1. What is a Resistance?

a. An effort by individuals or groups to resist, oppose or overthrow the established government or

occupying powers.

2. What forms can a Resistance take?

a. Passive non-cooperation – boycotts, strikes and civil-disobedience or
b. Active – sabotage, terrorism, guerrilla warfare

3. What is a Resistance Movement?

a. The organized effort by some part of the civil population to resist

4. What are the pre-requisites of a successful Resistance Movement?

a. Unity of effort, Support of the people, Will to resist, Leadership, Discipline, Intelligence, Propaganda,
Favorable Environment, Outside assistance, Will to win

5. What are the five general stages in the development of a Resistance movement?
a. Clandestine organization, Psychological offensive, Expansion phase, Militarization phase,
Consolidation phase

6. What are the basic elements of the Resistance Movement?

a. The Underground, Auxiliary, the Guerrillas

7. What is the Underground?

a. The clandestine, covert element

8. What is the Auxiliary?

a. The element established to provide organized civilian support for the guerrillas

9. What are the Guerrillas?

a. The overt military arm, organized along military lines to conduct operations in enemy or enemy held
territory

10. Who designates the Un-conventional Warfare Operational Area (UWOA)?

a. The Unified Command

11. What are the seven phases of a US sponsored resistance?

1. Psychological Preparation
Purpose is to accept sponsorship by and the presence of US personnel
2. Initial contact
Allows accurate ascertainment of Resistance potential, arranges reception and ensures initial assistance
3. Infiltration
Clandestine infiltration, contact with the resistance, como with the SFOB, movement to the Guerrilla
Base, Area Assessment begins.
4. Organization
Rapport established command structure and relationship defined, Cadre traing programs
5. Build up
Expansion of the resistance elements and activities
6. Combat Employment
Numerous and wide scale raids, ambushes, and demolitions, Continued Psychological Operations, and
expansion
7. Demobilization
After the mission has been accomplished, Arms and ammunition are collected, Resistance force aided by
government to return to previous occupations.

1. Who provides Psyop guidance?

a. The President in conjunction with the NCS

2. How is Psyop guidance relayed to Psyop units?

a. President > DOD > JCS > Theater Commander > Psyop unit

3. Why must Psyop guidance be provided to all personnel engaged in UW?

a. To ensure their actions and conversations enhance US government credibility

4. When does Psyop play a passive role in UW?

a. When advising UW forces.

5. When does Psyop play an active role?

a. When assisting the UW force in the development of Psyop campaigns (Phase 1)

6. What is the most common UW activity supported by Psyop?

a. Subversion, sabotage, Escape and Evasion, and Guerrilla Warfare

7. Why is the main thrust of the Underground psychological?

a. Because it acts to demonstrate enemy vulnerabilities

8. What is the Psyop mission in UW?

a. To create, re-enforce or sustain attitudes in the target audience which will cause the target audience
to act in a manner beneficial to itself and to US interests.

9. What are the four target audiences encountered in the UWAO?

a. The Uncommitted, Enemy Sympathizers, Enemy Forces, Resistance sympathizers

10. What is the Psyop theme directed against the Uncommitted?

a. Stresses that the Resistance and its Allies share the populations political/social goals

11. What is the Psyop theme directed against the Enemy Sympathizers?
a. To instill fear and doubt

12. What is the Psyop theme directed against the Enemy Forces?
a. Instill fear, doubt, distrust and a feeling of isolation

13. What is the Psyop theme directed against the Resistance Sympathizers?
a. An appeal for the population to actively support or at least passively cooperate with the Resistance.

14. What are the inherent factors of any appeal?

a. A rigid code of conduct by Resistance members which ensures that the people, their sensitivities,
culture, customs and needs are respected

15. What are some common themes?

a. Subversion – potential members are reminded of patriotism and nationalism
b. Enemy forces – stress is on self-preservation, immorality of their own acts
c. Sabotage – Acts are just because freedom demands sacrifice; sabotage is moral because the
government is illegitimate.
d. E&E support – Humanitarianism, altruism, rewards and reprisals

16. What is the role of Psyop during the eight phases of a resistance movement?
a. Psychological preparation – for the presence of US Forces
b. Initial contact – generate support for planned operations
c. Infiltration – develop good relations and rapport
d. Organization –increase size, develop and define organization
e. Built up – support expansion
f. Combat employment – exploit successes downplay failures
g. Link-up – Encourage cooperation with conventional allied forces
h. Demobilization – assist and cooperate with an orderly transition

17. What is Psychological Warfare?

a. The planned use of propaganda and other actions to influence the opinions, emotions, attitudes and
behaviors of HOSTILE foreign groups in such a way as to support the achievement of US national
objectives.

18. What is Psychological Operations?

a. Those political, military, economic, and ideological actions planned and conducted to create and
sustain in NUETRAL and FOREIGN groups the emotions, attitudes, and behaviors to support the
achievement of US national objectives.

19. What is propaganda?

a. Any information, idea or doctrine or special appeal in support of national objectives designed to
influence the opinions, emotions, attitudes or behaviors of any specific group in order to benefit the
sponsor either directly or indirectly. Propaganda is controlled information.

20. Operationally speaking, what is Psyops?

a. A force multiplier.

21. What are the characteristics of Psyops?

a. Psyop is a supplemental weapon; it employs propaganda and kinetic actions. It is offensive across the
spectrum of warfare. It is consistent with national policy; is integrated within strategic and tactical
planning.

