1. Which ONE of the following is a cause of splenic atrophy?

A. Coeliac disease.
B. Letterer-Siewe disease.
C. Malaria.
D. Niemann-Pick disease.
E. Sarcoidosis.
The answer is A. In coeliac disease splenic atrophy occurs, with the
appearance of
Howell-Jolly bodies in erythrocytes. The others all cause splenomegaly.
Letterer-Siewe disease (B) is one form of Histiocytosis-X, in which
macrophages
proliferate.
Malaria (C) is an example of an infection which causes splenomegaly.
Niemann-Pick disease (D) is a lipid storage disorder.
Sarcoidosis (E) commonly involves the spleen.
2. 88. Which ONE of the following examples of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
commonly
occurs in children?
A. Diffuse centrocytic.
B. Follicular lymphoma.
C. Intestinal histiocytic lymphoma.
D. Lymphoblastic lymphoma in the thymus.
E. Lymphocytic lymphoma.
The answer is D. The thymic, or mediastinal lymphoblastic lymphoma of T-
cell type
affects males in late childhood or adolescence. The other examples tend to
occur in adults
over the age of 30 years.
3. 90. If the following events were placed in chronological order which would
come
fourth?
A. Aspiration bronchopneumonia.
B. Difficulty in swallowing.
C. Heavy alcohol intake.
D. Oesophageal bouginage.
E. Tracheo-oesophageal fistula.
The answer is E. Heavy alcohol intake (C) is associated with the development
of
oesophageal carcinoma in Western Europe. An early symptom of oesophageal
carcinoma is
dysphagia (B); surgical treatment may be impossible and palliative
oesophageal bouginage
undertaken (D). This may be complicated by oesophageal rupture, but
 occasionally the tumour
itself extends locally into the trachea and a fistula may be formed (E) with
resultant aspiration
bronchopneumonia (A).
4. 96. Which ONE of the following is an example of a primary malabsorption
syndrome.
A. A-beta-lipoproteinaemia.
B. Blind-loop syndrome.
C. Coeliac disease.
D. Crohn's disease.
E. Pancreatic insufficiency.
The answer is C. Coeliac disease (gluten sensitive enteropathy) is a primary
malabsorption syndrome, as are tropical sprue and Whipple's disease. The
others are all causes
of secondary malabsorption in that they interfere with absorption for various
reasons, i.e.,
bacterial colonization in the blind-loop syndrome (B), severe mucosal damage
in Crohn's
disease (D). Pancreatic insufficiency (E) causes inadequate digestion. A-beta-
lipoproteinaemia
is a biochemical defect which interferes with absorption (A).
5. 99. In which ONE of the following conditions is fatty change of the liver not a
feature?
A. Alcohol abuse.
B. Kwashiorkor.
C. Obesity.
D. Pernicious anaemia.
E. Viral hepatitis.
The answer is E. Fatty change is not a feature in acute viral hepatitis. All of
the others
involve nutritional deficiency and toxic damage to hepatocytes which result in
fatty change.
6. 100. Which ONE of the following is not usually a feature of acute viral
hepatitis in
a liver biopsy?
A. Acidophilic degeneration of hepatocytes.
B. Ballooning degeneration of hepatocytes.
C. Intact reticulin framework.
D. Lymphocytic infiltrates in parenchyma and portal tracts.
E. Mallory bodies.
The answer is E. Mallory bodies are usually found in alcoholic hepatitis, but
occur in
other conditions, i.e., Indian childhood cirrhosis.
The others are the histological hallmarks of acute hepatitis; acidophilic
degeneration
of hepatocytes (A) with extrusion of the pyknotic nucleus produces the
 Councilman body.
7. 101. For each outcome of infection by hepatitis B (HB) virus on the left select
the
most appropriate association from the list on the right.
46
a. Asymptomatic HB carrier with low infectivity.
b. HB positive chronic active hepatitis.
c. Recovery from acute hepatitis B.
A. Anti-mitochondrial antibody develops.
B. HBcAb and HbsAb produced.
C. HBcAg and HbsAg both expressed in hepatocyte.
D. Predominant HBcAg expression.
E. Predominant HBsAg expression in serum and hepatocytes.
The answer is E, C, B. If virus is not completely eliminated a carrier state
may
develop with continued expression of HBsAg; this is viral envelope and is of
low infectivity.
In some cases chronic liver disease develops with continued expression of
HBcAg and
HBs Ag.
Successful elimination of virus with resolution of the hepatitis results from
adequate
humoral responses.
Antimitochondrial Ab (A) is present in primary biliary cirrhosis. Predominant
HBcAg
(D) expression occurs in carriers who remain highly infective.
8. 105. With which ONE of the following do gallstones and/or chronic
cholecystitis not
have a recognized association?
A. Acute pancreatitis.
B. Haemolytic anaemia.
C. Hepatitis B infection.
D. Intestinal obstruction.
E. Typhoid fever.
The answer is C. There is no association with viral hepatitis.
48
Haemolytic anaemia (B) is associated with the formation of pigment stones.
The
presence of gallstones is associated with pancreatitis (A) and rarely with
small intestinal
obstruction (D). Typhoid fever may result in a carrier state in which
organisms survive in the
gallbladder (E).
9. 107. If the following events were placed in chronological order which would
come
fourth?
 A. Cingulate gyrus herniates beneath falx cerebri.
B. Frontal lobe tumour in right hemisphere.
C. Interventricular septum shifts to left of midline.
D. Medial temporal lobe herniates through tentorial opening.
E. Pontine and midbrain haemorrhage.
The answer is D. A tumour in the right frontal lobe (B) will act as a space
occupying
lesion resulting in raised intracranial pressure; expansion of the right
hemisphere causes shift
of the midline (C), the cingulate gyrus herniates beneath the falx (A);
increasing expansion
results in a tentorial hernia (D) and eventually fatal pontine and midbrain
haemorrhage (E)
supervene.
10. 116. Which ONE of the following forms a cystic tumour mass in the
cerebellum in
children?
A. Astrocytoma.
B. Ependymoma.
C. Glioblastoma multiforme.
D. Haemangioblastoma.
E. Medulloblastoma.
The answer is A. Cerebellar astrocytomas in children are usually cystic.
Glioblastoma multiforme (C) is an anaplastic astrocytoma which occurs in the
cerebral
hemisphere of adults.
Medulloblastoma (E) is derived from nerve cells and occurs in the cerebellum
of
children; it is not usually cystic.
Haemangioblastoma (D) is a tumour of blood vessels and occurs usually in
the
cerebellum.
11. 117. Which ONE of the following is characteristically found in acute diffuse
proliferative glomerulonephritis?
A. Endothelial and mesangial cell hyperplasia.
B. Fibrinoid necrosis of glomerular capillaries.
C. Focal sclerosis of glomerular tufts.
D. Hyalinization of arcuate arteries.
E. Severe basement membrane thickening.
The answer is A. The characteristic finding in this type of glomerulonephritis
is
enlargement and hypercellularity of the glomeruli, contributed to by capillary
endothelial cell
and mesangial cell hyperplasia.
53
Fibrinoid necrosis of glomerular capillaries (B) and hyalinization of arcuate
 arteries
(D) are seen in malignant phase hypertension.
Focal sclerosis (C) of glomerular tufts is seen in focal glomerulosclerosis.
