Question Report MT-6 @atozfreematerial PDF

Test Pattern
(0999DMD310319006) )/999DMD31/319//6)
DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME NEET(UG)
MINOR TEST # 06
(Academic Session : 2019 - 2020) 15-09-2019
PRE-MEDICAL : LEADER TEST SERIES / JOINT PACKAGE COURSE
12th Undergoing/Pass Students
Test Type : Unit - 05

This Booklet contains 40 pages. bl iqfLrdk esa 40 i`"B gSaA
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
bl ijh{kk iq f Lrdk dks tc rd uk [kks y s a tc rd dgk u tk,A
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
bl ijh{kk iq f Lrdk ds fiNys vkoj.k ij fn, funs Z ' kks a dks /;ku ls i<+s a A
Important Instructions : egRoiw. kZ funs Z 'k :
1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1 1. mÙkj i= ds i` " B-1 ,oa i` " B-2 ij /;kuiwoZd dsoy uhys @ dkys ckWy
and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only. ikWbaV isu ls fooj.k HkjsaA
2. The test is of 3 hours duration and this Test Booklet 2. ijh{kk dh vof/k 3 ?ka Vs gS ,oa ijh{kk iqfLrdk esa 180 iz'u gaA S izR;sd
contains 180 questions. Each question carries 4 marks. iz'u 4 vad dk gAS izR;sd lgh mÙkj ds fy, ijh{kkFkhZ dks 4 vad
For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks.
For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted
fn, tk,axasA izR;sd xyr mÙkj ds fy, dqy ;ksx esa ls ,d vad
from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720. ?kVk;k tk,xkA vf/kdre vad 720 gSA
3. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing 3. bl i`"B ij fooj.k vafdr djus ,oa mÙkj i= ij fu'kku yxkus ds
particulars on this page/marking responses. fy, ds o y uhys @ dkys ckWy ikW ba V is u dk iz;ksx djsaA
4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this 4. jQ dk;Z bl ijh{kk iqfLrdk esa fu/kkZfjr LFkku ij gh djsaA
purpose in the Test Booklet only.
5. On completion of the test, the candidate must 5. ijh{kk lEiék gks u s ij] ijh{kkFkhZ d{k@gkW y Nks M +u s ls iwo Z
hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator mÙkj i= fujh{kd dks vo'; lkSai nsaA ijh{kkFkhZ vius lkFk
before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are ds o y ijh{kk iq f Lrdk dks ys tk ldrs g S a A
allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
6. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is 6. ijh{kkFkhZ lqfuf'pr djsa fd bl mÙkj i= dks eksM+k u tk, ,oa ml
not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer ij dksbZ vU; fu'kku u yxk,aA ijh{kkFkhZ viuk QkWeZ uEcj iz'u
Sheet. Do not write your Form No. anywhere else except iqfLrdk@mÙkj i= esa fu/kkZfjr LFkku ds vfrfjDr vU;= u fy[ksaA
in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
7. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on 7. mÙkj i= ij fdlh izdkj ds la'kks/ku gsrq OgkbV ¶+yqbM ds iz;ksx dh
the Answer Sheet. vuqefr ugha gAS
8. If you want to attempt any question then circle should be 8. ;fn vki fdlh iz' u dks gy djus dk iz ;kl djrs gSa rks mfpr xksys
properly darkened as shown below, otherwise leave blank. dks uhps n'kkZ;s x;s vuqlkj xgjk dkyk djsa vU;Fkk mls [kkyh NksM+ nsaA
Correct Method Wrong Method lgh rjhdk xyr rjhdk
In case of any ambiguity in translation of any question, English version shall be treated as final.
iz' uks a ds vuqo kn es a fdlh vLi"Vrk dh fLFkfr es a ] va xzs th laL dj.k dks gh vaf re ekuk tk,s xkA
Name of the Candidate (in Capitals)
ijh{kkFkhZ dk uke (cM+s v{kjksa esa) :
Form Number : in figures
QkWeZ uEcj : vadksa esa
: in words
: 'kCnksa esa
Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :
ijh{kk dsUæ (cM+s v{kjksa esa) :
Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :
ijh{kkFkhZ ds gLrk{kj : fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj :
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2020

LTS / Page 1/40
ALLEN
TOPIC : Collisions and Centre of Mass, , Electromagnetic Induction
1. In the circuit shown in figure the jockey J is being 1. fp= esa iznf'kZr ifjiFk esa] folihZ dqath J dks nk;ha vksj ys tk;k
pulled towards right so that the resistance in the tk jgk g]S ftlls ifjiFk dk izfrjks/k c<+ jgk gAS fdlh {k.k ij
circuit is increasing. Its a value at some instant is
bldk eku 5 W gAS bl {k.k ij ifjiFk esa /kkjk gS %&
5 W. The current in the circuit at this instant will be
L L
J J
20 V 20 V
(1) 4 A (1) 4 A
(2) less than 4 A (2) 4 A ls de
(3) more than 4 A
(3) 4 A ls vf/kd
(4) may be less than or more than 4 A depending
on the value of L (4) 4 A ls de vFkok vf/kd ;g L ds eku ij fuHkZj djsxk
2. Two blocks A and B of equal mass m = 1.0 kg are 2. leku nzO;eku m = 1.0 kg okys nks CykWd A o B fp= esa
lying on a smooth horizontal surface as shown in n'kkZ ;s vuq lkj ,d fpduh {kSfrt lrg ij j[ks gq, gSa A
figure. A spring of force constant k = 200 N/m is k = 200 N/m cy fu;rkad okyh fLiazx dk ,d fljk CykWd
fixed at one end of block A. Block B collides with A ls tqM+k gqvk gAS CykWd B, 2.0 m/s osx ds lkFk] CykWd A
block A with velocity 2.0 m/s. The maximum ls Vdjkrk gAS fLiazx esa vf/kdre ladqpu gksxk %&
compression of the spring will be
2.0 m/s
2.0 m/s
B A
B A
(1) 1 m (2) 10 cm
(1) 1 m (2) 10 cm
(3) 1 cm (4) 3 cm (3) 1 cm (4) 3 cm
3. A long solenoid has 2000 turns/m and radius is 6cm. 3. ,d yEch ifjukfydk esa 2000 Qsjs/eh- vkSj f=T;k 6cm gAS
If Current is varied at a uniform rate of ;fn ifjukfydk esa fo|qr /kkjk ,d leku nj 0.01 AS–1 ls
0.01 AS–1 then find electric field induced at a point ifjofrZr gks rks ifjukfydk dh v{k ls 8cm nwjh ij fLFkr fcUnw
outside the solenoid at distance 8cm from its axis. ij izfs jr fo|qr {k=S Kkr djsaA
(1) 5.6 × 10–3 v/m (1) 5.6 × 10–3 v/m
(2) 2.25 × 10–2 v/m (2) 2.25 × 10–2 v/m
(3) 5.6 × 10–7 v/m (3) 5.6 × 10–7 v/m
(4) zero (4) 'kw U;
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2020/NEET-UG/15-09-2019

LTS / Page 2/40 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / jQ dk;Z ds fy, txg 0999DMD310319006
ALLEN
4. A square plate of side 20 cm has uniform thickness 4. ,d oxkZdkj IysV dh Hkqtk 20 cm rFkk ?kuRo ,d leku gSA blesa
and density. A circular part of diameter 8 cm is cut ls fp= esa n'kkZ;s vuqlkj 8 cm O;kl okyk ,d o`Ùkkdkj Hkkx dkV
out symmetrically as shown in figure. The position
fy;k x;k gAS 'ks"k Hkkx ds nzO;eku dsUnz dh fLFkfr gS %&
of centre of mass of the remaining portion is
O O1
O O1
(1) O1 ij
(1) at O1
(2) at O (2) O ij
(3) 0.54 cm from O on the left hand side (3) O ls ck;ha vksj 0.54 cm ij
(4) 0.86 cm from O on the left hand side. (4) O ls ck;ha vksj 0.86 cm ij
5. Two particles of mass m and 2m moving in 5. m o 2m nzO;eku okys nks d.k Øe'k% v rFkk 2v osx ds lkFk
opposite directions collide elastically with foijhr fn'kkvksa esa xfr djrs gq, izR;kLFkr% Vdjkrs gaSA VDdj
velocities v and 2v respectively. Velocity of heavy ds i'pkr~ Hkkjh d.k dh pky gS %&
particle after collision will be
(1) 3v (2) 2v (3) zero (4) v (1) 3v (2) 2v (3) 'kw U; (4) v
6. An infinitely long conductor AB lies along the axis 6. vuUr yEckbZ okyk ,d pkyd AB, R f=T;k okyh o`Ùkkdkj
of a circular loop of radius R. If the current in the ywi dh v{k ds vuq f n'k g SA ;fn pkyd AB esa /kkjk
conductor AB varies at the rate of x ampere/second, x ,Eih;j@lsd.M dh nj ls ifjofrZr gksrh g]S rks ywi esa izfs jr
then the induced emf in the loop is
fo-ok-c- gS %&
A B A B
R R
m0 xR m xR m pxR m0 xR m0 xR m0 pxR
(1) (2) 0 (3) 0 (4) zero (1) (2) (3) (4) 'kw U;
2 4 4 2 4 4
7. Three identical balls, ball I, ball II and ball III are 7. ,d tlS h rhu xsana]s xsna I, xsna II rFkk xsan III ,d ljy js[kk ds
placed on a smooth floor on a straight line at the vuqfn'k] fpdus Q'kZ ij j[kh gqbZ g]aS fp= esa n'kkZ;s vuqlkj xsna ksa ds
separation of 10 m between balls as shown in
figure. Initially balls are stationary. chp 10 m nwjh gAS izkjEHk esa xsans fojkekoLFkk esa gaAS
Ball I is given velocity of 10 m/s towards ball II, xsna I dks xsna II dh vksj 10 m/s osx iznku fd;k tkrk g]S xsan
collision between ball I and II is inelastic with
coefficient of restitution 0.5 but collision between I o II ds chp VDdj] izR;koLFkku xq.kkad 0.5 ds lkFk vizR;kLFk
ball II and III is perfectly elastic. What is the time g]S fdarq xsna II o III ds chp VDdj iw.kZr;k izR;kLFk gAS xsna I rFkk
interval between two consecutive collisions
between ball I and II? II ds chp nks Øekxr VDdjksa ds chp le;kUrjky fdruk g?S
I II III I II III
10 m 10 m 10 m 10 m
(1) 7.5 s (2) 4 s (3) 2 s (4) 2.5 s (1) 7.5 s (2) 4 s (3) 2 s (4) 2.5 s
LEADER TEST SERIES/JOINT PACKAGE COURSE/NEET-UG/15-09-2019
0999DMD310319006 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / jQ dk;Z ds fy, txg LTS / Page 3/40
ALLEN
8. A copper rod of mass m slides under gravity on 8. m æO;eku dh rkacs ls NM+ xq:Rokd"kZ.k dh otg ls ?k"k.kZjfgr
two smooth parallel rails l distance apart set at an iVfj;ksa ij fQly jgh gAS nksuksa iVfj;ksa ds chp nwjh l gS rFkk {ksfrt
angle q to the horizontal. At the bottom, the rails
ls dks.k q gAS nksuksa iVfj;ksa R izfrjks/k ls tqM+h gqbZ gAS
are joined by a resistance R.
B
B
l
l
VT
VT
R
R
q
q
There is a uniform magnetic field perpendicular ,d fu;r pqEcdh; {ks= iVfj;ksa ds ry ds yEcor~ dk;Zjr gAS
to the plane of the rails. The terminal velocity of NM+ dk lhekUr osx gksxkA
the rod is mg R cos q
(1)
mg R cos q B2 l 2
(1)
B2 l 2
mg R sin q
mg R sin q (2)
(2) B2l 2
B2l 2
mg R tan q
mg R tan q (3)
(3) B2 l 2
B2l 2
mg R cot q mg R cot q
(4) (4)
B2 l 2 B2 l 2
9. A conducting wire frame is placed in a magnetic 9. ,d /kkfRod rkj dh Ýse dkxt ds ry ds yEcor~ vanj dh
field which is directed into the paper. The magnetic vksj fLFkr pqEcdh; {ks= esa fLFkr gSA pqEcdh; {ks= ,d fu;r
field is increasing at a constant rate. The directions nj ls c<+ jgk gAS rkj AB rFkk CD esa izsfjr /kkjk dh fn'kk gksxh
of induced current in wires AB and CD are × × × × C×
× × × × C× × A× × × ×
× A× × × × × × × × ×
× × × × × × B× × × ×
× B× × × × × × × × D×
× × × × D× (1) B ls A ,oa D ls C dh vksj
(1) B to A and D to C (2) A ls B ,oa C ls D dh vksj
(2) A to B and C to D
(3) A ls B ,oa D ls C dh vksj
(3) A to B and D to C
(4) B to A and C to D (4) B ls A ,oa C ls D dh vksj
10. A body of mass m moving with velocity v collides 10. m nzO;eku okyh ,d oLrq v osx ds lkFk xfr djrh gqbZ] izkjEHk
head on with another body of mass 2 m which is esa fLFkj 2 m nzO;eku okyh ,d vU; oLrq ls lEeq[k VDdj djrh
initially at rest. The ratio of KE of colliding body gAS Vdjkus okyh oLrq dh VDdj ls iwoZ rFkk i'pkr~ xfrt ÅtkZ
before and after collision will be dk vuqikr gksxk %&
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 (1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 9 : 1 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 9 : 1

ALLEN
11. The loop ABCD is moving with velocity v towards 11. ywi ABCD, v osx ds lkFk nk;ha vksj xfr dj jgk gAS pqEcdh;
right. The magnetic field is 4 T and into the page
{ks= 4 T gS rFkk ;g ywi ds ry ds yEcor~ dkxt ds ry ds vUnj
perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The loop
dh vksj gAS ywi dks 8 W izfrjks/k ds lkFk tksM+k x;k gAS ;fn ywi
is connected to a resistance of 8 W. If steady
current of 2 A flows in the loop then value of v dk izfrjks/k 4 W gS ,oa ywi ls 2 A LFkk;h /kkjk izokfgr gks jgh
if loop has resistance of 4 W, is g]S rks v dk eku gS %
(Given, AB = 30 cm, AD = 30 cm) (fn;k g]S AB = 30 cm, AD = 30 cm)
D C D C
v v
8W 8W
37° 37°
A B A B
50 50
(1) m/s (2) 20 m/s (1) m/s (2) 20 m/s
3 3
100 100
(3) 10 m/s (4) m/s (3) 10 m/s (4) m/s
3 3
12. Two balls are thrown simultaneously in air. The 12. nks xsanas ,d lkFk gok esa QSadh tkrh gSaA tc os gok esa gksa] nksuksa
acceleration of the centre of mass of the two balls xsanksa ds nzO;eku dsUnz dk Roj.k &
while in air
(1) xsanksa dh xfr dh fn'kkvksa ij fuHkZj djsxk
(1) depends on the direction of the motion of the balls
(2) nksuksa xsanksa ds nzO;ekuksa ij fuHkZj djsxk
(2) depends on the masses of the two balls
(3) depends on the speeds of two balls (3) nksuksa xsanksa dh pkyksa ij fuHkZj djsxk
(4) is equal to g (4) g ds cjkcj gksxk
13. After perfectly inelastic collision between two 13. leku pky ds lkFk fofHkUu fn'kkvksa esa xfr'khy] ,d tlS s nks d.kksa
identical particles moving with same speed in ds chp iw.kZr;k vizR;kLFk VDdj ds i'pkr] d.kksa dh pky
different directions, the speed of the particles izkjfEHkd pky dh vk/kh jg tkrh g]S VDdj ls iwoZ nksuksa d.kksa
becomes half the initial speed. The angle between
ds chp dks.k gS %&
the two before collision is :
(1) 60° (2) 120°
(1) 60° (2) 120°
(3) 90° (4) 45°
(3) 90° (4) 45°

