GO FURTHER

AS-1 ALGEBRA AND TRIGONOMETRY

1002
1. What is the remainder when 3 – 1 is divided by 3?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 0

2. The sum of two prime numbers is 25. What is the product of these two prime numbers?
a. 44 b. 46 c. 56 d. 156

3. The tens digit of a number is 3 less than the units digit. If the number is divided by the sum of the digits, the quotient is 4 and the
remainder is 3. What is the original number?
a. 36 b. 47 c. 58 d. 69

4. A wastewater lagoon is filled with three pipes each can individually fill the lagoon in 5, 3 and 2 days respectively. If all inlet pipes are
working together with an outlet that can drain in 7 days. How long does it take to fill the lagoon?
a. 1.12 days b. 1.54 days c. 2.10 days d. 2.56 days

5. Two automobiles are approaching head-on in a perpendicular cross-road. If one automobile travelling at 15 m/s is initially 350
meters from the crossroad, what must be the distance from the crossroad of the other automobile travelling at 25 m/s in order for
collision to occur?
a. 252 m. b. 478 m. c. 583 m. d. 748 m.

6. The sum of the present ages of XOR and his father is 58 years. In ten years, his father will be twice as old as XOR will be at that time.
Find XOR’s present age:
a. Sixteen b. Eighteen c. Twenty d. Just ask XOR.
5
7. What is the sum of all the coefficients of the expansion of (3x – 7y) ?
a. 1256 b. -1526 c. -1024 d. 2250

8. In an Sulfuric acid plant, SulfrelX® is produced by diluting Oleum with pure water. How much water should be added to a 4500 Liters
tank of Oleum (95% acid) to obtain SulfrelX® (50% yellow)?
a. 3020 Li b. 4230 Li c. 3120 Li d. 4050 Li

9. Simplify: √ √ √ √ :

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6

10. A father tel his son, ‘” I was your age now when you were born”. If the father is now 38 years old, how old was his son 2 years
ago?
a. 15 b. 17 c. 19 d. 21

th
11. The numbers 28, x + 2, 112 form a geometric progression. What is the 10 term?
a. 14,336 b. 13,463 c. 16, 433 d. 16,344

12. Given f(x) = (x + 3)(x – 4) + 4. When f(x) is divided by (x – k), the remainder is k. Find k:
a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8

th
13. What is the sum of the progression 4, 9, 14, 19 … up to the 20 term?
a. 1030 b. 1035 c. 1040 d. 1045

14. The remainder when the polynomial, is divided by x – 2 is:

a. -4 b. 0 c. -3 d. 2

15. Which of the following is equivalent to ( ) ?

a. -6+i b. - 6 c. -4 + 1 d. -4

16. A man can row 77 km and back in 14 hours. If he can row 6.5 km with the stream at the same time as 4.8 km against the stream, find
the rate of the stream.
a. 2.3 kph b. 4.1 kph c. 1.7 kph d. 3.1 kph

17. Eleven men could finish the job in 15 days. Five men started the job and four men were added at the beginning of the sixth day. How
many days will it take them to finish the job?
a. 20.6 days b. 2 weeks c. 3 weeks d. 25.3 days

18. An interior angle β on a right triangle has an opposite side of length 5 and an adjacent side of length 4. What is the measure of angle
β in degrees?
a. 38.7: b. 47.8: c. 51.3: d. 72.1:

19. The angle of elevation from a point 98 ft. from the base of a tower to the top of the tower is 38:20’. Find the height of the tower:
a. 25.4 ft. b. 43.2 ft. c. 56.8 ft. d. 73.7 ft.

20. Which of the following statements is correct?

0 0 0 0
a. cos 28 = Sin 62 b. tan (x – 10 ) = Cot (100 – x)
0 0
c. cos (x + 20 ) = Sin (70 – x) d. all of the above

21. A wheel is making 200 revolutions per minute. Its angular velocity in radians per second is
a. 6.67π b. 400 π c. 200 π d. 1.67 π

22. The pressure, P, in a traveling sound wave is given by P = asin b(t - c), where a, b, and c are constants, P is the pressure in dynes per
square centimeter, and t is in seconds. Find the period of the pressure given by
P = 20 sin 100π(t - 0.2)
a. 0.02 sec b. 0.06 sec c. 0.08 sec d. 0.10 sec

23. Solve the trigonometric equation: cos x + cos(2x) = 0

a. 5π/3 b. π/4 c. 2π/3 d. π/2

24. A tanker ship starts its trip from Batangas and went 370 miles N 70:23’12” E. It then went 780 miles W 19:47’12” N. towards
Heixing, China. What is the displacement of the ship?
a. 547.1 mi b. 789.2 mi c. 890.3 mi d. 934.2 mi

25. Evaluate the expression:

a. 1 b. 0 c. 45.5 d. 10
NAME:_______________________________________________

1. 11. 21.
2. 12. 22.
3. 13. 23.
4. 14. 24.
5. 15. 25.
6. 16. 26.
7. 17. 27.
8. 18. 28.
9. 19. 29.
10. 20. 30.
GO FURTHER

