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Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

PHYSICAL PHARMACY

1. A data set in which there is a considerable closeness among the values


A. Accurate
B. Approximate
C. Estimate
D. Precise
2. A type of Van der Waals forces of attraction resulting from the tendency of molecules to align themselves
with oppositely charged ends of their neighbour
A. Debye
B. London
C. Keesom
D. H-bond
3. A type of Van der Waals forces of attraction which involves permanent dipoles inducing polarity in non-polar
molecules
A. Debye
B. London
C. Keesom
D. H-bond
4. A type of Van der Waals forces of attraction which involves the dispersion of charges to induce polarity
between non-polar molecules
A. Debye
B. London
C. Keesom
D. H-bond
5. The intermolecular forces of attraction responsible for the solubility of non-polar molecules such as Iodine in
solution by the addition of salts
A. Debye
B. Ion-dipole interaction
C. Ion-induced dipole interaction
D. H-bonds
6. This is responsible for the solubility of ionic crystalline substance in polar solvents like water
A. Debye
B. Ion-dipole interaction
C. Ion-induced dipole interaction
D. H-bonds
7. H-bond is the interaction between a molecule containing a hydrogen atom and a strongly electronegative
atom such as fluorine, oxygen and nitrogen. This is/are true statements regarding H-bonds
I. Stronger than ionic bonds
II. Responsible for the formation of water molecules
III. Can be both occurring as an intramoleecular and intermolecular force of attraction
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. III only
E. I, II and III
8. This law relates the volume and pressure of given mass of gas at constant temperature
A. Boyles
B. Charles
C. Gay-Lussac
D. Ideal Gas Law
9. The equation B α T or V=kT, was explained by which gas law?
I. Boyle
II. Charles
III. Gay-Lussac
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. III only
E. I, II and III
10. Gas X is an ideal gas occupying a volume of 15ml at a temperature of 55°F and a pressure of 700mmHg.
What is the volume of a gas at 0° and 800mmHg?
A. 12ml
B. 8ml
C. 20ml
D. 25ml
11. At constant pressure a gas occupies volume of 50ml at a temperature of 40°C. What will be the volume
occupied by the gas at 90°C
A. 43ml
B. 58ml
C. 112.5ml
D. 22ml
12. A gas law which states that gases of equal volumes at the same temperature and pressure contain the
same number of molecules
A. Boyles
B. Charles
C. Gay-Lussac
D. Avogadro
13. This is/are true values of the molar gas constants
I. 0.08205 L-atm / mole-degree
II. 8.314 cal / mole-degree
III. 1.987 joules / mole-degree
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. III only
14. Assuming that a 1.5g gas occupying a volume of 500ml at a pressure of 175 atm and a temperature of 75°C
is behaving like an ideal gas. What is the molecular weight of the gas?
A. 0.05g
B. 49g
C. 5g
D. 30g
15. A method used to determine the molecular weight of easily vaporized liquids
I. Regnault
II. Victor-Meyer
III. Gieger-Muller
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. III only
16. A given quantity of gas at a pressure of 750mmHg and a temperature of -25°C occupies 25L. What is its
volume at STP?
A. 269L
B. 150L
C. 27.1L
D. 100L
17. How many moles of gas are present in a 25L chamber containing a pressure of 750mmHg at -25°C
A. 1.21
B. 9.21
C. 2.51
D. 0.42
18. The following is/are true statements regarding the kinetic molecular theory
I. Volume of gas is negligible in relation to the volume of the space in which the gas is confined
II. Particles exhibit continuous random motion owing to their kinetic energy
III. Speed is lost every time particles go into collision with each other or with the walls of the vessels
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. III only
19. This equation is used for real gases, where it accounts for the interactions of gas molecules hence affecting
the pressure and volume of an ideal gas
A. Ideal Gas Equation
B. Van der Waals Equation
C. Noyes-Whitney Equation
D. Freundlich Equation
20. This states that the rate of diffusion of the gas and the speed of the gas molecules are inversely proportional
to the square root of their density
A. Ideal Gas Law
B. Raoult’s Law
C. Graham’s Law
D. Dalton’s Law
21. This law gives the relationship between the total pressure in a mixture of gases and the partial pressure of
the individual gases
A. Ideal Gas Law
B. Raoult’s Law
C. Graham’s Law
D. Dalton’s Law
22. This is the point above which it is impossible to liquefy a gas irrespective of the pressure applied
A. Critical temperature
B. Critical pressure
C. Eutectic point
D. Triple point
23. This is the highest vapour pressure that the liquid can have which is also the force er unit are required to
liquefy a gas at critical temperature
A. Critical temperature
B. Critical pressure
C. Eutectic point
D. Triple point
24. This is/are true statements regarding the comparison of the critical temperature and critical pressure of
H2Oand helium gas
I. The critical temperature and critical pressure of water is much higher than that of helium
II. The critical temperature and critical pressure of helium is much higher than that of water
III. Water and Helium have similar critical temperature and critical pressure
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. III only
25. This is used as local anaesthetic agent for minor surgical operations administered as an aerosol. This
substance cools sufficiently on expansion when sprayed on the skin and freezes the tissue to provide
anaesthesia
A. Ethylene dioxide
B. Ethyl chloride
C. Nitrous oxide
D. Lidocaine
26. This equation shows the relationship between the vapour pressure and the absolute temperature of a liquid
A. Ideal Gas Equation
B. Van der Waals Equation
C. Noyes-Whitney Equation
D. Clausius-Clapeyron Equation
27. This is the heat absorbed by 1 mole of liquid when it passes into the vapour state
A. Molar Heat of Fusion
B. Molar Heat of Vaporization
C. Boiling point
D. Entropy
28. Determine the vapour pressure of water at 150°C. The vapour pressure of water at 110°C is 1.5atm and
molar heat of vaporization of 9500cal/mole
A. 2.73atm
B. 4.88atm
C. 7.5atm
D. 5.9atm
29. The vapour pressure of acetone at 100°C is 1.5atm and a molar heat of vaporization of 9750cal/mole.
Determine the temperature at which its pressure will drop at sea level
A. 362°C
B. 80°C
C. 89°C
D. 120°C
30. The temperature at which the vapour pressure of the liquid equals the external or atmospheric
A. Melting point
B. Boiling point
C. Freezing point
D. Sublimation
31. Which of the following is/are true statement(s) about boiling point
I. At higher elevations the atmospheric pressure decreases, hence the boiling point increases
II. All the heat absorbed is used to change the liquid to vapour and the temperature does not
rise until the liquid is completely vaporized
III. Boiling point of hydrocarbons, simple alcohols and carboxylic acids increase with an increase
in molecular weight
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
32. This is the heat lost when the vapours condense to liquids
A. Heat of Condensation
B. Heat of Fusion
C. Heat of Vaporization
D. Heat of Fission
33. Which of the following is/are statement(s) that describes crystalline solids
I. They are made of structural units arranged in a loose geometric patterns or lattices
II. Crystalline solids are compressible unlike gases and liquids
III. Show definite and sharp melting points
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
34. An example of a tetragonal crystal system is
A. Urea