ALLEN
14. The current i in an induction coil varies with time 14. fdlh izsj.k dq.Myh esa /kkjk] le; ds lkFk fp= esa iznf'kZr xzkQ
t according to the graph shown in figure.
ds vuqlkj ifjofrZr gksrh gS
i i
O t O t
fuEufyf[kr xzkQksa esa ls dkSulk le; ds lkFk dq.Myh esa izsfjr
Which of the following graphs shows the induced fo-ok-c- (E) dks n'kkZrk gAS
emf (E) in the coil with time?
E E
E E
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
O t
O t O t
O t
E E
E E
(3) (4) (3) (4)
O t O t
O t O t
15. A block of mass m moving at a velocity v collides 15. v osx ds lkFk xfr'khy m nzO;eku okyk CykWd] fojkekoLFkk
with another block of mass 2 m at rest. The lighter esa fLFkr 2 m nzO;eku okys CykWd ls Vdjkrk gSA VDdj ds i'pkr~
block comes to rest after collision. Find the value gYdk CykWd fojkekoLFkk esa vk tkrk gAS izR;koLFkku xq.kkad dk
of coefficient of restitution. eku Kkr dhft;s %&
1 1
(1) (2) 1 (1) (2) 1
2 2
1 1 1 1
(3) (4) (3) (4)
3 4 3 4
16. A coil of inductance 50 mH and resistance 0.5 W 16. 50 mH izsjdRo rFkk 0.5 W izfrjks/k okyh dq.Myh dks 5 V
is connected to a battery of emf 5 V. A resistance fo-ok-c- dh cSVjh ds lkFk tksM+k x;k gSA ,d 10 W izfrjks/k
of 10 W is connected parallel to the coil. Now at dq.Myh ds lekukUrj Øe esa tqM+k gqvk gAS fdlh {k.k ij cSVjh
some instant the connection of the battery is
dk fLop cUn dj fn;k tkrk gAS cVS jh dk fLop cUn djus ds
switched off. Then, the amount of heat generated
in the coil after switching off the battery is i'pkr~ dq.Myh esa mRiUu Å"ek dh ek=k gS &
(1) 1.25 mJ (2) 2.5 mJ (1) 1.25 mJ (2) 2.5 mJ
(3) 0.65 mJ (4) 0.12 mJ (3) 0.65 mJ (4) 0.12 mJ
ALLEN
17. Three identical spheres, each of mass 1 kg are 17. ,d tSls rhu xksys] izR;sd dk nzO;eku 1 kg, muds dsUnzkas dks
placed touching each other with their centres on ljy js[kk esa j[krs gq,] ijLij Li'kZ djrs gq, j[ks gq, gaSA muds
a straight line. Their centre are marked P, Q and dsUnzksa ij Øe'k% P, Q rFkk R vafdr gaAS bl fudk; ds nzO;eku
R respectively. The distance of centre of mass of dsUnz dh P ls nwjh gS %&
the system from P is PQ + PR + QR PQ + PR
(1) (2)
PQ + PR + QR PQ + PR 3 3
(1) (2)
3 3
PQ + QR
PQ + QR (3) (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(3) (4) None of these 3
3
18. Two billiard balls each of mass 0.05 kg moving 18. 0.05 kg nzO;eku (iz R;sd dk) okyh foy;MZ dh nks xsans
in opposite directions with speed 6 ms–1 collide 6 ms–1 pky ds lkFk ijLij foijhr fn'kk esa xfr djrh gqbZ Vdjkrh
and rebound with the same speed. The impulse gaS vkSj leku pky ds lkFk izfrf{kIr gksrh gaAS izR;sd xsan dks nwljh
imparted to each ball due to the other will be ds dkj.k izkIr vkosx gksxk &
(1) –0.30 kg ms–1 (2) +0.30 kg ms –1 (1) –0.30 kg ms–1 (2) +0.30 kg ms –1
(3) –0.60 kg ms–1 (4) +0.60 kg ms –1 (3) –0.60 kg ms–1 (4) +0.60 kg ms –1
19. A pair of coils of turns n1 and n2 are kept close 19. n1 rFkk n2 Qsjksa okyh dq.Mfy;k¡ ,d&nwljs ds lehi j[kh gq;h
together. Current passing through the first is gAS igyh dq.Myh esa izokfgr /kkjk r dh nj ls de dh tkrh
reduced at rate r and emf 3 mV is developed across
gS vkSj nwljh dq.Myh ds fljksa ij 3 mV fo-ok-cy- izfs jr gksrk
the other coil. If the second coil carries current
gAS vc ;fn nwljh dq.Myh esa /kkjk] 2r nj ls de dh tkrh g]S
which is then reduced at the rate 2r, the emf
produced across the first coil will be rks igyh dq.Myh ds fljksa ij mRiUu fo-ok-cy- gksxk %&
6n1 6n 2 3 6n1 6n 2 3
(1) n mV (2) n mV (3) 6 mV (4) mV (1) n mV (2) n mV (3) 6 mV (4) mV
2 1 2 2 1 2
20. A metal ball falls from a height of 32 m on a steel 20. LVhy dh ,d xsan] 32 m Å¡pkbZ ls LVhy dh IysV ij fxjrh
plate. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.5, to what gAS ;fn izR;koLFkku xq.kkad 0.5 g]S nwljh mNky ds i'pkr~ xsan
height will the ball rise after second bounce? fdruh Å¡pkbZ rd Åij mBsxh\
(1) 2 m (2) 4 m (3) 8 m (4) 16 m (1) 2 m (2) 4 m (3) 8 m (4) 16 m
21. A capacitor of capacity 2 mF is charged to a 21. 2 mF /kkfjrk okys ,d la/kkfj= dks 12 V foHkokUrj rd
potential difference of 12 V. It is then connected
vkosf'kr fd;k tkrk gSA fQj bldks 0.6 mH izjs dRo okyh izjs .k
across an inductor of inductance 0.6 mH. The
dq.Myh ds fljksa ij tksM+k tkrk gAS tc la/kkfj= ds fljksa ij
current in the circuit at a time when the potential
difference across the capacitor is 6.0 V is foHkokUrj 6.0 V g]S ml le; ifjiFk esa /kkjk gS %&
(1) 0.6 A (2) 1.2 A (3) 2.4 A (4) 3.6 A (1) 0.6 A (2) 1.2 A (3) 2.4 A (4) 3.6 A

ALLEN
22. A body falling vertically downwards under gravity 22. xq:Ro ds izHkko esa Å/okZ/kj fxj jgh ,d oLrq] vleku nzO;ekuksa
breaks in two parts of unequal masses. The centre
okys nks Hkkxksa esa nwj tkrh gAS nksuksa Hkkxksa dks ,d lkFk ysus ij mudk
of mass of the two parts taken together shifts
horizontally towards nzO;eku dsUnz {kSfrtr% foLFkkfir gksrk gS &
(1) heavier piece (1) Hkkjh VqdM+sa dh vksj
(2) lighter piece (2) gYds VqdM+s dh vksj
(3) does not shift horizontally
(3) {kSfrtr% foLFkkfir ugha gksxk
(4) depends on the vertical velocity at the time of
breaking (4) VwVus ds le; ij Å/oZ osx ij fuHkZj djrk gAS
23. A magnetic flux of 8 × 10–4 weber is linked with 23. 200 Qsjksa okyh dq.Myh ls tc 4A fo|qr /kkjk izokfgr gksrh
each turn of a 200 turn coil when there is an electric g]S blds izR;sd Qsjs ls lEc¼ pqEcdh; ¶yDl 8 × 10–4 oscj
current of 4A in it. The self induction of coil :- gAS dq.Myh dk Lo izsjdRo gS :-
(1) 8 × 10–2 H (2) 6 × 10–2 H (1) 8 × 10–2 H (2) 6 × 10–2 H
(3) 4 × 10–2 H (4) 2 × 10–2 H (3) 4 × 10–2 H (4) 2 × 10–2 H
24. A current time curve is shown in the following 24. fuEu fp= esa /kkjk≤ oØ n'kkZ;k x;k gAS bl izdkj dh /kkjk
diagram. This type of current is passed in the VªkalQkWeZj dh izkFkfed dq.Myh ls izokfgr gks jgh gAS f}rh;
primary coil of transformer. The nature of induced
dq.Myh esa mRiUu izfs jr fo-ok- cy dh izo`fr gksxh%&
emf in the secondary coil will be :–
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

ALLEN
25. The time constant of an inductance is 2 × 10–3 s. 25. ,d izjs dRo dk le; fLFkjkad 2 × 10–3 s gAS tc blds Js.khØe
When a 90W resistance is joined in series, the time esa 90W izfrjks/k tksM+k tkrk g]S le; fLFkjkad 0.5 × 10–3 s gks
constant becomes 0.5 × 10–3 s. The inductance and tkrk gSA dq.Myh dk izsjdRo ,oa izfrjksèk g:S -
resistance of coil are :-
(1) 30 mH, 30W (2) 60 mH, 30W
(1) 30 mH, 30W (2) 60 mH, 30W
(3) 30 mH, 15W (4) 90 mH, 45W (3) 30 mH, 15W (4) 90 mH, 45W
26. Two blocks of mass 10 kg and 30 kg are placed 26. 10 kg rFkk 30 kg nzO;ekuksa okys nks CykWd] ,d Å/okZ/kj js[kk
along a vertical line at a distance of 10 cm. The ds vuqfn'k 10 cm nwjh ij j[ks gq, gaSA igys CykWd dks 7 cm
first block is raised through a height of 7 cm. By Å¡pkbZ ls Åij mBk;k tkrk gAS nzO;eku dsUnz dks 1 cm Åij mBkus
what distance should the second block be moved
ds fy,] nwljs CykWd dks fdruk f[kldk;k tk;s\
to raise the centre of mass by 1 cm?
(1) 2 cm Åij dh vksj (2) 1 cm Åij dh vksj
(1) 2 cm upward (2) 1 cm upward
(3) 2 cm uhps dh vksj (4) 1 cm uhps dh vksj
(3) 2 cm downward (4) 1 cm downward
27. If magnetic flux varies according to f = 3t2 + 4t + 2, 27. ;fn pqEcdh; ¶yLd f = 3t2 + 4t + 2 ds vuqlkj ifjofrZr
emf at t = 2 s will be. gks jgk gks] rks t = 2 s ij o|
S qr okgd cy gksxk%
(1) 22 V (2) 18 V (1) 22 V (2) 18 V
(3) 20 V (4) 16 V (3) 20 V (4) 16 V
28. A ball strikes against the floor and returns with 28. ,d xsan Q'kZ ij Vdjkrh gS rFkk nqxuq s osx ls okfil ykSVrh g]S
double the velocity, in which type of collision is ;g fdl izdkj dh VDdj esa lEHko g&S
it possible- (1) iw.kZr;k izR;kLFk (2) vizR;kLFk
(1) Perfectly elastic (2) Inelastic
(3) iw.kZr;k vizR;kLFk (4) ;g lEHko ugha gAS
(3) Perfectly inelastic (4) It is not possible
29. A metallic square loop ABCD is moving in its 29. ,d /kkfRod oxkZdkj ywi ABCD, fp= esa n'kkZ;s vuqlkj blds
own plane with velocity v in a uniform magnetic ry ds yEcor~ le:i pqEcdh; {ks= esa] blds Lo;a ds ry esa
field perpendicular to its plane as shown in the v osx ls xfr dj jgk gAS fo|qr {ks= izsfjr gks jgk gS %
figure. An electric field is induced
A B
A B
D C
D C
(1) in AD, but not in BC (1) AD esa fdUrq BC esa ugha
(2) in BC, but not in AD (2) BC esa fdUrq AD esa ugha
(3) neither in AD nor in BC (3) u rks AD esa vkjS u gh BC esa
(4) in both AD and BC (4) AD o BC nksuksa esa

ALLEN
30. In figure, four rods AB, BC, CD and DA have mass 30. fp= esa pkj NM+kas AB, BC, CD rFkk DA ds nzO;eku Øe'k%
m, 2m, 3m and 4m respectively. The centre of m, 2m, 3m rFkk 4m gAaS lHkh pkjksa NM+kas dk nzO;eku dsUnz gksxk%
mass of all the four rods
C D C
D
1 2 1 2
O O
3 4 3 4
A B A B
(1) lie in region 1 (2) lie in region 2 (1) {ks= 1 esa (2) {ks= 2 esa
(3) lie in region 3 (4) lie at O (3) {ks= 3 esa (4) O ij
31. The current carrying wire and the rod AB are in 31. /kkjkokgh rkj rFkk NM+ AB ,d gh ry esa gAS NM+ rkj ds lekukUrj
the same plane. The rod moves parallel to the wire v osx ds lkFk xfr dj jgh gAS NM+ esa izfs jr fo-ok-c- ds fy,
with a velocity v. Which one of the following
fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa eas ls dkSulk lR; g\ S
statements is true about induced emf in the rod?
i i
A A
v v
B B
(1) End A will be at lower potential with respect
(1) fljk A, fljs B ds lkis{k fuEu foHko ij gksxkA
to B
(2) A and B will be at the same potential (2) A o B nksuksa leku foHko ij gksaxAs
(3) There will be no induced emf in the rod (3) NM+ esa dksbZ fo-ok-c- izfs jr ugha gksxkA
(4) Potential at A will be higher than that at B (4) A dk foHko] B ds foHko ls mPp gksxkA
32. A bullet of mass m moving with velocity u passes 32. u osx ls xfr'khy m æO;eku dh xksyh M = nm æO;eku
through a wooden block of mass M = nm. The okys ydM+h ds CykWd ls xqtjrh gAS CykWd fpdus {kfS rt Q'kZ
block is resting on a smooth horizontal floor. After
ij j[kk gqvk gAS CykWd ls xqtjus ds i'pkr~ xksyh dk osx v gAS
passing through the block the velocity of bullet
CYkkWd ds lkis{k bldk osx gAS
is v. Its velocity relative to block is-
m m
M=nm M=nm
u u
(1 + n)v - u nv - u (1 + n)v - u nv - u
(1) (2) (1) (2)
n n +1 n n +1
nu - v (n + 1) u + v nu - v (n + 1) u + v
(3) (4) (3) (4)
n +1 2n + 1 n +1 2n + 1

