III Year

P.B.
COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING
IRRUNGATTUKOTTAI
DEPARTMENT OF AERONAUTICAL
ENGINEERING
III YEAR QUESTION BANK
SEMESTER V
AE 8501 Flight Dynamics

AE 8502 Aircraft Structures - II
AE 8503 Aerodynamics - II
AE 8504 Propulsion -II
AE 8505 Control Engineering
AE 8501
Flight Dynamics
UNIT – I
CRUISING FLIGHT PERFORMANCE
PART - A
1) What is the need to define ISA and give its values at standard sea level
condition?
Since atmospheric conditions like pressure, temperature and density are

constantly varying with altitude and location of the earth surface, there is a need
for a normal atmosphere to use it as standard for the design and flight evaluation of
aircraft all over the world. Its standard sea level values are, pressure = 1.013 x105
N/m2, temperature =288K, and density =1.225 kg/m3.
2) Distinguish between Troposphere &

Stratosphere.
Troposphere Stratosphere
(a) It extends from earth surface to It extends from troposphere to

about around 11km altitude. 50 km altitude.
(b) It is a turbulent region and its Its temperature remain constant up

to temperature decrease linearly about 25km and then increases up
to
at the rate of 6.5oC/km 47km at the rate of 3oC/km. At 47km
(288K to 216K at 11km) to 53km, temperature remains
constant at 282K.
3) Define Geometric and Geopotential altitudes. Give the relation between „g‟ at
the Absolute altitude (ha) in terms of earth‟s surface gravity (go) and geometric
altitude (hg) and radius of earth (r).
Geometric altitude (hg) is the physical altitude above the sea level.
Geopotential altitude (h) is the fictious altitude and differs from geometric
altitude (hg) and is physically compatible with the assumption of constant
acceleration due to gravity (go),
ie; h = (g/go)0.5 hg.
The ratio of acceleration due to gravity at an altitude ha, to that on the earth surface
(go)
2
is: g/go = (r/ha) , i.e., g = go (r /
2
r+hg))
4) Derive from first principle the variation of pressure (dp) in ISA with respect to
the variation of Geometric altitude (dhg).
Assume an air column of height dhg and unit base area as shown in
fig. The 3 forces acting on the tiny air column are, (p+dp) 1 +ρgdhg = p.1 , i.e., dp =
-ρgdhg
5) Define the terms (a) Pressure altitude (b) Temperature altitude (c) Density
altitude. If an aircraft senses the actual outside air pressure which corresponds to
some standard altitude ,then that altitude is called pressure altitude .Similarly if an
aircraft senses the actual outside temperature and density which corresponds
to some standard altitude , those are called temperature altitude and density
altitude respectively.
6) What are the factors which decide the flying path of an airplane as a rigid
body? Airplane as a rigid body its flying path is decided by
a) Its inertia characteristic.
b) Earth„s acceleration due to gravity
c) Propulsive force generated by power plant
d) Aerodynamic forces (L&D) and moments created on it due to
the reaction between airplane and air.
7) Why the airplane is considered as a dynamic system in six degrees of
freedom?
What are the conditions to be satisfied for equilibrium along a
straight unaccelerated flight path?
Airplane motion in air can be completely defined only if six velocity
components (linear velocities u,v,w along X,Y,Z axes and angular velocities
p,q,r about X,Y,Z ) are given . Hence airplane is considered as a dynamic system
in six degrees of freedom. For equilibrium along a straight unaccelerated flight
path, the equation of static applied to each degree of freedom must be satisfied:
ie; ∑ Fx =0 , ∑ Fy = 0 , ∑ Fz = 0 ∑ L = 0, ∑ M = 0, ∑ N = 0
8) What is plane of symmetry of airplane and define symmetric and asymmetric
degrees of freedom?
Plane of symmetry of airplane is the X-Z plane that divides it into two
symmetric halves. Symmetric degrees of freedom are those components of
motion related to airplane‟s longitudinal motion .They are motions along X
and Z axes and about Y-axis. Asymmetric degrees of freedom are those
components of motion related to airplane‟s lateral motion. They are motions
along Y- axis and about X and Z axes.
9) What will decide the lateral (asymmetric) degrees of freedom and define
directional stability and dihedral effect.
Lateral degrees of freedom of an airplane are decided by the direction of
relative wind to the plane of symmetry. This angle is called sideslip (β) and the
airplane is designed to resist the development of sideslip during all normal
flight maneuvers .The ability of the airplane to create yawing moments that tend
to eliminate any sideslip is called directional stability (sometimes called
weathercock stability). The rolling moment created because of sideslip is referred
to as dihedral effect. The second type of static lateral stability is associated with
the dihedral effect.
10) Define compressibility of fluids and what decides the speed of propagation of
small pressure waves in fluids?
Compressibility of fluids (K) is defined as the reciprocal of bulk modulus of
fluids or it is the volumetric strain (dv/v) developed per unit change in pressure. (K
= -(dv/v)/dp) .Speed of propagation of small pressure waves (sound waves) is
dependent on the elastic property (bulk modulus) of the fluids . Speed of
propagation of sound wave is a = √ (dp/dρ), where dp &dρ are change in pressure
and density.
11) How the sound waves travel in gases and give the expression for the speed of
sound in gases?
Sound waves travel in gases as a series of adiabatic compressions
and rare fractions and hence the expression for the speed of sound waves
is
a = (γ (dp/dρ)) 0.5 = (γp/ρ) 0.5 = (γgRT) 0.5.
12) What are the different power plants used in airplanes? Which power plant is
most efficient for subsonic airplanes?
Latest power plants used in airplanes include; propeller driven by recipro-
cating engines as well as turbines , turbojets ,ramjet and rockets .Here other than
rockets all other power plants are using air-breathing engines. Turbojet power plants
are most efficient for subsonic airplanes compared to Turboprop, ramjet and
rockets. Ramjet and rockets are efficient for short duration supersonic flights
whereas turbo propellers are less efficient and can be used only at low speed.
13) Write down the major differences between the turboprop and turbojet engines in
generating the propulsive power
In airplanes using turbo propeller system, out of total useful work done to
propel the airplane, 80-95% is derived from the propeller and the reminder only from
the exhaust jet reaction. In typical turboprop system, power (P= TV) is nearly constant
and hence thrust (T) decreases as speed (V) increases. In turbojet propulsion system, the
total useful work done to propel the airplane is produced by the expansion of the
combustion gases through exhaust nozzle. Thrust is made nearly constant by increasing
the mass flow rate (kg/s) at high speed (V).
14) What are the conditions for minimum drag and minimum power required for an
airplane? Mention them in drag coefficients also.
Minimum drag (D) occurs when L/D or CL/CD is a maximum .It occurs
when parasite drag = induced drag or when CDf = CL**2/пAe.
Minimum power (Pmin) occurs when the parasite power is 1/3 of Induced
power .In the drag coefficient form CDf = 1/3(CL**2/пAe).
15) What causes induced drag?
Induced drag is an unavoidable by-product of lift and it increases as the angle
of attack (∞) increases. Up to a critical angle of attack (∞c at which CLmax
occurs)both lift and induced drag increases. Since there are two types of lift
(dynamic & induced lift), there are two types of drag also; dynamic drag and
induced drag. Above ∞cr, lift will decrease and drag will overcome the thrust
causing reduction of speed and altitude.
16) Define skin friction drag and pressure drag.
Drag caused by the shear force (viscous flow) in the boundary layer is called
skin friction drag. The drag caused by the pressure variation over and below the
surface of the wing is called pressure drag. It is caused by flow of high pressure air
from under the wing to over the wing .Sum of the above two drags are called
profile drag. All drags other than induced drag is called parasite drag.
17) What are the conditions required for maximum drag and minimum power?
Maximum drag occurs when the angle of attack exceeds the critical angle
of attack and the speed approaches the stalling speed. The left hand limit of PR
versus V curve shows the stalling speed corresponding to maximum lift (CLmax)
and maximum drag. Minimum power occurs at the speed at which total power
(PR) is minimum .This occurs when parasite drag is 1/3 of induced drag .In drag
coefficient form, CDf = 1/3(CL**2/пAe).
18) Explain the significance of load factor.

Load factor (n) is defined as the lift (L) divided by the weight (W) at the
stalling speed corresponding to CLmax. Any attempt to increase the lift by further
increasing the angle of attack will result in the reduction of CL and increase of
CD. This will result in increase of thrust required to maintain the flight at lower
speed. Hence a load factor of 1, at CLmax, only feasible provided enough power
is available.
19) Plot the variation of power available (PA) with flight speed (V) for a propeller
powered airplane and indicate the effect of altitude on the curve. Firm line
(PAO) on the PA versus V graph shows the power available at sea level for a
propeller powered airplane .The dotted line PAσ shows the power available
at an altitude where the density ratio, σ = ρ of air at altitude/ ρ of air at sea level ,
PAσ = PA0 * √σ.
21) Define service and absolute ceiling.
The system of PR and PA versus V curves, both at sea level (o) and altitude
(σ) are fundamental in determining climb and decent performance of
airplane. Minimum and maximum speeds (absolute ceilings) are determined
by the intersection of the two curves (PR and PA) taken for the same altitude . Any
speed between the maximum and minimum ceiling speeds can be the service speed.
22) What is the compressibility speed correction of airplane and how Vcorr is related to
true speed V?
At or near the critical mach number (Mcr) of the air plane, the drag
increases at a greater rate than the parabolic variation. Speed correction curves
(thrust constant) at different altitudes are available . A correction speed Vcorr is
obtained from the chart for any incompressible speed, V. By the assumption
of constant thrust for turbojet between V and Vcorr ,the V can be related to
Vcorr as follows:
T = D i e ; CD. q. S = CDcorr.q corr.S. Hence V = Vcorr √ ( CDcorr/CD) .
23) How the speed correction (Vcorr) due to compressibility effect is related to
incompressible speed (V) when speed, altitude, t/c ratio and CL increases.
For a specific V, Vcorr will be lesser than V and the deviation
increases with the speed , increase in t/c ratio and CL . For each case Mcr
is the upper limit. Above specified deviations between V and Vcorr are
further enhanced in higher altitude.
PART - B
1. (i) The drag polar of an airplane is of the form CD = CD0 + K CL2. Show that the
Lift/ Drag ratio at minimum power is given by (3 / 16 K CD0) for steady level
flight. (4)
(ii) An airplane in steady level flight is flying at n times its minimum power
speed. Show that P / Pmin = (3 + 4) / 4 . Where P and Pmin are power required for the
flight at the flight speed and minimum power required for steady level flight at that
altitude. (12)
2. Consider the flow of air over a small plate, which is 5cm long in the flow direction and
1 m wide. The free stream conditions corresponds to standard sea level and the flow
velocity is 120 m/s. Assuming turbulent flow calculate
(i) Boundary layer thickness at the downstream edge (6)
(ii) Drag force on the plate (4)
(iii) Compare the conventional and rear-loaded airfoil sections for lift vs. chord and
drag coefficients vs. Mach. No variations. (6)
3. Derive an expression for induced drag coefficient for a wing and show that for
elliptical plan forms, induced drag is minimum.
An airplane weighing 250 KN has a wing area of 80 m2 and its
drag equation is CD = 0.016 + 0.04 CL2. Calculate the minimum thrust required for
straight and level flight, and the corresponding true air speeds at sea level and at
10,000m ( = 0.58). Calculate the minimum power required, and the
corresponding true air speeds at the above altitudes. (16)
5. Mention some methods of reduction of drag of airplanes. (4)
(ii) Sketch and explain the pressure distribution over an aerofoil for three different
angles of incidence. (8)
(iii) What are the characteristics of a laminar flow over a streamlined body? (4)
5. Calculate the minimum thrust and the corresponding speed of level
flight at low altitude for a monoplane of weight 75,000 N, wing loading
1700 N/m2, Aspect ratio = 6.78 and CD0 = 0.015. (16)
6. The overall drag coefficient (based on Wing area„s‟) of a particular
aircraft of weight „W‟ is given by CD= a + b CL2 where „a‟ and „b‟ are constants.
Derive expressions for
(i) Minimum drag in Horizontal flight
(ii) Magnitude of the dynamic pressure at which this occurs
(iii) The corresponding power required
8. A wing of elliptic plan form is flying at straight and level flight at 3000m altitude
(Density is 0.0909 kg/m3) with a speed of 200m/s and supports of 4000 kg. The wing
area is 25 m2 and its aspect ratio is 7. Determine the values of (i) Lift coefficient of the
wing (ii) Downwash velocity distribution induced on the wing (iii) Circulation at the mid
span station (iv) Induced drag coefficient.
9. A fluid stream flows over an airfoil at a free stream velocity of 41 m/s at a point on
the surface of the aerofoil, the flow velocity is found to be 88 m/s find the coefficient of
pressure at that point.
10. A hemispherical parachute is to lower a weight of 1000 N at sea level. If the terminal
velocity is 4 m/sec, discuss the motion of the parachute from release at a height estimate
the diameter of the parachute having a drag coefficient of 0.95.
10. A cup anemometer has 4 hemispherical cups of 10cm dia attached to arms of 0.5 m
length. Assuming suitable CD values explain how the wind speed can be measured using
this device. For a wind speed of 10 m/sec, calculate the initial torque and equilibrium
RPM.
11. The following data relates to an aircraft cruising in steady level flight C L are 1.71 and
0.421, the corresponding CD are 0.81 and 0.028 respectively. The aircraft has an elliptic
wing. The contribution to lift from components other than the wing may be neglected.
Find the aspect ratio of the wing.
12. An airplane has rectangular wing of aspect ratio 6 the lift curve slope of its airfoil section
is 6 per radian. If the profile drag coefficient of wing is 0.006 and wing efficiency is 0.90
then what will be (i) The CL vs curve of the wing (ii) Induced angle of attack of the
wing at CL= 0.5 (iii) Drag polar of the wing.
13. Briefly explain the “International Standard Atmosphere”.
14. What are the various forces and moments acting on a flight vehicle? Explain in detail.
15. Derive the equation of motion of a rigid flight vehicle.
16. Briefly explain the different types of drag and list out methods to reduce the drag.
17. How the thrust, power and SFC vary with velocity and altitudes for air breathing engines
and rockets? Explain in detail.
UNIT – II
MANOEUVERING FLIGHT PERFORMANCE
PART - A
1) Define range and endurance of an airplane.
For an airplane-engine combination, the range (R- km ) may be determined
By multiplying the total fuel (F-kg) available by the average km traveled per kg
of fuel consumed.
ie; R (km) = F(kg) * (km/kg )
Similarly for an airplane –engine combination, the endurance (E-hrs) may be
computed by dividing the total fuel (kg) available by the average consumption
of fuel in kg/hr .
ie ; E (hrs) = F (kg) /(kg/hr)
2) For turbojet driven airplane at what V/VL/Dmax βmin or Ψmax occurs . Also
for the turbo-propeller driven airplane at what V/VL/Dmax, R/Cmax or R/Smin
occurs.
For turbojet driven airplane, from the TA/TL/Dmax versus V/VL/Dmax
curve, it is found that at βmin or Ψmax, the value of V/VL/DMAX =1.
Similarly for the turbo-propeller driven airplane from the PA/PL/Dmax versus
V/VL/Dmax curve, it is found that at R/C max or R/Smin , the value of
V/VL/Dmax
is equal to 0.76 .
3) Draw TR versus V graph of turbojet airplane and indicate VmaxE and VmaxR.in
it. VmaxE is the minimum TR point on the graph.
VmaxR is the tangent point on the graph.
4) Draw PR versus V graph of turbo propeller airplane and indicate VmaxE and
VmaxR. in it .
VmaxE is the minimum PR point on the graph.
VmaxR is the tangent point on the graph.
5) What are the conditions for maximum endurance of a jet powered airplane?
Equation for maximum endurance (Emax) for jet powered airplane is:
Emax = (1/c)*(L/D)max * ln (Wo/W1)
For maximum endurance: 1) c(1/hr) should be small
2) (L/D) max should be high. 3) (Wo/W1) mass ratio should be high.
6) What is the condition for Rmin for turning an airplane in level flight? Also give the
time (t) for 3600 turn in terms of V and tanø (ø-turning or yawing angle).
Considering the turning banking angle as ø, tan ø= V2/R.g ,
ie ; R = V2/g tan ø . For Rmin ; 1) V should be small, approaching to Vstall.
2) tan ø should be high . Time for 3600 turn (t) = 2пR/V
=2ПV/g tan ø.
7) What is the impact of acceleration in R/C as compared to non-accelerating climb?
Angle of climb (γ) is related to R/C as Sin γ = (R/C ) /V.
Also Sin γ = (T-D-F1)/W (where T is thrust , D- drag and F1 –inertia for
acceleration), then R/C (m/s) = V(T-D-F1)/W -- (1)
And R/C without acceleration =V (T-D)/W -- (2)
If acceleration is not considered (2), the R/C will be higher than R/C with
acceleration (1). That is the time to climb to a particular altitude will be higher by
25 – 30% than that of without acceleration.
8) Show by graphical solution of range (R), what is the additional fuel (dF) required to
get the same range when empty weight is increased by (∆W).
For keeping the range (R) same, the additional fuel (dF) required when
empty weight of airplane is increased by ∆W, can be find out by equating area
A1= A2 , ie; C1.dF =C2. ∆W
(where C1 and C2 are the range per kg at the start and end of flight .C2 will be
higher than C1. Then dF = ∆W* C2/C1 , ie; dF is greater than ∆W .
PART – B
1. An aircraft is in steady level flight at 100 m/s. Then it is made to perform a horizontal,
correctly banked turn along a circular path of radius 1100m maintaining the same incidence
with the engine being throttled to develop the necessary thrust. The pilot again brings the
aircraft to steady, level flight, but maintains the altered thrust keeping the same incidence.
The excess power is used for climbing. Estimate the rate of climb if the lift/drag ratio is 9 for
the incidence.
2. An aircraft weighing 2,50,000 N has a wing area of 80 m2 and its drag polar is given by CD =
0.016 + 0.04 CL2. Calculate the minimum thrust required for straight and level flight and the
corresponding true air speeds at sea level and at 10,000m ( = 0.58). Calculate also the
minimum power required and the corresponding true air speeds for both sea-level and
10,000m altitude. ( S.L= 1.226 kg/m3).
3. An airplane weighs 1,58,000N and has a wing plan form area of 90 m2. Its drag polar is of the
form CD = 0.015 + 0.08 CL2. During cruise at an altitude of 3 km ( = 0.179 kg/m3) its
engines suddenly fail and it is forced to descend down in a powerless glide. Calculate
(i) The maximum glide path angle
(ii) The maximum range covered over the ground run and
(iii) The equilibrium glide velocity at that altitude corresponding to minimum glide angle.
4. For steep angles of glide, show that the rate of descent (sinking speed) of an airplane in
powerless glide is given by
= (W/ ½ S)1/2 [CD / (CL2 + CD2)3/4] (6)
(ii) Prove that for an airplane in climbing flight
P / P0 = [1 + (L/D) tan ] (cos )3/2.
Where P is the thrust power used on the climb and P0 is the power required for straight and
level flight at the same weight, incidence and altitude. (10)
5. Discuss in detail the High Lift Devices used for aircraft. (16)
6. Write short notes on:
(i) Thrust Augmentation (8)
(ii) Methods of reducing landing distance (8)
7. An aircraft is in steady level flight at sea level at a speed of 100 m/s. Then it enters a
horizontal, correctly banked circle of 1100 m radius without changing the angle of incidence
and altering the engine thrust as necessary. After that the aircraft comes out of the circle
without changing the incidence and thrust and starts climbing.
Estimate:
1. The angle of climb and
2. Rate of climb if at that incidence of L/D ratio is 9
8. -propelled engine and discuss its
implications. (10)
(ii)Show that rate of descent during gliding = (W/ ½ S)1/2 [CD / (CL2 + CD2)3/4] (6)
9. (i) Derive an expression for the endurance of a propeller powered aircraft and discuss
its implications. (10)
ii) Write a brief note on ground effect during take off and landing. (6)
(i) V-n Diagram (8)
(ii) Methods of reducing landing distance. (8)
11. Explain with sketches, pull up and pull down maneuvers of flight and derive the expressions
turn rate and turn radius for pull up maneuver. (16)
12. Derive the expressions for maximum range and endurance for the jet engine airplanes.
13. Show that the aerodynamic condition CD0 = 1/3 CDi that holds at minimum power
required. (16)
14. Explain the following with sketches:
(i) Water methanol as thrust augmentation device
(ii) V-n Diagram
(iii) Gliding flight
(iv) Climbing flight
15. (i) A jet aircraft with a wing loading of 2.4 KN/m2 and a mass of 4500 kg has a
maximum thrust of 30 KN at sea level. If the drag coefficient at a speed of 450 km/hr
is 0.04. What will be
a. The maximum possible rate of climb
b. The greatest angle of climb. (10)
(ii) Derive the general expression for Range of an airplane propelled by a turbojet. (6)
16. (i) Sketch an airplane in Landing phase and obtain expressions for the approach
distance, Flare distance and Ground roll. (12
(ii)Find the wing area required for an airplane of Mass 1500kg if the minimum Landing
speed is to be 65 km/hr and the maximum value of lift coefficient for the aerofoil used is 1.2.
17. (i) Sketch the variation of velocity versus maximum load factor. (4)
(ii) Derive an expression for maximum possible load factor and minimum turn radius. (12)
18. (i) Explain any three different methods of thrust augmentation. (6)
(ii) What are the functions of flaps and explain the use of
1. Leading Edge slat 2. Fowler flap 3.Blown flap 4.Boundary Layer suction (8)
(iii) Define balanced field length. (2)
19. (i) Derive an expression for the load factors encountered in pull up and pull over
maneuvers. (8)
(ii) An aircraft with a loading of 950 N/m2 flying at 90 m/sec encounters an up gust of 12
m/sec. If dq/dx = 4.6 per radian for the wing, estimate the instantaneous load factor. (8)
20. A twin engined turboprop airplane has p = 0.82, SHP/Engine = 1500 at sea level. W
= 1,00,00 N, S = 50 m2, CD = 0.018 + 0.05CL2. SHP at altitude = (SHP at S/L) 1.2.
Estimate the maximum speed at 3 km altitude.
21. An airplane W = 2,50,000 N, S = 86.5 m2, CD = 0.016 + 0.04 CL2. Calculate (i)
Minimum thrust required for level flight at 5000 m altitude. (ii) What is the
corresponding TAS at S/L?
22. Calculate the maximum speed of the given airplane W = 2 x 105 N, S = 80 m2, CD =
0.019 + 0.04 CL2 sea level altitude, Fmax = 60 kN.
23. An airplane of weight 250 kN, S = 80 m2, AR = 9, e= 0.9, CD0 = 0.02 flies at sea level
with maximum engine thrust of 80 kN find Vmax.
24. The airplane has the following specifications. Twin jet aircraft wing area is 47 m2,
Aspect Ratio is 6.5, Oswald efficiency factor = 0.87, weight = 103047N, parasite
drag coefficient is 0.032.The airplane is equipped with 2 jet engines with 40298 N of
static thrust each at sea level. (a) Calculate and plot the power required curve at sea
level. (b) Calculate the maximum velocity at sea level.
25. A jet airplane has following data W = 1,00,000 N, S = 50 m2, AR = 9, e = 0.85, CD0 =
0.019. Thrust (F) at sea level = 40,000 N, F = Fs/l 1.2. Find max. Rate of climb at
4km altitude.
26. A glider is to be designed for a minimum glide angle of 20. If the zero lift drag
coefficient of the glider is 0.010 and Oswald‟s wing efficiency factor in the parabolic
drag polar is 0.8. What should be the Aspect Ratio of the wing?
27. An aircraft is in steady level flight at sea level at a speed of 100 m/s. The pilot causes
his aircraft to enter a horizontal correctly banked circle of 1100 m radius keeping the
same angle of incidence. The engine thrust is altered as necessary. Then the pilot
brings the aircraft out of the turn without altering the angle of incidence and thrust
and allows it to climb. Estimate the rate of climb if at that incidence, the L/D ratio is
8.
28. An airplane has W = 250,000N, S = 80 m2, F/W = 0.3, AR = 9, e= 0.95, CD0 =
0.0175. Estimate the maximum rate of climb at sea level and 4km altitude. From this
data estimate the absolute ceiling of the airplane (without the use of graph sheets).
29. Calculate the maximum rate of climb at sea level of a twin engined turboprop
airplane W =150,000 N, S = 75m2, AR = 9, e = 0.75, b = 27 m, P = 75% (constant),
SHP (per engine) = 2300, CD0 = 0.018. Find also the angle of climb.
30. Estimate the absolute ceiling of the following airplane W = 150,000N, S = 75 m2, CD0
= 0.018, e = 0.85, AR = 9, SHP at S/L = 4500, SHP at Altitude = (SHP at S/L) 1.10,
Propeller efficiency is 80%.
31. Calculate the maximum rate of climb of the given jet airplane at sea level and the
angle of climb given W = 100,000N, S = 50 m2, drag polar CD = 0.018 + 0.042 CL2, F
= 0.35 W.
32. A glider has zero lift drag coefficient of 0.012 and Oswald wing efficiency factor of
0.82 if it is to be designed for a minimum glide angle of 2.50. What should be the
aspect ratio of the wing?
33. A glider has weight 4kN, S = 20 m2, aspect ratio = 20, elliptic wing and CD0 of 0.018.
Estimate its maximum endurance when left at a height of 300m altitudes.
34. Plot the climb performance hodograph for a twin jet airplane with following data at
sea level weight of 100,000 N, wing span = 19.5m, S = 45 m2, thrust produced by
each engine is 16500 N, CD0 = 0.02, e = 0.85. Determine (i) Angle of best climb (ii)
Maximum rate of climb (iii) Vmax at sea level.
35. A sailplane weight 4500 N has a wing loading of 600 N/m2. Its drag polar is CD =
0.010 + 0.022 CL2 after completing a launch at 350m in still air. What is the greatest
distance the sailplane can cover and what is the greatest duration of flight possible.
Assume in both case flight is over level ground.
36. Using the following data
All up weight = 10,00kg
Surface area of wing = 50 m2
(CL)max = 2.5
Engine Thrust = 4000kg
Calculate the take-off speed, mean acceleration and take-off distance.
37. A twin engined turboprop airplane has W = 150,000 N, S = 75 m2, AR = 9, e = 0.75, b
= 27m, P = 75%, SHP (per engine) = 2300, CD0 = 0.018, SFC = 3.0 N/SHP hr. Fuel
weight is 20% of total weight. Estimate Maximum Range and Maximum Endurance
at sea level.
38. Estimate the total ground distance for a aircraft of W = 40,000 N, F= 16,000 N
(constant), CD0 = 0.024, CL max = 1.6, S = 25 m2, e = 0.8, b = 14 m, CL ground = 0.52 at
an airport where pressure and temperature are 9 x 104 N/m2 and 300C.
39. The following data related to an airplane with propeller axis tilted 350 to the
longitudinal axis of the aircraft all up weight 10,000kg, surface area of wing 50 m2.
Maximum lift coefficient 2.5 (with both flaps and slats). Engine thrust of 4000kg.
Calculate the take-off speed, mean acceleration and take-off distance.
40. An airplane is to be operating from an aircraft where pressure is 95kpa and
temperature is 270C. If weight is 50KN, constant thrust of 20kN, maximum lift
coefficient of 1.8 and CD0 is 0.025 with e as 0.85, S = 30 m2, b = 18m, ground friction
coefficient of 0.02 and average CL is 0.52. Find the take-off ground run of the
airplane.
41. For a piston propeller airplane of weight 38,000 N, wing area 27 m2 of aspect ratio
7.5, CD0 = 0.025. SHP =650, Total fuel = 4000 N. Calculate maximum Endurance.
42. An airplane of W = 4,00,000N, S = 120 m2 is being designed for use on 2000m
runways. The airplane has provision for reverse thrust during landing. If the wing has
a basic CL max of 1.42. Estimate the extra CL max required. To achieve this suggest a
suitable flap system.
43. Draw the V – n diagram for the given data. Semi acrobatic category CL max is 1.6, W/S
= 4000 N/m2. Vcruise = 4 Vstall, Vdive = Vcruise + 120 kmph. Slope of lift curve is
0.09/deg. Gust alleviation factor is 0.6. Show all the calculations and draw the gust
lines with modifications to basic diagram.
44. Draw the V – n diagram for the following airplane. Draw the gust lines (show all
calculations) W = 100kN, S = 80 m2, CL max = 1.6, Vcruise = 4 VS, Vd = 5 VS ,Normal
category aircraft, Slope of lift curve for wing = 0.1/deg.
UNIT – III
STATIC LONGITUDINAL STABILITY
PART - A
1) What is meant by control of an airplane, how longitudinal, roll and directional
controls are provided in airplane?
When an airplane is stable, it is necessary for the pilot to be able to control
it, so that he can maneuver it into any desired position.
Longitudinal control is provided by the elevator, ie; flaps hinged behind the tail
plane. Roll control is provided by the ailerons, ie; flaps hinged at the rear of the aero
foils near each wing tip. Directional control is provided by the rudder, ie; a vertical
tail hinged to the stern post.
2) What is meant by stability of an airplane and what way it is different from
Balance?
The stability of an airplane means its ability to return to some
particular condition of flight, after having disturbed from that condition,
without any effort by the pilot. The stability is often confused with the
balance or equilibrium of an aircraft. For eg: when an airplane flies with one
wing lower than the other may often, when disturbed from that attitude,
return to it. Such an airplane is out of its balance or trim, but it is stable.
Stability is sometimes called inherent stability.
3) Define the three conditions of stability.
There is a half-way condition between stability and instability. If the
airplane on disturbance tends to move father away from its original position,
it is unstable. If it comes back to its original position, then it is in stable
condition. But sometimes the airplane may tend to do neither of the two and
prefer to remain in its new position. This condition of airplane is called neutral
stability.
4) With the help of Cm vs CL curve of an airplane, state the stable, neutral and
unstable conditions of it. Draw a graph with Cm on Y axis and CL on X
axis. In Y axis, represent Cm =0 above origin to indicate both positive and
negative Cm values. Line (1) &(2) in which dCm/dCL ≥ 0 shows unstability
or neutral stability Line (3) in which dCm/dCL ≤ 0 stability .
When Cm = 0, the airplane is in equilibrium.
5) What are the two methods for predicting fuselage c o n t r i b u t i o n to

