Bom | Fimactal Markets Mamgzeanent 2 Pe aaraeY te man 8229. Set No. 1 17U/101/24 Queftion Booklet No. (To be filled up by the candidate by biue/ black ball-point per} Roll No. | 13° (Signature of Invigilator) He eget ee on nll UE Serial No. of OMR Answer Sheet ..... Day and Date INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES: (Use only blue/black ball-point pen in the space above and on both sides of the Answer Sheet} 1. Within 30 minutes of the issue of the Question Booklet, check the Question Booklet to ensure that it contains all the pages in correct sequence and that no page/question is missing. In case of faulty Question Booklet bring it to the notice of the Superintendent/Invigilators immediately to obtain @ fresh Question Booklet. De not bring any loose paper, written or blank, inside the Examination Hall except the Admit Card without its envelope. A separate Answer Sheet is given, t should not be folded or mutilated. A second Answer Sheet shal! not be provided. Only the Answer Sheet will be evaluated. 4. Write your Roll Number and Serial Number of the Answer Sheet by pen in the space provided above 5. On the front page of the Answer Sheet, write by pen your Roll Number in the space provided at the top, aad by darkening the circles at the bottom. Also, wherever applicable, write the Question Booklet Number and the Set Number in appropriate places. 6. No overwriting is allowed in the entries of Roll No., Question Booklet No. and Set No. (if any] on OME sheet ard also Roll No. and OMR Sheet No. on the Question Booklet 7. Any change in the aforesaid entries is to be verified by the invigilator, otherwise it will be taken as unvair means, 8. Each question in this Booklet is followed by four alternative answers, For each question, you are to. record the correct option on the Answer Sheet by darkening the appropriate circle in the cortesponding row of the Answer Sheet, by ball-point pen as mentioned in the guidelines given on the first page of the Answer Sheet. 9. For each question, darken only one circie on the Answer Sheet, Ifyou darken mote than one circle or darken a circle partially, the answer will be treated as incorrect, 10. Note that the answer once filled in ink cannot be changed. If you do not wish to attempt a question, leave all the circles in the corresponding row blank (such question will be awarded zero mark) 11. For rough work, use the inner back page of the title cover and the blank page at the end of this Booklet, 12, Deposit only the OMR Answer Sheet at the end of the Test. 13. You are not permitted to leave the Examination Hall until the end of the Test 14. [acandidate attempts to use any form of unfair mearis, he/she chall be Hable to such punishment as the University may determine and impose on him/her. (ahs Fen fed 4 ifn srar-qa wm RA me 13. No. of Printed Pages: 442ElB-Goon./ Fimamciah markets Mangpeoremd: cole ve > = 133, 17U/101/24 Set No. 1 No. of Questions /weit 1 don : 150 ‘Time /AW : 2% Hours /Ae . Butt tenstes GUE: 450 Note: (1) . Attempt as many questions as you can. Each question carries 3 marks, ‘Que mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. Zero mark will be awarded for each unattempted question. afeeriies wei at et FY aT at RE eT 3 ae ao) he Tere ore Are ee ae wre SAT SE Ba ger aT TS ET om (2| If more than one alterriative’ answers seéiti to be approximate to the Correct answer, choose the closest one. a atte Fae See he SHC HRT WE aco ae oe a 1. According to Forbes List of Billionaires 2017, the richest Indian billionaire is (1) Lakshmi Mittal | Sl Wikesh Ambani (3) Azim Premji (@) Dittf-shanghyi wile @ sania more eee 3, FUER, We taag yt arent a (1) wet Reet 2) BART FIT (3) te ae, (4) Ret as 28 1 os (PT.O)17U/101/24 Set No. 1 (28) Which State in India has been the pioneer in labour reforms? (1) Rajasthan (2) Gujarat (3) Madhya Pradesh (4) Uttar Pradesh ora Sam gen & wel 8 staan Tea oat we 27 Q) RA (2) Fur () Hear (4) FER HRT When was the First Industrial Policy resolution formulated in free India? wade urea At gem afte fa fee are aH garg wt oH? (1) 1947 (2) 1948 (@) 1949 (4) 1950 Who, among the following, had