ALLEN
33. Blocks A and B are resting on a smooth horizontal 33. fpduh ,oa {kfS rt lrg ij j[ks gq, CykWdksa A o B dks fp= esa n'kkZ;s
surface given equal speeds of 2 m/s in opposite vuqlkj foijhr fn'kk esa 2 m/s leku pky iznku dh tkrh gAS
sense as shown in the figure.
2m/s 2m/s
2m/s 2m/s
4kg 4kg
4kg 4kg
origin (4.5m, 0)
origin (4.5m, 0)
t = 0 ij] CykWdksa dh fLFkfr;k¡ n'kkZ;h x;h gaS] rks t = 3 s ij
At t = 0, the position of blocks are shown, then
the co-ordinates of centre of mass t = 3 s will be nzO;eku dsUnz ds funsZ'kkad gksaxs
(1) (1, 0) (2) (3, 0) (1) (1, 0) (2) (3, 0)
(3) (5, 0) (4) (2.25, 0) (3) (5, 0) (4) (2.25, 0)
34. The natural frequency of the circuit shown in the 34. fp= esa iznf'kZr ifjiFk dh izkd`frd vko`fÙk gS %&
figure is : C C
C C
L L
L L
1 1
(1) (2)
1 1 2p LC 2p 2LC
(1) (2)
2p LC 2p 2LC
2
2 (3) (4) buesa esa dksbZ ugha
(3) (4) None of these 2p LC
2p LC
35. A metal rod of length 2 m is rotating with an 35. 2 m yEch ,d /kkfRod NM+ ] blds ry ds yEcor~ baf xr
angular velocity of 100 rad/s in a plane 0.3 T eku ds pqEcdh; {ks= esa 100 rad/s dks.kh; osx ds lkFk
perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of ?kw.kZu dj jgh gAS NM+ ds fljksa ds chp foHkokUrj gS &
0.3 T. The potential difference between the ends
(1) 30 V (2) 40 V
of the rod is
(3) 60 V (4) 600 V
(1) 30 V (2) 40 V (3) 60 V (4) 600 V
36. Two particles of equal mass have coordinates 36. leku nzO;ekuksa okys nks d.kksa ds funs'Z kkad (2m, 4m, 6m) rFkk
(2m, 4m, 6m) and (6m, 2m, 8m). Of these one particle (6m, 2m, 8m) gASa le; t = 0 ij bu nksuksa esa ls ,d d.k dk
r
( )
has a velocity v = 2iˆ m/s and another particle has
1
r
( )
r
( )
w js d.k dk osx v2 = 2 ˆj m/s gAS
osx v1 = 2iˆ m/s rFkk nl
r
( )
velocity v2 = 2 ˆj m/s at time t = 0. The coordinate le; t = 1 s ij buds nzO;eku dsUnz ds funsZ'kkad gksaxs &
of their centre of mass at time t = 1 s will be
(1) (4m, 4m, 7m) (2) (5m, 4m, 7m)
(1) (4m, 4m, 7m) (2) (5m, 4m, 7m)
(3) (2m, 4m, 6m) (4) (4m, 5m, 4m)
(3) (2m, 4m, 6m) (4) (4m, 5m, 4m)

ALLEN
37. An ideal coil of 10 H is joined in series with a resistance 37. 10 H dh izsj.k dq.Myh] 5 W izfrjks/k rFkk 5 V dh cSVjh ds
of 5 W and a battery of 5 V. 2 s after joining, the lkFk Js.khØe esa la;ksftr dh tkrh gAS la;kstu ds 2 s i'pkr~
current flowing (in ampere) in the circuit will be ifjiFk ls izokfgr /kkjk gS (,Eih;j esa) :
(1) e–1 (2) (1 – e–1) (1) e–1 (2) (1 – e–1)
(3) (1 – e) (4) e (3) (1 – e) (4) e
38. A ball falling freely from a height of 4.9 m, hits 38. 4.9 m Å¡pkbZ ls eqDr :i ls fxj jgh xsan {kfS rt lrg ls
3 3
a horizontal surface at t = 0. If e = , then the ball t = 0 ij Vdjkrh gAS ;fn e = g]S rks xsans ds nwljh ckj lrg
4 4
hit the surface, second time at t = ls Vdjkus dk le; t gksxk &

(1) 1.0 s (2) 1.5 s (3) 2.0 s (4) 3.0 s
(1) 1.0 s (2) 1.5 s (3) 2.0 s (4) 3.0 s
39. A conducting square loop of side l and resistance 39. l Hkqtk ,oa R izfrjks/k okyk ,d pkyd oxkZdkj ywi bldh ,d
R moves in its plane with a uniform velocity v
Hkqtk ds vuqfn'k] ,d leku osx v ds lkFk xfr dj jgk gAS blds
perpendicular to one of its sides. A uniform and
constant magnetic field B exists along the ry ds yEcor~ ,d le:i pqEcdh; {ks= fp= esa n'kkZ;s vuqlkj
perpendicular to the plane of the loop as shown fo|eku gSA ywi esa izsfjr /kkjk gS
in figure. The current induced in the loop is × × × × × ×
× × × × × ×
× × × × × ×
× × × × × × v
v × × × × × ×
× × × × × ×
× × × × × ×
× × × × × ×
Blv Blv
Blv Blv (1) okekorhZ (2) nf{k.kkorhZ
(1) clockwise (2) anticlockwise R R
R R
2Blv 2Blv
(3) anticlockwise (4) zero (3) nf{k.kkorhZ (4) 'kw U;
R R
40. In a transformer, the coefficient of mutual inductance 40. ,d Vªk¡lQkeZj esa izkFkfed rFkk f}rh;d dq.Mfy;ksa ds chp
between the primary and the secondary coil is vU;ksU; izsjdRo 0.2 H gAS tc izkFkfed esa /kkjk 5 A/s ls
0.2 H. When the current changes by 5 A/s in the
primary, the induced emf in the secondary will be ifjofrZr gksrh g]S f}rh;d esa izfs jr fo-ok-c- gS %&
(1) 5 V (2) 1 V (3) 25 V (4) 10 V (1) 5 V (2) 1 V (3) 25 V (4) 10 V
41. A transformer is used to : 41. VªkalQkWeZj dk mi;ksx gksrk gS %

(1) Change the alternating potential
(1) izR;korhZ foHko dks cnyus gsrq
(2) Change the alternating current
(2) izR;korhZ /kkjk dks cnyus gsrq
(3) To prevent the power loss in alternating current
flow (3) izR;korhZ /kkjk izokg esa gksus okyh 'kfDr {k; dks jksdus gsrq
(4) To increase the power of current source (4) /kkjk L=ksr dh 'kfDr c<+kus gsrq

ALLEN
42. In a free space, a rifle of mass M shoots a bullet of 42. eqD r vkdk'k es a ] M nzO ;eku okyh jkbQy }kjk blls D
mass m at a stationary block of mass M distance
D away from it. When the bullet has moved through nwj h ij fLFkr M nzO ;eku ds fLFkj CykW d ij] m nzO ;eku
a distance d towards the block, the centre of mass dh xks yh nkxh tkrh g SA tc xksy h CykW d dh vksj d nwj h
of the bullet-block system is at a distance of
rd tkrh gS] xksy h&CykWd fudk; dk nzO;eku dsUnz ] fdruh
(D - d)m
(1) from the bullet nwj h ij gS &
M+m
md + MD
(2)
M+m
from the block (D - d)m md + MD
(1) xksyh ls (2) CykWd ls
2md + MD M+m M+m
(3) from the block
M+m
2md + MD (D - d) M
(D - d) M (3) CykWd ls (4) xksy h ls
(4) from the bullet M+m M+m
M+m
43. A pendulum consists of a wooden bob of mass m 43. ,d yksyd] m nzO;eku okys ydM+h ds xksyd rFkk l yEckbZ
and a string of length l. A bullet of mass m1 is fired okyh Mksjh ls fufeZr gAS yksyd dh vksj m1 nzO;eku dh xksyh
towards the pendulum with a speed v1 and it emerges v1
v1 osx ds lkFk nkxh tkrh gS vkSj ;g xksyd ls osx ds lkFk
v 3
from the bob with speed 1 . The bob just completes ckgj fudyrh gAS xksyd Å/oZo`Ùk ds vuqfn'k o`Ùk esa xfr iwjh
3
motion along a vertical circle. Then, v1 is ek= djrk gAS rks v1 g&S
O O
m1 v1 m m 1 v1/3 m1 v1 m m1 v1/3
m 3m m 3m
(1) m 5gl (2) 2m 5gl (1) m 5gl (2) 2m 5gl
1 1
1 1
2æ m ö æ m1 ö 2æ m ö æ m1 ö
(3) 3 ç m ÷ 5gl (4) ç ÷ gl (3) 3 ç m ÷ 5gl (4) ç ÷ gl
è 1ø èmø è 1ø èmø
44. Eddy currents are produced when 44. Hk¡oj /kkjk,a mRiUu gksrh gaS] tc fdlh
(1) a metal is kept in varying magnetic field (1) /kkrq dks ifjorZu'khy pqEcdh; {ks= esa j[kk tkrk gAS
(2) a metal is kept in a steady magnetic field (2) /kkrq dks LFkk;h pqEcdh; {ks= esa j[kk tkrk gAS
(3) a circular coil is placed in a magnetic field (3) o`Ùkkdkj dq.Myh dks pqEcdh; {ks= esa j[kk tkrk gS
(4) through a circular coil current is passed (4) o`Ùkkdkj dq.Myh ls /kkjk izokfgr gksrh gS
45. In a gravity free space, a man of mass M standing 45. xq:Ro eqDr vkdk'k esa Q'kZ ls h Å¡pkbZ ij [kM+k gqvk M nzO;eku
at a height h above the floor, throws a ball of mass dk ,d O;fDr] m nzO;eku dh xsan dks u pky ds lkFk lh/kk
m straight down with a speed u. When the ball
uhps dh vksj QaSdrk gAS tc xsan Q'kZ ij igq¡prh gS] O;fDr dh
reaches the floor, the distance of the man above
the floor will be Q'kZ ls nwjh gksxh %&
æ mö æ Mö æ mö æ Mö
(1) h ç 1 + ÷ (2) ç 1 + ÷ h (1) h ç 1 + ÷ (2) ç 1 + ÷ h
è Mø è mø è Mø è mø
m m
(3) h (4) h (3) h (4) h
M M
ALLEN
TOPIC : Surface Chemistry : Adsorption,Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Thermodynamics
46. What will be the mass of one He atom in gram:- 46. ,d He ijek.kq dk xzke esa æO;eku gS :-
(1) 6.64 × 10–24 g (2) 24 × 1023 g (1) 6.64 × 10–24 g (2) 24 × 1023 g
(3) 4.15 × 10–25 g (4) 6.64 × 1024 g (3) 4.15 × 10–25 g (4) 6.64 × 1024 g
47. Number of atoms present in 50 amu of hydrogen is:- 47. gkbMªkt
s u ds 50 amu esa ijek.kqvksa dh la[;k gS :-
(1) 50 (2) 25 (1) 50 (2) 25
(3) 1 (4) None of these (3) 1 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
48. 8g O2 has same number of atoms as that in :- 48. 8g O2 esa ijek.kqvksa dh la[;k fdlds leku gS :-
(1) 14g CO (2) 7g CO (1) 14g CO (2) 7g CO
(3) 11g CO2 (4) 22g CO2 (3) 11g CO2 (4) 22g CO2
49. If LPG cylinder contains mixture of butane and 49. LPG flys.Mj esa mifLFkr C;wVus o vkblks C;wVus ds 1 kg feJ.k
isobutane then the amount of oxygen that would dk ngu djus ds fy, vko';d vkWDlhtu dh ek=k gksxh :-
be required for combustion of 1 kg of it will be:- (1) 1.8 kg (2) 3.58 kg
(1) 1.8 kg (2) 3.58 kg (3) 2.7 kg (4) 4.5 kg (3) 2.7 kg (4) 4.5 kg
50. 24 g Mg metal reacts with water, then how many 50. 24 g Mg /kkrq ty ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k djrh gS rks gkbMªkstu
moles of H2 will be liberated :- ds fdrus eksy cusaxs :-
(1) 2 mol (2) 4 mol (3) 3 mol (4) 1 mol (1) 2 eksy (2) 4 eksy (3) 3 eksy (4) 1 eksy
51. How many moles of potassium chlorate to be 51. ikVS fs 'k;e DyksjVs ds fdrus eksy xeZ djus ij] STP ij 5.6 yhVj
heated to produce 5.6 litre oxygen at STP ? vkWDlhtu mRiUu djsax\ s
1 1
(1) mol (2) 6 mol (1) eksy (2) 6 eksy
6 6
1 1
(3) 18 mol (4) mol (3) 18 eksy (4) eksy
18 18
52. The equivalent weight of a metal is 4.5 and the 52. ,d /kkrq dk rqY;kadh Hkkj 4.5 gS o blds DyksjkbM dk v.kqHkkj
molecular weight of its chloride is 80. The atomic 80 gAS /kkrq dk ijek.kq Hkkj gS :-
weight of the metal is :-
(1) 18 (2) 9 (3) 4.5 (4) 36 (1) 18 (2) 9 (3) 4.5 (4) 36
53. Which has minimum number of atoms of oxygen? 53. fdlesa vkWDlhtu ijek.kqvksa dh la[;k lcls de g\
S
(1) 10 ml H2O(l) (1) 10 ml H2O(l)
(2) 0.1 mol of V2O5(s) (2) V2O5(s) ds 0.1 eksy
(3) 12 gm O3(g) (3) 12 xzke O3(g)
(4) 12.04 × 1022 molecules of CO2 (4) 12.04 × 1022 v.kq CO2
54. In air contains 21% O 2 by volume. The 54. ;fn gok esa vkWDlhtu xSl dqy vk;ru dk 21% gS] rks STP
number of atoms of oxygen per litre of air at ifjfLFkfr;kas eas izfr yhVj gok esa vkWDlhtu ds ijek.kqvksa dh
STP is :- la[;k Kkr djsa s :-
(1) 3.8 × 10 23 (2) 0.38 × 10 23 (1) 3.8 × 10 23 (2) 0.38 × 10 23
(3) 38 × 1023 (4) 1.12 × 10 22 (3) 38 × 1023 (4) 1.12 × 10 22
ALLEN
55. An organic compound on analysis was found to 55. ,d dkcZfud ;kSfxd dk fo'ys"k.k djus ij lYQj dk
contain 0.032 % of sulphur. If its molecule contain 0.032 % izkIr gksrk gS rks ;kSfxd dk v.kq Hkkj D;k gksxk ;fn
two sulphur atoms, then the molecular mass of the izfr v.kq esa lYQj ds nks ijek.kq gSa :-
compound will be :-
(1) 200 (2) 2000 (3) 100000 (4) 200000 (1) 200 (2) 2000 (3) 100000 (4) 200000
56. An amount of 0.3 mole of SrCl 2 is mixed with 56. SrCl2 ds 0.3 eksy dks K3PO4 ds 0.2 eksy ls feykdj
0.2 mole of K3PO4. The maximum KCl which may vfHkfØ;k djkbZ tkrh gAS KCl ds izkIr vf/kdre eksyksa dh la[;k
form will be :- gksxh :-
(1) 0.6 (2) 0.5 (3) 0.3 (4) 0.1 (1) 0.6 (2) 0.5 (3) 0.3 (4) 0.1
57. Which one of the following will have minimum 57. fuEu eas ls fdlesa U;wure ijek.kq la[;k gksxh ?
number of atoms ? (1) 8 g vkWDlhtu
(1) 8 g oxygen
(2) 1 g gkbMªkstu
(2) 1 g hydrogen
(3) 1.5 mol nitrogen (3) 1.5 eksy ukbVªkstu
(4) 5.6 L He at NTP (4) NTP ij 5.6 L He
58. How many number of g-molecule of O2 will be 58. 6.02 × 1024 CO2 v.kqvksa esa O2 ds fdrus g-v.kq mifLFkr
present in 6.02 × 1024 molecules of CO2 ? gksaxs ?
(1) 10 (2) 5 (1) 10 (2) 5
(3) 20 (4) 6.02 × 10 23 (3) 20 (4) 6.02 × 10 23
59. Haemoglobin contains 0.334% of Fe by weight. 59. gheksXyksfcu esa Hkkjkuqlkj 0.334% Fe mifLFkr gSA gheksXyksfcu
The molecular weight of haemoglobin is dk v.kqHkkj yxHkx 67200 gS vr% blds 1 v.kq esa mifLFkr Fe
aproximately 67200. The number of iron atoms
ijek.kqvksa dh la[;k Kkr djks :-
present in one molecule of haemoglobin is :-
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 6 (3) 4 (4) 6
60. When a metal is burnt its weight is increased by 60. tc fdlh /kkrq dk ngu djrs gaS rks blds Hkkj esa 24% dh o`f¼
24%, the equivalent weight of metal is :- gks tkrh gS vr% /kkrq dk rqY;kadh Hkkj Kkr djks ?
100 100
(1) 24 (2) (1) 24 (2)
3 3
(3) 25 (4) 8 (3) 25 (4) 8
61. Which statement is correct regarding adsorption:- 61. vf/k'kks"k.k ds lanHkZ esa dkSulk dFku lgh gS :-
(1) DH is always +ve (1) DH lno S +ve gksrk gSA
(2) DG is always +ve (2) DG lnSo +ve gksrk gAS
(3) TDS is always –ve (3) TDS lnSo –ve gksrk gAS
(4) All are correct (4) lHkh lgh gaSA
62. Which of the following characteristics is not 62. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk xq.k HkkfS rd vf/k'kks"k.k ds fy;s lgh ugha gS :-
correct for physical adsorption :-
(1) mfpr ifjfLFkfr;ksa esa vf/k'kks"k.k Lor% gAS
(1) Adsorption is spontaneous at suitable
conditions (2) ;g O;ogkj esa fof'k"V ugha gksrk gAS
(2) It is not specific in nature
(3) ;g izd`fr esa mRØe.kh; gAS
(3) It is reversible in nature
(4) Degree of adsorption increases with temperature (4) vf/k'kks"k.k dh ek=k rki ds lkFk c<+rh gAS
ALLEN
63. Point out the false statement :- 63. xyr dFku pqfu;s :-
(1) Brownian movement and Tyndall effect is (1) czkmfu;u xfr rFkk fV.My izHkko dksykWbMh feJ.kksa }kjk n'kkZ;s
shown by colloidal systems tkrs gaAS
(2) Gold number is a measure of the protective (2) Lo.kZ la [;k] æoLusgh dksykWbMkas dh j{k.k {kerk dk
power of a lyophilic colloid
eki gAS
(3) The colloidal mixture of a liquid in liquid is
(3) æo dk æo esa dksykW b Mh feJ.k ^tSy * dgykrk
called ‘gel’
(4) Hardy-Schulze rule is related with coagulation gSA
power. (4) gkMhZ&'kqYt fu;e LdUnu {kerk ls lEcfU/kr gSA
64. Gold number of a lyophilic sol is such a property 64. æoLusgh lWky dh Lo.kZ la [;k ,d ,slk xq.k gS fd&
that :
(1) bldk eku vf/kd rks is I Vhd` r {kerk Hkh vf/kd
(1) The larger its value, the greater is the peptizing
power
gksxhA
(2) The lower its value, the greater is the peptizing (2) bldk eku de rks isIVhd`r {kerk vf/kd gksxhA
power
(3) The lower its value, the greater is the protecting (3) bldk eku de rks j{k.k {kerk vf/kd gksxhA
power (4) bldk eku vf/kd rks j{k.k {kerk Hkh vf/kd
(4) The larger its value, the greater is the protecting gksxhA
power
65. Which of following is incorrect regarding physical 65. HkkSfrd vf/k'kks"k.k ds fy, fuEu esa ls dkSulk vlR; gS ?
adsorpton ? (1) 'kh?kz æfor gksus okyh xl
S as vklkuh ls vf/k'kksf"kr gksrh gaAS
(1) More easily liquefiable gases are adsorbed
easily (2) HkkfS rd vf/k'kks"k.k cgqijrh; gksrk gSA
(2) Physical adsorption is multilayer (3) vf/k'kks"k.k dh mG"ek (DHadsorption) de rFkk /kukRed
(3) Enthalpy of adsorption (DHadsorption) is low and gksrh gAS
positive
(4) It occurs because of vander waal forces (4) ;g ok.Mjoky cyksa ds dkj.k gksrk gAS
66. Which of following involves heterogeneous 66. fuEu esa ls fdlesa fo"kekaxh mRizsj.k gS ?
catalysis ?
1 CuCl (s)
(1) 2HCl(g) + O2 (g) ¾¾¾¾ 2
®Cl2( g) + H2O( l)
1 CuCl (s) 2
(1) 2HCl(g) + O2 (g) ¾¾¾¾
2
®Cl2( g) + H2O( l)
2
Pt (s)
Pt (s)
(2) 4NH 3 (g) + 5O 2 (g) ¾¾ ¾® 4NO ( g ) + 6H 2 O ( l )
(2) 4NH 3 (g) + 5O 2 (g) ¾¾ ¾® 4NO ( g ) + 6H 2 O ( l )
Pt (s)
Pt (s)
(3) 2SO2(g) ¾¾¾ ® 2SO3(g)
(3) 2SO2(g) ¾¾¾ ® 2SO3(g)
(4) All of these (4) buesa ls lHkh
67. The stability of lyophilic colloids is due to : 67. nzoLusgh dksykWbMksa dk LFkkf;Ro gS :
(1) charge on their particles (1) muds d.kksa ij vkos'k ds dkj.k
(2) a layer of dispersion medium on their particles (2) muds d.kksa ij ifj{ksi.k ek/;e dh ijr ds dkj.k
(3) the smaller size of their particles (3) muds d.kksa ds NksVs vkdkj ds dkj.k
(4) the large size of their particles (4) muds d.kksa ds cMs+ vkdkj ds dkj.k