B. Iodoform
C. Iodine
D. Sodium Chloride
35. Boric acid is an example of a __________ crystal system
A. Cubic
B. Hexagonal
C. Monoclinic
D. Triclinic
36. This is the crystal lattice formation of NaCl
A. Cubic
B. Hexagonal
C. Monoclinic
D. Triclinic
37. Sucrose possess this type of crystal formation
A. Cubic
B. Hexagonal
C. Monoclinic
D. Triclinic
38. The units that constitute the crystal structure can be atoms, molecules or ions. Which of the following
substance(s) is/are crystal formation made of atoms
I. Diamonds and Graphite
II. NaCl
III. Solid CO2 and Naphthalene
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
39. This is/are statement(s0 which characterized different crystal formation
I. Atomic and ionic crystals are generally soft and have low melting points
II. Molecular crystals are hard, brittle and have high melting points
III. Metallic crystals may be soft or hard
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
40. The hardness and strength of metals are dependent on
A. Lattice defects
B. Electron gas
C. Attractive forces
D. Proton content
41. This is the temperature at which the liquid state is at equilibrium with the solid state of a pure crystalline
compound
I. Freezing point
II. Melting point
III. Boiling point
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
42. This is the heat lost when the liquid freezes into solid
A. Heat of Condensation
B. Heat of Fusion
C. Heat of Vaporization
D. Heat of Combustion
43. This is/are true statement(s) about melting point
I. This is higher for alkanes with an even number of carbon atoms than those with odd number of carbons
II. This is generally high for crystals held together by Van der Waals forces than crystals held together by
covalent bonds
III. This is the heat required to increase the intermolecular and intramolecular distances in crystals
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
44. This is the lowest possible temperature in melting cacao butter so as not to destroy the crystal nuclei of the
stable beta form
A. 37°C
B. 35°C
C. 33°C
D. 30°C
45. This is/are true statement(s) about the effect of polymorphism in a drug
I. One polymorph is chemically different from another polymorph
II. One polymorph may be biologically active than the other polymorph
III. Polymorphism may affect the dissolution rate of drugs
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
46. These are compounds which are also known as pseudopolymorphs
A. Solvates
B. Amorphous solid
C. Liquid crystals
D. Isomers
47. This is the reversible change from one polymorphic form to another
A. Monotropic
B. Isotropic
C. Anisotropic
D. Enantiotropic
48. If the direction of change from one polymorphic form to another involves one direction, this is said to be a
A. Monotropic
B. Isotropic
C. Anisotropic
D. Enantiotropic
49. Crystals showing different characteristics in various directions along the crystal are
A. Monotropic
B. Isotropic
C. Anisotropic
D. Enantiotropic
50. Crystalline substances that exhibit similar properties and characteristics in all directions are
A. Monotropic
B. Isotropic
C. Anisotropic
D. Enantiotropic
51. Which of the following statement(s) describe/s an amorphous solid
I. These are supercooled liquids
II. They don’t have a definite melting point
III. Have faster rate of dissolution than crystalline solids
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
52. Which of the following describe(s) the fourth state of matter
I. Properties of which are intermediate between the liquid and solid states
II. Will flow if sufficient pressure is applied
III. They are also known as the mesophase
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
53. This is are types of liquid crystals which are also known as the soap-like or grease-like crystals
A. Smectic
B. Nematic
C. Cholesteric
D. Thermotropic
54. This is also known as the thread-like crystals
A. Smectic
B. Nematic
C. Cholesteric
D. Thermotropic
55. This is the third type of liquid crystals, which may be considered as a special case of the nematic type
A. Smectic
B. Nematic
C. Cholesteric
D. Thermotropic
56. This is/are statements which describe(s) the smectic crystals
I. The molecules of this crystals are mobile in two directions and can rotate in one axis
II. Considered as the mesophase of the most pharmaceutical significance
III. This phase easily forms binary systems or simple mixtures with other additives
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
57. This is/are characteristics of molecules that forms the mesophase
I. Are inorganic in nature
II. Possess strong dipoles and easily polarizable groups
III. Are elongated, rectilinear in shape and rigid
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
58. These are liquid crystsals obtained from the action of certain solvents on solids
A. Smectic
B. Nematic
C. Lyotropic
D. Thermotropic
59. These are forms of liquid crystals obtained from the application of sufficient heat on solids sto form the
mesophase
A. Smectic
B. Nematic
C. Lyotropic
D. Thermotropic
60. This was the first recorded type of liquid crystals that was derived through the application of heat
A. Cholesteryl benzoate
B. Calcium sterate
C. Sodium benzoate
D. Potassium acetate
61. This is the property of crystals which the mesophase also possess characterized as the ability to let light
pass through and divide into two components with different velocities and refractive index
A. Refraction
B. Polymorphism
C. Birefringence
D. Isomerism
62. This is used for relating the effect of the least number of independent variables (e.g. temperature, pressure
and concentration) upon the various phases that can exist in an equilibrium system containing a given of
components
A. Le Chatelier’s Principle
B. Gibb’s Phase Rule
C. Triangular Planar
D. Phase Diagram
63. This represents the number of homogenous, physically distinct portion of a system that is separated from
other portions of the system by bounding surfaces
A. Number of phases
B. Number of components
C. Degrees of freedom
D. Number of intermediates
64. This is the least number of intensive variables that must be fixed to describe the system completely
A. Number of phases
B. Number of components
C. Degrees of freedom
D. Number of intermediates
65. This is the smallest number of constituents by which the composition of each phase in the system at
equilibrium can be expressed in the form of a chemical formula or equation
A. Number of phases
B. Number of components
C. Degrees of freedom
D. Number of intermediates
66. This is/are true generalization(s) in the Gibbs’ phase rule for a single-component system
I. The number of the degrees of freedom increases with the increase in the number of components
II. The number of the degrees of freedom decreases with the increase in the number of phases
III. It is necessary to fix mor variable as the system becomes more complex
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
67. Determine the degrees of freedom of a system containing either ice, water or water vapour
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 0
68. What is the degree of freedom for a system containing a water in equilibrium with its vapour
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 0
69. Assuming that we have system wherein ice-water-water vapour are in equilibrium. What will be the degrees
of freedom of the system
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 0
70. Determine the degrees of freedom for a system containing liquid water, liquid ethanol in equilibrium with
their vapours
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 0

