GPAT – Pharmacy Practice

1. The place where prescription orders are compounded and dispensed to patients
other than a hospital is called
A. Clinical Pharmacy
B. Hospital Pharmacy
C. Community Pharmacy
D. None of these
2. Partnership with a pharmacist is ideal for _______who wants to start a retail drug
store
A. Non Pharmacist
B. Pharmacist
C. Both A & B
D. None of these
3. As per D&C Act, the premises for the retail sale of drugs without a registered
pharmacist is known as
A. Chemists and Druggists
B. Drug store
C. Pharmacy
D. None of the above
4. Matriculation with 4 years of experience in sale of drugs is eligible to start
A. Retail drug store
B. Whole sale drug store
C. Both A & B
D. Neither A nor B
5. Patient education may be done by
A. Oral
B. Written
C. Audio – visual
D. All of the above
6. Warfarin when prescribed along with Phenobarbitone, the former should be
A. Decreased in dose
B. Increased in dose
C. Substituted with Diazepam
D. Either B or C
7. The number of refills that can be allowed for Narcotic and Psychotropic
substances is
A. Two
B. Three
C. One
D. Zero
8. The minimum educational qualification required to own or to work in a retail
outlet is
A. B. Pharm
B. Matriculation
C. D. Pharm
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 D. None of these
9. The minimum area required to start new retail drug store is
A. 10 sq. m
B. 15 sq. m
C. 20 sq. m
D. 30 sq. m
10. The original or renewal license is valid up to _____________of the year in which
it is granted or renewed
A. 31st December
B. 31st March
C. 31st July
D. None of these
11. License for a drug store is issued for _______ years on the basis of ownership or
rent receipt
A. 5
B. 3
C. 10
D. Life
12. The drug trader who is purchasing in small quantities of wide variety of goods
and sells them to the customer is known as
A. Wholesaler
B. Super stockiest
C. Retailer
D. None of the above
13. The community pharmacist can play all the roles given below EXCEPT
A. Patient counseling
B. Drug information service
C. Maintaining Patient Medication Records
D. Therapeutic drug monitoring
14. A medical compounds whose formula and often mode of manufacture is under a
trademark or patented by an individual or corporation is known as
A. Proprietary medicine
B. Generic medicine
C. OTC medicine
D. None of the above
15. Vitamins, vaccines, sera, enzymatic preparations are to be stored at the
temperature range of
A. 2 0 – 8 0 C
B. 20 0 – 25 0 C
C. 0 0 – 10 0 C
D. None of these
16. License for drug stores are given by
A. State Pharmacy Council
B. Pharmacy Council of India
C. State Drugs Control Department
D. Central Drugs Control Department
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 17. To a victim who is unconscious due to shock the following first aids can be given
EXCEPT
A. Loosing tight cloths
B. Raising the legs
C. Giving hot tea or coffee
D. Arresting the bleeding
18. To a victim who consumed poison orally the appropriate first aid would be
A. Giving large quantity of water
B. Giving a table spoonful of mustard
C. White portion of several raw eggs
D. All of the above
19. Two parts of activated charcoal, one part of tannic acid and one part of
magnesium oxide is
A. Universal antidote for oral poisoning
B. Universal antidote for snake bite
C. Both A & B
D. Neither A nor B
20. If angina pectoris (pain in the chest) is suspected for a victim, the first aid is
A. Nitroglycerin tablet swallowed
B. Hospitalization
C. Nitroglycerin tablet kept under the tongue
D. None of the above
21. The signs and symptoms of angina pectoris include
A. Pain in the chest or upper abdomen
B. Excessive sweating
C. Shallow breath & Vomiting
D. All of these
22. Soon after receiving the prescription a pharmacist should check for
A. Completeness
B. Compatibility of drugs prescribed
C. Known allergies of the drugs to patient
D. All of the above
23. Patient counseling may include the following aspects
A. Name & description of drug
B. Intended use & expected action
C. Special directions & precautions
D. All of the above
24. Techniques for self monitoring drug therapy include
A. Proper storage of drug
B. Prescription refill information
C. Action required during missed dose
D. All of the above