ALLEN
68. Which of the following is incorrect match 68. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk feyku vlR; gS \
(1) physisorption - multilayered (1) HkkSfrd vf/k'kks"k.k & cgqijrh;
(2) Active Adsorption-Requires activation energy (2) lfØ; vf/k'kks"k.k - lfØ;.k ÅtkZ vko';d gAS
(3) Lyophobic colloid - charge is present (3) nzo fojks/kh dksykWbM & vkos'k mifLFkr gksrk gAS
(4) Lyophilic colloid - less hydration (4) nzo Lusgh dksykWbM & de ty ;kstu
69. Which of the following is an example of 69. fuEu esa ls dkSulk /kukosf'kr dksyWkbM dk mnkgj.k gAS
positively charged colloidal solution ?
M M
M M (1) 100ml AgNO3 + 100ml KI
(1) 100ml AgNO3 + 100ml KI 10 10
10 10
M M
M M (2) 100ml AgNO3 + 100ml KI
(2) 100ml AgNO3 + 100ml KI 10 20
10 20
M M M M
(3) 100ml AgNO3 + 100ml KI (3) 100ml AgNO3 + 100ml KI
20 10 20 10
M M M M
(4) 100ml AgNO3 + 100ml KI (4) 100ml AgNO3 + 100ml KI
20 20 20 20
70. Lyophilic colloidal solution can be coagulated 70. nzzoLusgh dksyWkbMh foy;u dks Ldafnr fd;k tk ldrk gS &
by– (1) fo|qr vi?kV~; dh vf/kd lkanzrk feykdj
(1) addition of high concentration of electrolyte (2) C2H5OH tl S s foyk;d dks feykdj
(2) By addition of solvent like C2H5OH
(3) ty dks vkf/kD; esa feykdj
(3) By addition of excess H2O
(4) Both (1) & (2) correct (4) nksuks (1) vksj (2) lgh gaAS
71. A freshly prepared Fe(OH)3 precipitate is peptized 71. Fe(OH)3 ds rktk cus vo{ksi esa FeCl3 foy;u feykus ij bls
by adding FeCl 3 solution. The charge on the isIVhd`r fd;k tkrk gSAdksykWbMh d.kkas ij vkos'k] fuEu esa ls
colloidal particle is due to preferential adsorption fdlds vf/k'kks"k.k ls vkrk gS :-
of :-
(1) Cl– vk;u (2) Fe+++ vk;u
(1) Cl– ions (2) Fe+++ ions
(3) OH– ions (4) None of these (3) OH– vk;u (4) bueas ls dksbZ ugha
72. For the coagulation of 100 ml of ferric hydroxide 72. 100 ml Qsfjd gkbMªkW DlkbM ds Ldanu ds fy;s 10 ml
sol. 10 ml of 0.5 M KCl is required. What is the 0.5 M KCl vko';d g S rks KCl dk Lda n u eku D;k
coagulation value of KCl ? gksxk ?
(1) 5 (2) 10 (1) 5 (2) 10
(3) 100 (4) 50 (3) 100 (4) 50
73. Out of the following which is not the set of 73. fuEu esa ls dkSulk lewg xgu xq.k/keksZ dk ugha gS :-
intensive properties :-
(1) DoFkukad] pH, eksyjrk
(1) Boiling point, pH, molarity
(2) vk;ru] {ks=Qy] yEckbZ
(2) Volume, area, length
(3) Freezing point, boiling point, molar volume (3) xyukad] DoFkukad] eksyj vk;ru
(4) Molarity, molality, density (4) eksyjrk] eksyyrk] ?kuRo
ALLEN
74. Consider the following chemical reactions 74. nh xbZ vfHkfØ;kvksa esa Kkr djks
I : CaC2(s) + 2H2O(l) ® Ca(OH)2(s) + C2H2(g) I : CaC2(s) + 2H2O(l) ® Ca(OH)2(s) + C2H2(g)
II : CaCO3(s) ® CaO(s) + CO2(g) II : CaCO3(s) ® CaO(s) + CO2(g)
III : 2Fe(s) + 3H2O(g) ® Fe2O3(s) + 3H 2(g) III : 2Fe(s) + 3H2O(g) ® Fe2O3(s) + 3H 2(g)
work is done by the system in the cases of :- fd fdlesa fudk; }kjk dk;Z fd;k tkrk gS :-
(1) I, II (2) I, II, III (1) I, II (2) I, II, III
(3) I only (4) II only (3) ds oy I (4) dsoy II
75. In an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, the 75. vkn'kZ xSl ds lerkih; izlkj ds nkjS ku fd;k x;k dk;Z fdlds
work done is equal to- leku gksxk&
(1) Heat released out of the system (1) fudk; }kjk mRlftZr Å"ek
(2) Heat absorbed by the system (2) fudk; }kjk vo'kksf"kr Å"ek
(3) Zero (3) 'kw U;
(4) None of them (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
76. Which of the following is correct option for free 76. :¼ks"e ifjfLFkfr;ksa eas vkn'kZ xl
S ds eqDr izlkj ds fy, fuEu
expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic esa ls lgh dFku g\ S
condition?
(1) q = 0, DT < 0, W ¹ 0
(1) q = 0, DT < 0, W ¹ 0
(2) q = 0, DT ¹ 0, W = 0
(2) q = 0, DT ¹ 0, W = 0
(3) q ¹ 0, DT = 0, W = 0 (3) q ¹ 0, DT = 0, W = 0
(4) q = 0, DT = 0, W = 0 (4) q = 0, DT = 0, W = 0
77. Which of the following reaction is expected never 77. fuEu esa ls dkuS lh vfHkfØ;k dHkh Hkh Lor% ugha gks ldrh
to be spontaneous :- gS :-
(1) 2O3(g) ® 3O2(g) DH = –ve, DS = +ve (1) 2O3(g) ® 3O2(g) DH = –ve, DS = +ve
(2) Mg (s) + H2(g) ® MgH2 DH = –ve, DS = –ve (2) Mg (s) + H2(g) ® MgH2 DH = –ve, DS = –ve
(3) Br2(l) ® Br2(g) DH = +ve, DS = +ve (3) Br2(l) ® Br2(g) DH = +ve, DS = +ve
(4) 2Ag(l) + 3N2(g) ® 2AgN3 DH = +ve, DS = –ve (4) 2Ag(l) + 3N2(g) ® 2AgN3 DH = +ve, DS = –ve
78. 2 mole of an ideal gas at 27°C expands isothermally 78. 27°C rki ij 2 eksy vkn'kZ xSl 4 yhVj ls 40 yhVj rd
and reversibly from a volume of 4 lit. to 40 lit. The lerkih o mRØe.kh; :i ls izlkj djrh gAS xSl }kjk fd;k x;k
work done (in kJ) by the gas is :- dk;Z (kJ esa) gS :-
(1) w = –28.72 kJ (2) w = –11.488 kJ (1) w = –28.72 kJ (2) w = –11.488 kJ
(3) w = –5.736 kJ (4) w = –4.988 kJ (3) w = –5.736 kJ (4) w = –4.988 kJ
79. What is the change in internal energy when a gas 79. ,d xl S ckg~; nkc 1520 VkWj ds izHkko esa 377 ml
contracts from 377 ml to 177 ml under a constant ls 177 ml rd ladqfpr gksrh gS rFkk lkFk&lkFk blls
pressure of 1520 torr. While at the same time being 124 J Å"ek mRlftZr gksrh gAS xSl dh vkUrfjd ÅtkZ
cooled by removing 124 J heat ? esa gksus okyk ifjorZu gS :-
(1) 40.52 J (2) –83.48 J (1) 40.52 J (2) –83.48 J
(3) –248 J (4) None of these (3) –248 J (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

ALLEN
80. For the reaction FeCO3(s) ¾® FeO(s) + CO2(g) 80. vfHkfØ;k FeCO 3 (s) ¾® FeO(s) + CO 2 (g)
DH = 82.8 kJ at 25°C, what is DE at 25°C ? DH = 82.8 kJ (25°C ij) ds fy, DE dk eku g\
S
(1) 82.8 kJ (2) 80.32 kJ (1) 82.8 kJ (2) 80.32 kJ
(3) –2394.77 kJ (4) 85.28 kJ (3) –2394.77 kJ (4) 85.28 kJ
81. Which of the following will have zero standard 81. fuEu esa ls fdldk ekud fuekZ.k ,UFkSYih dk eku 'kwU; gksxk\
molar enthalpy of formation ?
(1) P(s) (2) P(g) (3) P4(g) (4) Na(g)
(1) P(s) (2) P(g) (3) P4(g) (4) Na(g)
82. The standard enthalpy of formation of NH3(g) is 82. NH3(g) dh ekud fuekZ.k Å"ek –91.8 kJ mol–1 gAS vr%
– 91.8 kJ mol –1. The amount of heat required to 34 g NH3(g) dks mlds vo;oh rRoksa N2 rFkk H2 esa fo?kfVr
decompose 34 g of NH3(g) into its component djus ds fy, vko';d Å"ek gksxh :-
elements N2, H2 will be :-
(1) 183.6 kJ (2) 91.8 kJ
(1) 183.6 kJ (2) 91.8 kJ
(3) 45.9 kJ (4) 137.7 kJ (3) 45.9 kJ (4) 137.7 kJ
83. For the reaction X2Y4(l) ¾® 2XY2(g) at 300 K the 83. vfHkfØ;k X2Y4(l) ¾® 2XY2(g) ds fy, 300 K rki ij
values of DU and DS are 2 kcal and DU, DS dk eku Øe'k% 2 kcal vk S j
20 cal K–1 respectively. The value of DG for the 20 cal K–1 gS vr% vfHkfØ;k ds fy, DG dk eku gksxk%
reaction is :-
(1) –3400 cal (2) 3400 cal
(1) –3400 cal (2) 3400 cal
(3) –2800 cal (4) 2000 cal (3) –2800 cal (4) 2000 cal
84. Combustion of glucose takes place according to 84. fuEu vfHkfØ;k ds vuqlkj Xywdkst dk ngu gksrk gS &
the equation, C6H12O6 + 6O2 ® 6CO 2 + 6H2O, DH =–72 kcal
C6H12O6 + 6O2 ® 6CO 2 + 6H2O, DH =–72 kcal
How much energy will be released by combustion vr% 160 g Xywdkst ds ngu ls mRlftZr ÅtkZ gksxh &
of 160 g of glucose (1) 0.064 kcal (2) 0.64 kcal
(1) 0.064 kcal (2) 0.64 kcal
(3) 6.4 kcal (4) 64 kcal
(3) 6.4 kcal (4) 64 kcal
85. The heat of combustion of C4H10 is –2878 kJ mol–1. If 85. C4H10 dh ngu dh Å"ek –2878 kJ mol–1 gS rFkk CO2, H2O
the heats of formation of CO 2 and H 2 O are dh fuekZ . k Å"ek Øe'k% –393.5 kJ mol –1 vk S j
–393.5 kJ mol–1 and –285.8 kJ mol–1 then the heat –285.8 kJ mol–1 gAS vr% C4H10 dh laHkou Å"ek dk eku
of formation of C4 H10 is :- gksxk \
(1) –125.0 kJ mol–1 (2) 126.75 kJ mol–1 (1) –125.0 kJ mol–1 (2) 126.75 kJ mol–1
(3) –402.5 kJ mol –1
(4) 402.5 kJ mol –1
(3) –402.5 kJ mol–1 (4) 402.5 kJ mol –1
86. For the reaction 86. 2Cl (g) ® Cl2(g)
2Cl(g) ® Cl2(g)
fuEu vfHkfØ;k ds fy, DH o DS dk fpUg D;k gksxk ?
What are the sign of DH and DS ?
(1) DH > 0 , DS > 0
(1) DH > 0 , DS > 0
(2) DH < 0 , DS < 0
(2) DH < 0 , DS < 0
(3) DH > 0 , DS < 0
(3) DH > 0 , DS < 0
(4) DH < 0 , DS > 0 (4) DH < 0 , DS > 0