For nos. 71 – 74, use the diagram below to answer the question

W Z
Va Liquid
po
ur
Pr
es Solid
sur X
Gas
e
Y

Temperature

71. Which of the following represents the vapour pressure curve


A. Curve WX
B. Curve UX
C. Curve ZX
72. Which of the following is the deposition curve
A. Curve WX
B. Curve YX
C. Curve ZX
73. Which of the following represents the condensation curve
A. Curve WX
B. Curve YX
C. Curve ZX
74. This is the point at which variables are unnecessary to define the system
A. W
B. X
C. Y
D. Z
75. These are systems where in only the solid and liquid states are considered and the vapour state is ignored
A. Condensed System
B. Solid-Liquid Equilibrium System
C. Bivariant System
D. Conservative System
76. In the phase diagram of a two-component system containing two liquid phases, the maximum temperature
at which the two-phase region exist is called the
I. Upper Consolute Temperature
II. Critical Solution Temperature
III. Upper Miscibility Temperature
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III

For nos. 77 – 79 use the following diagram

I
Data:
A = 18%
B = 28%
B C C = 53%
Te A D
mp D = 68%
era
II
tur
e
(°C
)

0 20 40 60 80 100

77. Determine the amount of component X (water) and component Y(Phenol) needed in preparing 50g of a
system that would contain 28% by weight phenol and 72% by weight water
A. 4 g water and 1 g phenol
B. 28 g phenol and 72 g water
C. 40 g water and 10 g phenol
D. 72 g phenol and 28 g water
78. What will be the weight of phenol and water to be used in a 75g system containing 53% by weight of phenol
and 47% by weight of water
A. 3 g water and 7 g phenol
B. 22.5 g water and 52.5 g phenol
C. 53 g phenol and 47 g water
D. 47 g phenol and 53 g water
79. In preparing a 100g system containing equal portions of water and phenol, how much will be the required
amount of each component?
A. 36 g water and 64 g phenol
B. 50 g water and 50 g phenol
C. 64 g phenol and 36 g water
D. 9 g phenol and 16 g water
For nos. 80 – 87 use the following diagram

Te
m I R
p Data:
er R = 75%
at A = 60%
ur B = 100%
e C = 50%
II III
(° 35
D = 100%
A B E = 40%
C)
F = 100%
27
C D

E
20 F
G
IV
15 H

20 40 60 80 100
Thymol in Salol (% by weight)

80. In the diagram which region represents the region where both components are present as pure solid phases
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
81. Which region is composed of solid salol and its conjugate liquid phase
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
82. This is the region which represents the solid thymol and its conjugate liquid phase
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
83. This is the region in which both thymol and salol will be present as a single liquid phase
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
84. What will be the weight of thymol and salol at 35°C to be sued in a 75g system containing 75% by weight of
phenol and 25% by weight of salol?
A. 50 g salol and 25 g thymol
B. 25 g salol and 50 g thymol
C. 47 g salol and 28 g thymol
D. 28 g salol and 47 g thymol
85. What will be the weight of thymol and salol at 27°C to be used in a 75g system containing 75% by weight of
phenol and 25% by weight of salol?
A. 50 g salol and 25 g thymol
B. 35 g salol and 35 g thymol
C. 25 g salol and 50 g thymol
D. 40 g salol and 30 g thymol
86. What will be the weight of thymol and salol at 20°C to be used in a 75g system containing 75% by weight of
phenol and 25% by weight of salol?
A. 50.5 g salol and 24.5 g thymol
B. 24.5 g salol and 50.5 g thymol
C. 31.25 g salol and 43.75 g thymol
D. 43.75 g salol and 31.25 g thymol
87. What will be the weights of thymol and salol required to prepare a 75g system at eutectic point
A. 45 g salol and 30 g thymol
B. 30 g salol and 45 g thymol
C. 25 g salol and 50 g thymol
D. 50 g salol and 25 g thymol
88. The heat involved in the complete oxidation of 1 mole of a compound at 1 atm pressure is known as
A. Heat of Condensation
B. Heat of Fusion
C. Heat of Vaporization
D. Heat of Combustion
89. This is a condition where in heat is neither lost nor gained during a reaction
A. Adiabetic
B. Isothermal
C. Isobaric
D. Reversible
90. A reaction where in temperature is held constant
A. Adiabetic
B. Isothermal
C. Isobaric
D. Reversible
91. Which law of thermodynamics states that the total energy of a system and its immediate surroundings
remain constant during any operation
A. 1st Law
B. 2nd Law
C. 3rd Law
92. Which law of thermodynamics states that the entropy of a pure crystalline substance is zero at absolute zero
because the crystal arrangement mush show the greatest orderliness at this temperature
A. 1st Law
B. 2nd Law
C. 3rd Law
93. This law of thermodynamics is concerned about the entropy and spontaneity of a system
A. 1st Law
B. 2nd Law
C. 3rd Law
94. This is the heat required to raise the temperature of 1 mole of a substance by 1 degree
A. Enthalpy
B. Molar Heat of Fission
C. Molar Heat Capacity
D. Molar Heat of Combustion
95. The heat required to increase the internal energy and to perform work of expansion
A. Enthalpy
B. Molar Heat of Fision
C. Molar Heat Capacity
D. Molar Heat of Combustion
96. These are any molecules which are associated with the absorption of ultraviolet or visible light
A. Phosphorescence
B. Chromophore
C. Photoluminescence
D. Fluorescence
97. A molecule that initially absorbs ultraviolet light to reach an excited state and then emits ultraviolet or visible
light in returning to ground state is generally manifesting the process known as
A. Phosphorescence
B. Chromophore
C. Photoluminescence
D. Fluorescence
98. This is defined as a mixture of two or more components that form a homogenous molecular dispersion
A. System
B. True Solution
C. Mixture
D. Colloidal Dispersion
99. This is defined as a bounded space or a definite quantity of substance that is under observation and
experimentation
A. System
B. True Solution
C. Phase
D. Colloidal Dispersion
100. This is a distinct homogenous part of a system separated by definite boundaries from other parts of the
system
A. System
B. True Solution
C. Phase
D. Colloidal Dispersion
101. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about colloidal dispersions
I. The dispersed particle are having size intermediate to that of a true solution and coarse dispersion
II. May be considered as a two-phase system in certain conditions
III. May be considered as a one-phase system in certain conditions
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
102. This are properties which are dependent on the total contribution of each component in a system
A. Additive
B. Colligative
C. Constitutive
D. Extensive
103. This are properties which are dependent on the arrangement and to a lesser extent on the number and kind
of atoms within a molecule
A. Additive
B. Colligative
C. Constitutive
D. Extensive
104. This is a property of a system which depends on the quantity of the matter present in a system
A. Additive
B. Intensive
C. Constitutive
D. Extensive
105. This is/are example(s) of intensive properties
I. Temperature
II. Volume
III. Density
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II and III
106. Which of the following is/are example of colligative properties of substances
I. Osmotic Pressure Elevation
II. Vapor Pressure Lowering
III. Freezing Point Elevation
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I, II and III
107. Which of the following is/are example(s) of an additive property of a system
I. Refractive Index
II. Solubility
III. Mass of a solution
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
108. Which of the following is an example of an extensive property of a system
A. Density
B. Pressure
C. Temperature
D. Volume
109. This concentration expression gives the measure of the relative proportion of moles of each constituent in a
solution
A. Molarity
B. Molality
C. Normality
D. Mole Fraction

For nos. 110 – 112

Given a 0.2 M solution of NaCl (MW = 58.5) in water (MW = 18) with a specific gravity of 1.45