AS-2 GEOMETRY , STATISTICS AND PROBABILITY

1. Supposing the segment between points between points F(4, -3) and G(x, y) is extended to four times its length at the side of G. The
new endpoint is at G’(y, 7). What is the coordinate of G?
a. (3, -1) b. (-3, 1) c. (2, -3) d. (-2, 3)
2 2
2. What is the shortest distance of the line 5x + 12y = 10 to the circle (x + 3) + (y + 4) = 4 ?
a. 2.34 b. 3.61 c. 4.34 d. 5.61

3. An arch in the form of a semi-ellipse is 52 ft wide at the base and has a height of 20 ft. How wide is the arch at a height of 12 ft
above the base?
a. 41.6 ft b. 20.8 ft c. 35.5 ft d. 17.7 ft

4. A hyperbola centered at the origin has asymptotes of equation, . What is the eccentricity of the hyperbola?
a. 1.50 b. 1.12 c. 1.97 d. 1.01

5. What is the length of the latera recta of a hyperbola with a vertex at (7, -10) and (7, 6) and a focus at (7, 8)?
a. 9/4 b. 10/3 c. 7/4 d. 11/3

6. Two vertical parabolas A and B are in a plane. The shortest distance of the latus rectum of A (length = 8)to the focus of B is 7. What
is the length of the latus rectum of B?
a. 16 b. 20 c. 18 d. 24

7. An interior angle a regular polygon measures 128.6:, if the perimeter is 56, what is the area of the polygon?
a. 232 b. 243 c. 257 d. 289

8. The perimeter of a regular n-sided polygon is 40. If the area of the polygon is 110, what is the sum of the interior angles of the
polygon?
a. 360: b. 540: c. 720: d. 1080:

9. What should be length of a side of a regular octagon so that the ratio of its area to perimeter is 5?
a. 8 b. 8.3 c. 9 d. 9.4

2
10. The length of the side of a rhombus is 5 cm. If its shorter diagonal is of length 6 cm., what is the area of the rhombus in cm ?
a. 14 b. 18 c. 25 d. 24

11. One cube has a face equivalent to the total area of another cube. The ratio of their volumes is
a. 20 b. 36. c. 36. d. 20.

12. A cone and a cylinder have the same height and the same volume. Find the ratio of the radius of the base of cone to the radius of
the cylinder.
a. 0.0866 b. 0.577 c. 1.414 d. 1.732

13. Find the area of a pentagon in sq. cm. which is circumscribing a circle having an area of 420.60 sq. cm.
a. 386.57 b. 450.54 c. 486.29 d. 356.95

14. If the edge of a cube is increased by 30%, by how much is the surface area increased?
a. 30% b. 21% c. 69% d. 33%

15. If the edge of a cube decreases by x%, its volume decreases by 48.8%. Find the value of x.
a. 10 b. 16 c. 20 d. 25
16. Find the number of ways that 6 teachers can be assigned to 4 sections of an introductory psychology course if no teacher is
assigned to more than one section.
a. 360 b. 512 c. 240 d. 732

17. According to Chemical Engineering Progress (November 1990), approximately 30% of all pipework failures in chemical plants are
caused by operator error. What is the probability that out of the next 20 pipework failures at least 10 are due to operator error?
a. 0.052 b. 0.043 c. 0.048 d. 0.072

18. How many ways can 3 Japanese, 3 Koreans, 3 Filipinos, and 3 Thais arranged in a row such that there is alternation?
a. 27,312 b. 37,822 c. 32,402 d. 31,104

19. A research scientist reports that mice will live an average of 40 months when their diets are sharply restricted and enriched with
proteolipids. Assuming that the lifetimes of such mice are normally distributed with a standard deviation of 6.3 months, find the
probability that a given mouse will live more than 32 months?
a. 0.8980 b. 0.6734 c. 0.7290 d. 0.9612

20. The weights of packages of lettuce from Cordillera regions have a normal distribution with mean 8.2 ounces and standard deviation
0.16 ounces. If every package is labeled 8 ounces, what percent of the packages weigh less than the labeled amount?
a. 10% b. 25% c. 20% d. 5%

21. Johnny is taking part in four competitions. If the probability of him winning any competition is 0.3, find the probability of him
winning at least one competition.
a. 0.76 b. 0.43 c. 0.83 d. 0.32

22. An urn contains 4 blue, 2 red and 3 black pens. If 2 pens are drawn at random from the pack, NOT replaced and then another pen is
drawn. What is the probability of drawing 2 blue pens and 1 black pen?
a. 2/13 b. 2/7 c. 1/14 d. 3/14
23. If three persons, on an average, come to ABC company for job interview, then find the probability that less than three people have
come for interview on a given day.
a. 0.423 b. 0.563 c. 0.213 d. 0.654

24. A petroleum refinery has two fire engines operating independently. The probability that a specific engine is available when needed
is 0.96. What is the probability that neither is available when needed?
a. 0.0024 b. 0.0016 c. 0.0032 d. 0.0048

25. A card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards. The probability of getting a queen of club or a king of heart is:
a. . 1/13 b. 2/13 c. 1/26 d. 1/52
NAME:_______________________________________________

1. 11. 21.
2. 12. 22.
3. 13. 23.
4. 14. 24.
5. 15. 25.
6. 16. 26.
7. 17. 27.
8. 18. 28.
9. 19. 29.
10. 20. 30.
GO FURTHER