ALLEN
87 Na(s) ¾¾® Na(g), the heat of reaction is called 87. vfHkfØ;k Na(s) dh Å"ek dgykrh g&S
¾¾® Na(g)
as
(1) ok"iu dh Å"ek
(1) Heat of vaporisation
(2) Heat of atomisation (2) ijek.ohdj.k dh Å"ek
(3) Heat of sublimation (3) Å/oZikru dh Å"ek
(4) Both (2) and (3) (4) 2 rFkk 3 nksuksa
88. The heat of neutralization for 2 moles of LiOH and 88. 25°C rki ij 2 eks y LiOH o 1 eks y H 2 SO 4 ds
1 mole of H2SO4 at 25°C is –69.6 KJ. The heat of
mnklhuhdj.k dh Å"ek –69.6 KJ mol–1 gAS LiOH dh
ionisation of LiOH will be nearly :-
vk;uhdj.k dh Å"ek yxHkx D;k gksxh :-
(1) 22.5 KJ mol–1
(1) 22.5 KJ mol–1
(2) 90 KJ mol–1
(2) 90 KJ mol–1
(3) 45 KJ mol–1 (3) 45 KJ mol–1
(4) 33.6 KJ mol–1 (4) 33.6 KJ mol–1
89. The following reactions are given : 89. fuEu vfHkfØ;k nh x;h gS :
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) ® CO2(g)+2H2O(g) ; DH = – x ...(1) CH4(g) + 2O2(g) ® CO2(g)+2H2O(g) ; DH = – x ...(1)
C(s) + O2(g) ® CO2(g) ; DH = – y ...(2) C(s) + O2(g) ® CO2(g) ; DH = – y ...(2)
1 1
H2(g) + O 2(g) ® H2O(g) ; DH = – z ...(3) H2(g) + O 2(g) ® H2O(g) ; DH = – z ...(3)
2 2
Calculate the heat of formation of CH4 ? CH4 dh fuekZ.k dh Å"ek Kkr djks ?
(1) x + y + z (1) x + y + z
(2) y + 2z – x (2) y + 2z – x
(3) x – y – 2z (3) x – y – 2z
(4) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
(4) none of the above
90. From the following bond energies: 90. fuEu dh cU/k ÅtkZ,¡ :
H–H bond energy = 420 KJ mol–1 H–H dh ca/k ÅtkZ = 420 KJ mol–1
CºC bond energy = 601 KJ mol–1 CºC dh ca/k ÅtkZ = 601 KJ mol–1
C-C bond energy = 340 KJ mol–1 C-C dh ca/k ÅtkZ = 340 KJ mol–1
C-H bond energy = 425 KJ mol–1 C-H dh ca/k ÅtkZ = 425 KJ mol–1
Enthalpy change for the reaction : rks vfHkfØ;k :
C2H2 + 2H2 ® C2H6 C2H2 + 2H2 ® C2H6 dh ,UFkYS ih ifjorZu g&
S
(1) –599 KJ mol–1 (1) –599 kJ mol–1
(2) –580 KJ mol–1 (2) –580 kJ mol–1
(3) –625 kJ mol–1
(3) –625 KJ mol–1
(4) –325 kJ mol–1
(4) –325 KJ mol–1

ALLEN
TOPIC : Genetics-II, Molecular basis of Inheritance, Biology and Human Welfare (Domestication of Plants),
Cell Structure and Function, Cell division: Cell cycle, mitosis, meiosis and their significance.
91. Which of following organelle is not present in almost 91. fuEu esa ls dkSu lk dks'khdka x vf/kdka'kr% lHkh ikniksa dh
all plant cells :- dksf'kdkvksa esa mifLFkr ugha gksrk gS :-
(1) Vacoule (2) Plastid (1) jhfDrdk (2) yod
(3) Mitochondria (4) Centriols (3) ekbVksdksUMªh;k (4) rkjddsUæ
92. The cell wall of a young plant cell, the ....."A"..... 92. uo ikni dksf'kdk dh dksf'kdk fHkfÙk esa fLFkr ....."A"..... esa
is capable of growth, which gradually diminishes o`f¼ dh {kerk gksrh g]S tks dksf'kdk dh ifjiDork ds lkFk ?kVrh
as the cell mature and the ....."B"..... is formed on tkrh gS o blds lkFk dksf'kdk ds Hkhrj dh rjQ ....."B".....
the inner side of the cell. dk fuekZ.k gksus yxrk gAS
Choose the correct word for "A" and "B" "A" o "B" ds fy, Øe'k% l gh 'kCnks a dk p;u
respectively :- dhft;s :-
(1) Secondary wall, Tertiary wall (1) f}rh;d fHkfÙk] r`rh;d fHkfÙk
(2) Primary wall, Secondary wall (2) izkFkfed fHkfÙk] f}rh;d fHkfÙk
(3) Secondary wall, Primary wall (3) f}rh;d fHkfÙk] izkFkfed fHkfÙk
(4) Tertiary wall, Secondary wall (4) r`rh;d fHkfÙk] f}rh;d fHkfÙk
93. Which one is the continuous with outer membrane 93. dsUæd dh ckgjh f>Yyh ds lkFk vuojr dkSu tqM+k gksrk gS :-
of nucleus:-
(1) Golgibody (2) SER (1) xkWYthdk; (2) SER
(3) RER (4) Lysosome (3) RER (4) ykblkslkse
94. If A cell have 40 picogram DNA in 20 94. ;fn ,d dksf'kdk izkQ
s st I esa 40 fidksxzke DNA 20 xq.klw=ksa
chromosomes at prophase I then what should be esa gS rks ;qXed esa fdruk DNA vkSj xq.klw=ksa dh la[;k Øe'k%
the amount of DNA and chromosome number in
a gamete respectively :- D;k gksxh :-
(1) 20,20 (2) 10,20 (1) 20,20 (2) 10,20
(3) 20,10 (4) 10,10 (3) 20,10 (4) 10,10
95. Crossing over take place in which phase of 95. v/kZlw=h foHkktu dh fdl voLFkk esa thu fofue; gksrk gS :-
meiosis :-
(1) ysIVksVhu esa (2) tk;xksVhu esa
(1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene (3) isdhVhu esa (4) fMIyksVhu esa
96. Homologus chromosomes are separate in which 96. v/kZlw=h foHkktu dh fdl voLFkk esa letkr xq.klw = i`Fkd
phase of meiosis :- gksrs gSa :-
(1) Anaphase I (2) Anaphase II (1) ,ukQst I esa (2) ,ukQst II esa
(3) prophase I (4) Metaphase II (3) izkQ s t
s I esa (4) esVkQst II esa
97. Which one is correct statement for lysosome:- 97. ykblkslkse ds fy, dkSulk ,d lR; dFku gS :-
(1) Membrane less cell organells (1) f>Yyh jfgr dksf'kdkax
(2) It have only protease enzyme (2) blesa dsoy izksVh,t ,Utkbe gksrs gS
(3) It is packed by ER (3) bldh id S sthax ER esa gksrh gAS
(4) It have low pH than cytoplasm (4) blesa dksf'kdk æO; ls de pH gksrh gS
ALLEN
98. Identify the given cells :- 98. nh xbZ dksf'kdkvksa dks igpkfu, :-
(A) (B) (A) (B)

(1) A-RBC B-nerve cell (1) A-RBC B-raf=dk dksf'kdk
(2) A-WBC B-nerve cell (2) A-WBC B-raf=dk dksf'kdk
(3) A-WBC B-Trachied cell (3) A-WBC B-okfgfudk dksf'kdk
(4) A-RBC B-Trachied cell (4) A-RBC B-okfgfudk dksf'kdk
99. ER, Golgicomplex, lysosomes and vacuoles are 99. ER, xkWYthdk;] y;udk; o jl/kkuh dks vr% f>fYydk ra=
includes in endomembrane system because. ds varxZr j[krs gaS D;ksfd :-
(1) Their Functions are similar (1) buds dk;Z leku gksrs gaAS
(2) Their structures are same
(2) budh lajpuk leku gksrh gAS
(3) Their functions are co-ordinated
(4) Golgi complex, ER and vacuoles are (3) buds dk;Z ,d nwljs ls tqM+s jgrs gAS
originated from the lysosome (4) xkWYthdk;] ER o jl/kkuh] y;udk; ls mRiUu gksrs gaSA
100. D 100. D
B B
A A
C C
Identify the marked cell organells :- fpUghr dksf'kdkaxks dks igpkfu, :-

A B C D
A B C D
(1) Centriol Ribosome SER Nucleolus
(1) rkjd dsUæ jkbckslkse SER dsfUædk
(2) Ribosome Ribosome SER Centriol (2) jkbckslkse jkbckslkse SER rkjd dsUæ
(3) Mitochondria Centriol RER Golgi body (3) ekbVªkd
s ksfUMª;k rkjd dsUæ RER xkWYthdk;
(4) RER Ribosome SER Nucleolus (4) RER jkbckslkse SER dsfUædk
101. Which of the following pair of organells contain 101. fuEu esa ls dkSulk dksf'kdkax ;qXe esa jkbckslkse feyrk gS &
ribosome ? (1) xkYthdkW; rFkk lw=df.kdk
(1) Golgi body and mitochondria (2) ykblkslkse rFkk LQksjkslkse
(2) Lysosome and sphaerosome
(3) DyksjksIykLV rFkk ekbVksdkWUMªh;k
(3) Chloroplast and mitochondria
(4) Vacuole and ER (4) fjfDrdk rFkk ER

ALLEN
102. Dissolution of Synaptonemal complex occurs in 102. izkQ
s st I dh fdl voLFkk esa flusIVksuhey lfEeJ dk fo?kVu
which phase of prophase I ? gks tkrk gS :-
(1) Zygotene (2) Leptotene (1) tk;xksVhu esa (2) fyIVksVhu esa
(3) Dikinesis (4) Diplotene (3) Mk;dkbusfll esa (4) fMIyksVhu esa
103. If the centromere is situated close to its end 103. ;fn xq . klw = fcUnq fljs ds lehi fLFkr gks ftlls ,d
forming one extremely short and one very long vR;f/kd NksVh ,oa ,d vR;f/kd yEch Hkqtk cu tkrh g]S ,slk
arm, the chromosome is :- xq.klw= dgykrk gS :-
(1) Telocentric (2) Submetacentric (1) vardsUnzh (2) mie/; dsUnzh
(3) Acrocentric (4) Metacentric (3) vxzdsUnzh (4) e/; dsUnzh
104. The structure that are formed by stacking of 104. gfjr yod esa piVh f>Yyh ;qDr Fky
S huqek] lajpukvksa ds <sj dks
organised flattened membranous sacs in the D;k dgrs gaS:-
chloroplasts are :-
(1) LVªksek iêfydk (2) LVªksek
(1) Stroma lamella (2) Stroma
(3) Cristae (4) Grana (3) fØLVh (4) xzsuk
105. It is said that the one cycle of cell division in human 105. ,slk dgk tkrk gS fd ekuo dh dksf'kdk esa dksf'kdk foHkktu
cells(eukaryotic cells) takes 24 hours. Which phase dk ,d pØ iw.kZ gksus esa 24 ?kaVs yxrs gAS vkids vuqlkj dksf'kdk
of the cycle, do you think occupies the maximum pØ dh fdl voLFkk esa lcls T;knk le; O;rhr gksrk gS ?
part of cell cycle ?
(1) izksQst (2) bUVjQst
(1) Prophase (2) Interphase
(3) Anaphase (4) Metaphase (3) ,ukQst (4) esVkQst
106. In germinating seeds, fatty acids are degraded 106. vadqfjr chtksa esa olh; vEyksa dk fo[kaMu fdlesa gksrk gS :-
exclusively in the :- (1) ijvkWDlhlkse (2) lw=df.kdk
(1) Peroxisome (2) Mitochondria
(3) Spherosome (4) Glyoxysomes (3) LQsjkslkse (4) XyksbvkWDlhlkse
107. The core of a cilium or flagellum composed of 107. lhfy;k vFkok ¶ySftyk dh dksj dk fuekZ.k lw{eufydkvksa
microtubules is called :- ls gksrk gS; bldks dgrs gSa :-
(1) Blepharoplast (2) Axonema (1) CyhQsjksIykLV (2) ,Xtksuhek (v{klw=)
(3) Microfilament (4) Chromatin (3) lw{erUrq (4) Øksefs Vu
108. The lampbrush chromosomes is observed during 108. ySEicz'k xq.klw= v/kZlw=h foHkktu dh fdl izkoLFkk ds nkjS ku
which stage of meiosis :- fn[kkbZ nsrk gS :-
(1) Pachytene (2) Diplotene (1) LFkwyiê (2) f}iê
(3) Diakinesis (4) Zygotene (3) ikjxfrØe (4) ;qX eiê
109. Identify structure A, B and C :- 109. lajpuk A, B rFkk C dh igpku djks :-
COOH COOH COOH COOH COOH COOH
H–C–NH2 H–C–NH2 H–C–NH2 H–C–NH2 H–C–NH2 H–C–NH2
H CH3 CH2OH H CH3 CH2OH
(A) (B) (C) (A) (B) (C)
Option:-
fodYi :-
(A) (B) (C)
(A) (B) (C)
(1) Alanine Serine Valine (1) ,ysuhu lhjhu osyhu
(2) Glycine Serine Alanine (2) Xykblhu lhjhu ,ysuhu
(3) Glycine Alanine Serine (3) Xykblhu ,ysuhu lhjhu
(4) Glycine Alanine Valine (4) Xykblhu ,ysuhu osyhu
ALLEN
110. In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded, 17% 110. leqnzh vfpZu ds DNA esa ] tks f}dqaMfyr gksrk gS] 17% csl
of the bases were shown to be cytosine. The lk;Vksflu ds fn[kk, x, bl DNA esa vU; rhu cslksa dh
percentages of the other three bases expected to be izR;kf'kr izfr'krrk D;k gksxh\
present in this DNA are :-
(1) G 17%, A 16.5%, T 32.5%
(1) G 17%, A 16.5%, T 32.5%
(2) G 17%, A 33%, T 33%
(2) G 17%, A 33%, T 33%
(3) G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5% (3) G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5%
(4) G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5% (4) G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5%
111. Which one of the following is a non - reducing 111. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk ,d vu&vipk;d dkcksZgkbMsªV g\
S
carbohydrate ? (1) ekYVkst (2) lq Økst
(1) Maltose (2) Sucrose
(3) Lactose (4) Ribose (3) yDS Vkst (4) jkbckstÛ
112. Which of the following pair is incorrectly matched? 112. fuEu esa ls dkSulk tksM+k xyr feyku dj jgk gS\
(1) Purines - Adenine and Guanine (1) I;wjhu - ,sMus hu vkjS Xokuhu
(2) Pyrimidines - Cytosine and Uracil (2) fifjfeMhu - lkbVksflu vkjS ;wjfs ly
(3) Nucleosides - Cytosine and Uridine (3) U;wfDy;kslkbM - lkbVksflu rFkk ;wfjfMu
(4) DNA - Genetic macromolecule (4) DNA - vkuqoaf'kd o`grv.kq
113. Read the given statements and select the option that 113. fn;s x;s dFkuksa dk /;kuiwoZd v/;;u djrs gq;s mUgs fn;s x;s
correctly sorts these with respect to X and Y in the vkjs[k esa X o Y ds lUnHkZ esa vyx&vyx NkfV;s&
given flow chart :-
Living tissue thfor Ård
Grinding in Cl3 COOH Cl3COOH feDlj esa fgyk;s
Thick slurry xk<k ?kksy
Strained through cheese cloth ?kksy dks diM+s }kjk Nkuus ij
Two fractions are obtained nks ?kVd çkIr gq;s
A filtrate
X B Retentate
Y A fuL;an
X B /kkfjrk
Y
(a) Acid soluble pool
(a) vEy foys ; va'k
(b) Acid insoluble pool
(c) Molecular weight ranging from 18 to 800 dalton (b) vEy vfoys ; va'k
approximately (c) vkf.od Hkkj yxHkx 18-800 MkYVu gksrk gAS
(d) Amino acid, sugar, nucleotides (d) vehuks vEy] 'kdZjk] U;qfDy;ksVkbM
(e) Contain chemicals that have molecular weight (e) vkf.od Hkkj 1000 D ls T;knk j[krs gaSA
more than 1000 D (f) izksVhu] U;wfDyd vEy] iksyhld
S sjkbM
(f) Protein, nucleic acid, polysaccharides
fodYi :-
Options :-
(1) X - b, e, f; Y - a, c, d
(1) X - b, e, f; Y - a, c, d
(2) X - a, c, d; Y - b, e, f
(2) X - a, c, d; Y - b, e, f
(3) X - a, d; Y - b, c, e, f
(3) X - a, d; Y - b, c, e, f
(4) X - b, c, f; Y - a, e, d
(4) X - b, c, f; Y - a, e, d
ALLEN
114. Match the column-I with column-II :- 114. LrEHk-I dk LrEHk-II ds lkFk feyku djks :-
Column-I Column-II LrEHk -I LrEHk-II

