1. What are the minimal necessary parts to make a complete circuit?

a. Voltage, Path, Resistor

b. Current, Resistor, Inductor
c. Wire, Outlet
d. Voltage, Resistor, Power
2. Why do polarities matter in circuits?
a. It indicates where the current flow
b. For labeling purposes, indicate the start and finish
c. it indicates the attracting and repelling charges, causing electrons to flow
d. none of the above
3. Which of these is NOT considered a short circuit?
a. A circuit with a voltage source, a resistor, and a LED connected in series
b. A circuit with a voltage source, and a switch
c. A circuit with LEDs, resistors, and wires
d. A voltage source, and wires connecting the positive and negative terminals of the
voltage source
4. When does a short circuit occur
a. When the current travels along an intended path
b. When the circuit has very high resistance
c. When the LED lights up when configured correctly
d. None of the above
5. The voltage drops in a series connection of multiple different value resistors are
a. The same
b. Different
c. Equal to the voltage source
d. More than the voltage source
6. A potentiometer is one of the most common electronic components that is present in most of
the electrical devices. Its main function is an adjustable ________
a. Voltage Amplifier
b. Voltage Controller
c. Voltage Divider
d. All of the above
7. Power is defined as
a. Joules
b. Conversion of Energy
c. Rate of work per period time
d. Work
8. In a series connection, which of this is true?
a. The voltage drops along the resistors depends on the resistor value
b. The summation of voltage drops is not equal to the voltage source
c. Current through a resistor is equal to the total current of the circuit
 d. The total resistance of each circuit is determined by calculating the total voltage and
multiplying it to the total current
9. A 10 Ohm resistor is in series with a lamp. The circuit is 1A. with 20 V applied, how much voltage
does the lamp need?
a. 1V
b. 5V
c. 10V
d. 20V
10. If series current doubles, then:
a. Resistance is halved
b. Voltage is doubled
c. Voltage is reduced
d. Resistance is doubled
11. In a series circuit, two resistors have the same voltage drop. What does it mean?
a. The resistance is equal
b. Voltage is doubled
c. They have different sources
d. Question is wrong, it is connected in parallel
12. What does Kirchhoff’s voltage law states?
a. The voltages developed across each element in a series circuit are identical
b. The algebraic sum of the individual currents around a closed loop is zero
c. The algebraic sum of the resistances is equal to the sum of the voltages
d. The sum of the voltage drops in a series circuit is equal to the total applied voltage
13. 3 amps flow through a 1 ohm resistor. The voltage is?
a. 1V
b. 3V
c. 1/3V
d. None of the above
14. A resistor consumes 5 watts, and its current is 10 amps. What is its voltage?
a. 10V
b. 0.5V
c. 2V
d. 15V
15. If you put an infinite number of resistors in parallel, what would the total resistance be?
a. Would approach zero as the number of resistors in parallel approaches infinity
b. It is not possible to connect that number of resistors in parallel
c. Would approach one as the number of resistors in parallel approaches infinity
d. None of the Above
16. Voltage division is _______ for parallel resistance networks
a. Necessary
b. Unnecessary
c. Constant
 d. Required
17. Why is current division necessary?
a. In series, the current is same
b. In parallel, the current is different
c. Because voltage drops are different in all circuits
d. Because of Kirchoffs’s law
18. Which direction do both the conventional current and the electrons in a common circuit flow?
a. The current and electrons both flow in the same directions, from positive to negative
b. The current and electrons both flow in the same directions, from negative to positive
c. The current and electrons flow in different directions. The current flows positive to
negative, while the electrons flow in the opposite direction