AS-3 CALCULUS AND DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS

-x -x
1. Is y = 2e + xe a solution of y” + 2y’ + y = 0?
a. True b. False c. Cannot be determined d. Undefined

2. Which of these equations is linear?

x 2
a. y’ = 5 b. y’ = x(siny) + e c. y’ = y +x d. xy’+ y = y

3. What is the integrating factor of y’ + y = sin x?

cosx 4x x sinx
a. e b. e c. e d. e

4. A certain radioactive material is known to decay at a rate proportional to the amount present. If initially there is 50 mg of
the material present and after 2 hours it is observed that the material has lost 10% of its original mass, find the mass after
4 hours.
a. 51.25 mg b. 25 mg c. 100.3 mg d. 40.5 mg
For 6 & 7
o o
A body at a temperature of 50 F is placed outdoor where the temperature is 100 F. If after 5 minutes, the temperature of
o
the body is 60 F,
o
5. Find the time it will take the body to reach a temperature of 75 F.
a. 20.5 min b. 15.4 min c. 10.75 min d. 6 min
6. Find the temperature of the body after 20 minutes.
o o o o
a. 95.4 F b. 105 F c. 79.5 F d. 70.26 F

7. A tank initially holds 100 gal of brine solution containing 1 pound of salt. At t = 0, another brine solution containing 1
pound of salt per gallon is poured into the tank at the rate of 3 gpm while the well stirred misture leaves the tank at the
same rate. Find the time at which the mixture in the tank contains 2 pounds of salt.
a. 1.06 min b. 0.338 min c. 0.25 min d. 0.782 min

8. A function is said to be continuous at x = xo if

a. The limit is infinity c. The function at x is not defined
b. The limit exists d. It has a zero denominator

9. Gas is escaping from a spherical balloon at the rate of 2 ft3/min. How fast is the surface area shrinking (sq. ft/min) when
the radius is 12 ft?
a. ½ b. 1/3 c. 2/3 d. 4/7

10. What is the volume of the biggest cylinder that can be fittest in a cone of height of height 5 inches and diameter of 3
inches? The base of the cylinder is on the base of the cone.
a. 5pi/3 b. 4pi/3 c. 7pi/5 d. 7pi/4

11. What is the length of the longest rod that can be fitted along a hallway intersection with widths 7 meters and 10 meters?
a. 22.6 m b. 13.6 m c. 21.3 m d. 21.33 m

12. Given x = ω – sin ω and y = 1 – cos ω. Find the derivative.

a. sin ω b. cos ω c. sin ω /(1+cos ω) d. sin ω/(1- cos ω)

13. Find the limit of [ln x]/x as x approaches infinity.

a. Infinite b. 1 c. 0 d. 10

14. What is the length of the curve y = ln(secx) from x = 0 to x = pi/4 ?

a. 0.88 b. 0.45 c. 0.21 d. 1.3
 2
15. Determine the volume of the solid obtained by rotating the region bounded by y = x – 2x and y = x about the line y = 4.
a. 64 b. 96 c. 72 d. 120

16. Compute the length of the shortest guy wire that can be stretched between two poles 50 ft apart if the poles are 12 ft and
25 ft high. The stake is on the ground.
a. 78.2 ft b. 93.2 ft c. 64.3 ft d. 62.2 ft

17. A boy is flying a kite at a height of 150 ft. If the kite moves horizontally away from the boy at 20 ft/sec, how fast is the
string being paid out when the kite is 250 ft from him?
a. 19 ft/s b. 26 ft/s c. 15 ft/s d. 16 ft/s

18. At 9 A.M., ship B is 65 miles due east of another ship A. Ship B is then sailing due west at 10 mph A is sailing due south
at 15 mph. If they continue on their respective courses, when will they be nearest one another?
a. 10:35 AM b. 11:00 AM c. 11:15 AM d. 10:25 AM

2 2
19. Find a tangent line to 9x + 16y = 52 that is parallel to the line 9x - 8y = 1.
a. 9x - 8y = -26 b. 9x + 5y = -16
c. 7x + 5y = -16 d. 7x - 8y = -26

3 2
20. What is the minimum value for the function y = x - x - 3x - 7?
a. -10.4 b. -13.5 c. 2.89 d. 0.53

NAME:_______________________________________________

1. 11. 21.
2. 12. 22.
3. 13. 23.
4. 14. 24.
5. 15. 25.
6. 16. 26.
7. 17. 27.
8. 18. 28.
9. 19. 29.
10. 20. 30.
GO FURTHER

AS-4 PHYSICS

1. Determine the moment of a 500 lb force applied from (0, 20, -5) to (10,0, 5) along the y-axis:
a. 289 b. 567 c. 218 d. 321

2. The maximum velocity of vehicle along 15-m radius circular track is 50 kph(13.89 m/s). The coefficient of kinetic friction of
the tires and the road is 0.12. The minimum banking angle is nearly:
a. 32.6° b. 45.8° c. 53.7° d. 23.9°

3. A 3-member Warren truss is simply supported with rollers has vertically downward 40-kN force at the top. The load at the
bottom horizontal member is: (Assume all members have length 2 meters)
a. 10 kN b. 20 kN c. 28 kN d. 40 kN

4. A rope is wound along a steel bar with coefficient of friction of 0.208. How many windings should be made if the maximum
rope tension is 100 N and the load is 5000 N?
a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. 3