Basement
membrane thickening (E) is seen in membranous glomerulonephritis.
12. 120. Which ONE of the following is not a feature of diabetic kidney?
A. Crystals in the collecting tubules.
B. Hyaline nodules at the periphery of the glomerular tuft.
C. Hyaline thickening of the glomerular capillary basement membrane.
54
D. Ischaemic glomerular change.
E. Papillary necrosis.
The answer is A. Crystals in the collecting tubules are a feature of gout.
Hyaline
nodules (Kimmelstiel-Wilson) are seen in nodular glomerulosclerosis (B).
Basement
membrane thickening (C) is seen in diffuse glomerulosclerosis.
As a result of hyaline thickening of the afferent arterioles ischaemic
glomerular
damage (D) may occur.
Papillary necrosis (E) is commonly seen in diabetic kidneys.
13. 124. Which ONE of the following is the commonest type of bladder tumour?
A. Adenocarcinoma.
B. Papillary transitional cell carcinoma.
C. Solid transitional call carcinoma.
D. Squamous carcinoma.
E. Transitional cell papilloma.
The answer is E. The benign papillary transitional cell tumour is the
commonest
bladder neoplasm.
The transitional cell carcinomas (B, C) are the commonest malignant bladder
tumours.
Squamous carcinoma (D) may arise from squamous metaplasia of transitional
epithelium or directly from transitional epithelium.
Adenocarcinoma (A) is rare.
14. 125. If the following events were placed in chronological order which would
come
fourth?
56
A. Formation of involucrum.
B. Localized skin infection.
C. Sequestrum formation.
D. Subperiosteal abscess.
E. Suppuration in medullary cavity.
The answer is C. A minor skin infection often caused by penicillin resistant
Staphylococcus aureus (B) results in blood spread to the bone marrow (E)
 from where
infection spreads through the cortical bone to produce a subperiosteal abscess
(D); the
presence of pus may result in thrombosis of the nutrient artery which causes
death of the
diaphyseal bone which forms the sequestrum (C). New bone is produced
under the
periosteum, forming an encasing sheath of irregular outline, the involucrum
(A).
15. 129. Which ONE of the following is not a feature of osteosarcoma?
A. Fifty per cent of tumours occur around the knee.
B. Lung secondaries common.
C. May be associated with Paget's disease of bone.
D. Peak incidence between 10 and 25 years of age.
E. Usually metastasize to lymph nodes.
The answer is E. Lymph node metastases are a feature of carcinomas rather
than
sarcomas, and osteosarcoma typically metastasizes to the lung (B).
The usual site for osteosarcoma is in a long bone, the femur and tibia being
especially
common (A).
Osterosarcoma is a tumour of young people (D) but may occur in the elderly
when
it is usually associated with Paget's disease of bone (C).
16. 134. If the following clinical and pathological features were in chronological
order
which would come fourth?
A. Cervical biopsy shows cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, grade III.
B. Cone biopsy of cervix shows invasive squamous carcinoma.
C. Early onset of sexual activity.
D. Frozen pelvis.
E. Ureteric obstruction with uraemia.
The answer is D. Early onset of sexual activity and promiscuous sexual
activity (C)
are associated with increased risk of cervical cancer; biopsy of the cervix (A)
shows cervical
intraepithelial neoplasia grade III. An excision or cone biopsy of the cervix is
performed (B)
which reveals invasive carcinoma; cervical cancer invades locally in the
pelvis (D) and
eventually causes uraemia by ureteric obstruction (E). Herpes virus type 2 and
human
papillomavirus have been implicated as possible carcinogenic agents.
17. 138. Which ONE one of the following is not a feature of cystic mastopathy?
A. Apocrine metaplasia of glandular epithelium.
B. Cyst formation.
 C. Formation of new breast lobules.
D. Paget's disease of nipple.
E. Sclerosing adenitis.
The answer is D. Paget's disease of nipple is intraepithelial spread of breast
cancer
cells. It occurs when ductal carcinoma spreads along major ducts to the
nipple.
The others are all features of benign cystic mastopathy.
18. 141. For each of the types of testicular tumour listed on the left, select the
most
appropriate association from the list on the right.
a. Differentiated teratoma.
b. Embryonal carcinoma.
c. Seminoma.
A. Commonest testicular tumour in the elderly.
B. Consists of sheets of large pale cells and lymphocytes.
C. Consists of trophoblastic elements.
D. Occurs before puberty.
E. Poor prognosis type of teratoma.
The answer is D, E, B. Differentiated teratoma resembles the ovarian cystic
teratoma,
but is malignant in the male. It occurs before puberty.
Embryonal carcinoma is an anaplastic variant of teratoma and have poor
prognosis.
Seminoma is the commonest type of testicular tumour, occurring usually in
the forth
decade and consists of sheets of large pale cells and lymphocytes.
The commonest testicular tumour in the elderly (A) is a lymphoma. A
teratoma
consisting of trophoblastic elements (C) resembles choriocarcinoma and may
secrete HCG,
which may be used as a serum marker.
19. 142. Which one of the following is not associated with male infertility?
A. Alcoholic cirrhosis.
B. Germ cell aplasia.
C. Sperm count of 70 x 109/litre.
D. Testis small with prominent Leydig cells.
E. XXY chromosomal pattern.
The answer is C. A sperm count of less than 50 x 109/litre is associated with
significant decrease in fertility.
Cirrhosis (A) is associated with increased endogenous oestrogen secretion.
Germ cell
aplasia (B) is seen in the del Castillo syndrome (or chromatin - negative
Klinefelter's
syndrome).
Small testes with loss of tubules show pseudohyperplasia of Leydig cells (D).
 Klinefelter's syndrome is associated with XXY chromosome pattern.
20. 147. Which ONE of the following is not a virus infection of the skin?
A. Condyloma acuminatum.
B. Molluscum contagiosum.
C. Pemphigus vulgaris.
D. Verruca vulgaris.
E. Zoster.
The answer is C. Pemphigus vulgaris is an inflammatory condition
characterized by
the presence of intraepidermal bullous formation; there is circulating IgG
class antibody to
intercellular substance of squamous epithelium.
21. 66. Toxins and viruses can be detected by
a. Precipitation b. Agglutination
c. Neutralisation d. None of these
C
22. 33 Intensity of attraction between antigen
and antibody molecule is known as
a. Affiniy b. Avidity
c. Reaction d. None of these
A
23. 65. When a particular antigen is mixed with
antibody in the presence of an electrolyte
at suitable temperature and pH the
particles are clumped, this is called:
a. Precipitation b. Agglutination
c. Electrophoresis d. CIE
B
24. 68. Shick test is used for the detection of
a. Diphtheria b. T.B.
c. Cholera d. Typhoid
A
25. 70. Very effective, less time consuming and
at a time so many samples can be detected
by
a. ELISA b. CFT
c. Neutralization d. Agglutination
A
26. 18. Temperature in pasteurization is
a. 62.8oC b. 35.7oC
c. 68.2oC d. 60.8Oc
a
27. 9. Presence of pathogenic bacteria in the blood is known as...
a) Toxemia
b) Septicemia
c) Bacteremia
d) All of the above
c

