
309. Multicellular plants have many specialized structures. What function does xylem perform
in multicellular vascular plants?
a. The xylem transports water and minerals from the roots to the leaves.
b. The xylem is the place where photosynthesis takes place in a plant.
c. The xylem breaks down sugar into a form that plant cells can use.
d. The xylem is a woody tissue that fills the stem of a plant.
310. Mosses, liverworts, and hornworts are nonvascular plants. What do these plants lack
that vascular tissues have?
a. special tissues for making food
b. special tissues for reproduction
c. special tissues for taking in water and nutrients
d. special tissues for moving water through the plant
311. A fruit is a _________.
a. ripened ovule c. ripened bud
b. ripened ovary d. ripened stigma
312. Which part of the flower develops into seeds?
a. pistil c. ovary
b. ovule d. ovary wall
313. All of the following compose the male reproductive organ of a flowering plant except
a. anther c. pollen grain
b. stigma d. stamen
314. Why do most plants look green?
a. The chlorophyll in plants captures green light for photosynthesis.
b. The chlorophyll in plants reflects wavelengths of green light.
c. The chloroplasts in plants are surrounded by two green membranes.
d. The chloroplasts in plants make green sugar during photosynthesis.
315. Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the flower.
What do you call the type of pollination involving the transfer of pollen from one flower to
the stigma of another flower coming from a different plant?
a. self – pollination c. hybridization
b. cross – pollination d. fertilization
316. Which of the following is an abiotic factor that may affect the types and numbers of
animals that live in an area?
a. the range of temperatures experienced in the area
b. the types of plants available for food sources
c. the number and types of predators in the area
d. the number of plants available for food sources
317. All plants and animals on earth
a. create new matter
b. recycle the same matter
c. create new energy
d. recycle the same energy
318. What is formed when two or more groups of different organisms live together and
interact with each other in the same area?
a. community c. population
b. niche d. ecosystem
319. All the plants and animals in an aquarium form a
a. niche c. biome
b. community d. population
320. What ecological structure is formed by a group of individuals of the same species living
together in the same area?
a. niche c. community
b. population d. ecosystem
321. Which of the following statements is true regarding a food chain?
a. there are more herbivores than carnivores
b. each higher trophic level has more energy available to it
c. the number of organism at each trophic level is not related to energy
d. the biomass of third – order consumers is greater than the biomass of second –
order consumers
322. The possible interconnected feeding relationships among organisms in an ecosystem
are termed
a. Food pyramid c. Food web
b. Food chain d. Food groups
323. Why are green plants considered autotrophs?
a. They have many pigments that capture light.
b. They can build simple inorganic substances into complex organic substance.
c. They can build any kind of substances.
d. They depend on other sources for their food.
324. Vivian and Carlo are two amateur fossils hunters, who were unable to unearth a
complete fossil of mammals. How could they determine whether it was a herbivore,
carnivore, or omnivore?
a. based on the skull
b. based on the type of teeth
c. based on the phalanges
d. based on the vertebral column
325. In what trophic level of the food pyramid are consumers greatest in number?
a. First trophic c. Third trophic
b. Second trophic d. Fourth trophic
326. The second – order consumers in a food pyramid get their food directly from
a. carnivores c. decomposers
b. producers d. herbivores
327. If the food web is represented as a pyramid of biomass, the level of the pyramid with the
least amount of biomass would be the _____.
a. grass c. hawk
b. grasshopper d. mouse
328. Green plants make glucose from
a. water and carbon dioxide
b. chlorophyll and sunlight
c. water and oxygen
d. oxygen and carbon dioxide
329. What is the process by which cells break down sugar molecules and release energy?
a. sexual reproduction
b. meiosis
c. photosynthesis
d. cellular respiration
330. What is the result of cellular respiration?
a. Energy is produced from radiant sunlight and carbon dioxide.
b. Energy is produced from sugar molecules and oxygen.
c. Sunlight is converted into sugar molecules and oxygen.
d. Sunlight is converted into water molecules.
331. How are the processes of photosynthesis and cellular respiration connected?
a. both processes begin with oxygen
b. both processes require sunlight
c. each processes takes place only in plant cells
d. each process makes the material needed in the other process
332. A green alga provides a fungus with nutrients and water. The fungus protects the alga
from the sun and high temperatures. What relationship is illustrated in the given
example?
a. parasitism c. commensalism
b. mutualism d. predation
333. In which of the following symbiotic relationships does only one organism benefit from the
interaction?
a. mutualism and commensalism
b. competition and mutualism
c. mutualism and parasitism
d. commensalism and parasitism
334. The following practices promote sustainable development except
a. reforestation c. recycling
b. selective hunting d. cyanide fishing
335. Which of the following statements best describe a stable environment?
a. It usually consists of one type of producer.
b. It usually consists of a great diversity of species.
c. It has complex food webs that have more heterotrophs than autotrophs.
d. It has simple food chains that have more consumers than producers.
336. Increasing the amount of carbon dioxide in Earth’s atmosphere increases atmospheric
temperature because the carbon dioxide absorbs
a. incoming solar gamma ray radiation
b. incoming solar visible light radiation
c. outgoing terrestrial ultraviolet radiation
d. outgoing terrestrial infrared radiation
337. What do you call the phenomenon wherein there is a marked increase in the earth’s
surface temperature associated with the radiation being trapped by its atmosphere?
a. Global warming c. Greenhouse Effect
b. El Niño d. La Niña
338. Which of the following alternative sources of energy could result to acid rain?
a. solar c. biogas
b. geothermal d. nuclear energy
339. Plant nutrients such as nitrates and phosphates, which come from fertilizers and
detergent, can cause algal bloom. What do you call the phenomenon on which a body of
water which contains high concentrations of chemical elements required for life makes
algae bloom by directly nourishing most bacteria rather than aquatic organisms like
fishes?
a. eutrophication c. biomagnification
b. desertification d. land subsidence
340. Overdraft is an overuse of groundwater, which makes the reservoirs of groundwater
emptied and very seldom replenished especially during the summer months. Which
among the following environmental problems related to soil is the probable consequence
of overdraft?
a. soil pollution c. soil erosion
b. land subsidence d. deforestation
341. A manager of a textile company said it is too expensive to treat liquid wastes so he
suggested digging hole near the factory where the wastes can be stored. Is this
environmentally safe?
a. No, the liquid can be recycled.
b. No, the liquid waste will seep to the ground water.
c. Yes, the liquid wastes will be less hazardous with time.
d. Yes, the liquid will pass through layers of soil and becomes clean.
342. Humans can cause rapid changes in the environment, sometimes producing
catastrophic events. Which statement below is the best example of this concept?
a. lightning causes forest fire
b. shifting crustal plates cause an earthquake
c. changing seasonal winds cause flooding in an area
d. mountainside highway construction causes a landslide
343. To preserve the fertility of the soil, farmer should employ the following except
a. strip cropping c. terracing
b. continuous farming d. contour farming
344. The method of farming on the mountainsides to prevent erosion is called
a. crop rotation c. strip cropping
b. contour farming d. mountain farming
345. Communities have attempted to control the size of mosquito populations to prevent the
spread of Dengue fever and malaria. Which of the following methods used will most
likely cause the least ecological damage?
a. Draining the swamps where mosquitoes breed.
b. Spraying swamps with pesticides to kill mosquitoes.
c. Spraying oil over swamps to suffocate mosquito larvae.
d. Increasing populations of native fish that feed on mosquito larvae in the swamps.
346. Which of the following is a consequence of deforestation that leads to soil conversion
from loam to sandy?
a. sedimentation c. compaction
b. liquefaction d. desertification
347. Which of the following is the result of biological magnification?
a. energy is lost at each trophic level of the food chain
b. the greenhouse effect will be most significant at the poles
c. top – level predators may be most harmed by toxic environmental chemicals
d. DDT has spread throughout the ecosystem and is found in almost every
organism
348. Insecticides are used to control insect populations so that they do not destroy crops.
However, over time, a new insecticide has to be developed as they become less
effective in killing the insects. Why?
a. Insecticides build up in the soil.
b. Insecticides are concentrated at the bottom of the food chain
c. Surviving insects pass their resistance to insecticides to their offspring.
d. Surviving insects have learned to include insecticides as a food source.
349. Which human activity would be more likely to have a negative impact on the
environment?
a. Investigating the use of the biological controls for the pests.
b. Using reforestation and cover cropping to control soil erosion.
c. Using insecticides to kill insects that compete with human for food.
d. Developing a research aimed toward the preservation of endangered species.
 350. Which of the following is an adverse and immediate effect of deforestation?
a. Increase in atmospheric humidity
b. Cause flooding in the lowlands
c. Paves way for human settlements
d. Contributes to greenhouse effect

General Science Review Items

1. Which of the following terms describes the total distance travelled by an object in a given unit of
time?
A. average speed C. constant velocity
B. average velocity D. average acceleration
2. If an empty glass is dipped in water in an inverted position and pushed downward, the glass will
not be filled with water. What does this show?
A. water occupies space C. air occupies space
B. water exerts pressure D. air cannot be compressed

3. The table shows a daily record of atmospheric conditions. Which generalization can be made
based on the data?
Date Time Temperature Pressure Relative Humidity
(oC) (Pa) (%)
November 10 9:10 26.5 1006.2 78
November 11 9:10 28.2 1008.6 76
November 12 9:10 28.8 1008.9 76
A. As time and pressure increase, relative humidity increases.
B. As temperature and pressure increase, relative humidity decreases.
C. As pressure and relative humidity decrease, temperature increases.
D. As pressure and relative humidity increase, temperature increases.
4. A ball rolls off and falls at the edge of the table as shown. In which of the three positions does
gravity act on the ball?
A. point A C. points A and B
B. point B D. point A, B and C A *
B *
C *