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 25. Patient package insert is mostly supplied by the
A. Physician
B. Pharmacist
C. Manufacturer
D. Patient
26. The permanent method of sterilization in men is known as
A. Vasectomy
B. Tubectomy
C. Both A & B
D. None of these
27. The common barrier method of family planning is using
A. Condom
B. Diaphragm
C. Both A & B
D. None of these
28. Which of the following is not a communicable disease?
A. Malaria
B. Tuberculosis
C. Typhoid
D. Diabetes
29. Hepatitis B vaccination is given for
A. Typhoid
B. Jaundice
C. Tuberculosis
D. AIDS
30. General treatment of burns include
A. Tetanus prophylaxis
B. Antibiotics
C. Analgesics
D. All of the above
31. Burns due to acids should be
A. Washed with water
B. Washed with milk
C. Washed with 5 % sodium bi carbonate
D. All of the above in sequence
32. In case of snack bite, the proper first aid is
A. Applying a loose tourniquet
B. Immobilizing the injured part
C. Artificial respiration
D. All of these
33. Which one of the following is not the qualification to get registered in ‘Pharmacy
Register?
A. M. Pharm
B. B. Pharm
C. D. Pharm
D. Pharm D
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 34. Insufficient oxygen supply to the cardiac muscle will cause
A. Angina pectoris
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Both A & B
D. None of these
35. When neck and spine are fractured the victim
A. Should not rotate his head
B. Should not move alone
C. Both A & B
D. None of these
36. When the victim is unconscious
A. Nothing should be given orally
B. Tight clothing’s should be loosen
C. Legs should be raised and rubbed
D. All of the above
37. Strokes Adams syndrome include the features of
A. Heart block
B. Decreased pulse rate
C. Loss of consciousness
D. All of the above

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 38. DOTS treatment is meant for

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 A. Tuberculosis
B. Hepatitis
C. HIV
D. Malaria
39. Sale of drugs in India is regulated by
A. Pharmacy act
B. Medical act
C. Drugs and cosmetics act
D. None of these
40. The ideal form of organisation for both retail and wholesale drug business at entry
level is
A. Partnership
B. Sole proprietorship
C. Joint stock company
D. Corporation
41. The persons who do not involve in active marketing but facilitates distribution of
goods from manufacturer to retailer are known as
A. Stockists
B. Super stockists
C. Clearing and forwarding agents
D. None of these
42. Supply and sale of ________drugs should be recorded in a bound & serially
numbered register
A. Schedule G
B. Schedule H
C. Schedule X
D. Schedule C
43. One – to – one, interactive session between pharmacist and the patient, designed to
modify the patient’s knowledge and behaviour is known as
A. Patient education
B. Patient counselling
C. Patient monitoring
D. None of these
44. The drugs which are not given in the schedules of Drugs and Cosmetics Act are
A. Proprietory Drugs
B. Non – Proprietory Drugs
C. Over the Counter Drugs
D. None of these
45. For which of the following no need of getting the licence
A. Selling allopathic drugs
B. Selling homeopathic drugs
C. Selling Ayurvedic drugs
D. None of these
46. ‘Schedule N’ of drugs and cosmetics act describes
A. Biological products
B. Narcotic products
C. Non Biological products
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 D. List of equipments for a retail drug store
47. Haematinics are used in the deficiency of

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 A. Iron
B. Zinc
C. Copper
D. Manganese
48. Form – 19 of Drugs and Cosmetics Act & Rules 1945 can be used for
A. Getting license for a retail / whole sale drug store
B. Renewing license for retail / whole sale drug store
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
49. The name of manufacturer, batch number & expiry date should be mentioned in
the records of sale of drugs for
A. Schedule ‘H’
B. Schedule ‘C’
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
50. Pharmacies in which all types of drugs EXCEPT which have to be compounded against
the prescription are known as
A. Chemists and Druggists
B. Drug store
C. Pharmacy
D. None of the above
51. A Medication error is because of which of the following
A. Prescribing
B. Miscommunication
C. Patient compliance
D. All of the above
52. The factors which contribute to medication errors are
A. System related
B. Non Patient related
C. Exepient related
D. All of the above
53. The MedWatch program is the Adverse event and Mediaction Error reporting system for
which country
A. Australia
B. United Kingdom
C. United States of America
D. Canada
54. Which of the following are primary drug information resources
A. AHFS Drug Information
B. Australian Prescriber
C. Drugdex
D. Medline
55. The Boolean Operators are used in
A. Drug information databases to combine search items
B. Venn diagrams
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 C. Identifying Adverse drug information
D. None of the above
56. The Secondary resources for drug information are used to retrieve
A. information on new drugs
B. Information on previously published work
C. Information on Clinical experience
D. None of the above
57. Which of the following are online computerized services providing drug information
A. Bernd Sebastian Kamps
B. Emory University
C. The Cochrane Collaboration
D. All of the above