d. The current and electrons flow in different directions. The current flows negative to
positive, while the electrons flow in the opposite direction
19. Which of these multimeter connections is WRONG?
a. The ammeter is connected in series
b. The voltmeter is connected in parallel
c. The voltmeter is connected with an active voltage source
d. The ohmmeter is connected in series with active voltage source
20. Resistivity of a wire depends on
a. Length
b. Material
c. Cross section area
d. None of the above
21. Resistance of a wire is X ohms. The wire is stretched to double its length. The resistance in ohms
is
a. x/2
b. 4x
c. 2x
d. x/4
22. Kirchoff’s second law is based on law of conservation of
a. Energy
b. Momentum
c. Electrons
d. Mass
23. Two bulbs marked 200 watt-250 volts and 100 watt-250 volts are joined in series to 250 volts
supply. Power consumed in circuit is
a. 33 watt
b. 100 watt
c. 300 watt
d. 67 watt
24. An electric current of 5A is the same as
a. 5 J/C
 b. 5 V/C
c. 5 C/sec
d. 5 w/sec
25. A circuit contains two unequal resistance in parallel. What is true among these statements?
a. Current is the same in both resistors
b. Potential difference across each resistor is the same
c. Large current flows in larger resistor
d. Smaller resistance has smaller conductance
26. The energy required to charge a 10 μF capacitor to 100 V is
a. 0.01J
b. 0.05J
c. 5 x 10^-9 J
d. 10 x 10^-9 J
27. The basic circuit elements are
a. R, L, and C
b. Vs and Is
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
28. A network contains linear resistors and ideal voltage source. If values of all the resistors are
doubled, then voltage across each resistor is
a. Halved
b. Doubled
c. Remains the same
d. Short circuit
29. Components which obey Ohm’s law are known as:
a. Resistors
b. Ohmic Components
c. Ohmic materials
d. None of these
30. A resistor is color coded with four bands. The colors are brown black red gold respectively. The
resistor connects to a 10 V source. Find the current flowing through the resistor
a. 1mA
b. 10mA
c. 100mA
d. 1A
31. The color coding of the resistor is yellow violet brown gold, then the voltage is 47V. then I is?
a. 0.1A
b. 0.1mA
c. 100mA
d. 470mA
32. If the color coding of the resistor is brown black orange and gold. And the current is 50mA. What
is the value of the voltage source
 a. 0.5V
b. 5V
c. 50V
d. 500V
33. Delta connections is also known as
a. Y connection
b. Mesh connection
c. Either Y connection or mesh connection
d. None of the above
34. Rab is the resistance between the terminals A and B, Rbc between B and C and Rca between C
and A. These 3 resistors are connected in star connection. After transforming to delta, the
resistance at A will be?
a. Rc+Rb+Rc*Rb/Ra
b. Rc+Rb+Ra*Rb/Rc
c. Ra+Rb+Ra*Rc/Rb
d. Rc+Rb+Rc*Ra/Rb
35. Transform a delta circuit with 60 ohms, 30ohms, and 10 ohms resistor into Y
a. R1 = 18 ohms, R2 = 6 ohms, R3 = 3 Ohms
b. R1 = 18 ohms, R2 = 2 ohms, R3 = 4 Ohms
c. R1 = 20 ohms, R2 = 6 ohms, R3 = 4 Ohms
d. R1 = 19 ohms, R2 = 7 ohms, R3 = 3 Ohms
36. It is the DC voltage that has the same effect as the actual AC voltage
a. RMS Voltage
b. Peak Voltage
c. Peak-to-Peak Voltage
d. None of the Above
37. For the case of an inductor in an AC circuit, the voltage across the inductor is __ degrees
______ of the current I through the inductor
a. 90 Behind
b. 45 Behind
c. 90 Ahead
d. 45 Ahead
38. For the case of an inductor in an AC circuit, the voltage across the capacitor is _ degrees
______ of the current I through the inductor
a. 90 Behind
b. 45 Behind
c. 90 Ahead
d. 45 Ahead
39. What is reactance?
 a. Resistance in an AC circuit
b. Time dependent resistance
c. Frequency dependent resistance
d. All of the above
40. In a RLC circuit, the following values are given: R = 200 ohms, C = 15x10^-6 F, L =
230x10^-3, f = 60hz. Determine the inductive and capacitive reactance
a. 90 ohms, 90 ohms
b. 86.7 ohms, 180 ohms
c. 200 ohms, 86.7 ohms
d. 86.7 ohms, 177 ohms