5. A certain planetary law states that “an imaginary line from a planet sweeps out equal areas in
equal time interval”. Who was this scientist who stated this law?
A. Hans Geiger C. Johannes Kepler
B. Isaac Newton D. Albert Einstein
6. A student wires a series circuit that includes a block of rubber and a light bulb. She states that she
does not expect the light bulb to light up when current is applied to the circuit. Which of the
following best describes the statement?
A. It is a conclusion based on observed data about electrical phenomena.
B. It is a hypothesis based on knowledge about electrical phenomena.
C. It is a procedure based on her hypothesis about electrical phenomena.
D. It is a theory based on her observations of electrical phenomena.
7. The inside of the Earth consists of four major layers. Movement in which layer causes the
movement of the continents?
A. Mantle C. Inner core
B. Outer core D. Crust

8. Removal of small pieces of disintegrated rock is called ____________.

A. Mechanical weathering C. Chemical weathering
B. Erosion D. Transportation

9. Which of the following is a characteristic of soil horizons?

A. They can be distinguished from one another by appearance and chemical composition
 B. Boundaries between soil horizons are usually transitional rather than sharp
C. They are classified by assigned letters
D. All of these

10. The single most effective agent for chemical weathering at the earth’s surface is ________.
A. Carbonic acid
B. Water
C. Hydrochloric acid
D. Carbon dioxide

11. Which factor is the most important in determining soil characteristics?

A. Topography C. Vegetation cover
B. Type of bedrock D. Climate

12. Farmers are asked to change their crops by season. What approach is applied in this case?
A. Strip cropping C. Continuous farming
B. Crop rotation D. Contour farming

13. Excessive presence of carbon dioxide in the air, trapping heat near the earth’s surface causing a
rise in temperature in the environment.
A. El Nino C. Deforestation
B. Greenhouse Effect D. Weather disturbance
14. The Earth’s shield against sun’s harmful radiation and is located in the planet’s stratosphere.
What is this called?
A. Atmosphere C. Ozone layer
B. Air D. Ionosphere
15. Which factor is the main reason that causes both high and low tides?
A. Earth’s rotation on its axis
B. Moon’s gravitational pull
C. Sun’s solar energy
D. Earth’s gravitational pull
16. How does an occlusion form or how is an occluded front formed?
A. Cold air moving up from the ground
B. Cold front pushing warm air up of the ground
C. Unbalance electrical reaction in the air
D. Cold and warm air mixing in the atmosphere

17. Which terms are used to refer to the male and the female sex cells?
A. Sperm cell and egg C. Chromosomes and genes
B. Testosterone and estrogen D. Red and white blood cells

18. Which nitrogen compound is known as the building blocks of proteins?

A. Ketones
B. amino acids
C. Minerals
D. fats or Lipids
19. The growth of roots towards water is a response to a stimulus. Which of the following is the
proper term for this?
A. Chemotropism C. Hydrotropism
B. Geotropism D. Phototropism
20. In flowering plants, what is the site of fertilization?
A. Pollen tube C. Ovules
B. Stamen D. Pollen grain
21. Which of the following is a source of energy needed for photosynthesis of plants and the source
of energy in the biosphere?
A. Water C. Light
B. Soil D. Fertilizer
22. Which of the following is NOT a compound?
A. acetic acid C. Magnesium
B. alcohol D. Zinc Oxide
23. The willingness of an atom to receive electron is measured by its?
A. Electronegativity C. Atomic size
B. Ionization potential D. Electron affinity
24. It is the measure of the amount of matter in an object. What term is referred?
A. Weight C. Volume
B. Mass D. Quantity
25. It is the distance travelled by light in a span of one year and it is the unit used to quantify great
distances in outer space?
A. Lightyear C. Acceleration
B. Speed of light D. None of the above
26. It is the reluctance of the object to change either its’ state of rest or uniform motion in a straight
line
A. Force C. Inertia
B. Friction D. Motion
27. The relationship of give-and-take of living organism in the biosphere is a balance of nature
called________.
A. universal relationship
B. symbiotic relationship
C. spontaneous relationship
D. abiogenetic relationship
28. Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
A. As altitude increases, atmospheric pressures corresponding
B. Throughout the available space, gas tends to contract
C. Equal chances are always given to all in life
D. Shadow is formed when a colored object is projected against the wall
29. Which instrument will one use to convert mechanical energy to electrical energy?
A. rotor B. generator C. motor D. circuit

30. The point in the planet’s orbit where it is nearest to the sun is called _____________.
A. Solstice C. Aphelion
B. Eclipse D. Perihelion
31. Due to this being able to accurately know the age of fossil remains, and ancient artifacts became
possible. What discovery was this?
A. Combustion Engine C. Uranium
B. Evolutionary staging D. Carbon-dating
32. This phenomenon occurs when the earth is between the sun and the moon, with the earth’s
shadow cast over the moon.
A. Total eclipse C. Eclipse
B. Lunar eclipse D. Partial Eclipse
33. These are cellular secretions which help regulate the breakdown and build-up of various
substance in the body
A. Enzymes C. Plasma
B. Amino Acids D. Hormones
34. It shows the complex food relationship of organism in a given area and the cyclic flow of food
through organisms
A. Food chain C. Food pyramid
B. Food web D. Biological cycle
35. Which of the following does NOT occur to both respiration and fermentation?
A. energy is released
B. sugar is broken down
C. carbon dioxide is produced
D. alcohol is formed
36. Compounds with the same molecular formula but with different structural formulas
A. Cellulose C. Polymers
B. Isomers D. Monomers
37. The most penetrating type of radiation given off by radioactive elements
A. Alpha radiation C. Gamma radiation
B. Beta radiation D. None of the above
38. A substance that speeds up a chemical reaction without itself undergoing a chemical change just
like calcium carbide hastening the ripening of mangoes
A. catalyst C. Electrolytes
B. Enhancer D. Ionizer
39. The temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid is equal to the pressure of the
surrounding atmosphere
A. Melting point C. Boiling Point
B. Critical point D. None of the above
40. It is the union of two light nucleus to form a heavier nucleus, resulting in a mass defect and
release of energy
A. Radiation C. Nuclear Fusion
B. Nuclear Fission D. Radioactivity
41. A material whose ability to conduct electricity lies between those of conductors and insulators
A. Integrated Circuits C. Semiconductors
B. Silicon Chips D. Insulators

42. When an iron nail gets rusted, iron oxide is formed ______________________.
A. Without any change in the mass of the nail
B. With a decrease in the mass of the nail
C. With an increase in the mass of the nail
D. Without any change in color or mass of the nail
43. The element common to all acids is ______________________.
A. Hydrogen C. Sulfur
B. Carbon D. Oxygen

44. Carbon, diamond and graphite are together called ____________________.

A. Allotropes
B. Isomorphs
C. Isomers
D. Isotopes

45. Which of the following is in liquid form at room temperature?

A. Lithium
B. Sodium
C. Francium
D. Cerium
46. Production of chlorofluorocarbons (CFC) gas which is proposed to be banned in India, is used in
which of the following domestic products?
A. Television
B. Refrigerator
C. Tube light
D. Cooking gas
47. The study of the way individual traits are transmitted from one generation to the next is called
______________________.
A. Ecology
B. Genetics
C. Microbiology
D. Pathology
48. Of the following biological levels of organization, which represents the smallest or lowest level?
A. Organs
B. Populations
C. Cells
D. Organism
49. Which of the following is not a property of life?
A. Reproducing, passing hereditary material to the next generation
B. Maintaining a relatively constant internal condition
C. Molding or adapting to one’s environment
D. Responding to stimuli
50. Thirty percent (30%) of the nucleotide bases in human DNA are adenine (A). What is the
percentage of guanine (G) in human DNA?
A. 20%
 B. 30%
C. 40%
D. 70%
51. How are new alleles formed?
A. By crossing over during meiosis
B. By cloning a new variety in a population
C. By mutation in the DNA of a gene
D. By production of a new phenotype from the same DNA
52. Which of the following prevent entry of pathogens into the human body?
A. The skin and phagocytosis
B. The skin and chemical barriers
C. Inflammation response and phagocytosis
D. Inflammation and chemical barriers
53. The method of food propulsion in the esophagus is called _______________.
A. Peristalsis
B. Chewing
C. Swallowing
D. Devouring
54. The hormone that is responsible for secondary sexual characteristics in the male is
________________________.
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Testosterone
D. Prolactin
55. The membranes that surround the lungs are called ___________________.
A. Pericardium
B. Pleura
C. Mucous membrane
D. Mediastinum
56. Excess of water escaping from the plants in a liquid form is called ___________.
A. Transpiration
B. Osmosis
C. Guttation
D. Respiration

57. The part of the seed that germinates and grows first is the _________________.
A. Plumule
B. Radicle
C. Cotyledons
D. Epicotyl

58. The corm is an underground stem that grows ___________________________.

A. Horizontally
B. Vertically
C. Above the soil
D. Obliquely

59. Radiocarbon is produced in the atmosphere as a result of ________________.

A. Collision between fast neutrons and nitrogen nuclei present in the
atmosphere
B. Action of ultraviolet light from the sun on atmospheric oxygen
C. Action of solar radiation particularly cosmic rays on carbon dioxide
present in the atmosphere
D. Lightning discharge in the atmosphere
60. It is easier to roll up a stone up a sloping road than to lift it vertically upward because
___________________________________________.
A. Work done in rolling is more than in lifting
B. Work done in lifting the stone is much more than rolling it
C. Work done in both is the same but the rate of doing work is less in
rolling
D. Work done in rolling a stone is less than in lifting it
61. Mirage is due to ____________________________.
A. Unequal heating of different parts of the atmosphere
B. Magnetic disturbances in the atmosphere
C. Depletion of the ozone layer
D. Equal heating of the different parts of the atmosphere
62. Metals are good conductors of electricity because _______________.
A. They contain free electrons
B. The atoms are lightly packed
C. They have high melting points
D. All of the above
63. On a rainy day, small oil films on water show brilliant colors. This is due to ____________.
A. Dispersion
B. Diffraction
C. Interference
D. Polarization
64. RADAR is used for ____________________________.
A. Locating submerged submarines
B. Receiving a signal in a radio receiver
C. Locating geostationary satellites
D. Detecting and locating the position of objects like airplanes