22. What are the limitations of Psyop?

a. Political – US laws preclude use on US citizens
b. Cultural – must incorporate target culture, not violate
c. Security – Must not compromise HUMINT
d. Media – Is it available; is the product susceptible to enemy manipulation?
e. Personnel – 87% of Psyop is Reserve

23. What are the three types of Psyop?

a. Strategic, Tactical, Consolidated

24. What are the three types of propaganda?

a. White – source is correctly identified
b. Gray – source is unclear
c. Black – source is deliberately incorrectly identified

25. What is learning?

a. The process by which experience or practice is incorporated into relatively permanent changes in
behavior

26. What are the three types of learning?

a. Classical, transfer a response to one stimulus to a previously neutral stimulus (Pavlov)
b. Social, combination of classical an operant conditioning, observational learning
c. Operant conditioning, desired behavior is rewarded,; undesired behavior is ignored or punished

27. What are psychological drives”

a. Status, group approval, self-esteem

28. What are physiological drives?

a. Hunger, thirst, sex, wasted removal, fatigue

29. What are three five levels of Maslow Hierarchy of Needs?

a. 1 Psychological needs, 2 personal needs, 3 social acceptance, 4 esteem, 5 self-actualization

30. What are motives?

a. Desires by individuals to attain goals.

31. What are frustrations?

a. Blockages to or the inability to achieve goals

32. What are the three motivational conflicts?

a. 1 Approach-approach 2 Avoidance-avoidance, 3 Approach-avoidance

Study Guide. The Area Command

1. What has been cited as the primary reason for the success of many Communist led
insurgencies?
a. Operational effectiveness

2. What does Area Command depend upon?

a. Local conditions

3. What are the factors of the area organization?

a. 1 Effectiveness of the Resistance element, 2 Cooperation of the local populace, 3 Enemy
activity and tactical situation, 4 Topography, 5 Desired degree of development with regard to
future operations

4. What is the Area Command?

a. A combined structure with representatives from the Guerrilla Force, the Auxiliary, and the
Underground under one command.

5. What is the role of the Area Command?

a. To control, coordinate and support all resistance activities in the UWAO
6. What are the basic elements of the Area Command?
a. 1 The Command Group, 2 Resistance Force, 3 Special Forces representative

7. What is the initial role of the ODA?

a. To establish a good working and command relationship with the area command. This helps to
develop a higher degree of cooperation and some degree of control over the Resistance Forces

8. What must the SF Detachment Commander be in order to establish a good command

relationship?
a. Extremely perceptive, diplomatic and yet forceful, persuasive, knowledgeable and
professional

9. How does the Area Command ensure its security?

a. By remaining small and mobile with decentralized functions; planning is centralized;
operations are decentralized; meetings are periodic or “on-call”; for long-range planning SOPs or
Operational Plans / Orders are used.

10. What are the planning considerations when preparing for an Area Command meeting?
a. 1 security, 2 Present organization and chain of command, 3 competent personnel in key
positions, 4 invitees, 5 agenda, 6 UW interests during planning and preparation

11. What is the purpose of the Command Meeting?

a. 1, Establish the chain of command, 2 establish operational boundaries, 3 establish priorities of
training, 4 Intelligence (available and required) 5 Support, 6 establish rapport, 7 logistics 8
communications, 9 interdiction plans, 10 targets, 11 money

12. What is the Area Complex?

a. A mobile series of bases with intangible lines of communication established by the Area
Command

13. What are the key elements of the Area Complex?

a. 1 organizational bases, 2 mission support sites, 3 cache’s 4 drop zones, 5 landing zones, 6
training areas and sites, 7 safe areas, 8 intell system, 9 security system, 10 E&E mechanism

14. What is the Guerrilla Base?

a. A temporary site where command and control headquarters, installation facilities, and
operational units are located. There are usually more than one guerrilla base in the sector area

15. How is security of the area maintained?

a. Use of remote, inaccessible area, all approaches should be well guarded and concealed.
Approaches and locations of key areas should only be revealed on a need to know basis.
Alternate bases must always be established.

16. What are the considerations for choosing a Guerrilla Base?

a. 1 size of the G-force, 2 geographic location, 3 enemy situation and location, 3 security, 4
attitudes of the local population, 5 resistance potential

17. What is the purpose of the Mission Support Site?

a. To extend the operating radius of the guerrillas, provide a secure place prior to and after an
operation, receive and cache’ supplies

18. What is a Training Area?

a. Areas large enough to support training activities, that are protected by local guerrillas, and
monitored by an SF member / SME

19. Describe the Guerrilla Hospital?

a. Small, isolated, well-hidden; protected by local Guerrillas and warning nets. Decentralized and
dispersed. Depends on the Auxiliary for support and uses simple, battle-tested surgical
procedures.

20. What is the objective of the Area Complex security system?

a. 1 prevents the enemy from identifying the organizational structure, mission, and location of
the Resistance, 2 prevent neutralization or destruction of the Guerrillas, 3 develop the Area
Command to minimize vulnerabilities from enemy action.

21. What is the preferred method for Guerrilla Security?

a. The bi-zonal system

22. What is the bi-zonal system of security?

a. Consists of two zones – an Inner Zone and an Outer Zone, The Inner Zone is an active system
maintained by the Guerrillas and includes patrols, LP/OP’s and sentries. The Outer Zone is
passive and maintained by the Auxiliary and the Underground. The Outer Zone emphasis is to
discover indications of future actions by the enemy in sufficient time to permit the Guerrillas to
withdraw to safety.

23. What should be stressed / determined during the ODA Commander-Resistance Leader
Conference?
a. 1 emphasize agreements between the US and his country, 2 discuss ODA’s limitations, 3
establish judicial responsibilities, 4 emphasize security systems, 5 establish priorities of training,
6 personnel, 7 command and organization, 8 logistical requirements, 9 training and operational
requirements.

Study Guide. The Auxiliary

1. How is the Auxiliary usually organized?

a. The Auxiliary will usually be organized to coincide with or parallel to the existing political
administration system. This way each community is responsible for providing and maintaining
an Auxiliary.

