Enterprise Campus Network Design 7.

In which OSI layer should devices in the distribution

layer typically operate?
a. Layer 1
1. Where does a collision domain exist in a switched
b. Layer 2
network?
c. Layer 3
a. On a single switch port
d. Layer 4
b. Across all switch ports
c. On a single VLAN
8. A hierarchical network’s distribution layer aggregates
d. Across all VLANs
which of the following?
a. Core switches
2. Where does a broadcast domain exist in a switched
b. Broadcast domains
network?
c. Routing updates
a. On a single switch port
d. Access layer switches
b. Across all switch ports
c. On a single VLAN
9. In the core layer of a hierarchical network, which of the
d. Across all VLANs
following are aggregated?
a. Routing tables
3. What is a VLAN primarily used for?
b. Packet filters
a. To segment a collision domain
c. Distribution switches
b. To segment a broadcast domain
d. Access layer switches
c. To segment an autonomous system
d. To segment a spanning-tree domain
10. In a properly designed hierarchical network, a
broadcast from one PC is confined to which one of the
4. How many layers are recommended in the hierarchical
following?
campus network design model?
a. One access layer switch port
a. 1
b. One access layer switch
b. 2
c. One switch block
c. 3
d. The entire campus network
d. 4
e. 7
11. Which one or more of the following are the
components of a typical switch block?
5. What is the purpose of breaking a campus network into
a. Access layer switches
a hierarchical design?
b. Distribution layer switches
a. To facilitate documentation
c. Core layer switches
b. To follow political or organizational policies
d. E-commerce servers
c. To make the network predictable and scalable
e. Service provider switches
d. To make the network more redundant and secure

12. Which of the following are common types of core, or

6. End-user PCs should be connected into which of the
backbone, designs? (Choose all that apply.)
following hierarchical layers?
a. Collapsed core
a. Distribution layer
b. Loop-free core
b. Common layer
c. Dual core
c. Access layer
d. Layered core
d. Core layer
e. Multinode core
13. What is the maximum number of access layer Switch Operation
switches that can connect into a single distribution layer
switch?
1. Which of the following devices performs transparent
a. 1
bridging?
b. 2
a. Ethernet hub
c. Limited only by the number of ports on the access layer
b. Layer 2 switch
switch
c. Layer 3 switch
d. Limited only by the number of ports on the distribution
d. Router
layer switch
e. Unlimited
2. When a PC is connected to a Layer 2 switch port, how
far does the collision domain spread?
14. A switch block should be sized according to which two
a. No collision domain exists.
of the following parameters? (Choose all that apply.)
b. One switch port.
a. The number of access layer users
c. One VLAN.
b. A maximum of 250 access layer users
d. All ports on the switch.
c. A study of the traffic patterns and flows
d. The amount of rack space available
3. What information is used to forward frames in a Layer
e. The number of servers accessed by users
2 switch?
a. Source MAC address
15. What evidence can be seen when a switch block is too
b. Destination MAC address
large? (Choose all that apply.)
c. Source switch port
a. IP address space is exhausted.
d. IP addresses
b. You run out of access layer switch ports.
c. Broadcast traffic becomes excessive.
4. What does a switch do if a MAC address cannot be
d. Traffic is throttled at the distribution layer switches.
found in the CAM table?
e. Network congestion occurs.
a. The frame is forwarded to the default port.
b. The switch generates an ARP request for the address.
16. How many distribution switches should be built into
c. The switch floods the frame out all ports (except the
each switch block?
receiving port).
a. 1
d. The switch drops the frame.
b. 2
c. 4
5. In a Catalyst switch, frames can be filtered with access
d. 8
lists for security and QoS purposes. This filtering occurs
according to which of the following?
17. Which are the most important aspects to consider
a. Before a CAM table lookup
when designing the core layer in a large network?
b. After a CAM table lookup
(Choose all that apply.)
c. Simultaneously with a CAM table lookup
a. Low cost
d. According to how the access lists are configured
b. Switches that can efficiently forward traffic, even when
every uplink is at 100
6. Access list contents can be merged into which of the
percent capacity
following?
c. High port density of high-speed ports
a. CAM table
d. A low number of Layer 3 routing peers
b. TCAM table
c. FIB table
d. ARP table
7. Multilayer switches using CEF are based on which of Switch Port Configuration
these techniques?
a. Route caching
1. What does the IEEE 802.3 standard define?
b. NetFlow switching
a. Spanning Tree Protocol
c. Topology-based switching
b. Token Ring
d. Demand-based switching
c. Ethernet
d. Switched Ethernet
8. Which answer describes multilayer switching with CEF?
a. The first packet is routed and then the flow is cached.
2. At what layer are traditional 10-Mbps Ethernet, Fast
b. The switch supervisor CPU forwards each packet.
Ethernet, and Gigabit Ethernet the same?
c. The switching hardware learns station addresses and
a. Layer 1
builds a routing database.
b. Layer 2
d. A single database of routing information is built for the
c. Layer 3
switching hardware.
d. Layer 4

