APOLLO HOSPITALS BANGALORE

Choose the correct answer date:

All questions to be attended marks:

Each questions carry equal marks time: 45 minutes

1. The iliac crest correspond to what vertebral level?

A. S1 S2

B. L4 L5

C. L3

D. S4

2. Which of the following classifications describes the shoulder joint?

A. Ginglymus

B. Enarthrodial

C. Hinge

D. None of the above

3. Dysmetria can be best defined as?

A. Sudden jerky moments

B. Inability to perform alternating movements

C. Overshooting the goal

D. Tiring easily

4. Which track is responsible for the unconscious perception?

A. Spinocerebellar tract

B. Spinothalmic
 C. Medial leminiscus – posterior columns

D. Corticospinal

5. What is the fuel that produces the most ATP?

A. Anaerobic glycolysis

B. Oxidative phosphorilation

C. Fatty acids

D. Proteins

6. The integration level for the symmetrical tonic neck reflex?

A. Cerebellum

B. Cerebellar

C. Brainstem

D. Midbrain

7. Treatment to facilitate normal fundamental movement patterns is for?

A. Cerebral palsy

B. Cystic fibrosis

C. Juvenile arthritis

D. Flaccid child

8. A test for anterior – posterior displacement of knee cruciate ligaments is called?

A. McMurray’s test

B. Apley’s test

C. Patella – femoral grind test

D. Drawer test
9. Diathermy is an example of energy transfer by?

A. Conduction

B. Conversion

C. Radiation

D. Absorption

10. Sitting upright percussion between clavicle and scapula is for which lobe?

A. Upper – lobe anterior

B. Posterior

C. Upper lobe – apical

D. Left lingular

11. All of the following make up the stance phase of the gait except?

A. Heel strike

B. Foot flat

C. Push – off

D. Midswing

12. In a SOAP note the tests performed by the therapist are placed in which section?

A. Subjective

B. Objective

C. Assessment

D. Plan of care

13. Loss of ability to judge distance of movement?

 A. Adiadochokinesia

B. Ametria

C. Asynergia

D. Dyssynergia

14. In a Parkinson’s disease difficulty in initiation of movement and slowness is called?

A. Tremors

B. Rigidity

C. Bradykinesia

D. Festinating

15. The majority of cervical disc lesions occur at which segment?

A. C1C2

B. C2C3

C. C3C4

D. C4C5

16. Patient is a 21 years – old college student with neck pain. What test could you utilize
to determine if cervical traction might alleviate pain?

A. Compression test

B. Adson test

C. Swallowing test

D. Distraction test

17. How many degrees of freedom is the maximum number that a single joint can
possess?

A. 5
 B. 6

C. 3

D. 4

18. Which of the following terms best fits the definition of a minimal time that a stimulus
of twice rheobase stimulates a tissue of strength duration curve?

A. Galvanic current

B. Faradic current

C. Rheobase

D. Chronaxie

19. A client is referred for the evaluation and management of chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD) sequelae. The chart includes findings that are not
consistent with COPD. Which of the following values are within the normal limits?

A. FVC = 3.1 L; FEV1 = 1.4L

B. FVC = 2.9L ; FEV1 = 2.7L

C. FVC = 5.1L ; FEV1 = 4.1L

D. FVC = 2.6L; FEV1 = 5.2 L

20. The most common source of pulmonary embolus is?

A. Pleural effusion

B. Pulmonary oedema

C. Hemothorax

D. Deep vein thrombosis

21. In examining a client who reports joint pain “balloting” the joint will?

A. Determine the passive range of motion

 B. Elicit the presence of fluid

C. Assess for increased heat over the joint

D. Determine the presence of crepitus

22. A client is being treating with ultrasonography, which can be effectively applied to
and area:

A. Five times (50% the size) of the effective radiating area (ERA)

B. Equal to the size of the ERA

C. Two times the size of the ERA

D. Three times the size of the ERA

23. Which PNF technique should be used to teach a patient a pattern of movement?

A. Traction

B. Rotation

C. Rhythmic initiation

D. Slow reversals

24. Adson manoeuvre is performed to adjudge compression upon:

A. Radial artery

B. Subclavian artery

C. Femoral artery

D. Internal iliac artery

25. +ve Ober’s test is suggestive of:

A. Congenital dislocation of hip

B. Contracture of fascia lata and ilio – tibial band

C. Tear of medial meniscus

 D. None of the above

26. A therapist can obtain valuable information during and examination by using special
orthopaedic tests. Which of the following motions would you initially except to be the
most restricted?

A. Extension

B. Abduction

C. Medial rotation

D. Lateral rotation

27. The pulmonary function test results of a with advanced Duchene muscular dystrophy
would show all the following changes from normal except for:

A. Decreased vital capacity

B. Reduced functional residual capacity

C. Decreased FEV1

D. Reduced total lung capacity

28. Following full thickness burns to both arms hypertrophic scar formation can be
effectively controlled through :

A. Custom made pressure garments

B. Primary excision followed by auto grafts

C. Surgical resection ( z - plasty)

D. Occbesive dressing
29. During a difficult birth th infant suffered a brachial plexus injury. This results in
paralysis in the lift extremity involving an injury to C7, C8, T1 specifically. What is
the correct name for this injury?

A. Erb’s palsy

B. Klumpke’s palsy

C. Erb Duchene paralysis

D. Duchene Klumpke’s paralysis

30. Match the following :

A. Adson’s test A. Tear of the meniscus of knee

B. Barlow’s test B. Cruciate ligament injury

C. McMurray’s test C. Cervical rib

D. Drawer’s sign D. Congenital dislocation of hip

E. Froment’s sign E. Regeneration along and injured nerve

F. Trendelenberg’s sign F. Infected ulnar bursa

G. Tinel’s sign G. Ulnar nerve injury

H. Kanavel’s sign H. Interference with function of gluteus

medius