longitudinal stability of airplane? Write down the formulae for simpler method and
explain the terms in it. Methods for predicting fuselage contribution to longitudinal
stability are (a) Computational method by dividing the fuselage ito many sections
(b) A Shorter method for which the following formulae is used. ( dCm/d CL ) fus =
(Kf Wf**2 Lf)/Sw c aw
(where Lf is the over all fuselage length ,Wf is its maximum width and Kf is
an empirical factor developed from experimental evidence . It depends
entirely on the wing root chord‟s position on the fuselage.
6) Define neutral point.

It is the limit of the centre of gravity of the airplane at which the static
longitudinal stability becomes neutral (dCm/dCL) =0. This stability criterion of
the airplane (ie; neutral point) will be different at different operating conditions
like, stick-fixed with and without power, stick free with power. Also there is aft c.g
limit as well as forward c.g limit. Between these limits of neutral points only the
airplane c.g can be allowed to shift during all maneuvering conditions of airplane
in order to maintain longitudinal stability.
7) What is the criterion for static longitudinal stability?
For static longitudinal stability of the airplane (AP) the over all value of
(dCm/dCL)AP ≤ 0 . This rate of change of coefficient of moment about Y axis
(dCm) with respect to the change in lift coefficient (dCL) is the summation of
similar values contributed by different parts of airplane, like wing, fuselage,
engine power, tail/elevator etc. Some of them are positive and others are
negative. The cumulative effect should be such that over all value should be
negative (ie; (dCm/dCL) total ≤ 0).
8) State two contributions for static longitudinal stability and indicate them with a
plot.
In Cm versus CL plot indicate the longitudinal stability contributions of wing
And fuselage, tail alone and the total for airplane. If the total longitudinal stability
which is the sum of individual contributions is negative (dCm/dCL )≤ 0 then the
airplane will be stable .
9) Briefly define wing`s vortex system with figure.
Wing`s vortex system can be represented as shown in figure, consisting of
`bound vortex ` located at the wing quarter chord (0.25 c) and a vortex sheet
streaming from the wing trailing edge, which will roll up to form the familiar
two trailing vortices . The wing wake center line which is in the vortex sheet
is displaced downward and deformed by the influence of the bound vortex and
the powerful trailing vortices . The strength of the vortex system is prop-
ortional to the CL therefore the downwash (€) at any particular point will be
proportional to CL . ie; € = f( CL) .
10) What is Neutral point (N0) of an airplane at stick fixed and power-off condition.
Show the new position of „N0‟ at power-on condition relative to the earlier N0.
The aft position of c.g of the airplane obtained by equating the static longitudinal
stability equation (dCm/dCL) total to zero, with the contribution for stability at
stick-fixed and power –off condition added to it. This c.g limit at aft end with stick-
fixed and power-off gives the limit for the stability. The new position of the airplane
neutral point No` at power-on condition will be towards the forward side of the No,
since the contribution to stability by the power effect is slightly destabilizing.
11) What are the two major effects of the running propeller that contribute to the
Two major effects are (1) Direct propeller contribution arising as a result of
the forces created by the propeller itself . (2) Indirect effects which arises as the
result of the slip stream from the propeller and its interaction with the wing
and tail surfaces .Propeller forces ,both thrust (T) and normal force(Np)
create moments about c.g of the airplane and hence they have stability contri-
bution (dCmp/dCL) which influence the over all static longitudinal stability.
12) What are the major contributions of the indirect effects of the running propellers
on the static longitudinal stability?
There are 4 major contributions making up the indirect effects of the running
propellers on static longitudinal stability. They are the effects of slip stream
created by propeller on the following:
a. Effect of slipstream on wing-fuselage moments b.
Effect of slipstream on wing lift coefficient (CL)
c. Effect of slipstream downwash at the horizontal tail
d. Ef f e c t of increased slipstream dynamic pressure (q) on the tail.
13) Define elevator power and write down the elevator power criterion equation
The magnitude of pitching moment coefficient, Cm, obtained per degree
deflection of the elevator is termed as the elevator power .It is the derivative of
Cm w.r.t elevator deflection (dCm/dδe =Cmδ)
The elevator power criterion is mentioned below dCm/dδe =Cmδ
14) What are the direct propeller contributions to S.L.S arising due to the forces
created by propeller and write their simple forms in terms of (h/c) and (lp/c).
Direct propeller contribution to S.L.S arising due to forces (T and Np) created
by propeller are thrust (T) contribution (dCmp/dCL)T and the normal Force
(Np) contribution (dCmp/dCL)NP .
(dCmp/dCL)T = 0.25 h/c
if c.g of airplane is above thrust line (h/c is +ve ), (dCmp/dCL) is positive and
hence destabilizing . If thrust line is above c.g (h/c is –ve),(dCmp/dCL) is
negative and hence stabilizing .Similarly (dCmp/dCL)NP = 0.02lp/c .
15) Briefly explain the c.g limits with the help of a figure and what decides the
anticipated c.g travel of the airplane.
Between stick-fixed power-on condition neutral point (No) and forward
c.g limit at CLmax landing condition ,the c.g of airplane can travel. More c.g
range required , the more powerful will be the elevator. It can be seen that
anticipated c.g travel of the airplane is decided by the elevator and the
horizontal tail .
16) How the most forward c.g limit of the airplane is fixed?
An indication of the most forward c.g permissible comes from the elevator
theory. That is from the requirement that the elevator must always be capable of
bringing the airplane into equilibrium at CLmax attainable by it. As the c.g
moves forward ,the airplane becomes more stable and more up-elevator is
required to trimout CLmax . Obviously some forward c.g , the elevator will be
just powerful enough to attain equilibrium at CLmax .
17) Write down the expression for the maximum stability attainable by the elevator
using its maximum up-elevation.
The expression for the limiting stability can be obtained by substituting δemax and
CLmax in the eqation given below
Elevator up- deflection δe = δeo – (dCm/dCL) CL/Cmδ and solving for
(dCm/dCL)max = (δeo- δemax ) Cmδ / CLmax .
(where δeo is the elevator angle at zero lift and Cmδ is the elevator power)
18) How the forward c.g limit is restricted by the ground effect or for landing
maneuvers .
The forward c.g location is limited by the influence of the ground on the
downwash during landing. The variables that will be altered by the ground
effect are wing`s angle of attack (αw) ,elevator power (Cmδ) due to increase
in at = dCLt /dαt and dЄ/ dαt = τ , the elevator effectiveness .
19) Write the total elevator hinge moment coefficient equation and define the
components in it .
Elevator total hinge moment coefficient (Ch) equation can be
written as: Ch = +Chα α + Chδ δ
Cho –is the hinge moment coefficient term at zero angle of attack.
Chα – the partial derivative of hinge moment coefficient w.r.t angle of attack
of the tail = ∂ Ch/∂α
Chδ - the partial derivative of hinge moment coefficient w.r.t control surface
(elevator ) deflection = ∂ Ch δ/∂δ
Since most control surfaces (elevator) are symmetric airfoil sections the
Term Cho will not be included unless specifically asked for.
20) What is meant by aerodynamic balancing control surface and how it is most
frequently done?
Methods for controlling the parameters Chα and Chδ (partial derivatives of
hinge moment coefficients with respect to α and δ) are called aerodynamic
balancing control surfaces . One of the most frequently used methods is the
set-back hinge. In this ,by suitable mechanism the hinge line is moved aft
such that the sum of moments about the hinge line will become smaller .
21) What is a tab and how it is effective?