110. How many grams of NaCl are present in 750ml solution


A. 3.7 g
B. 8.8 g
C. 10.5 g
D. 2.5 g
111. What is the molality of the solution
A. 0.2 m
B. 1.5 m
C. 0.14 m
D. 0.5 m
112. Determine the mole fraction of NaCl in solution
A. 4.6 x 10-3
B. 5.3 x 10-3
C. 3.7 x 10-3
D. 2.5 x 10-3
113. The heat absorbed when a solid melts
A. Heat of Fusion
B. Heat of Vaporization
C. Condensation
D. Sublimation
114. The human plasma contains 7.5 mEq/liter of calcium ions. How many milligrams of calcium chloride (MW =
147) are required to prepare a 750 ml solution having the same calcium plasma concentration?
A. 826.8 mg
B. 413.4 mg
C. 206.7 mg
D. 103.3 mg
115. Calculate the number of milliequivalents/liter of Al2O3 (MW = 324) present in a 2.5% (w/v) solution of Al2O3
A. 231 meq
B. 463 meq
C. 526 meq
D. 173 meq
116. Determine the vapor pressure of pure chloroform in a chloroform-water system, where water has a mole
fraction of 0.25 and the vapor pressure of pure water at 75°C is 450 mmHg. The total vapor pressure of the
mixture is 255 mmHg
A. 190 mmHg
B. 142.5 mmHg
C. 210 mmHg
D. 135 mmHg
For nos. 117 – 119 refer to the problem below
The vapor pressure of pure ethanol (MW = 72.5) at 25°C is 17.5 pounds/square inch (psi). Acetone (MW = 65.5) on
the other hand has a vapor pressure of 20.25 psi. In preparing a kilo of a 1:1 solution of Ethanol and Acetone
117. What is the partial pressure of ethanol in the mixture
A. 10.63 psi
B. 8.31 psi
C. 18.94 psi
D. 13.5 psi
118. What is the partial pressure of acetone in the mixture
A. 10.63 psi
B. 8.31 psi
C. 18.94 psi
D. 13.5 psi
119. What is the total vapor pressure of the mixture
A. 10.63 psi
B. 8.31 psi
C. 18.94 psi
D. 13.5 psi
120. Using Van’t Hoff equation for osmotic pressure. What is the osmotic pressure of a solution prepared by
dissolving 2.5g of urea (MW = 155) in 500 ml of water at 30°C
A. 8 atm
B. 0.8 atm
C. 0.0008 atm
D. 0.08 atm
121. This is/are true statement(s) about a cathode
I. This is the positively charged electrode
II. The electrode where reduction occurs
III. The electrode here positively charged ions are attracted to
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
122. This is/are true statement(s) about an anode
I. This is the positively charged electrode
II. The electrode where oxidation occurs
III. The electrode where positively charged ions are attracted to
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
123. These are solvents which are capable of accepting protons from the solute
A. Protophilic
B. Protogenic
C. Amphiprotic
D. Aprotic
124. There are solvents which are capable of acting both as proton acceptor and proton donor
A. Protophilic
B. Protogenic
C. Amphiprotic
D. Aprotic
125. These are solvents that neither accepts nor donate a proton
A. Protophilic
B. Protogenic
C. Amphiprotic
D. Aprotic
126. A solvent characterized to be proton-donating compound
A. Protophilic
B. Protogenic
C. Amphiprotic
D. Aprotic
For nos. 127 – 130

A buffer solution was prepared by mixing 0.25M CHOONa and 0.125 HCOOH (pKa=3.75)

127. Determine the pH of the buffer solution


A. 3.95
B. 4.25
C. 4.05
D. 3.99
128. If the same composition is to be used in preparing a buffer solution with a pH of 4. What will be the molar
ration of the salt to acid?
A. 2.5:1
B. 1:2.5
C. 5.6:1
D. 1:5.6
129. What is the percentage of the ionized species in the buffer system
A. 84.8%
B. 15.15%
C. 45.2%
D. 3.99%
130. What is the percentage of the unionized species in the buffer system
A. 84.8%
B. 15.1%
C. 45.2%
D. 3.99%
131. pH is defined as
I. Negative log of hydrogen ion concentration
II. Sum of the hydrogen ion concentration and the hydroxyl ion concentration
III. Log of the hydrogen ion concentration
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
132. Sodium bicarbonate has a molecular weight of 84. If the 210mg is dissolved in 1L, what would be the
normality of the solution?
A. 0.25 N
B. 0.050 N
C. 2.5 N
D. 0.50 N
133. The water-ion theory of acids and bases is attributed to
A. Lewis
B. Pearson
C. Bronsted-Lowry
D. Arrhenius
134. What is the pH of a solution containing 0.5 mole of ephedrine and 0.02 mole of ephedrine HCl per liter of
solution? The Kb of ephedrine is given as 3.16 x 10-6
A. 8.35
B. 9.90
C. 10.89
D. 11.20
135. This is also known as the magnitude of the resistance of a buffer to resist pH changes
I. Buffer capacity
II. Buffer efficiency
III. Buffer index
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
For nos. 136 – 138

The Kb of pilocarpine is found to be 6.34 x 10-7 at 25°C

136. Determine the mole ration (salt/base) present at pH of 8.5


A. 5:1
B. 1:5
C. 8:1
D. 1:8
137. Determine the mole percent of the base
A. 83.3%
B. 16.7%
C. 20%
D. 39.5%
138. Determine the mole percent of the salt
A. 83.3%
B. 16.7%
C. 20%
D. 39.5%
139. A buffer was prepared containing 5 x 10-2 M sodium borate with 5 x 10-7 M boric acid. Determine the Ka of
the acid if the solution have a pH of 1.0
A. 1 x 106
B. 1 x 10-6
C. 1 x 10-9
D. 1 x 10-10
140. This is/are correct statement(s) about the effects of buffer capacity and pH in pharmaceutical products
I. They influence tissue irritation
II. These two also affects the therapeutic response of a drug
III. These will also impart solubility to the drug product
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
141. This is/are methods of isotonicity adjusting involving the addition of tonicity adjusting agent such as NaCl to
prepare the isotonic solution
I. NaCL equivalent method
II. Cryoscopic or freezing point depression method
III. Sprowls method
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
142. Calculate the osmolarity of a solution (mOsm/L) which contains 6 grams of sodium chloride in a liter (MW:
Na = 23 ; Cl = 35.5)
A. 51.3
B. 205
C. 102.5
D. 307
143. A solution contains 1% (w/v) Al2(SO4)3 ● 14 H2O (MW = 600). Assuming complete ionization and assuming
the MW to be correct, what will be the calculated osmolarity of the solution?
A. 20.8 mOsm/L
B. 41.6 mOsm/L
C. 83.3 mOsm/L
D. 166.6 mOsm/L
E. None of the above
144. A compound A*B* is 25% ionized has a molecular weight of 275. Wat is the osmolarity of a 0.3% solution?
A. 13.5 mOsm/L
B. 11.6 mOsm/L
C. 16.7 mOsm/L
D. 10.5 mOsm/L
145. Mannitol injection is used as a diuretic. The molecular weight of mannitol is 182. What is the osmolarity of a
0.2% solution? Mannitol is an ideal non-electrolyte
A. 18 mOsm/L
B. 20 mOsm/L
C. 11 mOsm/L
D. 4 mOsm/L
146. The term which expresses osmotic pressure effect of a solution as osmols per kg of solvent is
A. Osmolarity
B. Osmolality
C. Osmoticity
D. Isotonicity
E. Molarity
147. The compound shown below is calcium biphosphate and has a MW of 234. What is its gram equivalent
weight? Ca(H2PO4)2
A. 29.3
B. 58.5
C. 117
D. None of the above
148. An IV solution contains 300mg of potassium chloride (MW: K = 39; Cl = 35.5) in a liter of a 5 percent
dextrose solution (MW of dextrose is 200). What will be the osmolarity of the solution?
A. 258 mOsm/L
B. 8 mOsm/L
C. 28 mOsm/L
D. 254 mOsm/L
149. Al2(SO4)3 has a MW of 342. What is its gram equivalent weight?
A. 35 g/GEW
B. 171 g/GEW
C. 342 g/GEW
D. 57 g/GEW