28. 10. Schick test is done for the diagnosis of..

a) Rubella
b) Measles
 c) Diphtheria

d) Mumps
c
29. 6. Which of the fallowing is the function of mesosome in bacteria?
a) Respiration
b) Cell division
c) Sporulation
d) All of the above
d

30. 7. BCG is a..

a) Live attenuated vaccine
b) Killed vaccine
c) Toxoid
d) Immunoglobulin
a
31. 47. Example of Anaerobic medium is
a. Robertson cooked-meat medium
b. Nutrient agar
c. Nutrient broth
d. Mac-Conkey’s agar
a
32. 91. Match the following terms with their
respective formulations A to E:
1. Lysol A. Higher boiling fractions of the
tar acids
2. Black fluids B. Prepared from refined tar acids
3. White fluids C. Solution of cresol with soap
4. Iodophores D. Basic molecules has varying
numbers of amino groups
E. Iodine combined with complex
organic chemicals
91. 1.c, 2.a, 3.b, 4.e
33. 98. The size of the virus can be determined
by
a. Micrography
b. Ultra-centrifugation at high speed
c. Ultra-filteration
d. All of these
d
34. 18. Incubation period for infective Hepatitis
disease
a. 45 – 80 days b. 15 – 35 days
c. 35 – 50 days d. 5 – 15 days
D
35. 157. The antibiotic acting on cell wall is
a. Penicillin b. Bacitracin
c. Cyclosporin d. All of the above
D
36. In Tuberculosis therapy mainly used
antibiotic is
a. Penicillin b. Streptomycin
c. Chloramphenol d. Cycloserine
 D
37. 162. Resistant to drugs in tuberculosis
develops by
a. Transduction b. Transformation
c. Conjugation d. Mutation
D
38. 41. The bacterial pili mainly contain
a. Carbohydrates b. Lipids
c. Proteins d. Minerals
C
39. 68. The most infectious food borne disease is
a. Tetanus b. Dysentery
c. Gas gangrene d. Botulism
D
40. 84. Cytochromes are
a. Oxygen acceptors b. ATP acceptors
c. Electron acceptors d. Protein acceptors
C
41. 15. The number of deaths due to diarrhoea, total cases of measles, total
number of accidents and the total number of drug addicts were to be reported
by a researcher. The best title given to all of this data would be:
a) Mortality data
b) Morbidity data
c) Case fatality rate
d) Addiction rate
e) Health related data

Key: True: e
42. 18. Influenza pandemic occurs after every 7 – 10 years. This kind of disease
distribution in time is known as:
a) Secular trend
b) Short time fluctuation
c) Cyclical trend
d) Seasonal trend
e) Endemicity

Key: True: c
43. 20. A doctor is required to study the incidence of silicosis in a stone cutting
industry, which study design should he choose:
a) Longitudinal
b) Cross-sectional
c) Ecological surveys
d) Case reports
e) Case series report

Key: True: a
44. 23. Smoking leads to esophageal carcinom Coffee intake has its effect on
smoking and also esophageal carcinom This factor can distort the results of the
study which intends to prove an association between smoking and esophageal
cancer. This effect of this factor is known as:
a) Confounding
b) Multiple causation
c) One to one relationship
d) Dose response relation
e) Strength of association

Key: True: a
45. 27. An expert in the field of public health is required to estimate the magnitude
of a health problem. Which rate would he calculate for this?
a) Incidence
b) Prevalence
c) Case fatality
d) Proportionate mortality
e) Cause specific mortality