Tab is a control surface and is an auxillary flap usually built into the
trailing edge of the main control surface. Because of its location, it can create
very powerful moments about the control surface hinge line. It is used as a
trimming device, a balancing device and in some cases as a primary control
surface.
22) Get a relation for the control surface floating angle of an elevator fitted with
tab also.
Assuming linearity for the hinge moment coefficients, the total
control surface hinge moment coefficient (Ch) can be written :
Ch = Chα α +Chδe δe +Chδt δt
At the floating balanced condition, Ch = 0, and δe = δfloat
ie; δfloat = - (Chα / Chδe ) α- (Chδt / Chδe ) δt
which indicates that deflecting the tab can change the control surface floating
angle
23) How the effect of freeing the elevator changes the tail contribution to the
longitudinal stability?
The effect of freeing the elevator enters the tail term of the longitudinal
stability as a multiplying factor ( 1- τ (Chα/ Chδe)). If an elevator has a large
floating angle, (Chα/ Chδe) will be large and positive .Then the stability
contribution of the horizontal tail can be reduced sufficiently. For eg: if
(Chα/ Chδe) = 2 and τ = 0.5, the floating of the elevator can make the whole
tail contribution of stability zero. This shows the importance of careful
elevator balance design to ensure proper hinge moment characteristics and
thereby good stick-free stability can be readily appreciated.
24) What is the effect of gradient of stick-force with velocity on the stability of the
airplane?
The gradient of stick-force (Fs) with velocity is extremely important, as it
plays a major role in determining the pilot`s feel of airplane stability . A large
gradient (dFs/dV) will tend to keep the airplane flying at constant V and will
resist the influence of disturbance towards changing V. It also enable the
pilot to bring the airplane to trim easily and will not require a lot of pilot
attention to hold the given Vtrim .
25) What are the two methods in determining the stick-free neutral point (No`) and
define them.
Both methods are through flight test data evaluation .In 1st method , the
non- dimensional stick force equation (Fs/q) is differentiated w.r.t to CL and
equate to zero. The c.g position for d(Fs/q)/dCL = 0 will give the neutral point.
It can be seen that (No`) will decrease with increase of CL .In the second for
getting neutral point (No`) is to obtain flight curves of tab angle (δe) to trim
(Fs=0) versus speed for different c.g positions. The slope of αt vs CL is a
function of stick-free longitudinal stability criterion and the neutral point (No`) is
the c.g position when dδt /dCL =0 .
26) What are the commonly used gadgetries for improving stick force gradient?
There are a few new devices now available for giving constant pull force
on the stick . The most common of them are the down spring and bob weight,
vee tab or spring tab. The down spring and bob weight are not very effective in
ground operation where as the spring tabs are more efficient in giving a constant
torque about the hinge line of the elevator.
27) What is the restriction on the aft c.g imposed by the stick-free neutral point
The concept of stick-free neutral point (No`) is that c.g location where
(dCm/dCL)free = 0 or where dFs/dV = 0 through trim speed where Fs=0.
This brings a new restriction on the aft limit of the allowable c.g range. At
present the Army and Navy call only for the most aft c.g to be ahead Of
the stick-free neutral point (No`).
(Show the new aft limit of c.g (No`) and usable c.g range in a figure usually
used).
28) What are the two important maneuvering flights and their essential
requirements?
Flight in curved paths are called maneuvering flight. Two important
maneuvering flights (a) that taking place in vertical plane passing through the
plane symmetry of air plane called pull-up maneuvering (b) that taking place
in horizontal plane called normal turn. In (a) , the net upward force
(L-W ) act as the pull-up force perpendicular to the curved path .In (b) the
resultant of lift vector in the horizontal plane perpendicular to the flight path
act as the centripetal force .
29) Define stick-fixed maneuvering point (Nm) and stick- free maneuvering point
If the c.g is moved aft behind (No) and (No`), the stability in accelerated
flight will be reduced until at some c.g position the change in elevator angle (dδe
) and the stick force (Fs) required to accelerate flight will be zero. These c.g`s are
termed as the maneuvering points .The c.g where the elevator angle (δe) required
to accelerate the airplane vanishes is the stick-fixed maneuvering point (Nm) and
the c.g where Fs required to accelerate the airplane vanishes is the stick- free
maneuvering point (Nm`) .
30) What is the criterion for longitudinal stability and control in maneuvering
flight?
The increment of elevator angle (∆δe) and stick force (∆Fs) to produce an
increment in normal acceleration equal to 1g at constant speed ,both in pull-
ups and in steady turn is the criterion for longitudinal stability and control in
maneuvering flight . That is (dδe /dn ) and (dFs/dn) are criterion .
31) Define stick- fixed maneuvering point (Nm) and where it is located with
reference to neutral point at stick-fixed (No) .
As the airplane c.g is moved aft of (No) , the gradient (dδe /dn ) continues to
reduce until at some c.g position it vanishes. This c.g position at which
dδe/dn =0 is termed as the stick- fixed maneuver point (Nm). Since Nm – No=
(dCm/dCL)fix , the Nm is aft of No . The difference between Nm and No is the
greatest at sea level and for light wing loads (W/S)min .
32) Define stick- free maneuver point (Nm`) and where it is located with reference to
neutral point at stick –free (No`) .
The gradient of the stick force (dFs /dn) do not vanish at stick –free neutral
point (at (dCm/dCL)free =0 ) but shows that , if c.g is moved sufficiently aft of
No` , a position will reach where dFs/dn =0 . This c.g position is termed as
stick-free maneuver point (Nm`).
33) What are the restrictions on the c.g travel imposed by the gradient of stick force
per g in modern airplane ?
The upper limit or lower limit of stick-force per g (dFs/dn) required for
modern airplanes imposed further restriction on the c.g travel of the airplane
for maintaining S,L,S .The forward c.g is limited to max: gradient dFs/dn
and the aft c.g is limited by the min: gradient of the same. However it is found
that the stick-free neutral point (No`) comes between these two.
34) What is the final c.g travel limit of the airplane for S.L.S considering the flight
upto stick-free conditions ?
The critical limits on airplane`s c.g are :
1) On the forward c.g,
(a) Maximum gradient ,stick force per g (dFs/dn) max
(b) Elevator required to land at CLmax
2)On the aft c,g :

(a) Power –on stick-free neutral point (No`)
(b) Minimum gradient, stick force per g (dFs/dn) min
The usable c.g range is between (dFs/dn)max point and power-on stick-free
Neutral point (No`)
PART – B
1. (i) Derive an expression for the tail contribution to the pitching moment of an aircraft
if iW is the wing setting angle and it is the tail setting angle. (8)
(ii) An airplane has the following characteristics: Lift is found to be zero at a geometric angle
of attack α = -1.50. At α = 50 , CL is 0.52. Also at α = 10 and 7.880 moment coefficient about
the c.g. are measured as – 0.01 and 0.05 respectively. The c.g. location is 0.35c, iW = 0, V1 =
0.34, it = 2.70 , tail lift curve slope is 0.1 per degree, 0 = 0, / α = 0.35. At α = 7.880
calculate CMcg for the aircraft.
2. (i) List out the basic requirement of aircraft control surface. (5)
(ii) Wing contribution to stability is a function of the C.I. position with respect to
aerodynamic centre. Discuss. (5)
(iii) The following data are related to a certain airplane:
Xcg = 0.3c Xac = 0.26c
aw = 0.09/degree at = 0.085/degree
t= 0.9 d /dα = 0.4
1
V = 0.50
Calculate neutral point and level of stability. (6)
3. A wing body model is tested in a subsonic wind tunnel. At the geometric angle of
attack α = -1.50, lift is found to be zero. At α = 5 0 , CL is 0.52. Also at α = 10 and 7.880
moment coefficient about the c.g. are measured as – 0.01 and 0.05 respectively. The c.g.
location is 0.35c.The area and chord of the wing are 0.1m2 and 0.1m respectively. The
horizontal tail is located such that its aerodynamic center is at 0.17m from centre of
gravity of model. The tail area is 0.02m2, tail setting angle is 2.70.The tail lift curve
slope is 0.1 per degree, 0 = 0, / α = 0.35. At α = 7.880 calculate CMcg for the
airplane model. Also find out whether the model is longitudinally stable.
4. An airplane has the following characteristics:
W = 2.25 x 104 N at = 0.08
2
Sw = 19m t = 0.9
= 0.3 V1 = 0.50
For a 40 downward deflection of elevator
When CL = 0, CMcg = 0.0 and
When CL = 0.5, CMcg = -0.05
The airplane is flying at an altitude where the ambient density is 0.42 Kg/m3.
(i) Calculate the elevator power
(ii) Estimate the angle required for trim at a velocity of 60 m/s.
5. (i) Derive an expression for the free elevation factor and explain its significance in
longitudinal static stability. (6)
(ii) An airplane has the following design and aerodynamic characteristics:
The lift is zero at a geometric angle of attack α = -1.50. At α = 50,
CL = 0.52 and at α = -1.50 , CMcg = 0.06. Slope of longitudinal stability curve is – 0.0133. The
aircraft has a wing area of 19m2. Weight of the aircraft is 2.27 x 104 N. Elevator control
effectiveness is 0.04. The tail volume ratio is 0.5. Calculate the elevator deflection angle
necessary to trim the airplane at a velocity of 61 m/s at sea level.
6. An airplane has the following characteristics:
Gross weight (W) = 2.25 x 104 N, Wing planform area (Sw) = 19 m2
Mean aerodynamic chord (C) = 2.3m
Horizontal tail planform area (St) = 3.7m2
Tail arm (lt) = 6m
Tail efficiency factor ( t) = 0.9
Lift curve slope of horizontal tail (at) = 0.08
Elevator effectiveness ( ) = 0.3
For a 40 downward deflection of elevator
When CL = 0, CMcg = 0.0 and When CL = 0.5, CMcg = -0.05
The airplane is flying at an altitude where the ambient density is 0.375 Kg/m3.
(i) Calculate the elevator control power
(ii) Evaluate the stability curve slope Cm/ CL
(ii) Estimate the elevator angle required for trim at a velocity of 60 m/s.
7. (i) Write a brief note on stick force per g. (6)
(ii) Find the maximum lift coefficient which can be trimmed by the aircraft with the
following characteristics, when the C.G. is at its forward limit of 0.13 of the mean
aerodynamic chord:
Wing area = 25m2 , Tail plane area = 3.7m2
AR = 6, Tail arm 6m
Wing lift curve slope = 0.1 per degree
Tail lift curve slope = 0.08 per degree
t = 0.9 / α = 0.4 CMac = -0.032
Aerodynamic centre at 0.25C, Tail plane setting angle = -1.80
Wing setting angle = 30, Wing incidence at zero lift = -2.20
Elevator effectiveness = 0.42, Maximum elevator deflection = +/- 300.
8. (i) Derive the conditions for longitudinal static stability for wing and horizontal tail
configuration
(ii) For a given wing body configuration the aerodynamic centre lies 0.05 chord length
ahead of centre of gravity. The moment coefficient about aerodynamic centre is 0.016.If
the lift coefficient is 0.45. Calculate the moment coefficient about C.G.
9. Given a rectangular wing of aspect ratio 6 and area 55.8m2. The wing section
employed is an NACA 4412 airfoil with a.c at 0.24c and CMac = - 0.088. If the wing is
balanced so that the C.G. lies on the wing chord but 15cm ahead of a.c. Calculate the lift
coefficient for which the wing would be in equilibrium (CMcg = 0). Is this lift coefficient
useful? Is the equilibrium statically stable? Calculate the position of c.g. for equilibrium
at CL = 0.4.
(i) Elevator angle per g (ii) Stick-free Neutral point
11. Derive expressions for the following:
(i) Elevator angle to trim (ii)Elevator control power
(iii) Contribution of isolated wing to longitudinal static stability.
(i) stick force gradients and stick force per g
(ii) Power effects on longitudinal static stability of a propeller aircraft.
(i) Limits on location of airplane‟s centre of gravity
(ii) Power effects on longitudinal stability of a jet aircraft
14. Derive an expression for the gradient of elevator angle per g. Explain stick fixed
maneuver point can be estimated by flight test.
(i) Tail volume ratio (ii) Static Margin
(iii) Most forward C.G. for free flight.
UNIT – IV
LATERAL AND DIRECTIONAL STABILITY
PART - A
1) What is meant by dihedral effect?
The angle that the relative wind makes with longitudinal axis of airplane
is called sideslip. This sideslip (β) alters the wing‟s span wise lift distribution
to create a net rolling moment. This rolling moment due to sideslip is termed
as dihedral effect. It is the measure of change in rolling moment coefficient
(dCl) per degree change in sideslip (β = -ψ for straight flight path).
ie; dihedral effect = dCl/dψ or Clψ ( +ve for stable )
2) Define power of lateral or aileron control.
The power of lateral or aileron control will be expressed as the change
in rolling moment coefficient per degree deflection of the ailerons. It is
expressed as dCl /dδa and it acts in such a way that to counter balance the
dihedral effect so that the wings can be held level from straight flight or
maintained at some equilibrium angle of bank (Ф) during turn .
3) What are the basic requirements that are to be fulfilled by the lateral control
system?
The basic requirements that determine the size of the control and amount of
aerodynamic balance are (a) it should be large enough to provide sufficient rolling
moment at low speeds to counteract the unbalance tending to roll the airplane ;(b)
the second requirement is that it roll the airplane at a sufficiently high rate at high-
speed for a given stick force.
4) What is meant by aileron reversal speed?
The deflection of the aileron will create a pitching moment tending to twist
the wing. When the wing twists it rotates in a direction tending to reduce the
rolling moment created by the aileron. When the speed is high enough, a point
can be reached where the wing twist will just counter the aileron rolling moment
and lateral control will be lost. This speed is known as the aileron reversal speed.
Hence designer should ensure that wings are sufficiently rigid in torsion so that
the aileron reversal speed is higher than the maximum speed
anticipated by the airplane.
5) What are the advantages of sideslip?

Sideslip can be used (a) to increase the airplane drag and thereby its flight
path angle during an approach for landing, (b) useful in getting smooth aerobatics
such as slow rolls and (c) finally it can help during flight with asymmetric power.
6) How the total directional stability contribution of parts of airplane is made
more stabilizing?
Sum of the directional stability contributions of wings, fuselage and
propeller and that of their interference effects will usually give an unstable effect.
Hence an additional stabilizing surface must be incorporated not only to overcome
the instability but also to give the desired level of directional stability. This
stabilizing surface is the normal vertical tail placed as far aft of the c.g of airplane
as practicable.
7) What is the requirement of directional control – rudder?
Although the airplane will normally be in equilibrium at zero sideslip (β=0),
there are many maneuvers that introduce yawing moments which are to be
opposed by some yawing moment control (directional control) to achieve zero
sideslip. This yawing moment control is supplied by pilot by means of a rudder,
normally a plane flap attached to the aft portion of the vertical tail.
8) What are the flight conditions or maneuvers that produce unbalance yawing
moments those are to be overcome by rudder?
One is (a) the adverse yaw moment, which happens due to turn during normal
flight (b) slipstream rotation ; the slip stream behind the propeller has rotational
components which changes the angle of attack on the vertical tail (αv ) and create
sideslip .This is critical at high power – low speed flight. © Cross wind during take-
off and landing. (d) Spinning recovery by rudder (e) antisymmetric power flight,
when one of the multi-engines of airplane fails.
9) Define rudder power and how it is related to directional stability of airplane.
The rate of change of yawing moment coefficient (dCn) per degree change in rudder
angle (dδr) is called the rudder power. That is equal to dCn/ dδr or Cnδr . The
directional stability of airplane is dCn/dψ = Cnψ . If Cnδr = -0.001 and Cnψ = -
0.001, it can be seen that 10 of rudder will produce 10 of yaw.
10) What is adverse yaw effects and how it is controlled by rudder?
Rudder power required to overcome the adverse yaw during rolling
maneuver is usually not very high and not usually used for rudder design .Adverse
yaw is created by the normal action of the aileron together with the yawing moment
created by the twisting of wing itself. These adverse moments are always critical at
low speeds and rudder must be capable of overcoming them at speeds very close to
stall.
11) How rudder power is estimated?
Rudder power to overcome the adverse yawing moment (Cn)tail is estimated
using wind-tunnel model test data .The adverse yawing moment coefficient due to
rolling of the wing (Cn)roll can be estimated theoretically . So the rudder power
required to overcome adverse yaw can be expressed as follows:
dCn/dδr =Cnδr = ((Cn)roll +(Cn)tail )/ rudder throw
(=300) .
12) Why the rudder is designed to suit one-engine inoperative condition?
The yawing moment coefficient due to the asymmetric thrust (Cnth ) is
proportional to 1/V3. The rudder at full deflection gives a constant corrective
yaw moment co efficient (Cnr). The intersection of these two Cnth and Cnr
gives the critical speed of airplane below which Cnth is more than Cnr .
Hence below the critical speed (near stalling at full power) the full rudder will
not balance out the moment due to antisymmetric power. Since other types of
yawing moments are not critical, most rudders are designed only to fulfill the
antisymmetric power flight condition.
13) How the floating rudder (stick-free) affects the directional stability?
Ans: When rudder is left free to float in response to its hinge moment, it can have
large effects on the directional stability. It is in the similar way, the floating
elevator affects the longitudinal stability. When the airplane sideslips, the
restoring moment due to the tail will be decreased if the rudder floats with the
wind and will be increased if it floats against the wind . The floating rudder
changes the effective angle of attack of the total vertical tail .
14) What is the criterion to keep the directional stability with stick-free above
certain limit or not to lose much?
For high speed airplanes which require close aerodynamic balance of rudder
and hence the rudder pedal force to be applied by the pilot should be within
practicable limit. So it is essential that the ratio of derivative of H.M coefficient
with tail angle of attack (αv) and rudder power (Chδr) should be kept low so as
not to lose too much directional stability with stick-free.
15) What is the relation for the greatest of pedal force (PF) with respect to sideslip
(ψ) and give its accepted value .
The greatest of pedal force (PF) w.r.t to sideslip (ψ) can be derived as
dPF/dψ = (G q ηv Sr Cr Chδr /Cnδr ) *(Cnψ )free ,where (Cnψ )free =
(Cnψ )fix – ( Chαv .Cnδr) / Chδr . It shows that dPF/dψ varies with V2 for
normal aerodynamic balance. A criterion of 2.25 kgf/deg of sideslip at 240
km/hr
speed has been taken as the minimum for this gradient .
16) What is meant by rudder lock?
A typical curve of floating angle (δfloat) vs sideslip (ψ) can be made for a
closely balanced rudder. The rudder angle (δr) required to produce the sideslip
varies some what linearly upto high (ψ). The pedal force required is a function of
the difference between δrreqd and δfloat . At high ψ, the δfloat may catch up to
δrreqd, at which point the PF becomes zero .This point of intersection is called
rudder lock. Considerable force is required afterwards, to break the lock and restore
the airplane to zero sideslip.
17) How to avoid rudder lock?
Rudder lock can be avoided by two ways; 1) To cut down the rudder
effectiveness (dαv /dδr ) , thereby increasing the δrreqd at a given sideslip (ψ).
(2)Another way is to provide a dorsal fin which increases the fuselage stability at
high (ψ) as well as reduces the tendency of the vertical tail to stall.
18) What is the concern of the designer to keep the pedal force required within
suitable practicable values?
A fighter airplane climbing at full throttle (power) at 288 km/hr may push
over to a dive up to 720 km/hr speed . If the airplane is trimmed out directionally at
climb, the pilot may have to exert a PF as high as 92 kgf to maintain zero sideslip in
the dive. Hence it is essential for the designer to keep the pedal force changes with
speed as low as possible by suitable aerodynamic balance.
PART – B
1. (i) What is the importance of the non-dimensional parameter pb/2V
[ p – rolling rate, b – wing span , V – true air speed] in lateral control. (4)
(ii) Based on strip theory obtain an expression for the above parameter. (8)
(iii) Using the expression explain Aileron Reversal Speed. (4)
2. (i) Explain the phenomenon of Rudder Lock. (6)
(ii) An airplane is ready for lift off from the runway. At that moment it is detected
that a crosswind of 8 m/s is blowing across the runway. The airplane has a strong
weathercock stability.
The airplane has the following geometric data:
Wing loading = 2500N/m2
Span = 25m
Wing area = 70m2
Vertical ail area = 11.5m2
The Aerodynamic centre of the vertical tail is at 38m from the centre of gravity of the
airplane.
The maximum lift coefficient is 1.8
The lift curve slope of the vertical tail is 0.08/deg
The vertical tail efficiency is 0.9
The slope of static directional stability curve is given by
Cn/ (fixed) = 0.35
assume that 1 degree of rudder deflection changes the vertical tail incidence by 0.4 deg.
Assuming sea level conditions, determine the rudder deflection required for the airplane to
maintain a steady and straight heading (i.e. without any directional change) along the
runway.
3. A twin engined airplane with jet engines mounted in mid span of each wing has a
wing loading of 4000 N/m2. The directional control for this airplane has to be so designed
that if one of the engines fails during straight and level flight, the pilot should be able to
continue to fly at the same speed by increasing the thrust of the other engine and holding zero
sideslip. Assuming lift/drag ratio of 4 in both flight conditions and a maximum rudder
deflection of 20 degrees, determine the rudder power required for flight speeds above
250Kmph.
4. An airplane has instability of 5% MAC. The pitching moment that needs to be
balanced is 0.03 at a lift coefficient of 0.475. Determine its pitching moment at zero lift.
5. A light airplane has the following characteristics
Component Weight c.g. locations in % MAC
Empty a/p 700 30
Max. Fuel 140 100
2 Pilots 160 25
In the above configuration the airplane has a static stability margin of only 1% MAC. If this
margin has to be increased to 5% by just reducing fuel. What will be the max. fuel
limit?
6. One of the design requirements according to FAR on the horizontal tail load is the
load arising from a sudden deflection of the elevator to its maximum position when flying at
speed VA.For an airplane having wing area 12m2 , MAC of 1.2m and tail length of 4m, what
will be this tail load at VA = 50m/sec, if the elevator power is 0.85 per radian and maximum
elevator deflection is 30 degrees?
7. An airplane having the following characteristics has a stick fixed static stability
margin of 5% for a c.g. location of 40% MAC.
Aerodynamic enter = 26% MAC
(dCm/dCL)body = 0.06.
If the static stability margin is to be increased to 10% by increasing horizontal tail area alone
everything else remaining the same, determine the required percentage increase in horizontal
tail area.
8. In an airplane of 5m MAC, the distance between main wheel and nose wheel is 15m
and the neutral point is 1m from the main wheel in the direction of nose wheel. It is desired to
have at least 8% stability margin. If the permissible loads on nose wheel are between 8% to
15% of all up weight, find the acceptable c-g limits.
9. (i)Based on strip theory derive an expression for the Aileron control power.(6)
(ii) Estimate the Aileron Control Power for the aircraft of following dimensions:
Half Span = 5.5m
Root Chord = 23m
Tip Chord = 1.2m
Wing Planform Area = 18.4 m2
Aileron effectiveness parameter = 0.36
The Aileron is located between 65% and 90% of half span
Slope of lift curve = 4.44 / radian. (10)
10. (i) Based on strip theory obtain an expression for the aileron control power. (6)
(ii) An airplane has the following dimensions:
b/2 = 5.3m Cr = 2.2m Ct = 1.3m
K1 = 0.7 K2 = 0.94 S = 20.5m2
a = 4.44 per radian = 0.36
Assuming the wing to be straight tapered, estimate the Aileron control power. If the
aircraft is cruising at 400 Kmph, estimate the rolling velocity per degree of aileron
deflection. (10)
11. (i) An airplane has the following dimensions:
b/2 = 5.3m Cr = 2.2m Ct = 1.3m
K1 = 0.7 K2 = 0.94 S = 20.5m2 a = 4.44 per radian
= 0.36
Assuming the wing to be straight tapered, estimate the Aileron control power. If the aircraft is
cruising at 417 Kmph, estimate the rolling velocity per degree of aileron deflection. (10)
(ii) Discuss briefly the consequences of providing excessive dihedral to the aircraft. (6)
12. (i) Explain the Rudder lock and how is it prevented?
(ii) A twin jet engine has the following data:
Thrust per engine = 10,000N, span wise distance between engines = 10m, Wing area =
2
50 m , wing span = 10m, Rudder effectiveness = - 0.001/deg. And maximum possible
rudder deflection = +/- 200. Determine the rudder deflection to maintain zero sideslip at
100 m/s in level flight at sea level with one engine completely out.
13. Describe how equilibrium is achieved when one engine of a twin engined airplane
fails. Obtain the minimum speed and corresponding side slip at which flight with zero yawing
moment is possible in the event of engine failure for the following airplane:
S = 65m2, lV= 10.5m, BHP = 880 Kw (per engine),
Propeller efficiency = 75%,
lP = 4.2m, dCL/dα = 0.02 per degree, Cn = 0.0013/deg., Cr = -0.006/deg.,
( r)max = 250, b = 21m.
14. (i) What is the coupling between rolling and yawing moment. Discuss with
suitable examples.
(ii) Describe in detail the various types of aerodynamic balancing.
15. (i) What is the dihedral effect due to sweep back and power
(ii) What are the clause requirements of rudder?
16. (i) Obtain an expression for stick fixed maneuver point for pull-up in terms of
stick fixed neutral point.
(ii) Effect of running propeller on directional stability.
17. (i) Based on strip theory derive an expression for Aileron control power.
(ii) Discuss the phenomenon of Aileron Reversal and explain what is meant by Aileron
Reversal Speed.
(i) Frise Aileron
(ii) Contribution of vertical tail towards dihedral effect.
(iii) Requirements of lateral control.
(i) Aileron balancing
(ii) Rudder Lock and Dorsal fin
(iii) Rudder fixed directional static stability
(i)One engine inoperative condition (ii) Adverse yaw (iii)Spin and recovery from spin
21. (i) Differentiate between yaw and side slip angle.
(ii) Discuss briefly the requirements of rudder.
(iii) Plot the variation of yawing moment with side slip angle for a directionally stable
aircraft.
22. Discuss in detail the contribution of various components of an aircraft towards
directional static stability.
23. Discuss following situations with reference to an aircraft
(i) The aircraft is directionally very stable but not very stable laterally.
(ii) The aircraft is laterally very stable but not very stable directionally.
(iii) The wings placed in a high position and c.g. of the aircraft is correspondingly low.
24. (i) What is the effect of a running propeller on directional stability
(ii) Discuss the stability of an aircraft with one engine inoperative condition
(iii) Briefly describe stability contribution of vertical tail.
UNIT – V
DYNAMIC STABILITY
PART - A
1) Why the study on dynamic characteristics of the airplane is necessary?