Prepare the following:

Rx
Apomorphine HCl 2.5%
Ephedrine SO4 4.0%
NaCl q.s
Water q.s
Signa: Make a 200ml isotonic solution

1% solution of Fp (°C)
Apomorphine HCl 0.03
Ephedrine SO4 0.05

150. Determine how much NaCl should be used to prepare the prescription
A. 0.56 g
B. 0.85 g
C. 0.20 g
D. 0.37 g
151. Compute for the amount of dextrose (E=0.21) that would be necessary to make a gallon of a 5% solution of
ephedrine sulfate (E=0.13) isotonic
A. 9.5 g
B. 25 g
C. 45 g
D. None of the above

For nos. 152 – 153

Rx
ZnSO4 1%
NaCl q.s
Purified H2O q.s 60 ml
152. How much NaCl is needed to make an isotonic solution? (E value for ZnSO4 = 0.15)
A. 0.45 g
B. 0.54 g
C. 0.60 g
D. 0.75 g
153. If boric acid is to be used to adjust the tonicity of the solution, how much of this should be used (E value of
boric acid = 0.20)
A. 0.45 g
B. 1.54 g
C. 2.25 g
D. 0.75 g

For nos. 152 – 153

Rx
Ingredient X 0.5 (Ingredient X)
NaCl q.s MW 300
Purified H2O ad 60 ml i Factor 1.4

154. Determine the E value of ingredient X


A. 0.45
B. 0.15
C. 0.25
D. 0.75
155. Determine how many grams of NaCl should be required in compounding the following prescription
A. 0.375 g
B. 0.425 g
C. 1.25 g
D. 0.75 g
156. What if apomorphine HCl (E = 0.12) is used in making the solution isotonic rather than NaCl, how much of
apomorphine should be used?
A. 5.37 g
B. 3.12 g
C. 4.25 g
D. 2.75 g
157. Using the White-Vincent method for adjusting isotonicity, compute for the amount of diluting isotonic
solution needed to bring a 75 ml of 5% KCl solution (E = 0.21) to the desired volume
A. 52.5 ml
B. 32.3 ml
C. 97.5 ml
D. 27.5 g
158. This is/are factors that affects the solubility of gas in liquids
I. Pressure
II. Presence of salts
III. Chemical reactions between the gas and the solvent
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
159. This is a type of system in which the solute is in equilibrium with the solid phase
A. Saturated
B. Unsaturated
C. Subsaturated
D. Supersaturated
160. If a substance dissolves in a hundred to a thousand parts of solvent such substance is characterized to be
A. Soluble
B. Sparingly soluble
C. Slightly soluble
D. Very slightly soluble
161. Defined as the spontaneous interaction of two or more substances to form a homogenous molecular
dispersion
A. Distribution
B. Solubility
C. Diffusion
D. Stability
162. The law that states in a very dilute solution at constant temperature, the concentration of dissolved gas is
proportional to the partial pressure of the gas above the solution in equilibrium
A. Raoult’s Law
B. Henry’s Law
C. Dalton’s Law
D. Graham’s Law
163. Salting out is a process that may take place in
I. Gas in Liquid System
II. Liquid in Liquid System
III. Solid in Liquid System
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
164. In the determination of molecular weight, the freezing point method is the preferred method when
I. The solute is alcohol
II. The solute is nonvolatile
III. The substance is not decomposed at boiling temperature
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
165. The addition of electrons to a chemical species is called
A. Reduction
B. Oxidation
C. Electrolysis
D. Conduction
166. The man who stated that the passage of 96,500 coulombs of electricity through a conductivity cell produces
a chemical change of 1 gram equivalent weight of any substance
A. Van’t Hoff
B. Arrhenius
C. Debye
D. Faraday
167. The scientist who developed the principle that strong electrolytes are completely dissociated into ions in
solutions of moderate concentration and that any deviation from complete dissociation is due to interionic
attractions
A. Mason and Gardner
B. Van’t Hoff and Morse
C. Debye and Huckel
D. Bronsted and Lowry
168. Which of the following is an example of protogenic solvent
A. Formic acid
B. Acetone
C. Ether
D. Liquid Ammonia
169. A substance containing two or more donor groups may combine with a metal to form a special type of
complex known as
A. Colloid
B. Chelate
C. Ligands
D. Clathrates
170. Which of the following is the correct unit of expression for a zero-order rate constant
A. Time-1
B. Concentration-1 time-1
C. Concentration / time
D. Concentration / time-1
171. Which of the following is the correct unit of expression for a first-order rate constant
A. Time-1
B. Concentration-1 time-1
C. Concentration / time
D. Concentration / time-1
172. Which of the following is the correct unit of expression for a second-order rate constant
A. Time-1
B. Concentration-1 time-1
C. Concentration / time
D. Concentration / time-1
173. This is the equation for determining the half-life of a first-order reaction. Where a = concentration
A. a / 2k
B. 1 / ak
C. 0.693 / k
D. 3 / 2 a2k
174. Which of the following is the half-life equation for the second-order kinetics
A. a / 2k
B. 1 / ak
C. 0.693 / k
D. 3 / 2 a2k
175. Which of the following is the half-life equation for the zero-order kinetics
A. a / 2k
B. 1 / ak
C. 0.693 / k
D. 3 / 2 a2K

For nos. 176 – 179

The concentration of formaldehyde remaining after 180 min., expressed as the volume of the gas, was 5 ml
from an initial volume of 60 ml

176. Compute for the first-order rate constant


A. 0.0035 / min
B. 0.0138 / min
C. 0.693 / min
D. 0.012 / min
177. Compute for the half-life of formaldehyde
A. 45.2 min
B. 80.4 min
C. 50.2 min
D. 28.7 min
178. How much of formaldehyde have decomposed after 30 min?
A. 20.33 ml
B. 30.25 ml
C. 39.67 ml
D. 28.75 ml
179. What is the shelf-life of formaldehyde
A. 4.2 min
B. 8.4 min
C. 5.2 min
D. 7.6 min