9. In a switch, frames are placed in which buffer after

3. At what layer are traditional 10-Mbps Ethernet, Fast
forwarding decisions are made?
Ethernet, and Gigabit Ethernet different?
a. Ingress queues
a. Layer 1
b. Egress queues
b. Layer 2
c. CAM table
c. Layer 3
d. TCAM
d. Layer 4

10. What size are the mask and pattern fields in a TCAM
4. What is the maximum cable distance for an Ethernet,
entry?
Fast Ethernet, and Gigabit Ethernet connection over
a. 64 bits
unshielded twisted pair cabling?
b. 128 bits
a. 100 feet
c. 134 bits
b. 100 m
d. 168 bits
c. 328 m
d. 500 m
11. Access list rules are compiled as TCAM entries. When
a packet is matched against an access list, in what order
5. Ethernet autonegotiation determines which of the
are the TCAM entries evaluated?
following?
a. Sequentially in the order of the original access list.
a. Spanning-tree mode
b. Numerically by the access list number.
b. Duplex mode
c. Alphabetically by the access list name.
c. Quality of service mode
d. All entries are evaluated in parallel.
d. MAC address learning
e. Device discovery
12. Which Catalyst IOS command can you use to display
the addresses in the CAM table?
6. Which of the following cannot be automatically
a. show cam
determined and set if the far end of a connection does
b. show mac address-table
not support autonegotiation?
c. show mac
a. Link speed
d. show cam address-table
b. Link duplex mode
c. Link media type
d. MAC address
7. Which of these is not a standard type of gigabit 12. Which one of the following statements is true about a
interface converter (GBIC) or small form factor pluggable Catalyst switch?
(SFP) module? a. Neither CDP nor LLDP are enabled by default.
a. 1000BASE-LX/LH b. CDP is enabled and LLDP is disabled by default .
b. 1000BASE-T c. CDP is disabled and LLDP is enabled by default.
c. 1000BASE-FX d. Both CDP and LLDP are enabled by default.
d. 1000BASE-ZX
13. For a Catalyst switch to offer Power over Ethernet to a
8. Assume that you have just entered the configure device, what must occur?
terminal command. You want to configure the speed and a. Nothing; power always is enabled on a port.
duplex of the first 10/100/1000 twisted-pair Ethernet b. The switch must detect that the device needs inline
interface on the first Cisco Catalyst switch stack member power.
to 1-Gbps full-duplex mode. Which one of these c. The device must send a CDP message asking for power.
commands should you enter first? d. The device must send an LLDP message asking for
a. speed 1000 mbps power.
b. speed 1000 e. The switch is configured to turn on power to the port.
c. interface gigabitethernet 1/0/1
d. interface gigabit ethernet 1/0/1 14. Which one of these commands can enable Power over
e. duplex full Ethernet to a switch interface?
a. inline power enable
9. If a switch port is in the errdisable state, what is the b. inline power on
first thing you should do? c. power inline on
a. Reload the switch. d. power inline auto
b. Use the clear errdisable port command.
c. Use the shut and no shut interface-configuration VLANs and Trunks
commands.
d. Determine the cause of the problem.
