Q.

1: You can export the data in a grid as a ______

A. Text file, Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word, or HTML document.
B. Text file, Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word
C. Text file, Microsoft Excel, or HTML document.
D: Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word, or HTML document.

Q. 2: When a requirement, test, or defect changes, Quality Center alerts the

associated entities and can notify those responsible for any associated entities.
A. True
B. False

Q. 3: A ______ indicates that the alert is new. A gray flag indicates that the alert
has already been read.
A. Green flag
B. Pink flag
C. Red flag
D: Blue flag

Q. 4: Quality Center enables you to add your own alerts, in addition to

automatic traceability notifications. You can use ______ flags to remind yourself
to follow up on something.
A. Alert Me
B. Follow up
C. Follow Me
D: Follow

Q. 5: Throughout the testing process, you can add attachments to help illustrate
your work.
A. True
B. False

Q. 6: You can use a Uniform Resource Locator (URL) to a Quality Center record
as an attachment.
A. True
B. False

Q. 7: A follow up flag is specific to your user login name. Anyone else viewing
the record does not see your follow up alert.
A. True
B. False

Q. 8: A _________ is a view of a Quality Center window with the settings you apply
to it.
A. Personal view
B. My view
C. Favorite view
D: Fav view

Q. 9: By default, Quality Center displays the four most recently used views on
the Favorites menu. You can define the number of views displayed on the menu
by setting the ______ parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site
Administration.
A. FAVORITES_DEPTH
B. FAVORITES-DEPTH
C. FAVORITE_DEPTH
D: FAVORITE_DEPTHS

Q. 10: You save favorite views in either a ______ folder or a _______ folder. Views
in a
________ folder are accessible to all users. Views in a ________ folder are accessible
only to the user who created them.
A. Public, private, public, private
B. Root, Base, Root, Base,
C. Locked, unlocked, locked, unlocked
D: Both B & C
Q. 11: You access Quality Center over the _______ via a Web browser.
A. Internet
B. a corporate intranet
C. Mobile Internet
D: Both A & B

Q. 12:Quality Center also features a sophisticated system for tracking

application defects, enabling you to monitor defects closely from initial
detection until resolution.
A. True
B. False

Q. 13: Test management with Quality Center involves five phases:

A. Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Run Tests.
B. Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Track Defects.
C. Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Analyze Tests.
D: Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Analyze Tests, Track Defects.

Q. 14: Each Quality Center project is supported by a _______ that stores project
information.
A. Root folder
B. Database
C. Flat File
D: Both B & C

Q. 15: Quality Center enables you to manage user access to a project. The_______
determines the privileges that the user has within a project.
A. QC group
B. User_Account group
C. Account group
D: user group

Q. 16: You can import data from _______ to a Quality Center project.
A. Word or Notepad
B. Word or Wordpad
C. Word or Excel
D: Word or Power Point

Q. 17: You launch Quality Center on your machine from your Web browser.
A. True
B. False

Q. 18: Quality Center prompts you to install _______ if it is not already installed
on your machine.
A. Microsoft Java 2.0
B. Microsoft Visio 13.0
C. Microsoft Visual studio 2.0
D: Microsoft .NET Framework 2.0

Q. 19: Quality Center has the following modules, which are accessible from the
sidebar:
A. Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Analysis
B. Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Business Components
C. Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Analysis
D: Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects

Q. 20: When you customize your project, you can instruct Quality Center to
preserve a log of values for the system and user fields in your Requirement,
Test, Test Set, Test Instance, and Defect entities.
A. True
B. False

Q. 21: The ________ can send messages to users connected to Quality Center
projects informing them about important maintenance or other issues.
A. Site administer
B. Site Controller
C. Site Analyzer
D: Site administrator

Q. 22: Quality Center organizes and displays data in ________

A. Grids
B. Trees
C. Folders
D: Both A & B

Q. 23: You can no longer customize data by specifying the order in which
columns appear, and by changing column size.
A. True
B. False

Q. 24: You can filter Quality Center data to display only those records that meet
the criteria that you define.
A. True
B. False
Q. 25: When defining a filter, you can also include a cross filter. This is an
advanced ________ on an associated item such as requirements, tests, test sets,
or defects.
A. Secondary filter
B. Primary filter
C. Cross filter
D: Second filter

Q. 26: By default, records appear in Quality Center according to the ________

A. Increasing order
B. Decreasing order
C. Order in which they were added.
D: Order in which they were deleted.

Q. 27: You cannot copy and paste the filter, sort, and group by settings to and
from the Clipboard.
A. True
B. False

Q. 28: You can use text search to search for records in predefined fields of the
________
A. Requirements, Test Plan, and Defects modules.
B. Releases, Test Plan, and Defects modules.
C. Requirements and Defects modules.
D: Requirements, Execute Tests, and Defects modules.

Q. 29: If you have defined filter conditions for a module, you can restrict the
search to the filtered records, or you can search all records in the module
A. True
B. False

Q. 30: Text search is only available if it has been enabled for the project.
A. True
B. False

Q. 31: QA Manager changes a requirement from a ___________ status to a

Reviewed status once it is approved.
A. Released
B. Tested
C. Not reviewed
D. None of the above

Q. 32: You can also import requirements to your Quality Center project from
Microsoft Word, Excel, or other third-party requirement management tools. To
import requirements, you must first install the appropriate __
A. HP Third Party add-in.
B. HP Quality Center add-in.
C. HP Quality Center
D. HP Quality Center License
Q. 33: The Requirements Grid view enables you to display requirements in a
_________ view.
A. Flat
B. Hierarchical
C. Flat-hierarchical
D. Flat non-hierarchical

Q. 34: The _________ view enables you to analyze the breakdown of child
requirements according to test coverage status.
A. Coverage Analysis
B. Coverage Requirements
C. Coverage
D. Coverage Tests

Q. 35: You can access the Requirements menu bar from the Requirements
module by pressing the shortcut key ___________.
A. F1
B. F9
C. Ctrl + R
D. Alt + R

Q. 36: You can use the ____________to restrict and dynamically change the fields
and values in the Requirements module.
A. Script Edit
B. Scriptor Editor
C. Script Editor
D. Script Editing

Q. 37: The Requirements module enables you to define and manage your
_________
A. Requirements
B. All requirements
C. Some requirements
D. Tedious requirements

38: You can rename or delete Requirements root folder.

A. True
B. False

Q. 39: You can search for a particular requirement in the requirements tree or in
the requirements grid using the _________ command.
A. Search
B. Find
C. Search All
D. Find All

Q. 40: You can replace field values in the requirements tree or in the
requirements grid using the ___________command.
A. Replace
B. Replace All
C. Find & Replace
D. Replace & Find

Q. 41: To set a Quick Test Professional test as a template test, right-click the
test in the test plan tree, and choose _________
A. Template Test
B. Template Tree
C. Template Plan
D. Template

Q. 42: You can change the label of any of the test detail fields.
A. True
B. False

Q. 43: A question mark icon in the test plan tree indicates that the QuickTest
Professional add-in is _________ on your machine.
A. Not activated
B. Not installed
C. Not enabled
D. Not set

Q. 44: A ________ link is included in the e-mail, enabling the recipient to go

directly to the test.
A. Link to Test
B. Move to Test
C. Go to Test
D. Test

Q. 45: In the Test Plan module, you create ________ by selecting requirements to
link to a test.
A. RTM
B. Requirements coverage
C. Test coverage
D. SRS

Q. 46: Alternatively, in the Requirements module, you create _______ by selecting

tests to link to a requirement.
A. RTM
B. Requirements coverage
C. Test coverage
D. SRS

Q. 47: A test can cover more than one requirement, and a requirement can be
covered by only one test.
A. True
B. False

Q. 48: You can also create coverage between test instances and requirements.
You can enable this feature using the __________ parameter in Site Administration
A. ALLOW_REQ_COVERAGE_BY_TEST_INSTANCE
B. ALLOW_TEST_COVERAGE_BY_REQ_INSTANCE
C. ALLOW_R_COVERAGE_BY_T_INSTANCE
D. None of above

Q. 49: Requirements coverage is created automatically when you convert a

requirement to a test. Therefore, even if you have not yet added requirements
coverage, it may already exist.
A. True
B. False

Q. 50: You can also define requirements coverage by dragging a requirement in

the requirements tree to the coverage grid. The requirement is added to the
coverage grid without its child requirements.
A. True
B. False

Q. 51: Each requirement type with risk-based quality management enabled

supports either.
A. Risk analysis or risk assessment
B. Risk breakdown or risk assessment
C. Risk breakdown or risk review
D. Risk analysis or risk evaluation

Q. 52: Performing a risk-based quality management analysis for an analysis

requirement involves the following steps
A. Determine Risk groups, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing Policy, Analyze
Testing Strategy
B. Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing guidelines Settings, Finalize Testing Policy,
Analyze Testing Strategy
C. Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing guidelines,
Analyze Testing Strategy
D. Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing Policy,
Analyze Testing Strategy

Q. 53: A __________ requirement is a requirement belonging to a type that

represents higher levels in the requirements tree hierarchy, such as the Folder
type.
A. Analysis
B. Assessment
C. Policy
D. Test

Q. 54: A _________ requirement is a requirement belonging to a type that

represents requirements that are children of analysis requirements and at a
lower level in the requirements tree hierarchy.
A. Analysis
B. Assessment
C. Policy
D. Test
Q. 55: For each assessment requirement under the analysis requirement, you
determine the Risk Category. The Risk Category is composed of two factors.
A. Business Probability and Failure Criticality
B. Business Vitality and Failure Probability
C. Business Criticality and Failure Probability
D. Business Criticality and Failure Possibility