Key: True: b
46. 29. The trend in mortality from tuberculosis in England showed a steady fall in
years 1855 – 1965 but thereafter a gradual rise in the incidence of this disease
was reporte This type of time trend or fluctuation in disease occurrence is
termed as:
a) Epidemic trend
b) Cyclical trend
c) Seasonal trend
d) Secular trend
e) Pandemic trend

Key: True: d
47. 36. A 39-year-old man who presents with a mild sore throat, fever, malaise, and
headache is treated with penicillin for presumed streptococcal infection. He
returns after week with hypotension, fever, rash, and abdominal pain. He
responds favorably to chloramphenicol, after a diagnosis of Rocky Mountain
spotted fever is made which option explains the given example?
a) Case series report
b) Case-control study
c) Clinical trial
d) Cohort study
e) Case report
 Key: True: e
48. 37. A total of 3500 patients with thyroid cancer are identified and surveyed by
patient interviews regarding past exposure to radiation. Which options explains
the given example?
a) Case series report
b) Case-control study
c) Clinical trial
d) Cohort study
e) Case report

Key: True: a
49. 24. To control the rising incidence of non communicable diseases, legislation
based on tobacco control will be adopted to prevent onset of the risk behaviour.
This prevention will be
Primordial
Health promotion
Specific protection
Disability limitation
Rehabilitation
Key. a
50. 47. In a village of 1 lakh population, among 20,000 exposed to smoking, 200
developed cancer, and among 40,000people unexposed, 40 developed cancer.
The relative risk of smoking in the development of cancer is:
a) 20
b) 10
c) 5
d) 15
e) 25

Key: True: b
51. 48. In a population of 1000, measles coverage is 60%, one child goes out of
station and comes back with measles from whom 26 more children get the
measles. The secondary attack rate is:
a) 6.5
b) 65
c) 7.5
d) 0.65
e) 7.0

Key: True: a
52. 59. Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis affected a large proportion of population
over a wide geographic area in 1971 and 1981. This spread of disease is:
 a) Epidemic
b) Sporadic
c) Pandemic
d) Endemic
e) Opportunistic

Key: True: c
53. 28. A 10 years old boy presented with complaints of fever, accompanied by
profuse sweating for the last 1 week. He also complained of multiple joint pains.
Serum ASO titre was increase The likely diagnosis is:
Malaria
Dengue
Hepatitis B
Rheumatic fever
Ricketts
Key: d
54. 10. Chlorination of water was done by addition of bleaching powder solution
containing 10% available chlorine One hour contact time was ensure What is
your recommendation regarding use of this water for drinking?
a) Fit for consumption
b) Use after 06 hours
c) Use after 12 hours
d) To be used after another 24 hours
e) Rechlorinate

Key: True: e
55. 19. A 12 members family was living in a house consisting of two rooms. Which
disease is most likely to be common in the given situation?
a) Asthma
b) Tuberculosis
c) CA Bronchus
d) Cystic fibrosis
e) Emphysema

Key: b
56. 24. A Person working in compressed air chamber presented with symptoms of
cough, dyspnoea and joint pains. This clinical presentation is suggestive of:
a) Pulmonary edema
b) Fat embolism
c) Air embolism
d) Rupture of spleen
e) Myocardial infarction
 Key: c
57. 3. Persuasive communication was deliberately employed to manipulate feelings,
attitudes and beliefs of people regarding smoking, this method is known as:
a) Counseling
b) Motivation
c) Propaganda
d) Advising
e) Education

Key: True: c
58. 14. A primigravida with 30 weeks of gestation visit OPD for routine checkup. Her
P was found to be 160/90 mm Hg. The doctor advised to report immediately if
she develops:
Abdominal pain
Vaginal bleeding
Tinnitus
Swelling of the feet
Fever
Key: d
59. 9. The commonest physical health hazard in most industries is:
Heat
Noise
Humidity
Ionizing radiation
Light
Key: a
60. 12. The extent to which a test measures what it was originally designed to
measure is described as:
Sensitivity
Specificity
Validity
Reliability
True-positive value
Key: True: c
61. 94. Mark out the incorrect statement-
(a) Urbanites are socially poor in midst of plenty

(b) Urban contacts are segmental

(c) Urbanities come into primary contact with each other

 (d) Many urbanites live in social vacuum

Ans. (c)

62. 93. In India, in the past, which one was NOT the feature of the villages?
(a) the people did not live a complex life

(b) they had not been influenced by city life

(c) they believed in simplicity

(d) they were too much dazzled by the glamours of city life

Ans. (d)

63. 91. ________ is more rampant in a city life.

(a) Social mobility

(b) Migration

(c) Religious grouping

(d) Jajmani system

Ans. (a)

64. 89. The ___________ of the urban community is the source

of social groupings both vertical and horizontal.
(a) economic differentiation

(b) social differentiation

(c) caste

(d) social prestige

Ans. (a)

65. 88. Which one of the following is NOT true of an Indian

 village?
(a) The people are conservative

(b) The people are politically conscious

(c) The villagers believe in simplicity

(d) The villagers are God fearing

Ans. (b)

66. 79. Some social change occurs without being noticed by

most members of a society is known as –
(a) Manifest change

(b) Latent change

(c) Relative change

(d) Absolute change

Ans.(b)

67. 78. A mechanistic view of society would see social change

as stemming from –
(a) Exogenous sources

(b) Endogenous sources

(c) Structural sources

(d) Immediate sources

Ans.(a)

68. 76. Which one of the following combinations is true

regarding modernization in India?
(a) Diffusion and acculturation
 (b) Evaluation and acculturation

(c) Evaluation and diffusion

(d) Evaluation and regeneration.