In order to understand the requirements for static stability and control, it is
necessary t o study the dynamic characteristics of the airplane. It is done by
investigating the types of motions of the airplane in response to a disturbance from
some equilibrium flight condition and the nature of transient motions of the
airplane in response to the movement of its controls.
2) What way the dynamic stability analysis of the airplane helps the design of
control systems and the pilot who operates it?
If the motion of the airplane in response to some disturbance is very
slow divergence, the control requirements are different from those needed
if the divergence is extremely rapid. The ability of the pilot to react and
apply the controls is a factor which must be kept in mind for all studies of
airplane dynamics. The design of controls and the ability of the pilot to
apply controls in time require some knowledge of the transient response of
the airplane to a disturbance or to controls.
3) What are the 4- different modes of motion of a dynamic system when
responding to a disturbance from an equilibrium position?
Dynamic system in general has 4- different modes of motion when
responding to a disturbance from its equilibrium position. They are aperiodic and
oscillatory modes with and without damping. That is aperiodic can be pure
convergence if the motion is damped (stable) and divergence if undamped (unstable)
.Similarly oscillatory motions (periodic) can be damped oscillation (stable) or
undamped oscillation (unstable).
4) What are the six degrees of motion of a dynamic system and how it is formed for
the airplane?
According to the Newtonian laws of motion which states that (a) the sum of
all external forces in any direction must be equal to the time rate of change of
momentum, and (b) the sum of all external moments of forces must be equal to the
time rate of change of moment of momentum, all measured w,r,t axes fixed in space
. The six equations of motion are: ∑ Fx = m ax , ∑ Fy = m ay , ∑ Fz = m az , ∑ L =
dHx /dt , ∑ M = dHy/dt , ∑ N = dHz /dt . (where `m` is the mass , ax ,ay ,az are
linear accelerations and Fx , Fy , Fz are external forces and L, M, N are external
moments of forces and Hx ,Hy , Hz are moments of momentum about X, Y, Z axes
respectively ).
5) How the true acceleration and moment of momentum of airplane w. r. t fixed
axes in space are generated?
Accelerations w. r. t moving axes (X, Y, Z) as well as moments of momentum
are generated first w. r. t moving axes. But they will not be the true values
because as per Newtonian laws they are to be worked with reference to fixed axes
in space. To overcome this difficulty use is made of moving axes which coincide
in some particular manner from instant to instant with a definite set of axes fixed
in the airplane.
6) What are the different ways the moving airplane axis system can be fixed with
reference to the airplane?
The moving airplane axis system can be fixed with reference to the airplane
in two different ways: (1) one is to consider the axes fixed to airplane under all
conditions, and are called body axes in which X -axis is along the thrust axis. (2)
Other possibility is to consider the X- axis always pointing to the direction of
motion or into the relative wind called wind axes .The wind axes are usually
convenient.
7) What are the equations of longitudinal motion with free control?

It involves 3 symmetric equations in the plane of symmetry of airplane (X-Z
plane) and equation of motion of the elevator control about its own hinge.
They are: ∑ Fx = m ύ , ∑ Fz = -mVѓ , ∑ M = IY q` and ∑HMe =Ie δe``.Major
variables to be considered for dynamic analysis are the change in forward speed ∆V,
∆α ,change in altitude(∆θ) and change in elevator angle ∆δe .
8) What are the different modes and stability criterion of dynamic longitudinal
motion whose governing equation is a 4th degree quartic ?
If all the 4 roots (λ`s) come out as real numbers , the dynamic
motion is aperiodic , damped or convergent if the real root is negative and
undamped or divergent if the real root is positive .
If any of the roots (λ`s) form a complex pair, the motion is oscillatory;
it will be damped oscillation if the real part of the complex root is negative and
undamped oscillation if the real part is positive .
9) How the stability of dynamic motion can be judged using the coefficients of the
4th order quartic which govern the motion ?
If all coefficients (A to E ) are positive , there can be no positive real root
and no possibility of pure divergence . If the Routh`s discriminant (RD) = (BCD-
AD2 –B2E) is positive , then there is no possibility of complex root with positive
real part and hence no undamped oscillation. If RD is zero, there will be neutrally
damped oscillation and if RD is negative, one root will be complex pair with
positive real part, representing undamped oscillation etc.
10) Briefly explain the stability derivatives, Clp and Cnr .

The derivatives Clp and Cnr are the damping derivatives in roll and yaw
respectively; where as the derivatives Clr and Cnp are usually referred to as the
rotary or cross derivative . They are the rolling moment (Cl) due to yawing
velocity (r) and yawing moment (Cn) due to rolling velocity (p) .
11) What are the characteristic modes of stick-fixed longitudinal motion of

airplane?
Characteristic modes of stick-fixed longitudinal motion for nearly all
airplanes are two oscillations (1) Long period with poor damping called phugoid
mode (2) Short period with heavy damping is referred to as the short period mode or
second mode (Note: give figures also.) The damping of the phugoid motion is
therefore a direct function of CD . The cleaner the designer makes the airplane, the
more difficult will be to ensure damping of phugoid mode .
12) What is proposing mode of dynamic motion?
The damping of long period mode (phugoid mode) can become very weak
under certain design conditions and can become neutrally damped or even
unstable. This mode when neutrally damped is usually called proposing. Such
modes have occurred in high speed airplanes, in which the oscillations of normal
acceleration become so severe that the pilot was injured seriously and airplane
damaged before the pilot could stop the oscillation by slowing down.
13) How many degrees of freedom are there for lateral dynamic motion and what
are they?
There are 5- degrees of freedom for the lateral dynamic motion, because
there are two lateral controls; the rudder and aileron. The five degrees of freedom
are: a) Velocity along the Y –axis (b) rotation about X- axis (c) rotation about Z-axis
(d) rotation of rudder about its hinge (e) rotation of aileron about its hinge.
14) Define spiral divergence in dynamic stability?
This is a characteristics associated with lateral dynamic stability of modern
airplane .The divergent mode (undamped) motion is known as spiral divergence
.It can be easily demonstrated in equilibrium flight by giving a kick to rudder or
aileron and watching the response . If it is uncontrolled, steep high- speed spiral
divergence develops. Inspection of lateral dynamic stability quartic equation gives
an idea about spiral divergence. If E in quartic is zero, it is spiral boundary and
when E is negative it is unstable and positive, stable. Usually with CL more than
0.213, the airplane will be spirally unstable.
15) Define Dutch roll and its effects.
Lateral short period oscillation with weak damping are objectionable and
such oscillations are called Dutch roll .In most airplane designs the short period
oscillation with control locked is not objectionable as the damping is normally
heavy .But with control free the Dutch roll can have very weak damping which is
quite objectionable. Neutrally damped Dutch roll can be investigated by equating
the Routh`s discriminant to zero, ie;(BCD-AD2-B2E) = 0, which is oscillation
boundary between stable and unstable.
16) What is meant by snaking?
In most cases with inadequate damping of lateral oscillation, it is tied in
with the floating characteristic of the rudder (δrfloat ) . This characteristic under
certain conditions of aerodynamic balance can introduce a poorly damped lateral
oscillation known as snaking.
17) Briefly explain autorotation. (Note: give figure, α vs CL and show the cause of
autorotation).
When the wing‟s are stalled; ie; beyond the critical angle of attack (α cr ) ,
the rising wing will have higher CL than the falling wing .This creates an
unbalanced couple about X-axis to rotate (roll) further which is called autorotation.
Rolling occurring in the almost horizontal plane is also a form of autorotation.
18) Briefly explain the spinning of an aircraft.
Spinning is caused by the autorotation developed by the unequal lift in the
wings .In a spin the airplane follows a steep spiral path which is composed of
varying degrees of yaw, pitch and roll. A flat spin is chiefly yaw and spinning nose-
dive is chiefly roll. The amount of pitch depends on how much the wings are banked
from the horizontal. Area and disposition of the fin, rudder and tail plane exert
considerable influence on the airplane to spinning.
19) How to get out of the spin smoothly?
In order to get out of a spin we must get out of the stalled (CLmax ) state by
putting the nose down (reduce α) and also we must stop rotation by applying
`opposite rudder `. In practice the roll is stopped first, because it is found the
elevators are not effective (to change α) until the rotation is stopped.
20) State two basic requirements of aircraft control surface.

AP control surfaces are mainly ailerons, canard(forward tail), elevator, rudder
and spoilers(special ailerons). Most of the control surfaces are used to produce
additional forces when it is required at different locations of AP. Also they produce
counter-balancing about three major axes of the AP to improve stability. It aids the
pilot to produce control forces to come out of maneuring flights.
21) Distinguish between stability and controllability.

Stability and control characteristics of an AP are called flying qualities.
Stability is the property of an equilibrium state and it is divided into static and
dynamic stability. Static stability is the tendency of the AP to return to its equilibrium
after a disturbance. In dynamic stability, the vehicle‟s motion with the time after it is
disturbed from its equilibrium point is considered. Controllability of a system is
related to its ability to transfer control requirements. A system is controllable if it
transfers any initial state Xi(t) to any final state Xf(t) in finite time.
22) What is the need for aerodynamic balancing?

Control surfaces like elevators, ailerons and rudders are used for generating
forces and moments in different directions for controlling the AP. When using, the
methods of controlling parameters (H.M coefficients) Chα and Chδ are of prime
interest and are referred to as methods of aerodynamic balancing. If these coefficients
are not suitably controlled, the stability and control will be in danger and it will do
harm. (eg, In (dCm / dCL)free eqn, the effect of elevator freeing comes as 1-τ Chα /
Chδ and if τ Chα / Chδ = 1, the whole tail contribution to S.L.S will become zero.
PART – B
1. i)Explain the significance of Routh‟s discriminant in dynamic stability. (6)

(ii) For the following coefficient determinant obtain the period of oscillation in
seconds when the flight speed is 600 Kmph.
CL/2
=0
CL -
2. (i) An aircraft model is tested in a wind tunnel. The details of the model are as follows:
Area of the wing = 0.1m2
Mean aerodynamic chord = 0.1m
Location of C.G. = 0.35c
Location of horizontal tail aerodynamic centre from C.G = 0.17m
Horizontal Tail Area = 0.02m2
Wing Setting Angle = 00
Tail Setting Angle = 2.70
Downwash effect is given by 0 = 0 and / α = 0.35
Wing lift slope = 0.08/degree
Tail lift slope = 0.1/degree
Zero lift angle α0 = -1.50
Location of aerodynamic centre of Wing-body combination = 0.24c
For the wing-body combination the moment about C.G. is measured as
-0.01 and 0.05 for geometric angles of attack of 10 and 80,
respectively.
Calculate the coefficient of moment about C.G. for the model at a geometric angle of attack
of 100. (10)
(ii) The characteristic equation for a particular oscillation of an airplane is given by
CL/2
=0
CL -
Estimate the period of oscillation in seconds if the airplane flies at 400Kmph.

3. The Dutch Roll characteristic equation is given by
2
– { (Y + V Nr) / V } + { (Y Nr - N Yr + V N ) / V } = 0
Given : Nr = -0.76/sec , Y = -14 m/sec2 , N = 4.49/sec2 ,Yr = 0 and

V = 54m/sec at sea level.
Find (i) Characteristic equation (ii) Frequency and (iii) Damping in Dutch roll motion.
4. (i) The characteristic equation of a system is given by ( + 0.5) ( - 1) + 10 = 0.
Find out whether the system is dynamically stable. Estimate (a) The time to
halve or double the amplitude. (b) The period of oscillation. (8)
(ii) Briefly explain the phenomena of Dutch Roll and Directional divergence. (8)
5. An airplane W/S = 3000N/m2, V = 450 Kmph flying at 6Km altitude has the
characteristic equation in longitudinal mode of the form
( 2 + +6) (3 2 + +1) =0
Find the period an time to damp and comment whether oscillation can be ignored.
6. (i) Explain Routh‟s stability criterion and in detail the procedure for a general nth order
equation
(ii) For the stability quadratic
S4 + 2S2 + 5S + 2 = 0
Examine the stability of the system.
7. An aircraft with a wing loading of 2000 N/m2 is in a steady level flight with a velocity of
100 m/s. The drag polar of the aircraft is given by CD = 0.025 + 0.05 CL2. Assuming =
1.25 Kg/m3, CL = 0.08 α , lt = 3c, St/S = 0.35, αt = 0.35 α deg., at = 0.06 αt , t = 0.9.
Determine the stability derivatives CDα , CLα , CMα.
(i) Aileron reversal (ii) Autorotation (iii) Spin
9. Explain the following phenomenon
(i) Spiral instability (ii) Phugoid motion (iii) Pseudo-stability.
10. (i) Discuss Rudder Lock
(ii) Explain briefly the „Snaking mode‟
(iii)Explain tail volume ratio
11. Derive the rigid body equation of motion for an airplane.
(i) Stability derivatives in longitudinal dynamics
(ii) Phugoid motion
13. Discuss in detail the phenomena of autorotation and spin and explain how the pilot can
recover from that situation.
(i) Routh‟s Discriminant
(ii) Dutch Roll.
15. Discuss in detail the stability derivatives for lateral dynamics
(i) stability derivatives in longitudinal dynamic stability
(ii) Stability quartic
(iii) Spoilers in lateral control
(i) Discuss stability derivative in lateral dynamics
(ii) Discuss stability boundaries in lateral dynamics
Scanned by CamScanner
AE 8502 AIRCRAFT STRUCTURES-II
UNIT – I
UNSYMMETRICAL BENDING
PART - A
1. Define redundancy in a structure and order of redundancy.

Structures which have more than one load path are called statically indeterminate (or)
redundant structure. Aircraft structures are usually statically indeterminate structure
For beams having large degree of redundancy, solutions are obtained by MOMENT
DISTRIBUTION METHOD
2. What do you understand by unsymmetrical bending? Explain a method to find the strenes in an
unsymmetrical section?
The type of bending action in a beam where right proportion between the parts does not
exist.
Unsymmetrical bending formula (Method I)
Stress  Z = [(Mx/Ixx)*Y] + [(My/Iyy)*x]
Where Mx = [Mx-(My Ixy/ Iyy))]/ (1-(Ixy2/IxxIyy)
My = [My-(Mx Ixy/ Iyy)]/ (1-( Ixy2/IxxIyy)

3. Explain the principle of virtual work & its applications in solving structural problems.
The principle of virtual work is stated as
A particle is in equilibrium under the action of a force system if the total virtual
work done by the force system in zero for a small virtual displacement.
Principle of virtual work forms the basis of the application of the total
complementary energy to the determination of defections of structures.
Small virtual forces are applied to a system in the direction of real displacement.
4. How do you determine the shear flow and angle of twist for a closed single cell under torsion?
Shear flow for a closed single cell is similar to shear flow in open cell but the shear loads may
be applied through points in the cross section other than shear center & secondly the origin for S
does not coincide with a known value of shear flow
Shear flow for = ( Basic Shear flow or ) + ( Shear stress at origin)
closed single cell Shear of open cell
qs = qb + qs.o
Angle of twist / Unit length of a closed cell. θ = 1/2AG ⌡q (ds/t) radian
for steel – stringer combination θ = 1 ∑ qL/t 2AG
If load acts through shear center then θ=0 ∑ qL/t = 0
5. Explain how a thin beam subjected to shear resists the load? (P 455 shear lag)
Generally, shear lag becomes a problem in wide, relatively Shallow, thin-walled beams such as wings
in which the shear distortion of the thin upper and lower surface skins causes redistribution of stress
in the stringers and spar caps while the thicker and shallower spar webs experience little effect. Our
investigation of the shear lag problem will be restricted to idealized six- and eight-boom doubly
symmetrical rectangular section beams subjected to shear loads acting in the plane of symmetry and
in which the axis of twist, the flexural axis and the zero warping axis coincide; the shear loads
therefore produce no twist and hence no warping due to twist.
6. What is a semi tension field beam?
In modern aircraft structures, beams having extremely thin webs are rare. They retain, after
buckling, some of their ability to support loads so that even near failure they are in a state of stress
somewhere between that of pure diagonal tension and the pre-buckling stress. Such a beam is
described as an incomplete diagonal tension field beam or semi tension field beam.
7. What do you understand by monocoque and semi monocoque type of aircraft construction?
The basic functions of an aircraft’s structure are to transmit and resist the applied
Loads; to provide an aerodynamic shape and to protect passengers, payload, systems etc. from the
environmental conditions encountered in flight. These requirements, in most aircraft, result in thin
shell structures where the outer surface or skin of the shell is usually supported by longitudinal
stiffening members and transverse frames to enable it to resist bending, compressive and torsional
loads without buckling. Such structures are known as semi-monocoque, while thin shells which rely
entirely on their skins for their capacity to resist loads are referred to as monocoquc’.
8. Define principal axes of a section.