5. Suppose that copper cable is supported at two points 400 ft apart and at the same elevation. If the sag is 40 ft and the
weight per unit length of the cable is 4 lb/ft, determine the length of the cable:
a. 410 ft b. 328 ft c. 403 ft d. 442 ft

6. A motorist driving a 1000-kg car wishes to increase her speed from 20 m/s to 30 m/s in 5 s. Determine the horsepower
required to accomplish this increase. Neglect friction.
a. 20 hp b. 67 hp c. 93 hp d. 33 hp

7. A steady horizontal force F of magnitude 21 N is applied at the axle of a solid disk. The disk has mass 2.0 kg and
diameter 0.10 m. What is the linear speed of the center of the disk after it has moved 12 m?
a. 9.0 m/s b. 16 m/s c. 44 m/s d. 13 m/s

8. A 2.0-kg object is attached to a spring (k = 55.6 N/m) that hangs vertically from the ceiling. The object is displaced 0.045
m vertically. When the object is released, the system undergoes simple harmonic motion. What is the magnitude of the
maximum acceleration of the object?
a. 1.3 m/s2 b. 4.4 m/s2 c. 11 m/s2 d. 2.3 m/s2

9. Two motorcycles are traveling in opposite directions at the same speed when one of the cyclists blasts her horn, which
has frequency of 544 Hz. The other cyclist hears the frequency as 563 Hz. If the speed of sound in air is 344 m/s, what is
the speed of the motorcycles?
a. 5.90 m/s b. 8.19 m/s c. 11.6 m/s d. 7.24 m/s

10. A solid steel shaft 5 m long is stressed at 80 MPa when twisted through 4°. Using G = 83 GPa., what power can be
transmitted by the shaft at 20 Hz?
a. 2.14 MW b. 3.78 MW c. 5.19 MW d. 7.22 MW

11. Determine the shortest length of pipe, open at both ends, which will resonate at 256 Hz.
a. 0.330 m b. 0.990 m c. 1.67 m d. 0.670 m

12. A 10-m long simply supported beam has distributed load of 20 kN/m from one end to the middle of the beam. Determine
the maximum moment (in kN-m) of the beam:
a. 141 b. 187 c. 100 d. 120
2
13. A steel rod with a cross-sectional area of 0.25 in is stretched between two fixed points. The tensile load at 70°F is 1200
-6 6
lb. What will be the stress at 0°F? Assume α = 6.5 × 10 in/(in·°F) and E = 29 × 10 psi.
a. 12 ksi b. 8 ksi c. 15 ksi d. 18 ksi

14. A steel wire 30 ft long, hanging vertically, supports a load of 500 lb. Neglecting the weight of the wire, determine the
required diameter if the stress is not to exceed 20 ksi and the total elongation is not to exceed 0.20 in. Assume E = 29 ×
6
10 psi.
a. 0.1988” b. 0.2422” c. 0.1184” d. none of these
 15. A proton traveling due east in a region that contains only a magnetic field experiences a vertically upward force away from
the surface of the earth. What is the direction of the magnetic field?
a. north b. south c. down d. east

16. A 7.70-μF capacitor and a 1250-Ω resistor are connected in series to a generator operating at 50.0 Hz and producing an
rms voltage of 208 V. What is the average power dissipated in this circuit?
a. 346 W b. 19.7 W c. zero watts d. 31.2 W

17. A convex mirror has a radius of curvature of 0.50 m. Where must an object be placed in front of the mirror such that the
image is formed 0.15 m behind the mirror?
a. 0.38 m b. 0.77 m c. 0.57 m d. 0.19 m

18. A ray of light propagates in water (n = 1.333) and strikes a sheet of crown glass (n = 1.523). If the angle of refraction in
the glass is 35.2°, determine the angle of incidence.
a. 30.3° b. 35.2° c. 45.0° d. 41.2°

19. A 2.00-cm tall object is placed 40.0 cm from a lens. The resulting image is 8.00-cm tall and upright relative to the object.
Determine the focal length of the lens.
a. 26.6 cm b. 53.3 cm c. 80.0 cm d. 32.0 cm

20. A helical spring is fabricated by wrapping wire 3/4 in. in diameter around a forming cylinder 8 in. in diameter. Compute the
number of turns required to permit an elongation of 4 in. without exceeding a shearing stress of 18 ksi. Assume light
spring and G = 12 × 106 psi.
a. 25 b. 20 c. 5 d. 10

NAME:_______________________________________________

1. 11. 21.
2. 12. 22.
3. 13. 23.
4. 14. 24.
5. 15. 25.
6. 16. 26.
7. 17. 27.
8. 18. 28.
9. 19. 29.
10. 20. 30.
 GO FURTHER

AS-5 INORGANIC CHEMISTRY & PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY

1. A gas has van der Waal’s constants a = 1.49 L 2 atm/mol2 and b = 0.04 L/mol. Its Boyle’s temperature is nearly
a. 50 0C b. 354 0C c. 454 0C d. 180 0C

2. A typical polyethylene bag from a grocery store weighs 12.4 g. How many molecules of ethylene, C2H4, must be
polymerized to make such a bag?
a. 1.36 x 1024 b. 6.02 x 1023 c. 5.33 x 1023 d. 2.67 x 1023