Ans.(c)

69. 73. Which among the following conditions primarily

contribute to the development of village community?
(a) Good climate

(b) Application of science

(c) A proper application of intelligence and labour

(d) The police of the government

70. 72. The inhabitants of the villages, which are closer to the
towns, are more forward looking than those living in the
interior. Why?
(a) Towns provide markets for the village products

(b) The unemployed in the village can find work in the city and
this contributes to the village economy

(c) The town people serve to the villages the ‘reference group’
purpose

(d) All of the above

Ans. (d)

71. 135. The people of Mongoloid group are found in:

(a) Sub-Himalayan region

(b) Madhya Pradesh

 (c) Kerala

(d) Tamil Nadu

Ans. (a)

72. 131. Primitive economic organisations are of ____________

type.
(a) production

(b) subsistence

(c) production-selling

(d) market-oriented

Ans. (b)

73. 129. In the feudal system in production maximum stress was

laid on-
(a) labour

(b) capital

(c) machine

(d) trade unions

Ans. (b)

74. 118. Which among the following factors makes the people of a village a
‘community’?
(a) That they belong to common blood origin

(b) That they believe in common religion

(c) That they have a common culture

 (d) That they are bound by a ‘we sense’

Ans. (d)

75. 114. Social benefit of population statistics is that

(a) we come to know about child mortality

(b) we gather information about industrialisation

(c) we gather information about consumption, needs of the people

(d) identification of sources of taxation becomes possible

Ans. a

76. 111. The oldest model of social change is –

(a) Evolutionary

(b) Mechanical

(c) Dialectical

(d) -Cyclical

Ans.(d)

77. 104. Between Geography and Topography, there is a

difference of character rather than of content. Which among
the following gives the meaning of geography?
(a) A physical description of a place

(b) An intimate description of a place

(c) Description of the flora and fauna

(d) A description of the climatic conditions

Ans. (d)
78. 100. Which one of the following does not fall under the classification of
tribes given by the Indian Conference of Social Work?
(a) those concerned with forests

(b) those concerned with a business

(c) those concerned with agriculture

(d) those living in urban and semi-urban areas

Ans. (b)

79. 96. Modernisation has affected rural kinship most because:

(a) the people have become materialist

(b) means of communication have developed

(c) there has been migration from the villages to the cities

(d) the people have lost faith in worship of God

Ans. (c)

80. 79. ______ is the most conspicuous example of secondary group.

(a) Army

(b) Nation

(c) Neighbourhood

(d) Modern large scale organization

Ans. (c)

81. 65. Which one of the following correctly defines the concept
of social structure?
(A) Socially assigned meaning to a particular set of behavioural
pattern
 (B) The enduring, orderly and patterned relationships between
elements of a society

(C) A group of individuals, sharing common social background,

aspirations and occupations

(D) A set of behavioural patterns shared by different cultures

Ans. (B)

82. 59. Optimum Population Theory was given by

(a) Edwin Canon

(b) J.S. Mills

(c) Adam Smith

(d) H. Spencer

Ans. (a)

83. _________determines the effectiveness of authority

a)Dominance
b) rationality
c) accountability
d)legitimacy
D

84. 185. ___________ develops nationalism and love of country.

A. We-feeling B. Ethnocentrism C. Cultural relativism D. Social control
B
85. 186. ____________ is the spread of a culture pattern from one culture area
to another.
A. Acculturation B. Assimilation C. Enculturation D. Culture diffusion
d
86. 51. The term ‘Legitimacy’ stands for
(a) Attachment

(b) Coercion
 (c) Lawfulness

(d) Absolute power

Ans. (c)

87. 49. Rural and urban centres share some common facets of life. They
show
(a) Antagonism

(b) Contradiction

(c) Cooperation

(d) Interdependence

Ans. (d)

88. 42. Which among the following is not true regarding,

‘reflexive role taking’?
(a) Taking the role of another by viewing oneself from the point of
view of the other

(b) Reflexive role taking allows a person to become object in

himself as other’s see him

(c) The concept of reflexive role taking is like precedence of one

role over another.

(d) The concept of reflexive role taking is similar to the Cooley’s

concept of the looking-glass self.

Ans. (c)

89. 13-In Kinship Chart, ‘Δ’ symbol refers to

(a) Female

(b) Male

(c) Married to
 (d) None of these

B
90.

B
91.

c
92.

A
93.

B
94.

A
95.

A
96.

D
97. Mark out which indicates the meaning of esteem
a) A tailor
b) A social worker
c) An honest broker
d) A businessman
C
98. A group in which one has a ‘we –feeling’ is called a /an
a) Racial group
b) Nationality group
c) Primary group
d) Inherited gropu
C
99. Class struggle is most intense in a
a) Capitalistic society
b) Primitive society
c) Feudal society
d) Socialistic society
A
100. Social stratification implies
a) Social justice
b) Social inequality
c) Social injustice
d) Social equality

B
101.

102.

B
103.

B
104.

A
105.

A
106.

A
107.

B
108.

E
109.

A
110.

B
111.

112.

E
113.
 D
114.

115.

116.

D
117.

A
118.

D
119.

E
120.