For number 41-43, given a mechanical translation System, Solve:

41.) What is the mechanical translation system above?

a. c.

b. d. None of these

42. What is the equation for node a?

a. f(t) = xa (K1 - M1D2 - K2) – K2Xb c. f(t) = xa (K1 + M1D2 + K2) – K2Xb
b. f(t) = xa (K1 - M1D2 + K2) – K2Xb d. f(t) = xa (K1 + M1D2 + K2) + K2Xb
43. What is the equation for node b?

a. Xb (M2D2 - B1 - K3 – K2) + K2XA = 0 c. Xb (M2D2 + B1 + K3 + K2) + K2XA = 0

b. Xb (M2D2 + B1 + K3 – K2) + K2XA = 0 d. Xb (M2D2 + B1 + K3 + K2) - K2XA = 0

For number 44-46, given a mechanical translation System, Solve:

44. What is the mechanical translation system above?

a. c.

b. d. None of these

45. What is the equation for node a?

a. f(t) = xa (M2D2 + K2) – K2Xb c. f(t) = xa (M2D2 - K2) – K2Xb

b. f(t) = xa (M2D2 - K2) + K2Xb d. f(t) = xa (M2D2 + K2) + K2Xb
46. What is the equation for node b?

a. Xb (M1D2 - K1 - B1D – K2) + K2Xa = 0 c. Xb (M1D2 - K1 + B1D – K2) + K2Xa = 0

b. Xb (M1D2 + K1 + B1D + K2) + K2Xa = 0 d. Xb (M1D2 + K1 + B1D – K2) + K2Xa = 0

For number 47-49, given a mechanical translation System, Solve:

47. What is the mechanical translation system above?

a. c. a and b

b. d. None of these

48. What is the equation for node a?

a. f(t) = xa (M1D2 - B1D - B2D - B3D) – B3DXb

b. f(t) = xa (M1D2 + B1D + B2D + B3D) + B3DXb
c. f(t) = xa (M1D2 + B1D + B2D + B3D) – B3DXb
d. f(t) = xa (M1D2 - B1D + B2D + B3D) – B3DXb

49. What is the equation for node b?

a. Xb (M2D2 - B4D - K1 + B3D) + B3DXa = 0 c. Xb (M2D2 + B4D - K1 – B3D) - B3DXa = 0

b. Xb (M2D2 + B4D+ K1 + B3D) + B3DXa = 0 d. Xb (M2D2 + B4D+ K1 – B3D) + B3DXa = 0
For number 50-52, given a mechanical rotational System, Solve:

50. What is the mechanical rotational system above?

a. c.

b. d.

51 What is the equation for theta a?

a. T= өa (J2D2 - B1D) – B1Dөb

b. T= өa (J2D2 + B1D) + B1Dөb

c. T= өa (J2D2 + B1D) – B1Dөb

d. T= өa (J2D2 - B1D) + B1Dөb

52 What is the equation for theta b?

a. өb (J1D2 + K1 + B1D) - B1Dөa = 0 c. өb (J1D2 - K1 – B1D) + B1Dөa = 0

b. өb (J1D2 + K1 – B1D) - B1Dөa = 0 d. өb (J1D2 + K1 – B1D) + B1Dөa = 0

For number 53-55, given a mechanical rotational System, Solve:

38.) What is the mechanical rotational system above?

a. c.

b. d. None of these
54. What is the equation for theta a?