For nos. 180 – 184

A suspension is to contain 3.5g per two tablespoon full of a drug. The solubility of the drug is 250mg/100ml.
The 1st order rate constant for the drug degradation was given as 3.5 x 10-4 per hour
180. Compute for the zero-order rate constant
A. 8.75 x 10-5 or 8.75 x 10-5 g/100ml.hr-

B. 7.35 x 10-5 or 7.35 x 10-5 g/100ml.hr-

C. 5.48 x 10-5 or 5.48 x 10-5 g/100ml.hr-

D. 6.75 x 10-5 or 6.75 x 10-5 g/100ml.hr-


181. Determine the shelf-life of the product
A. 3 years
B. 2.5 years
C. 2 years
D. 1.5 years
182. Determine its half-life
A. 3.7 years
B. 5.5 years
C. 7.7 years
D. 2.6 years
183. A type of reaction-order where the amount of drug A is decreasing at a rate proportional to the square of
the amount of drug A remaining
A. 1st order
B. 2nd order
C. 3rd order
D. 0th order
184. A type of reaction-order where the rate is independent of the concentration of the reactant/s
A. 1st order
B. 2nd order
C. 3rd order
D. 0th order
185. A type of reaction where the rate of reaction is dependent of the concentration of the drug remaining
A. 1st order
B. 2nd order
C. 3rd order
D. 0th order
186. A separation process based on unequal rates of passage of solutes and solvent through a microporous
membranes, carried out in a batch in a continuous mode
A. Diffusion
B. Dialysis
C. Osmosis
D. Ultrafiltration
187. It is used to separate colloidal particles and macromolecules by the use of a membrane
A. Diffusion
B. Dialysis
C. Osmosis
D. Ultrafiltration
188. This is a process of mass transfer of individual molecules of a substance, brought about by random
molecular motion and associated with a concentration gradient
A. Diffusion
B. Dialysis
C. Osmosis
D. Ultrafiltration
189. This is referred to as the transfer of solvent molecules through a semipermeable membrane from a region
of low solute to high solute concentration
A. Diffusion
B. Dialysis
C. Osmosis
D. Ultrafiltration
190. This is a process almost similar to ultrafiltration, which differs only in that it requires higher pressure
A. Diffusion
B. Reverse osmosis
C. Hemodialysis
D. Microfiltration
191. This law explains the phenomenon of diffusion
A. Newton’s Law
B. Henry’s Law
C. Dalton’s Law
D. Fick’s Law
192. This equation refers to the dissolution rate of drugs in solution
A. Fick’s equation
B. Noyes-Whitney equation
C. Michaelis-Menten equation
D. Henderson-Hasselbalch equation
193. This is/are example(s) of systems where in a liquid interface is present
I. Gas in Liquid System
II. Liquid in Liquid System
III. Solid in Liquid System
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
194. The force of attraction between molecules of different phases is referred to as
A. Electrostatic force
B. Adhesive force
C. Van der Waal’s force
D. Cohesive
195. This is/are the force per unit length existing at the interface between two immiscible liquid phases
I. Interfacial tension
II. Surface tension
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
196. This is/are true statement(s) about surface and interfacial tensions
I. Surface tension is reserved only for liquid-gas and solid-gas systems
II. Generally surface tension is stronger than interfacial tension
III. Interfacial tension includes the force acting in between a solid-solid system
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
197. This is/are method used for measuring surface and interfacial tension
I. Capillary rise method
II. DuNouy ring method
III. Drop weight method
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
198. Proposed the monolayer theory of gas adsorption on solid surface
A. Langmuir
B. Freundlich
C. Noyes-Whitney
D. Brunauer, Emmet and Teller
199. This is a surfactant that wen dissolved in water lowers the advancing contact angle and aids in displacing
an air phase at the surface and replacing it with a liquid phase
A. Detergent
B. Wetting agent
C. Solubilizing agent
D. Antifoaming agent
200. This is characterized as a stable structure consisting of air pockets enclosed within thin film of liquid
A. Aerosol
B. Foam
C. Detergent
D. Antifoaming agent
201. Which of the following statement is true?
I. When the contact angle is 180°, wetting is complete
II. When a liquid has a high contact angle on a solid surface, it is said to have a high spreading coefficient
III. Wetting agents are surfactants having an HLB of 7 to 9
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. I, II and III
202. A liquid will rise in a capillary tube when the contact angle is
I. Greater than 0° but less than 90°
II. Greater than 90° but less than 135°
III. Greater than 90° but less than 180°
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
203. The degree of adsorption of a gas by a solid depends on which of the following
I. Chemical nature of the adsorbent
II. Surface area of the adsorbent
III. Partial pressure of the gas
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
204. Desorption the reverse process of adsorption and which is possible only in physical adsorption may take
place in a gas-solid system when
I. Temperature is increased and pressure lowered
II. Temperature is lowered and pressure increased
III. Both temperature and pressure were lowered
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
205. In adsorption at solid interface the material which is adsorbed is referred to as the
A. Adsorbate
B. Adsorbent
C. Absorbent
D. Eluate
206. This is defined as the difference in potential between the actual surface and the electroneutral region of the
solution
A. Zeta potential
B. Nernst potential
C. Newton potential
D. Langmuir potential
207. Defined as the difference in potential between the surface of the tightly bound layers and the electroneutral
region of the solution
A. Zeta potential
B. Nernst potential
C. Newton potential
D. Langmuir potential
208. Which of the following has a practical application in the stability of systems containing dispersed particles
affecting the degree of repulsion between adjacent, similarity charged, dispersed particles
A. Zeta potential
B. Nernst potential
C. Newton potential
D. Langmuir potential
209. When the electrokinetic potential is lowered to a certain value, which of the following will take place
I. Repulsive forces exceeds the attractive forces resulting to a well dispersed system
II. Attractive forces exceeds the repulsive forces resulting to the flocculation of particles in solution
III. There will be an equilibrium between the attractive and repulsive forces of the system
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
210. This is/are characteristics of colloidal dispersions
I. Particle size less than 1nm (mµ)
II. Particles not seen by ordinary microscope, but can be visible in electron microscope
III. Can pass through a filter paper but do not pass through semipermeable membrane
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
211. This is a dispersion characterized to have a particle size of less than 1 nm, invisible to electron microscope
and would pass through a semipermeable membrane
A. Lyophilic dispersion
B. Molecular dispersion
C. Coarse dispersion
D. Colloidal dispersion
212. This is/are true statements about lyophilic colloids
I. It is a system containing particles that interact to an appreciable extent with the dispersion medium
II. Most of the dispersed particles are organic in nature
III. A material that forms a lyophilic colloidal system in one liquid may not do so in another
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
213. This is/are properties associated with lyophobic colloids
I. It is a system containing particles that have negligible attraction with the dispersion medium
II. Most of the dispersed particles are organic in nature
III. A material that forms a lyophilic colloidal system in one liquid may not do so in another liquid
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
214. This is a type of colloidal system which is unstable to the addition of small amounts of electrolytes
A. Lyophilic colloids
B. Lyophobic colloids
C. Association colloids
D. Amphiphilic colloids
215. This is an example of an optical property of colloid
A. Brownian movement
B. Faraday-Tyndall effect
C. Sedimentation
D. Zeta potential
216. This is/are example(s) of kinetic properties of colloids
I. Diffusion
II. Brownian motion
III. Sedimentation
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
217. This involves the movement of charged particle through a liquid under the influence of an applied potential
difference
A. Electrophoresis
B. Electroosmosis
C. Sedimentation potential
D. Streaming potential
218. This involves the movement of liquid through a plug or membrane across which a potential is applied
A. Electrophoresis
B. Electroosmosis
C. Sedimentation potential
D. Streaming potential
219. This involves the forcing of liquid to flow through a plug or bed of particles which results in the formation of
a potential
A. Electrophoresis
B. Electroosmosis
C. Sedimentation potential
D. Streaming potential
220. This is the measure of the protective property of colloids which stabilizes a hydrophobic colloid
A. Schulze-Hardy number
B. Gold number
C. Sedimentation potential
D. Zeta potential
221. Particle size may be measured using an arbitrarily chosen fixed line. Which of the following is a measure of
the distance between two tangents parallel to some fixed direction
A. Feret diameter
B. Martin diameter
C. Projected area diameter
222. It is the diameter of a circle with the same areas as that of the particle observed perpendicular to the
surface on which the particle rests
A. Feret diameter
B. Martin diameter
C. Projected area diameter
223. This is taken as the length of a line that bisects a particle
A. Optical microscopy
B. Sieving
C. Coulter counter
D. HIAC/Royco counter
224. This is a method of particle size determination using the principle of light blockage
A. Optical microscopy
B. Sieving
C. Coulter counter
D. HIAC/Royco counter
225. This is a method of particle size determination using the principle of electrical resistance
A. Optical microscopy
B. Sieving
C. Coulter counter
D. HIAC/Royco counter
226. The ration of the void volume to the bulk volume is
A. Liquidity
B. Bulkiness
C. Porosity
D. Viscosity
227. This is known as the volume of the spaces between particles
A. Void volume
B. Bulk volume
C. True volume
For nos. 228 - 229