1. A VLAN is which of the following?
a. Collision domain
10. Which of the following show interface output
b. Spanning-tree domain
information can you use to diagnose a switch port
c. Broadcast domain
problem?
d. VTP domain
a. Port state
b. Port speed
2. Switches provide VLAN connectivity at which layer of
c. Input errors
the OSI model?
d. Collisions
a. Layer 1
e. All answers are correct
b. Layer 2
c. Layer 3
11. Which one of the following is a standards-based
d. Layer 4
protocol that can be used to discover and collect
information about connected devices?
3. Which one of the following switch functions is needed
a. CDP
to pass data between two PCs, each connected to a
b. STP
different VLAN?
c. ICMP
a. Layer 2 switch
d. LLDP
b. Layer 3 switch
c. Trunk
d. Tunnel
4. Which Catalyst IOS switch command is used to assign a a. ISL
port to a VLAN? b. 802.1Q
a. access vlan vlan-id c. DTP
b. switchport access vlan vlan-id d. VTP
c. vlan vlan-id
d. set port vlan vlan-id 11. Which VLANs are allowed on a trunk link by default?
a. None
5. Which of the following is a standardized method of b. Only the native VLAN
trunk encapsulation? c. All active VLANs
a. 802.1d d. Only negotiated VLANs
b. 802.1Q
c. 802.3z 12. Which command configures a switch port to form a
d. 802.1a trunk without using negotiation?
a. switchport mode trunk
6. What is the Cisco proprietary method for trunk b. switchport mode trunk nonegotiate
encapsulation? c. switchport mode dynamic auto
a. CDP d. switchport mode dynamic desirable
b. EIGRP
c. ISL 13. Two hosts are connected to switch interfaces Gigabit
d. DSL Ethernet 1/0/1 and 1/0/33, but they cannot communicate
with each other. Their IP addresses are in the
7. Which of these protocols dynamically negotiates 192.168.10.0/24 subnet, which is carried over VLAN 10.
trunking parameters? The show vlan id 10 command generates the following
a. PAgP output:
b. STP Switch# show vlan id 10
c. CDP VLAN Name Status Ports
d. DTP ---- -------------------------------- --------- ---------------------------
Users active Gi1/0/1, Gi1/0/2, Gi1/0/3, Gi1/0/4, Gi1/0/5,
8. How many different VLANs can an 802.1Q trunk Gi1/0/6, Gi1/0/7, Gi1/0/8, Gi1/0/9, Gi1/0/10, Gi1/0/11,
support? Gi1/0/12, Gi1/0/13, Gi1/0/14, Gi1/0/15, Gi1/0/16,
a. 256 Gi1/0/17, Gi1/0/18, Gi1/0/19, Gi1/0/20, Gi1/0/21,
b. 1024 Gi1/0/22, Gi1/0/23, Gi1/0/25, Gi1/0/26, Gi1/0/27,
c. 4096 Gi1/0/28, Gi1/0/31, Gi1/0/32, Gi1/0/34, Gi1/0/35,
d. 32,768 Gi1/0/36, Gi1/0/37, Gi1/0/39, Gi1/0/40, Gi1/0/41,
e. 65,536 Gi1/0/42, Gi1/0/43, Gi1/0/46
The hosts are known to be up and connected. Which of
9. Which of the following incorrectly describes a native the following reasons might be causing the problem?
VLAN? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Frames are untagged on an 802.1Q trunk. a. The two hosts are assigned to VLAN 1.
b. Frames are untagged on an ISL trunk. b. The two hosts are assigned to different VLANs.
c. Frames can be interpreted by a nontrunking host. c. Interface Gigabit Ethernet 1/0/33 is a VLAN trunk.
d. The native VLAN can be configured for each trunking d. The two hosts are using unregistered MAC addresses.
port.