3. A sample of gas occupies a volume of 9.23 L at 345 K and 1.40 atm. What is its volume at 525 K and 3.20 atm?
a. 2.65 L b. 6.14 L c. 13.9 L d. 32.1 L

4. How long must a current of 4.00 A be applied to a solution of Cu2+(aq) to produce 2.0 grams of copper metal?
a. 2.4 x 104 s b. 1.5 x 103 s c. 7.6 x 102 s d. 3.8 x 102 s

5. Which species is planar?

a. CO32– c. ClO3– d. BF4–
2–
b. SO3

6. Calculate the initial energy level when an electron in a hydrogen atom transitions into n= 2 and emits a photon at
410.1 nm.
a. 4 b. 6 c. 3 d. infinity

7. Draw one of the resonance structures of SO3. The formal charge of S is

a. +2 b. +1 c. -2 d. -1

8. Calculate enthalpy for the reaction: Na 2O(s) + SO3(g)  Na2SO4(g)

given the following information: H

Na(s) + H2O(l)  NaOH(s) + 1/2 H2(g) -146 kJ

Na2SO4(s) + H2O(l)  2NaOH(s) + SO3(g) +418 kJ
2Na2O(s) + 2H2(g)  4Na(s) + 2H2O(l) +259 kJ

a. +255 kJ b. -435 kJ c. -581 kJ d. +531 kJ e. -452 kJ

9. The work function for metallic rubidium is 2.09 eV. Calculate the kinetic energy and the speed (megameters/sec) of
the electrons ejected by UV light of 195 nm wavelength?
a. 1.23 b. 5.21 c. 19.5 d. 0.32 e. 8.33

10. Consider the following reaction: 3H2(g) + N2(g) = 2NH3(g) in which a mixture of hydrogen and nitrogen in a 3:1
mole ratio is passed over a catalyst at 400°C. Calculate the total pressure if the mole fraction of ammonia in the
−2
equilibrium mixture is to be 10%, and Kp = 0.00164 atm .
a. 9.4 atm b. 8.1 atm c. 2.34 atm d. 7.32 atm e. 78 atm

11. A solution made up of 150 grams of benzene and 25.1 grams of a solute has a freezing point of – 1.92°C. The
freezing point of pure benzene is 5.50°C and the molal freezing point constant is 5.10. Determine the approximate
molar weight of the solute.
a. 115 b. 231 c. 87 d. 142 e. none
12. Sodium crystallizes in the body-centered cubic structure with r = 1.836 Å. Calculate the theoretical density of Na
in g/mL
a. 0.5 b. 1 c. 0.44 d. 1.33 e. none

13. Calculate the approximate initial boiling point (in oC) of a solution of 285 g of magnesium chloride in 2.0 kg of
water.
a. 103.1 oC b. 101.6 oC c. 102.3 oC d. 100.8 oC e. 104.8 oC

14. 1 mole of an ideal gas is compressed isothermally at 298°K. If gas is compressed from 1 atm to 10 atm reversibly
against an external pressure of 10 atm, calculate the entropy change for this processes in J/K.
a. -19.14 b. -22.63 c. -32.24 d. -4.41 e. 13.3

15. Prior to the discovery that freon-12 (CF2Cl2) was harmful to the Earth’s ozone layer, it was frequently used as the
dispersing agent in spray cans for hair spray, etc. Its enthalpy of vaporization at its normal boiling point of −29.2°C is
20.25 kJ/mol. Estimate the pressure that a can of hair spray using freon-12 had to withstand at 40°C,
a. 3 atm b. 9 atm c. 12 atm d. 6 atm e. 17 atm

16. Two moles of a diatomic ideal gas at 45 °C are compressed adiabatically and reversibly from 75 liters to 20
liters. Calculate ΔU for the process in J.
a. 9120 b. 8012 c. 2019 d. 1910 e. 1280

17. Engr. Victor Espinosa has sintered glass filter with a uniform pore diameter of 0.20 μm is filled with water at
20°C. Estimate the pressure that would be necessary to blow the capillary water out of the pores of the filter. The
surface tension of water at 20°C is 72.75 dyne cm−1 and 100,000 dyn = 1 N
a. 14.4 atm b. 10.1 atm c. 8.71 atm d. 0.23 atm e. 100 atm

18. Determine the sum of coefficients of the following reaction:

HCl + K2Cr2O7 + SO2 ---> CrCl3 + KHSO4 + H2O

a. 15 b. 10 c. 11 d. 23 e. none

19. Determine the sum of coefficients of the following reaction:

K2Cr2O7 + NaI + H2SO4 ⟶ Cr2(SO4)3 + I2 + H2O + Na2SO4 + K2SO4

a. 29 b. 45 c. 21 d. 44 e. 78

20. A 200 mL sample of a gaseous hydrocarbon has a density of 2.53 g/L at 55 °C and 720 mmHg. What is its
formula?
a. C2H6 b. C4H10 c. C5H12 d. C6H6 e. none
 GO FURTHER

AS-6 ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY

1. The I- in a 0.6712-g sample was determined by Volhard titration. After adding 50.00 mL of 0.05619 M AgNO 3 and
allowing the precipitate to form, the remaining silver was back titrated with 0.05322 M KSCN, requiring 35.14 mL to
reach the end point. The excess thiocyanate is further back-titrated with 16.73 mL of 0.0673 M FeCl3. What is the
percentage iodine on the sample?
A. 17.76% B. 18.98 % C. 23.40% D. 39.08%