There exists, in any unsymmetrical cross-section, a centroidal set of axes for which
the product second moment of area is zero. These axes are then principal axes.
9. Define shear flow. How shear stress is obtained from shear flow?
Shear flow q is defined as shear force per unit length
q = τt
Shear stress = τ
Thickness = t
10. List down various structural components in an aircraft wing.

Wings (and tail surfaces) of fixed wing aircraft generally consist of
spars, ribs, skin and stringers
1. Wing root fillet
2. Wing spar fuselage attachment joint
3. Wing tip fairing
4. Graphite epoxy composite wing construction
5. Multi-spar wing construction
6. Wing panel centre rib
7. Port wing Integral fuel tank
8. Port wing reaction control air duct
11. List down various structural components in fuselage.
1. Fuselage frame and stringer construction
2. Rear fuselage fuel tank
3. Nimonic fuselage heat shield
4. Centre fuselage flank fuel tank
5. Fuselage centrellne pylon
6. Forward fuselage flank fuel tank
12. Explain how torque is realized by an aircraft wing.
The majority of aircraft have their main Undercarriage located in the wings, with a nosewheel or tail
wheel in the vertical plane of symmetry. Clearly the position of the main undercarriage should be
such as to produce minimum loads on the wing structure compatible with the stability of the aircraft
during ground manoeuvres. This may be achieved by locating the undercarriage just forward of the
flexural axis of the wing and as close to the wing root as possible. In this case the shock landing load
produces a given shear, minimum bending plus torsion, with the latter being reduced as far as
practicable by offsetting the torque caused by the vertical load in the undercarriage leg by a torque
in an opposite sense due to braking.
13. What is the difference between tension field beam and semi tension field beam?
Tension field beam Semi tension field beam
The spans of aircraft wings usually comprise an In modern aircraft structures, beams having
upper and a lower flange connected by thin extremely thin webs are rare. They retain, after
stiffened webs. These webs are often of such a buckling, some of their ability to support loads
thickness that they buckle under shear stresses so that even near failure they are in a state of
at a fraction of their ultimate load. The form of stress somewhere between that of pure diagonal
the buckle is shown in Fig. 6.24(a), where the tension and the pre-buckling stress. Such a beam
web of the beam buckles under the action of is described as an incomplete diagonal tension
internal diagonal field
compressive stresses produced by shear, leaving beam and may be analysed by semi-empirical
a wrinkled web capable of supporting diagonal theory as follows.
tension only in a direction perpendicular to that
of the buckle; the beam is
then said to be a complete tension field beam.
14. (a) Shear per unit length is shear flow
(b) At the neutral axis bending stress is zero
15. (a) At the neutral axis shear stress is comparatively low
(b) If the beam cross section has either XX or YY has an axis of symmetry where
16. (a) According to Bredt-Batho formula torque(T) is equal to T = 2Aq
(b) Write the expression for single cell twist
The effect of a shear
flow acting on one wall of a cell, e.g. qII applied to the internal web and acting
on cell I, is counteracted by a constant shear flow applied around the complete cell.
Thus
17. (a) The locus of shear center is if a cross-section has an axis of symmetry the
shear centre must, of course, lie on this axis. For cruciform or angle sections of this
type the shear centre is located at the intersection of the sides since the resultant internal shear
loads all pass through these points.
(b) List two functions of an aircraft rib

Stringers rely chiefly on rib attachments for preventing column action in this direction. We
have noted in the pervious paragraph the combined action of stringers and skin in resisting axial and
bending loads.
18. (a) For bending elastic buckling the equation is

Gerard proposes a semi-empirical solutions for flat plates supported on all four edges. After
elastic buckling occurs theory and experiment indicate that the average compressive stress, σa, in
the plate and the unloaded edge stress, σe , are related by the following expression.
(b) Margin of safety (MOS) is equal to Full scale components to verify design estimates
19. State the assumption made in the Bredt-Batho theory
The closed tube is thin prismatic.
Torque is applied on end fixtures.
Warping is freely allowed.
Classical assumptions:
Cell is homogeneous, isotropic & continous
20. Define Neutral axis and give an expression to determine them.
The beam supports bending moments Mx and My and bends about some axis in its cross-
section which is therefore an axis of zero stress or a neutral axis(NA).
σN=0 At the Neutral axes

21. Define Principal axes and give an expression to determine them.
There exists, in any unsymmetrical cross-section, a centroidal set of axes for which the
product second moment of area is zero. This axes are then called Principal axes.
22. Define Shear center and Elastic axis
Shear Center: It is also known as centre of twist. The point in the cross-section of the beam through
which if load acts, there will not ne any twisting of the section but, these will be only bending. In
figure (a) and (b), the load acts via the centeriod, twisting phenomenon may be observed. In figure
(c) and (d) there exists a particular point in the cross-section through which if load acts, there will
not be twisting of beams but only bending takes place such point is called as shear centre.
Elastic axis: Elastic axis is the locus of shear centre along the length of the wing.
Elastic axis of a wing is defined as the axis about which rotation will occur. When the wing is
in pure torsion.
23. Show that for a curved web T = 2Aq.
The torque produced by the shear flow acting on an element δs of the beam wall is pqds.
T = ⌡pq ds
Or since q is constant and ⌡pq ds = 2A T = 2Aq
24. Explain buckling in compression for a plate.

25. In unsymmetrical bending, the neutral axis passes thro the centriod of the cross-section.
(True/False).
26. A rectangular cross-section is subjected to a skew load. Mark the neutral axis and sketch the
bending stress distribution.
27. When does unsymmetrical bending takes place.
28. A beam bends about its neutral axis for both symmetrical and unsymmetrical bending.
(True/False).
29. Explain unsymmetrical bending with examples.
30. Define neutral axis and give expression to determine it.
31. Define principle axis of a section and give an expression to determine it.
32. Draw bending stress variation across the depth for (a) Rectangular section (b) I-section.
33. Distinguish between symmetric and unsymmetric bending.
34. What do you understand by unsymmetrical bending? Explain a method to find the stress in
an unsymmetrical bending
35. Explain the Euler-Bernoulli hypothesis in bending of beams.
36. Bending of a symmetric section subjected to a skew load will be
(symmetric/Unsymmetric).Explain.
PART-B
1. Determine the normal stress at location A and G(refer fig.1)for the following cases of loading:
(i) Vx=1.2 kN acting through shear center.
(ii) Vy=1.2 kN acting through shear center.
Vx and Vy are applied0.8 m away from the indicated cross-section.
2. (i)Derive and obtain an expression for the bending stress in an unsymmetrical section subjected
to bending, using the generalized ‘k’ method (10)
(ii) Explain the neutral axis method of bending stress determination mhen an arbitrary
section is subjected to bending moments Mx and My. (6)
3. The section shown in fig.2 is subjected to bending moment Mx=30kNm.determine the bending
stress at the corner points A, B, C and D.
4. A Z- section with 12 cm x 3 cm flanges and 20 cm x 3 cm web is subjected to Mx=10 kN-m and
My=10 kN-m . Determine the maximum bending stress.
5. A box beam with 50 cm length is subjected to loads Px=8kN and Py=25kN as shown in fig.3. The
stringer area is 3 cm2 each. Find the maximum bending stress.
6. obtain the bending stress values at the points A,B,C and D for the section shown in
fig.4.Compute the stresses using moment values with respect to x and y axis and the principle
axis.
7. Compute the load on the lumped flanges due to bending of the section shown in fig.5.Assume
the web do not take part in bending. Compute the loads using moment values with respect to x
and y axis and principle axis.
8. A beam section shown in fig.6.has four stringers. Area of the stringers A, B, C and D are 6.25,
3.125, 4.5 and 6sq.cm respectively. Find the stresses in all the four stringers of the section due to
Mx=50kNm and My=-20kNm where x and y are the centriodal axes. Assume that webs and walls
are ineffective in bending.
9. Refer fig.7.The section is subjected to an 8 kNm bending moment in the x-z plane and a 10 kNm
bending in the y-z plane. Determine the bending stresses in all the corner points, indicating
whether they are tensile or compressive.
10. Determine the bending stresses in the stringer of the section shown in fig.8 .E1= 70GPa ,
E2=210GPa and E3=100GPa.stringer areas are 2 cm2
11. A C-section beam of length 50 cm is subjected to loads Px=100N .the C-section
dimensions are (i) Flanges- 25 cm x3 cm (ii)web 30cm x 3cm.
12.
UNIT – II
SHEAR FLOW IN OPEN SECTIONS
PART – A
1. Shear flow can be defined for both thin and thick walled section (true/false)
2. Sketch the shear flow distribution when a thin walled L-section is subjected to a vertical
load.
3. Define shear center and elastic axis.
4. Define shear flow .How the shear stress is obtained from the shear flow?
5. Indicate the shear center for channel section and angle section.
6. Draw shear flow diagram for I section and Channel section.
PART – B
1. Derive and obtain an expression for shear flow due to bending in the case of an arbitrary
thin walled open section subjected to bending. How to modify the results you obtained for
the case of closed section.
2. Plot the shear flow and locate the shear center for the section shown in fig.9.
3. Plot the shear flow and locate the shear center for the section shown in fig.10.
4. Find the shear flow for the section shown in fig.11.The Area of the each stringer =6 cm2.the
loads are Sx=10kN and Sy=50kN through the shear center .Also find the Shear center
5. Find the shear center of the section shown in fig.12.Area a=b=4 cm2 and c=d=2 cm2
6. Find the shear flow distribution and locate the shear center for the section shown in
fig.13.Each of the stringers has an area of 4 cm2 and the section subjected to vertical shear
of 50 kN.
7. Find the shear flow distribution in a thin walled Z-section, whose thickness is‘t’, height’h’.
Flange width ‘h/2’ and subjected to vertical shear load through shear center.
8. (i) Show that the sum of the moment of inertia about any two orthogonal axes is invariant
with respect to any other two orthogonal axes. (6)
(ii)Obtain the shear flow distribution and shear center location for the section in fig.14.When
it is subjected to a shear load of 5 kN. (10)
9. Determine the shear center location for the section shown in fig.15. All the webs are
ineffective in bending.
10. Locate the shear center for the section shown in fog.16.Plot the shear stress distribution
when a vertical shear load of 1.2kNacts through the shear center.
PART B
1. (i) Derive an expression for shear flow of an open tube of arbitrary cross-section subjected
to shear loads Sx and Sy without twist. (12)
(ii) Modify the above expression for a closed tube. (6)
2. Find the bending stress distribution in a thin walled Z-section, whose thickness is t,
height h, flange width h/2 and subjected to a positive bending moment Mx.
3. Find the shear flow distribution and shear center for a thin walled channel section of
thickness of thickness 3 mm, flange width 5 cm, web height 10 cm and subjected to a vertical
load of 5 kN through the shear center.
4.Find shear flow of the open section shown in fig. Area of each stringer= 6cm2. The loads
are Sx=10 kN and Sy=50 kN acting through the shear center.
6. Find the shear flow for the closed tube shown in the fig.
7.Find the shear flow and twist per unit length of the two cell tube made of aluminium as
shown in the fig. and subjected to a Torque 75000 N-cm.
8. (i)Differentiate between buckling and crippling and explain any one method to determine
crippling strength. (10)
(ii) Explain Wagner beam. (6)
9.Explain lift load distribution, structural load distribution on a cantilever wing and draw
the shear force and bending moment diagrams.
10. (i) Derive the expression for the shear flow in thin walled single cell subjected to
torque load.
(ii) Obtain the shear flow for the thin walled structure shown in the Fig
11. Obtain the bending stress values at the points A, B, C and D for the section shown in Fig.
Compute the stresses using moment values with respect to x and y axes and principal axes.
(b) Compute the load on the lumped flanges due to bending of the section shown in Fig
Assume the webs do not take part in bending. Compute the loads using moments values
with respect to x and y axes and principal axes.
12. (a) Find the shear flow distribution and locate the shear center for the section shown in
Fig Each of the stringers has an area of 4 cm2 and the section is subjected vertical shear of 50
kN.
13. The section shown in Fig is subjected to vertical shear of 60 kN applied through shear
center. Obtain the shear flow for the section. Areas of all the stringers are same and is equal
to 7 cm2.
14. Obtain the shear flow for the box beam shown in Fig A1=A5 =25cm2,
A2=A3=A6=A7=7cm2 and A4=A8=12cm2.
15. A multicell structure shown in Fig. is subjected to a clockwise torque of 1000 N-m.
Compute the shear flow in the cell structure and the associated twist.
16. (i) Derive the expression for buckling stress for a thin plate under compression.
(ii) Obtain the critical load for the composite section shown in Fig Effective width is
150 cm. E=200 Gpa.
17. Write short notes on any TWO of the following:

(i) Definition and analysis of monocoque and semimonocoque structures.
(ii) Idealisation and analysis of aircraft wing structure.
(iii) Idealisation and analysis of aircraft fuselage.
18. Obtain the shear flow around a three cell box beam Fig when it is subjected to a torque of
T=100 kNm The thickness of vertical members, horizontal members and semicircle are 1.25,
0.75 and 0.6 cm respectively.
19. (a) (i) Does the shear center always lies outside for the open section? Explain
(ii) Obtain the shear flow and shear center location for the channel section subjected to a
vertical shear load of 5 kN. The height of the vertical web is 50 mm and width of flanges is
25mm. Thickness of the flanges and the web is 1.5 mm.
20. Obtain the shear flow distribution for the closed section shown in Fig. Each stringer area
is 6.5 cm2.
21. (i) What is a rib? How does it transfer the load?
(ii) Determine the load distribution in all the members of the rib shown in Fig.
22. A fuselage bulkhead of 1m radius, has 12 stringers equally placed around the section
starting from top point. Each stringer area is 6.25cm2. The bulk head is subjected to a
symmetrical vertical shear load of 10 kN. Find the shear flow around the bulk head.
23 (i) Show that the sum of the moment of inertia about any two orthogonal axes is invariant
with respect to any other two orthogonal axes.
(ii) Obtain the shear flow distribution and shear center location for the section shown in
Fig. when it is subjected to a shear load of 5 kN.
24. A beam section shown in Fig has four stringers. The area of the stringers A,B,C and D are
6.25, 3.125,4.5 and 6 sq.cm. respectively. Find the stresses in all the four stringers of the
section due Mx=-20 kNm where x and y are the centroidal axes. Assume that webs and walls
are ineffective in bending.
25. (i) Clearly bring out the difference between shear resistance beams and tension field
beams. (6)
(ii) Find the crippling load for an angle section of aluminium alloy, 50mmx25x1mm.
(10)
(i) Formed and extruded section
(ii) Gerard method of finding crippling stress
(iii) Energy theorems in structural analysis.
27. Find the shear flow distribution and locate the shear center for the section shown in Fig
Each of the stringers has an area of 4 cm2 and the section is subjected vertical shear of 50 kN.
28..Obtain the shear flow around a three cell box beam Fig when it is subjected to a torque of
T =100 kNm The thickness of vertical members, horizontal members and semicircle are
1.25,0.75, and 0.6 cm respectively.
29. (i) Does the shear center always lies outside for the open section? Explain.
(ii) Obtain the shear flow and shear center location for the channel section subjected to a
vertical shear load of 5 kN. The height of the vertical web is 50 mm and width of flanges is
25 mm. Thickness of the flanges and the web is 1.5mm.
30. Obtain the shear flow distribution for the closed section shown in Fig Each stringer area
is 6.5 cm2.
31.(a) (i) What is rib? How does it transfer the load?

(ii) Determine the load distribution in all the members of the rib shown in
AE 8503
Aerodynamics - II
UNIT – I
ONE DIMENSIONAL COMPRESSIBLE FLOW

PART - A
1. What is meant by Supersonic flow?

If the flow speed is more than a speed of sound wave, then the flow is called as a supersonic
flow.
2. What do you understand by the term Gas Dynamics?

Gas dynamics, gives the theory and details of the behavior of the air when the change in
temperature and compressibility is important.
3. Differentiate between compressible and incompressible flow

Depend upon the behavior of the Density of the fluid; the flow is treated as incompressible
and compressible. If ∆ρ/ρi≤.0.05 or M≤0.3, compressibility can be neglected and the flow is
incompressible.
4. Write the Bernoulli‟s equation for incompressible flow.

p+1/2 ρv2= pstag= constant
Where p-static pressure pstag-stagnation pressure
ρ-density of the fluid
v-velocity of the flow
5. Write the adiabatic relation between temperature, pressure and density.

T/T1= (p/p1) γ-1= (ρ/ρ1) (γ-1)/γ
6. What is meant by Mach angle?

The angle between the Mach line, where the pressure disturbance is concentrated and the
direction of motion of the body is called Mach angle µ.
sinµ= 1/M
7. Draw the propagation of disturbance waves for subsonic and supersonic condition.
8. Draw the flow around a wedge for subsonic and supersonic flow.
9. What is meant by Mach cone?
When the object is moving in the flow field with the supersonic speed, it acts as a source of the
pressure disturbance
Waves .This phenomena creates a well defined a conical zone in the flow field with the object
located at the nose of the cone. This s called Mach cone and the stream lines deviate at the Mach
cone.
10. Define (i) Zone of action (ii) Zone of silence (iii) Mach Waves (or) Mach lines.
i. The region inside the Mach cone is called as Zone of Action.
ii. The region outside the Mach cone is called as Zone of Silence.
iii. The line at which the pressure disturbance is concentrated and which generate the cone is
called Mach lines or Mach waves.
11. Classify the flow regimes in terms of Mach number.
(i) 0<M<0.8 -subsonic flow
(ii) 0.8<M<1.2 -transonic flow
(iii)1.2<M<5 -supersonic flow
(iv) M>5 -Hypersonic flow
12. What is meant by Transonic and supersonic flow?
0.8<M<1.2-transonic flow
1.2<M<5 -supersonic flow
13. State the First Law of Thermodynamics.

Heat added minus work done by the system equals the change in the internal energy of the
system.
` δQ-δW=dU
14. Define (i) Adiabatic process (ii) Reversible process (iii) Isentropic process
(i) Adiabatic process: A process in which no heat is added to or taken away from the system.
(ii) Reversible process: A process which can be reversed without leaving any trace on the
surrounding, i.e., both the system and the surroundings are returned to their initial states at the end
of the reverse process.
(iii) Isentropic process: A process which is adiabatic and reversible.
15. What is meant by System and Surrounding?

A system has a definite boundary through which there is no mass transfer taking place other
than Work transfer and Heat transfer.
16. Differentiate between open system and closed system.

(i) The mass which enters or leaves an open system has kinetic energy where as there is no
mass transfer possible across closed system boundaries.
(ii) The mass can enter and leave the open systems at different levels of potential energy.
(iii)Open systems are able to deliver continuous work, because the medium which transforms
energy is continuously replaced. This useful work, which the machine continuously
delivers, is called the shaft work.
17. State the Second Law of Thermodynamics.
18. Define Thermal and calorical properties.
19. What are the limitations of air consider as perfect gas.
20. What is meant by barotropic fluids?
21. How velocity of the flow varies in convergent and divergent ducts for subsonic and supersonic
condition.
22. What is meant by „De Laval Nozzle‟?
23. Write the Area Mach number relation?
24. Define the following terms:
(i) Static pressure (ii) Dynamic pressure (iii) Total pressure (iv) Pitot pressure (v) Geometric
pressure.
25. Define Pressure Coefficient.
26. Write the Bernoulli‟s equation for compressible flow.
PART - B
1. Derive the fundamental equation for compressible flow.