Q. 56: The Business Criticality of a requirement has three possible values:

A. Critical, Important, Nice to Have
B. Critical, Importance, Nice to Have
C. Critical, Important, Nice to Had
D. None of these

Q. 57: The Failure Probability of a requirement has three possible values:

A. High, Standard, Low

B. High, Average, Low
C. High, Medium, Low
D. None of these

Q. 58: Quality Center defines four Testing Levels.

A. Full, Partial, Basic, and Low
B. Full, Partial, Basic, and None
C. Full, Half, Basic, and None
D. Full, Partial, Critical, and None

Q. 59: The Business Criticality of a requirement is a measure of how likely a test

on the requirement is to fail, based on the technical complexity of the
requirements implementation, without consideration of the requirements
impact on the business.
A. True
B. False

Q. 60: The Failure Probability of a requirement is a measure of how important

the requirement is to your business
A. True
B. False

Q. 61: You can add a new defect to a Quality Center project from any module at
any stage of the testing process.
A. True
B. False

Q. 62: There are two methods you can use to conduct a search for
similar/related defects:
A. Find parallel Defects & Find parallel Text.
B. Find related Defects & Find related Text.
C. Find Similar Defects & Find Similar Text.
D. Find all Defects & Find all Text.
Q. 63: You can update defects directly in the _____ or in the ______ dialog box.
A. Defects Grid
B. Defects Detail
C. Defects Module
D. Both A & B
E: Both B & C

Q. 64: You can only see changes made to a defect for selected fields predefined
by the project administrator in Project Customization.
A. True
B. False

Q. 65: By default, Quality Center sends e-mail in HTML format. To send e-mail as
plain text instead, edit the parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site
Administration

A. M_FORMAT
B. MAIL_FORMAT_ID
C. MAIL_FORM
D. MAIL_FORMAT

Q. 66: You can link a defect to the run steps and other defects.
A. True
B. False

Q. 67: You can only remove direct links from the Linked Defects grid. Indirect
links are removed automatically when the direct links are removed.
A. True
B. False

Q. 68: Quality Center reports can be generated from the

A. Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects modules.
B. Requirements, Test Plan, Defects modules.
C. Requirements & Test Plan modules.
D. Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab modules.

Q. 69: You can export grid data as a text file, Microsoft Excel spreadsheet,
Microsoft Word document, or HTML document. You export data from the
_____________
A. Requirements Grid & Defects Grid.
B. Requirements Grid, Execution Grid, or Defects Grid.
C. Requirements Grid, Test Grid, Execution Grid, or Defects Grid.
D. Requirements Grid, Test Grid, Execution Grid.

Q. 70: How many Reports (Not Sub-Reports: are available in Requirements

module.
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 4
Q. 71: Using Quality Center Test Lab module, executing tests also consists of
__________
A. Run Tests Automatically
B. Run Tests Manually
C. Both A and B
D. None of above

Q. 72: You can access the Test Lab menu bar from the Test Lab module by
pressing the shortcut key ______
A. F6
B. F7
C. F8
D. F9

Q. 73: The Test Lab module includes the following toolbars:

A. Test Set and Select Tests
B. Test Select and Set Tests
C. Set Test and Tests Select
D. None of above

Q. 74: In the Test Lab Module, in Execution Grid Columns, the column Exec Date
means
A. The date on which the test was first executed.
B. The date on which the test was last executed
C. The date on which the test was executed
D. The date on which the test will be executed in future

Q. 75: You can add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields
in the Execution Grid.
A. True
B. False

Q. 76: You can organize test execution by creating _______

A. Test modules
B. Test flows
C. Test beds
D. Test sets

Q. 77: While creating test sets, after you design tests in the Test Plan module,
you create a _______
A. Test sets tree
B. Test sets flow
C. Test sets grid
D. Test sets rows

Q. 78: By default, the uppermost level in a test sets tree is the ________
A. Level 0 folder
B. Top folder
C. Highest level folder
D. Root folder

Q. 79: You can also use the _________ in the Test Instance Properties dialog box
(Changing the Default Failure Rules for Specific Tests) to set the on failure rules
for a test in a test set.
A. Run Events view
B. Run Events Grid
C. Run Events menu
D. Run Eventsmodule

Q. 80: You can also drag the test sets between lists.
A. True
B. False

Q. 81: You can define a logo for the project document, and save the image so
that it is available for other users in the current project. If you do not select an
image, the Document Generator uses the Mercury logo in the project document.
A. True
B. False

Q. 82: While specifying Requirements module data (Generating Project

Documents) Microsoft Word is limited to _________ header levels in the table of
contents.
A. Seven
B. Eight
C. Nine
D. Ten

Q. 83: You use the _________ pages to specify the information from the test plan
tree view of the Test Plan module that should appear in the project document.
A. Subject Tree
B. Subject Tests
C. Subject plans
D. Both A & B

Q. 84: You use the _________ pages to specify the information from the Test Lab
module that should appear in the project document.
A. Tests Lab, Test Set, Tests, and Run
B. Test Labs, Test Sets, Tests, and Runs
C. Test Lab, Test Gets, Tests, and Runs
D. Test Lab, Test Sets, Tests, and Runs

Q. 85: You can generate a _________ that enables you to quickly see how the
document will look, without all the detail included.
A. View project document
B. Preview project document
C. Pre project document
D. None
Q. 86: You can generate Excel reports that enable you to export Quality Center
data to Microsoft Excel and analyze the data from within Excel.
A. True
B. False

Q. 87: You can export Quality Center data to Microsoft Excel. You cannot create
a report with parameters.
A. True
B. False

Q. 88: Most of the Excel Reports functionality is unavailable if you belong to a

user group that has the necessary permissions.
A. True
B. False

Q. 89: After you have added a report to the Excel Reports tree, you must define
which project data you want to include in the report. You define this data by
creating _______ to extract the data.
A. Test Queries
B. Lotus Queries
C. Excel Macros
D. SQL queries
Q. 90: To view the database type used for your project database, click the
________ button.
A. Database in use
B. Database Type
C. Get Database
D. Database version

Q. 91: The Requirements ________ view enables you to display requirements in a

flat
Non-hierarchical view. Each line in the ________ displays a separate requirement.
A. File, file
B. Hierarchical, hierarchy
C. Grid, Grid
D. Both B & C

Q. 92: The _________ Analysis view enables you to analyze the breakdown of child
requirements according to test __________ Status.
A. Plan
B. Requirement
C. Coverage
D. Task

Q. 93: You can access the Requirements menu bar from the Requirements
module by pressing the shortcut key ________
A. F6
B. F7
C. F8
D. F9
Q. 94: The Requirement module field Direct Cover Status means
A. The current status of the requirement
B. The previous status of the requirement
C. The coming status of the requirement
D. The fixed status of the requirement

Q. 95: You can add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields
in the Requirements module.
A. True
B. False

Q. 96: You start a requirements tree by adding requirements to the

Requirements root folder.
A. True
B. False

Q. 97: You can add, view, and edit Microsoft Word rich text from within Quality
Center, without the need to edit the text in Word.
A. True
B. False

Q. 98: You cannot update your requirements directly in the requirements tree or
grid, or in the Requirement Details dialog box.
A. True
B. False

Q. 99: You can search for a particular requirement in the requirements tree or in
the requirements grid using the _________ command.
A. Search
B. Find
C. Look
D. Get

Q. 100: You can send e-mail about a requirement to other users in your Quality
Center project
A. True
B. False

Q. 101: You can view a list of alerts for a _____________ entity.

A. A test in the test plan tree or Test Grid
B. A test instance in the Execution Grid
C. None of above
D. Both A. & B.

Q. 102: A red flag indicates that the alert is _____________

A. New
B. Old
C. Follow up
D. Urgent

Q. 103: A gray flag indicates that the alert __________.

A. New
B. has already been read
C. Follow up
D. Urgent

Q. 104: A follow up flag is specific to your user login name. Anyone else viewing
the record does not see your follow up alert.
A. True
B. False

Q. 105: Quality Center assigns the image a unique file name with a _______
Extension.
A. .jpeg
B. .gif
C. .doc
D. .jpg

Q. 106: A __________ is a view of a Quality Center window with the settings you
apply to it.
A. Personal View
B. My view
C. Favorite View
D. My QC View

Q. 107: You save favorite views in ______

A. Favorite folder
B. Personal folder
C. Both A & B
D. Public & Private Folder

Q. 108: You can define the number of views displayed on the menu by setting
the ________ parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration.
A. favorites
B. favorites_Depth
C. favorites_view
D. favorites_Path

Q. 109: The requirements specification workflow consists of the following:

A. Define Testing Scope, Create Requirements, Detail Requirements, Assign to Releases,
Analyze Requirements
B. Define Testing Scope, Detail Requirements, Create Requirements, Assign to Releases,
Analyze Requirements
C. Define Testing Scope, Create Requirements, Detail Requirements, Analyze
Requirements, Assign to Releases
D. Define Testing Scope, Create Requirements, Analyze Requirements, Detail
Requirements, Assign to Releases
Q. 110: Requirement topics are recorded in the Requirements module by
creating a
A. Requirements cycle
B. Requirements tree
C. Requirements plan
D. Requirements module

Q. 111: You cannot copy a requirement within the same project or between
projects.
A. True
B. False

Q. 112: Test coverage, defect linkage, and risk-based quality management data
for the requirement are not copied.
A. True
B. False