65. On a cold day when the room temperature is 15 0, the metallic cap of a pen becomes much
colder to the touch than its plastic body, though both are at the same temperature because
__________________________.
A. Metals have higher thermal capacity than plastics
B. Plastics have lower densities than metals
C. Metals are good conductors of heat
D. Plastics have higher conductivities than metals

66. Which sequence of processes occurs in the correct order?

A. Weathering, erosion, transportation
B.Erosion, weathering, transportation
C. Erosion, transportation, weathering
D. Transportation, erosion, weathering

67. The type of mass movement characterized by the slow downhill movement of soil is called
A. Slip
B. Earthflow
C. Mudflow
D. Creep

68. A stream in its youth exhibits which of the following sets of characteristics?
A. Broad meanders and a wide floodplain
B. Few rapids and waterfalls and a U-shaped valley
C. Steep gradient and a V-shaped valley
D. Low gradient and presence of ox bow lakes

69. Which of the following statements about meandering is true?

A. Greater erosion occurs on the inside portion of the curve
B. Meanders occur in youthful streams
C. When the meanders from two adjacent streams meet, an ox bow lake is
formed
D. Meanders result in the widening of the valley floor
70. The filament in an automobile headlight radiates light that is reflected from a converging
mirror. The reflected rays form a parallel beam of light because the filament is placed _____.
A. at the principal focus
B. at the center of curvature
C. beyond the center of curvature
D. between the mirror and the principal focus
71. A farsighted person needs a convex lens to correct his vision because this lens makes the image
fall on _____.
A. on the eyeball C. before the retina of the eye
B. on the retina of the eye D. beyond the retina of the eye

72. A person standing waist-deep in a swimming pool appears to have short legs because light is
_____.
A. diffracted B. refracted C. reflected D. superimposed

73. A real and inverted image of an object is focused on a screen by a converging lens. If the upper
half of the lens is then covered, what happens to the image?
A. The lower half of the image disappears.
B. The upper half of the image disappears.
C. The image does not change in any way.
D. The entire image remains the same and becomes less bright.

74. Car exhaust has been blamed for increasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the air. This added
amount of carbon dioxide may cause _____.

A. global warming
B. habitat preservation
C. increased biodiversity
D. ozone destruction

75. Which of the following statements best describe how humans affect the dynamic equilibrium in
the ecosystem?

A. Strong winds increases water evaporation.

B. A typhoon causes a stream to overflow its banks.
C. Water pollution causes a decrease in fish populations in rivers.
D. The ozone shield helps prevent harmful radiation from reaching the Earth’s surface.

76. Which of the following statements below has contributed to the production of acid rain?

A. Passing environmental land pollution laws

B. Establishing reforestation projects in lumbered areas
C. Using pesticides for the control of insects that feed on lakes
D. Burning fuels that produce air pollutants containing sulfur and carbon monoxide

77. Which of the following statements best describe a stable environment?

A. It usually consists of one type of producer.

B. It usually consists of a great diversity of species.
C. It has complex food webs that have more heterotrophs than autotrophs.
D. It has simple food chains that have more consumers than producers.

78. In the DDT cycle, an unexpected result on the use of DDT was noted. Before the DDT was
banned, DDT was used to combat an organism called red mite. The population of the red mite
increased rather than decreased, while the population of insect predators of the red mite
decreased. What can be inferred from this situation?

A. The red mites were immune to the effects of DDT.

B. Using pesticides is a reliable way to eliminate all insect predators.
C. The red mite and its insect predators were all competing for the same resources.
D. Environmental changes that affect one population can affect other populations.
79. What would be the implication of the findings of the astronomers that the moon has no
atmosphere?

A. It is the reason why it is revolving very fast.

B. It would eventually capture the atmosphere of the Earth.
C. Its sky would be so white which is observed on Earth.
D. Its sky would be so dark and there will be a lot of craters due to the collision
of meteoroids to its surface.

80. How much time does it take for the moon to go through all its phases?

A. 27 ⅓days
B. 29 ½ days
C. 30 days
D. 31 days

81. Which among the following causes the changes in the length of day?

A. Sun’s rays
B. Earth’s tilt
C. Phases of the moon
D. None of the above

82. The type of soil that contains a mixture of clay, sand, silt and organic matter is called
______.

A. loam B. caliche C. peat D. podzol

83. Carbon monoxide exuded by vehicles is dangerous when inhaled in great amounts
because ______________________.

A. it competes with oxygen for binding with red blood cells

B. it damages and clogs the opening of the lungs
C. it is toxic to the digestive system
D. it causes skin allergies and other skin related diseases

84. A sachet of coffee granules and a tablespoon of sugar were mixed with a cup of hot water, then
stirred. The resulting mixture can be classified as _________________.
A. heterogeneous C. colloidal
B. solution D. precipitate

85. Which of the following would you expect to have a pH value that is greater than 7?
A. pure water C. orange juice
B. soap mixture D. none of these

86. A solar eclipse can occur when __________________.

A. the moon is between the earth and the moon
B. the sun is between the earth and the moon
C. the earth is between the sun and the moon
D. the earth and the moon are facing the sun in the same direction

87. Which of these animal tissue – function is mismatched?

A. epithelial tissue – protection and support
B. muscular tissue – contraction and conduction
C. connective tissue – binding and support
D. nervous tissue – conduction and message sending
88. One way of effectively killing a tree is to cut a ring of bark around the trunk of the tree. This method
essentially affects the function of what tissue. This method essentially affects the function of what
tissue?
A. ground tissue C. phloem
B. xylem D. pith

89. Two groups of corn plants were grown under laboratory conditions. Humus was added to the soil of
one group and the other group without humus served as the control. The leaves of the control group
were yellowish (less green) than the group in humus enriched soil. Which best explains the observation?
A. the humus-enriched plants absorbed more chlorophyll from the soil
B. the healthier plants used the food in the decomposing leaves of the humus for energy to
make chlorophyll
C. the humus contained minerals such as Mg and Iron needed for the synthesis of chlorophyll
D. the humus made the soil more loosely packed, so the roots of the plants would grow with less
resistance

90. Acceleration is the change of velocity for a given time interval. A car has an acceleration of 1 m/s2.
What is the change in its velocity after every 3 seconds?
A. 3 m/s B. 2 m/s C. 0 m/s D. 1 m/s

91. Which of the two systems has greater density, a lake full of water or a cup full of lake water?
A. the cup full of lake water C. both have the same density
B. the lake D. not enough information to say
92. A weather instrument used to measure the relative humidity, using the cooling effect of
evaporation.
A. psychrometer C. anemometer
B. barometer D. radar

93. Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association of ______________________________________.

A. fungi and roots of plants
B. cyanobacteria and leaves of plants
C. bacteria and fungi
D. algae and plants

94. Which of the following pairs of organisms is most related?

A. molds and mushrooms because both belong to Kingdom Fungi
B. dogs and cats because they both belong to Order to Carnivora
C. spiders and insects because they both belong to Phylum Arthropoda
D. Gumamela and okra because both belong to Famiy Malvaceae

95. In a symbiotic relationship, __________________.

A. one organism is benefited while the other is harmed
B. both organisms are benefited
C. the two organisms live closely to each other
D. two organisms produce a product that each cannot produce individually

96. Object A has a mass of 300 g and a density of 3 g/cm3. Object B has mass of 450 g and a density of 45
g/cm3. Which of the following statements is or are true?
A. Object A has bigger volume than object B
B. Object B will displace more water than object A
C. Object B has bigger volume than object A
D. a and b

97. What power in watts is employed in lifting a 5-kg mass to a height of 2 m in 7 seconds?
A. 1.4 B. 14 C. 1.75 D. 17.5

98. Objects seem to be heavier on the earth than on the moon for what reason?
 A. earth has more mass than the moon
B. the moon has no atmosphere unlike the earth
C. earth is nearer to the sun than the moon most of the time
D. earth has a stronger gravitational pull than the moon

99. When cut and removed from the body and placed in a suitable saline solution, the heart can be
observed to continually beat. Which best explains this observation?
A. the saline solution keeps the heart beating
B. there is a natural pacemaker in the heart that initiates the heart beat
C. the beating of the heart is under the control of the organism
D. the heart is multinucleated such that there are many points of regulating heart beat

100. The ozone layer is known to filter harmful radiation such as UV and gamma rays from entering the
earth and causing damage to life forms. In what region of the atmosphere is it mostly located?
A. stratosphere C. ionosphere
B. troposphere D. exosphere

101. Runners crossing the finish line of a race often take time before they completely stop. Which best
explains this?
A. Law of Acceleration C. Law of Conservation of Energy
B. Law of Inertia D. Law of Conservation of Momentum

102. Salt and sugars are often used as food preservatives. Jams, salted fish and eggs do not spoil easily
because the high amounts of salt and sugar _______________________________.
A. is toxic to most microorganisms
B. prevents water from being available to microorganisms
C. prevents important nutrients from entering the cells of microorganisms eventually killing
them
D. causes the release of toxic substances from the microorganism