(A) Alkaloids (I) Monoterpenes (A) ,YdsYok,M (I) eksuksVjihal
(B) Terpenoides (II) Morphine
(B) VjihUok,Ml (II) ekQhZu
(C) Drugs (III) Rubber
(C) MªXl (III) jcj
(D) Polymeric (IV) Vinblastin
substances (D) cgqyd inkFkZ (IV) ohuCys LVhu
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
115. Following structure is :- 115. fuEu lajpuk g&
S
O O
O CH2–O–C–R1 O CH2–O–C–R1
R2–C–O–CH O R2–C–O–CH O
CH2–O–P–O–CH2–CH2 CH2–O–P–O–CH2–CH2
OH N OH N
CH3 CH CH3 CH3 CH CH3
3 3
(1) Cephalin (2) Ganglioside (1) lSQfyu (2) xSaxfy;kslkbM
(3) Cholesterol (4) Lecithin (3) dkWysLVsjkWy (4) yslhFkhu
116. Which of the following is a homopolymer ? 116. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk lecgqyd g\
S
(1) Cellulose (2) Nucleic acid (1) lsY;wykst (2) U;wfDyd vEy
(3) Histone (4) Insulin (3) fgLVksu (4) bUlwfyu
117. Match the column I with column II and choose the 117. LrEHk I dk LrEHk II ls feyku dhft, rFkk lgh fodYi dks
correct answer :- pqfu, :-
Column I Column II LrEHk I LrEHk II
(Organic compound) (Example) (dkcZfud inkFkZ ) (mnkgj.k )
(A) Fatty acid (i) Tryptophan (A) olh; vEy (i) VªhIVksQsu
(B) Complex (ii) Arachidonic (B) tVhy (ii) vjsdhMksuhd
polysaccharide acid ikWyhlsdsjkbM vEy
(C) Amino acid (iii) Rubisco (C) vehuks vEy (iii) :chLdks
(D) Protein (iv) Chitin (D) izksVhu (iv) dkbVhu
(1) A – ii, B – iii, C – i, D – iv (1) A – ii, B – iii, C – i, D – iv

(2) A – ii, B – iv, C – i, D – iii (2) A – ii, B – iv, C – i, D – iii
(3) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i (3) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i
(4) A – ii, B – iv, C – iii, D – i
(4) A – ii, B – iv, C – iii, D – i
ALLEN
118. From the given below structure, identify the zwitter 118. uhps nh xbZ lajpukvksa esa ls] fToVj vk;u dks igpkfu, ?
ions ? H
H
Å Å
H H (A) NH3–C–COO (B) NH3–C–COO
Å Å
(A) NH3–C–COO (B) NH3–C–COO CH2 CH2
CH2 CH2 CH2 OH
CH2 OH COO
COO
H H
H H Å
(C) NH3–C–COOH (D) NH3–C–COO
(C) Å
NH3–C–COOH (D) NH3–C–COO CH3
CH2
CH2 CH3
CH2
CH2 CH2
CH2 CH3
CH3 NH3
NH3 Å
Å
(1) A rFkk C (2) dsoy A
(1) A and C (2) Only A
(3) B and D (4) A and B (3) B rFkk D (4) A rFkk B
119. A protein is imagined as a line, the left end 119. dYiuk djsa dh izksVhu ,d js[kk gS rks blds ck, fljs ij-
represented by -
(1) izFke vehuks vEy ftlds lkFk ;g dkcksZfDly fljk gAS
(1) The first amino acid with its carboxyl terminal
(2) vafre vehuks vEy ftlds lkFk ;g vehuks fljk gAS
(2) The last amino acid with its amino terminal
(3) The first amino acid with its amino terminal (3) izFke vehuks vEy ftlds lkFk ;g vehuks fljk gS
(4) The last amino acid with carboxyl terminal (4) vfUre vehuks vEy ftlds lkFk ,d dkcksfZ Dly fljk gAS
120. Which one is not a Fibrous protein 120. dkuS lh js'ksnkj izkVs hu ugha gS
(1) Collagen (2) Elastin (1) dksystu (2) bykLVhu
(3) keratin (4) Albumin (3) dhjsVhu (4) ,Ycq feu
121. Read the following statement - 121. fuEu dFkuksa dks i<+s&
(i) Majority of proteins and enzymes in protoplasm
(i) izksVksIykTe esa mifLFkfr vf/kdk'ak izksVhu o ,atkbe r`rh;d
exhibit tertiary structure.
foU;kl n'kkZrs gAS
(ii) In secondary structure of protein amino acids are
linked by hydrogen bond, in addition to peptide (ii) izksVhu dh f}rh;d lajpuk esa isIVkbM ca/k ds vykok blesa
bond. gkbMªkstu ca /k Hkh gksrs gAS
(iii)Peptide bonds are present in primary (iii) izkFkfed ohU;kl esa isIVkbM ca/k mifLFkr gksrs gS
configuration.
(iv) vehuksa vEy ds Øe rFkk izksVhu dh lajpuk ij izksVhu ds
(iv) Property of proteins are depend on sequence of
xq.k fuHkZj djrs gSA
amino acid and configuration of protein molecule
How many above statements are correct :- mijksDr dFkuksa esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSaA
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 3 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 3
ALLEN
122. Match the column-I with column-II and choose 122. LraHk-I dk LraHk-II ds lkFk feyku djsa vkjS lgh fodYi
correct option :- pqfu,s %&
Column-I Column-II LraHk-I LraHk-II

Fights infectious laØked dkjdkas ls
A Insulin i A bUlqfyu i
agents yM+uk
Enables glucose Xywdkst dk
B Antibody ii B izfrj{kh ii
transport into cells dksf'kdkvksa esa ifjogu
C Receptor iii Hormone xzkgh gkWeksZu
C iii
D GLUT-4 iv Sensory reception D th-,y-;w-Vh--4 iv laons h xzg.k
(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i (1) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
(2) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii (2) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv (3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i (4) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
123. Most abundant protein in human body is- 123. ekuo 'kjhj esa lcls vf/kd ek=k esa ik;h tkus okyh izkVs hu gS&
(1) Collagen (2) Myosin (1) dkWystu (2) ek;kslhu
(3) Actin (4) Albumin (3) ,fDVu (4) ,YC;qfeu
124. Most simple amino acid is- 124. lcls ljy vehuks vEy gksrk g&S
(1) Tyrosine (2) Lysine (1) Vkbjkslhu (2) ykblhu
(3) Glycine (4) Aspartic acids (3) Xykbflu (4) ,sLikfVZd vEy
125. The given below diagram represents the 125. fn;k x;k fp= vuqys[ku bdkbZ ds ?kVdksa dks n'kkZ jgk gAS blds
components of of a transcription unit. Select the fy;s lgh fodYi dk pquko djsaA
correct option :- A B
A B C
31 51
C
31
1
5 51 31
51 31
VsEiysV jTtq
Template strand
A B C
A B C
ukWu dksfMax
(1) lekid mUuk;d
Non-coding jTtq
(1) Terminator Promoter
strand
Coding (2) mUuk;d lekid dksfMax jTtq

(2) Promoter Terminator
strand
(3) mUuk;d lekid lsUl jTtq
(3) Promoter Terminator Sense strand
Coding (4) lekid mUuk;d dksfMax jTtq