Q. 113: Methods you can use to create tests from requirements:

A. Convert Requirements to Tests
B. Generate a Test from Requirements.
C. Get a test from a requirement
D. Both A & B
E: Both B & C

Q. 114: Using the Requirements Traceability tab in the Requirement Details

view, you can add traceability links to and from a selected requirement. _______
Links indicate requirements that affect a selected requirement. _________ Links
indicate requirements that are affected by a selected requirement.
A. Trace from, Trace to
B. Trace to, Trace from
C. Trace from select, Trace to select
D. Trace to select, Trace from select

Q. 115: When a requirement changes, Quality Center alerts the affected

requirements. The alerts can be seen by all users.
A. True
B. False

Q. 116: You can display traceability relationships that exist between

requirements in the ________ tab. This tab contains the Trace From and Trace To
grids.
A. Traceability
B. Relationships
C. Req-traceability
D. Traceability-Req

Q. 117: The __________ feature enables you to calculate at which level to test each
requirement, based on the nature of the requirement and the resources you
have available.
A. Level-based quality management
B. Calculate-based quality management
C. Risk-based quality management
D. None of above

Q. 118: You can assign or calculate the Risk Category of an assessment

requirement. The Risk Category is composed of its __________
A. Business Criticality & Failure Probability
B. Business Probability & Failure Criticality
C. Priority & Severity
D. None of above

Q. 119: Quality Center defines four Testing Levels:

A. First, second, third, and fourth
B. Full, Partial, Basic, and None
C. Full, Partial, Basic, and moderate
D. Partial, Basic, moderate and advanced

Q. 120: The __________ link displays the requirements for which you did not
determine a Risk Category or exclude explicitly from the analysis.
A. Missing risk assessment
B. Miss assessment
C. Missing assessment
D. Exclude assessment

Q. 121: By default, Quality Center sends e-mail in HTML format. To send e-mail
as plain text instead, edit the _________ parameter in the Site Configuration tab in
Site Administration.
A. EMAIL_FORMAT
B. EMAIL_FORM
C. MAIL_FORMAT
D. QC_MAIL_FORMAT
Q. 122: You can copy a requirement within the same project or between
projects. Which of the below items are copied at the time of copying a
requirement.
A. Test coverage.
B. Defect linkage.
C. Risk-based quality management data
D. All of above
E: None of above

Q. 123: You can also move a requirement to a new location in the requirements
tree by dragging it.
A. True
B. False

Q. 124: You can delete a requirement from the Requirements module. Deleting a
requirement does not delete its child requirements, tests coverage, requirement
traceability links, and defects linkage.
A. True
B. False
Q. 125: There are two methods you can use to create tests from requirements:
A. Convert Requirements to Tests & Generate a Test from Requirements
B. Convert Requirements to Tests & Convert a Test from Requirements
C. Convert Requirements to Tests & Generate a Requirement from Tests
D. Convert a Test from Requirements & Generate Requirements to Tests

Q. 126: When analyzing the impact of a change proposed in a specific

requirement, the traceability links indicate the other ________ that the change
might affect.
A. Tests
B. Requirements
C. Tests & requirements
D. None

Q. 127: The ______ links indicate requirements that affect a selected requirement
_______ links indicate requirements that are affected by a selected requirement.
A. Trace from, Trace to
B. Trace to, Trace from
C. From trace, To trace
D. None of above

Q. 128: When a requirement changes, Quality Center alerts the affected

requirements. The alerts can be seen by______
A. Author of the requirement
B. Users authorized by the Author of the requirement
C. All users
D. Administrator

Q. 129: while Defining Traceability Relationships, You cannot add a requirement

traceability link by dragging a requirement from the requirements tree to the
appropriate grid.
A. True
B. False
Q. 130: While viewing Traceability Impact, the Impact Analysis tab helps you
understand the many associations and dependencies that exist between the
______ by displaying them in a hierarchical tree structure.
A. Tests
B. Requirements
C. Both
D. None

Q. 131: The requirements _________ is a graphical representation of your

requirements specification, displaying the hierarchical relationship between
different requirements.
A. Graph
B. Plan
C. Path
D. Tree
Q. 132: For each requirement topic, a QA tester creates a list of __________ in the
requirements tree.
A. Detailed requirements
B. Detailed specifications
C. Detailed plans
D. Detailed sub-requirements

Q. 133: Each requirement in the tree is described in detail and cannot include
any relevant attachments.
A. True
B. False

Q. 134: After defining your requirements, you can add traceability between the
requirements. When analyzing the impact of a change proposed in a specific
requirement _________ shows the other requirements that the change might
affect.
A. Equality
B. Link-ability
C. Traceability
D. Cross-links

Q. 135: QA managers assign the requirements to releases and cycles in the

releases tree in the Releases module.
A. True
B. False

Q. 136: The assigned requirements are then used as a basis for the test plan in
the Test Plan module. The tests you create during the test plan phase are then
linked to these requirements to create _______
A. Linkages
B. Linked-requirements
C. Requirements plan
D. Coverage

Q. 137: QA managers review the requirements, they change a requirement from

a Not Reviewed status to a _______ Status once it is approved.
A. Passed
B. Reviewed
C. Partially reviewed
D. Both B & C

Q. 138: You can also import requirements to your Quality Center project from
________
A. Microsoft Word
B. Excel
C. Other third-party requirement management tools
D. All of above

Q. 139: In the Requirements Tree view, Indicator columns indicates that the
specified requirement has
A. Attachments, linked defects, alerts, and follow up flags
B. Attachments, linked defects, alerts
C. Attachments, linked defects and follow up flags
D. Linked defects, alerts, and follow up flags

Q. 140: To find a specific requirement by ReqID in the Requirements Tree view,

choose __________ and enter the requirement ID.
A. Requirements > Find Requirement
B. Requirements > Go to Requirement
C. Requirements > Get Requirement
D. Requirements > Display Requirement

Q. 141: During Requirement Risks calculation, the ________ displays the

requirements for which you did not determine a Risk Category or exclude
explicitly from the analysis
A. Missing assessment link
B. Missing assessment field
C. Missing assessment value
D. Missing assessment relation

Q. 142: A good test plan enables you to assess the quality of your application
________ in the testing process.
A. At the beginning
B. At the end
C. At the point
D. At the middle

Q. 143: Which of the item is not a part of "Developing a test plan" in QC.
A. Design Test Steps
B. Design Tests
C. Automate Tests
D. Define Testing Policy Settings

Q. 144: You can access the Test Plan menu bar from the Test Plan module by
pressing the shortcut key ________
A. F7
B. F9
C. F12
D. F11
Q. 145: To find a specific test by Test ID in the Test Grid, choose ________ and
enter the test ID
A. Test > Go to Test
B. Test > find Test
C. Test > search Test
D. Test > link Test

Q. 146: In relation to a test plan module, You can add user-defined fields and
change the label of any of the fields in the Test Grid
A. True
B. False
Q. 147: You can use the ________ to restrict and dynamically change the fields
and values in the Test Grid.
A. Text editor
B. Script editor
C. Scriptor editor
D. Scripts editor

Q. 148: The typical application is too large to test as a whole. The Test Plan
module enables you to divide your application according to ________
A. Functionality
B. Requirements
C. Tst plans
D. Test modules

Q. 149: During the testing process, you may need to modify your test plan. You
can update the test plan tree ________
A. At the beginning
B. At the end
C. At any time
D. In the middle

Q. 150: Developing and editing a test plan tree requires appropriate user
________
A. IDs
B. Requirements
C. Permissions
D. Passwords

Q. 151: You begin the application testing process by defining a releases tree in
the ________
A. Requirements module
B. Releases module
C. Plan Tests module
D. Either B or C

Q. 152: Releases tree enables the modeling of upcoming releases within a hierarchical
tree structure.
A. True
B. False

Q. 153: A release represents a _________ in one or more applications that willbe

available for distribution at the same time.
A. Group of releases
B. Group of changes
C. Group of defects
D. Group of requests
Q. 154: After defining the release, a QA manager defines _________ A _________ is a
set of Development and quality assurance efforts performed to achieve a
common goal based on the release timeline.
A. Cycles, cycle
B. Tries, Try
C. Priorities, Priority
D. Files, File

Q. 155: After defining the releases tree, the QA manager defines and reviews
the _________ in the Requirements module and assigns them to releases and
cycles.
A. Plans
B. Groups of plans
C. Upcoming modules
D. Requirements

Q. 156: After the QA manager assigns requirements, the QA team leader assigns
each ________ folder in the Test Lab module to a cycle.
A. Test sets
B. Test set
C. Tests set
D. Testing set

Q. 157: A __________ is a group of test instances in a Quality Center project

designed to achieve specific test goals.
A. Test sets
B. Test set
C. Tests set
D. Testing set

Q. 158: A defect can be submitted to a Quality Center project from any module
atany stage of the testing process.
A. True
B. False

Q. 159: While reviewing and deciding which new defects need to be fixed, the
QAmanager assigns them to the appropriate __________
A. Release and cycle
B. Cycle and release
C. Defect and cycle
D. Cycle and defect

Q. 160: The QA manager cannot track the progress of the testing process in real
time by analyzing the releases tree and ensuring that it matches the release
goals.
A. True
B. False

Q. 161: Test management with Quality Center involves _______ Phases.

A. Four
B. Five
C. Six
D. Seven

Q. 162: The phases of Test management with Quality Center in order are:
A. Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Track Defects
B. Specify Requirements, Specify Releases, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Track Defects
C. Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Specify Releases, Execute Tests, Track Defects
D. Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Track Defects, Execute Tests