103. Which of the following is not an underground root that functions for food and or water storage?
A. carrot B. potato C. radish D. cassava

104. Which of the following statements about water is false?

A. The freezing and melting points are the same
B. In pure form, the pH is equal to 7
C. it is “heavier” at 40C than at 100C
D. none of these

105. Dengue, in its advanced stage, causes internal bleeding that may be fatal in most cases. This
dreaded disease is caused by ______________
A. a certain kind of virus C. a certain of bacterium
B. a species of mosquito D. a certain kind of fungus

106. The atomic mass of an atom is represented by _______________________.

A. the number of protons in the nucleus
B. the number of electrons of the atom
C. the number of neutrons in the nucleus
D. the sum of the number of neutrons and protons

107. If the chromosome number of your skin cells is 46, the number of chromosome in your gametes is
equal to ___________________.
A. 46 B. 23 C. 44 D. 12

108. A person eats a chunk of pork meat. Which will most probably happen as it reaches the stomach?
 A. the meat will be converted to amino acids by pepsin and trypsin
B. the meat will be converted to glucose by amylase
C. the meat will be converted to glycerol and fatty acids by lipase
D. the meat will be converted to nucleotides by endonuclease

109. Which is not found in a plant cell?

A. cell membrane C. vacuole
B. cell wall D. none

110. It is during this period of the Mesozoic era when the dinosaurs first evolved.
A. Triassic C. Cretaceous
B. Jurassic D. Ordovician

111. A certain vine plant is symbiotically associated with a certain tree. The vine gets nutrients by
piercing through the vascular tissues of the tree. This is an example of _________________.
A. parasitism C. mutualism
B. competition D. commensalism

112. An energy pyramid is a diagram that compares the amount of energy available at each position or
level in the feeding order in a community. Which statement/s is or are correct about an energy
pyramid?
A. the top level contains the most energy and is made up of producers
B. the lowest level contains the most energy and is made up of producers
C. the top level contains the least energy and is made up of producers
D. the lowest level contains the most energy and is made up of consumers

113. An electric motor is a device that changes __________________________.

A. magnetic field producing electricity
B. electric energy into mechanical energy
C. chemical energy into electrical energy
D. potential energy into electrical energy

114. Substance X has a pH of 7.8, substance Y has a pH of 8.2 and substance Z has a pH of 9.4. Which
statements is or are correct?
A. substance Y is more acidic than X, but less acidic than Z
B. substance Y is more basic than X, but less basic than Z
C. substance Y is less acidic than X, but more acidic than Z
D. substance Y is less basic than X, but more basic than Z

115. Compared to radio waves, infrared rays have __________________________________.

A. shorter wavelength, but higher frequency
B. shorter wavelength and lower frequency
C. longer wavelength and longer frequency
D. longer wavelength, but lower frequency

1. A Sony Television set is imported from the United State. To ensure the right use of electric connection,
what should be needed?
a. Resistor b. Transformer c. Capacitor d. Generator
2. After the airplane crash in the Mountain of Misamis Oriental, what was the easiest source of
identification of the victims?
a. Identification of bone structure c. Identification of eyes
b. Identification of body length d. Series of teeth available
3. Farmers are asked to change their crops by season. What approach is applied in this case?
a. Strip cropping b. Continuous farming c. Crop rotation d. Contour farming
4. The Manila Zoo had additional young lions and tigers recently. How could these animals be best
attended?
 a. Appointing a zoo manager whose expertise is on pediatric cases
b. Submitting such young ones to the care of a veterinarian who handles cases of food and
mouth diseases
c. Assigning a veterinarian whose expertise is on small animals
d. Converting the breeding places into swimming ponds
5. A wedding motif is pale pink. The available orchid is all white dendrobium. What property of water will
allow the change from water colored red?
a. Polarity b. High specific heat c. Surface tension d. Capillarity
6. These are living things that use sunlight, chlorophyll, water and carbon dioxide to produce food.
a. Autotrophs c. Heterotrops
b. Consumers d. Food chain
7. It is describe as the lifeline of the body. IT is the body’s “pickup” and delivery system.”
a. Blood c. circulatory system
b. nervous system d. heart
8. It carries the oxygen-rich blood to the head, arms, chest and down to the waist and the legs.
a. heart c. aorta
b. ventricles d. arteries
9. They are the transmitters of message from the different parts of the body to the brain and vice versa.
a. spinal cord c. brain
b. neurons or nerve cells d. arteries
10. Which part of the brain controls the following activities: breathing, blood pressure, heart rate,
alertness.
a. brainstem c. cerebrum
b. hypothalamus d. spinal cord
11. Refers to a sequence of organism in a community that constitutes a feeding chain.
a. photosynthesis c. consumers
b. ecosystem d. food chain
12. Is a group of interacting plants, animals and human in a particular area.
a. ecological community c. living organism
b. environment d. food chain
13. Excessive presence of carbon dioxide in the air, trapping heat near the earth’s surface causing a rise
in
temperature in the environment.
a. El Nino c. Deforestation
b. Greenhouse Effect d. Weather disturbance
14. The Earth’s shield against sun’s harmful radiation.
a. Atmosphere c. Ozone layer
b. Air d. Forest
15. The use of product containing ______ is discouraged because they contribute to the depletion
of_____.
a. Chlorofluorocarbon-solar radiation
b. Gas-ozone layer
c. Ozone layer air
d. Chlorofluorocarbon-ozone layer
16. What causes high and low tides?
a. Earth’s rotation on its axis
b. Moon’s gravitational pull
c. Sun’s solar energy
d. Earth’s gravitational pull
17. All of the following are insects except.
a. Mosquito
b. Fly
c. Spider
d. Ant
18. What is a long shore drift?
a. Movement of sand and shingles along the coast
b. Sand bars
c. Accumulation o sad at the river mouth
 d. Island formed by volcanic eruptions
19. How does an occlusion form?
a. Cold air moving up from the ground
b. Cold front pushing warm air up of the ground
c. Unbalance electrical reaction in the air
d. Cold and warm air mixing in the atmosphere

20. What is a heat haze?

a. A reflection caused by pollutants in the air
b. A distorted image resulting from the bending of sun’s light rays by changes in air temperature
c. A movement of warm air over a vast expanse of land
d. Caused by extremely high temperature common in dessert areas
21. What sort of rock formation do the world’s greatest mountain ranges consist of?
a. Magma c. Fold eruptions
b. Chalk deposit d. Slip formation
22. What is the fore that wears down mountains?
a. Earthquake c. Volcanic eruptions
b. Erosion d. Deforestation
23. How are volcanic island formed?
a. Collision of two oceanic plates
b. Cooling of lava by seawater
c. Volcanic eruptions
d. Accumulation of corals
24. When the Theory of plate Tectonics was generally accepted?
a. 1900’s c. 1950’s
b. 1930’s d. 1980’s
25. The weathering away of rocks by water, wind and ice.
a. Denudation c. Volcanic rock
b. Erosion d. Metamorphic rock
26. How do hormones work?
a. By releasing adrenaline
b. By controlling cell chemistry
c. By regulating water loss
d. By controlling blood pressure
27. Name the male and female sex hormones
a. Sperm cell & Ovum c. Chromosomes
b. Testosterone d. Red & white blood cells
28. The unit of measurement of energy in a given amount of food
a. Pound c. Olfactory system
b. Kilo d. calorie
29. Nitrogen compounds known as the building blocks of proteins
a. Ketones
b. amino acids
c. Minerals
d. fats
30. The growth of roots towards water is an example of?
a. Chemotropism c. Hydrotropism
b. Geotropism d. Phototropism
31. DNA means
a. Data nurturing analysis c. Deoxyribonucleic acid
b. Deoxytribonucleic acid d. Deotrixyl nucleic acid
32. What are the three products of oxygen when it has been burned?
a. Water, carbon dioxide and air
b. Energy, water and carbon dioxide
c. Energy, carbon and oxide
d. Energy, air and water
33. In flowering plants, fertilization happens in the?
 a. Pollen tube c. Ovules
b. Stamen d. Pollen grain
34. The development of egg without fertilization
a. Mitosis c. Spermatogenesis
b. Parthenogenesis d. Mitochondria
35. Which of the following is a source of energy needed for photosynthesis?
a. Water c. Light
b. Soil d. Fertilizer
36. Chemistry is primarily concerned with the composition and changes of?
a. Nature c. Man
b. Matter d. Earth
37. A scientific theory is
a. A hypothesis not yet subjected to experimental test
b. An idea that correctly predict the result
c. An imagination
d. A guess
38. Which of the following units of measure is equivalent to cubic centimeter?
a. Milligram c. Millimeter
b. Milliliter d. Centiliter
39. Which of the following is NOT a compound?
a. acetic acid c. magnesium
b. alcohol d. Zinc Oxide