2. Is a person who unwittingly provides support or is coerced into providing aid to the Resistance
a member of the Auxiliary?
a. No

3. How do members of the Auxiliary derive their safety?

a. In two ways – a compartments structure and operating under cover.

4. What is the principle mission assigned to the Auxiliary?

a. Support. 1 reception of supplies, 2 supply acquisition, 3 intelligence, 4 coordinating civilian
support, 5 part-time guerrilla operations, 6 providing curriers, 7 raise funds, 8 recruiting 9
providing medical facilities and expertise

Study Guide. The Underground

1. What is the Underground?
a. A clandestine, unconventional warfare organization established to operate in areas denied to
Guerrilla forces or to conduct operations not suitable for Guerrilla forces.

2. What is the mission of the Underground?

a. To plan, conduct and support clandestine UW operations and Special Operations against
hostile occupying forces

3. How is the Underground organized?

a. 1 Operational, 2 Intelligence, 3 Auxiliary.

4. How are operational cells organized?

a. With a branch leader, a cut-out who has direct contact to the cell members (usually 3-8
members)

5. How are the Intelligence cells organized?

a. Similar to an Operational cell but with cut-outs at all levels

6. How are the Auxiliary cells organized?

a. In two ways. 1 Parallel cell. Two identical cells assigned the same task that report to the same
leader or 2 Cells in series. A number of cells each doing part of a multi-part task.

Study Guide. The Underground

1. Approximately what percentage of the general population can be expected to actually join the
Resistance?
a. A very small percentage. . . about 6%

2. What are the reasons for joining a Resistance?

a. 1 personal advancement, 2 personal and situational factors, 3 belief in the cause, 4
governmental persecution, 5 propaganda and promises, 6 coercion, 7 coercion with positive
incentives, 8 combination of reasons

3. Why do people remain with the Resistance?

a. 1 Ideology, 2 habit, 3 loyalty to fellow Soldiers *, 4 morale sustaining techniques, 5 threat of
retaliation

4. What types of recruiting are used in the Underground?

a. Selective and mass recruiting

5. When and why is selective recruiting used?

a. Normally used in the early stages of the movement to preserve security, Used to recruit leaders
and key personnel

6. What are the three tasks for which Selective Recruiting are used?
a. 1 Leader tasks, 2 Intelligence tasks, 3 Special tasks

7. When and where are mass recruiting used?

a. Undertaken after the Underground cadre is established and the resistance movement is
successful. Used for filling the ranks of Soldiers.

8. What are the procedures for recruiting new members/

a. 1 screening, 2 surveillance, 3 recommendation, 4 background checks

9. How is loyalty ensured?

a. 1 loyalty checks, 2 loyalty oaths, 3 probationary periods

10. Who's responsible for recruiting?

a. The Auxiliary

11. What are the mechanics of recruiting?

a. 1 The steerer – spots potential recruits, 2 the build-up -- encourage potential recruit to give
indications if he/she is disposed to join. Attempts to get him/her to do more and more for the
resistance, 3 the commitment – joins

12. After the commitment what happens?

a. The recruit is tested, trained, tested and assigned to a task.

Study Guide. Cache’s

1. What is caching?
a. The process if hiding equipment or materials in a secure storage place with the intent of future
recovery for an operation.

2. What are the caching situations?

a. 1 emergency needs, 2 long range operations, 3 anticipated needs in wartime operations

3. What are the two types of caches?

a. Operational and Emergency

4. What are the initial considerations for site selection?

a. 1 Content and purpose of the cache’, 2 anticipated enemy action, 3 activity of local residents, 4
intended actions of allied forces, 5 packaging and transportation assets, 6 personnel

5. What are the criteria for a cache site?

a. 1 suitability for emplacement and recovery 2 permanent landmarks, 3 at least two secure
routes to the site, 4 accessible in all seasons

6. What are the three methods of emplacing a cache’?

a. 1 burial, 2 concealment, 3 submersion

7. What report is used for a cache’?

a. The “‘Under” report

8. What is the most important part of the cache’ (Under) report?

a. The instructions for recovery

9. What is the final step of caching/

a. Recovery

10. What is the procedure for recovery?

a. The same as used for emplacing the cache

11. What are the eight steps for emplacing a cache’?

a. 1 selection of materials, 2 procurement of needed materials, 3 site selection, 4 packaging, 5
transportation, 6 emplacement, 7 cache report submission, 8 recovery

12. What are the key factors for success when emplacing a cache’?
a. 1 cover of the cache party, 2 sterility of the cache materials, 3 obliteration of the slightest trace
of a cache’ party, 4 preservation of materials, 5 proper recording of essential data

13. What is the minimum depth for a burial cache’?

a. 18 inches or 25 cm from the surface to the top of the container

14. What is the minimum depth for a submersed cache’?

a. 7-8 feet taking into account tide changes

15. What is the maximum distance from the final reference point to the cache’?
a. 25 meters

16. How do you pronounce cache’?

a. cash

Study Guide. Logistics in Unconventional Warfare

1. What are the three primary considerations affecting support for indigenous forces?
a. Geography, the size of the force, type of operations to be conducted

2. What are the basic logistical considerations for the resistance?

a. 1 necessities (food, clothing, shelter) 2eqipment for combat operations, 3 medical supplies, 4
transportation, 5 storage facilities, 6maintence and repair

3. What are the two types of logistical systems?

a. Internal and external.

4. What is an internal logistics system?

a. All supplies and equipment are acquired from within the UWAO. There is no outside
assistance

5. What are the principle sources of supply for an internal logistics system?
a. 1 offensive operations (preferred), 2 battlefield recovery (preferred), 3 bartering, 4 purchase, 5
levy, 6 confiscation (last resort), manufacturing

6. What are the preferred sources of supply in the internal logistics system?
a. offensive operations and battlefield recovery

7. What is the extended logistics system?

a. The supply and equipment procured and deliver to the UWAO by the sponsoring power.