Q. 163: By creating a list of authorized users and assigning each user a

password and user group, you control the kinds of additions and modifications
each user makes to the project.
A. True
B. False

Q. 164: The _______ determines the privileges that the user has within a project.
A. User ID
B. User Name
C. User group
D. User SID

Q. 165: You can import data from Word or Excel to a Quality Center project.
A. True
B. False

Q. 166: Quality Center 9.2 prompts you to install Microsoft .NET _______ if it is not
already installed on your machine.
A. Framework 2.0
B. Framework 1.0
C. Framework 3.0
D. Framework 4.0

Q. 167: When you connect to a project, the Quality Center main window opens
and displays the module in which you were last working.
A. True
B. False

Q. 168: The can change and override a user _______s properties or password.
A. Global Administrator
B. Site Administrator
C. Administrator
D. QC Administrator

Q. 169: You can filter Quality Center data to display only those records that
meet the criteria that you define. How many filters can you define?
A. Single item as a filter
B. Two items as a filter
C. Multiple items as filter
D. Five items as filter
Q. 170: In the test plan tree, you can define the _______ filter for associated test
sets as ”Open”. This ensures that only tests that belong to an open test set are
displayed.
A. Double
B. Twice
C. Cross
D. Multiple

Q. 171: You can view the test results from the ___________
A. Test Instance dialog box.
B. Test Properties dialog box
C. Test Instance Properties dialog box
D. None

Q. 172: The Linked Defects view on the sidebar of Test Instance Properties
dialog box displays:
A. Linked defects and requirements coverage for a test instance
B. Only linked defects for a test instance
C. Linked defects and history for a test instance
D. Linked defects and test results for a test instance

Q. 173: Quality Center enables you to compare the results of a test run with the
results of previous runs.
A. True
B. False

Q. 174: In the Test Instance Properties dialog box, You can view and edit the On
Failure rules for an automated test instance using the __________ view.
A. Automated
B. Details
C. Run Events
D. Both A & C

Q. 175: You track defects in the Quality Center Defects module, which you open
by clicking the ________ button on the sidebar.
A. Track Defects
B. Open Defects
C. Defects
D. Log Defects

Q. 176: To find a specific defect by Defect ID in the Defects Grid, choose _________
A. Defects > Defect
B. Defects > Move To Defect
C. Defects > Set Defect
D. Defects > Go To Defect

Q. 177: Each line in the Defects Grid displays a separate defect record.
A. True
B. False
Q. 178: You cannot add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the
Defects Grid.
A. True
B. False

Q. 179: You can use the _________ to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values
in the Defects Grid.
A. Scripting Editor
B. Notepad Editor
C. QC Editor
D. Script Editor

Q. 180: You can link defects to other Quality Center entities, such as
requirements, tests and other defects.
A. True
B. False

Q. 181: Test coverage is created automatically when you generate a

requirement from a test.
A. True
B. False

Q. 182: In the Requirements module, you can use the _________ view to examine
the status of your requirements.
A. Coverage Analysis
B. Coverage Breakdown
C. Requirements Status
D. Coverage Status

Q. 183: By default, coverage is available only for the following requirement

types:
A. Functional, Testing, and Defined.
B. Functional, Testing, and Undefined.
C. Functional, System, and Undefined.
D. Functional, Review, and Undefined.

Q. 184: You can create design steps for __________

A. Manual tests
B. Automated tests
C. SRS
D. Both A and B

Q. 185: To increase the flexibility and power of a test, you can add ________ to the
called test and to the tests that call it.
A. Input Values
B. Output Values
C. Parameters
D. None of above
Q. 186: You do not need to set a test as a template test to be able to call it or to
add parameters. Marking a test as a template test is used for filtering purposes
only.
A. True
B. False

Q. 187: If you do not assign values to parameters when creating a test call, you
are prompted to do so when you call this test from another test, when you add
your test to a test set, or when you run your test.
A. True
B. False

Q. 188: You can navigate between steps in the Design Step Editor using
shortcut keys. Use _________ to access the first step.
A. ALT+LEFT
B. ALT+RIGHT
C. ALT+HOME
D. ALT+ UP

Q. 189: While generating automated test scripts, what does WR-AUTOMATED

automated test type means.
A. A test that is created by Winrunner
B. A test that is executed by Winrunner
C. A test that is deleted by Winrunner
D. None of above

Q. 190: To run a system test, you must install the System Execute Remote Agent
Add-in and the HP Quality Center Connectivity Add-in on the machine where the
test is to be run.
A. True
B. False

Q. 191: Quality Center enables you to generate graphs from the __________.
A. Requirements module
B. Test Plan module
C. Test Lab module
D. Defects module
E: Both A & C
F: All of Above

Q. 192: Requirements - Summary Graph

A. Shows how many requirements accumulated in a Quality Center project at specific
points during a period of time.
B. Shows the history of changes to specific requirement fields in a Quality Center project
C. Shows how many requirements are currently in a Quality Center project.
D. Shows how many tests are currently in a Quality Center project.

Q. 193: By default, the graph appears as a

A. Pie chart,
B. Bar chart
C. Pareto chart
D. Both A & B

Q. 194: You can also use the Graph Wizard to guide you through the graph
creation process.
A. True
B. False

Q. 195: You can determine how information appears in the graph using the
_________
A. Graph toolbar.
B. Graph settings
C. Graph menu
D. Both A & C

Q. 196: The ________ graphs enable you to create and display a dynamic graphical
representation of data related to test plans and test sets.
A. Live Value
B. Live Analysis
C. Live Analytics
D. Both A & C

Q. 197: You use Live Analysis graphs to view data that relates to a _________
folder.
A. Test subject
B. Test set
C. Test category
D. Both A & B

Q. 198: The Live Analysis graphs that you create are unique for your user login.
A. True
B. False

Q. 199: The Quality Center Document Generator enables you to create a

Microsoft Word document containing a projects requirements, planning, test
list, test set folders, and defect tracking data.
A. True
B. False

Q. 200: The Document Generator enables you to create a hard copy of the data
contained in a Quality Center project.
A. True
B. False

Q. 201: In the Progress tab, in the Coverage Progress graph, the Planned
coverage curve below the Assigned requirements curve indicates the
percentage of requirements that are_______ throughout the release.
A. Run
B. Covered
C. Passed
D. Assigned
Q. 202: The _________ helps you draw conclusions quickly and see the number of
defects submitted over the course of a release or cycle.
A. Details tab
B. Attachments tab
C. Progress tab
D. Quality tab

Q. 203: The defects are categorized by _______ in terms of how they impact
system operation.
A. Priority
B. Severity

Q. 204: You can move a release folder or a release to a different location in the
releases tree.
A. True
B. False

Q. 205: The Releases root folder can also be moved.

A. True
B. False

Q. 206: You can create a duplicate of a cycle within the same release.
A. True
B. False

Q. 207: Deleting a release folder, release, or cycle, does not unassigns the
associated requirements, test set folders, and defects.
A. True
B. False

Q. 208: You can also move a release folder or a release to a new location in the
releases tree by dragging it.
A. True
B. False

Q. 209: After you define a releases tree in the Releases module, you continue
the application testing process by specifying ________
A. Requirements
B. Releases
C. Plan Tests
D. Either B or A

Q. 210: Requirement topics are recorded in the Requirements module by

creating a requirements _________
A. Graph
B. Tree
C. Path
D. Plan
Q. 211: By default, records appear in Quality Center in the
A. Increasing Order
B. Decreasing Order
C. Order in which they were added
D. None of these

Q. 212: You can save filter and sort information as a favorite view and then load
it as needed.
A. True
B. False

Q. 213: You can copy and paste the filter, sort, and group by settings to another
project.
A. True
B. False

Q. 214: You can also share the settings (filter, sort, and group by settings: with
another user by pasting them to an e-mail or a text file.
A. True
B. False

Q. 215: When you use text search, the search ignores

A. Articles (a, an, the)
B. Coordinate conjunctions (and, but, for, nor, or)
C. Boolean operators (and, or, not, if, or, then)
D. All of above

Q. 216: You can export the data in a grid as a

A. Text files,
B. Microsoft Excel worksheet,
C. Microsoft Word document
D. HTML document.
E. All of above

Q. 217: The __________. alerting functions available in Quality Center

A. Three
B. Four
C. Two
D. Five

Q. 218: The alerting functions in Quality Center are:

A. Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts
B. Email alerts, Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts
C. Defect alerts, Email alerts, Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts
D. Final alerts, Email alerts, Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts

Q. 219: You can create traceability links between __________ in the Requirements
module.
A. Requirements
B. Test Cases
C. Tests
D. Defects

Q. 220: You can associate a test instance with a defect. This is performed by
creating __________in the Test Plan module, or by adding a defect during a manual
test run.
A. Linked Tests
B. Linked Defects
C. Linked Errors
D. Linked Data

Q. 221: The Execution Flow tab enables you to watch the execution process as it
happens and to control the way your tests are executed.
A. True
B. False

Q. 222: In the Execution Flow, a dashed line -- -- -> arrow indicates that the test
A. Is to be executed after the previous test, with no conditions.
B. Is to be executed only if the previous test has status Finished
C. Is to be executed only if the previous test has status Passed
D. None

Q. 223: You can delete a _______ execution condition(s) connected to a test.

A. Single
B. Two
C. Three
D. All

Q. 224: When we Run a test, in the Manual Test Run window, by default which
option is selected
A. Manual Runner (Run according to the order in the Execute GriD.
B. Manual Runner (Run according to the order in then Executing GriD.
C. Manual Runner (Run according to the order in the Execution GriD.
D. Manual Runner (Run according to the order in the Execution GrinD.