40. The easier the atom to receive electrons is measured by its?

a. Electronegativity c. Number of shells
b. Atomic radius d. Valence electrons
41. The willingness of an atom to receive electron is measured by its?
a. Electronegativity c. Atomic size
b. Ionization potential d. Electron affinity
42. A molecule is said to be polar or dipole if?
a. Its positive and negative charges are at different places
b. It possesses polar bonds
c. Its’ polar bond have unsymmetrical charge distribution
d. All of the above
43. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Molecular weight does not influence boiling and melting point of a substance
b. Boiling and melting point tend to increase with molecular weight
c. Boiling and melting point tend to decrease with molecular weight
d. None o the above
44. A Mole is the amount of substance or a mass of a substance that contains?
a. 6.02 x 1023 particles c. 6.02 x 1023 particles
23
b. 60.2 x 10 particles d. 60.2x 1023 particles
45. It is the measure of the amount of matter in an object
a. Weight c. Volume
b. Mass d. Quantity
46. It is the distance travelled by the body per unit time and tell how fast or slow the body moves
a. Velocity c. Acceleration
b. Speed d. None of the above
47. The rate of change of the distance travelled per unit time in a stated direction
a. Velocity c. Acceleration
b. Speed d. None of the above
48. This law states that the force acting upon an object is equal to the product of the mass and
acceleration of the
object
a. Newton’s 2nd law of motion
b. Newton’s 3rd law of motion
c. Newton’s 1st law of motion
d. None of the above
49. When a force is applied to a body, several effects are possible. Which one of the following effect can’t
occur?
a. the body rotates
b. the body changes direction
c. the body increase its mass
d. the body changes shape
50. It is the reluctance of the object to change either its’ state of rest or uniform motion in a straight line
a. Force c. Inertia
b. Friction d. Motion
51. This law states that energy cannot be created nor destroyed but only changes from one form to
another
a. Energy law
b. Kinetic Theory of Matter
c. Law of Conservation Energy
d. None of the above
52. This law states that matter is made up of a large number of molecules which are in continuous motion
a. Boyles’s Law c. Law of Conservation Energy
b. Kinetic Theory d. None of the above
53. The lowest possible temperature that a substance can reach
a. Freezing point c. Steam point
b. Absolute Zero d. Threshold
54. It is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of kg. of a substance by degree C
a. Calorie c. Specific heat capacity
b. Watt d. Joule
55. The relationship of give-and-take of living organism in the biosphere is a balance of nature
called________.
a. universal relationship
b. symbiotic relationship
c. spontaneous relationship
d. abiogenetic relationship
56. Process of removing excess odor in water.
a. sedimentation c. distillation
b. chlorination d. aeration
57. Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
a. As altitude increases, atmospheric pressures corresponding
b. Throughout the available space, gas tends to contract
c. Equal chances are always given to all in life
d. Shadow is formed when a colored object is projected against the wall
58. The earth rotates on its axis from west to east. This causes the sun to _______?
a. appear with a fiery orange color
b. cause the appearance of solar eclipse
c. rise room the east and sets in the west
d. emit solar radiation
59. One of these planets has the greatest gravitational pull. Which one is it?
a. Mars b. Earth c. Mercury d. Jupiter
60. It is the law which explains why one can pull a piece without topping a glass in a quick motion.
a. energy in motion c. law of inertia
b. gravity d. force
61. Which of the following is NOT a source of energy?
a. water c. geothermal heat
b. nuclear d. inertia at rest
62. Which instrument will one use to convert mechanical energy to electrical energy?
a. rotor b. generator c. motor d. circuit
63. Sun’s energy is generated by?
a. nuclear fission
b. sun enacting with gravity
c. nuclear fusion reaction
d. reaction with magnetic field
64. Application of energy is called _______?
a. work c. kinetics
b. inertia d. simulation
65. The falling of any form of water from the air to the earth’s surface
a. Condensation c. Water vapor
b. Precipitation d. Rainwater
66. The part of the atmosphere that filters the ultraviolet rays of the sun
a. stratosphere c. Ozone layer
b. Troposphere d. Ionosphere
67. The point in the earth’s orbit nearest to the sun
a. Solstice c. Aphelion
b. Eclipse d. Perihelion
68. A property of minerals which gives off rays of light when exposed to ultraviolet light.
a. Luminescence c. Radiation
b. Phosphorescence d. Fluorescence
69. Which process involves chemical weathering?
a. Carbonation c. Hydration
b. Oxidation d. All of the above
70. How long does it take for the earth to complete one rotation
a. 365 days c. 24 hours
b. 30 days d. 12 hours
71. What is the principal function of gravity in the universe?
a. Provision for energy
b. Keeps the stars and other heavenly bodies in orbit
c. Causes movement in space
d. Part of universal design
72. What does the word “monsoon” mean?
a. Moon will soon come c. Seasons
b. Rains d. Wet weather
73. Its’ discovery enable geologist to date rocks accurately
a. layering c. Radioactivity
b. Evolutionary staging d. Carbon-dating
74. It occurs when the earth is between the sun and the moon, with the earth’s shadow cast over the
moon.
a. Total eclipse c. Eclipse
b. Lunar eclipse d. Partial Eclipse
75. Male and female reproductive part of a flower
a. Pollen grains and ovules c. Pollen grains and pistil
b. Stamen and pistil d. Stamen and ovules
76. In the human body, the cell that most nearly resembles a one-celled animals
a. Red Blood cell c. Nerve cell
b. White Blood cell d. Antibodies
77. The main energy source of a plant-eating animals
a. Glucose b. Starch c. Cellulose d. Glycogen
78. These are cellular secretions which help regulate the breakdown and build-up of various substance in
the
body
a. Enzymes c. Plasma
b. Amino Acids d. Hormones
79.It is the energy source of the cell which it uses for growing, reproducing and other activities
a. Adenosine Triphosphate c. Chloroplast
b. Amino Acids d. Sunlight
80. It is a segment of DNA molecule which controls the appearance of a given trait
a. Chromosomes c. Gametes
b. Genes d. Zygotes
81. Group of similar cells performing similar functions together
a. Organs b. System c. Nucleus d. Tissue
82. The diffusion of water through a semi permeable membrane
a. osmosis c. Transfusion
b. permeability d. Capillary