10. If two switches each support all types of trunk

encapsulation on a link between them, which one will be
negotiated?
14. A trunk link between two switches did not come up as switchport trunk native vlan 20
expected. The configuration on Switch A is as follows: switchport voice vlan 50
Switch A# show running-config interface switchport mode access
gigabitethernet1/0/1 a. VLAN 50, VLAN 20
interface GigabitEthernet1/0/1 b. VLAN 50, VLAN 1
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q c. VLAN 1, VLAN 50
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-10 d. VLAN 20, VLAN 50
switchport mode dynamic auto e. VLAN 50, VLAN 10
no shutdown
The interface configuration on Switch B is as follows: 18. A Cisco lightweight wireless access point is connected
Switch B# show running-config interface to switch interface Gigabit Ethernet 1/0/20. Which one of
gigabitethernet1/0/1 the following commands enables you to configure the
interface GigabitEthernet1/0/1 interface on the switch?
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q a. switchport access vlan 50
switchport mode dynamic auto switchport mode access
switchport access vlan 5 b. switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-100
no shutdown switchport mode trunk
Assuming the interfaces began with a default c. switchport ap vlan 50
configuration before the commands were applied, which d. no switchport mode dynamic autonomous
one of the following reasons is probably causing the
problem? VLAN Trunking Protocol
a. The two switches do not have matching switchport
trunk allowed vlan commands.
1. Which of the following is not a Catalyst switch VTP
b. Neither switch has a native VLAN configured.
mode?
c. Both switches are configured in the dynamic auto
a. Server
mode.
b. Client
d. Switch B is configured to use access VLAN 5.
c. Designated
d. Transparent
15. What command configures an IP phone to use VLAN 9
for voice traffic?
2. A switch in VTP transparent mode can do which one of
a. switchport voice vlan 9
the following?
b. switchport voice-vlan 9
a. Create a new VLAN
c. switchport voice 9
b. Only listen to VTP advertisements
d. switchport voip 9
c. Send its own VTP advertisements
d. Cannot make VLAN configuration changes
16. What is the default voice VLAN condition for a switch
port?
3. Which one of the following is a valid VTP
a. switchport voice vlan 1
advertisement?
b. switchport voice vlan dot1p
a. Triggered update
c. switchport voice vlan untagged
b. VLAN database
d. switchport voice vlan none
c. Subset
d. Domain
17. If the following interface configuration commands
have been used, what VLAN numbers will the voice and
4. Which one of the following is needed for VTP
PC data be carried over, respectively?
communication?
interface gigabitethernet1/0/1
a. A Management VLAN
switchport access vlan 10
b. A trunk link 11. Which VLAN number is never eligible for VTP pruning?
c. An access VLAN a. 0
d. An IP address b. 1
c. 1000
5. Which one of the following VTP modes does not allow d. 1001
any manual VLAN configuration changes?
a. Server 12. Which of the following might present a VTP problem?
b. Client a. Two or more VTP servers in a domain
c. Designated b. Two servers with the same configuration revision
d. Transparent number
c. A server in two domains
6. Select all the parameters that decide whether to accept d. A new server with a higher configuration revision
new VTP information. number
a. VTP priority
b. VTP domain name Traditional Spanning Tree Protocol
c. Configuration revision number
d. VTP server name
1. How is a bridging loop best described?
a. A loop formed between switches for redundancy
7. How many VTP management domains can a Catalyst
b. A loop formed by the Spanning Tree Protocol
switch participate in?
c. A loop formed between switches where frames
a. 1
circulate endlessly
b. 2
d. The round-trip path a frame takes from source to
c. Unlimited
destination
d. 4096

2. Which of these is one of the parameters used to elect a

8. Which command configures a Catalyst switch for VTP
root bridge?
client mode?
a. Root path cost
a. set vtp mode client
b. Path cost
b. vtp client
c. Bridge priority
c. vtp mode client
d. BPDU revision number
d. vtp client mode

3. If all switches in a network are left at their default STP

9. If a VTP server is configured for VTP Version 2, what
values, which one of the following is not true?
else must happen for successful VTP communication in a
a. The root bridge will be the switch with the lowest MAC
domain?
address.
a. A VTP version 2 password must be set.
b. The root bridge will be the switch with the highest
b. All other switches in the domain must be version 2
MAC address.
capable.
c. One or more switches will have a bridge priority of
c. All other switches must be configured for VTP versión
32,768.
2.
d. A secondary root bridge will be present on the
d. The VTP configuration revision number must be reset.
network.