(4) Terminator Promoter
Strand

ALLEN
126. If Meselson and Stahl's experiment is continued for 126. ;fn es l s Y lu o LVky ds iz ; ks x dks pkj ihf <+ ; ks a
four generation in Bacteria, the ratio of rd c S D Vhfj;k es a fd;k tk;s rks pk S F kh ihM+ h es a
N15/N15 : N15/N14 : N14/N14 containing DNA in the N15/N15 : N15/N14 : N14/N14 DNA dk vuqikr D;k
fourth generation would be :- gksxk\
(1) 1 : 1 : 0 (2) 1 : 3 : 0 (1) 1 : 1 : 0 (2) 1 : 3 : 0
(3) 0 : 1 : 3 (4) 0 : 1 : 7 (3) 0 : 1 : 3 (4) 0 : 1 : 7
127. Find out the correct match :- 127. lgh feyku dk p;u djsa %&
(i) RNA polymerase-I (a) hn-RNA (i) RNA ikWyhejst-I (a) hn-RNA
(ii) RNA Polymerase-II (b) t-RNA (ii) RNA ikWyhejst-II (b) t-RNA
(iii) RNA Polymerase-III (c) 18-S rRNA (iii) RNA ikWyhejst-III (c) 18-S rRNA
(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c (2) i-b, ii-c, iii-a (1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c (2) i-b, ii-c, iii-a
(3) i-a, ii-c, iii-b (4) i-c, ii-a, iii-b (3) i-a, ii-c, iii-b (4) i-c, ii-a, iii-b
128. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used 128. DNA izfrd`rh;u ds nkjS ku vksdktkdh [k.M fdldks c<+krs ga\
S
to elongate: (1) izfrd`fr f}'kk[k dh rjQ i'pxkeh jTtq dks
(1) The lagging strand towards replication fork. (2) izfrd`fr f}'kk[k ls ijs vxzx jTtq dks
(2) The leading strand away from replication fork.
(3) The lagging strand away from the replication fork. (3) izfrd`fr f}'kk[k ls ijs i'pxkeh jTtq dks
(4) The leading strand towards replication fork. (4) izfrd`fr f}'kk[k dh rjQ vxzx jTtq dks
129. Which of the following is not required in DNA 129. Mh-,u-,- vaxqfyNkih esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl ,d dh
fingerprinting ? vko';drk ugha gksrh gS ?
(1) Polymerase chain reaction (1) ikWyhejst J`a[kyk vfHkfØ;k
(2) Zinc finger analysis (2) ftad vaxqfy fo'ys"k.k
(3) Restriction enzymes (3) izfrca/ku ,atkbe
(4) DNA–DNA hybridization (4) Mh-,u-,- & Mh-,u-,- ladj.k
130. In given diagram identify (c) and (d) :- 130. fn;s x;s fp= esa (c) o (d) dks igpkfu, :-
(i) p i p o z y a (i) p i p o z y a
(c) (c)
(ii) p i p o z y a (ii) p i p o z y a
Enzyme Enzyme
(d) (d)
(1) (c) – Inducer ; (d) – Repressor (1) (c) – çsjd ; (d) – neudkjh
(2) (c) – Repressor ; (d) – Inducer (2) (c) – neudkjh; (d) – çsjd
(3) (c) – Allolactose ; (d) – c-Amp (3) (c) – ,yksySDVkst; (d) – c-Amp
(4) (c) – Galactose ; (d) – Lactose (4) (c) – xsyDs Vkst ; (d) – yDS Vkst
ALLEN
131. Consider the following four statement (a-d) and select 131. fn;s x;s pkj dFkuksa (v&n) ij fopkj dhft;s vkSj lgh dk
the option which includes all the correct ones only:- pquko dhft;s :-
(a) The codon is read in mRNA in a continuous (v) m–vkj-,u-, esa dksM+ksu dks yxkrkj Øe esa i<+k tkrk gSA
fashion
(c) çksVhu fuekZ.k esa AUG dksM+ksu ds nks dk;Z gksrs gAS
(b) AUG codon has dual function in protein synthesis
(l) okLrfod lajpuk esa 't–vkj-,u-,' ,d l?ku v.kq gS tks
(c) In actual structure, the tRNA is a compact
fd mYVs 'L' ds leku fn[kkbZ nsrk gSA
molecule which looks like inverted "L"
(d) 28 's' r-RNA in bacteria also behave as (n) 28 's' r-vkj-,u-, cSDVhfj;k esa jkbckstkbe dh rjg O;ogkj
ribozyme djrk gSA
(1) b, c and d (2) a, b and c (1) c] l rFkk n (2) v] c rFkk l
(3) a, c and d (4) a and c (3) v] l rFkk n (4) v rFkk l
132. Find an incorrect statement with respect to results 132. HGP ds ifj.kkeksa ds vk/kkj ij] vlR; dFku dk p;u
of HGP :- dfj, :-
(1) Dystrophin protein gene, is the largest gene of (1) MhLVªksihu izksVhu dh thu] ekuo thukse dk lcls cM+h thu
human genome. gSA
(2) Chromosome Y has minimum 231 genes
(2) xq.klw= Y ij] U;wure 231 thu gksrs gaAS
(3) SNPs are identified at about 2.4 million
(3) SNPs yxHkx 2.4 fefy;u LFkyksa ij igpkus x, gaAS
locations.
(4) [kksts x, thUl esa ls] 50% ls vf/kd dk dk;Z Kkr ugha
(4) The functions are unknown for over 50% of
discovered genes. gSA
133. A molecule that can act as genetic material must 133. ,d v.kq tks tufud inkFkZ ds :i esa dk;Z djrk gks mles fuEu
not have following properties :- xq.k fuf'pr :i ls mifLFkr ugha gksuk pkfg;s\
(1) It should be chemically and structurally highly (1) ;g jklk;fud ,oae lajpukRed :i ls vR;f/kd fØ;k'khy
active. gksuk pkfg;sA
(2) It should be able to generate its replica. (2) ;g viuh izfrÏfr cukus esa l{ke gksuk pkfg;sA
(3) It should provide the scope for slow changes. (3) blesa /khes ifjorZu dh {kerk gksuh pkfg;sA
(4) It should be structurally more stable. (4) ;g lajpukRed :i ls T;knk LFkk;h gksuk pkfg;sA
134. Experiments using N15 to confirm semiconservative 134. iz;ksxks esa N15 dk mi;ksx djds Mh,u, ds v/kZlja {kh izfrdj.k
replication of DNA were carried out by:- dks lqfuf'pr fd;k x;k %&
(1) Meselson and Stahl (1) eslYlu o LVky }kjk
(2) Hershey and Chase (2) g"kZs o psl }kjk
(3) Watson and Crick (3) okWVlu o fØd }kjk
(4) Taylor (4) Vsyj }kjk
135. On hydrolysis of a nucleoside would not yield 135. ty vi?kVu gksus ij U;qfDy;kslkbM ugha nsrk :-
(1) Purine (1) I;wjhu
(2) Pyrimidine (2) fifjfeMhu
(3) Pentose sugar (3) isaVkst 'kdZjk
(4) Phosphate (4) QksLQsV
ALLEN
136. Which of the following is synthesized through reverse 136. O;qRØe vuqys[ku }kjk fuEu esa ls fdldk la'ys"k.k gksrk g?S
transcription ? (1) m-RNA (2) r-RNA
(1) m-RNA (2) r-RNA
(3) t-RNA (4) c-DNA
(3) t-RNA (4) c-DNA
137. Which of the following correctly represents a 137. fuEu esa ls dkSulk fodYi lgh izfrd`fr f}'kk[k dks n'kkZrk
replicating fork ? gS ?
3' 3'
5' 5'
(1) 3' 3'
(1)
5' 5'
3' 3'
5' 5'
(2) 3' (2) 3'
5' 5'
3' 3'
5' 5'
(3) 3' 3'
(3)
5' 5'
3' 3'
5' 5'
(4) 3' (4) 3'
5' 5'
138. DNA and RNA differ with respect to :- 138. Mh,u, o vkj,u, fdl lanHkZ esa fHkUu gS ?
(1) only purine (1) dsoy I;wjhu ds
(2) only pyrimidine (2) dsoy ik;jhfeMhu ds
(3) only sugar (3) dsoy 'kdZjk ds
(4) Both nitrogen base and sugar (4) ukbVªkt
s u {kkj o 'kdZjk nksuksa ds
139. If the sequence of coding strand in a DNA molecule 139. ;fn DNA ds dw V ys [ ku jTtq d dk vuq Ø e
is, 5' ATCGATCGACTG 3' then the sequence of 5' ATCGATCGACTG 3' gS] rks Vs E iys V jTtq d ls
RNA transcribed from template strand would be :- vuqyfs [kr RNA dk vuqØ e D;k gksxk :-
(1) 3' ATCGATCGACTG 5' (1) 3' ATCGATCGACTG 5'
(2) 5' TAGCTAGCTGAC 3' (2) 5' TAGCTAGCTGAC 3'
(3) 3' UAGCUAGCUGAC 5' (3) 3' UAGCUAGCUGAC 5'
(4) 5' AUCGAUCGACUG 3' (4) 5' AUCGAUCGACUG 3
ALLEN
140. Reverse transcriptase enzyme is required for the 140. jholZ VªkUlØhIVst ,Utkbe fdlds la'ys"k.k esa dke vkrk g&S
synthesis of - (1) DNA ls DNA ds la'ys"k.k esa
(1) DNA From DNA
(2) RNA ls DNA ds la'ys"k.k esa
(2) DNA from RNA
(3) DNA ls RNA ds la'ys"k.k esa
(3) RNA from DNA
(4) DNA from nucleosides (4) U;wfDyvkslkbM ls DNA cuus esa
141. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic 141. fdlds iz ;ksxksa ls ;g lq Li"V iz ek.k iz kIr gq vk fd DNA
material came from the experiments of – vkuqokaf'kd inkFkZ g&S
(1) Hershey and Chase (1952) (1) g"ksZ o psl (1952)
(2) Frederic Griffith (1928) (2) QsMsfjd fxzQhFk (1928)
(3) okWVlu rFkk fØd
(3) Watson and Crick
(4) Meselson and Stahl (1958) (4) eslYs lu rFkk LVky (1958)
142. In a transcription unit promoter is located towards:- 142. vuqy[
s ku bdkbZ esa] izeksVj fLFkr gksrk gS \
(1) 3' end of coding strand (1) dksfMax jTtq thu ds 3' fljs dh vksj
(2) 5' end of coding strand (2) lajpukRed thu ds 5' fljs dh vksj
(3) 5' end of template strand (3) VsEiysV ds 5' fljs dh vksj
(4) 3' end of sense strand (4) VsEiysV ds 3' fljs dh vksj
143. How many nucleotides in a sequence of messenger 143. ,d vehuks vEy dks dksM djus ds fy, m-RNA ij mifLFkr
RNA codes for an amino acid ? ,d dksMksu esa fdrus U;wfDy;ksVkbM gksus pkfg, :-
(1) Three (2) Four (3) One (4) Two (1) rhu (2) pkj (3) ,d (4) nks
144. Gene and cistron words are sometimes used 144 . thu rFkk flLVªkus 'kCn dHkh&dHkh leku ekus tkrs ga]S D;ksfa d%&
synonymously because– (1) ,d flLVªksu esa dbZ thu gksrh gSaA
(1) One cistron contains many genes
(2) ,d thu esa dbZ flLVªksu gksrh gSaA
(2) One gene contains many cistrons
(3) One gene contains one cistron (3) ,d thu esa ,d flLVª kus gksrh gaSA
(4) One gene contains no cistron (4) ,d thu esa flLVªkus ugha gksrh gSaA
145. Gene which is responsible for the synthesis of a 145. thu tks iksyhisIVkbM J`a[kyk ds la'ys"k.k ds fy, mÙkjnk;h
polypeptide chain is called :- gksrh gS dgykrh gS %&
(1) Promotor gene (2) Structural gene (1) izkWeksVj thu (2) lajpukRed thu
(3) Regulator gene (4) Operator gene (3) fu;U=d thu (4) vkWijsVj thu
146. Which of the following statement incorrect about 146. fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku lsVsykbV Mh,u, ds ckjs esa xyr
satellite DNA ? gS ?
(1) Satellite DNA shows high degree of polymorphism (1) lsVy s kbV Mh,u, mPp Js.kh dh cgq#irk iznf'kZr djrs gAS
(2) Highly repetitive DNA (2) vR;f/kd iqujko`fr Mh,u ,
(3) Satellite DNA is non-coding (3) lsVsykbV Mh,u, ukWu&dksfMax gksrk gAS
(4) Satellite DNA codes for specific proteins (4) lsVy

s kbV Mh,u, fof'k"V izdkj dh izkVs hu dks dksM djrs gAS
ALLEN
147. In which phase of cell cycle centriole moves to 147. dksf'kdk pØ dh fdl voLFkk esa lsfUVªvksy foijhr /kzwoksa dh
opposite pole? vksj xfr djrs gaS\
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase (1) izksQst (2) esVkQst
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase (3) ,ukQst (4) VhyksQt s
148. Which of the following amino acid is coded by six 148. fuEu es ls dkuS lk vehuks vEy N% izdwV }kjk dwV fd;k tkrk
codon? gSA
(1) Leucine (2) Tryptophan (1) Y;wlhu (2) fVªIVksQku
(3) Phenylalanine (4) Tyrosine (3) fQukby,ykuhu (4) Vkbjkslhu
149. During elongation of translation, new charged 149. vuqoknu ds le; nh?khZdj.k dh izfØ;k esa u;s vkosf'kr tRNA
tRNA enter which site of ribosome complex? jkbckslkse esa fdl LFkku ij izo's k djrs gS\
(1) P-site (1) P-site
(2) A-Site (2) A-Site
(3) E-Site (3) E-Site
(4) Smaller subunit of ribosome (4) jkbckslkse dh NksVh mibdkbZ
150. There are no tRNAs for 150. fdlds fy, dksbZ tRNA ugha gksrk gS
(1) UAA, UGG and UGA (1) UAA, UGG vkSj UGA ds fy,
(2) UAG, UGG and UGA (2) UAG, UGG vkSj UGA ds fy,
(3) UAA, UAG and UGA (3) UAA, UAG vkjS UGA ds fy,
(4) UAG, UGA and AUA (4) UAG, UGA vkSj AUA ds fy,
151. When bands of proteins are transferred to a 151. tc iz k s V hu ds c S U M~ l igpku ds fy, ukbVª k s l s y q y ks t
nitrocellulose membrane for identification, the f>Yyh ij LFkkukUrfjr fd, tkrs gS rks ;g cSUMhax dgykrh g-S
banding is called-
(1) Southern blotting (2) Northern blotting (1) lnuZ CykfVax (2) uknZu CykfVax
(3) Western blotting (4) Eastern blotting (3) osLVªu Cykfjax (4) bZLVªu Cykfjax
152. Which one of the following is a real inducer of lac 152. ysd vksijs ksu esa fuEu eas ls dkuS lk okLrfod bUM~;l
w j (izjs d gAS )
operon. gksrk g\
S
(1) Lactose (2) IPTG (1) ysDVkst (2) IPTG
(3) Allolactose (4) b - galactosidase (3) ,yksyDs Vkst (4) b - xsyDs VkslkbMst
153. In Human genome project automated DNA 153. ekuo thukse izkt
s Ds V eas vkWVkseVs M
s DNA lhDosalj dk mi;ksx
sequencer is used which worked on the principle fd;k tkrk g S ] ;g fuEu es a ls fdlds }kjk fodflr
of a method developed by : - fof/k ds fl¼kUr ij dk;Z djrk g\ S
(1) Alec. Jeffery (2) Frederick Sanger (1) ,yhd tsQjh (2) QsMfjd lsUxj
(3) Kary Mullis (4) Har Gobind Khurana (3) dsjh eqfyl (4) gj xksfoUn [kqjkuk
154. Commonly used vector in human genome project:- 154. ekuo thukse ifj;kstuk esa lkekU;r;k dkSuls okgd dk mi;ksx
(1) YAC and MAC fd;k x;k gS :-
(2) YAC and BAC (1) YAC o MAC
(2) YAC o BAC
(3) YAC, BAC and MAC
(3) YAC, BAC o MAC
(4) only YAC (4) dsoy YAC
ALLEN
155. Which of the following option is incorrect with 155. :ikUrj.k fl¼kUr ds lUnHkZ eas fuEufyf[kr eas ls dkSu lk fodYi
reference to the transforming principle ? vlR; gS ?
(1) S strain ® injected into mice ® mice died (1) S LVªus ® pwgsa esa izos'k djk;k ® pwgs dh e`R;q
(2) R strain ® injected into mice ® mice lived (2) R LVªus ® pwgsa esa izos'k djk;k ® pwgk thfor
(3) S strain (heat killed) ® injected into mice ® (3) S LVªus (rki }kjk fuf"Ø;.k) ® pwgsa esa izos'k djk;k ® pwgs
mice died dh e`R;q
(4) ® injected into mice ® (4) ® pwgsa esa izos'k djk;k ®
mice died pwgs dh e`R;q

156. Back bone in structure of DNA molecule is made 156. DNA v.kq dh lajpuk esa bldh jh<+ curh gS
up of :- (1) isUVkst 'kdZjk rFkk QkWLQsV ls
(1) Pentose Sugar and phosphate
(2) gsDlkst 'kdZjk rFkk QkWLQsV ls
(2) Hexose sugar and phosphate
(3) Purine and pyrimidine (3) I;wjhu rFkk fifjfeMhu ls
(4) Sugar and purine (4) 'kdZjk rFkk I;qjhu ls
157. 32P was used to radiolabel the which component 157. g'ksZ vkjS pst ds iz;ksx esa 32P dk iz;ksx thok.kqHkksth ds fuEu esa ls
of bacteriophage in Hershey and Chase fdl ?kVd dks jsfM;ks/kehZ cukus esa fd;k x;k Fkk :-
experiment :-
(1) fo"kk.kq izksVhu (2) fo"kk.kq Mh,u,
(1) Viral protein (2) Viral DNA
(3) Viral RNA (4) Both DNA and protein (3) fo"kk.kq vkj,u, (4) Mh,u, vkjS izkVs hu nksuksa
158. If base sequence of one strand is 158. ;fn ,d Mh,u, v.kq esa ,d Ja`[kyk 5' GCCTTAAGC 3' gS
5' GCCTTAAGC 3' of a DNA molecule, then its rks bldh iwjd Ja`[kyk gksxh :-
complementary sequence will be :-
(1) 3' CGGUUAACG 5' (2) 3' CGGAATTCG 5'
(1) 3' CGGUUAACG 5' (2) 3' CGGAATTCG 5'
(3) 5' GCCUUAAGC 3' (4) 5' CGGTTAACG 3' (3) 5' GCCUUAAGC 3' (4) 5' CGGTTAACG 3'
159. Following structure is related to which 159. fuEu lajpuk fdl ;kfS xd ls lacaf/kr g\
S
O
compound? O
(1) Adenine
(1) Adenine H–N
H–N
(2) Guanine
(2) Guanine
(3) Uracil (3) Uracil O
N
O
N
H
(4) Thymine H (4) Thymine
160. Which of the following amino acid does not show 160. fuEu esa ls fdl vehuksa vEy ds lUnHkZ esa viâkflrk iznf'kZr ugha
degeneracy ? gksrh gS :-
(1) Alanine (2) Tryptophan (1) ,ykuhu (2) fVªIVksQuS
(3) Arginine (4) Valine (3) vkthZfuu (4) oy S hu
161. Spliceosome complex is absent in :- 161. Liykblh;kslkse dkEiysDl fuEu esa ls fdlesa vuqifLFkr gksrk g\
S
(1) Plant (2) Bird (1) ikni (2) i{kh
(3) Monkey (4) Bacteria (3) cUnj (4) cDS Vhfj;k