83. It shows the complex food relationship of organism in a given area and the cyclic flow of food through
organisms
a. Food chain c. Food pyramid
b. Food web d. Biological cycle
84. Which of the following does NOT occur to both respiration and fermentation?
a. energy is released
b. sugar is broken down
c. carbon dioxide is produced
d. alcohol is formed
85. Energy removal is best illustrated in
a. boiling of liquid substances
b. changing water to ice
c. changing water to stem
d. none of the above
86. Refers to the maximum amount of solute expressed in grams that can be dissolved in 100 grams of
water at
a specific temperature
a. Solubility c. Molarity
b. Stability d. Molality
87. Compounds with the same molecular formula but with different structural formulas
a. Cellulose c. Polymers
b. Isomers d. Monomers
88. The most penetrating type of radiation given of by radioactive elements
a. Alpha particle c. Gamma particle
b. Beta particle d. None of the above
89. The basic unit for expressing the masses o individual atoms
a. Atomic number c. Nucleus
b. Atomic mass unit d. Atomic weight
90. A substance that speeds up a chemical reaction without itself undergoing a chemical change
a. catalyst c. Electrolytes
b. Enhancer d. Ionizer
91. The temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid is equal to the pressure of the
surroundings
atmosphere
a. Melting point c. Boiling Point
b. Critical point d. None of the above
92. The warming of the earth’s surface due to an increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide
a. Greenhouse effect c. Atmospheric pressure
b. Ozone depletion d. El Nino phenomena
93. Describe the force of gravity on an object
a. mass c. capacity
b. weight d. pressure
94. When gaseous molecules are compressed, they tend to?
a. increase in volume c. repel each other
b. decrease in volume d. attract and liquefy
95. It is the union of two light nucleus to form a heavier nucleus, resulting in a mass defect and release of
energy
a. Radiation c. Nuclear Fusion
b. Nuclear Fission d. Radioactivity
96. Which of the following statements is a characteristic of an electronic spectrum?
a. They all travel at the same speed in fire space
b. The exhibit diffraction and interference phenomena
c. They follow the laws of refraction and reflection
 d. All of the above
97. The term “RADAR” is derived from the phrase?
a. “Radiation Detection and Ranging “
b. “Radiation Diffusion and Ranging”
c. “Radio Diffraction and Resolution”
d. “Radiation Diffraction and Resolution”
98. A material whose ability to conduct electricity lies between those of conductors and insulators
a. Integrated Circuits c. Semiconductors
b. Silicon Chips d. Insulators
99. “LASER” is derived from the phrase?
a. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
b. Light Application by Simulated Emission of Radiation
c. Light Amplification by Simulated Ejection of Radiation
d. None of the above
100. What is the color of a transparent substance?
a. The color of the light it absorbs
b. The color of light it reflects
c. The color of light it transmit
d. The color of light it refracts
101. What is a rotating electromagnetic called?
a. Motor b. Rotor c. Phasor d. Sensor
102. What happens with the centripetal force when speed is doubled?
a. remains the same c. triples
b. force is increase 4x d. force is doubled
103. What is an electrochemical cell in which the reacting materials can be renewed by the use of reverse
current
a. Storage cell c. Fuel cell
b. Primary cells d. Chemical cell
104. What will make an object move in a circular path?
a. Central force c. Frictional force
b. Gravitational d. Electromagnetic force
105. Scientific attitudes require of learners accuracy and verification of data. Which manifestation is often
observed in experimentation?
a. Curiosity b. Critical mindedness c. Objectivity d. Rationality
106. Marinduque mines caused the death of sea products around the shores. What has caused the
disaster on
the sea products?
a. Toxic wastes were channelled down the nearby streams
b. Toxic wastes seeped through the walls
c. Toxic wastes were recycled to produce electricity
d. Toxic wastes were sent down the mine tanks
107. The proper disposal of garbage has improved the environment. The best process of handling waste
is
through
a. Recycling biodegradable waste c. Emerging waste water soluble waste
b. Utilization of organic compounds d. Burning non-biodegradable waste
108. Birds have shapes that influenced the building of aircrafts. What feature is most present in
airplanes?
a. The presence of hollow oblong body c. The presence of head
b. The presence of a tail d. The presence of wings
109. The campaign against dengue is most effective if
a. Water containers are open to gather rain
b. Biodegradable waste are kept in plastic bags
c. Old tires are thrown in empty backyard
d. Surroundings are free from stagnant waters
110. The Philippine Air Force took off to scatter salt to the existing clouds. This was an attempt to:
a. encourage earthquake occurrence c. produce rain over dry fields
 b. drive the clouds further to the sea d. avoid water evaporation
111. Dengue affected patient are easily identified through
a. high fever with rashes in 2-3 days
b. presence of mucous in the nostrils
c. presence of red spots in the arms and other body parts
d. presence of black spots around the eyes
112. Dengue fever has caused has caused death to many children and adults. All these are traced to
a. poor disposal of waste c. poor hoarding of water in tanks
b. poor maintenance of home compost pits d. poor ventilation
113. Ms. Cruz has a rare collection of orchids. She applied jelly on her orchid’s leaves. Soon the orchid
slowly
wilted because
a. the leaves were shiny because of jelly c. the stoma in the leaves were covered
b. the jelly consumed the heat d. the leaves were made hot by the jelly
114. Fertilizers are encouraged in farming; however, what is the best step before applying any fertilizer.
That is through.
a. soil analysis c. mineral content analysis
b. water content analysis d. soil thickness measurement
115. The Health Department went on a zero campaign among babies and children from 3 months to 10
years.
This was done to
a. stop to spread polio c. reduce typhoid fever
b. reduce occurrence of cancer d. counteract tuberculosis
116. Children are discouraged to play in flood water since
a. feces of cockroaches are floating c. feces and urine of animals abound
b. urine of rats are contagious d. urine of people are around
117. Chicken pox usually occurs in August. At what stage is it very contagious?
a. when wound are peeling off c. when wound has swollen
b. when all wounds have disappeared d. during the first week
118. Julia’s mother had German measles when she was carrying Julia in her womb. Which of these
physical
appearances shows the effect on the child?
a. Absence of one extremities c. retardation in speech
b. Short tongue d. deafness
119. During a class in gardening one boy was bitten by a snake. What is the first thing to do by the
teacher?
a. tie a band around the wound c. Advice to remain calm and rush to the nearest
hospital
b. pound garlic and spread it over the wound d. tie of band above the bite
120. What do users of electricity pay for?
a. Time for using the electricity c. Electrical energy used
b. Current through the appliances d. Electrical power consumed
121. Which has a greater density, a lake full of water or a cup full of water?
a. The cup full of water c. They have the same density
b. The lake full of water d. Not enough information
122. Why is a dam built wider at the bottom than at the top?
a. To withstand the greater pressure at the bottom
b. It holds up the dam better than at the center
c. To balance the pressure at the top
d. It anchors the dam better
123. What important metallic elements are found at the inner core of the earth?
a. Phosphorous and silicon c. Iron acid silicon
b. Iron and nickel d. Magnesium and potassium
124. In our daily weather forecast, the region where two tropical wind systems converge characterized by
showers and widespread thunderstorm is called ________.
a. Local disturbance c. Warm and cold fronts
b. Intertropical convergent zone d. Trade winds
125. What is the different between the highest and the lowest note on the piano?
a. Highest note is always a softer sound
b. Highest note has more vibrations per second
c. Lowest note is always a louder around
d. Lowest note has more vibrations per second
126. Color-blindness is a sex linked defect. If the father is colorblind and the mother is a carrier, what is
the
probability of normal homozygous?
a. 0 probability b. 25% probability c.50% probability d. 75% probability
127. According to the laws of floatation, when will an object immersed in a liquid sink?
a. When the weight of the object is lesser than the weight of the liquid it displaces
b. When the weight of the object and the liquid is displaces are the same
c. When the weight of the object is greater than the weight of the displaced liquid
d. When the buoyant force is greater than the weight of the object
128. The insecticide sprayer operates according to Bernoulli’s principle which briefly states that
a. Volume is directly proportional to temperature
b. Volume is inversely proportional to temperature
c. Pressure is directly proportional to volume
d. Pressure is inversely proportional to velocity
129. During periods of increased global temperatures, which of the following
is most likely to occur?
A. A decrease in earthquakes C. A decrease in atmospheric CO2
B. An increase in earthquakes D. An increase in atmospheric C02
130. Which" of the following human activities reduces the level of ozone in
the atmosphere?
A. Using large banks of solar cells for energy production
B. Using artificial lighting in scientific polar stations
C. Releasing of fluorocarbons from aerosol cans
D. Destroying large areas of the equatorial rain forests
131. What is the most significant cause of dwindling biodiversity?
A. Large plant consumption C. Destruction of habitat
B. Global warming D. Depletion of ozone layer
132. The existence of extraterrestrial life may never be proven, but this
idea will become more scientifically acceptable over time if_ ___________________
A. alternative hypotheses are proposed and confirmed
B. hypotheses are made related to the idea
C. no one disputes this idea in a scientific forum
D. increasing scientific evidence supports the idea
133. Why is incineration not favored as a method of waste disposal?
A. It is expensive for a country like ours.
B. The country lacks funds to install incinerators.
C. It requires large energy expenditures.
D. It releases noxious gases.
134. Teacher M showed the class the potted plants placed on the window sills. She asked them to
observe the
direction of their growth. The pupils observed that the plants tended to grow outward. Then
Teacher M
asked the class this question:_"Why do you think they grow outward?"
What was Teacher M engaging the pupils to do?
A. Observe C. Draw conclusion
 B. Formulate hypothesis D. Design an experiment
135. Which of the following has the smallest mass when measured in an equal arm balance?
A. 1/2 sheet of pad paper C. 1/4 sheet of pad paper
B. 1/8 sheet of pad paper D. 1/3 sheet of pad paper
136. Which of the following activities help REDUCE water pollution?
A. Throwing only liquid wastes
B. Cleaning with soap instead of detergents
C. Treating wastewater before it is discharged
D. Using organic fertilizers in farms
137. Leaves are green in the sunlight because
A. they absorb the green light
B. their tints bounce off
C. they absorb the blue and yellow object and yellow light
D. they reflect green light
138. Which of the following is TRUE about light and seeing?
A. Light enters the eyes enabling people to see objects.
B. Light goes out from the eyes, hits an object, and then returns to the eyes.
C. Light rays coming from an object meets light coming from a
light source and then enters the eyes.
D. Light hits an abject, bounces, and then enters the eyes.
139. A tray filled with ice was left on a table. After one hour, it was
observed that some of the ice,had changed to liquid. Which of the following
is TRUE
about the temperature of the ice and the liquid?
I. The temperature of the ice did not change.
II. The temperature of ice became higher.
III. The temperature of water is higher than the temperature of the ice.
A. II only C. Ill only
B. I and III D. I only
140. A stainless steel spoon feels colder than a plastic spoon because stainless
steel _________ .
A. absorbs less heat from the hand than plastic does
B. is really colder than plastic
C. has a lower temperature than plastic
D. conducts heat away from the hand faster than plastic does
141. Why does the level of water in a beaker rise after a stone is placed in it?
A. The stone and water occupy the same space.
B. The stone takes the place occupied by water.
C. The stone has more mass than the water.
D. The water weighs less than the stone.
142. What are the products of photosynthesis?
a. Carbon dioxide and glucose
b. Oxygen and carbon dioxide
c. Oxygen and organic compounds
d. Carbon dioxide and inorganic compounds
143. A certain element has an atomic number of 92 and an atomic mass number of 238. Which is true of
this
element?
 a. It has 92 protons, 238 neutrons, 146 electrons
b. It has 146 protons, 92 electrons, 92 electrons
c. It has 92 protons, 146 electrons, 238 electrons
d. It has 92 protons, 146 electrons, 92 electrons
144. If voltage of 100 volts produces a current of 5 amperes in an electrical device, what is the
resistance?
a. 0.05 ohms
b. 105 ohms
c. 20 ohms
d. 500 ohms
145. What is the weight of an object whose mass is 17.6g?
a. 0.176 N
b. 1.76 N
c. 176 N
d. 17. 6 N
146. All of the following are chemical change but one.
a. Rusting of gold bracelet
b. Digestion of food
c. Freezing of water
d. Burning of paper
147. The difference between eukaryotic cell from prokaryotic cells.
a. Presence of chromosomes
b. Presence of cell membrane
c. Presence of true nucleus
d. Absence of plasma membrane
148. What is the hottest star?
a. Blue
b. Red
c. Yellow
d. White
149. Barometer- Air pressure : _________---__________
a. Decibel -sound
b. Odometer- smell
c. Thermometer- temperature
d. Kilometre- length
150. ________-- Cancer: Cardiologist--_________
a. Geologist-Earth
b. Cardiologist- urethra
c. Oncologist- Heart
d. Leukemia- Lymph nodes
 Gen Ed: Natural Science Questions

Introduction to Science

1. If variables X and Y are inversely related, which of these is true?

a. As X increases, Y increases
b. When X is low, Y is also low
c. When X increase, Y decreases
d. A high Y is associated with a high X.

2. The pupils are observing the plants if they will grow outward. Then teacher Q said: You
should have a setup to compare your data. Think of a setup that best fits your goals.