10. What is the purpose of VTP pruning?

4. Configuration BPDUs are originated by which of the
a. Limit the number of VLANs in a domain
following?
b. Stop unnecessary VTP advertisements
a. All switches in the STP domain
c. Limit the extent of broadcast traffic
b. Only the root bridge switch
d. Limit the size of the virtual tree
c. Only the switch that detects a topology change 11. If a switch has ten VLANs defined and active, how
d. Only the secondary root bridge when it takes over many instances of STP will run using PVST+ versus CST?
a. 1 for PVST+, 1 for CST
5. What happens to a port that is neither a root port nor a b. 1 for PVST+, 10 for CST
designated port? c. 10 for PVST+, 1 for CST
a. It is available for normal use. d. 10 for PVST+, 10 for CST
b. It can be used for load balancing.
c. It is put into the Blocking state. Spanning-Tree Configuration
d. It is disabled.

1. Which of these is the single most important design

6. What is the maximum number of root ports that a
decision to be made in a network running STP?
Catalyst switch can have?
a. Removing any redundant links
a. 1
b. Making sure all switches run the same version of IEEE
b. 2
802.1D
c. Unlimited
c. Root bridge placement
d. None
d. Making sure all switches have redundant links

7. What mechanism is used to set STP timer values for all

2. Where should the root bridge be placed on a network?
switches in a network?
a. On the fastest switch
a. Configuring the timers on every switch in the network.
b. Closest to the most users
b. Configuring the timers on the root bridge switch.
c. Closest to the center of the network
c. Configuring the timers on both primary and secondary
d. On the least-used switch
root bridge switches.
d. The timers cannot be adjusted.
3. Which of the following is a result of a poorly placed
root bridge in a network?
8. MAC addresses can be placed into the CAM table, but
a. Bridging loops form.
no data can be sent or received if a switch port is in which
b. STP topology cannot be resolved.
of the following STP states?
c. STP topology can take unexpected paths.
a. Blocking
d. Root bridge election flapping occurs.
b. Forwarding
c. Listening
4. Which of these parameters should you change to make
d. Learning
a switch become a root bridge?
a. Switch MAC address
9. What is the default “hello” time for IEEE 802.1D?
b. Path cost
a. 1 second
c. Port priority
b. 2 seconds
d. Bridge priority
c. 30 seconds
d. 60 seconds
5. What is the default base 802.1D STP bridge priority on
a Catalyst switch?
10. Which of the following is the Spanning Tree Protocol
a. 0
that is defined in the IEEE
b. 1
802.1Q standard?
c. 32,768
a. PVST
d. 65,535
b. CST
c. EST
6. Which of the following commands is most likely to
d. MST
make a switch become the root bridge for VLAN 5,
assuming that all switches have the default STP 12. Where should the STP UplinkFast feature be enabled?
parameters? a. An access layer switch.
a. spanning-tree root b. A distribution layer switch.
b. spanning-tree root vlan 5 c. A core layer switch.
c. spanning-tree vlan 5 priority 100 d. All these answers are correct.
d. spanning-tree vlan 5 root
13. If used, the STP BackboneFast feature should be
7. What is the default path cost of a Gigabit Ethernet enabled on which of these?
switch port? a. All backbone or core layer switches
a. 1 b. All backbone and distribution layer switches
b. 2 c. All access layer switches
c. 4 d. All switches in the network
d. 19
e. 1000 14. Which one of the following commands enables you to
verify the current root bridge in VLAN 10?
8. What command can change the path cost of interface a. show root vlan 10
Gigabit Ethernet 1/0/3 to a value of 8? b. show root-bridge vlan 10
a. spanning-tree path-cost 8 c. show spanning-tree vlan 10 root
b. spanning-tree cost 8 d. show running-config
c. spanning-tree port-cost 8
d. spanning-tree gig 1/0/3 cost 8 Protecting the Spanning Tree
9. What happens if the root bridge switch and another Protocol Topology
switch are configured with different STP Hello timer