A powder was determined to have a density of 4.57g/cm 3, weighing 125g it was found to have a bulk volume of
78 cm3 when placed in a 100ml graduated cylinder

228. Calculate the porosity of the powder


A. 65% C. 35%
B. 50% D. 75%
229. Compute for the void volume of the powder
A. 40.84 cm3
B. 50.65 cm3
C. 35.75 cm3
D. 75.42 cm3

For nos. 230 – 235

The following data apply to a 1g sample of granular powder


Volume of the solid alone = 0.5 cm3/g
Volume of intraparticle pores = 0.1 cm3/g
Volume of spaces between particles = 1.6 cm3/g
230. What is the specific true volume
A. 0.5 cm3/g
B. 2.2 cm3/g
C. 1.6 cm3/g
D. 0.6 cm3/g
231. What is the specific granule volume (Vg)
A. 0.5 cm3/g
B. 2.2 cm3/g
C. 1.6 cm3/g
D. 0.6 cm3/g
232. What is the specific bulk volume (Vb)
A. 0.5 cm3/g
B. 2.2 cm3/g
C. 1.6 cm3/g
D. 0.6 cm3/g
233. Determine the total porosity of the particles
A. 55.37%
B. 16.67%
C. 77.27%
D. 91.52%
234. Determine the interspace porosity of the particles
A. 72.72%
B. 16.67%
C. 77.27%
D. 91.52%
235. Determine the intraparticle porosity
A. 72.72%
B. 16.67%
C. 77.27%
D. 91.52%
236. This is a measure of the frictional forces in a loose powder
A. Porosity
B. Bulkiness
C. Angle of Repose
D. Hauser Ratio
237. This is the reciprocal of bulk density
A. Porosity
B. Bulkiness
C. Angle of Repose
D. Hauser Ratio
For nos. 238 – 241
I II III IV