8. What are the three phases of external support?

a. CAT A - Accompanying supplies, CAT B - Resupply, CAT C - on-call / routine supplies

9. What are the two categories of phase B?

a. 1 Automatic – the time and place of delivery is planned before infiltration (during isolation), it
will be delivered unless cancelled by the ODA. It is to replace lost, damaged, expended items. 2
Emergency – Time is not specified except the elapsed of a specific period of time after
communication contact is lost. Purpose is to restore the capabilities of the ODA. It will contain at
a minimum, a radio, medical supplies, and survival gear adequate to sustain the ODA for four (4)
days.

10. Who prepares the Cat B items?

a. The ODA during Isolation

11. What is the Catalogue Supply System (CSS)?

a. A brevity code system established to support the ODA when requesting supplies to be
delivered into the area of operation, following complete delivery of all CAT supplies.

12. Who prepares and reproduces the CSS?

a. It is prepared under the supervision of the Group S-4 and reproduced in miniature by the
Group CE Officer.

13. How are the items on the CSS listed?

a. In man portable packages with an average weight of 50 lbs

14. How is supply accountability maintained in the UWAO?

a. Ensure that at all drops there is a member of the ODA present to inventory equipment

15. When packing the Phase B items (Emergency and/or Automatic) what should be used for
packing materials?
a. Useable items like sheets, blankets not “macaroni”

16. What are the 10 categories of Supply?

a. Subsistence, 2 Clothing, individual equipment, 3 POL, 4 Construction equipment and
materials, 5 Ammunitions, 6 Personal demand items, 7 Major end items, 8 Medical supplies to
include medical repair parts, 9 repair parts (non-medical), 10 Civil Affairs items, agricultural,
economic development

Study Guide. Infiltration / Exfiltration

1. What training should be included during pre-infiltration?

a. Pre-infiltration training should include: MOS training, cross-training, special skills raining,
Area orientation, and language training. Ensure that all administrative matters are complete and
up to date.

2. What is infiltration?
a. The clandestine entrance of selected individuals, documents, or equipment into a hostile area

3. What is the primary objective of Infiltration?

a. To avoid contact with or detection by, the enemy

4. What are the four methods of Infiltration?

a. 1 Air, 2 Land, 3 Sea, 4 Stay Behind

5. What are the considerations when choosing a method of infiltration?

a. 1 Mission, 2 Enemy Situation, 3 Weather, 4 Topography, 5 Hydrography, 6 Personnel, 7
Accompanying Supplies, 8 Distance, 9 Available Equipment

6. What are the techniques of Air Delivery?

a. 1 Static Line, HALO, 3 HAHO, 4 Air Land

7. What are the advantages of Air Infiltration?

a. 1 Most practical and rapid means, 2 Flexible, 3 Speed and Accuracy of delivery, 4 Short
exposure to enemy counter-measures, 5 Precise navigation, 6 capable of delivering supplies in
excess of individual loads

8. What are the disadvantages of Air Infiltration?

a. 1 Vulnerable to detection or enemy air defense measures, 2 greatly affected by the weather, 3
possibility of personnel being injured or equipment being damaged, 4 requires specially trained
air crews, 5required DZ sterilization

9. What are the considerations for air infiltration?

a. 1Drop Zones (selection and marking), 2 jump procedures, 3 reception committee, 4 Equipment
and Supplies, 5 Control and assembly, 6 Emergency procedures

10. What are the desirable characteristics of the Aircraft?

a. 1Sufficent capability, 2 able to operate in all weather, altitude and darkness, 3 sophisticated
navigational equipment, 5 sufficient combat radius and rapid re-fueling capability, 6 High
altitude (on-board oxygen system) capable 7 Water land capable if necessary

11. What are the techniques of Water Infiltration?

a. 1 Surface craft, 2 Sub-surface craft, 3 Surface Swim, 4 SCUBA

12. What are the advantages of Water Infiltration?

a. Under seas craft is the most secure method and 2, surface craft is the most efficient, 3 long
range delivery, 4 unaffected by weather up to the point of departure, 5 surface ships can carry
large amounts of equipment, 7some fire support is likely, 8 immediate exfil is possible

13. What are the disadvantages of water infiltration?

a. 1 vulnerable to enemy shore defenses, 2 possible to lose equipment (with little hope of later
recovery), 3 submarines have limited cargo capability, 4 slowest, 5 requires special training, 6
equipment must be waterproofed

14. What are the planning considerations of water infiltration?

a. 1 craft limitations, 2 equipment, supplies and reception, 3 ship to shore movement special
equipment, 4 resupply, 5 conducting rehearsals, 6 disembarking techniques

15. What is the least preferred method of infiltration? Why?

a. Land Infiltration is the least preferred method because it 1 requires a lot of time, 2 places great
stress on the ODA, 3 limited equipment can be carried in, 4 increased chance of enemy
interdiction

16. What are the advantages of land infiltration?

a. 1 Requires the minimum in logistical support, 2 allows for area orientation and in-depth
intelligence gathering, 3 time an movement are flexible, 4 minimum of inter-service coordination

17. What are the planning considerations for land infiltration?

a. Land infiltration is conducted very similarly to a Long Range Reconnaissance Patrol (LRRP),
2 guides, 3 border crossings – documents, security, points, 4 cover and concealment, 5
knowledge of laws and regulations, language and customs, 6 availability of automotive fuel and
repair, 7 animal handling, care and feeding, 8 water and food increased requirements, 8 wear and
tear.