2. Explain Quasi-one dimensional flow and area velocity relation.
3. Define De Laval Nozzle and derive the Area Mach number relation.
4. With neat sketch briefly explain the flow in a Convergent-divergent nozzle.
5. Write short notes on
6. Pitot Pressure Probe (ii) Static Pressure Probe (iii) Pitot – static probe.
7. Derive the expression for Pressure coefficient with and without compressibility correction.
8. For an aircraft flying at a speed of 1000kmph, find the variation of speed of sound a, and Mach
number M, with sea level and 11km altitude.
9. During a flight, a fighter aircraft attains its cruise speed of 600 m/s at 10km altitude after taking
off at 150 m/s from sea level. Assuming the speed to have increased linearly with altitude
during the climb, compute the Mach number variation with altitude.
10. A fighter aircraft attains its maximum speed of 2160 kmph at an altitude of 12 km. The take-
off speed at sea level is 270 kmph. If the flight speed increases linearly with altitude, compute
the variation of stagnation temperature with altitude for a climb up to the maximum speed.
11. Air flows through a duct. The pressure and temperature at station 1 are P1 = 0.7 atm and T1 =
300C, respectively. At a second station, the pressure is 0.5 atm. Calculate the temperature and
density at the second station. Assume the flow to be isentropic.
12. Air is allowed to expand from an initial state A (where PA = 2.068 x 105 N/m2 and TA = 333K)
to state B (where PB = 1.034 x 105 N/m2 and TB = 305 K). Calculate the change in the specific
entropy of the air, and show that the change in entropy is the same for (a) an isobaric process
from A to some intermediate state C followed by an isovolumetric change from C to B, and (b)
an isothermal change from A to some intermediate state D followed by an isentropic change
from D to B.
13. A storage chamber of a compressor is maintained at 1.8 atmospheres absolute and 200C. The
surrounding ambient pressure is 1 atm. Calculate (a) the velocity with which airflow will take
place from the chamber to the outside through a unit area hole, (b) the mass flow rate per unit
area. Assume air as a perfect gas.
14. A ramjet flies at 11 km altitude with a flight mach number of 0.9. In the inlet diffuser, the air is
brought to the stagnation condition so that it is stationary just before the combustion chamber.
Combustion takes place at constant pressure and a temperature increase of 15000C results. The
combustion products are then ejected through the nozzle. (a) Calculate the stagnation pressure
and temperature. (b) What will be the nozzle exit velocity? ( At inlet P = 0.3 atm and T =
213 K, at exit Pexit = 0.3 atm).
15. A De Laval Nozzle has to be designed for an exit Mach number of 1.5 with exit diameter of
200mm. Find the ratio of throat area to exit area necessary. The reservoir conditions are given
as P0 = 1 atm; T0 = 200C. Find also the maximum mass flow rate through the nozzle. What will
be the exit pressure and temperature?
UNIT – II
NORMAL, OBLIQUE SHOCKS
PART - A
1. What is meant by Normal Shock?

2. Write the shock relation of the perfect gas?
3. Write the Hugoniot equation and explain each terms involved in it.
4. Define (i) Wave Motion (ii) Wave Speed (iii) Plane waves
5. What is meant by shock tube?
6. What are the applications of shock tube?
7. Define Oblique shock?
8. Differentiate between shock wave and expansion wave.
9. Draw the flow pattern of supersonic flow over corners.
10. Define Shock angle ( ) and Flow deflection angle ( ).
11. Write the relation between Shock angle ( ) and Flow deflection angle ( ).
12. What is meant by Shock Polar?
13. Define Sonic circle.
14. What is meant by Detached shock?
15. Define Mach Reflection.
16. Write the Prandtl relation of Normal shock wave.
17. Define Hodograph Plane.
18. Draw the shock polar for different Mach numbers.
19. What is meant by Reflection and Intersection of Shocks and Expansion waves?
20. Define Simple and Non-simple regions.
21. Distinguish between Like and Unlike reflection of shock wave.
22. What is meant by Diamond wave pattern in Supersonic nozzle?
23. Define Prandtl – Meyer Expansion
24. Define Wave Drag.
PART - B
16. i) Derive the equation of motion for a Normal shock wave.

(ii) Derive the Prandtl Normal Shock relation for a Perfect gas.
17. Derive the Hugoniot equation and explain the Hugoniot Curve.
18. Briefly explain the Shock tube and its applications.
19. Derive the Relation between Shock angle ( ) and Flow deflection angle ( ).
20. Briefly explain the Shock Polar.
21. Briefly explain the functions of Pitot static tube and list out the corrections needed for subsonic
and supersonic flows.
22. How Oblique shock forms? And explain its properties in detail.
23. Briefly explain the characteristic of flow over wedges and concave corners.
24. Briefly explain the features of two dimensional supersonic nozzle contours.
(i) Weak and detached shocks
(ii) Rayleigh Flow
(iii) Fanno flow
26. Briefly explain the Reflection and Intersection of Shock wave and Expansion wave.
27. With neat sketches explain the Supersonic shock expansion theory.
28. The flow Mach number, pressure, and temperature ahead of a normal shock are given as 2.0,
0.5 atm and 300 K respectively. Determine M2, P2 , T2, and V2 behind the wave.
29. A re-entry vehicle (RV) is at an altitude of 15,000 m and has a velocity of 1850 m/s. A bow
shock wave envelops the RV. Neglecting dissociation, determine the stagnation pressure and
temperature just behind the shock wave on the RV center line where the shock wave may be
treated as normal shock.. Assume that the air behaves as perfect gas, with = 1.4 and R = 287
J/kg-K.
30. A normal shock moves in a constant area tube as shown in figure. In region 1, V1 = 100 m/s, T1
= 300C and P1 = 0.7 atm. Shock speed CS with respect to a fixed coordinate system is 600 m/s.
Find fluid properties in region 2.
V2 2 1 V1
CS
P 2 T2 P1 T1
31. Write short notes on
(i) Supersonic flow over a wedge
(ii) Weak Oblique shocks
(iii) Supersonic Compression
(iv) Supersonic Expansion by Turning
UNIT – III
EXPANSION WAVES, RAYLEIGH AND FANNO FLOW
PART - A
1. Write the Prandtl Glauret Rule.

2. Write the Geothert‟s Rule.
3. Define Mach waves.
4. Define Mach angles.
5. What is perturbation potential function?
6. How is flow over a cone different from flow over a wedge?
7. Write down the critical pressure coefficient from the Prandtl-Glauret rule.
8. What are the assumptions of small perturbation potential theory?
9. What is meant by linearised two-dimensional supersonic theory?
10. What are the assumptions used in linearised two-dimensional supersonic theory?
11. What are the practical application of Prandtl-Glauert Rule?
12. What is importance of the Geotherts rule?
13. List out the practical application of linearised two-dimensional supersonic theory.
14. Explain how lift and drag produced in supersonic profiles.
15. Define center of pressure.
16. Draw the pithching moment curve for supersonic profiles.
17. How pithching moment and center of pressure varies with angle of attack for a
supersonic profile?
18. Draw the various supersonic profiles.
19. How lift and drag varies with angle of attack for a supersonic profile?
PART - B
32. Derive the linearised small perturbation potential theory.

33. Write short notes on.
(i) Mach waves
(ii) Mach angles
(iii) Solutions for Supersonic flows.
Derive the Linearised two-dimensional supersonic flow theory.
Derive the Prandtl Glauret affine transformation relations for subsonic flows.
36. Briefly explain the lift, drag, pitching momemt and center of pressure of supersonic profiles.
(i) Shock Expansion method
(ii) Small perturbation equation for compressible flows
38. (i) Explain with a neat sketches, swept wing, swing wing and Ogee planform (8)
(ii) What is a critical Mach number and explain from P-G rule (Prandtl Glauert) (8)
39. (i) What is the main application of small pertubation equation for compressible flows? Given
an example with a neat sketch. (8)
(ii) Explain Prandtl-Glauert compressibility correction for compressible flows. What are the
other methods for compressibility correction? (8)
(iii) What is Area Rule? (8)
UNIT – IV
DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS OF MOTION FOR
STEADY COMPRESSIBLE FLOWS
PART - A
1. State Supersonic area rule.

2. Explain how supersonic airfoil profiles are fundamentally different from subsonic
airfoil profiles
3. Define Critical Mach number.
4. Distinguish between Lower Critical Mach number and Upper Critical Mach number.
5. What is meant by lift and drag divergence?
6. What is the cause of the Lift and drag divergence over airfoil in high speed flows?
7. What is meant by shock induced separation?
8. List out the characteristics of swept wings?
9. What is the effect of thickness over the performance of wings?
10. What is the effect of camber over the performance of wings?
11. Define Aspect ratio.
12. What is the effect of aspect ratio over the performance of wings?
13. What is meant by Transonic area rule?
14. What is meant by Sonic barrier?
15. Why drag increases drastically over sonic speed?
16. How the drag coefficient (CD) varies with Mach number (M)?
17. What is meant by tip effects?
18. Name some transonic area ruled aircraft.
PART - B
1. Explain the rules, wing fuselage combinations designs for the Transonic
configurations and supersonic configurations.
2. Briefly explain the characteristics features of the lower critical mach number and
upper critical mach number.
3. Explain in detail about lift and drag divergence.
4. Explain with neat sketch about the shock induced separation.
5. Briefly explain the characteristics features of swept wings.
6. Briefly explain the effects of thickness, camber and aspect ratio over the performance
of wings in high speed flows.
7. Briefly explain the need and characteristic features of Transonic area rule.
8. Explain the following;
(iii) Disadvantages of Swept wings
(iv) Delta wing
UNIT – V
TRANSONIC FLOW OVER WING
PART - A
1. What are the principles of model testing?

2. What are the salient features of Hypersonic wind tunnels?
3. What is a wind tunnel and classify the wind tunnels?
4. What instruments are used to measure the fluctuating pressures on the models?
5. What are the characteristic features of Hypersonic wind tunnels?
6. What is shock tube and what is its application?
7. What is meant by Blow down tunnel?
8. Distinguish between indraft and induction tunnel?
9. What are the components on the Transonic wind tunnel?
10. List out the calibration carried out in the Transonic wind tunnel.
11. What are the components on the supersonic wind tunnel?
12. List out the calibration carried out in the supersonic wind tunnel.
13. What are the components on the hypersonic wind tunnel?
14. List out the calibration carried out in the hypersonic wind tunnel.
15. What is meant by helium tunnels?
16. What is meant by gun tunnel?
17. What are the applications of gun tunnels?
18. What is meant by Shock tube?
19. What are the applications of Shock tube?
20. What is meant by flow visualizations?
21. What are the data we can get from the flow visualization?
22. List out the various flow visualization methods.
23. What are the optical flow visualization methods?
24. Draw the shadowgraph flow visualization setup?
25. Draw the Schlieren flow visualization setup?
PART - B
9. Explain the Hypersonic wind tunnel (Helium) with sketches.

10. (i) Sketch a typical shock tunnel and explain its principle of operation. What are the
advantages and limitations of shock tunnel? (8)
(ii) Explain how measurements of pressure, velocity and Mach number can be done in a
supersonic wind tunnel. (8)
50. Draw a neat sketch of a supersonic wind tunnel circuit and explain the function of each
component.
51. Draw a neat sketch of a transonic wind tunnel circuit and explain the function of each
component.
52. Draw a neat sketch of a hypersonic wind tunnel circuit and explain the function of each
component.
53. Briefly explain the Blow down, indraft and induction tunnel layouts and their design features.
54. Explain in detail about the various calibration of supersonic wind tunnel.
55. Explain in detail about the various calibration of transonic wind tunnel.
56. Explain in detail about the various calibration of hypersonic wind tunnel.
57. Briefly explain the Helium and gun tunnels and its applications.
58. What is meant by „Shock tube‟? Explain in detail its working principle and characteristics and
list out its application.
59. Briefly explain the various optical methods of flow visualization.
AE 8504
Propulsion -II
UNIT – I
AIRCRAFT GAS TURBINES
PART - A
1) What are the differences between air-breathing and Rocket engine?
Air- breathing Engine Rocket engine
Altitude limitation No altitude limitation
Rate of climb decreases with altitude Rate of climb increases with altitude
Thrust decreases with altitude Thrust increases slightly with altitude
Engine ram drag increases with flight Engine has no ram drag; constant thrust
speed. with speed.
2) What are the factors to be considered in design of a turbine?

a) Shaft rotational speed
b) Gas flow rate
c) Inlet and outlet temperatures
d) Inlet and outlet pressures
e) Exhaust velocity
f) Power output required.
3) Differentiate between impulse stage and reaction stage turbines
Impulse stage Reaction stage
Expansion of the gas occurs only in the Expansion takes place both in stator and
stator nozzles. rotor.
The rotor blades act as directional vanes Rotor converts the kinetic energy of the
to deflect the direction of the flow. gas into work and contributes a reaction
force on the rotor blades.
The relative discharge velocity of the rotor The relative discharge velocity of the rotor
is the same as the relative inlet velocity increases and the pressure decreases in
because there is no net change in the passages between rotor blades.
pressure between the rotor inlet and
rotor exit
4) Define match point.
The match point is defined as the steady-state operating point for a gas turbine when the
compressor and turbine are balanced in rotor speed, power, and flow, the operating points at
the various power settings defining the operating line for the given engine configuration.
5) Define total-to-total efficiency and state when it is appropriate to use this efficiency.
Total-to-total efficiency is the ratio of the actual work done to the ideal work done
corresponding to total inlet and total exit conditions.
T01 T03 h01 h03

tt
T01 T03'' h01 h03''
For turbojet engines, where the exhaust energy is not a loss because the gases are accelerated
to a high velocity for propulsive thrust generation, total-to-total efficiency is used.
6) Define degree of reaction for a turbomachine stage.

The degree of reaction of a turbomachine stage may be defined as the ratio of the static or
pressure head change occurring in the rotor to the total change across the stage.
7) What are the materials suitable for use in turbine blades?

Steel , titanium alloys and nickel based alloys are mainly used, have varying proportions of
chromium and aluminium to improve the strength and corrosion resistance at high
temperatures.
8) What are the different methods of blade cooling?

1) Internal air cooling
a) Hollow blade, with or without inserts
b) Solid blade with radial holes, with or without inserts
2) External air cooling
a) Film cooling
b) Transpiration or effusion cooling
c) Root cooling
3) Internal Liquid cooling
a) Forced convection cooling
b) Free convection cooling
c) Evaporative cooling
4) External liquid cooling
a) Sweat cooling using porous blades
b) Spray cooling
9) What are the limiting factors in gas turbine design?
Stress considerations , Operating temperatures, Blade fixing, Degree of reaction, Mach number,
Outlet flow and Vibrations are some of the limiting factors.
10) What is a free vortex flow ?

A flow in which the whirl or tangential velocity varies inversely with the radius is called as the
free vortex flow.
11) What is the function of a turbine ?

A part of the kinetic energy of the expanding gases is extracted by the turbine section, and this
energy is transformed into shaft horsepower which is used to drive the compressor and
accessories.
12) State the advantages of radial flow turbine.

a) Ruggedness and simplicity
b) Relatively inexpensive and easy to manufacture when compared to the axial-
flow turbine
13) Define work ratio.
It is defined as the ratio of actual total head temperature drop to the isentropic
temperature drop from the total head inlet to static outlet pressure, and is given by
T01 T03
Work _ ratio
T01 T3''
14) What are the three main sources of rotor blade stress.
1) Centrifugal tensile stress

2) The gas bending stress
3) Centrifugal bending stress when the centroid of the blade cross sections at different radii
does not lie on a radial line
15) What are the conditions used to determine the steady state engine performance?
1) Continuity of flow and

2) Power balance.
UNIT – II
RAMJET PROPULSION
PART - A
1) What are the advantages of a ramjet engine ?

1) The major advantages of the ramjet engine are low weight, high thrust to weight ratio,
practically no moving pars, and a large thrust percent of frontal area make it an attractive
engine for satisfying the demand for a relatively low cost air breathing engine having the
capability of propelling a missile at supersonic speeds with reasonable fuel consumption.
2) The ramjet engine can be operated with a higher maximum temperature in its
thermodynamic cycles.
2) What are the disadvantages of a ramjet engine ?

The most serious disadvantage of the ramjet engine, from a general utilization stand
point, is its inability to develop thrust at zero flight speed, so that it must be boosted or launched
to a high enough flight speed to become self-sustaining.
3) What are the three distinct operating condition of a ramjet engine ?

a) Critical operation
b) Super-critical operation
c) Sub-critical operation
4) What is critical operation for a ramjet engine?

When the heat released by the burner is of such a magnitude that the back pressure at
the exit to the subsonic diffuser causes the normal shock to be positioned at the inlet, then the
operation is said to be critical.
5) What is Super-critical operation for a ramjet engine?

When the heat released by the burner cause the back pressure on the exit section of the
diffuser to become too small for maintaining the normal shock at the inlet, then the operation is
said to be super-critical.
6) What is Sub- critical operation for a ramjet engine ?
If the heat released due to combustion is such that it causes the static pressure at the exit
section of the subsonic diffuser to exceed the static pressure which can be accomplished by the
diffusion system, then the flow becomes choked and the normal shock wave is expelled from the
diffuser and moves upstream toward the vertex of the conical centre body.
7) What are the main objectives of a burner ?

1) To obtain satisfactory combustion of the range of fuel-air ratios required for operating the
engine over its flight speed and altitude ranges.
2) To achieve a high combustion efficiency under all operating conditions, especially at the
design cruise condition.
3) To effect item 1 & 2 with the smallest possible drop of pressure in the combustion chamber
,and
4) To obtain the largest possible heat release and combustion temperature.
8) What are the factors affecting combustion process in a ramjet?

1) The burner geometry or configuration;
2) The physical and chemical characteristics of the fuel
3) The fuel air ratio
4) The velocity of the working fluid (air and fuel) entering the burner section
9) Name the factors to consider while selecting the fuel for ramjet engine.
1) The calorific value per unit volume
2) Calorific value per pound of air
3) The case with which it can be ignited
4) Physical properties.
5) Storage ability
6) Toxicity
UNIT – III
FUNDAMENTALS OF ROCKET PROPULSION
PART - A
1) What is an integral ram rocket?

A ducted rocket, some times called as an air-augmented rocket, combines the principles of
rocket and ramjet engines, it gives higher performance (specific impulse) than a chemical rocket
engine, while operating within the earth’s atmosphere. Usually the term air-augmented rocket
denotes mixing of air with the rocket exhaust (full-rich for after burning) in proportions that
enabled the propulsion device to retain the characteristics of the rocket engine, for example,
high static thrust and high thrust to weight ratio.
2) What is a rocket motor ?

A rocket motor is a device for converting the thermo chemical energy of one or more propellants
into exhaust jet kinetic energy.
3) Explain Under and Over expanded nozzles.

An under expanded nozzle discharges the fluid at an exit pressure greater than external pressure
because the exit area is too small for an optimum area ratio. The expansion of the fluid is there fore
incomplete within the nozzle and must take place outside. The nozzle exit pressure is higher than
the local atmospheric pressure. In an over expanded nozzle, the fluid attains a lower exit pressure
than the atmosphere as it has an exit area too large for optimum area ratio.
4) Explain linear aerospike nozzles.

The linear aero spike is an altitude compensation nozzle with a variation of the round
axisymmetric aero spike nozzle axis. The flow is turned on a curved contour outer diverging
nozzle wall. The nozzle has been shortened and has some internal oblique shock wave losses.
The hot gas flow leaving the chamber expands around a central plug.
5) What are the advantages and disadvantages of using multiple nozzles?

If a single large nozzle is replaced by a cluster of smaller nozzles (all the same cumulative thrust),
then it is possible to reduce the nozzle length. Similarly, if several replace a single large thrust
chamber of a liquid engine smaller thrust chambers, the nozzle length will be shorter, reducing
the vehicle length and thus the vehicle structure and inert mass.
The vehicle diameter at the cluster nozzle exit is somewhat larger, the vehicle drag is
somewhat higher, and there is additional engine complexity and engine mass.
6) Define effective exhaust velocity.
The effective exhaust velocity ‘c’ is the average equivalent velocity at which propellant is ejected
from the vehicle.
It is given in meters per second or feet per second.
7) Define specific impulse.

The thrust per kg of air flow is known as specific thrust or specific impulse. This specific impulse
is a criterion of the size of engine required for producing a given total thrust.
8) Define specific propellant consumption.

The specific propellant consumption is the reciprocal of the specific impulse. It is defined as the
required propellant weight flow to produce a unit of thrust force in an equivalent rocket.
9) Define mass ratio.

The mass ratio of a vehicle or a particular vehicle stage is defined to be the final mass after
rocket operation, after propellants were consumed, divided by the initial mass before rocket
operation.
10) Define impulse-to-weight ratio.

