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Class : IX DPP : 01
General instructions :
1. The practice paper contains 40 questions.
(a) 1-10 questions from Mathematics
(b) 11-20 questions from Physics
(c) 21-30 questions from Chemistry
(d) 31-40 questions from Biology
2. Every correct answer will be awarded 1 mark. There will be no negative marking.
1! 2! 13!
1. Find the remainder from dividing the number 1 + 2 + ....... + 13 by 13.
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
2. What is the smallest possible number that leaves a remainder of 1, 2, and 3 when divided by 7, 9, and 11,
respectively?
(A) 344 (B) 444 (C) 144 (D) None of these
12 12
3. Which of the following is not a factor of (3 – 2 )?
(A) 13 (B) 19 (C) 35 (D) 63
15
4. Find the largest prime factor of 3 + 1.
(A) 171 (B) 71 (C) 270 (D) 271
5. A number s has n factors. The number 256s has 5n factors. Given is a 2 digit number find
(A) 18 (B) 81 (C) 181 (D) 8
2
6. A number N has 2009 positive factors. What is the maximum number of positive factors that N could
have?
(A) 13698 (B) 31689 (C) 13689 (D) None of these
7. If a book has 252 pages, how many digits have been used to number the pages?
(A) 648 (B) 684 (C) 468 (D) 459
8. What is the smallest natural number which is cube of a natural number and fourth power of a different
natural number?
(A) 4996 (B) 4096 (C) 4196 (D) 4069
9. 1 and 8 are the first two natural numbers for which 1 + 2 + 3 + ...... + n is a perfect square. Which number is
the 4th such number?
(A) 288 (B) 188 (C) 88 (D) 388
10. The number 12345678901234567890123…890 is four thousand digits long. First, you remove all of the
digits in odd numbered places starting at the leftmost place. Next, you remove the digits in the odd
numbered places in the remaining 2000 digits. You perform the same operation until no digits remain. What
digit is the last to be removed?
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 18 (D) 12
H.O. 92, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Kota (Raj.) Mob. 97831-97831, 70732-22177, Ph. 0744-2423333 www.nucleuseducation.in 1
PCCP
11. A particle is moving along a straight line. Its velocity time graph is as shown in the adjacent figure. Then
Match the following :
v(ms–1)
4
2
t(s)
1 2 3 45 6
(A) (i, is (p); (ii) is (q) and (iii) is (r) (B) (i) is (r); (ii) is (r) and (iii) is (p)
(C) (i) is (q) ; (ii) is (r) and (iii) is (p) (D) (i) is (q), (ii) is (p) and (iii) is (r)
–1
12. A jeep starts from rest and attains a speed of 40 km h in 10 minutes. The uniform acceleration will be:
–2 –2 –2 –2
(A) 4 km h (B) 4 km m (C) 66.7 m s (D) 1.85 cm s
14. An arrow shot vertically upwards loses its initial speed by 60% in 3 seconds. The maximum height reached
–2
by the arrow is (g = 9.8 ms ) :
(A) 122.5 m (B) 44.1 m (C) 100 m (D) 45 m
15. The displacement-time graph for two particles A and B are straight lines inclined at angles of 30 o and 60 o
with the time axis. The ratio of velocities of VA : VB is
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 3 (C) 3 :1 (D) 1 : 3
16. A car travels from A to B at a speed of 20 km / hr and returns at a speed of 30 km / hr . The average speed
of the car for the whole journey is
(A) 25 km / hr (B) 24 km / hr (C) 50 km / hr (D) 5 km / hr
17. Raindrops are falling vertically with a velocity of 10 m/s. To a cyclist moving on a straight road the raindrops
appear to be coming with a velocity of 20 m/s. The velocity of cyclist is
(A) 10 m/s (B) 10 3 m/s (C) 20 m/s (D) 3 20 m/s
18. The coordinates of a moving particle at any time are given by x = at 2 and y = bt 2 . The speed of the particle
at any moment is
(A) 2t(a + b) (B) 2t (a 2 − b 2 ) (C) t a 2 + b 2 (D) 2t (a 2 + b 2 )
19. An electron starting from rest has a velocity that increases linearly with the time that is v = kt , where
k = 2m / sec 2 . The distance travelled in the first 3 seconds will be
(A) 9 m (B) 16 m (C) 27 m (D) 36 m
H.O. 92, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Kota (Raj.) Mob. 97831-97831, 70732-22177, Ph. 0744-2423333 www.nucleuseducation.in 2
PCCP
20. A point moves with uniform acceleration and v1 ,v 2 and v 3 denote the average velocities in the three
successive intervals of time t 1 , t 2 and t 3 . Which of the following relations is correct?