58. The Virtual Libraries are

A. Sites which have not met high quality standards
B. The one which are used to retrieve general information about drugs
C. The one which are mainly used for a known document or information
D. All of the above
59. Which of the following are Predisposing factors for Adverse drug reactions
A. Polypharmacy
B. Drug Characteristics
C. Gender
D. All of the above
60. The monitoring parameters during Methotrexate therapy include
A. AST, ALT and Alkaline phosphatase levels
B. Uric acid levels
C. CBC
D. All of the above
61. The plasma concentration of ciprofloxacin is increased due to the administration of which
of the following drugs
A. Theophylline
B. Probenecid
C. Antacids
D. Sucralfate
62. A Drug-Drug interaction can be because of
A. Protein binding and displacement
B. Genetic Polymorphism
C. Bowel Flora effects
D. All of the above
63. The study of Pharmacoeconomics includes
A. Study of costs
B. Study of Consequences
C. The behavior of firms and markets relevant to the use of Pharmaceutical Products
D. All of the above
64. Which cost analysis is used to compare the brand name to a generic product if no
difference in bioavailability exists
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 A. Cost utility analysis
B. Cost benefit analysis
C. Cost minimization analysis
D. None of the above
65. The Method of Pharmacoeconomic analysis used to determine whether treatment is
worth the cost
A. Cost effective analysis
B. Cost utility analysis
C. Cost benefit analysis
D. All of the above

66. Cost effective analysis addresses

A. Cost only
B. Consequences
C. Cost and outcome
D. All of the above
67. The strategies used for applying pharmacoeconomics to assess the value of
pharmaceutical products and services are
A. Building economic models
B. Conducting pharmacoeconomic search
C. Using the result of published pharmacoeconomic studies
D. All of the above
68. Pharmacoeconomic studies find value in
A. Introduction of new schemes and programs in hospital and clinical pharmacy
B. Including the drug in medical reimbursement schemes
C. Creating data for promotional materials of medicines
D. All the Above
69. The aim of Pharmacoepidemiological studies are
A. To identify new adverse drug reactions and new indications for drugs
B. To identify and describe factors associated with the drug’s risk/benefit
C. To quantify outcomes
D. All of the above
70. Which of the following is a ‘Narrow Therapeutic Index Drug’?
A. Paracetamol
B. Phenytoin
C. Digoxin
D. Both B and C
71. The term used to describe a person confined to a hospital bed is
A. Outpatient
B. Ambulatory Patient
C. Peripatetic Patient
D. Inpatient
72. Pharmaceutical services in a hospital pharmacy include all the following EXCEPT
A. Dispensing of drugs
B. Management of drug store
C. Establishment and maintenance of DIC
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 D. Administration of medicines to inpatients
73. A Hospital Formulary is a
A. List of approved drugs
B. Set of formulae for extemporaneous compounding
C. Set of formulae for preparing of common parenteral admixture
D. Description of contents and pharmacological characteristics of manufactured
drugs

74. The salaries and wages of pharmacist, assistant, clerks and others employed in the
hospital pharmacy department comes under
A. Revenue account
B. Expense accounts
C. Capital equipment requests
D. None of the above
75. All of the following are different drug distribution systems in hospital EXCEPT
A. Complete floor stock system
B. Non floor stock system
C. Individual Shelf system
D. Unit dose system
76. Generic Equivalent Permitted imprinted in the prescription form can checked “yes” or
“no” by
A. Pharmacist
B. Physician
C. Nurse
D. None of the above
77. The Purpose of the Pharmacy and Therapeutic committee
A. Advisory
B. Educational
C. Both : Advisory and Educational
D. None of the Above
78. Prime responsibility of Pharmacy and therapeutic committee rests on the hands of
A. Pharmacist in Chief
B. Dean
C. Physician of the particular ward
D. Head Nurse
79. -------------------consists of a listing of therapeutics agents by their generic names
followed by information on strength, form, posology, toxicology, use, and recommended
quantity to be dispensed.
A. Drug list
B. Hospital Formulary
C. Newsletter
D. None of the above
80. The minimum members required to constitute Pharmacy and therapeutic committee is
A. 3 physicians and 1 Pharmacist
B. 4 Physicians and 3 Pharmacists
C. 3 Pharmacists
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 D. 3 Physicians
81. TPN Stands for
A. Total pediatric nutrition
B. Total parenteral nutrition
C. Total protein nutrition
D. None of the above