The impulse to weight ratio of a complete propulsion system is defined as the total impulse
divided by the initial vehicle weight or loaded vehicle weight. A high value indicates an efficient
design.
11) Explain the two types of thrust.

The thrust acting on a vehicle is composed of two terms. The first term, the momentum thrust is
the product of the propellant mass flow rate and exhaust velocity relative to the vehicle. The
second term, the pressure thrust consists of the product of the cross-sectional area of the
exhaust jet leaving the vehicle and the difference between the exhaust pressure and the fluid
pressure.
UNIT – IV
CHEMICAL ROCKETS
PART - A
1 ) Define grain configuration.
The shape or geometry of the initial burning surfaces of a grain as it is intended to operate in a
motor.
2) What is a cylindrical grain?
A grain in which the internal cross section is constant along the axis regardless of perforation shape.
3) What is Neutral Burning?
Motor burn time during which thrust, pressure, and burning surface area remain approximately
constant, typically within about ±15%. Many grains undergo neutral burning.
4) What are perforations?
The central cavity port or flow passage of a propellant grain; its cross section may be a cylinder, a
star shape, etc.
5) Define progressive and regressive burning.
Burn time during which thrust, pressure, and burning surface area increases is called progressive
burning
Burn time during which thrust, pressure, and burning surface area decrease is called regressive
burning.
6) What is a Silver in grain terminology?
Unburned propellant remaining (or lost—that is, expelled through the nozzle) at the time of web
burnout is known as silver.
7) Define burning time and action time.
Burning time, Or Effective Burning Time, tb is the interval from 10% maximum initial pressure (or
thrust) to web burnout, with web burnout usually taken as the aft tangent-bisector point on the
pressure-time trace.
Action Time, ta is the burning time plus most of the time to burn silvers; typically, the interval
between the initial and final 10% pressure (or thrust) points on the pressure-time trace.
8) What is an Inhibitor?
A layer or coating of slow or non burning material (usually, a polymeric rubber type with filler
materials) applied (glued, painted, dipped, or sprayed) to a part of the grain’s propellant surface to
prevent burning on that surface. By preventing burning on inhibited surfaces the initial burning area
can be controlled and reduced. Also called restrictor.
9) What is a Liner in grain terminology?
A sticky non-self-burning thin layer of polymeric-type material that is applied to the cases prior to
casting the propellant n order to promote good bonding between the propellant and the case or the
insulator. It also allows some axial motion between the grain periphery and the case.
10) What is an Internal Insulator?
An internal layer between the case and the propellant grain made of an adhesive, thermally
insulating material that will not burn readily. Its purpose is to limit the heat transfer to the
temperature rise of the case during rocket operation.
11) Define Volumetric loading fraction.
Volumetric Loading Fraction, Vf: is the ratio of propellant volume Vb to the chamber volume Vc
(excluding nozzle) available for propellant, insulation, and restrictors
Vb = m/p: Vf = Vb / Vc = It / (Is ρbg0 Vc)
Where It is the total impulse, Is the specific impulse, and ρb the propellant density.
UNIT – V
ADVANCED PROPULSION TECHNIQUES
PART - A
1) Define propellant mixture ratio for a bi-propellant.
The propellant mixture ratio for a bipropellant is the ratio at which the oxidizer and fuel are
mixed and react to give hot gases. The mixture ratio r is defined as
mo Oxidizer massflow rate

Mixture ratio, r
mf Fuel mass flow rate
2) Mention some of the factors to be considered in selecting a liquid propellant.
1) Heat of combustion
2) Reaction rate
3) Average propellant density
4) Stability
5) Vapor pressure
6) Freezing point
7) Ignitability
8) Viscosity.
9) Specific Heat
10) Thermal Conductivity
3) What is the function of injectors.
The injector has to introduce and meter the flow of the liquid propellant to the combustion
chamber, cause the liquids to be broken up into small droplets (a process called
atomization),and mix the propellant in such a manner that the correctly proportionate mixture
of fuel and oxidizer will result , with uniform propellant mass flow and composition over the
chamber cross section.
4) What is TVC ?
Thrust vector control (TVC) is the internal change of direction of the thrust vector with respect to
the symmetry axis of the rocket. By changing the direction of the thrust vector, a control
moment about a lateral axis of the rocket can be generated.
5) What are the advantages and disadvantages of solid propellant rocket.
Advantages
1. Simple design (few or no moving parts).

2. Easy to operate (little preflight checkout).
3. Ready to operate quickly.
4. Will not leak, spill or slosh.
5. Thrust termination devices permits control over total impulse.
Disadvantages
1. Explosion and fire potential is large, failure can be catastrophic; most cannot accept bullet
impact or being dropped on to a hard surface.
2. Many require environmental permit and safety features for transport on public conveyances.
3. If designed for reuse, it requires extensive factory rework and new propellants.
4. Requires an ignition system.
5. Each restart requires a separate ignition system and additional insulation
6) State the advantages and disadvantages of liquid propellant rocket.
Advantages
1. Highest specific impulse; for a fixed propellant mass

2. Can be largely checked out just prior to operation. Can be tested at full thrust on ground or
launch pad prior to flight.
3. Can be designed for reuse after field services and checkout.
4. Thrust chamber (or some part of the vehicle) can be cooled and made light weight.
5. Most propellants have nontoxic exhaust, which is environmentally acceptable
Disadvantages
1. Relatively complex design

2. Tanks need to be pressurized by a separate pressurization subsystem. This can require high
pressure inert gas storage (2000 to 10000 psi) for long periods of time.
3. More difficult to control combustion instability.
4. Usually requires more volume due to lower average propellant density and the relatively
inefficient packaging of engine components.
7) What is the principle of arc jet ?
. Propellant is heated to high temperature in an electric arc and then expanded in a conventional
nozzle. The high-current-density arc discharge is maintained by a sufficient voltage difference
between cathode and anode.
8) Explain the principle of ion propulsion.
The principle of electrostatic or ion propulsion is simply the acceleration of charged particles by
an electric filed. The propellant source feeds neutral atoms to an ion source and the positive
ions generated are accelerated by one or more sets of electrodes which are maintained at zero
potential, the ion source being at a high potential. The negative ions or electrons have to be
returned eventually to the positively charged exhaust stream to maintain a neutral beam.
9) What is a Solar sail.
Solar sail is a big photon reflection surface. The power source for the sail is the sun and it is
external to the vehicle. Approaches using nuclear explosions and pulsed nuclear fusion, has been
analyzed. Concepts for transmitting radiation energy from earth stations to satellites have been
proposed, but are not yet developed.
10) Explain the principle of electromagnetic thrusters.
According to electro magnetic theory, whenever a conductor carries a current perpendicular

to a magnetic field, a body force is exerted on the conductor in a direction at right angles to both
the current and the magnetic field. Unlike the ion engine, this acceleration process yields a
neutral exhaust beam. Another advantage is the relatively high thrust density, or thrust per unit
area, which is normally about 10 to 1000 times of the ion engines.
AE 8505
Control Engineering
2-Marks Question and Answers
Unit I - Introduction
1. Define system.
When a number of elements or components are connected in a sequence to perform
a specific function, the group thus formed is called a system.
2. Define control system.
When the output quantity is controlled by varying the input quantity the system is
called control system.
3. Define open loop system.
The control systems in which the output has no effect upon the input quantity are
called open-loop control system.
4. Define closed loop system?
Control systems in which the output has an effect upon the input quantity in such a
manner as to maintain the desired output value are called closed loop systems.
5. Define transfer function.
The ratio between the laplace transform of output and laplace transform of input is
called transfer function.
6. What is negative feedback?
If the overall gain of the s/m decreases, then it is called negative feedback.
7. State Newton’s second law of forces.
It states that the sum of applied forces is equal to the sum of opposing forces acting
on a body.
8. Define block diagram.
A block diagram of a system is a pictorial representation of the functions performed
by each component and of the flow of signals.
9. What are the elements of block diagram?

The elements of block diagram are
1. Block
2. Summing point
3. Branch point
10. Define signal flow graph.
A signal flow graph is a diagram that represents a set of simultaneous linear
algebraic equations.
11. Define node.

A node is a point representing a variable or signal.
12. Define input node.
The node which has only outgoing branches are called input node. This is also
known as source node.
13. Define output node.

The node which has only incoming branches are called output node. This is also
called as Sink node.
14. Define non-touching loops.
If the loops does not have a common node then they are said to be non-touching
loops.
15. Give some basic properties of signal flow graph.

1. It is applicable to linear systems only.
2. A node in the signal flow graph represents the variable or signal.
3. The signal flow graph of system is not unique.
16. Find the number of forward paths in the given signal flow graph.
Two forward paths
P1 = G1 G2 G3 G4 G5
P2 = G6 G4 G5
17. What are the components of feedback control system?

The components of feedback is are plant, feedback path elements, error detector and
controller.
18. Why negative feedback is preferred in control system?
The negative feedback results in better stability in steady state and rejects any
disturbance signals. It also has low sensitivity to parameter variations.
19. Compare open loop and closed loop system.

Open loop Closed loop
Inaccurate and unreliable. Accurate and reliable.

Simple and economical Complex and costlier.
Stable Great efforts are needed to design a stable system.
20. What are the basic elements used for modeling mechanical translational system?
Mass, Spring and dashpot.
21. What are the basic elements used for modeling mechanical rotational system?
1. Moment of inertia,
2. Spring
3. Dashpot.
23. Name the two types of electrical analogous for mechanical system.
Force – Voltage analogy.
Force – Current analogy.
24. What is transmittance?
The transmittance is the gain acquired by the signal when it travels from one node to
another node in signal flow graph.
25. Mention the electrical analogous of simple thermal system.

The electrical analogous of simple 1st order thermal system is RC parallel circuit.
26. What is the effect of positive feedback on stability?

The positive feedback increases the error signal and drives the output to instability.
But sometimes the positive feedback is used in minor loops in control systems to amplify
certain internal signals or parameters.
27. What are the characteristics of negative feedback?
Accuracy in tracking steady state value.
rejection of disturbance signals.
28. Write the force balance equation of ideal dashpot?

dx
fb B f
dt
29. Write the torque balance equation of an ideal rotational mass element.
Jd2
T Tj
dt 2
30. Write the analogous electrical elements in force-voltage analogy for the elements
of mechanical translational system.
Force, F Voltage, C
Mass, M inductance, L
Stiffness, K Capacitance, C
Frictional coefficient, B Resistance, R
UNIT II OPEN AND CLOSED LOOP SYSTEMS

1. Write the rule when two blocks are in cascade.
G1 G2
Cascade rule G1-G2 = G1 x G2
G1 G2
2. What are the advantages and disadvantage of open loop systems?

Advantage
1. The open loop systems are simple and economical
2. The open loop systems are easier to construct
3. Generally, the open loop systems are stable
Disadvantage
1. The open loop systems are in accurable and un reliable
2. The changes in the output due to external disturbances are not corrected
automatically
3. What are the advantages and disadvantages of closed loop systems.

Advantage
1. The closed loop systems are accurate
2. The closed loop are accurate even in the presence of non- linearities
3. The sensitivity of the systems are accurate even in the presence of non- linearities
Disadvantage
1. The closed-loop systems are complex and costlier
2. The feedback in closed loop system may lead to oscillatory response
3. The feed back reduces the overall gain of the system
4. Stability is a major problem in closed loop system and more care is needed to design
a stable closed loop system.
4. Give some examples of control system.
The examples of control systems are
Temperature control system Traffic control system
Numerical control system Position control system
5. What is a linear time variant and linear time invariant system?
If the coefficients of the differential equations describing the system are constant,
then the model is linear time invariant system.
If the coefficients of differential equations are functions of time, then the model is
linear time varying system.
6. What are Analogue systems?

Systems whose differential equation are of identical form are called analogous
system.
7. What is Servo Mechanism?

A Servo Mechanism is a feed back control system used to Control position (or) its derivative.
It has the following essential features.
1. It is a closed loop system
2. It is used to control position, velocity (or) Acceleration
3. Its characteristics include - Automatic control , Remote operation
- Fast response , High Accuracy
8. Define order of a system.
The highest power of the complex variables ‘S’ in the denominator of transfer
function is called as the order of a system.
9. What is the functions of a error detector?

Error detectors are used to measure the error signal in control systems. The error is
the difference between the actual magnitude of output and magnitude of the desired output.
10. Give Mason’s gain formula.
k
Fk K
1
Transfer functions =
Where
FK = Forward part gain of Kth forward path
K= Number of forward path,
= Determinant of graph
= 1- Pm1 + Pm2 - Pm3+……
Pm1 = Sum of all individual loop gains taking once at a time
Pm2 = Sum of gain products of all possible combination of two non-touching loops
Pm3= Sum of gain products of all possible combination of three non – touching loops
k = Value of after eliminating the loops which touch Kth forward path.
11. Define signal flow graph.

A signal flow graph is a graphical representation of the relationship between variable
of a set of linear algebraic equations.
12. What is node?

Node is a system variable which is equal to sum of all incoming signals.
13. Define Self loop.

Self loop: A path starting from one node and terminates at same node without crossing any
other node even once.
14. Define path & Non-touching loop.

Path: It is the journey from one node to any other node in the direction of branch arrow
Non-touching loop: Loops are said to be non-touching if they do not posses any common
node.
15. Give the properties of signal flow graph.
1. The algebraic equations which are used to construct signal flow graph must be in the
form of cost and effect relationships.
2. Signal flow graph is applicable to linear systems.
3. A node in the signal flow graph represents the variable (or ) signal.
4. A branch indicates the functional dependence of one signal on the other.
16. What are the basic components of an automatic control systems?

The basic components of an automatic control systems are the following.
(1) Error detector
(2) Amplifier and controller
(3) Actuator
(4) Plant
(5) Sensor
17. What are sensor?

Sensors are low – power transducers, which produces output signal as a measure of
the controlled variable.
18. What are the different types of control systems?

(i) Open loop control systems
(ii) Closed loop control systems
(iii) Linear and Non linear control systems
(iv) Time Variant and time invariant control systems
19. What is a mathematical model? What are the different types?

A mathematical model consists of a collection of equations describing the behavior of the
system.
There are two types of mathematical modeling
(i) Input / output representations describing the relation between inputs and outputs
of a system
(ii) State model describing the relation between the input states and output states of
a system.
20. What is Synchro?

Synchro is an electromagnetic transducer that produces an output voltage depending
upon angular displacement.
21. What are servo motors?

The motors which are used for feedback control system are called servomotor. It
converts electrical signal into angular motion.
22. What is Synchro Transmitter?

A Synchro transmitter has star connected stator winding. The rotor is a salient pole
dump- bell shaped magnet with a single winding.
Unit III - CHARACTERISTIC EQUATION AND FUNCTIONS
1. What do you mean by time response of the system?
It is the output of closed loop system as a function of time. It is denoted by c(t).
2. What are standard test signals?

The standard test signals are
1. Step input
2. Ramp input
3. Parabolic input
4. Impulse input
5. Sinusoidal signals
3. Define ramp signal.

The ramp signal is a signal whose value increase linearly with time from an initial value of
zero at t=0.
4. Define impulse signal.

A signal which is available for very short duration is called impulse signal.
5. Define order of a system.

The order of the system is given by the order of the differential equations governing the
system
6. Define damping ratio.

The damping ratio is defined as the ratio of the actual damping to the critical damping.
7. How the system is classified based on depending ratio?

The system is classified into 4 types
1. Undamped system
2. Underdamped system
3. Critically damped system
4. Over damped system
8. What are time domain specifications?

The time domain specifications are
Delay time
Rise time
Peak time
Maximum overshoot
Setting time, ts
9. Define delay time.
It is the time taken for response to reach 50% of the final value, for the very first time
10. Define risetime.

It is the time taken for the response to raise from 0 to 100% for the very first time.
11. Define Peaktime.
It is the time taken for the response to reach the peak value for the very first time.
12. Define peak overshoot.

It is defined as the ratio of the maximum peak value measured from final value to the final
value
13. Define settling time.

It is defined as the time taken by the response to reach and stay within a specified error.
14. Define steady state error.

The steady state error is the value of error signal e(t), when t tends to infinity.
15. What is the drawback of static error coefficient?

The drawback in static error coefficients is that it does not show not show the variation of
error with time and input should be a standard input.
16. What is transient and steady state response?

The transient response is the response of the system when the input changes from
one state to another. The response of the system as t  is called steady state response.
17. What is the importance of test signals?

The test signals can be easily generated in laboratories and are used to predetermine the
performance of the system.
18. Define step signal.

The step signal is a signal whose value changes from o to A and remains constant at A for
t>0.
19. What will be the nature of response of a second order system with different types of
damping?
(1) Undamped system- Oscillatory
2) Underdamped system - damped oscillatory
3) Critically damped - exponentially rising
4) For overdamped - exponentially rising
20. What is type number of a system? What its significance?

The type number is given by number of poles of loop transfer function at the origin. The
type number of the system decides the steady state error.
21. What are static error constants?

The kp, kv and ka are called static error constants. These constants are associated with
steady state error in a particular type of a system and for a standard input.
22. Define velocity error constant.

The velocity error constant kv = l+ S G(S)H (s) The steady state error in type-1 system for
unit ramp input is given by 1 /kv
23. Mention two advantages of generalized error constants over static error constants.
1. Generalized error series gives error signal as a function of time.
2. Generalized error constant is used to determine the steady state error for any type of
input.
24. What is the effect on system performance when a proportional controller is introduced
in a system?
1. It improves the steady state tracking accuracy relative stability and disturbance
signal rejection
2. Increases loop gain of the system.
25. What is the disadvantage in proportional controller?

The disadvantage is that it produces a constant steady state error.
26. What is the effect of PI controller on the system performance?

1. The PI controller increases the order of the system by one, which results in reducing
the steady state error.
2. The system becomes less stable
27. What is the effect of PD controller on the system performance?

The effect of PD controller is to increase the damping ratio of the system and so the peak
overshoot is reduced.
28. Why derivative controller is not used in control system?

The derivative controller produces a control action based on rate of change of error signal
and it does not produce corrective measures for any constant error.
29. A second order system bas a dumping ratio of 0.6 and natural frequency of oscillation
is 10 rad/sec. determine the damped freq of oscillation
d n 1 Z2
10 1 (0.6) 2
8rad / sec.
30. For the system given, find the type and order of the system.
k
G( s) H ( s)
S ( S 1)( S 2 6S 8)
Type = 1
Order = 4
31. The damping ratio of a system is 0.75 and the natural frequency of oscillation is 12
rad/sec. determine peak time
d n 1 Z2
12 1 (0.75) 2
7.94 rad/sec
tp
d 7.94
0.396 sec
10
G(S )
32. A unity feedback system has a open 100p transfer function of ( S 1)( S 2)
Determine the steady state error for unit step input.
10
Kp L G(S ) L
s 0 s 0
( S 1)( S 2)
kp 5
1
lss
1 kp
1
6
33. Give the expression for rise time

0
tr
d
1 z2
where = tan -1
z
34. Give the expression for peak overshoot
z
%M p e x100
1 Z2 Where z = damping ratio.
35. What are the types of controllers that are used in closed loop system?
Proportional Integral controller (pI)
Proportional +derivative controller (PD)
Proportional+ Integral+ derivative controller (PID)
36. Define positional error coefficient.

Kp = L+ G(s)H(s)
s0
1. Increases damping ratio

2. Reduces peak overshoot
3. Reduces settling time
38. What are the demands of good time response?
1. Less Settling time
2. Less overshoot
3. Less rise time
4. Smallest steady State error.
39. What is rate feedback controller?

This is achieved by feeding back the derivative of output signal internally using a
tachogenerator and comparing with signal proportional to error.
40. What is step signal ?

The step signal is a signal whose value changes from zero to A at t=0 and remains
constant at A for t>0. The mathematical representation of step signal is
r(t) =Au(t)
Where u(t) =1 for t 0
U(t) = 0 for t< 0
41. What is a parabolic signal?
The parabolic signal is a signal whose value varies as a square of time from an initial
value of Zero at t=0. This parabolic signal represents constant acceleration input to the
signal. The mathematical representation of parabolic signal in
At 2
r(t) ;t 0
2
0;t 0
42. What is positional Error Coefficient?