Q. 225: You can assign multiple values to a parameter during a test run.
A. True
B. False

Q. 226: If a manual test run was paused during execution, you can continue the
run at a later stage.
A. True
B. False

Q. 227: You can run tests automatically on __________

A. Your machine
B. Remote Hosts
C. Both A & B
D. None
Q. 228: To run several test sets concurrently on multiple remote hosts, open a
new Automatic Runner dialog box instance for each test set.
A. Auto Runner
B. Automate Runner
C. Automatic Runner
D. Manual Runner

Q. 229: When you run QuickTest Professional tests from the Test Lab module,
they are automatically run in Fast mode. They cannot be run in Normal mode.
A. True
B. False

Q. 230: You can only view the Execution Log even if you did not select Enable
Log in the Automatic Runner dialog box before you executed the test.
A. True
B. False

Q. 231: What web client can be used with Quality Center 9.2?
A. Netscape
B. Safari
C. Firefox
D. Internet Explorer

Q. 232: Which term describes the main function of Quality Center?

A. Test cases
B. Repository
C. Load test
D. Defects

Q. 233: What database can be used with Quality Center 9.2? Select two.
A. Access
B. Sybase
C. Microsoft SQL Server
D. Paradox
E. Oracle

Q. 234: What HP functional testing tools integrate with Quality Center? (Select
two.)
A. HP OpenView
B. HP WinRunner
C. HP QuickTest Professional
D. HP LoadRunner
E. HP Change Control Management

Q. 235: Which component provides an executive-level view of the entire quality

process?
A. Quality Center Foundation
B. Business Process Insight
C. Service Test Component
D. Quality Center Dashboard
Q. 236: When designing test steps it is important to ensure that all aspects of
the application are tested. When writing test steps, what are two things that
should be done to ensure clear and accurate steps? (Select two.)
A. Specify all actual results
B. Use parameters in the step names
C. Specify pass and fail conditions for the step
D. Use the numbering system for the step names
E. Use consistent terminology throughout the test

Q. 237: Where can you link tests to requirements?

A. From the Test Lab module
B. From the Requirements module
C. On the test details page (Test Plan)
D. On the attachments page (Test Plan)

Q. 238: When a called test has parameters, when can you assign values to the
parameters?
A. Values are assigned from within the calling test
B. Values must be assigned when the test is executed
C. Values are assigned during test design or execution
D. Values must be assigned when the test is called, during test design

Q. 239: What are the steps, in the correct order, to convert a requirement to a
test?
A. Make changes to the automatic conversion, select an automatic method
B. Select convert to test, select the destination path, convert to automated test
C. Select an automatic method, make changes to the automatic conversion, select the
destination subject path
D. Select the destination subject path, select an automatic method, make changes to the
automatic conversion

Q. 240: How is a test configured as a template test?

A. The test type chosen must be MANUAL-TEMPLATE
B. The first step in the test must be named template test
C. Right-click on the test name and choose Template Test
D. During test planning, mark the checkbox, under details, labeled template Test

Q. 241: What does the icon in the exhibit indicate in the Test Plan module,
under the Test Script tab?
A. There is a test script
B. There is not a test script
C. There is a manual test case
D. The test script has changed

Q. 242: While designing the test plan tree, you accidentally delete a folder that
contained some tests that you need. Can you recover the tests?
A. No, once a test is deleted, it is gone
B. Yes, the tests can be recovered from the Subject folder
C. Yes, the test can be recovered from the unattached folder
D. No, only Project Managers have permission to recover deleted tests

Q. 243: When you define tests inside of Quality Center, it is important that the
tests are accurate and traceable. What are two other key pointers when
defining tests? Select two.
A. Simple
B. Consistent
C. Repeatable
D. Convertible
E. Automation
F. Appropriate

Q. 244: What test types can be created in Quality Center? Select three
A. batch-test
B. vugen-test
C. lr-scenario
D. system-test
E. interface-test
F. wr-automated test

Q. 245: In order to reuse a test across other tests, must the reused test be a
template test?
A. Yes, only template tests are reusable
B. No, the test must be a VAPI test to be reusable
C. Yes, template tests are reusable automated tests
D. No, tests do not need to be template tests to be reused

Q. 246: What does a live analysis graph illustrate in a visual overview?

A. All the tests in the Test Plan
B. All the cycles or releases the test is linked to
C. All the requirements linked to the specified test
D. All the tests in a specified folder in the Test Plan

Q. 247: How can you create a test plan tree?

A. Convert releases to tests
B. Define test folders and tests manually
C. Save automated tests in Quality Center
D. Define test names for each test needed

Q. 248: Can you change the values of a called test's parameters?

A. No, values are assigned at run time
B. Yes, if the called test is a template test
C. No, you must delete the called test and call it again
D. Yes, right-click and choose Called Test Parameters

Q. 249: When you generate an Excel report, why is it an advantage to use

parameters?
A. Enables the report to be saved
B. Enables the user to name the report
C. Enables the report to be used across projects
D. Enables the report to be used for different purposes

Q. 250: Using the Excel Macro, what type of data can be imported into Quality
Center? (Select three.)
A. Defects data
B. Test set data
C. Test plan data
D. Releases data
E. Test Instance data
F. Requirements data

Q. 251: Once the Word macro is installed on your computer, what Quality Center
toolbars will Word display?
A. Test Plan, Requirements and Export
B. Requirements, Defects and Common
C. Test Plan, Requirements and Defects
D. Test Plan, Requirements and Common

Q. 252: When a predefined report is saved, what is the file extension?

A. txt
B. xls
C. html
D. doc

Q. 253: Which modules in Quality Center provide predefined graph templates?

A. Requirements, Test Lab and Defects
B. Releases, Test Plan, Test Lab and Defects
C. Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab and Defects
D. Releases, Requirements, Test Plan and Defects

Q. 254: How is data defined for use in an Excel report?

A. With an SQL query
B. With an XML query
C. With ETL data extraction
D. With a WebDataScraper

Q. 255: On the General page of the Excel Report Generator window, what name
is displayed, by default, in the designer field?
A. The project manager
B. The site administrator
C. The user currently logged in
D. The user who created the report

Q. 256: Which menu allows you to generate a predefined report?

A. Help
B. Tools
C. Analysis
D. Favorites
Q. 257: What elements can be linked directly to a requirement in the releases
module?
A. A cycle
B. Release tree
C. Cycle details
D. A cycle progress

Q. 258: Which module, in Quality Center, starts the testing process?

A. Defects
B. Releases
C. Dashboard
D. Requirements

Q. 259: What details about a cycle can you define in the details tab? (Select
two.)
A. Name
B. End date
C. Attachments
D. Release version
E. Linked test sets

Q. 260: What constitutes a release folder?

A. Cycles of the release
B. Test plan for the release
C. Releases of the application
D. Requirements for the release

Q. 261: Why do you create a release tree?

A. To define the framework of releases
B. To define the workflow for the project
C. To define the requirements hierarchy
D. To define the test plan for the release

Q. 262: How many buttons are available to create a Release Tree?

A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five

Q. 263: What types of attachments can be added to a cycle? (Select three.)

A. Snapshot
B. Test plans
C. Clipboard image
D. Release versions
E. System properties
F. Linked requirements

Q. 264: Which module allows you to view coverage by cycle?

A. Cycle
B. Releases
C. Test Plan
D. Requirements

Q. 265: What is the function of the New Release button?

A. Creates a release tree
B. Creates a cycle within a release
C. Creates a release within a release folder
D. Creates a new Release folder in the release tree

Q. 266: What is the foundation of the Releases module?

A. The release tree
B. The cycle versions
C. The release cycles
D. The release folders

Q. 267: What is an example of an indicator column in the Defect module?

A. Status
B. Priority
C. Attachments
D. Reproducible

Q. 268: Where can you find an audit trail of the changes made to a defect?
A. Audit tab in the Defect module
B. Status column in the defect grid
C. History tab in the Defect module
D. Summary column in the defect grid

Q. 269: How can you save a filter that you set in the Defect module?
A. Choose Defects>Save
B. Click the Favorites button
C. Click the Save Filter button
D. Choose Favorites>Add to Favorites

Q. 270: When defects are exported out of Quality Center, what type of file is
created?
A. .xls
B. .doc
C. .mdb
D. .qcd

Q. 271: When should you use a private favorite view for defects?
A. Need one more
B. Use for private sessions of Quality Center
C. Use for data on which only you are working
D. Use for data on which your group is working

Q. 272: When you log a new defect, how is the Detected By field populated?
A. This field must be filled out as you log the defect
B. This field must be filled out after the defect is logged
C. This field is auto-populated with the user who is currently logged in
D. This field is auto-populated with the user who executed the linked test

Q. 273: Which button or menu will allow you to view additional fields in the
Defects Grid?
A. View button
B. Select>View menu
C. Favorites>View menu
D. Select Columns button

Q. 274: How many defects can be associated with a requirement?

A. Any requirement can have one defect
B. Any requirement can have multiple defects
C. One for each parent requirement and child requirement
D. A parent requirement can be associated with multiple defects, but a child requirement
can be associated with one