18. What is Stay behind Infiltration?

a. A unit is in an area prior to the arrival of the hostile element and remains in place as the enemy
sweeps over them

19. What are the advantages of stay behind infiltration?

a. 1 Operations may be pre-planned and rehearsed, 2 less support is required, 3 personnel are
familiar with the area (targets), 4 a high degree of security exists, 5 cache’ may be pre-emplaced,
6 ODA get real world/real time intelligence

20. What are the disadvantages of Stay behind infiltration?

a. 1 close proximity to the enemy, 2 enemy activity during the attack, 3 enemy activity (round
ups) during their consolidation phase, 4 communication restrictions, 5 movement restrictions, 6
betrayal

21. What is the ANGUS Report?

a. The Initial Entry Report. It must be submitted to the SFOB. It’s transmission signals the end of
the Infiltration phase. Normally, it must be sent within 72 hours (Group SOP)

22. What are the critical information on the ANGUS Report?

a. 1 Location, 2 casualties, 3 contact with guerrillas, 4 strength of the guerrillas, 5 additional
information

23. When planning infiltration (the Order Annex) what are the key portions?
a. 1 Route, 2 Infil site, 3 Assembly Plan, 4 Contact Plan, 5 Abort Plan, 6 Load Plan

24. What is exfiltration?

a. The clandestine extraction of personnel, documents or equipment from an operational area.

25. What are some possible reasons for conducting exfiltration?

a. 1 Mission completion, 2 seriously ill or wounded US personnel, 3 KIA, 4 exfil of critical
knowledge possessed by guides, assets, enemy, 5 documents and or equipment , 6 on order

26. What are the three methods of exfiltration?

a. 1 air, 2 land, 3 water (Same as infil)

27. What are the two categories of air exfiltration?

a. 1 Air land – when an aircraft touches down for pick-up. Requires a prepared and marked LZ 2
Air Recovery System – Stabo, rope ladder, winch and penetrator, Fulton System

28. What are the considerations when planning air extraction?

a. 1 LZ easily identifiable, 2 Security, 3 Display proper recognition symbols, 4 allow space for
aircraft to maneuver both in the air and on the ground, 5 critical timing, 6 must be a plan for
alternative recovery sites and times.

29. What are the considerations when planning water extraction?

a. 1 Type of water craft available, 2 surf conditions and tides, 3 obstacles – manmade and
natural, 4 communications, 5 errors in drift with swimmers and boats

30. Describe land exfiltration?

a. Land exfiltration is the least preferred; it is a “walk-out”.
31. What are the considerations when planning exfiltration by land?
a. 1 Enemy situation, 2 Friendly situation, 3 terrain, 4 weather, 5 passage points

32. Why is there no exfiltration planned when infiltration was by Stay behind?
a. Instead there will be a Link up

Study Guide. Fingerprint Identification System

1. What is the most commonly used method of personal identification system in the United
States?
a. The fingerprint Identification System (FIS)

2. What are the four pieces of equipment required to record fingerprints?

a. 1 substance to transfer the print, 2 smooth surface to record the print, 3 a magnifier, 4 a fine
line

3. What are some field expedient dyes?

a. Soot, charcoal, blood, cheap lipstick, ink, thin paint

4. How are the fingers numbered?

a. With the palms facing away and hands held out: left pinkie is #1, left thumb is #5, right thumb
is #6, right pinkie is #l0

5. How is an extra finger numbered?

a. In sequence as it appears. A note will be made in the message, if one is transmitted.

6. How are missing fingers counted?

a. As though they were there except no impression will be made, obviously

7. When applying ink to the fingers and thumb and then the impression to the card, how are the
digits rolled?
a. Fingers and thumbs roll from inside to outside – uncomfortable to comfortable.

8. What is the impression area on a finger and thumb?

a. The area from tip to the line of cleavage and from nail edge to nail edge

9. What is bifurcation?
a. The divergence of one line into two or more lines

10. What is divergence?

a. The spreading apart of two lines which have been running parallel or nearly parallel

11. What is a type line?

a. The two innermost which start parallel and spread apart and tend to surround the pattern area

12. What is the pattern area?

a. The part of the loop or whorl in which the cores, deltas and ridgelines appear

13. What is a delta?

a. It is located in front of and nearest to the center of divergent type lines
14. What is a core?
a. The innermost recurring line or segment approximately in the center of the impression

15. What are the three types of fingerprint patterns?

a. 1 Arches, 2 loops, 3 whorls

16. What is an arch?

a. Ridges enter and depart on opposite sides of the print, tending to rise slightly in the center.
There are no cores or loops

17. What is a tented arch?

a. An arch with a more pronounced rise in the center

18. What is a loop?

a. Ridge lines that enter one side of the print and flow to the center, re-curving on itself and exit
on the side it entered from

19. What are the two types of loops?

a. They are finger and thumb loops. They are determined by the open end of the loop. A Finger
Loop opens toward the fingers and a Thumb Loop opens toward the thumb

20. How are fingerprints recorded?

a. By type and ridge count

21. What is a Ridge Count?

a. The number of times that a fine line connecting the Delta and the Core is crossed by Ridge
Lines

22. How are Ridge Counts counted?

a. The first count is the Core, the last is the Delta

23. What is a Whorl?

a. A whorl is any pattern with two deltas and a core which usually revolves on itself

24. When doing a Ridge Count on a Whorl, which Delta is used?

a. The left one

25. Can you do a Ridge Count on an Arch?

a. No. It receives a count of zero 0.