the shortest tenure as Governor of Reserve Bank of India? (1) ©. Rangarajan (2) Bimal Jalan (Q) Y. V. Reddy (4) Raghuram Rajan seg 2 Ronen aoe red ford as Terk wT GHA FHT #7 (1) ate oR (2) FRA TES) argo dio t& (4) THN TSA How many countries are members of SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation)? ae (ein ra resin aaa) eA oy wT #? ny 6 a7 as a9(28) 170/101 /24 Set No. 1 On which date was the Union Budget for 2017-18 presented in the Parliament? {1) 18t February, 2017 (2) 2nd February, 2017 (3) 3rd February, 2017 (4) 4th February, 2017 2017-18 wa we afer wae Weg Ha TT wr? (1) 1 Set, 2017 (2 2 wa, 2017 (3) 3 Ral, 2017 (4) 4 Wael, 2017 WTO (World Trade Organisation) was established in the year Tetotioste (ees are. ane) fier at Ht earfta wt {4) 1994 (2) 1995 (3) 1996 (4) 1997 Which one of the following items was highest a5 a percentage.of GDP in India in 2016-17 in case of Central Government? (1) Fiscal deficit (2) Direct tax revenue (3) Indirect tax revenuc (4) Interevt-paymens, 33 TGR & aad § Rea aba ag af 2016-17 + Hodtovto & way & wa a attire cer? 0) Watts ger (2) era St amy” (3) sera at aT (a. sane gry * : 3 PTO}17U/ 101/24 Set No. 1 9. According to Economic Survey 2016-17, GDP growth rate in India was highest in the year (2) 2013-14 (2) 2014-15 (3) 2015-16 (4) 2016-17 ants wat 2016-17 % aan, srr F Htodtotte aa AT Talis ft a (1) 2013-14 # = (2) 2014-15 4 {3} 2015-16 4 (4) 2016-17 ¥ 10. Which one of the following is not correctly matched? (1) Rekhi Committee ; Simplification of Export and Import Procedures (2) Nanjundappa Committee : Railway Fare (3) Rangarajan Committce : Balance of Payments (4) Goiporia Committee : Banking Service Improvements fratiea #8 aix-ar qittra ae 2? () 3a abs: Seat athe orene vBearalt er attra @) wegen aff a ate (3) reer afte : yTere Ie (ay Tretorn aie: ae a aK 41. The Agricultural Census in India is done at an interval of (1) every year (2) once in three years (3) once in five years (4) once in ten years (28)12. 13. (23) 17U/101/24 Set No, 1 sma # ft wrt fer orate & ax at 87 (1) oe at % (2) a od ft ue aR 3) ota af 3 we an @) watt wa For the Financial Year 2017-18, which one of the following as percentage of GDP is likely to be maximum in case of Central Government? (1) Revenue deficit (2) Effective revenue deficit (3) primary deficit (4) Fiscal deficit fate af 2017-18 & dh Og wt } aed F fer Fa mer codes & wierd 3 wr A atte eet ar aque #7 (1) wae sre (2) Ware THR Ter (3) safes erat (4) worst err On which date, the Union Budget for 2017-18 was Presented by Shri Arun Jaitley in Lok Sabha? (t) 1 February, 2017 (2) 8 February, 2017 (3) 15 February, 2017 (4) 28 February, 2017 Bea GR Bt sen Set or ad 2017-18 a Safe gar chem Hae fe ma? , as Ql) L wet, 2017 (2) 8 Free, gous @) 15 weeezOTT WER o1 5 (PTO)17U/101/24 Set No. 1 14. For which income slab, income tax rate has been reduced in the Budget for 15. 16. (28) 2017-18? (1) Between Rs 250 lakh to Rs 5-0 lakh {2) Between Rs 5-0 lakh to Rs 10-0 lakh (3) Between Rs 10-0 lakh to Rs 20-0 lakh (4) Above Rs 20:0 lakh 2orT-10 % wae 4 fem oes at oe areata am A aE 27 (1) 250 ara @ 5-0 are wa & ata (2) 50 we a 100 wa Wa & ata (3) 10-0 ama @ 200 ora oH dy {4) 20-0 Tre Ta B ae For the Financial Year 2017-18, which one of the following items is likely to be maximum as perccntagc share of Central Government's expenditure? (1) Interest payments (2) Defence (3) Subsidies (4) States’ share of taxes fata ae 2017-18 & RA, Bex 2 a Shem we Sghe we} oF shoe F wr f waits @h At sete 27 (1) a yr (2), afte (3) sere (4) at & amet ar fer which one of the following items is not taken into account while computing current ratio? ay sundry creditors IM Onde Aahtors, (3) Furniture (4) Bank overdraft17. 18, ia. (a8) 17U/101/24 Set No. 1 FR, AYA St ORT A Peaieian wel Fa. ae fee ae 2? (1) fafa een (2) ARE are (3) fT (4) ae atergree Which one of the following is not an operating expense? (1) Office expenses. @Q). Interest (3) Selling overheads (4) Postage frafafion 4 & wae via aa agi 8? (1) arate ere (2) TT (3) Pea ahem (4) ae or In calculating the return on sharcholders’ equity; the tienominator is (1) equity capital (2) preference capital (8) equity capital plus preference capital (4) equity capital plus preference capital plus recervee street 8 ama 7 SAA EM HA AW tet t () weet fot (2) sft fat @) ar St oe (+) ate fat (4) wr GR (+) aftr Yt ow (4 Net worth of the business me means (1) equity capital” (2) total assete. (3} total assets minus total liabilities (4) fixed assets minus CUFTERT Rye 7 PTO)17U/101/24 Set No. 1 20. 