Q. 275: What is tracked when a defect is assigned a status?

A. The defect's priority
B. The defect's severity
C. The defect's lifecycle
D. The users to whom the defect is assigned

Q. 276: How many views are available in the Defects module?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

Q. 277: What are some examples of entities that a defect can be associated?
A. Cycle, Release, Test Step, Defect
B. Release, Requirement, Test Set, Test Step
C. Requirement, Test Instance, Test Step, Defect
D. Requirement, Test Step, Test Run, Test Result

Q. 278: While running a manual test in the Manual Runner, you log a defect
against a specific step. Is that defect automatically linked to any other entities?
A. Yes, indirectly linked to the test instance
B. No, a defect can be linked to only one entity
C. No, all links to other entities must be done separately
D. Yes, directly to other defects linked to the test instance

Q. 279: From which module or modules can you log a defect?

A. Defect
B. Requirement and Defect
C. Requirement, Test Plan and Defect
D. Requirement, Test Plan, Test Lab and Defect

Q. 280: In the Defect module, what is a fixed column?

A. A column with a section list
B. A column with flexible values
C. A column that is non-scrolling
D. A column with a predetermined width

Q. 281: When searching for Similar Defects, what field or fields in each defect
are searched?
A. Name and history
B. Name and description
C. Summary and history
D. Summary and description

Q. 282: Which statement best describes the requirements traceability feature?

A. Enables definition of a link between multiple requirements
B. Enables definition of a link between a requirement and a test
C. Enables definition of a link between a requirement and a cycle
D. Enables definition of a link between a requirement and a test set

Q. 283: When a requirement is assigned to a release, in which cycles is it

tested?
A. All of the cycles
B. Only the first cycle
C. Only the last cycle
D. None of the cycles

Q. 284: What is the purpose of requirements traceability?

A. To view and establish Test coverage
B. To view cycles that are linked to the requirement
C. To view and establish linkage to other requirements
D. To view and establish what Releases are linked to the requirements

Q. 285: What are some characteristics of a useful Test Requirement? (Select

two.)
A. Vague
B. General
C. Familiar
D. Precise
E. Bounded
F. Ambiguous

Q. 286: What does the requirements tree define?

A. Hierarchical relationships between requirements
B. The number of test plans needed for each requirement
C. Identify defects that are associated with each requirement
D. Which releases and/or cycles are linked to each requirement

Q. 287: What feature does Quality Center use to calculate the testing level for
each requirement? (Select two.)
A. Risk analysis
B. Impact analysis
C. Requirement type
D. Failure probability
E. Resource availability

Q. 288: What are two steps in risk-based testing? (Select two.)

A. Perform risk analysis
B. Establish testing time
C. Perform impact analysis
D. Establish failure probability
E. Establish development time
F. Establish the number of testers needed
Q. 289: If a child requirement is linked to a test, what else is automatically
linked to the test?
A. The Release Cycle
B. The Parent Requirement
C. The Functional Requirement
D. The other child requirements

Q. 290: What does the Direct Cover Status of a requirement indicate?

A. The type of parent requirement
B. The execution status of linked tests
C. The component of the application covered
D. Whether the requirement has any linked defects

Q. 291: What can you do under the RichContent tab in the Requirements
module?
A. Add, view and edit RTF content
B. Add, view and edit MS Word content
C. Add, view and edit MS Excel content
D. Add, view and edit MS Access content
E. Add, view and edit SQL statement content

Q. 292: What is the Coverage Analysis View used for in the Requirements
module?
A. To identify which test sets are associated with the requirement
B. To identify and analyze the tests that are associated with the requirement
C. To identify which releases and cycles are associated with the requirement
D. To identify and analyze which defects are associated with the requirement

Q. 293: What are some examples of the default Quality Center requirement
types? (Select three.)
A. Child
B. Cycle
C. Parent
D. Testing
E. Business
F. Functional

Q. 294: What testing levels does Quality Center define for risk-based testing?
(Select two.)
A. ALL
B. BASIC
C. NONE
D. UPPER
E. GROUP
F. FUNCTIONAL

Q. 295: What additional Quality Center modules may you have access to if
installed and/or licensed? Select all that apply.
A. Reports
B. Releases
C. Dashboard
D. Documents
E. Business components

Q. 296: What link do you click on to log on to Quality Center 9.2?

A. Add-Ins Page
B. Quality Center
C. Site Administrator
D. Authenticate User

Q. 297: What tools does Quality Center provide for performing test data
analysis? (Select two.)
A. Linking
B. Graphs
C. Reports
D. Tracking
E. Traceability

Q. 298: What can be accomplished using the Tools Menu of the Common
Toolbar? (Select two.)
A. Define a cycle
B. Log a new defect
C. Switch to another project
D. Open the Documentation Library
E. Display the Quality Center version

Q. 299: Quality Center 9.2 provides what type of repository for all testing
assets?
A. Database
B. File system
C. Web-based
D. Open access

Q. 300: Where is the common toolbar located?

A. Lower-left part of the window
B. Upper-left part of the window
C. Upper-right part of the window
D. Lower-right part of the window
Q. 301: Which toolbar contains buttons for frequently used commands in the
current Quality Center module?
A. Module Toolbar
B. Standard Toolbar
C. Common Toolbar
D. Formatting Toolbar

Q. 302: How do you make a context-specific shortcut menu appear?

A. Right click on an interface element
B. Double click on the interface element
C. Choose Shortcut from the Help menu
D. Choose Context Menu from the View menu

Q. 303: What HP testing tools does Quality Center integrate with? (Select two.)
A. WinRunner
B. Open View
C. Visual API-XP
D. Performance Center
E. Change Control Management

Q. 304: How many core modules are in Quality Center 9.2?

A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
D. Six

Q. 305: In the Execution Flow tab of the Test Lab module, what does a solid blue
line between two tests indicate?
A. The previous test must pass
B. The previous test must finish
C. The test has undefined parameters
D. The second test is called from within the first

Q. 306: When defining execution conditions in a test set, what completion

status choice or choices available?
A. Finish
B. If/then
C. Pass and fail
D. Pass and finish

Q. 307: What must the goal of a test set meet?

A. The goal of the test plan
B. The description of the test set
C. The description of the requirement
D. The goal of the associated cycle or cycles

Q. 308: Can a test set include both manual and automated tests?
A. No, a test set must be all manual tests
B. No, a test set must be all automated tests
C. Yes, however an automated test can not follow a manual test
D. Yes, automated and manual tests may be used in the same test set

Q. 309: When developing a test plan, what should the tester be careful about
and plan for between tests?
A. Execution time
B. Execution control
C. Automation timing
D. Data dependencies

Q. 310: How do you run an automated test concurrently on multiple remote

hosts in a test set?
A. Run the test locally
B. Select a host group for the local machine
C. Select multiple hosts for the automated test
D. Add multiple instances of the test to the test set

Q. 311: Quality Center provides the framework for test execution. What are the
stages of this framework?
A. Import requirements, import tests, run the tests
B. Link the tests to cycles, run the tests, log defects
C. Develop the test set tree, organize test sets, set test-set properties, run the tests
D. Convert the test plans to test sets, set the hosts for automated scripts, run the tests

Q. 312: What are two elements of the Test Lab module? (Select two.)
A. Linked Cycles
B. Linked Defects
C. Execution Flow
D. Execution Results
E. Graph of Selected
F. Linked Requirements

Q. 313: What types of tests make up a test set?

A. Smoke and integration
B. Smoke and automated
C. Integration and manual
D. Manual and automated

Q. 314: In executing a test, what do you link to a test set?

A. A cycle
B. A defect
C. An LOB
D. A release

Q. 315: At what level is a main test set tree folder?

A. Root
B. Main
C. Subject
D. Unattached
Q. 316: When a test set folder is linked to a cycle, are all of the test sets in the
folder linked to that cycle?
A. No, only a test set can be linked to a cycle
B. No, a test set folder can only be linked to a release
C. Yes, all of the test sets in the folder will be linked to that cycle
D. Yes, all of the test sets in the folder will be linked to the cycle and all other cycles in
that release

Q. 317: What is a test set?

A. A folder of test results
B. A folder of testing cycles
C. A group of tests to achieve a goal
D. A group of tests assigned to a release

Q. 318: What choices are available in Test Set Properties if any test fails?
A. Rerun the test up to 5 times
B. Run the next Test Set, Do Nothing
C. Run cleanup test before each rerun of the test
D. Do Nothing, Stop the Test Run, Rerun the Test Set

Q. 319: While defining a test set, you want to notify your Project Manager if the
permission levels on the testing box are inadequate. What is the best way to
accomplish this?
A. Select inadequate in the permissions field
B. Ensure that the correct alert rule is in effect
C. Check the appropriate checkbox in Test Set Properties>Notifications
D. Email test results to the Project Manager at the completion of the test set

Q. 320: When designing a test, which practice would you consider is most
integral in determining test success?
A. Write test steps in the active voice.
B. Verify the version of the application is working.
C. Validate that the fields indicated in the test exist.
D. Specify the pass and fail conditions and expected results.