ALLEN
162. In prokaryotes, the predominant step of regulation 162. iz ksdsfj;ksV ~ l esa] thu vfHkO;fDr ds fu;a=.k dk eq [; in
of gene expression is :- gS :-
(1) Transcriptional level (1) vuqy[
s ku Lrj
(2) RNA processing (2) vkj,u, izlLa dj.k
(3) Translation initiation (3) vuqoknu izkjEHku
(4) RNA transfer from nucleus to cytoplasm (4) vkj,u, dk dsUnzd ls dksf'kdknzO; esa LFkkukUrj.k
163. One codon codes for only one amino acid and not 163. ,d izdwV dsoy ,d vehuks vEy dk dwV ys[ku djrk gS fdlh
any other is called :- vU; dk ugha] dgykrk g&S
(1) Non overlapping (2) Degeneracy (1) ukWu vksojysfiax (2) viâkflr
(3) Non-ambiguous (4) Triplet nature (3) vlafnX/k (4) f=d izd`fr
164. During protein synthesis, eukaryotic mRNA 164. çksVhu la'ys"k.k ds nkjS ku ;wdfs j;ksVl
~ dk mRNA jkbckslkse dh NksVh
recognized smaller sub–unit of ribosome by :- lc&;wfuV dks fuEu esa ls fdldh lgk;rk ls igpkurk gS :-
(1) SD sequence (2) ASD–sequence (1) SD–Øe (2) ASD–Øe
(3) Both 1 and 2 (4) 7mG cap (3) 1 o 2 nksuksa (4) 7mG cap
165. In prokaryotes ASD–sequence is present on which 165. çksdfs j;ksV~l esa ASD–Øe dkSuls r–RNA ij mifLFkr gksrk
of the following r–RNA :- gS :-
(1) 18 s rRNA (2) 16 s rRNA (1) 18 s rRNA (2) 16 s rRNA
(3) 23 s rRNA (4) 5 s rRNA (3) 23 s rRNA (4) 5 s rRNA
166. Refer the given figure of nucleosome and select the 166. fn;s x;s U;wfDy;kslkse ds fp= dks ns[ks rFkk Hkkx A, B o C dh
option that correctly identified the parts A, B and C: igpku djus okys fodYi dks pqus &
A B C A B C
(1) DNA Histone octamer H1 histone fgLVksu v"Vd
(1) DNA H1 fgLVksu
(2) Histone octamer H1 histone DNA
(2) fgLVksu v"Vd H1 fgLVksu DNA
(3) Histone octamer DNA H1 histone
(3) fgLVksu v"Vd DNA H1 fgLVksu
(4) DNA H1 histone Histone
octamer (4) DNA H1 fgLVksu fgLVksu v"Vd
167. Histone proteins are : 167. fgLVksu izkVs hUl gksrs gS &
(1) Basic and negatively charged (1) {kkjh; rFkk ½.kkosf'kr
(2) Basic and positively charged (2) {kkjh; rFkk /kukosf'kr
(3) Acidic and positively charged (3) vEyh; rFkk /kukosf'kr
(4) Acidic and negatively charged (4) vEyh; rFkk ½.kkosf'kr
ALLEN
168. A m-RNA also has some additional sequences that are 168. ,d m-RNA dh dqN ,sls Hkh vfrfjDr Øe tks fd VªkalysV
not translated called UTR. The function of UTR is:- ugha gksrs gaS] UTR dgykrs g]S UTR dk dk;Z gS\
(1) Charging of t-RNA (1) t-RNA dks vkosf'kr djukA
(2) Formation of peptide bond (2) isIVkbM ca/k dk fuEkkZ.kA
(3) Helps in efficient translation (3) n{krkiw.kZ Vªkalys'ku esa lgk;rk djukA
(4) Helps in translocation (4) çfrLFkkiu esas lgk;rk djukA
169. Read the following steps of DNA finger printing :- 169. Mh,u, vaxqfyNkih ds fuEufyf[kr inksa dk v/;;u dhft, &
(i) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases (i) Mh,u, dk izfrca/ku ,a MksU;wfDy,t }kjk ikpu
(ii) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR Probe (ii) fpfUgr oh ,u Vh vkj izksc dk mi;ksx djrs gq, ladj.k
(iii)Seperation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis (iii) bysDVª ksQksjsfll }kjk Mh,u, [kaMks dk i`FkDdj.k
(iv) Detection of hybridised DNA fragments by (iv) Lofofdj.kh fp =.k }kjk ladfjr Mh,u, [kaMks dk irk
autoradiography yxkuk
(v) Blotting (v) CykfVax
(vi)Isolation of DNA (vi) Mh,u, dk foyxu
Find the correct sequence of DNA finger printing :- Mh,u, vaxfq yNkih izfØ;k ds mijksDr inksa dk lgh Øe D;k gksxk:-
(1) i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi (2) iii, i, v, ii, iv, vi (1) i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi (2) iii, i, v, ii, iv, vi
(3) vi, i, iii, v, ii, iv (4) vi, i, iii, iv, v, ii (3) vi, i, iii, v, ii, iv (4) vi, i, iii, iv, v, ii
170. In E.coli operator gene combine with :- 170. bZ- dksykbZ esa vWkijsVj thu fdlds lkFk tqM+rk gS :-
(1) Inducer gene to switch ON structural gene (1) izjs d thu ls rFkk lajpukRed thu fØ;k dks izkjaHk djrk gAS
action (2) izjs d thu ls rFkk lajpukRed thu fØ;k dks cUn djrk gaAS
(2) Inducer gene to switch off structural gene action
(3) jsxqysVj izkVs hu (neudkjh) ls rFkk lajpukRed thu fØ;k
(3) Regulator protein (repressor) to switch OFF the
dks can djrk gaSA
structural gene action
(4) Regulator protein to switch ON the structural (4) jsX;wyVs j izkVs hu ls rFkk lajpukRed thu fØ;k dks izkjEHk djrk
gene action gSaA
171. The regulation of gene expression in 171. izksdfS j;ksV~l esa thu vfHkO;fDr ds fu;eu ds lanHkZ esa fuEu esa
prokaryotes:- ls dkuS lk dFku lgh gaS :-
(A) Lactose acts as the suppressor for gene (A) ySDVkst] ysd vksisjku esa thu vfHkO;fDr ds laned
expression in lac operon.
(suppressor) ds :i esa dk;Z djrk gaAS
(B) Tryptophan acts as the inducer for gene
expression in tryptophan operon. (B) fVªIVksQus vksijs ku esa] fVªIVksQus thu vfHkO;fDr ds fy, izjs d
(C) In lac operon the i gene is produces the ds :i esa dk;Z djrk gSaA
repressor protein. (C) ysd vksijs ku esa i thu ,d neudkjh (repressor) izksVhu
(1) only A correct dks mRiUu djrh gaAS
(2) only B correct
(1) dsoy A lgh gaS (2) dsoy B lgh gaS
(3) only C correct
(4) Both B and A are correct (3) dsoy C lgh gaS (4) B rFkk A lgh gaS
172. In 1963 several varieties such as sonalika and 172. 1963 esa fdLeksa dh oa'k js[kk,a tl S s lksukfydk rFkk dY;k.k lksuk
Kalyan sona were introduced all over the wheat dk fodkl dj mUgsa Hkkjro"kZ dh xSgwa iSnk djus okys{ks=ksa esa iz;ksx
growing belt of India which were : fd;k x;k] tks Fkh &
(1) High yielding (2) Disease resistant (1) mPp mRiknu nsus okyh (2) jksx izf rjks/kh
(3) Resistant to water stress (4) Both (1) and (2) (3) ty vHkko ds izfrjks/kh (4) (1) o (2) nksuksa

ALLEN
173. Which of the following variety of Brassica is 173. fuEu es a ls dk S u lh cz s f ldk dh fdLe ,QhM ds iz f r
resistance to Aphids ? izfrjks/kd gS ?
(1) Pusa swarnim (2) Pusa gaurav (1) iwlk Lof.kZEk (2) iwlk xkSjo
(3) Pusa sem 2 (4) Pusa sawani (3) iwlk lse 2 (4) iwlk Lokuh
174. Which one is used as the alternate source of proteins 174. buesa ls dkuS lk] i'kq rFkk ekuo iks"k.k ds fy, izkVs hu ds oSdfYid
for animal and human nutrition. L=ksrksa ds :i esa mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gS -
(1) Methylophilus (2) Agrobacterium (1) feFkkbyksfQyl (2) ,xzksoDS Vhfj;e
(3) Atlas 66 (4) IR-8 (3) ,Vyl 66 (4) IR-8
175. Which part would be most suitable for raising virus 175. lw{ eiz p kj.k (ekbØks izk s iks x s' ku) ds fy, ok;jl&jfgr
free plants for micropropagation ? ik/S ks cukus ds fy, dkSu lk Hkkx lcls mi;qDr gksxk ?
(1) Meristem (2) Node (1) efS jLVse (foHkT;ksrd) (2) uksM (ioZ )
(3) Bark (4) Vascular tissue (3) Nky (4) la oguh ; Ård
176. A mung bean variety which is resistance to yellow 176. ew¡x (chu) esa ihr ekstsd ok;jl ds izfr izfrjks/kd {kerk fdl
mosaic virus is developed by which method - fof/k }kjk fodflr dh x;h Fkh &
(1) Plant introduction (2) Hybridisation (1) ikni iqj% LFkkiu (2) ladj.k
(3) Mutational breeding (4) Domestication (3) mRifjorZu iz tuu (4) ?kjsywdj.k
177. (a) Variety of Brassica 177. (a) ljlksa dh fdLe
(b) Have resistance to white rust disease (b) 'osr fdV~ V ds izfr izfrjks/kd
(c) Developed by hybridisation and selection (c) ladj.k rFkk p;u }kjk mRiUu
Above, statements are true for - mijksDr dFku fdlds fy, lgh gS -
(1) Pusa Gaurav (2) Pusa Sadabahar (1) iwlk xkSjo (2) iwlk lnkcgkj
(3) Pusa Swarnim (4) Pusa Sawani (3) iwlk Lof.kZe (4) iwlk lokuh
178. Which one of the following is not correctly 178. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk ,d lgh of.kZr ugha gS \
described ? (1) ,DlIykUV & ikni dk dksbZ Hkh Hkkx ftlls ,d iw.kZikni
(1) Explant - Any part of plant from which whole dks iqutZfur fd;k tk ldrk gAS
plant, could be regenerated
(2) ,Vyl 66 & xsgw¡ dh ,d fdLe ftlesa dkcksZgkbMsªV dh
(2) Atlas 66 - A wheat variety having high
ek=k mPp gksrh gSA
carbohydrate content
(3) lw{eizo/kZu & mÙkd loa/kZu }kjk gtkjksa dh la[;k esa ikniksa
(3) Micropropagation - The method of producing
thousands of plants through tissue culture dks mRiUu djus dh fof/k
(4) Parbhani kranti - A variety of Bhindi that is (4) ijHkkfu Ø¡kfr & fHk.Mh dh ,d fdLe gS ftlesa ihr ekstsd
resistance to yellow mosaic virus ok;jl ds izfr izfrjks/kd {kerk gksrh gAS
179. In tissue culture technique the source of carbon is: 179. ÅÙkd lao/kZu rduhd esa dkcZu dk L=ksr gksrk gS &
(1) Sucrose (2) CO2 (1) lwØ kst (2) CO2
(3) Lactose (4) Minerals (3) ysDVkst (4) [kfut
180. Callus is a : 180. dSyl D;k gksrk ga\S
(1) Plant hormone (1) ikni gkWeksZu
(2) Differentiated mass of cells (2) foHksfnr dksf'kdkvksa dk lewg
(3) Air pollutant (3) ok;q iznw"kd
(4) Undifferentiated mass of actively dividing cells
(4) Ård lao/kZu esa lfØ; :i ls foHkkftr dj jgha dksf'kdkvksa
in tissue culture
dk vfoHksfnr lewg

ALLEN
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / jQ dk;Z ds fy, txg
Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in within 2 days along with Paper code and Your Form No.
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LTS / Page 38/40 0999DMD310319006

ALLEN
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0999DMD310319006 LTS / Page 39/40
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1. Each candidate must show on demand his/her 1. iwNs tkus ij izR;sd ijh{kkFkhZ] fujh{kd dks viuk ,yu igpku
Allen ID Card to the Invigilator. i= fn[kk,A
2. No candidate, without special permission of 2. fujh{kd dh fo'ks"k vuqefr ds fcuk dksbZ ijh{kkFkhZ viuk
the Invigilator, would leave his/her seat. LFkku u NksM+As
3. The candidates should not leave the 3. dk;Zjr fujh{kd dks viuk mÙkj&i= fn, fcuk dksbZ ijh{kkFkhZ
Examination Hall without handing over their ijh{kk gkWy ugha NksM+sA
Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty.
4. Use of Electronic/Manual Ca lculator is 4. bys D Vª k W f ud@gLrpfyr ifjdyd dk mi;ks x oftZ r
prohibited. gSA
5. The candidates are governed by all Rules and 5. ijh{kk gkWy esa vkpj.k ds fy, ijh{kkFkhZ ijh{kk ds lHkh
Regulations of the examination with regard to fu;eksa ,oa fofu;eksa }kjk fu;fer gAS vuqfpr lk/ku ds lHkh
their conduct in the Examination Hall. All
cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per
ekeyksa dk Ql S yk ijh{kk ds fu;eksa ,oa fofu;eksa ds vuqlkj
Rules and Regulations of this examination. gksxkA
6. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet 6. fdlh gkyr esa ijh{kk iqfLrdk vkjS mÙkj&i= dk dksbZ Hkkx
shall be detached under any circumstances. vyx u djs aA
7. The candidates will write the Correct Name 7. ijh{kk iqfLrdk@mÙkj&i= esa ijh{kkFkhZ viuk lgh uke o QkWeZ
and Form No. in the Test Booklet/Answer uEcj fy[ksaA
Sheet.
Corporate Office : ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-2757575 dlp@allen.ac.in www.dlp.allen.ac.in, dsat.allen.ac.in
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Test Pattern

Test Type : Unit - 05

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2020

(2) 2.25 × 10–2 v/m (2) 2.25 × 10–2 v/m

(3) 5.6 × 10–7 v/m (3) 5.6 × 10–7 v/m

(4) zero (4) 'kw U;

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2020/NEET-UG/15-09-2019

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2020/NEET-UG/15-09-2019

(4) is equal to g (4) g ds cjkcj gksxk

LEADER TEST SERIES/JOINT PACKAGE COURSE/NEET-UG/15-09-2019

(3) (4) (3) (4)

LEADER TEST SERIES/JOINT PACKAGE COURSE/NEET-UG/15-09-2019

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2020/NEET-UG/15-09-2019

(3) 20 V (4) 16 V (3) 20 V (4) 16 V

(1) in AD, but not in BC (1) AD esa fdUrq BC esa ugha

(2) in BC, but not in AD (2) BC esa fdUrq AD esa ugha

(3) neither in AD nor in BC (3) u rks AD esa vkjS u gh BC esa

(4) in both AD and BC (4) AD o BC nksuksa esa

LEADER TEST SERIES/JOINT PACKAGE COURSE/NEET-UG/15-09-2019

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2020/NEET-UG/15-09-2019

LEADER TEST SERIES/JOINT PACKAGE COURSE/NEET-UG/15-09-2019

(3) (1 – e) (4) e (3) (1 – e) (4) e

hit the surface, second time at t = ls Vdjkus dk le; t gksxk &

41. A transformer is used to : 41. VªkalQkWeZj dk mi;ksx gksrk gS %

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2020/NEET-UG/15-09-2019

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2020/NEET-UG/15-09-2019

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2020/NEET-UG/15-09-2019

LEADER TEST SERIES/JOINT PACKAGE COURSE/NEET-UG/15-09-2019

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2020/NEET-UG/15-09-2019

(A) (B) (A) (B)

Identify the marked cell organells :- fpUghr dksf'kdkaxks dks igpkfu, :-

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2020/NEET-UG/15-09-2019

Thick slurry xk<k ?kksy

Strained through cheese cloth ?kksy dks diM+s }kjk Nkuus ij

Two fractions are obtained nks ?kVd çkIr gq;s

Column-I Column-II LrEHk -I LrEHk-II

(1) A – ii, B – iii, C – i, D – iv (1) A – ii, B – iii, C – i, D – iv

Column-I Column-II LraHk-I LraHk-II

Coding (2) mUuk;d lekid dksfMax jTtq

Coding (4) lekid mUuk;d dksfMax jTtq

LEADER TEST SERIES/JOINT PACKAGE COURSE/NEET-UG/15-09-2019

(4) Satellite DNA codes for specific proteins (4) lsVy

(4) ® injected into mice ® (4) ® pwgsa esa izos'k djk;k ®

mice died pwgs dh e`R;q

LEADER TEST SERIES/JOINT PACKAGE COURSE/NEET-UG/15-09-2019

LEADER TEST SERIES/JOINT PACKAGE COURSE/NEET-UG/15-09-2019

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2020/NEET-UG/15-09-2019

LTS / Page 38/40 0999DMD310319006

Distance Learning Programmes

ABOUT FEEDBACK SYSTEM

LEADER TEST SERIES/JOINT PACKAGE COURSE/NEET-UG/15-09-2019

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2020/NEET-UG/15-09-2019

0999DMD310319006 LTS / Page 40/40

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