values? 1. Why is it important to protect the placement of the
a. Nothing; each sends hellos at different times. root bridge?
b. A bridging loop could form because the two switches a. To keep two root bridges from becoming active
are out of sync. b. To keep the STP topology stable
c. The switch with the lower Hello timer becomes the root c. So all hosts have the correct gateway
bridge. d. So the root bridge can have complete knowledge of the
d. The other switch changes its Hello timer to match the STP topology
root bridge
2. Which of the following features protects a switch port
10. What network diameter value is the basis for the from accepting superior
default STP timer calculations? BPDUs?
a. 1 a. STP Loop Guard
b. 3 b. STP BPDU Guard
c. 7 c. STP Root Guard
d. 9 d. UDLD
e. 15
3. Which of the following commands can you use to
11. Where should the STP PortFast feature be used? enable STP Root Guard on a switch port?
a. An access layer switch port connected to a PC a. spanning-tree root guard
b. An access layer switch port connected to a hub b. spanning-tree root-guard
c. A distribution layer switch port connected to an access c. spanning-tree guard root
layer switch d. spanning-tree rootguard enable
d. A core layer switch port
4. Where should the STP Root Guard feature be enabled c. STP moves the link to the Forwarding state.
on a switch? d. STP moves the link to the Listening state.
a. All ports
b. Only ports where the root bridge should never appear 11. What must a switch do when it receives a UDLD
c. Only ports where the root bridge should be located message on a link?
d. Only ports with PortFast enabled a. Relay the message on to other switches
b. Send a UDLD acknowledgment
5. Which of the following features protects a switch port c. Echo the message back across the link
from accepting BPDUs when d. Drop the messag
PortFast is enabled?
a. STP Loop Guard 12. Which of the following features effectively disables
b. STP BPDU Guard spanning-tree operation on a switch port?
c. STP Root Guard a. STP PortFast
d. UDLD b. STP BPDU filtering
c. STP BPDU Guard
6. To maintain a loop-free STP topology, which one of the d. STP Root Guard
following should a switch uplink be protected against?
a. A sudden loss of BPDUs 13. To reset switch ports that have been put into the
b. Too many BPDUs errdisable mode by UDLD, which one of the following
c. The wrong version of BPDUs commands should you use?
d. BPDUs relayed from the root bridge a. clear errdisable udld
b. udld reset
7. Which of the following commands can enable STP Loop c. no udld
Guard on a switch port? d. show udld errdisable
a. spanning-tree loop guard
b. spanning-tree guard loop Advanced Spanning Tree Protocol
c. spanning-tree loop-guard
d. spanning-tree loopguard enable
1. Which one of the following commands enables the use
of RSTP?
8. STP Loop Guard detects which of the following
a. spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
conditions?
b. no spanning-tree mode pvst
a. The sudden appearance of superior BPDUs
c. spanning-tree rstp
b. The sudden lack of BPDUs
d. spanning-tree mode rstp
c. The appearance of duplicate BPDUs
e. None. RSTP is enabled by default.
d. The appearance of two root bridges

2. On which standard is RSTP based?

9. Which of the following features can actively test for the
a. 802.1Q
loss of the receive side of a link between switches?
b. 802.1D
a. POST
c. 802.1w
b. BPDU
d. 802.1s
c. UDLD
d. STP
3. Which of the following is not a port state in RSTP?
a. Listening
10. UDLD must detect a unidirectional link before which
b. Learning
of the following?
c. Discarding
a. The Max Age timer expires.
d. Forwarding
b. STP moves the link to the Blocking state.
4. When a switch running RSTP receives an 802.1D BPDU, 11. How many instances of STP are supported in the Cisco
what happens? implementation of MST?
a. The BPDU is discarded or dropped. a. 1
b. An ICMP message is returned. b. 16
c. The switch begins to use 802.1D rules on that port. c. 256
d. The switch disables RSTP. d. 4096