G G G G

F F F F

238. Which of the following diagram shows the rheogram of a pseudoplastic system
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
239. Which of the following diagram shows the rheogram of a plastic system
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
240. Which of the following diagram shows the rheogram of a dilatant system
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
241. Which rheogram represents the Newtonian system of flow
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
242. The resistance of fluid to flow is called
A. Liquidity
B. Bulkiness
C. Porosity
D. Viscosity
243. This are substances which requires the application of stress which must overcome the yield value in order
for flow to occur
I. Plastic
II. Bingham Bodies
III. Gels
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
244. A type of flow in which the bulk of the system expands in response to an increase in shear stress
A. Pseudoplastic
B. Dilatant
C. Thixotropic
D. Rheopectic
245. Viscosity of a pseudoplastic substance decreases with
A. Increasing shear rate
B. Decreasing shear rate
C. Increasing time
D. Decreasing time
246. This is also known as the “shear thinning system”
A. Pseudoplastic
B. Dilatant
C. Thixotropic
D. Rheopectic
247. An isothermal and comparatively slow recovery of a consistency lost through shearing
A. Elasticity
B. Thixotropy
C. Plasticity
D. Viscosity
248. This is a type of flow system in which the rheogram presents with a hysteresis loop
A. Pseudoplastic
B. Dilatant
C. Thixotropic
D. Plastic
249. Gels and magmas when standing form semisolids and on shaking become fluid are said to be
A. Pseudoplastic
B. Thixotropic
C. Plastic
D. Rheopectic
250. The following statement(s) is/are true for an emulsion
I. Thermodynamically stable system
II. Consists of at least two immiscible liquid phases
III. The dispersed phase is stabilized by a surfactant
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. II and III
251. Generally, medicinal emulsions for oral administration are usually of what type
A. w/o emulsion
B. o/w emulsion
C. w/o/w emulsion
D. Microemulsion
252. This explains the separation of layers in an emulsion
A. Cohesive forces are stronger than adhesive forces
B. Adhesive forces are stronger than cohesive forces
C. Cohesive and adhesive forces are in equilibrium
D. Cohesive forces is equal to zero
253. Complete miscibility is achieved when
A. Cohesive forces are stronger than adhesive forces
B. Adhesive forces are stronger than cohesive forces
C. Adhesive forces is equal to zero
D. Cohesive forces is equal to zero
254. This type of emulsion represents a state intermediate between thermodynamically stable solubilized
solutions and a thermodynamically unstable form
A. w/o emulsion
B. o/w emulsion
C. w/o/w emulsion
D. Microemulsion
255. This is/are example(s) of methods for determining types of emulsions
I. UV Fluorescence Test
II. Dye Solubility Test
III. Sedimentation Test
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. II and III
256. This is a method of preparing emulsion which utilizes the concept of phase inversion from w/o to o/w
emulsion
A. English method
B. Continental method
C. Forbes bottle method
D. In situ soap method
257. Which of the following is an example of a water in oil emulsion
A. Butter
B. Tragacanth
C. Gelatin
D. Acacia
258. Which of the following describes an oil in water emulsion
I. HLB 9 – 12
II. Span 60
III. Tween 20
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
259. This is a gel in which the liquid is removed and only the framework remains
A. Hydrogels
B. Organogels
C. Jellies
D. Xerogels
260. A gel may be classified as organic or inorganic. Which of the following statements is/are true for organic
gels
I. Characterized as a two-phase system
II. Characterized as a single-phase system
III. Forms a homogenous gelatinous mixture
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. II and III
261. A phenomenon in which the liquid portion of a gel is pressed out
A. Sweating
B. Syneresis
C. Swelling
D. Inhibition
262. This is a process which involves the taking up of liquid by a gel with an observable increase in its volume
A. Sweating
B. Syneresis
C. Swelling
D. Imbibition
263. A phenomenon where in a gel takes up liquid without an observable increase in volume
A. Sweating
B. Syneresis
C. Swelling
D. Imbibition
264. This also known as the water washable form of emulsion base
A. o/w bases
B. w/o bases
C. emulsifiable bases
D. emulsified bases
265. This is also known as the absorption base
A. o/w bases
B. w/o bases
C. Emulsifiable bases
D. Emulsified bases
266. The number of moles of solute per liter of solution
A. Normality
B. Molality
C. Molarity
D. Formality
267. The following statement(s) is/are true for dustibility
I. It is a measure of the cohesiveness of particles of a compacted powder
II. It characterizes free-flowing powders
III. It is related to the uniform spreading of dusting powders when applied to skin
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. II and III
268. This is the approximate angle formed when the particles are floating well out of the liquid
A. 0°
B. 60°
C. 90°
D. 180°
269. This is the angle formed when the particles sink into the liquid
A. 0°
B. 60°
C. 90°
D. 180°
270. This is/are true statements regarding electrolytes in solution
I. Will act as deflocculating agents
II. Will cause a reduction of the zeta potential
III. Will form a bridge between adjacent particles so as to produce a closely packed structure
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. II and III
271. A method of measuring tonicity which is based on the effect of various solutions of the drug observed on
the appearance of red blood cells suspended in the solution
A. Cryoscopic method
B. NaCl equivalent method
C. Freezing point depression method
D. Hemolytic method
272. When the stress is removed, a _____ system returns to its original state of fluidity
A. Dilatant
B. Plastic
C. Pseudoplastic
D. Newtonian
273. The following is/are method(s) of determining particle size
I. Optical Microscopy
II. Particle Volume Counter
III. Sedimentation
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I, II and III
274. Generally there are three types of densities of particles. Which of the following densities is defined as the
density exclusive of the voids and intraparticle pores larger than molecular or atomic dimensions in the
crystal lattic
A. True density
B. Granule density
C. Bulk density
275. This is a type of density determined from the bulk volume and the weight of the dry powder in a graduated
cylinder
A. True density
B. Granule density
C. Bulk density
276. This is the density determined by the displacement of mercury, which does not penetrate at ordinary
pressures into pores smaller than 10µm
A. True density
B. Granule density
C. Bulk density
277. Molecular weight is an example of what property
A. Colligative
B. Constitutive
C. Additive
D. Extensive
278. Which of the following is/are classified as an example(s) of constitutive property
I. Optical rotation
II. Density
III. Mass
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I, II and II
279. Law of Heat Summation
A. 1st Law of Thermodynamics
B. 1st Fick’s Law
C. Hess’ Law
D. Dalton’s Law
280. The fastest order of reaction to decompose, since according to its differential rate of expression, it is
independent of the remaining concentration of the drug after decomposition
A. Zero
B. Pseudo-First
C. First
D. Second
281. This type of solution has a solute concentration equivalent to its limit of solubility
A. Unsaturated
B. Saturated
C. Supersaturated
282. Ascorbic acid is the least stable of all vitamins. Its instability is via this reaction
A. Photolysis
B. Hydrolysis
C. Oxidation
D. Reduction
283. Method of adjusting the tonicity of a solution to conform that of the blood and lacrimal fluid based on the
use of calculated volume V values when the weight of the drug is 0.3g followed by the dilution of this solution
with an already isotonic usually buffered solution to the appropriate volume
A. Cryoscopic
B. Sprowls
C. White-Vincent
D. NaCl equivalent
284. Equation used for the determination of the buffer capacity of solution
A. Van Slyke equation
B. Vant Hoff’s equation
C. Freundlich equation
D. Langmuir equation
285. Maximum buffer capacity can be observed in a buffer solution when
I. pH equals pKa
II. pH lesser than pKa
III. pKa greater than pH
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I, II and III
286. A group which donates a pair of electrons to form a coordinate covalent link between itself and the central
ion having an incomplete electron shell
A. Metal substrate
B. Chromophore
C. Ligand
D. Chelate
287. The suppression of a property or reaction of a metal without the removal of that metal from the system
A. Stabilization
B. Sequestration
C. Coordination
D. Sensitization
288. Type of complexation involved in the formulation of Warfarin sodium USP
A. Clathrate formation
B. Monomolecular inclusion
C. Channel lattice type
D. Chelation
289. Type of complexation involved in Starch-Iodine Complex
A. Clathrate formation
B. Monomolecular inclusion
C. Channel lattice type
D. Chelation
289. A group which donates a pair of electrons to form a coordinate covalent link between itself and the central
having an incomplete electron shell
A. Metal substrate
B. Chromophore
C. Ligand
D. Chelate
290. The suppression of a property or reaction of a metal without the removal of that metal from the system
A. Stabilization
B. Sequestration
C. Coordination
D. Sensitization
291. Type of complexation involved in the formulation of Warfarin sodium USP
A. Clathrate formation
B. Monomolecular inclusion
C. Channel lattice type
D. Chelation
292. Type of complexation involved in Starch-Iodine Complex
A. Clathrate formation
B. Monomolecular inclusion
C. Channel lattice type
D. Chelation
293. Range of HLB value in the Griffin Scale for anti-foaming agents
A. 1 – 3
B. 3 – 8
C. 8 – 16
D. 16 – 18
294. Range of HLB value in the Griffin Scale for W/O emulsifying agents
A. 1 – 3
B. 3 – 8
C. 8 – 16
D. 16 – 18
295. The upward movement of dispersed droplets relative to the continuous phase
A. Sedimentation
B. Coalescence
C. Creaming
D. Aggregation
296. Range of HLB value in the Griffin Scale for O/W emulsifying agents
A. 1 – 3
B. 3 – 8
C. 8 – 16
D. 16 – 18
297. The force on the solution side of the membrane which prevents the movement of solvent molecules on the
opposite side of the membrane
A. Cohesive forces
B. Adhesive forces
C. Osmotic pressure
D. Interfacial forces
298. The electrode from which the anions are repelled
A. Cathode
B. Anode
299. These is/are true statements of the Kinetic Theory of Gas
I. Gases are in rapid, random motion, moving at high velocities in curved lines
II. Collisions of gas molecules are completely elastic
III. Molecules are far apart with negligible volume even at high pressure
A. I only
B. II only
C. II, III only
D. I, II, III
300. The expression of the relation between the volume of gas and the absolute temperature is known as
A. Charles’ Law
B. Boyle’s Law
C. Gay-Lussac’s Law
D. Henry’s Law

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