2. Approximate the pH of a solution made by mixing 5.87 grams of sodium acetate in 250 mL of water:
A. 10.3 B. 9.1 C. 10.8 D. 9.7

3. Which of the following is a buffer solution?

A. Na3HPO4-NaH2PO3 B. HCl-(NH4)2CO3 C. (NH4)HSO3-NaHSO3 D. HCOOH-HCOONH2

4. There is a substance in a solution (4 g/liter, MW = 78). The length of cuvette is 2 cm and only 50% of the certain
light beam is transmitted. What is the extinction coefficient?
A. 0.376 B. 0.0012 C. 2.96 D. 0.0067

5. A buffer contains 0.064 M in NH4Cl and 0.043 M in NH3. 100 mL of this solution is mixed with 25 mL of 0.05 M HBr.
The final pH of the solution is:
A. 9.43 B. 8.86 C. 8.32 D. 9.21

6. What is the pH of the buffer in problem no. 5?

A. 9.08 B. 8.63 C. 9.43 D. 10.32

7-8: A Q-C analyst is given an unknown weak monoprotic acid in solution. 25 mL of the acid is titrated and required
14.7 mL of 0.0943 N KOH. The pH at equivalence point is 8.96. Determine:

7. The concentration of the acid in the original solution:

A. 0.0785 N B. 0.0554 N C. 0.0097 N D. 0.1422 N

8. The initial pH of the original solution:

A. 4.65 B. 3.87 C. 3.32 D. 5.21

9. A solution containing ammonia is titrated such that 20 mL required 10.2 mL of 0.02 N H 2SO4. Determine the pH of
the original solution:
A. 10.5 B. 9.83 C. 11.32 D. none

10. An indirect complexation titration with EDTA can be used to determine the concentration of sulfate, SO 42–, in a
sample. A 0.1557-g sample is dissolved in water, any sulfate present is precipitated as BaSO 4 by adding Ba(NO3)2.
After filtering and rinsing the precipitate, it is dissolved in 25.00 mL of 0.02011 M EDTA. The excess EDTA is then
titrated with 0.01113 M Mg2+, requiring 4.23 mL to reach the end point. Calculate the %w/w Na 2SO4 in the sample.
A. 41.2% B. 35.6% C. 13.7% D. 71.2%

11. An antacid may contain K2CO3 , KHCO3 or KOH or combination of these. Supposing 12.342 g of this antacid is
dissolved in 250 mL volumetric flask and an aliquot of 25 mL is titrated with 14.6 mL of 0.0523 M HCl in the
phenolphthalein endpoint and a total of 36.3 to the bromocresol green endpoint. Determine the composition of the
antacid:

A. K2CO3 = 8.54%, KOH = 4.53% C. K2CO3 = 8.54%, KHCO3 = 3.00%

B. K2CO3 = 7.85%, KHCO3 = 3.00% D. K2CO3 only = 7.85%
12. An impure rutile(contains TiO2) is analysed such that 8.67 grams of ore is digested in aqua fortis, diluted to 100
mL and passed through a Walden reductor to the 3+ form. Some 20 mL of the solution is treated with 25 mL of
0.0434 M KMnO4 at pH of 8.9. At same pH, the excess permanganate is back-titrated with 19.6 mL of 0.0089 M
sodium oxalate. Compute the % TiO2 in the rutile:

A. 32.5% B. 8.56 % C. 13.5% D. 19.8%

13. Pitcheblende, U3O8 from Germany is analysed for purity such that a 2.86 gram of solid is digested in acid and
diluted to 100 mL flask. Some 25 mL aliquot is titrated with 14.3 mL of 0.035 M potassium dichromate. The excess
dichromate is back-titrated with 18.3 mL of 0.00983 M FeCl2 solution. Approximate the purity(% U3O8) of the sample:
A. 76.3% B. 55.4% C. 46.8% D. 98.23%

14. Which of the following is NOT a primary standard for RedOx titrations?
A. sodium oxalate B. sodium carbonate C. iron metal D. oxalic acid

15. If 14.010 gram of Cr(OH)3 is dissolved in a 1 liter water, 13.234 grams are not dissolved. Approximate the Ksp of
Cr(OH)3:
A. 5.87 x 10-9 B. 1.09 x 10-9 C. 1.08 x 10-8 D. 8.70 x 10-8

16. A 0.272 g of monoprotic acid (Mw = 189 g/mol) is dissolved in water to produce 25.0 mL of a solution with pH =
4.93. Determine the ionization constant of the acid.
A. 4.1 × 10-8 B. 1.4 × 10-10 C. 2.1 × 10-4 D. 2.8 × 10-7

17. A 516.7-mg sample containing a mixture of K2SO4 and (NH4)2SO4 was dissolved in water and treated with BaCl 2,
precipitating the SO42– as BaSO4. The resulting precipitate was isolated by filtration, rinsed free of impurities, and
dried to a constant weight, yielding 863.5 mg of BaSO4. What is the %w/w K2SO4 in the sample?
A. 59.2% B. 36.7% C. 16.7% D. 22.2%