a. T= өa (J1D2 - B1D- K1) – K1өb

b. T= өa (J1D2 - B1D+ K1) – K1өb

c T= өa (J1D2 + B1D+ K1) + K1өb

d. T= өa (J1D2 + B1D+ K1) – K1өb

55. What is the equation for theta b?

a. өb (K2 - B2D – K1) + K1өa = 0 c. өb (K2 + B2D – K1) - K1өa = 0

b. өb (K2 + B2D + K1) + K1өa = 0 d. өb (K2 + B2D – K1) + K1өa

56. It is an arrangement, set or collection of things connected or related in such a manner as to form an
entirely or whole.
a. Control
b. System
c. Control System
d. Analysis
57. It is usually taken to mean regulate, direct or command.
a. Control
b. System
c. Control System
d. Analysis
58. An arrangement of physical components connected or related in such a manner as to command,
direct or regulate itself or another system.
a. Control
b. System
c. Control System
d. Analysis
59. A system where the output has no effect to the input.
a. Open Loop Control System
b. Closed Loop Control System
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
60. A system where the output has an effect to the input.
a. Open Loop Control System
b. Closed Loop Control System
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
61. For open control system which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. Less expensive
b. Recalibration is not required for maintaining the required quality of the output
c. Construction is simple and maintenance easy
d. Errors are caused by disturbances
62. In closed loop control system, with positive value of feedback gain the overall gain of the system
will:
a. Decrease
b. Increase
c. Be unaffected
d. Any of the above
63. Which of the following is an open loop control system?
a. Field controlled D.C. motor
b. Ward Leonard control
c. Metadyne
d. Stroboscope
64. Which of the following statements is not necessarily correct for open control system?
a. Input command is the sole factor responsible for providing the control action
b. Presence of non-linearities causes malfunctioning
c. Less expensive
d. Generally free from problems of non-linearities
65. In open loop system
a. the control action depends on the size of the system
b. the control action depends on system variables
c. the control action depends on the input signal
d. the control action is independent of the output
66. _____ has tendency to oscillate.
a. Open loop system
b. Closed loop system
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
67. A good control system has all the following features except
a. Good stability
b. Slow response
c. Good accuracy
d. Sufficient power handling capacity
68. An automatic toaster is a ______ loop control system.
a. Open
b. Closed
c. Partially closed
d. Any of the above
69. A closed loop system is distinguished from open loop system by which of the following?
a. Servomechanism
b. Feedback
c. Output pattern
d. Input pattern
70. _____ is a closed loop system.
a. Auto-pilot for an aircraft
b. Direct current generator
c. Car starter
d. Electric switch
71. As a result of introduction of negative feedback which of the following will not decrease?
a. Band width
b. Overall gain
c. Distortion
d. Instability
72. The output of a feedback control system must be a function of
a. reference and output
b. reference and input
c. input and feedback signal
d. output and feedback signal
73. It is the difference of feedback signal and reference input.
a. Mass
b. Junction
c. Actuating Signal
d. Stiffness
74. A signal other than the reference input that tends to affect the value of controlled variable is known
as
a. Disturbance
b. Command
c. Control element
d. Reference input
75. Loops that don't have any nodes in common is called
a. Touching loop
b. Non-touching loop
c. Zero loop
d. Common Loop
76. Product of gain found by trans versing a path that follows direction of signal flow from input node to
output node of a signal flow graph is called
a. Forward path gain
b. Reverse path gain
c. Zero path gain
d. Infinite path gain
77. Amount of additional open loop gain is called
a. Gain addition
b. Open gain
c. Gain margin
d. Gain ratio
78. A continuous set of branches traversed in direction that they indicate is called
a. Path
b. Loop
c. Path gain
d. Loop gain
79. In a control system the output of the controller is given to
a. Final control element
b. Amplifier
c. Comparator
d. Sensor
80. Zero initial condition for a system means
a. Input reference signal is zero
b. Zero stored energy
c. No initial movement of moving parts
d. System is at rest and no energy is stored in any of its component
81. Communication is the process of ________.
a. Exchanging information
b. Keeping in touch
c. Broadcasting
d. Entertainment by electronics
82. Two key barriers to human communication are ________.
a. distance
b. language
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
83. Which of the following is not a major communications medium ________.
a. coaxial cable
b. fiber optic cable
c. Water
d. Antenna
84. Random interference to transmitted signals is called ________.
a. Noise
b. Short waves
c. Facsimile
d. Infrared rays
85. One-way communication is called ________.
a. Simplex
b. Half Duplex
c. Full Duplex
d. None of the above
86. Simultaneous two-way communication is called ________.
a. Simplex
b. Half Duplex
c. Full Duplex
d. None of the above
87. Refers to the transmission of data in just one direction at a time is called ________.
a. Simplex
b. Half Duplex
c. Full Duplex
d. None of the above
88. The process of modifying a high frequency carrier with the information to be transmitted is called
________.
a. Multiplexing
b. Modulation
c. Telemetry
d. Demodulation
89. The opposite of modulation is ________.
a. Multiplexing
b. Modulation
c. Telemetry
d. Demodulation
90. The process of transmitting two or more information signals simultaneously over the same channel
is called ________.
a. Multiplexing
b. Modulation
c. Telemetry
d. Demodulation
91. Measuring physical conditions at some remote location and transmitting this data for analysis is the
process of ________.
a. Multiplexing
b. Modulation
c. Telemetry
d. Demodulation
92. In a communication system, noise is most likely to affect the signal ________.
a. At the transmitter
b. In the channel
c. In the information source
d. At the destination
93. Indicate the noise whose source is in a category different from that of the other three.
a. Solar noise
b. Cosmic noise
c. Atmospheric noise
d. Galactic noise
94. A complete communication system must include:
a. a transmitter and receiver
b. a transmitter, a receiver, and a channel
c. a transmitter, a receiver, and a spectrum analyzer
d. a multiplexer, a demultiplexer, and a channel
95. The bandwidth required for a modulated carrier depends on:
a. The carrier frequency
b. The signal-to-noise ratio
c. The signal-plus-noise to noise ratio
d. The baseband frequency range
96. TDM stands for:
a. Time-Division Multiplexing
b. Two-level Digital Multiplexing
c. Time Domain Measurement
d. None of the above
97. FDM stands for:
a. Frequency Digital Modulation
b. Frequency Domain Measurement
c. Frequency-Division Multiplexing
d. None of the above
98. Distortion is caused by:
a. Creation of harmonics of baseband frequencies
b. Baseband frequencies “mixing” with each other
c. Shift in phase relationships between baseband frequencies
d. All of the above
99. The collection of sinusoidal frequencies present in a modulated carrier is called its:
a. Frequency-Domain representation
b. Fourier series
c. Spectrum
d. All of the above
100. Noise in a communication system originates in:
a. The sender
b. The receiver
 c. The channel
d. All of the above