D
121. 13. The goal of respiration is to control the concentration of which substances dissolved
in the blood?
A. oxygen
B. oxygen and carbon dioxide
C. oxygen, carbon dioxide and hydrogen ions
D. oxygen, carbon dioxide, hydrogen ions and ATP
Answer is C: Respiratory activity responds to changes in the dissolved concentration
of these 3 substances in blood.
122. 16. What is the “cribriform plate”?
A. That part of the nose with three folds of tissue called conchae.
B. The structure that separates the nose from the nasopharynx.
C. Part of the ethmoid bone through which olfactory nerves pass.
D. The nose structure through which air is warmed and humidifi ed as it passes.
Answer is C: The cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone has many foramina
through which pass olfactory nerves that transmit sensory information from
inhaled air to the olfactory bulbs.
123. 25. How is the diaphragm innervated?
A. from the respiratory centre in concert with chemoreceptors that detect blood
oxygen level
B. by the spinal nerves arising from thoracic vertebrae at the same level
C. by the phrenic nerve arising from vertebrae C3 to C5
 D. by the vagus nerve arising from the medulla oblongata
Answer is C: The phrenic nerve (not thoracic spinal nerves) innervates the
diaphragm.
124. 1. Which word correctly completes the statement: “All motor neurons are…”
A. interneurons
B. multipolar
C. bipolar
D. unipolar
Answer is B: Motor neurones (that innervate muscles) are multipolar.
125. 5. Which of the following substances CANNOT pass through the “blood-brain
barrier”?
A. steroid hormones
B. O 2 molecules
C. alcohol
D. potassium ions
Answer is D: Fat soluble molecules can pass the BBB, but most charged particles
cannot.
126. 8. Which neurons are unipolar?
A. neurons in the central nervous system
B. neurons in the retina
C. sensory neurons
D. motor neurons
Answer is C: Most sensory neurones are unipolar, that is the axon and dendrites
are not separated by the cell body but are the one strand (are fused), with the
cell body attached to it by a single process.
127. 3. Which of the following is NOT composed of “gray matter”?
A. spinothalamic tract
B. cerebral cortex
C. basal nuclei
D. post-central gyrus
Answer is A: Gray matter refers to cell bodies of neurons while white matter is
aggregations of myelinated axons. The spinothalamic “tract” is a bundle of
nerves (axons) carrying information to the brain.
128. 5. The hypothalamus does ALL of the following EXCEPT one. Which one?
A. It is the autonomic control centre.
B. It directs lower CNS centres to perform actions.
C. It produces the rigidly programmed, automatic behaviours necessary for
survival
D. It performs many homeostatic roles.
Answer is C: Rigidly programmed automatic behaviours are controlled by the
brainstem (midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata) not the hypothalamus.
129. 1. To which of the following would the term “white cell” NOT be applied?
A. erythrocyte
B. leucocyte
C. lymphocyte
D. monocyte
Answer is A: An erythrocyte is a red blood cell
130. 8. What is the first process that occurs after a blood vessel is damaged?
A. coagulation
B. platelet plug formation
C. vasoconstriction
D. haemolysis
Answer is C: Almost immediately (within 2 secs) after a blood vessel is cut the
vessel walls contract in a spasm to slow the flow of blood (vessel diameter
decreases).
131. 2. Which hormones are soluble in blood?
A. Steroid hormones
B. Hormones produced by the adrenal cortex
C. The sex hormones
D. Those released by the pituitary gland
Answer is D: The pituitary gland releases peptide hormones which are soluble
in blood. The other choices refer to steroid hormones which are insoluble in
blood. They require transport via plasma proteins.
132. 7. Which gland or organ releases erythropoietin?
A. The kidneys
B. The adrenal glands
C. The anterior pituitary
D. The pancreas
Answer is A: Kidneys produce erythropoietin (EPO) – which signals red bone
marrow to increase production of rbc.
133. 10. What is the difference between an exocrine gland and an endocrine gland?
A. An endocrine gland secretes neurotransmitters (an exocrine gland does
not).
B. An endocrine gland secretes via a tube to the destination (an exocrine gland
does not).
C. An exocrine gland secretes into the blood (an endocrine gland does not).
D. An endocrine gland secretes into the blood (an exocrine gland does not).
Answer is D: Endocrine glands secrete “circulating” hormones, that is secrete
into the blood.
134. 22. Iodine is an essential component of which hormone?
A. thyroid hormones
B. aldosterone
C. thyroid stimulating hormones
D. parathyroid hormone
Answer is A: Thyroid hormones T3 and T4 contain 3 & 4 iodine atoms
respectively.
135. 27. Which statement applies to steroid hormones?
A. They are transported dissolved in blood
B. They bind to receptor proteins on the outside of the plasma membrane
C. They cross the plasma membrane by using a protein carrier mechanism.
D. They bind to receptors in the cell cytoplasm or nucleus
Answer is D: As steroid hormones are lipid soluble, their receptors are inside
the cell as they can cross the plasma membrane.
136. 32. What is the effect of ADH (antidiuretic hormone)?
A. allows walls of collecting duct to become permeable to water
B. inhibits the reabsorption of Na +
C. causes an increase in the volume of urine produced
D. it promotes diuresis
Answer is A: ADH causes more aquaporins to be inserted into the collecting
duct walls which allow water molecules to pass through along the osmotic
gradient.
137. 5. What is a “trochanter”?
A. part of a femur
B. a feature of the pelvis
C. a projection that forms part of an articulation
D. a groove in which lies a tendon
Answer is A: the “greater” trochanter is a bone marking (a bump) that lies on
the lateral surface of the proximal femur, while the “lesser” trochanter lies on
the medial surface of the proximal femur.
138. 9. Which of the following is NOT a “long” bone?
 A. the humerus
B. the tibia
C. a carpal
D. a metacarpal
Answer is C: A “long bone” has a length that is signifi cantly longer than its
width. A carpal (a bone of the wrist) is a short bone.
139. 20. A synovial joint is also known as one of the following, which one?
A. synarthrosis
B. immovable joint
C. slightly moveable joint
D. freely moveable joint
Answer is D: Synovial fl uid is the lubricant that allows friction free joint movement.
A synarthrosis is an immovable joint.

140. 21. What is contained within the medullary canal of a long bone?
A. trabeculae
B. lamellae
C. marrow
D. osteoblasts and osteoclasts
Answer is C: Red (and/or yellow) marrow fi lls the medullary canal (or cavity).
141. 19. Tract which is small or absent in humans:
A Rubrospinal
B Tectospinal
C Vestibulospinal
D Olivospinal
E Anterior corticospinal
A
142. 20. A midline nucleus in the medulla oblongata:
A Hypoglossal nucleus
B Nucleus ambiguus
C Dorsal vagal nucleus
D Nucleus raphe magnus
E Central reticular nucleus
D
143. 6. The thyroid gland is enveloped in:
A Investing fascia of the neck
B Prevertebral fascia
C Pretracheal fascia
D Superficial fascia
E None of the above
C
144. 17. The main sensory nerve to the upper lip is the:
A Facial
B Infraorbital
C Buccal of mandibular
D External nasal
E Anterior superior alveolar
B
145. 37. The inferior nasal concha belongs to the:
A Ethmoid
B Sphenoid
C Vomer
D Maxilla
E None of the above
E
146. 6The aortic arch lies behind:
A Manubrium sterni
B Sternal angle
C Body of sternum
 D Second right costal cartilage
E Second left costal cartilage
.a
147. 7The most superficial structure in the superior mediastinum:
A Thymus
B Arch of aorta
C Left brachiocephalic vein
D Brachiocephalic trunk
E Vagus nerve
a
148. 15. Anterior to oesophagus:
A Left atrium
B Left bronchus
C Trachea
D Lymph nodes
E All of the above
e
149. 16. At the level of the sternal angle:
A Bifurcation of the pulmonary artery
B Upper border of left atrium
C Bifurcation of the trachea
D Aortic valve
E Formation of superior vena cava
C
150. each statement is True or False:
At the lung root:
46. The left bronchus enters the lung before dividing
47. The hilar (bronchopulmonary) lymph nodes drain the
entire lung
48. The bronchial arteries end in this region
49. One pulmonary vein emerges from each lung
50. The phrenic nerves descend posteriorly
46. T
47. T
48. F
49. F
50. F
151.