18. The aluminum in a 759.08 mg of impure ammonium aluminum sulfate sample was precipitated as Al(OH)3 and
ignited at 1100°C to yield a precipitate of Al2O3 weighing 387.953 mg. Express the result of analysis in terms of % Al.
A. 32% B. 27% C. 13% D. 38%

19. A 0.1036-g sample containing only BaCl 2 and NaCl is dissolved in 50 mL of distilled water. Titrating with 0.07916
M AgNO3 requires 19.46 mL to reach the Fajans end point. Report the %w/w BaCl2 in the sample.
A. 78.11% B. 35.12% C. 29.86% D. 46.86%

20. The activity of aluminum in 0.002 M Al 2(SO4)3 is:

A. 0.0004 B. 0.0003 C. 0.00005 D. 0.00004
GO FURTHER

AS-7
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY & BIOCHEMISTRY

1. How many possible diastereomers are there for aldohexose? A

a. 16 b. 8 c. 32 d. 128

2. The IUPAC name for (CH3)2CHCH(CH3)CH2CH=CH2 is

a. 4,5-dimethyl-1-hexene c. 4,5,5-trimethyl-1-pentene
b. 2,3-dimethyl-5-hexene d. 4-methyl-4-isopropyl-1-butene

3. Which of the following dimethylcyclobutane is chiral ?

a. 1,2-dimethylcyclobutane c. 1,2-dimethylcyclobutane
b. 1,3-dimethylcyclobutane d. 1,3-dimethylcyclobutane

4. What is the structure of bicyclo[3.1.1]heptane?

5. Addition of HBr to 2,3-dimethyl-1,3-cyclohexadiene may occur

in the absence or presence of peroxides. In each case two isomeric
C8H13Br products are obtained. Which of the following is a common
product from both reactions?

6. Which of the following compounds would be not be considered

aromatic in its behavior?

7. Predict the final product if 3,5-diethyl-3-heptene undergoes hydroboration oxidation:

a. 3,5-diethyl-4-heptanol c. 3,5-diethyl-3-heptane
b. 3,5-diethyl-3-heptanol d. 3,5-diethylheptanoic acid

8. When 2,3-dibromobutane is treated with KOH and ethanol, the major product will be:
a. 1-butyne b. 2-butyne c. 1-butene d. 2 butene

9. The type of reaction that tert-pentyl chloride undergo will be:

a. S2N b. S1N c. E1 d. E2
10. 5.0345 grams of thalidomide is dissolved in 25 mL of water for polarimetric analysis. The observed rotation of a mixture of R and S
thalidomide in a 2.3-dm cuvet is 1.87 degrees. The specific rotations of R-thalidomide is 15.02 degrees. The concentration of S-
isomer in the mixture is:
a. 36% b. 63% c. 25% d. 75%
11. Complete the synthesis reaction shown:

 A
NaNH ,ethylbromide
1  butyne 
2
 
H2
 B  
KMnO4
 C 
a. A = 3-hexyne, B = 2-hexene, C = propanal c. A = 3-hexyne, B = 3-hexene, C =3-propanol
b. A = 3-hexyne, B = 3-hexene, C = propanoic acid d. A = 2-hexyne, B = 2-hexene, C = 3-propanol

12. A compound contains 3-rings, 2 double bonds, 4 methyl, 3 chlorine substituents, 2 nitrogen. Which of the following is the least
possible number of carbon in the compound?
a. 5 b. 12 c. 16 d. 24

13. Complete the following reaction:

Bromocyclohexane   A    

KOH ,EtOH O3
B
 a. A = hexyne, B = 1,6-hexanediol c. A = hexene, B = 1,6-hexanedioic acid
b. A = hexene, B = 1, 6-hexanediol d. A = hexyne, B = 1,6-hexanedioc acid

BIOCHEMISTRY

1. Which of the following is true regarding the alpha-carbon of an amino acid?

A) there are always four different functional groups attached
B) the most commonly occurring form of amino acids are the D-amino acids
C) when assigning the R-S stereochemistry, the carboxylic acid is always the highest priority functional group
D) for all amino acids except glycine, the α-carbon is a stereocenter

2. A yeast cell produces 7 NADH2 and 1 FADH2 in the Kreb’s cycle, consumes 3 NAD in the link reaction with coenzyme A , and a net
consumption of 6 ATP in the glycolysis per mole of glucose processed. What is the total number of ATP produced per glucose?
A) 30 B) 26 C) 28 D) 32

3. The aggregation of nonpolar molecules or groups in water (e.g., micelles) is thermodynamically due to the
A) increased entropy of the nonpolar molecules upon association. B) decreased enthalpy of the system.
C) increased entropy of the water molecules. D) strong van der Waals forces among the molecules.