Study Guide. Training Management

1. What are the three parts of the Training System?

a. 1 The training base, 2 Unit training, 3 Training support

2. What are the five portions of the Special Forces Training System?
a. 1 Basic, 2 Unit, 3 Special, 4 Support, 5 Replacement

3. How can training be organized?

a. Two ways, 1 Centralized or 2 De-centralized

4. What are the advantages of Centralized Training?

a. Centralized Training maximizes the best use of instructors, allows for Standardization, and
ensures the efficient user of time, facilities and equipment

5. What are the advantages of De-centralized Training?

a. Promotes Small Unit leadership, develops morale, espirit de corps, and teamwork

6. What are the two phases of Special Forces training?

a. 1 Planning and Resourcing; 2 Training and Evaluating

7. What are the three planning tools for training?

a. 1 Long range planning, 2 Short range planning, 3 Near term planning

8. How much time is normally allotted to planning for Foreign Internal Defense (FID) or Mobile
Training Teams (MTT)?
a. 70 days

9. How much time is normally allotted to planning for UW?

a. 5 days

10. What is the purpose of long range planning?

a. 1 Identify missions and assign priorities, 2 develop goals and strategies, 3 ensure resources are
available

11. What is the purpose of short range planning?

a. 1 Review long range plans, 2 compare with unit proficiencies, resources, and environment, 3
develop detailed training plans

12. What is the purpose of near-term planning?

a. 1 Develop detailed plans, 2 provide specific guidance and effect final coordination

13. What are the five steps in the Estimate of the Training Situation?
a. 1 Analysis the mission, 2 Examine the Situation and develop Courses of Action, 3 Analyze
opposing Course of Action, 4 Compare opposing Courses of Action, 5 Make a decision

14. Where can most required information be gotten?

a. The Individual Learning Center

15. How are the Guerrillas are normally trained?

a. Begin with a Centralized system and transition to a De-centralized one

16. What is the best way to evaluate the guerrilla Force?

a. Trial by Fire

Study Guide. Training Management

Study Guide. Link up

1. What phase of a US sponsored insurgency is the Link Up a part?

a. Combat employment

2. What is the purpose of a Link Up operation?

a. To transfer operational control of the UW forces to the Conventional Forces Commander –
usually at Corps level.

3. How does the Corps Headquarters normally control the UW force?

a. Through a Special Forces Liaison Team (SFLT)

4. Who is responsible for providing the SFLT?

a. The Group Commander

5. What are the three methods of providing liaison?

a. 1 SFLT to Corps, 2 SF plus Resistance member to Corps, 3 Corps/SFLT infiltrate into the
G/UWOA

6. When should you NOT attempt a link up?

a. During the assault Phase

7. When does planning for the Link Up begin?

a. In Isolation

8. What are the key considerations when planning a Link Up?

a. 1 Contact Points, 2 Scheme of Maneuver, 3 Fire Support coordination, 5 Communications

9. After the Link up what are possible/probable mission for the guerrillas?
a. Reconnaissance, counter-guerrillas operations, rear area protection, civilian support

10. What are the three types (methods) of Link up?

a. 1 Physical juncture, 2 Communication Link up, 3 Marked Route

11. What is a Physical Juncture Link up?

a. It is a face-to-face meeting. It is the most difficult and dangerous

12. What is a Communication Link up?

a. The conventional forces contact the unconventional forces.

13. What is a Marked Route Link up?

a. Conventional forces move along corridors marked and secured by the guerrillas.

14. What are the two conditions of a Link up?

a. Temporary and permanent

Study Guide. Demobilization

1. What is Demobilization?
a. Demobilization is the process of disarming the Guerrilla force and transitioning them to full-
time and peaceful civilian activities

2. When does Demobilization occur?

a. It is the last phase of US sponsored Unconventional Warfare

3. Who makes the decision to conduct demonization?

a. The Unified Commander

4. Why do we demobilize?
a. 1 With the presence of conventional forces in the area opportunities for the guerrillas to
conduct military operations are greatly reduced, 2 the stability of the new government may
depend on ensuring that no rebel bands are capable of refusing compliance and cooperation

5. When does planning for demobilization begin?

a. The Unified Commander begins to plan for demobilization as soon as the decision is made to
support the resistance. The ODA begins planning for demobilization ids Isolation

6. What are the three Courses of Action available when conducting Demobilization?
a. 1 Release the Guerrillas to the government with all arms and equipment, 2 Release the
Guerrillas to the government less all US arms and equipment, 3 guerrillas are disarmed and
resettled by US Forces

7. What is the ODA Commander’s responsibility during Demobilization?

a. To assemble the guerrillas and all records at the appointed time and place

8. What is the role of Psyop during the demobilization?

a. 1 Keep the guerrillas informed, 2 assist in the transition from combat to peacetime activities, 3
provide peaceful transition themes

9. What is the role of Civil Affairs during demobilization?

a. Recommend uses for the guerrillas, 2 assist in indoctrination and re-training, 3 recommend
resettlement sites, 4 advise and assist in administrative matters, 5 design and support civil
projects

10. What are nine primary planning considerations for demobilization?

a. 1 Assembly, 2 Records, 3 Pay and Allowances, 4 Claims, 5 Awards and decorations, 6
Collecting arms and ammunition, 7 Medical, 8 Discharge, 9 Rehabilitation

Study Guide. Airborne Operations

1. What are the four phases of an airborne operation?

a. 1 Mounting, 2 Air Movement, 3 Assault, 4 subsequent operations

2. What is the Mounting Phase?

a. The period between when the operation is conceived and when the Paratroopers enter the
aircrafts

3. What is the Assault Phase?

a. The period between when the paratroopers enter the aircrafts and they reach the ground.