D
152.

D
153.

B
154.

B
155.

68 c
156.

157.

B
158.

B
159.

C
160.

B
161.

A
162.

B
163.

A
164.

C
165.

a
166.

c
167.

168.

169.

C
170.

C
171.

172.

173.

d
174.

D
175.

D
176. 307. In avoidance-avoidance conflict, the individual is compelled to

choose between:

(a) One positive and one negative alternative

(b) Two negative alternatives

 (c) Two positive alternatives

(d) Two negative alternatives and two positive alternatives

(e) None of the above

B
177. 308. A releaser is a highly specific stimulus that “triggers” or initiates:

(a) Response

(b) Social Behaviour

(c) Gregariousness

(d) Species-specific behaviour

(e) None of the above

D
178. 440. Moving away from the reality is called the mechanism of:

(a) Withdrawal

(b) Denial

(c) Daydream

(d) Introjection

B
179. 435. Urethral eroticism is mainly:

(a) Autoerotic

(b) Conscious

(c) Unconscious
 (d) Egocentric

A
180. 431. The main erotogenic zone of our body is:

(a) Mouth

(b) Genitals

(c) Anal Zones

(d) Lips

B
181. 213. The process by which impressions, opinions or feelings about

other persons are formed is known as:

(a) Person Perception

(b) Social Perception

(c) Phi-phenomenon

(d) Perceptual constancy

(e) Hallucination

A
182. 215. The findings of Mc Ginnies were interpreted as an anxiety-

avoidance reaction in the form of:

(a) Perceptual Defense Mechanism

(b) Perceptual Constancy

(c) Hallucination

(d) Delusion
 (e) None of the above

A
183. 218. Cognitive theories of perception have their roots in:

(a) Behaviourism

(b) Structuralism

(c) Gestalt Psychology

(ad) Functionalism

(e) Psychoanalysis

C
184. 219. Cognitive and affective processes are inter-wined in:

(a) Social interaction

(b) Attitudes

(c) War Psychosis

(d) Socialization

(e) None of the above

A
185. 221. The relative accessibility of a given category to a given kind of

stimulus input is called:

(a) Sensory input

(b) Sensory output

(c) Sensory Readiness

(d) Perceptual Readiness

 (e) None of the above

D
186. 222. Perceptual response to a stimulus is essentially:

(a) Objective

(b) Required

(c) Subjective

(d) Not Required

(e) None of the above

C
187. 268. “Reversibility” means the ability of the child to maintain

equivalence in spite of change in the:

(a) Perceptual field

(b) Intellectual field

(c) Emotional field

(d) Imaginative field

(e) None of the above

A
188. 5. Aversion is one of the conditioning procedures used in:

(a) Non-directive therapy

(b) Psychoanalytic therapy

(c) Behaviour therapy

(d) Chemotherapy
 (e) None of the above

C
189. 6. A very useful principle of learning is that a new response is

strengthened by:

(a) Punishment

(b) Reinforcement

(c) Biofeedback

(d) Discriminative Stimulus

(e) None of the above

B
190. 100. To distinguish the calls of birds:

(a) Sign learning is necessary

(b) Perceptual learning is needed

(c) Operant conditioning would be conducive

(d) Insight is needed

(e) CR will be helpful

B
191. 12.

A 21 year old female patient presents with neck pain and stiffness that has gradually
worsened over the last two weeks. Upon examination, the patient is noted to have
left-sided pain with left side bending with left rotation and reports pain at the left C5-
6 junction. Hypomobility is also noted with right side-gliding of C6. Which of the
following techniques will be most appropriate to decrease pain?

1. Closing technique for the mid-thoracic spine.

2. Closing manipulation in extension for C5-C6
3. Gapping manipulation in flexion for C5-C6.
 4. Flexion/opening manipulation for mid-thoracic spine

The answer is:

1. The cervical spine “closes” with side-bending and ipsilateral rotation (i.e.
“closed” with left SB and left rot.). Manipulating the thoracic spine for neck
pain is a common treatment strategy, however the specific issues noted in the
question require more than just a nonspecific t-spine manip.
2. This is the correct answer. The hypomobility is noted at C6 with right side-
gliding and pain with left SB and rotation.
3. This would be the treatment if the pain were on the right with the left SB and
rotation. (Difficulty “opening” the right C5-6 facet joint.
4. Refer to #1. Not the MOST appropriate manipulation, however this could be
used as an adjunct to #2.

192. 40.

A patient who has suffered a cutting injury to the entire left half of the spinal cord at
the T8 level is being examined by a physical therapist. Which of the following
impairments would be MOST apparent on the ipsilateral lower extremity?

1. Loss of pain and temperature sensation

2. Loss of movement and light touch sensation
3. Loss of peripheral smooth muscle control
4. Loss of coordination and accuracy.

The correct answer is:

1. This would be lost on the contralateral lower extremity due to the

decussation of these sensory afferent fibers.
2. This is the correct answer. These pathways decussate in the brain stem.
3. This is not correct at all since arterial smooth muscle relies wholly on
adrenergic receptors.
4. This would be caused by an injury at the cerebellar level.