4. Which of the following undergoes an oxidation reaction to form a disulfide bond?

A) serine B) cysteine C) methionine D) threonine

5. The intramolecular cyclization reaction of galactose in solution ________.

A) generates a chiral center B) yields a hemiketal C) usually forms a furanose D) All of the above

6. Examine the cyclic D-monosaccharide shown at the right. The ring structure is the ________
and the linear form of this monosaccharide must be a(n) ________.
A) α anomer; ketose B) β anomer; ketose C) α anomer; aldose D) β anomer; aldose

7. Which structure below is appropriate for glycine inside sea vent bacteria with average pH = 4.5?
A) H2NCH2COOH B) H2NCH2COO- C) +H3NCH2COO- D) +H3NCH2COOH

8. Which of the following disaccharide is a beta glycosidic linked, non-educing sugar?

A) -1-glucopyranosyl-α-5-fructofuranose C) α-1-glucopyranosyl-α-4-galactopyronaose
B) -1-galactopyranosyl-α-2-fructofuranose D) -1-glucopyranosyl--1-galactopyronaose

9. Which of the following compounds contains a phosphate ester and is most energetically labile (least chemical potential)?
A) pyrophosphate B) adenosine monophosphate C) creatine phosphate D) adenosine triphosphate

10. Aspartic acid contains three ionizable groups with pKa of 2.34, 5.78, and 8.79. What is the isoelectric point of aspartic acid?
A) 4.65 B) 3.24 C) 4.05 D) 7.86

11. Which of the following would contribute to tertiary structure?

A) charge-charge interaction between lysine and aspartic acid B) disulfide bond
C) hydrogen bond between serine hydroxyl group and amide of glutamine D) All of the above

12. What are circular extensions of DNA in bacteriophages?

A) plasmid B) sticky ends D) nicks D) gene

13. Which classification(s) is(are) applicable to maltose?

A) Nonreducing sugar. B) Reducing sugar.
C) Peptidoglycan. D) Glucoside.

14. A fatty acid designated as 20:0 is ________, while one that is designated 20:3-5,8,11 is ________.
A) simple; complex B) complex; simple C) saturated; unsaturated D) unsaturated; saturated

15. The simplest lipids but they may be a part of or a source of many complex lipids:
A) Triglycerols B) Waxes C) Terpenes D) Fatty acids

16. How many amino groups can the protein from a gene with a 5’-ATCCGCATGCCCGATTAG-3’ sequence have?
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3

17. Supposing that a terpenoid (MW = 210 g/mol) extracted from a wild flower is analyzed and found to have an Iodine number of 8333. If a
terpenoid is a lipid that contains five carbons with one double bond interlinked as conjugated poly-dienes, what is the nature of the terpenoid
extracted?
A) Triterpene B) Pentaterpene C) heptaterpene D) Decaterpene

18. Okazaki fragments are:

A) the smallest subunits of DNA polymerase III B) short stretches of DNA formed on the lagging strand
C) short RNA primers needed for initiation of polymerization D) fragments of DNA polymerase I that lack activity

19. A sea creature richer in ________ can more likely live or migrate to an area of low temperature.
A) arachidonic acid B) unsaturated fatty acids C) saturated fatty acids D) eicosanoids

20. Which of the following polysaccharides contains exclusively glucose in β(1→4) glycosidic bonds?
A) amylose B) amylopectin C) glycogen D) cellulose

21. Thyroxin, estradiol, and vitamin D are derivatives of:

A) Glycolipids B) cholesterol C) lipolipids D) Aminoglycan

22. Movement of ions across a cell membrane by the Na/K ATPase is best described as ____
A) sodium moved outside to inside, potassium inside to outside B) sodium moved inside to outside, potassium outside to inside
C) sodium moved inside to outside, potassium inside to outside D) sodium moved outside to inside, potassium outside to inside

23. Which of the following represents an apparent violation of the second law of thermodynamics?
A) the organization of free amino acids into a protein B) the tendency for dead cells to break down to smaller molecules
C) the hydrolysis of nucleic acids into nucleotides D) the conversion of the polymer cellulose into glucose

24. Gluconic acid is derived from ________ while glucuronic acid is derived from _______.
A) glucose; gulose B) gulose; glucose C) glucose; glucose D) glucose; galactose

25. Amylose differs from amylopectin in that amylose

A) has different monomers than amylopectin. B) has more glucose residues than amylopectin.
C) is highly branched and amylopectin is not. D) forms a helix and no branch points.

26. A triglyceride complex from an African plum (75% pure) is was found to have a molecular weight of 250.2 mg/mmol. What is the
saponification number of the triglyceride?
A) 453 B) 586 C) 672 D) 753
27. The pKa's of isoleucine's α-Carboxyl and α-Amino group are 2.3 and 9.8, respectively. Calculate the isoelectric point.
A) 2.3 B) 6.0 C) 9.8 D) 12.0
28. Which of the following would be considered an ω-3 fatty acid?
A) linoleic acid: (18:2cΔ9,12) B) eicosapentaenoic acid (20:5cΔ5,8,11,14,17)
C) γ-linolenic acid: (18:3cΔ6,9,12) D) arachidonic acid: (20:4cΔ5,8,11,14)
29. Insulin-generating cut-gene, Hum-A is inserted into a spliced plasmid of virus X. Virus X is an obligate bacteriophage that attacks vector to
reproduce, and generate more of the target insulin gene. The process is referred to as:
A) Gene Cloning B) Gene Targeting C) Recombinant DNA D) Regeneration

30. A protein with five disulfide bonds was treated with β-mercaptoethanol and urea. Once the protein was denatured, the β-
mercaptoethanol and urea were removed by dialysis. What is the likelihood that all five disulfide bonds will reform correctly?
A) 1/5 or 20% B) 1/10 or 10% C) 1/102 or 4% D) 1/120 or 0.83%