What was Teacher Q engaging the pupils to do?

a. Design an experiment
b. Formulate hypothesis
c. Draw conclusion
d. Verify the result

3. Paeng likes to draw the moon and stars at an early age. What field of science would be
most likely become his interest?
a. Astronomy
b. Physiology
c. Cytology
d. Physics

4. Scientific method must be followed by all scientists. What is the first step in the scientific
method?
a. Observing
b. Concluding
c. Hypothesizing
d. Experimenting

5. Quantities can be scalar or vector. Which is a vector quantity?

a. Length
b. Force
c. Mass
d. Area

6. Which is a branch of physical science?

a. Botany
b. Histology
c. Chemistry
d. Agriculture

7. A scientist is convinced that a theory is correct. Which is true about a theory?

a. Has not been contradicted
b. Different from a conclusion
c. Well tested and verified hypothesis
d. Does not follow the scientific method
 8. Technology is the application of scientific concepts. What kind of technology is a fast
car?
a. Process
b. Product
c. Information
d. Educational

9. Which branch of science deals with the study of fishes?

a. Physiology
b. Ichthyology
c. Mammalogy
d. Entolomology

10. In the 2nd law of motion, force is directly proportional acceleration. If force is doubled,
what happens to acceleration provided that mass is constant?
a. A third
b. Halved
c. Double
d. Tripled

Biology
11. The union of an egg and sperm in an artificial environment such as a test tube or
laboratory dish is called
a. embryonic induction
b. internal fertilization
c. in vitro fertilization
d. conception

12. With old age the bone mass decreases especially in the vertebral column which causes it
to collapse. What is this called?
a. Osteocytes
b. Osteoblasts
c. Osteoporosis
d. Osteocyclosis

13. Potato plants are usually grown from buds not seeds. The explanation for this is that
a. potatoes cannot be grown from seeds
b. buds are not subject to light as seeds are
c. buds represent a form of sexual reproduction
d. buds are most likely to duplicate the qualities of the parent plant

14. “Symbiosis” literally means “living together”. Which of the following pairs demonstrates
symbiosis?
a. bee and bean flower
b. monkey and snake
c. hawk and chick
d. dog and flea

15. When can a doctor determine the sex of the baby during a regular pre-natal check-up?
a. Months after implantation on the uterus wall
b. After the first few division of the zygote
c. At the moment of fertilization
d. Before ovulation

16. Which of the following phrases best describes adaptation of organisms?

a. Thick covering to conserve water
 b. Fast movements to escape its enemies
c. Blending of color so that it cannot be easily seen by its enemies
d. Structural and behavioral changes of organisms to help it survive

17. Which blood transfusion would agglutinate blood?

a. A  A
b. A  O
c. A  AB
d. O  AB

18. Which of the following methods can all diabetics control condition and avoid heart
diseases and blindness?
I. Regulating their intake of glucose
II. Increasing the levels of insulin on the body by taking insulin injections
III. Maintaining a reasonable exercise to keep weight down
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. I,II and III

19. Dinosaur’s bones definitely convinced a 6-year old student of their existence. Which type
of proof of evolution is exemplified?
a. Fossil
b. Biochemistry
c. Biogeography
d. Anatomical Similarities

20. Which is a characteristic of emphysema?

a. Increase of mucus in the nose
b. Destruction of alveolar tissues
c. Increase in the growth of lung tissue
d. Inflammation of the walls of the trachea

21. What may occur when there is a severe damage to some parts of the brain due to lack of
blood supply?
a. Rheumatic heart
b. Heart attack
c. Thrombosis
d. Stroke

22. Which is needed to prevent goiter?

a. Iron
b. Iodine
c. Calcium
d. Nitrogen

23. Which method of reproduction provides for the most variety of offspring?
a. Asexual
b. Cloning
c. Cellular
d. Sexual

24. What is the type of response exhibited by the roots of plants?

a. Positive thigmotropism
b. Negative phototropism
c. Negative geotropism
d. Positive geotropism
25. Patients suffering from malfunction of the kidney are now assisted by a machine that
serves as artificial kidney called
a. pacemaker
b. hemoscope
c. hemodializer
d. homeostatic machine

26. Why do farmers and gardeners often treat the soil with ammonium sulphate? It
a. acts as a pesticide
b. reduces the amount of soil
c. increases the oxygen content of the soil
d. increases the nitrogen content of the soil

27. Heroin can be used in different ways EXCEPT

a. Injected
b. Chewed
c. Smoked
d. Sniffed

28. Without the process of meiosis, we can infer that the offspring from sexual reproduction
would have
a. identical appearance
b. number of mutations
c. high degree of genetic variety
d. twice the assigned number of chromosomes

29. An elderly woman suffered a stroke, a restriction of blood flow to the brain. If the stroke
caused the right side of her body to become temporarily paralyzed, she most likely
experienced a decreased blood flow to the _______ of her brain.
a. left
b. right
c. front
d. under

30. What part of the brain acts as the center of our emotions?
a. Hypothalamus
b. Cerebellum
c. Cerebrum
d. Medulla

31. Which group of organisms cause red tide?

a. Bacteria
b. Jellyfish
c. Bermuda
d. Dinoflagellates

32. Which gas is manufactured by green plants into starch?

a. Carbon dioxide
b. Hydrogen
c. Oxygen
d. Helium

33. Which gas is manufactured by green plants into starch?

a. Carbon dioxide
b. Hydrogen
c. Oxygen
 d. Helium

34. Many amphibians may lose a part of their body such as a leg or tail. They have the ability
to grow a lost part. This ability is known as _____________.
a. rejuvenation
b. reproduction
c. regeneration
d. resuscitation

35. Protein is a polymer while a monomer of this substance is

a. glucose
b. fatty acid
c. amino acid
d. pyruvic acid

36. In each cardiac cycle, the heart goes through a systemic contraction. What is this phase
called?
a. Exhalation
b. Inhalation
c. Diastole
d. Systole
37. Which of the following factors contribute to an increase in human population?
a. Natality
b. Mortality
c. Emigration
d. Immigration

38. At present, a patient fights cancer either through surgery or by subjecting him/her to a
drug treatment called
a. immune therapy
b. viral treatment
c. chemotherapy
d. irradiation

39. n which kingdom should MOLD be classified?

a. Animalia
b. Protista
c. Plantae
d. Fungi

40. Iron-deficiency contributes to the poor scholastic performance of students. Which of the
following food items is best for iron-deficient students?
a. Sardines
b. Pechay
c. Liver
d. Milk

Physics

41. The force required to maintain an object at a constant speed in free space is equal to
a. zero
b. mass of the object
c. weight of the object
d. force required to stop it

42. If an object has kinetic energy, then it also must have

 a. acceleration
b. momentum
c. impulse
d. force

43. Riders in a bus are pushed forward during a sudden stop. Which law of motion provides
an explanation?
a. Universal Gravitation
b. Interaction
c. Hooke’s
d. Inertia

44. What is the difference between the highest and the lowest notes on the piano?
a. Highest note is always a softer sound
b. Lowest note is always a louder around
c. Lowest note has more vibrations per second
d. Highest note has more vibrations per second

45. What energy is considered waste in an engine but very important in maintenance of
normal body functioning?
a. Heat
b. Electrical
c. Chemical
d. Mechanical

46. A chime has four pipes. Pipes A, B, C and D have lengths 5, 7, 8 and 10 inches
respectively. Which of the pipes will give the highest pitch?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

47. The following are examples of a lever EXCEPT

a. doorknob
b. table knife
c. baseball bat
d. paddle of banca

48. How is the conservation of mechanical energy described in a falling object? A falling
object _________ kinetic energy and _________ potential energy.
a. loses ; gains
b. loses ; loses
c. gains ; loses
d. gains ; gains

49. When one turns on the switch of the comfort room, both the light bulb and the exhaust
fan open. When the light bulb is busted, the exhaust fan does not work. How is the light
bulb and exhaust fan connected?
a. Series
b. Parallel
c. Series and Parallel
d. Cannot be determined

50. Which power station produces sulfur dioxide causing air pollution and acid rain?
a. wind powered
b. hydroelectric
c. coal fired
 d. nuclear

51. Which of the following light has the shortest wavelength?

a. Orange
b. Indigo
c. Violet
d. Blue

52. What happens to the speed of sound waves as it travels from less dense medium to a
denser medium?
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Stays the same
d. Totals internal reflection
53. In which of the following medium would sound waves travel the slowest?
a. Liquid
b. Solid
c. Gas
d. Cannot be determined

54. Why do we hear thunder some seconds after seeing lightning?

a. Light appears brighter in the sky
b. Sound is released later actually
c. Light travels faster than sound
d. Sound travels 1,331m/s

55. Which of these uses the principle that pressure is transmitted equally in all directions in a
liquid?
a. Hydraulic devices
b. Stoppered devices
c. Buoyed appliances
d. Fluid-operated cranes

56. What is the reason why a pressure cooker cooks faster?

I. Water boils faster

II. It raises the boiling point of water
III. It raises the cooking temperature of food
IV. It is tightly closed

a. II and IV
b. II and III
c. I, II and III
d. I, II and IV

57. Antoine H. Becquerel defined his phenomenon as the spontaneous disintegration of the
nucleus of an atom. What is this phenomenon?
a. Force
b. Radioactivity
c. Simple machine
d. Bombardment of arrows

58. The atomic bomb releases tremendous amount of energy through ______.
a. combination of light atoms
b. refraction
c. fission
d. fusion
 59. What happens to the speed of light ray as it passes from water to air?
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Remains the same
d. Increase then decrease

60. Light that passes through a convex mirror

a. converges
b. intensifies
c. diverges
d. absorbs

61. What do users of electricity pay for?

a. Insulation through the appliances
b. Electrical resistance consumed
c. Time for using the electricity
d. Electrical energy used

62. Which law of motion explains what happens every time we walk?
a. Conservation of mass
b. Universal gravitation
c. Interaction
d. Inertia

63. Why is a dam built wider at the bottom than at the top?
a. withstand the greater pressure at the bottom
b. hold up the dam better than at the center
c. balance the pressure at the top
d. anchor the dam better

64. Which of the following forms of energy travels through empty space?
a. mechanical
b. chemical
c. radiant
d. sound

65. When an object heavier than air is thrown up, it always goes down. This is an example of
law of
a. inertia
b. gravity
c. compensation
d. diminishing return