1
Steady state Error for a step input is where KP is the positional error
1 KP
coefficient. The positional Error coefficient is giver by KP limG(s)H(s)
s 0
43. Enumerate the advantages of generalized error coefficient.

The advantages of generalized Error coefficients are
1. It gives error signal as a function of time.
2. It can be used to determine the steady state error for any type of input.
C(s) 4
44. A system has a transfer function
R(s) S2 1.6S 4
For the unit step response, the settling time for 2% tolerance band is
4
ts ;Given w n 2; 2 w n 1.6
wn
4
ts 5 sec and =0.4
0.4 2
45. What are the roles of controller in Control systems?

The main role of controller is to modify the error and to achieve better control action.
46. What is a proportional Controller?
The controller which produces the output signal in proportional to the error signal is
called a proportional controller. The transfer functions of proportional controller in KP.
47. What is a PI Controller?

PI Controller is a proportional plus integral controller which produces on output
signal consisting of two terms – one proportional to error signal and other proportional to
the integral of the error signal.
48. What is PD controller?

PD Controller is a proportional plus derivative controller which produces an output
signal consisting of two terms, one proportional to error signal and other proportional to the
derivative of the error signals.
d2 y dy
49. For the following differential equation 2 4 8y 0 determine the damping
dt 2 dt
ratio.
d2 y dy
2 4 8y 0
dt 2 dt
on taking Laplace Transform,

2S2Y11(s)+4sy1(s)+8y(s)=0
S2Y11(s)+2Sy1(s)+4Y(s)=0
Compare the above equation with the standard form of second order characteristic
equation.
S2+2 Wns+Wn2=0
Wn2=4
Wn=2rad/sec.
2 wn=2
1
= 0.5
wn
50. What in the type and order of the given system is whose open loop transfer function?
The number of poles lie at origin of S-plane gives the types of system.
The highest power of the complex variables ‘S’ in the denominator of transfer function is
called as the order of a system.
Type – 1, Order – 2
51. Give the relation ship between static and dynamic error coefficients.
1
Co
1 Kp
1
C1
Kv
1
C2
Ka
52. Give the steady state error for step and velocity input .
1
ess for step input =
1+K P
1
ess for velocity input=
Kv
53. What is the difference between type and order?

Type order
i) Specified for loop TF i) Specified for any transfer function

ii) Given by number of poles ii) Given by number of lying at the origin
poles of transfer function
Unit lV - CONCEPT OF STABILITY

1. Define frequency response.
The frequency response is the steady state response of a system when the input to the
system is a sinusoidal signal.
2. Write any three advantages of frequency response analysis.

1. The absolute and relative stability of the closed loop system can be estimated from the
knowledge of their open loop response.
2. The practical testing of systems can be easily carried with available sinusoidal signal
generators and precise measurement equipments.
3. The transfer function of complicated system can be determined experimentally by
frequency response plots.
3. What are frequency domain specifications?

1. Resonant peak, Mr.
2. Resonant frequency, or
3. Bandwidth
4. Cut-off rate
5. Gain margin
6. Phase margin
4. Define resonant peak.

The maximum value of the magnitude of closed loop transfer function is called the resonant
peak.
5. Define resonant frequency.

The frequency at which the resonant peak occurs is called resonant frequency.
6. Define bandwidth.
The bandwidth is the range of frequency for which the system gain is more than -3dbr.
7. Define cut-off frequency.
The frequency at which the gain is -3db is called cut-off frequency.
8. Define cut –off rate.

The slope of the log-magnitude curve near the cut off frequency is called cut off rate.
9. Define gain margin.

The gain margin is defined as the reciprocal of the magnitude of open – loop transfer
function at phase cross over frequency.
10. Define phase margin.

The phase margin is the amount of additional phase lag at the gain cross over frequency
required to bring the system to the verge of instability.
11. What are the graphical techniques available for frequency response analysis?
Bode plot
Polar plot
Nichols plot
M and N circles
Nichols chart.
12. What are the two graphs of bode plot?
A plot of the magnitude of a sinusoidal transfer function Vs log
A plot of the phase angle of a sinusoidal transfer function Vs log
13. What are the advantages of bode plot?

Multiplication of magnitudes can be converted into addition.
An approximate log-mag curve can be sketched.
14. What do you mean by polar plot?

The polar plot of a sinusoidal transfer function G(jw) is a plot of the magnitude of G(jw) is a
plot of the magnitude of G(jw) Vs the phase angle of G(jw) on polar coordinates as is
varied from zero to infinity.
1
15. Draw the bode plot for G(s)= (1 4s)(1 7 s)
16. Define phase cross over frequency.

It is the frequency at which the phase of G)j ) is -1800.
17. Define gain cross over frequency.
It is the frequency at which the magnitude of G(j ) is unity.
C (S ) 64
2
18. Determine the resonant frequency of a 2nd order system whose R( S ) S 10S 64
wN2 64 27w N 10 wr wn 1 27 2
10
wn 8rod / sec 7= 0.625 =8 1-2(0.625)2
2 8
=3.741
19. Write the expression for resonant peak and resonant frequency.
1
2
Resonant peak, Mr= 2 1
20. Define corner frequency.

The magnitude plot can be approximated by asymptotic straight lines. The
frequencies corresponding to the meeting point of asymptotes are called corner frequency.
21. The damping ratio of a second order system is 0.5 calculate resonant peak.
1 1
2
2 1 2 0.5 1 (0.5) 2
Mr= Mr. 1.154.
22. What is approximate bode plot?

In approximate bode plot, the magnitude plot of a first and second order factors are
approximated by two straight lines, which are asymptotes to exact plot.
23. What is the value of error in approximate magnitude plot of a first order factor at the
corner frequency?
The error is 3mdb, m multiplicity factor. Positive error for numerator and negative error
for denominator factor.
24. What is minimum phase system?

The minimum phase systems are systems with minimum phase transfer functions. In
minimum phase transfer functions, all poles and zeros will lie on the left half of S plane.
25. What is all –pass systems?

The all pass systems are systems with all pass transfer functions. In all pass transfer
functions, the magnitude is unity at all frequencies and the transfer function will have anti-
symmetric pole –zero pattern.
26. What is non – minimum phase transfer functions?

A transfer function which has one or more zeros in the right half S-plane is known as non-
minimum phase transfer function.
27. State the conditions for stability of the system.
1. If gain cross over frequency <phase cross over frequency, then the system is said to be
stable.
2. If the gain cross over frequency > phase cross over frequency, the system is unstable.
3. If gain cross over frequency = phase cross over frequency, the system is marginally
stable.
28. What should be the values of GM and PM of a good system?

An adequate gain margin of 6db and phase margin of about 300 is generally considered
good enough for a good system.
29. How to improve the GM and phase margin?

The GM and PM can be improved by adding compensating networks.
30. What are the advantages and disadvantages of frequency response Analysis.
Advantages
1. The design and parameter adjustment of the open loop Transfer function for the
given closed loop requirement is carried out easily
2. The effect of noise can be easily visualised in frequency response analysis.
Disadvantage
1. The frequency response test is not recommended for the system with large time
constant.
2. It cannot be performed on non-interruptable system.
31. What are the relations for resonant peak and resonant frequency of a second order
1
Mr
2
system? 2 1
2
Wr wn 1 2
32. Define decade and octave.
A decade is an increase in frequency by a factor of 10 and octave is as increase in
frequency by a factor of 2.
33. What is the value of gain Margin and phase values for a good degree of relative
stability?
For a good degree of relative stability the GM is about 6db or a PM is about 30-35o
34. The open loop Transfer function of a unity feed back control system is given by
1
G(s) What are the phase cross over frequency and gain Margin Value.
S 1 sT1 1 sT2
Phase crossover
1
Frequency Wpc
T1T2
T1 T2
gain margin G.M=
T1 T2
UNIT V SAMPLED DATA SYSTEMS
1.What is a dominant pole?
The poles lying close / on the imaginary axis are dominant poles.
2. What are the main significances of root locus?
The main root locus technique is used for stability analysis.
Using root locus technique the range of values of K, for as table system can be
determined
3.What are the two types of compensation?
Cascade or series compensation
Feedback compensation or parallel compensation
4.What are the three types of compensators?
Lag compensator
Lead compensator
Lag-Lead compensator
5.What are the uses of lead compensator?
Speeds up the transient response
Increases the margin of stability of a system
Increases the system error constant to a limited extent.
6.What is the use of lag compensator?
Improve the steady state behavior of a system, while nearly preserving its transient
response.
7.When is lag lead compensator required?
The lag lead compensator is required when both the transient and steady state response
of a system has to be improved.
8.What is a compensator?
A device inserted into the system for the purpose of satisfying the specifications is called
as a compensator.
9. State sampling theorem.
The mode of converting the analog signal into discrete or digital signal by taking
instantaneous value of the analog or the continuous signal by the process of quantization.
10. State the functions of digital controller.
Easy to vary the control parameters
Can be controlled by using digital controllers like microprocessor
Easy to build or design the system
11. Define sampling time.
The time between two samples in a digital signal is called sampling theorem.
12. Give the condition for better construction and reconstruction
For better construction and reconstruction of the given analog signal the sampling
time should be greater than two times the maximum frequency component of the input
signal.
13. What are the roles of controller in Control systems?
The main role of controller is to modify the error and to achieve better control action.
14. What is a proportional Controller?

The controller which produces the output signal in proportional to the error signal is
called a proportional controller. The transfer functions of proportional controller in KP.
15. What is a PI Controller?

PI Controller is a proportional plus integral controller which produces on output
signal consisting of two terms – one proportional to error signal and other proportional to
the integral of the error signal.
16. What is PD controller?
PD Controller is a proportional plus derivative controller which produces an output
signal consisting of two terms, one proportional to error signal and other proportional to the
derivative of the error signals.
17. What is the effect on system performance when a proportional controller is introduced
in a system?
1. It improves the steady state tracking accuracy relative stability and disturbance
signal rejection
2. Increases loop gain of the system.
18. What is the disadvantage in proportional controller?

The disadvantage is that it produces a constant steady state error.
19. What is the effect of PI controller on the system performance?

1. The PI controller increases the order of the system by one, which results in reducing
the steady state error.
2. The system becomes less stable

The effect of PD controller is to increase the damping ratio of the system and so the peak
overshoot is reduced.
21. Why derivative controller is not used in control system?
The derivative controller produces a control action based on rate of change of error signal
and it does not produce corrective measures for any constant error.
22. What are the types of controllers that are used in closed loop system?
Proportional Integral controller (pI)
Proportional +derivative controller (PD)
Proportional+ Integral+ derivative controller (PID)
23. Define positional error coefficient.

Kp = L+ G(s)H(s)
s0

1. Increases damping ratio
2. Reduces peak overshoot
3. Reduces settling time
25. What are the demands of good time response?

1. Less Settling time
2. Less overshoot
3. Less rise time
4. Smallest steady State error.
26. What is rate feedback controller?
This is achieved by feeding back the derivative of output signal internally using a
tachogenerator and comparing with signal proportional to error.
PART - B
1. Write the differential equations governing the mechanical system and determine the
transfer function.
2. Write the equations of motion in ‘s’ domain. Determine the transfer function of the
system.
3. Determine the transfer function X1(S) / F(S) and X2(S) / F(S) of the mechanical system
shown in figure.
4. Write the governing differential equations of the mechanical system shown in figure.
7. Obtain the closed loop transfer function C(S) / R(S) of the system whose block diagram is
shown in figure. Use Block diagram reduction technique and verify the transfer function
with signal flow graph technique.
8. Derive the transfer function of

i. Armature controlled d.c. motor
ii. Field control d.c. motor with necessary block diagram
9. Explain the rules for block diagram reduction.
10. Determine the transfer function of the system shown in the following figure.
11. Measurements are conducted on a servomechanism show the system response to be

C(t) = 1 + 0.2 e- 60t – 1.2 e- 10t when subjected to unit step input.
i. Obtain the expression for the closed loop transfer function.
ii. Determine the undamped natural frequency and damping ratio of the system.
12. Obtain the unit impulse response and unit step response of a unity feedback system
whose open loop transfer function is G(s) = (2 s + 1) / s2.
13. Determine the damping factor and natural frequency of the system when K 0 = 0.
What is the steady state error resulting from unit ramp input? Determine the
derivative feedback constant K0 which will increase the damping factor of the system
to 0.6. What is the steady state error to unit ramp input with this setting?
14. Derive an expression for the time response of an under damped II order system
subjected to unit step input. Plot the response and mark the time domain
specifications in it. Define rise time, peak time, peak overshoot and settling time.
15. Enumerate the advantages of generalized error co-efficient and determine the
generalized error co-efficient and steady state error for a system whose open loop
transfer function is G(s) = 1 / (s (s + 1) (s + 10)) and the feedback transfer function is
H(s) = (s + 2) with input r(t) = 6 + t + t2.
16. The open loop transfer function of a unity feedback system is given by G(s) = 20 / (s 2
+ 5s + 6). Determine the damping ratio, maximum overshoot, rise time and peak time.
Derive the used formula.
17. Determine the time response specifications and expression for output of the system
described by he differential equation d2y / dt2 + 5 dy / dt +16 y =19x for unit step input
( y – output and x-input).
18. A unity feedback heat treatment system has G(s) = 10000 / [(1 + s) (1+ 0.5 s) (1+ 0.02
s)].The output set point is 5000C.What is the steady state temperature?
19. A unity feedback system is characterized by the open loop transfer function
G(s) = 1 / (s (1 + 0.5 s) (1 + 0.2s)). Determine the steady state errors for unit step, unit
ramp, and unit acceleration inputs.
20. Derive the unit step, ramp and impulse response of a first order system and draw the
curves.
21. Evaluate the static error co-efficients for a unity feedback system having a forward
path transfer function G(s) = 50 / (s (s + 10)).
22. For the system shown in fig. What is the steady state error for unit step input?
23. A second order mechanical system

is represented y the transfer function θ(s) / I((s) = 1 / Js + fs + k. A step input of 10 N-m
2
is applied to the system.

24. The open loop transfer function of a unity feedback system is given by
G(s) = 10 (s + 3) / (s (s + 2) (s2 + 4s + 100)). Draw the Bode plot and hence find the gain
margin and phase margin.
25. Draw the Bode plot for the function G(s) = K s2 / [(1 + 0.2 s) (1 + 0.02s)]. Determine the
value of K for a gain cross over frequency of 20 rad/sec.
26. The open loop transfer function of a unity feedback system is G(s) = 100 (1 + 0.2 s) / s
(1+0.1 s). Draw the Bode plot and hence find the gain margin and phase margin.
27. Draw the Bode plot of the system whose open loop transfer function is
G(s) H(s) = K / (s (1 + s) (1 + 0.1 s) (1 + 0.02 s)). Determine the value of K for the gain
margin of 10 dB.
28. Sketch the Bode plot for a unity feedback system characterised by
G(s) H(s) = ( K (1 + 0.2 s) ( 1 + 0.025 s)) / (s2 ( 1 + 0.01 s) ( 1 + 0.005 s)).
29. Sketch the root locus for the open loop transfer function of unity feedback system is
given by G ( s ) K .
s(s 3)( s 2 2s 2)
30. Determine the range of K for stability of unity feedback system whose open loop
K
transfer function is G ( s) .
s( s 1)( s 2)
31. Sketch the root locus for the open loop transfer function of unity feedback system
K
given by G ( s ) .
s( s 2)( s 4)
32. Construct the root locus for a system with G(s) = [K (s + 9)] / [s (s 2 + 4s + 11)] and H(s)
= 1. Locate the closed loop poles so that the dominant closed loop poles have a
damping ratio of 0.5. Determine the corresponding value of gain K.
33. Sketch the Nyquist plot for a feedback system with the open loop transfer function
G(s) H(s) = [K (s + 3) (s + 5)] / [(s - 2) (s - 4)]. Determine the range of K for which the
system is stable.
34. Design a phase lead compensator for a system with open loop transfer function G(s)
H(s) = K / (s (s + 2)) so that the velocity error constant is 20 sec -1, phase margin is at
least 500 and gain margin is at least 10 dB.
35. The open loop transfer function of a unity feedback system is given by
G(s) = K / [(s + 2) (s + 4) (s2 + 6s + 25)]. By applying Routh criterion, discuss the
stability of the closed loop system as a function of K. Determine K which will
cause sustained oscillations in the system. What are the corresponding oscillation
frequencies?
36. Construct the root locus for the function G(s) H(s) = [K (s + 2)] / (s + 2) 2 and discuss
about the stability of the system.
37. Sketch the Nyquist plot for a system with the open loop transfer function
G(s) H(s) = [K (1 + 0.4 s) (s + 1)] / [(1 + 8s) (s - 1)]. Determine the range of K for which
the system is stable.
38. Design a phase lag compensator so that the system G(s) H(s) = 100 / [s (s + 1)] will
have phase margin of 150. For a system with characteristic equation s4 + 22 s3 + 10 s2 + s
+ K = 0, discuss on the stability of the system as a function of K. Obtain the marginal
value of K for stability, and the frequency of oscillations at that value of K.

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III YEAR QUESTION BANK

AE 8501 Flight Dynamics

Since atmospheric conditions like pressure, temperature and density are

2) Distinguish between Troposphere &

(a) It extends from earth surface to It extends from troposphere to

(b) It is a turbulent region and its Its temperature remain constant up

18) Explain the significance of load factor.

5) What are the two methods for predicting fuselage c o n t r i b u t i o n to

6) Define neutral point.

21) What is a tab and how it is effective?

2)On the aft c,g :

5) What are the advantages of sideslip?

1) Why the study on dynamic characteristics of the airplane is necessary?

7) What are the equations of longitudinal motion with free control?

10) Briefly explain the stability derivatives, Clp and Cnr .

11) What are the characteristic modes of stick-fixed longitudinal motion of

20) State two basic requirements of aircraft control surface.

21) Distinguish between stability and controllability.

22) What is the need for aerodynamic balancing?

1. i)Explain the significance of Routh‟s discriminant in dynamic stability. (6)

Estimate the period of oscillation in seconds if the airplane flies at 400Kmph.

Given : Nr = -0.76/sec , Y = -14 m/sec2 , N = 4.49/sec2 ,Yr = 0 and

1. Define redundancy in a structure and order of redundancy.

Stress  Z = [(Mx/Ixx)*Y] + [(My/Iyy)*x]

Where Mx = [Mx-(My Ixy/ Iyy))]/ (1-(Ixy2/IxxIyy)

My = [My-(Mx Ixy/ Iyy)]/ (1-( Ixy2/IxxIyy)

8. Define principal axes of a section.

10. List down various structural components in an aircraft wing.

(b) List two functions of an aircraft rib

18. (a) For bending elastic buckling the equation is

σN=0 At the Neutral axes

24. Explain buckling in compression for a plate.

17. Write short notes on any TWO of the following:

31.(a) (i) What is rib? How does it transfer the load?

ONE DIMENSIONAL COMPRESSIBLE FLOW

1. What is meant by Supersonic flow?

2. What do you understand by the term Gas Dynamics?

3. Differentiate between compressible and incompressible flow

4. Write the Bernoulli‟s equation for incompressible flow.

Where p-static pressure pstag-stagnation pressure

ρ-density of the fluid

v-velocity of the flow

5. Write the adiabatic relation between temperature, pressure and density.

6. What is meant by Mach angle?

1.2<M<5 -supersonic flow

13. State the First Law of Thermodynamics.

(iii) Isentropic process: A process which is adiabatic and reversible.

15. What is meant by System and Surrounding?

16. Differentiate between open system and closed system.

1. Derive the fundamental equation for compressible flow.

NORMAL, OBLIQUE SHOCKS

1. What is meant by Normal Shock?

16. i) Derive the equation of motion for a Normal shock wave.

EXPANSION WAVES, RAYLEIGH AND FANNO FLOW

1. Write the Prandtl Glauret Rule.

32. Derive the linearised small perturbation potential theory.

DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS OF MOTION FOR

STEADY COMPRESSIBLE FLOWS

1. State Supersonic area rule.

TRANSONIC FLOW OVER WING

1. What are the principles of model testing?

9. Explain the Hypersonic wind tunnel (Helium) with sketches.

1) What are the differences between air-breathing and Rocket engine?

Stress  Z = [(Mx/Ixx)Y] + [(My/Iyy)x]