82. Inventory management refers to

A. Material Management
B. Expiry Control
C. Finance Management
D. Human Resource Management
83. ---------------– is the inventory level that must be reached before additional stock can be
ordered
A. Reorder quantity level
B. Vendor lead time
C. Economic order Quantity
D. Zero stock level
84. The determination of how much quantity of inventory to be ordered is given by
A. Reorder quantity level
B. Vendor lead time
C. Economic order Quantity
D. Zero stock level
85. The formula for calculating Economic order quantity is
A. EOQ = √2x 12x monthly usage x cost of ordering
Unit cost x holding cost
B. EOQ = (2x 12x monthly usage x cost of ordering)2
Unit cost x holding cost
C. EOQ = √12 x monthly usage x cost of ordering
Unit cost x holding cost
D. EOQ = (12 x monthly usage x cost of ordering)2
Unit cost x holding cost
86. Reorder Quantity level is given by
A. ROQ = Average usage rate per month in units of issue x Vendor + Safety factor
13 weeks Lead Time
B. ROQ = Average usage rate per month in units of issue x Safety factor + Vendor Lead
13 weeks time
C. ROQ = Average usage rate per month in units of issue x Safety factor x 13
Vendor Lead time
D. ROQ = Average usage rate per month in units of issue x 13 + Safety factor
Vendor Lead time
87. The safety factor for Vendor Lead time (VLT) of 0 -2 weeks is
A. 1.0
B. 1.5
C. 2.0
D. 2.5
88. The safety factor for Vendor Lead time (VLT) of 2- 5 weeks is
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 A. 1.0
B. 1.5
C. 2.0
D. 2.5

89. The safety factor for Vendor Lead time (VLT) of 5- 8 weeks is
A. 1.0
B. 1.5
C. 2.0
D. 2.5
90. The safety factor for Vendor Lead time (VLT) of 8-11 weeks is
A. 1.0
B. 1.5
C. 2.0
D. 2.5
91. The safety factor for Vendor Lead time (VLT) of 11-15 weeks is
A. 1.0
B. 1.5
C. 2.0
D. 3.0
92. When the pharmacy technician receives a STAT order, the medication should be sent to
the nurse
A. Immediately
B. Within the next 1 to 2 hours
C. The next morning
D. At the next shift change
93. A unit dose is
A. A supply prepared for a hospital ward or unit
B. An amount and dose form appropriate for a single administration to a single
patient
C. The average recommended dose for a adult
D. None of the above
94. A mini pharmacy located on the nursing unit of the hospital is known as
A. Poly Pharmacy
B. Community Pharmacy
C. Satellite Pharmacy
D. None of the above
95. An unit dose drug distribution
A. Saves money and reduces the chance of medication errors
B. Costly and reduces the chance of medication errors
C. Saves money but do not reduce the chance of medication errors
D. Costly and do not reduce the chance of medication errors
96. An IV administration set commonly includes all the following except a
A. Peripheral catheter
B. Drip Chamber
C. Clamp controller
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 D. Drop set

97. If the weight of 100 mL of dextrose solution is 117 g , what is the specific gravity of the
dextrose solution?
A. 1.17
B. 117
C. 11.7
D. 0.117
98. An IV solution has a specific gravity of 0.9. What is the weight of 1000 mL?
A. 90 g
B. 900 g
C. 1000 g
D. 1100 g
99. Due to their hypertonicity most TPN solutions will require administration via a
A. Peripheral venous catheter
B. Central venous catheter
C. PIC line
D. Midline venous catheter
100. For a pediatric patient the flow rate of an IV administration set is commonly
A. 10 gtt/min
B. 15 gtt/min
C. 20 gtt/min
D. 60 gtt/min

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Answers:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
C A B B D D D C A A B C D A A

16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C C D A C D D D D C A C D B D

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
D D A C C D D A C B C C B C C

46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
D A C C A D A C B A B D B D D

61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
B D D C C C D D D D D D A B C

76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
B C A B A B A A C A A A B C D

91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
D A B C A D A B B D

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