101. The type of information that can be sent using AM is:

a. Audio
b. Video
c. Digital data
d. All of the above
102. If the amplitude of the modulating signal decreases, the carrier deviation ________.
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains
d. None of the above
103. ________ is an electronic filter that passes signals with a frequency higher than a certain cutoff
frequency and attenuates lower than the cutoff frequency.
a. High-pass filter
b. Low-pass filter
c. Band-pass filter
d. All-pass filter
104. ________ is a filter that passes signals with a frequency lower than a selected cutoff frequency
and attenuates signals with frequencies higher than the cutoff frequency.
a. High-pass filter
b. Low-pass filter
c. Band-pass filter
d. All-pass filter
105. ________ is a device that passes frequencies within a certain range and rejects frequencies
outside that range.
a. High-pass filter
b. Low-pass filter
c. Band-pass filter
d. All-pass filter
106. ________ is a filter that passes all frequencies equally in gain, but changes the phase
relationship among various frequencies.
a. High-pass filter
b. Low-pass filter
c. Band-pass filter
d. All-pass filter
107. AM stands for:
a. Audio Modulation
b. Amplitude Modulation
c. Angle modulation
d. Antenna modulation
108. Overmodulation causes:
 a. Distortion
b. Splatter
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

109. Overmodulation occurs when

a. Vm>Vc
b. Vm<Vc
c. Vm=Vc
d. None of the above
110. In SSB, which sideband is the best to use?
a. Upper
b. Lower
c. Either upper or lower
d. None of the above
111. Frequency translation is carried out by a circuit called ________.
a. Converter
b. Tuned circuit
c. Varactor
d. Detector
112. The receiver circuit that rids FM of noise is the ________.
a. Filter
b. Multiplier
c. Limiter
d. Amplifier
113. Indicate the false statement. Modulation is used to
a. Reduce the bandwidth
b. Separate differing transmissions
c. Ensure that intelligence may be transmitted over long distances
d. Allow the use of practicable antennas
114. The theory radio waves was originated by:
a. Marconi
b. Bell
c. Maxwell
d. Hertz
115. The person who sent the first radio signal across the Atlantic ocean was:
a. Marconi
b. Bell
c. Maxwell
d. Hertz
116. The transmission of radio waves was first done by:
a. Marconi
b. Bell
 c. Maxwell
d. Hertz
117. As compared to plain AM, SSB AM:
a. Is more efficient
b. Requires a more complex demodulator circuit
c. Requires less bandwidth
d. All of the above
118. The SC in SSB SC stands for:
a. Single-carrier
b. Suppressed-carrier
c. Sideband-carrier
d. None of the above
119. If an SSB transmitter radiates 1000 watts at peak modulation, what will it radiate with no
modulation?
a. 1000 watts
b. 500 watts
c. 250 watts
d. 0 watts
120. Music on AM radio stations is “low-fidelity” because:
a. AM is susceptible to noise
b. Commercial AM stations use low power
c. Commercial AM stations use a narrow bandwidth
d. All of the above