4. What is the Assault Phase?

a. The period between when the paratroopers reach the ground and have established an Airhead

5. What is the purpose of the Jumpmaster?

a. To take overall authority for all personnel and equipment on the aircraft

6. How many Jumpmasters are on each aircraft?

a. One

7. What are the qualifications to be a Jumpmaster?

a. Must have graduated from an accredited Jumpmaster course (usually two weeks) and current
(performed as a Jumpmaster or Safety within the last six months

8. What are the qualifications of an Assistant Jumpmaster?

a. The same as a Jumpmaster

9. How are the duties of the Jumpmaster divided?

a. 1 Unit area, 2 Departure Airfield, 3 in-flight, 4and at the Drop Zone. (In combat the
Jumpmaster will NOT have any duties on the Drop Zone).

10. When designated as Jumpmaster what should the Jumpmaster do first?

a. Report to the S-3 for an Airborne Coordination Brief

11. What is the Load Time?

a. The time that the Aircraft must be available for the Jumpmaster to conduct the Aircraft
Inspection

12. What is Station Time?

a. Station Time is the time that all personnel and equipment must be loaded and secured and
ready to go

13. What is the minimum that must be covered during Pre-Jump training?
a. The Five Points of Performance

14. What are the Jumpmaster’s duties in the Unit area?

a. 1 Coordinate with the S-3, 2 ensure the organization of aircraft loads, 3 check the manifest, 4
appoint Assistant Jumpmasters and Safeties, 5 brief and inspect the paratroopers (initial), 6
conduct Pre-Jump Training

15. What are the duties of the Jumpmaster at t the Departure Air Field?
a. 1 Coordinate with the departure Air field Control Officer, 2 Isue parachutes and other air
items, 3 Inspect personnel and equipment, 4 Inspect the aircraft, 5 attend the Jumpmaster-Air
Crew briefing, 6 Conduct the Plane Side Briefing, 7Announce station Time

16. What is a DA Form 1306?

a. A Jump Manifest

17. What are the Jumpmaster’s duties during the in-flight portion of the operation?
a. 1 Remain ground-time oriented, 2 check the condition of the paratroopers, 3 enforce flight
rules and regulations, 4 oversee preparation and placement of the door bundles, 5 Issue jump
commands, 6outside safety checks of aircraft and the Drop Zone

18. What are the five standard warnings?

a. 20 minutes, 10 minutes, 6 minutes , 1minute and GO

19. What actions occur at the 20 minute warning?

a. 1 The door bundles are inspected and positioned in the door, 2 Personnel jumping equipment
hook up

20. What actions occur at the 190 minute warning?

a. 1 check personnel, 2 wake up, 3 helmets are fastened

21. What actions occur at the 6 minute warning?

a. 1 Jumpmaster hooks up, 2 Begin jump commands

22. What are the nine Jump Commands?

a. 1 ‘Get Ready”, 2 “Outboard Personnel Stand Up”, 3 “Inboard Personnel Stand Up”, 4 “Hook
Up”, 5 “Check Static Line”, 6 “Check Equipment”, 7 ”Sound Off For Equipment Check”, 8
“Stand In The Door”, 9 “Go”

23. What should the Jumpmaster do at the 1 minute mark?

a. 1 Relay time to the paratroopers, 2 Check the Jump Platform, 3 Conduct a 360 degree check of
the outside of the aircraft, 4 Identify the drop zone, 5 at ten seconds put the first jumper in the
door

24. What are the rules regarding the Green and Red lights?
a. 1 If the green light is early, wait. 2 If the green light is late or goes out early, wait – the pilot
may see something dangerous that you don’t

25. What are the Jumpmaster duties on the Drop Zone?

a. 1 Account for personnel and equipment, 2 oversee the care and evacuation of the injured, 3
turn in air items, 4 report to the Drop Zone safety Officer

26. What are the qualifications of a Safety?

a. The same as the Jumpmaster

27. What are the general duties of the Safety?

a. To perform any and all duties assigned by the Jumpmaster

28. What must the Safety do at the airfield?

a. Draw 20 extra reserve parachutes and enough Aviator Kit Bags for the deployment bags. 1
AKB per 15-20 DBs

29. What are the duties of the Safeties in the air?

a. 1 at “20 minutes” helps place the door bundles, 2 at “10 minutes” assist the JM check
personnel, 3 at “6 minutes” controls the JM’s static line, 4 at “sound off for equipment check”
one Safety checks each paratrooper’s static line from the anchor line to the pack tray moving
from the front of the aircraft to the rear, when complete signals “okay” to the JM. (During the
inspection the safety corrects the jumper’s problem), 5 at “Go” controls the jumper’s static lines
and the deployment bags, 6 After the last jumper, recovers the D-bags, 7 returns to the air field
and cleans the aircraft, 8 reports unusual occurrences to the DZSO

30. What actions are taken when a Jumper refuses to jump?

a. 1 Safeties escort Jumper to the front of the aircraft and secures him, 2 at the Departure Air
Field (DAF) inspects his equipment, 3 turns jump refuser over to the DZSO

31. What actions are taken in the case of a towed jumper?

a. 1 notify the pilot, 2 determine if the jumper wants to be cut loose or retrieved, 3 act on the
pilot’s decision

32. What is the Airborne Commander?

a. The senior tactical commander, responsible for the operation

33. What is the Air Mission Commander?

a. The Air Force counter-part to the Airborne Commander, responsible for and controls the air
element

34. Who can delay or cancel an airborne operation?

a. The Airborne Commander in conjunction with the Air Mission Commander

35. What is the DACO?

a. The Departure Airfield Control Officer. Normally, E-6 or above, Army personnel who works
for the Ground Liaison Officer or the Air Mission Commander, responsible for all coordination
and liaison between the Army and the Departure Airfield

Part 2 Study Guide. Airborne Operations

36. What are the responsibilities of the DACO?

a. 1 coordinates parachute issue and ground transport, 2 establishes a marshaling area, 3 confirms
the marshaling area, 4 ensures radio / telephone communications, 5 briefs the JM on changes and
restrictions, 6 is present at the Joint Weather decision, 7 notifies the DZSO when the aircraft
depart, 8 notifies high headquarters and isolated the aircraft in the event there is a casualty on
board 9 takes charge of Army personnel and equipment left aboard after the jump