21. 22. (28) vam A yg anfsad ar omer e (1) a st (2) Be wesht {3) get seat — ger cafe (4) eaeh watt — ay aah ‘Higher the ratio, lower the profitability’ is applicable to (2) gross profit ratio {2) net profit ratio (3) operating ratio (4) return on investment ‘Ser aya, = a’ ay, eat (1) Fret AMT aya ae (2) Ye TT sigad (9) Titsrert aggre ot (4) feRPibt oe Here Given—Nominal value of share Rs 10, No. of shares issued 10000, Total net profit Rs 20,000 and Dividend paid 10%, What is Earnings Per Share (EPS) ? (I) Re 1 (2) Rs2 (3) Rs 3 (4) Nil fear Qatar a aif YpT 10 to, Wh fet wa ivf At Gem 10000, Fa Ye “ai 20,000 ¥e, Rar Tar aT 10%. Hf ste aha (fottouRo) Fa 2? (| 1 ®o (2) 2 % (3) 3 %o 4 3 Dividing net sales by average debtors would yield (1) acid test ratio (2} return on sales ratio (2) operating ratio (4) debtors turnover ratio ye fa at ter arat & fake FO TOE een ay tas tt FST Q) fra yam agra (3) Were FATA (4) eR aad agTTA 823. (28) 17U/101/24 Set No. 1 The schedule of changes in warking capital is prepared with the help of (1) current aserts (2) current liabilities (3) current assets: and current liabilities (4) non-current assets and non-current liabilities sede fot tac a feor feat emer @ sm ary #7 (1) Boake & (2) ae afieat & (3) Sie weahrat a ane ePiedt (4) toarg ae a tare afte a - The flow of fand is said to have taken place when (1) cash is paid to creditors (2) cash is received from debtors (3) machinery is purchased for cash (4) in all of the above cases at ay sae gan wa, ae wen 2 aa (2) Sra a dag a yur Rear a 2) Sen tee om a (3) tag tam meat ae Peer ope 4) She wham &, @r.0,)17U/101/24 Set No. 1 25. 26. 27. (28) Which one of the following is not an application of fund? (1) Repayment of loan (2) Acquiring an asset in liew of equity shares {3} Redemption of preference shares {4) Payment of dividend feat Ha ate ate at sean we 87 (1) Fam ar Gea (2) Bre aint & wet ARIE HI A (3) after ofeit ar faritar 4) arin et Ta Which one of the following is not added to the net profit for computing the amount of funds from operations? (J) Depreciation on machinery (2) Profit on the sale of plant (3) Goodwili written off (4) Loss on the sale of furniture peace @ aha Gr aR, Aen wet A Pree Fa fe ae a YS oe F aE ais wm 3? (1) Bafat He Be (2) siz Ft fash eH (3) are Ft eh eae (4) weft At Pat a a When total sources of funds are more than the total applications of funds, the net effect is (1) increase in working capital (2) decrease in working capital (3) increase in total assets (4) decrease in total assets 1028. 29, (as) 17U/101/24 Set No. 1 wa ort & ga ata, at & ga seh a ite @, a men yg wre oT (1) dar fst af (2) arfater fat 2 arf (3) Fe woah gfe (4) Fe wae 7 aah Which one of the following is nat a Cash Inflow? (1) Purchase of fixed assets (2) Sale of goods (3) Issue of debentures . (4) Sale of fixed asscts firafafta 4a aia tag arcate ae 27 () SaRh Benft ar aT (2) Fre fae 8) oN at Arie (4) were conte ay feast Given—Total sales Rs 5,00,000, Credit sales Rs 2,25,000, Total purchases Rs 2,48,000, Credit purchases Rs 1,08,000 and, Cash operating expenses Rs 40,000. Cash frort'operitions wit be OTTER {1} Rs 1,90,000 (2) Rs 1,30,000 (3) Re 95,000 {4} Rs 81,000 fer tga fsrr 5,00,000 ¥0, san fie 2,25,000 %0, Ft FF 2,48,000 ke, 3UR FT 1,08,000. Fe Far RR WET RA 40,000 Sal aterm firma & thay ‘vere et (1) 1,90,000 6 (2) 1,30,000 % —{3) 95,000 xo (4) 81,000 0 Which one of the following is an example of NOi-CASH EXpenses? {l] Depreciation (2) Wagec-andceleries (3) Telephone expenses “~~Administrative expenses _u To)17U/101/24 Set No. 1 SL. 32. 