121. What are the three terminals of a FET?

a. Gate, source and drain

b. Plate, cathode and grid
c. Gate source and battery
d. Input, output and ground

122. When a transistor is fully saturated,

a. The emitter current is at its minimum value

b. The transistor alpha is at its maximum value
c. The beta of the transistor is at minimal value
d. The collector current is at its maximum value

123. A FET without a channel and no current occurs with zero gate voltage is

a. Enhancement-mode FET
b. Depletion-mode FET
c. CMOS
d. Metal-oxide transistor
124. Which of the items below is a special precaution necessary in handling FET and CMOS devices?

a. They have fragile leads that it might break off

b. They are light sensitive
c. They are susceptible to damage and static charges
d. They have micro welded semiconductor junctions that are susceptible to breakage

125. Depletion mode MOSFET acts mostly as

a. A JFET
b. A voltage source
c. A resistor
d. Enhancement-mode MOSFET

126. What is the reason why FET has high input impedance?

a. Because its input is a forward biased

b. Because of the impurity atoms
c. Because its input is reverse biased
d. Because it is made of semiconductor material.

127. A MOSFET is sometimes called _____FET

a. Open gate
b. Shorted gate
c. Metallic gate
d. Insulated gate

128. Which of the following choices is an advantage of a MOSFET over a BJT in an RF amplifier circuit?

a. Low voltage operation

b. Low noise
c. Low amplification of signals
d. Compatibility

129. The voltage gain of an emitter follower circuit is

a. High
b. Low
c. Very high
d. Moderate
130. A _________ is considered a current controlled device.

a. Diode
b. Field effect transistor
c. Transistor
d. Resistor

131. A ________ is considered a voltage controlled device

a. FET
b. Diode
c. Transistor
d. Capacitor

132. In an amplifier, the emitter junction is

a. Forward biased
b. Reverse biased
c. Grounded
d. Shorted

133. What is the principal characteristic of a zener diode?

a. A constant current under conditions of varying voltage

b. A high forward current rating
c. A constant voltage under conditions of carrying current
d. A very high PIV

134. What device whose internal capacitance varies with the applied voltage?

a. Zener diode
b. Photodiode
c. Tunnel diode
d. Varactor diode

135. The ________ transistor configuration has the highest value of input resistance.

a. Common base
b. Common emitter
c. Emitter-stabilized
d. Common collector
136. The way in which the gain of an amplifier varies with the frequency is called

a. Logarithmic response
b. Frequency response
c. Voltage response
d. Phase response

137. The maximum rectification efficiency of a half wave rectifier is

a. 81.2 %
b. 40.6 %
c. 20.6 %
d. 25 %

138. The maximum rectification efficiency of a full-wave rectifier is

a. 40.6 %
b. 81.2 %
c. 110 %
d. 92 %

139. What is also called as the conventional amplifier?

a. Common-collector circuit
b. Emitter follower circuit
c. Common base circuit
d. Common emitter circuit