5. When does an RSTP switch consider a neighbor to be 12. What switch command can be used to change from
down? PVST+ to MST?
a. After three BPDUs are missed a. spanning-tree mst enable
b. After six BPDUs are missed b. no spanning-tree pvst+
c. After the Max Age timer expires c. spanning-tree mode mst
d. After the Forward timer expires d. spanning-tree mst

6. Which process is used during RSTP convergence? Aggregating Switch Links

a. BPDU propagation
b. Synchronization
1. If Gigabit Ethernet ports are bundled into an
c. Forward timer expiration
EtherChannel, what is the máximum throughput
d. BPDU
supported on a Catalyst switch?
a. 1 Gbps
7. What causes RSTP to view a port as a point-to-point
b. 2 Gbps
port?
c. 4 Gbps
a. Port speed
d. 8 Gbps
b. Port media
e. 16 Gbps
c. Port duplex
d. Port priority
2. Which of these methods distributes traffic over an
EtherChannel?
8. Which of the following events triggers a topology
a. Round robin
change with RSTP on a nonedge port?
b. Least-used link
a. A port comes up or goes down.
c. A function of address
b. A port comes up.
d. A function of packet size
c. A port goes down.
d. A port moves to the Forwarding state.
3. What type of interface represents an EtherChannel as a
9. Which of the following is not a characteristic of MST?
whole?
a. A reduced number of STP instances
a. Channel
b. Fast STP convergence
b. Port
c. Eliminated need for CST
c. Port channel
d. Interoperability with PVST+
d. Channel port

10. Which of the following standards defines the MST

4. Which of the following is not a valid method for
protocol?
EtherChannel load balancing?
a. 802.1Q
a. Source MAC address
b. 802.1D
b. Source and destination MAC addresses
c. 802.1w
c. Source IP address
d. 802.1s
d. IP precedence
e. UDP/TCP port
5. How can the EtherChannel load-balancing method be 11. Which of the following EtherChannel modes does not
set? send or receive any negotiation frames?
a. Per switch port a. channel-group 1 mode passive
b. Per EtherChannel b. channel-group 1 mode active
c. Globally per switch c. channel-group 1 mode on
d. Cannot be configured d. channel-group 1 mode desirable
e. channel-group 1 mode auto
6. What logical operation is performed to calculate
EtherChannel load balancing as a function of two 12. Two computers are the only hosts sending IP data
addresses? across an EtherChannel between two switches. Several
a. OR different applications are being used between them.
b. AND Which of these load-balancing methods would be more
c. XOR likely to use the most links in the EtherChannel?
d. NOR a. Source and destination MAC addresses.
b. Source and destination IP addresses.
7. Which one of the following is a valid combination of c. Source and destination TCP/UDP ports.
ports for an EtherChannel? d. None of the other answers is correct.
a. Two access links (one VLAN 5, one VLAN 5)
b. Two access links (one VLAN 1, one VLAN 10) 13. Which command enables you to see the status of an
c. Two trunk links (one VLANs 1 to 10, one VLANs 1, 11 to EtherChannel’s links?
20) a. show channel link
d. Two 10/100/1000 Ethernet links (both full duplex, one b. show etherchannel status
100 Mbps) c. show etherchannel summary
d. show ether channel status
8. Which of these is a method for negotiating an
EtherChannel?
a. PAP
b. CHAP
c. LAPD
d. LACP

9. Which of the following is a valid EtherChannel

negotiation mode combination between two switches?
a. PAgP auto, PAgP auto
b. PAgP auto, PAgP desirable
c. on, PAgP auto
d. LACP passive, LACP passive

10. When is PAgP’s “desirable silent” mode useful?

a. When the switch should not send PAgP frames
b. When the switch should not form an EtherChannel
c. When the switch should not expect to receive PAgP
frames
d. When the switch is using LACP mode