37. What are the responsibilities of the Drop Zone Safety Officer (DZSO)?
a. The DZSO is responsible for the safe operation of the drop zone

38. What are the qualifications of a DZSO?

a. Must be Jumpmaster qualified and normally an E-6 or above

39. When must a Drop Zone be ready for operation?

a. One hour prior to Drop time

40. What are the time and task requirements of the DZSO?
a. 1 hour prior to drop – contract Range Control
b. 10 minutes prior – check winds on the DZ
c. 5 minutes prior – make final check with Range Control
d. 1 minute prior – final wind check, Go/No Go decision
e. After Jump – close the rage with Range Control

41. What are the jump restrictions for wind velocity?

a. 1 On the ground Winds not over 13 knots, 2 at jump altitude winds not over 30 knots

42. What are the specific considerations for the Drop Zone?
a. Night – 5 minutes prior to drop time, all lights on or near the drop zone must be extinguished,
2 Water within 1000 meters of the Drop Zone there must be a man in a recovery boat, 3 Power
lines within 1000 meters of the DZ, power must be turned off

43. What is a Combat Control Team?

a. An Air Force element that sets up drop zones for conventional units.
They have direct radio communication with the aircraft.

44. What are the four types of Special Forces drop zones?
a. 1 Primary, 2 Alternate, 3 Unmarked, and 4 Area

45. What are the criteria for Primary and Alternate drop zones?
a. 1 reasonably secure, 2 accessible, 3 safe, 4 can be identified by the aircrew, 5 free of hostile
installations that can interdict, Alternate DZ’s should be located close to the aircraft track to the
Primary DZ

46. What is an unmarked drop zone?

a. Exactly as the name implies, it is a DZ that is not marked. It is normally limited by visibility to
specific astronomical conditions, it is usually odd shaped and sized. Isolated or remote from
enemy threat. Should be close to the evacuation route.

47. What is the purpose of unmarked drop zones?

a. Receipt of emergency supplies

48. What is an Area Drop Zone?

a. A series of potential drop zones on the same track. Individual drop zones will not be more than
½ nautical mile off track and there will be not more than 28 km (15nm) between DZs. There will
not be any elevation changes over 90 meters. Each drop zone will be identified by individual
coordinates.

49. What are the selection criteria for drop zones?

a. 1 Safety, 2 weather, astronomical conditions, 3 SECURITY, 4 shape, 5, size, 6 ground surface,
7 terrain

50. What is the minimum size of a personnel drop zone?

a. A radius of 305 meters

51. What are the five elements of the reception committee?

a. 1 Command, 2 Security, 3 Marking, 4 Recovery, 5 Transportation

52. What type of security is required at drop zones?

a. Inner and outer security

53. What is the minimum manning of the Recovery element?

a. 2 men per bundle or person

54. What is the standard DZ marking?

a. The NATO “L”

55. What are the three factors necessary to determine the Ground Release Point?
a. Dispersion, Wind Drift, and Forward Throw

56. What is Dispersion?

a. The distance between the first and last landing on the ground

57. What is Wind Drift?

a. The amount of lateral dispersion caused by blowing wind

58. What is forward throw?

a. The distance a jumper or bundle will continue to travel forward along the aircraft track before
inertia is used up and gravity and wind drift take over

59. What is the formula for dispersion?

a. D=RT
b. Dispersion = .51 x speed of the aircraft x exit time
60. What is the Dispersion Factor for a C-130?
a. C-130 125 kn (63.75)

61. What is the Dispersion factor for a C-141?

a. C-141 130 kn (66.300)

62. How is the exit time determined?

a. Total number of jumpers and bundles divided by number of doors subtract 1 (for the door
jumper)

63. What is the formula for Wind Drift?

a. D=KAV
b. Drift = parachute constant x aircraft AGL (in 100’s od feet) x wind velocity (in knots)

64. What are the parachute constants?

a. Cargo = 2.6 and Personnel = 4.1

65. When conducting a mixed (personnel and cargo) drop what constant should be used?
a. Always use the constant for personnel 4.1

66. What is the factor for Forward Throw?

a. Always the constant 220 meters

67. What is the Drop Zone Safety Factor?

a. Add 100 meters at each end of the dispersion. Add a total of 200 meters to the calculation

68. What is the personnel load of a C-130?

a. Normal -- 64 pax, Emergency – 130 pax

69. What is the personnel load of a C-141?

a. Normal -- 152 pax, Emergency – 180 pax

70. When putting out DZ markers what is the line of sight ratio?
a. 1:15

71. How do you determine Line of sight?

a. Multiply the height of the nearest obstacle by 15

72. What is the distance between panels in a NATO “L”

a. 46 meters between the line of flight panels (A – apex -- and B)
b. 46 meters between the first perpendicular panels (A – apex -- and )
c. 46 meters between the outer perpendicular panels (C and D)

73. What track will the aircraft fly relative to the panels?
a. The aircraft will fly parallel to the A and B panels, offset to the right by 91 meters

74. What is the procedure for laying out a drop zone?

a. 1 determine where you want people to land, 2 determine dispersion, 3 add the safety zone, 4
figure how long the drop zone is in seconds. 5 Determine where you want the first person or
bundle to land. 6 determine wind drift and pace off walking into the wind. 7 Determine forward
throw (220 m) pace that off walking parallel to the aircraft track. This is the RELEASE POINT,
8 offset 91 meters (100 yards) to the left. This is where the A panel goes.

75. If smoke is used on the drop zone, how should it be placed?

a. So that it does not obscure the panels