140. Which of the following is true about the emitter follower circuits?

a. The output signal is 180º out of phase with the input signal
b. The output signal is in phase with the input signal
c. The input signal is always equal to the output signal
d. An emitter follower circuit is equivalent to a common emitter connection
141. The overall gain of an amplifier in cascade is
a. The sum
b. The average of each
c. The product
d. 100% of the sum
142. What type of materials formed when trivalent material is doped with silicon and germanium?
a. N type
b. N and P type
c. PN type
d. P type
143. What element possesses four valence electrons?
a. Insulator
b. Semi-insulator
c. Semiconductor
d. Conductor
144. An advantage of full-wave rectifier over half-wave rectifier
a. Each diode can cool-off during half of each input cycle
b. The ripple frequency is lower
c. The tube will conduct during both halves of cycle
d. Output voltage is lower with more ripples
145. Which is the majority carrier in an N-type semiconductor?
a. Electrons
b. Positive ions
c. Negative ions
d. Holes
146. What is the range of voltage rating available in zener diodes?
a. 2.1 v to 200 v
b. 1.2 v to 7 v
c. 3 v to 200 v
d. 1.2 v to 5.6 v
147. What two elements widely used in semiconductor devices exhibit both metallic and non metallic
characteristics?
a. Galena and Germanium
b. Silicon and Gold
c. Galena and Bismuth
d. Silicon and Germanium
148. In half-wave rectifier, if a resistance equal to load resistance is connected in parallel with the
diode then
a. A circuit will stop rectifying
b. Output voltage would be halved
c. Output voltage would be doubled
d. Output voltage will remain unchanged
149. What type of bias is required for a LED to produce luminescence?
a. Reverse bias
b. Zero bias
c. Forward bias
d. Inductive bias
150. An n-type semi-conductive material is created by adding impurity atoms that have _ valence
electrons.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
151. What is the atomic number of silicon?
a. 29
b. 32
c. 14
d. 15
152. What is the atomic number of germanium?
a. 29
b. 32
c. 14
d. 15
153. What is the letter designation of the valence shell in a silicon atom?
a. M
b. N
c. O
d. L
154. What is the most widely used semiconductor materials in electronic devices?
a. Germanium
b. Silicon
c. Gallium
d. Arsenic
155. What hold together the atoms in a semiconductor crystal?
a. By covalent bonding
b. By forces of attraction
c. By the interactions of valence electrons
d. All of the above
156. What produces the current in a semiconductor?
a. The electrons only
b. The holes only
c. Negative ions only
d. By both electrons and holes
157. In an intrinsic semiconductor.
a. The free electrons are thermally produced
b. There are as many free electrons as there are holes
c. There are no free electrons
d. Both A and B
158. What is the difference between semiconductor and an insulator?
a. The atomic structure
b. The number of free electrons
c. A wider energy gap between the valence band and the conduction band
d. All of the above
159. What is the process of adding impurity to an intrinsic semiconductor?
a. Doping
b. Recombination
c. Ionization
d. Annihilation
160. What impurity is added to silicon to create a p-type semiconductor?
a. Trivalent
b. Pentavalent
c. Intrinsic
d. Extrinsic
161. Radar is an acronym for ________.
a. Radio Digitization And Remission
b. Radio Detection And Relaying
c. Radio Detection And Ranging
d. Radio Detection And Ramifying
162. In 1895, ________ discovered that x-rays could pass through substantial amounts of matter.
a. Alexander Graham Bell
b. Wilhelm Conrad Röntgen
c. Franz S. Exner
d. Nikola Tesla
163. Sonar is an acronym for ________.
a. Solar Naturalization and Reading
b. Solid Nickel Alloy Rendering
c. Sound Navigation and Ranging
d. Solar Naturalization and Recording
164. The mean is indicated by ________.
a. µ
b. u
c. m
d. Infrared rays
165. A ________ is a description of how one parameter is related to another parameter.
a. Signal
b. Wave
c. Placeholder
d. None of the above
166. Which of the following is an example of a linear system?
a. Wave Propagation
 b. Electrical Circuits
c. Electronic Circuits
d. All of the above
167. Which of the following is an example of a linear system?
a. None of the below
b. Signal changes
c. The null system
d. All of the above besides a
168. An ________ is a signal composed of all zeros, except a single nonzero point.
a. implicit signal
b. imaginary signal
c. impulse
d. implied signal
169. Fourier analysis is named after ________.
a. John Benedict Joseph Fourier
b. Jean Baptiste Joseph Fourier
c. Joseph Baptiste Johnson Fourier
d. None of the above
170. The Periodic-Continuous version of Fourier transform is known as ________.
a. Fourier Series
b. Fourier Transform
c. None of the above and below
d. Fourier Notation
171. LSB stands for ________.
a. Latest Signal Broken
b. Lumpy Space Brincess
c. Least Significant Bit
d. Looping Signal Bit
172. ________ is a common technique for improving the digitization of these slowly varying signals.
a. Delivering
b. Dithering
c. Diluting
d. Deriving
173. ________ is the inverse operation of synthesis, where a single signal is broken into two or more
additive components
a. Delamination
b. Decomposition
c. Decoding
d. Derivation
174. ________ is a mathematical way of combining two signals to form a third signal.
a. Commission
b. Collision
c. Convolution
d. Collation
175. The symmetry between the time and frequency domains is called __________.
a. dilution
b. duality
c. deviation
d. dualipa
176. ________ is the analysis of mathematical functions, physical signals or time series of economic or
environmental data, with respect to time.
a. Time Domain
b. Timing Analysis
c. Time Dilation
d. None of the above
177. ADC stands for:
a. Analog Digitization Component
b. Analog Diversion Criteria
c. Analog to Digital Converter
d. None of the above
178. ________ is distinguished from other areas in computer science by the unique type of data it
uses: signals.
a. Computer Signal Processing
b. Signal Engineering
c. Electronics Communication
d. Digital Signal Processing
179. Signals formed from parameters that are quantized are said to be ________.
a. analog signal
b. Fourier signal
c. discrete signal
d. intermittent signal
180. Since both parameters can assume a continuous range of values, we will call this a ________.
a. persistent signal
b. continuous signal
c. analog signal
d. digital signal
181. _____________ is the process of filtering a signal to compensate for an undesired convolution.