Q. 321: In designing a test, where can you specify parameters. Select two.
A. Call to Test
B. Test Name
C. Step Name
D. Description
E. Expected Result

Q. 322: When converting requirements to tests, to what can a requirement be

converted?
A. A Subject Folder, a Test or a Test Set
B. A Subject Folder, a Test or a Design Step
C. A Test, a Business Component or a Design Step
D. A Subject Folder, a Business Component or a Design Step
Q. 323: At what step in the quality management process would you analyze the
impact of changes in requirements?
A. After test execution
B. After requirements traceability
C. After defects have status "Closed"
D. After new requirements are added

Q. 324: To run a test set at a remote location, what setting in Quality Center 9.2
would you configure?
A. Run All
B. Enable Log
C. Run on Host
D. Run All Tests Locally

Q. 325: In the Execution Flow tab, which Execution Conditions can be indicated
by arrows between tests? Select two.
A. Failed
B. Passed
C. Finished
D. Not Completed

Q. 326: Which tool forces manual tests to run in a specific order?

A. Manual Runner
B. Generate Script
C. Automated Runner
D. Test Set Properties

Q. 327: A manual test started but did not complete the test run. Which feature
will allow you to proceed with the test run?
A. Cancel Run
B. Run Manually
C. Repeat Begin Run
D. Continue Manual Run

Q. 328: What Execution Conditions are supported in Test Set Execution Flow
tab?
A. Done or Failed
B. Done or Passed
C. Passed or Failed
D. Finished or Passed

Q. 329: Which steps must you perform when developing a test set tree? Select
two.
A. Create test set folders.
B. Schedule execution date and time.
C. Link test sets to releases and cycles.
D. Populate the test set folders with tests.
E. Define test run sequence and conditions.
Q. 330: In the Test Lab module, which tab allows you to define a time when
Tests will execute?
A. Execution Grid
B. Linked Defects
C. Execution Flow
D. Test Set Properties

Q. 331: In the Test Plan Tree, which basic test information is required to create
a new test? Select two.
A. Level
B. Priority
C. Template
D. Test Type
E. Test Name

Q. 332: Which Test Lab feature displays tests in a diagram for easy sequencing
and scheduling?
A. Execution Grid
B. Test Plan Tree
C. Linked Defects
D. Execution Flow

Q. 333: A test set could not execute due to remote connectivity issues. The QA
manager would like to receive an email update when the test execution halts.
Which notification setting would you select?
A. On Failure
B. Environmental failure
C. Any test in the Automatic Runner with status "Failure"
D. All tests in the Automatic Runner that were run have finished

Q. 334: Which action is required in order to execute an automated test in

Quality Center 9.2?
A. Have design steps defined
B. Have the tester field defined
C. Set the design status to Ready
D. Be a member of at least one test set

Q. 335: In the Test Lab module, to which entity can you assign a Cycle?
A. Run
B. Test Set
C. Test Instance
D. Test Set Folder

Q. 336: What options are available to users in the Quality Center Tools menu?
Select two.
A. Log out
B. Add users
C. New defects
D. Change projects
E. Change passwords
Q. 337: Which module allows you to run tests on an application and analyze
results?
A. Test Set
B. Test Lab
C. Test Plan
D. Test Execution

Q. 338: Which add-ins allow you to export tests, requirements and defects from
a third-party application to Quality Center? Select two.
A. BPT add-in
B. QTP add-in
C. Excel add-in
D. Word add-in

Q. 339: From which menu command would you execute an export of data from
Excel to Quality Center?
A. Excel > Data > Export
B. Quality Center > Add-Ins page
C. Excel > Tools > Export to Quality Center
D. Quality Center > Tools > Excel Report Generator

Q. 340: What are the key pointers for defining tests?

A. Economical, Unique, Graphic, Clear, Traceable
B. Generalized, Unique, Reasonable, Graphic, Definite
C. Accurate, Economical, Consistent, Appropriate, Traceable
D. Consistent, Well Written, Generalized, Ambiguous, Appropriate

Q. 341: Which statements about linking defects are true? Select two.
A. Linking defects enables you to link only one entity of any type to one defect.
B. Linking defects enables you to use History to search for defects with no known links.
C. Linking defects enables you to link multiple entities of the same type to the same
defect.
D. Linking defects enables you to search defects that are related to specific Quality Center
entities.

Q. 342: Which entity cannot be associated with a defect?

A. Test
B. Run
C. Cycle
D. Defect

Q. 343: What is tracked by the defect's lifecycle in Quality Center?

A. The defects status
B. The defects priority
C. The defects severity
D. The defect's assigned users

Q. 344: Which defect status indicates that a defect is ready to be retested?

A. New
B. Fixed
C. Open
D. Reopen

Q. 345: A defect has been logged for a test in a test set, which has been
removed from the Test Lab module. Which association remains for the defect?
A. The original test in the Test Plan module
B. The original cycle in the Releases module
C. The original release in the Releases module
D. The original requirement in the Requirements module

Q. 346: Which feature allows you to view the order of changes made to a defect?
A. History
B. Details
C. Others
D. Update

Q. 347: What types of graphs can be generated in the Test Plan Module under
the Live Analysis tab? Select three.
A. Trend
B. Progress
C. Summary
D. Time Interval
E. Execution Status

Q. 348: Which statement is correct about associating defects?

A. Test runs are performed on open and reopened defects.
B. If a requirement has not been met, a defect is not reported for a test run.
C. When a defect is logged for a test instance, it is automatically logged for a test.
D. To remove a defect-test relationship, remove the defect-test instance relationship.

Q. 349: What entities can a defect be directly associated with in Quality Center
9.2? Select two.
A. A cycle
B. Release
C. Test result
D. Attachment
E. Test instance

Q. 350: Which command will you use to save your search settings and filter
criteria?
A. Group By...
B. View Settings...
C. Save Settings...
D. Add to Favorites...

Q. 351: Which statement best describes Quality Center software?

A. It is a Web-based database used to organize and identify configuration items of the
testing project.
B. It is a GUI-based functional testing tool used to organize, create, and enhance the
testing process.
C. It is a Web-based test management tool used to structure, organize and document
phases of the testing project.
D. It is a Web-based application used to govern the entire portfolio of IT projects,
applications and opportunities in real-time.

Q. 352: In the test management process within Quality Center, in which phase
can traceability links be added?
A. Track Defects
B. Execute Tests
C. Define Release
D. Define Requirements
E. Develop the Test Plan

Q. 353: Which elements of the Release module can be linked directly to a

requirement from the Requirements module? Select two.
A. A cycle
B. Cycle details
C. A release
D. A cycles progress

Q. 354: In Quality Center, what is meant by the term "release"?

A. It is a subset of the new features implemented in an application that has undergone a
series of test cycles.
B. It is a set of tests designed for a specific purpose such as new feature functionality,
security and performance.
C. It is a group of test cycles that have been completed within a specific time period and
all the high priority defects closed.
D. It is a version of an application representing a group of changes that is available for
distribution to customers at the same time.

Q. 355: Which statement best describes the Releases folder in the Release
module?
A. It is a predefined folder that can be deleted.
B. It is a predefined folder that cannot be deleted.
C. It is a folder that you can add but not delete once it is added.
D. It is a folder that you can add and delete as part of the Release tree.

Q. 356: In Quality Center 9.2, what is typically referred to as a version of an

application containing a group of changes that is distributed to customers at
the same time?
A. Release
B. Specifications
C. Requirements
D. Line of Business

Q. 357: By default, which action can you perform on the predefined RELEASES
folder?
A. You can delete or rename according to your requirement and add releases to it.
B. You can only rename according to your requirement; you cannot delete or add to it.
C. You can rename according to your requirement and add releases to it; you cannot
delete it.
D. You can only add releases to it; you cannot delete or rename according to your
requirement.

Q. 358: Which statement is correct about tying a requirement to a cycle in

Quality Center, and releasing it?
A. The requirement is automatically tied to the release
B. You are manually tying the requirement to the release
C. You have to manually link the requirement to each cycle to release it
D. The requirement is automatically tied to all the cycles within the release

Q. 359: Which statement is true about releases in Quality Center 9.2?

A. Releases have one-to-one correspondence with a testing cycle.
B. An alpha release can occur with seventy-five percent release cycle progress.
C. A release's start and end date must encompass all cycles within that release.
D. The release process begins by approving the requirements in the Requirements
module.

Q. 360: What is the sequence of command used to copy a cycle?

A. Right click on the Cycle name and select Repeat cycle
B. Right click on the Release name and select Copy cycle
C. Right click on the Cycle name and select Duplicate cycle
D. Right click on the Release name and select Recreate cycle

Q. 361: What are the default requirement types within Quality Center 9.2?
A. System, Group, Testing, Functional, Unknown, and User
B. Business, Folder, Functional, Group, Testing, and Undefined
C. Functional, Business, Group, Undefined, System, and Internal
D. Functional, System, Undefined, Testing, Folder, and Unknown

Q. 362: Which are some of the advantages of defining test requirements clearly
and correctly at the beginning of a project? Select three.
A. It helps prevent scope creep.
B. It aids development and testing.
C. It is used as code-base definition.
D. It sets clear expectations between teams.
E. It reduces planning for the infrastructure architecture. .
Q. 363: After defining a manual test, which component do you use to add the
step details of the test?
A. Detail Editor
B. Script Editor
C. Design Test Editor
D. Design Step Editor

Q. 364: Which reports come pre-configured in the Requirements module? Select

three.
A. Traced from Requirements
B. Standard Requirements Report
C. Requirements with Linked Bugs
D. Requirements with Pass Status
E. Requirements with Coverage Tests

Q. 365: Which statement best describes a requirement?

A. A requirement links the defects found in the application.
B. A requirement provides the timeline of the testing process.
C. A requirement maps the coverage of tests to be performed.
D. A requirement details what needs to be tested in an application.