Chemistry

66. Which metal is used to conduct electricity from electric power plants to community
houses?
a. Aluminum
b. Copper
c. Silver
d. Lead

67. Each of the following objects is designed to employ buoyancy principles EXCEPT
a. Raft
b. Boat
c. Airplane
 d. Life vest

68. Which chemical substance/s is/are contained in detergents which cause/s the foam in
stream water?
a. Phosphorous and alkaline solution
b. Phosphorous and benzene
c. Alkyl benzene sulfonate
d. Oil and benzene

69. Atoms give up electrons during the process of chemical combination process. What
electron is usually used for this?
a. Negative
b. Valence
c. Positive
d. Neutral

70. Which has more mass, a kilogram of feathers or a kilogram of iron?

a. Iron
b. Feather
c. Cannot be determined
d. Both have the same mass

71. All of the following are physical changes EXCEPT

a. sugar dissolves in water
b. moth balls sublime at room temperature
c. water evaporates from an open container
d. butter turns rancid when left unrefrigerated

72. Jane placed some mothballs inside her cabinet. After a week, they were all gone. What
happened to the mothballs?
a. condensed
b. dissolved
c. sublimed
d. melted

73. Which is the BEST evidence that helium gas is lighter than air? Helium
a. has the lowest boiling point in all elements
b. atoms do not combine with other atoms
c. makes up 0.0005% of air
d. balloons rise in air

74. A small glass jar is filled with ice and then covered tightly. The outer side of the glass is
dried with a piece of cloth. After five (5) minutes the outer side of the jar becomes wet.
Where does the water on the outer side of the jar come from?
a. Water from melted ice passes through the glass
b. Water vapor in the air condenses on the cold glass
c. Coldness passes through the glass and turns to water
d. The cold temperature causes oxygen and hydrogen in the air to form water

75. Which of the following water sources is heterogeneous?

a. Purified
b. Flood
c. Clean
d. Rain

76. Which of the following is NOT an example of a phase change?

a. Formation of ice cubes inside a freezer
 b. Formation of dew drops in a plant leaf
c. Ripening of a mango fruit
d. Melting of butter

77. Matter can occupy space. What is this called?

a. Volume
b. Weight
c. Mass
d. Area

78. Carbon-12 and carbon-14 are being studied. Which is common to the two?
a. Mirror image
b. Number of protons
c. Amount of neutrons
d. Other elements attached to it

79. Atoms can share valence electrons to be stable. What kind of bond will be formed?
a. Ionic
b. Covalent
c. Hydrogen
d. Temporary

80. Sheryl is preparing a sample of mixture for her class. What is she preparing?
a. Vinegar
b. Carbon
c. Water
d. Rust

81. Lyn wanted to measure the volume of a given liquid. Which should NOT be used?
a. Graduated cylinder
b. Watch glass
c. Beaker
d. Pipette

82. At what temperature (in 0C) will water freeze?

a. 0
b. 10
c. 20
d. 30

83. What element is one of the most abundant in living organisms?

a. Helium
b. Carbon
c. Calcium
d. Uranium

84. Which has the greatest kinetic energy?

a. Gas
b. Solid
c. Liquid
d. Plasma

85. The atomic bomb releases tremendous amount of energy through ______.
a. combination of light atoms
b. refraction
c. fission
d. fusion
Earth Science
86. Which of the following shows chemical weathering in rocks?
a. Acids loosen rock particles
b. Rocks move to another place
c. Freezing water between rock particles
d. Animals pulverizes the rocks by stepping on it

87. Which theory states that of the Earth's continents move relative to each other by
appearing to drift across the ocean bed?
a. Continental drift
b. Natural selection
c. Extinction
d. Evolution

88. Tides caused by moon’s gravity, create a frictional force that is gradually slowing down
earth’s rotation speed. One million years from now, scientists may discover that
compared today, earth’s
a. year is shorter
b. day is shorter
c. year is longer
d. day is longer

89. Which of the following environmental conditions has been blamed for the usual
occurrence of “fish kills”?
a. Acid rain
b. Eutrophication
c. Silting of lakes
d. Atmospheric pollution

90. Which will NOT contribute to global warming?

a. Using of incinerators
b. Increasing vehicular exhaust
c. Reliance to hydroelectric power plants
d. Dependence to coal and petroleum products

91. Lakes that accumulate abundant nutrients become

a. hadal
b. pelagic
c. abyssal
d. eutrophic

92. Which is an adverse effect of deforestation?

a. Paves way for human settlements
b. Increase in atmospheric humidity
c. Contributes to greenhouse effect
d. Cause flooding in the lowlands

93. As the earth revolves, due to the tilting of its axis what natural phenomenon occurs?
a. Global warming
b. Day and night
c. Weather
d. Seasons

94. Which of the following is an important factor in explaining why seasons occur on Earth?
 a. Sun’s axis is tilted
b. Earth’s axis is tilted
c. Sun rotates on its axis
d. Earth rotates on its axis

95. All of the following contribute to the greenhouse effect, EXCEPT

a. Forest fires
b. Excessive use of soap
c. Extensive deforestation
d. Uncontrolled burning of wastes

96. Which agency in the Philippines is responsible in monitoring fault line activities?
a. DOH
b. BFAD
c. PAGASA
d. PHIVOLCS

97. The harmful form of ozone that can be seen as smog is formed in the _________.
a. Troposphere
b. Stratosphere
c. Ionosphere
d. Exosphere

98. Which biogas is obtained from biological wastes such as animal manure?
a. Ethylene
b. Methane
c. Alcogas
d. Ester

99. Based on the following, which is found on the outermost?

a. Core
b. Crust
c. Mantle
d. Asthenosphere

100. What happens when there is uneven temperature between two atmospheric areas?
a. Rain
b. Wind
c. Pressure
d. Temperature

101. Rocks maybe formed by metamorphism. Which principle is included in

metamorphism?
a. Lithification and pressure
b. Lithification and weathering
c. Temperature and pressure
d. Temperature and weathering

102. Earthquake epicenter located in a body of water poses a threat to coastal

communities since it may result to
a. tsunami
b. tidal wave
c. fewer fish catch
d. recession of water

103. In farm lands stricken by drought, farmers may opt to create their own rain. What
is this process called?
 a. Cloud seeding
b. Hydroponics
c. Irrigation
d. Aquifer

104. The mantle has its upper and lower boundary. What is the upper boundary?
a. Continental crust
b. Oceanic crust
c. Gutenberg
d. Moho

105. What layer of the atmosphere contains the protective ozone layer?
a. Thermosphere
b. Troposphere
c. Stratosphere
d. Mesosphere

106. Aurora is a natural event in the sky. What layer does this occur?
a. Thermosphere
b. Mesosphere
c. Outer space
d. Exosphere

107. What will happen to the water level along shorelines if global warming continues
to exist at an alarming rate?
a. Increase, because polar caps will melt
b. Decrease, because of evaporation
c. Increase, because precipitation will increase
d. Decrease, because there will be lesser precipitation

108. What is the slowest biogeochemical cycle?

a. Sulfur
b. Carbon
c. Oxygen
d. Phosphorous

109. Instruments are essential in studying accurately our planet. Which is

INCORRECTLY paired?
a. Humidity-psychrometer
b. Precipitation-rain gauge
c. Temperature-thermometer
d. Wind direction-anemometer

110. Low pressure areas are common during rainy season weather report. What is the
symbol for low pressure area in weather reports seen on tv?
a. L
b. R
c. H
d. LP

Astronomy
111. An object weighs 30N on earth. A second object weighs 30N on the moon. Which
of the two objects has greater mass?
a. They have the same mass
b. Cannot be determined
c. The one on the moon
 d. The one on earth

112. Copernicus was the first person to publicly state that the sun
a. revolves around the earth
b. centers the solar system
c. shines so bright
d. slows down

113. The planets in the solar system

a. have the same surface temperature
b. revolve around the sun
c. are exactly the same
d. can support life

114. Season occurs on earth because its axis is tilted. What is the inclination of the axis
in degrees?
a. 0
b. 7.5
c. 23.5
d. 98

115. We have energy responsible for life on Earth. The source of this energy is the
a. Moon
b. Wind
c. Star
d. Sun

116. The instant where the moon is farthest from the earth is called
a. apogee
b. perigee
c. solstice
d. equinox

117. Ptolemy’s concept of the solar system was widely accepted in his time. He said
that earth is
a. next to the sun
b. rotating faster and faster
c. the center of the solar system
d. revolving around many galaxies

118. Juan is observing the shoreline as part of his study. He observed that there ___
high tides and ___ low tides in a day.
a. 1-3
b. 2-2
c. 3-1
d. 4-0

119. Which does NOT belong to the rocky planets?

a. Mercury
b. Jupiter
c. Venus
d. Mars

120. Lunar eclipse is most likely to occur on ______ moon.

a. full
b. new
 c. gibbous
d. crescent

121. The rocks brought by astronauts from the moon were found to be approximately
_____ billion years old.
a. 5.5
b. 2.5
c. 4.5
d. 1.5

122. If the moon’s gravity becomes ¼ that of Earth, the following will be possible
EXCEPT
a. It will be easy to lift heavy objects on the moon
b. The moon will not hold a thick atmosphere of gases
c. The moon will still cause tides on the Earth’s oceans
d. The 65-kilo person in Earth will have about 18 kilos on the moon

123. Which of the following facts support the big bang theory’s explanation of the
creation of the universe? The universe
a. will have background radiation
b. does not expand nor contract
c. has no beginning nor end
d. seldom expands

124. The tremendous energy of the sun is produced through atomic

a. disintegration
b. radiation
c. fission
d. fusion

125. In what particular orbit do planets like earth travel around the sun?
a. Circular
b. Random
c. Elliptical
d. Rectangular