a. Convolution
b. Signal Separation
c. Restoration
d. Deconvolution
182. _____________ is an algorithm used to compute the DFT.

a. Fast Fourier Transform

b. Discrete Fourier Transform
c. Laplace Transform
d. z - Transform

183. _______________ filters are used to separate one band of frequencies from another.

a. Custom
b. Recursive
c. Low Pass
d. Chebyshev

184. ________________ describes how information represented in the time domain is being modified
by the system.

a. Step Response
b. Frequency Response
c. Cut-off frequency
d. Overshoot

185. The division between the passband and transition band is called the ___________

a. cutoff frequency
b. passband
c. transition band
d. stopband

186. A ___________ filter is one which in addition to input values also uses previous output values.
Also called as IIR Filter.

a. non-recursive
b. recursive
c. custom
d. chebyshev

187. ____________ attenuates content below a cutoff frequency, allowing higher frequencies to pass
through the filter.

a. low-pass filter
 b. high- pass filter
c. band-pass filter
d. band-reject filter

188. ____________ attenuates content above a cutoff frequency, allowing lower frequencies to pass
through the filter.

a. low-pass filter
b. high- pass filter
c. band-pass filter
d. band-reject filter

189. _____________ filter has no feedback from output to input, and in general its output is a
function of the present and past input samples. Also called as FIR Filter.

a. non-recursive
b. recursive
c. custom
d. chebyshev

190. ______________ is used when a signal has been distorted in some way.

a. Signal separation
b. Signal propagation
c. Signal restoration
d. Signal attenuation

191. _______________ are used to separate one band of frequencies from another.

a. Windowed sinc filter

b. Moving average filter
c. Custom filter
d. Chebyshev filter
192. ________________ is an exceptionally good smoothing filter, but an exceptionally bad low-pass
filter.

a. Windowed sinc filter

b. Moving average filter
c. Custom filter
d. Chebyshev filter
193. ________________ is commonly used in image processing and used to blur images and remove
noise and detail.

a. Gaussian filter
b. Moving average filter
c. Chebyshev filter
d. Windowed sinc filter

194. ________________ is a process to find the degree of similarity between two signals.

a. Convolution
b. Correlation
c. Deconvolution
d. Recursion

195. A _______ means that the power is changed by a factor of ten.

a. log
b. knot
c. bel
d. tau

196. ____________ is a type of signal processing filter designed to have a frequency response as flat
as possible in the passband.

a. Chebyshev filter
b. Butterworth filter
c. Gaussian filter
d. Windowed sinc filter

197. _____________ is a filter that passes frequencies within a certain range and rejects (attenuates)
frequencies outside that range.

a. low-pass filter
b. high-pass filter
c. band-pass filter
d. band-reject filter
198. _____________ is a filter that passes most frequencies unaltered, but attenuates those in a
specific range to very low levels.

a. low-pass filter
b. high-pass filter
c. band-pass filter
d. band-reject filter

199. _____________ is a boundary in a system's frequency response at which energy flowing through
the system begins to be reduced (attenuated or reflected) rather than passing through.

a. balance frequency
b. noise response
c. impulse response
d. cut-off frequency

200. _____________ is the technique used to compare the two time domain signals which help
explore matching and unmatching parts between the two signals.

a. Convolution
b. Correlation
c. Deconvolution
d. Recursion