Q. 366: Which sub-tabs does the Requirements Traceability tab contain?

A. Relationships and Impact Analysis
B. Relationships and Traceability Links
C. Impact Analysis and Traceability Links
D. Traceability Relationships and Analysis

Q. 367: In relationships between modules in Quality Center 9.2, which statement

is true?
A. You are not required to use the Release module in order to use the Requirements
Module.
B. You must use the Test Lab module in order to establish linkage between a defect and a
requirement.
C. If you want defects linked to test runs, you must log them via the Test Lab module at
test execution time.
D. You are required to set up testing requirements in the Requirements Module before you
can use the Test Plan module.

Q. 368: When tying a requirement to a cycle, to what else is it automatically

tied?
A. To the release of the cycle
B. To other cycles within the release
C. To other requirements within the cycle
D. To other requirements within the release

Q. 369: Which command is used to create an automated test from an existing

manual test?
A. Generate Test
B. Automate Test
C. Generate Script
D. Automate Script

Q. 370: What does the Direct Cover Status field represent?

A. Has the requirement been linked to a test set, and if so, what tests are included?
B. Has the requirement been linked to a cycle, and if so, what is the status of the cycle?
C. Has the requirement been linked to a defect, and if so, what is the status of the defect?
D. Has the requirement been linked to a test, and if so, what is the status of the test's
execution?

Q. 371: What does the Direct Cover Status of a requirement indicate?

A. The type of parent requirement
B. The execution status of linked tests
C. The component of the application covered
D. Whether the requirement has any linked defects

Q. 372: Which command would you use to modify report settings of Analysis
reports?
A. Generate Report
B. Add to Favorites
C. Save Report Settings
D. Configure Report and Sub-reports

Q. 373: Using the Excel add-in, what type of data can be exported to Quality
Center? (Select three.)
A. Tests
B. Test set
C. Defects
D. Releases
E. Test instance
F. Requirements

Q. 374: Which standard graph is specific to the Requirements module?

A. Tabular
B. Standard Requirements
C. Requirements Summary
D. Requirements Coverage

Q. 375: When you generate an Excel report, what is an advantage of using

parameters?
A. It enables the report to be saved.
B. It enables the user to name the report.
C. It enables the report to be used across projects.
D. It enables the report to be used for different purposes.

Q. 376: In the Test Plan module, which tab has the option of converting a
Manual test to an Automated test?
A. Details
B. Test Script
C. Design Steps
D. Req Coverage

Q. 377: Which tool will you use to generate a comprehensive report of your
project documentation?
A. Live Analysis
B. Microsoft Word
C. Document Generator
D. Excel Report Generator

Q. 378: Which predefined graphs are available in the Requirements, Test Plan,
Test Lab and Defects modules?
A. Age and summary
B. Trend and progress
C. Summary and progress
D. Requirements, coverage and age

Q. 379: Which Quality Center option enables you to generate graphs?

A. Help menu
B. Tools menu
C. Analysis menu
D. Common menu

Q. 380: Once the Microsoft Word add-in is installed on your computer, what
Quality Center toolbars will Word display?
A. Test Plan, Requirements and Export
B. Requirements, Defects and Common
C. Test Plan, Requirements and Defects
D. Test Plan, Requirements and Common

Q. 381: If the QA manager would like to know how the testing process is going
with respect to a release cycle, which graph would best serve the requirement?
A. Trend graph
B. Progress graph
C. Summary graph
D. Live Coverage graph

Q. 382: If the QA manager would like to see an overview of status of the tests
within folder in the Test Plan Tree, which graph would you generate?
A. Live Analysis
B. Defect Age Graph
C. Coverage Analysis
D. Test Plan Summary

Q. 383: Which standard graph is specific to the Defects module?

A. History graph
B. Defects Age graph
C. Defects Coverage graph
D. Fixed or Rejected Defects graph

Q. 384: When a predefined report is saved, what are the file extensions
allowed? Select two.
A. .txt
B. .xls
C. .html
D. .doc

Q. 385: What are template tests?

A. Test designs that contain steps and parameters that are generally reusable across
different tests
B. Small automation units taking the form of QTP reusable Actions which accept input from
the tester via parameters
C. Tests, where key fields like Description, Tester, and Status have been pre-set, and can
be copied and pasted to form the basis of new tests
D. Pre-configured Design Steps views that let testers add new columns beyond just the
standard Step, Actual Result, and Expected Result columns

Q. 386: Which modules in Quality Center provide predefined graph templates?

A. Releases, Test Plan, Test Lab and Defects
B. Cycles, Requirements, Test Lab and Defects
C. Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab and Defects
D. Releases, Requirements, Test Plan and Defects

Q. 387: By default, Quality Center sends e-mail in HTML format. To send e-mail
as plain text instead, edit the parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site
Administration
A. M_FORMAT
B. MAIL_FORMAT_ID
C. MAIL_FORM
D. MAIL_FORMAT

Q. 388: You use the _________ pages to specify the information from the test plan
tree view of the Test Plan module that should appear in the project document.
A. Subject Tree
B. Subject Tests
C. Subject plans
D. Both A & B

Q. 389: Performing a risk-based quality management analysis for an analysis

requirement involves the following steps
A. Determine Risk groups, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing Policy, Analyze
Testing Strategy
B. Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing guidelines Settings, Finalize Testing Policy,
Analyze Testing Strategy
C. Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing guidelines,
Analyze Testing Strategy
D. Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing Policy,
Analyze Testing Strategy

Q. 390: You can define the number of views displayed on the menu by setting
the ________ parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration.
A. Favorites
B. Favorites_Depth
C. Favorites_view
D. Favorites_Path
Answers
1 A 41 A 81 B 121 C 161 B 201 B 241 A 281 D 321 D,E 361 B
2 A 42 A 82 C 122 E 162 A 202 D 242 C 282 A 322 B 362 A,B,D
3 C 43 B 83 D 123 A 163 A 203 B 243 B,F 283 A 323 B 363 D
4 B 44 C 84 D 124 B 164 C 204 A 244 C,D,F 284 C 324 C 364 B,C,E
5 A 45 B 85 B 125 A 165 A 205 B 245 D 285 D,E 325 B,C 365 D
6 A 46 C 86 A 126 B 166 A 206 A 246 D 286 A 326 C 366 A
7 A 47 B 87 B 127 A 167 A 207 B 247 B 287 C,E 327 D 367 A
8 C 48 A 88 B 128 C 168 B 208 A 248 D 288 A,D 328 D 368 A
9 A 49 A 89 D 129 B 169 C 209 A 249 D 289 B 329 A,D 369 C
1 A 50 A 90 B 130 B 170 C 210 B 250 A,C,F 290 B 330 C 370 D
0
1 D 51 A 91 C 131 D 171 C 211 C 251 D 291 B 331 D,E 371 B
1
1 A 52 D 92 C 132 A 172 A 212 A 252 C 292 B 332 D 372 D
2
1 B 53 A 93 D 133 B 173 A 213 A 253 C 293 D,E,F 333 B 373 A,C,F
3
1 B 54 B 94 A 134 C 174 C 214 B 254 A 294 B,C 334 D 374 D
4
1 D 55 C 95 A 135 A 175 C 215 D 255 D 295 C,E 335 D 375 D
5
1 C 56 A 96 A 136 D 176 D 216 E 256 C 296 B 336 C,D 376 C
6
1 A 57 C 97 A 137 B 177 A 217 C 257 A 297 A,B 337 B 377 C
7
1 D 58 B 98 B 138 D 178 B 218 A 258 B 298 B,C 338 C,D 378 C
8
1 B 59 B 99 B 139 A 179 D 219 A 259 A,B 299 C 339 C 379 C
9
2 A 60 B 100 A 140 B 180 A 220 B 260 C 300 C 340 C 380 D
0
2 D 61 A 101 D 141 A 181 B 221 A 261 A 301 A 341 C,D 381 B
1
2 D 62 C 102 A 142 C 182 A 222 A 262 B 302 A 342 C 382 A
2
2 B 63 D 103 B 143 D 183 B 223 D 263 A,C,E 303 A,C 343 A 383 B
3
2 A 64 A 104 A 144 B 184 D 224 C 264 D 304 C 344 B 384 A,C
4
2 C 65 D 105 D 145 A 185 C 225 B 265 C 305 B 345 A 385 A
5
2 C 66 A 106 C 146 A 186 A 226 A 266 A 306 D 346 A 386 C
6
2 B 67 A 107 D 147 B 187 A 227 C 267 C 307 D 347 A,B,C 387 A
7
2 A 68 A 108 B 148 A 188 C 228 C 268 C 308 D 348 C 388 D
8
2 A 69 C 109 A 149 C 189 B 229 A 269 D 309 D 349 C,E 389 D
9
3 A 70 B 110 B 150 C 190 B 230 B 270 A 310 D 350 D 390 D
0
3 C 71 C 111 B 151 B 191 F 231 D 271 C 311 C 351 C
1
3 B 72 D 112 A 152 A 192 C 232 B 272 C 312 B,C 352 D
2
3 D 73 A 113 D 153 B 193 B 233 C, E 273 D 313 D 353 A,C
3
3 A 74 B 114 A 154 A 194 A 234 B, C 274 B 314 A 354 D
4
3 B 75 A 115 A 155 D 195 A 235 D 275 C 315 A 355 B
5
3 C 76 D 116 B 156 B 196 B 236 C, E 276 A 316 C 356 A
6
3 A 77 A 117 C 157 B 197 D 237 B 277 C 317 C 357 C
7
3 B 78 D 118 A 158 A 198 A 238 C 278 A 318 D 358 D
8
3 B 79 A 119 B 159 A 199 A 239 C 279 D 319 C 359 C
9
4 A 80 A 120 C 160 B 200 A 240 C 280 C 320 D 360 C
0