(A) (v1 − v 2 ) : (v 2 − v 3 ) = (t 1 − t 2 ) : (t 2 + t 3 ) (B) (v1 − v 2 ) : (v 2 − v 3 ) = (t 1 + t 2 ) : (t 2 + t 3 )
(C) (v1 − v 2 ) : (v 2 − v 3 ) = (t 1 − t 2 ) : (t 1 − t 3 ) (D) (v1 − v 2 ) : (v 2 − v 3 ) = (t 1 − t 2 ) : (t 2 − t 3 )
21. A salt solution contains 20% salt by weight. When the solution is heated, 40% salt is left in the solution. The
amount of water which is disappeared is -
(A) 0.05 g (B) 50.0 g (C) 0.05 g (D) 5.00 g
22. A large quantity of impure substance is dissolved in a hot liquid from time to time; a small sample of the
solution is transferred to a test tube and cooling under a running tap. When the sample on-cooling give
crystals, whole solution is covered with a watch glass and allowed to cool. The method described above is
(A) Crystallization (B) Evaporation (C) Centrifugation (D) None of the above
23. Match List-I (mixtures) with List-II (separation methods) and the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists :
List-I List-II
(a) NaCl in water 1. Chromatography
(b) Methyl alcohol and acetone. 2. Evaporation
(c) Red ink and blue ink 3. Fractional distillation
(d) NH4 Cl and NaCl 4. Sublimation
Codes :
a b c d a b c d
(A) 2 3 1 4 (B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 2 3 4 1 (D) 3 2 4 1
24. We can get a pure liquid from a solution Liquid- liquid mixture by -
(A) distillation (B) crystallization (C) evaporation (D) sedimentation
25. Liquefied air is separated with the help of fractional distillation. This process is based upon the difference in
which of the following properties
(A) Freezing point (B) Melting point (C) Boiling point (D) None of these
27. Turpentine oil and water can be separated by using a separating funnel.
On what principle does a separating funnel work?
(A) Difference in melting points (B) Difference in boiling points
(C) Difference in solubilities (D) Difference in their densities.
28. If oil and water are made to mix in presence of soap, mixture is -
(A) Solution (B) Suspension
(C) Homogenous (D) Stable emulsion
H.O. 92, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Kota (Raj.) Mob. 97831-97831, 70732-22177, Ph. 0744-2423333 www.nucleuseducation.in 3
PCCP
33. In which phase of cell cycle are the chromosomes inactive, condensed and not transcribed to m-RNA?
(A) G1 phase (B) S phase
(C) M phase (D) G2 phase
37. Which of the following does not require carrier molecules during transport through cell embranes.
(A) simple diffusion (B) facilitated diffusion
(C) Na+ - K+ transport (D) active transport of sugars and amino acids
39. Mitochondrial membrane system processes a variety of porin proteins which allows the passage of selective
molecules. Which of the following statement is true regarding porin proteins in mitochondrial membrane system:
(A) outer membrane possess porins but they lack the usual beta barrel structure
(B) both inner and outer membrane possesses porin protein
(C) Only inner membrane possesses porin proteins
(D) many porin proteins which are structurally similar to the bacterial porin proteins are present on the outer
mitochondrial membrane
H.O. 92, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Kota (Raj.) Mob. 97831-97831, 70732-22177, Ph. 0744-2423333 www.nucleuseducation.in 4