193. 39.

A patient has just undergone a total hip replacement via a posterior surgical
approach. Which of the following combinations of movements of the hip are MOST
important to avoid?

1. Extension, medial rotation, and abduction.

2. Extension, external rotation, and adduction.
3. Flexion, medial rotation, and adduction.
4. Flexion, external rotation, and abduction
 The correct answer is:

The most correct answer is 3-flexion, medial rotation, and adduction. These are
the standard precautions to avoid dislocation with a THA that used a posterior
surgical approach.

194. A physical therapist examines a patient and determines that the patient has a positive
Active Compression test (O’Brien’s Test). Which of the following pathologies is
MOST implicated?

1. Rotator cuff tear

2. Biceps tendonitis
3. Superior labral tear
4. Acromioclavicular joint sprain

The correct answer is:

1. RTC tears are indicated by tests such as the drop arm test, external rotation
lag sign, belly press test.
2. This is indicated by tests such as Yergason’s Test.
3. This is the correct answer. The O’Brien’s test is indicative of SLAP
tears.
4. AC joint sprains are indicated by tests similar to the Cross-over test.

195. 31.

A patient is recovering from a broken tibia and has just been instructed to
discontinue use of a walking boot. The patient demonstrates excessive pronation and
complains of pain and instability in the ankle while ambulating. Which of the
following is the MOST appropriate treatment?

1. Begin a single leg standing program and advance to eccentric calf

strengthening as tolerated.
2. Begin with open-chain exercises and progress to closed-chain strengthening
of the ankle as tolerated.
3. Begin with closed-chain exercises and progress to open-chain strengthening
of the ankle as tolerated.
4. Begin a strengthening program involving primarily ankle evertors,
progressing as tolerated.

The correct answer is:

1. This is a good answer, but not the MOST correct.

2. This is the correct answer. Progressive strengthening of the ankle will
be the MOST appropriate treatment.
 3. This answer is backwards and not the most appropriate.
4. This may be a part of the program, but is not the most appropriate treatment
for ankle weakness after discontinuing a walking program.

196. 27.

A physical therapist is evaluating a patient with ulceration on the lower extremity.

The leg is apparently swollen and red upon examination. Which of the following
grouping of symptoms is MOST consistent with this type of ulceration?

1. Ulceration is on the lateral leg, pulseless, cool, and painful.

2. Ulceration is medial leg, shows permanent blanching, and is painless.
3. Ulceration is upon bony prominences, shows non-blanchable redness at the
perimeter of the wound, and has a pink appearance.
4. Ulceration is upon the bony prominence, began as a small scrape or blister
several months ago, with a concomitant diagnosis of diabetic neuropathy.

The correct answer is:

1. These are the most common symptoms of arterial insufficiency ulcers.

2. This is the correct answer. Venous insufficiency ulcers are typically less
painful than arterial ulcers.
3. These are symptoms common to pressure ulcers.
4. These are symptoms consistent with diabetic ulceration.

197. 25.

A patient with cystic fibrosis is receiving postural drainage and percussion for the
right lung’s middle lobe. What is the MOST appropriate patient position?

1. Supine on a wedge with the left shoulder elevated on pillows with the head
lower than the pelvis.
2. Supine on a wedge with the right shoulder elevated on pillows with the head
lower than the pelvis.
3. Prone with the right shoulder elevated on pillows and the head on the same
plane as the pelvis.
4. Prone with the left shoulder elevated on pillows and the head on the same
plane as the pelvis.

The correct answer is:

1. This is the drainage position for the left lingular lobe.

2. This is the correct position and is most appropriate for the right middle
lobe.
3. This is the drainage position for the right posterior lower lobe.
 4. This is the drainage position for the left posterior lower lobe.

198. 20.

While treating a patient for cardiac rehab, a physical therapist relies on the Borg RPE
scale. The Borg rating of perceived exertion scale (RPE) is MOST representative of
which type of data scale?

1. Nominal
2. Ordinal
3. Cardinal
4. Marginal

The correct answer is:

1. Nominal scales are used to indicate categories that are not higher or lower
(example: race, gender, etc.)
2. Ordinal scales are used to represent data that is comparatively higher or
lower that other data. This is the most correct answer.
3. Cardinal scales are used when there is an absolute zero and are quantitative.
Age and weight are good examples of these.
4. Not related.

199. A patient is in the inpatient rehabilitation unit for a total knee replacement. While
reviewing the case, you note that the patient has been diagnosed with an infection of
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) and is in an isolation room.
What is the MOST appropriate action to take to prevent contamination?

1. Don gown, mask, gloves, and respirator before entering the room, wash
hands after.
2. Limit therapy sessions to less than 15 minutes and limit contact during
treatment.
3. Don gloves when in contact with the patient and wash hands after.
4. Wash hands before and after contact with the patient, but do not touch the
patient.

The correct answer is:

1. This is the most conservative of precautions that is used for droplet

precautions, especially the mask. MRSA requires contact precautions.
2. This is not appropriate.
3. Handwashing and gloves are the MOST appropriate. If you anticipate
extensive contact, donning a gown would also be appropriate for
Contact Precautions.
 4. This is not appropriate.

200. 11.

A 35 year old patient with a complete T5 spinal cord injury is working on supine to
sit transfers on the mat table when he suddenly appears flushed and complains of his
heart pounding. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 180/100 and he has a
pounding headache. The most appropriate INITIAL course of action is:

1. Lay the patient supine and notify the patient’s physician.

2. Sit the patient up and notify the patient’s physician.
3. Allow the patient to rest longer between sets of activity.
4. Initiate core strengthening exercises to maintain intraabdominal pressure.

The correct answer is:

1. This is not correct because putting the patient in supine will exacerbate the
autonomic dysreflexia.
2. This is the correct answer. By sitting the patient up, you decrease the blood
pressure in the head and mitigate the effects of the dysreflexia.
3. This is incorrect considering that autonomic dysreflexia is a life-threatening
condition
4. Also incorrect.