33. (28) frafafan § 8 at A-teg ory at scree 87 Q) wa (2) sat 7 a (3) deter ore (4) seas oa Which of the following curves is not U-shaped? (\) Average fixed cost curve (2) Average variable cost curve {3) Average total cost curve (4) Marginal cost curve fea 48 adem aw U-sTen wr el that 87 (1) tad fx rR a (2) atta vertaatter amd ae 3) ated Fe cM HH (4) Sires aT ae Which one of the following is the most effective instrument of controlling black money in an economy? (1) Demonetisation (2) Depreciation of currency (9) Devaluation of currency (4) Deflation fa #2 shea fat slower Foo wr Ht Pain aa aT aad ae ata 2? (1) ager (2) apt 4 fro (3) Fal aA (4) seat Tf we exclude product taxes and subsidies, we arrive at (1) gross value added (2) gross domestic product (3) net domestic product (4) net domestic product at factor cost 1234, 35. (28) 17U/101/24 Set No. 1 aft en song saat wen aes a ver z, ct Gl WH ater @ (1) wae apa gfe (2) wat atey sere (3) Ye we gene (4) and omel we yg Rey ze Which one of the following is not a component of Bharat Nirman? (1) Rural housing (2) Rural electricity (3) Agriculture based industries (4) Rural telephones services fs 3S her ara Prater ar sree at -87 (1) Breton ater (2) mein Prefer (3) eRe saree seit (4) anit aren dat RIGS stands for {i) Real Time Gross Settlement (2) Regional Teller Google Settlement (3) Real Teller Google. Settlement {#) Rapid Time Gross Settlement aRodtosioume 8 and & U) treat wen aia Bate (2) terre der oer AReiz (9) dae ten Be Aiea (4) Ute om wie Sfeete Reserve Banle of India issues notes under which ‘system? (1) Maximum Reserve.Syaten. (2) Minimum. Reserve System (3) Fixed Reserve System (4-Deemactional Reserve System 13 PTO)17U/101/24 Set No. 1 a7. 38. 39. (28) cardia fod ae fr veh & seat ate one aon 8? (1) aftemmr ate git (2) =arat ra Tale 0) Afas she waht (4) sagas ae gh Ordinal measurement of uUility is required in (1) Utility Analysis (2) Indifference Curve Analysis (8) Revealed Preference Analysis (4) Demand Curve Analysis smitten & aa den sree A aTaaaAT e (1) seater faeetyer (2) Teer am farerar F (3) we afters farce (4) ain ame facto F Price consumption curve of a normal commodity is (1) horizontal (2) vertical (3) negatively sloping (4) positively sloping We are aed HT Aina sei aw ear e (yy afew (2) seater (3) BOHR Se ATT (4) RS Ie STAT Which form of monopoly regulation is most advantageous for the consumer? (1) Price control (2) Lump-sum tax (3) Per unit tax (4) Both (2) and (3) 1441. 42, (28) 17U/101/24 Set No. 1 fee wen aT Cater Peicr smite & fet satires creme 8? (1) Awa Feit a) eR Rg) SR ee ae 4) (2) To G) HF The slope of consumption function is known as (1) aggregate consumption (2) marginal propensity to consume (3} average propensity to consume (4} None of the above aaah Ger FH Ses Bl Hel TTF () oat Ini (2) thors sas wafer 3) sttea aus sgh (4) arte FS ate at The Classical Theory of Employment and Income assumes (1) Fall employment (2) underemployment (3) disguised unemployment (4) overfull employment tame wa arr ay vita Reger AY scene & () of tee (2) set tay (3) een AT (4) Sf dae a afte dee The bank rate means the rate which the (1) Commercial Banks pay on savings deposits, (2) Commercial Banks pay on current account deposits (3) Commercial BARRE CNET on shori-term loani {4) Central Bank charges. in rediscounting bills of exchange 15 P70)17U/101/24 Set No. 1 aa. (28) a Ta ad ee Tt Q) ara ts aaa wr a 83 S 0) afin ae aq erat om 8a g (3) aa de severe samt we aap F (4) Sale de ee feel & Ges « Eye F The heart of Keynesian multiplier is aa} ye wa? {l) APC (2) APS (3) .MPC (4) MPS High powered or reserve money in India includes (1) currency with the public (2) cash reserves of banks (3) other deposits and bankers’ deposits with RBI (@) All of the above var ag wits ar tad aan Ft afeaterr & () ara & oe at (2) Hat & wae fod 3) fied da & oe ore ord Sah At (4) sabe ai if regardless of changes in its price, the quantity demanded of a good remains unchanged, then the demand curve will be (1) horizontal (2) vertical (3) positively sloped (4) negatively sloped 1647. (28) 17U/101/24 Set No, 1 aR fra H sheet A ont A a sit yw RY A Ath of aT small 2, at ay a at as do Q) afar (2) Sr, (3) Ne sa are (4) sere oe ae Technique used by codes to convert an analog signal into a digital bit stream is known as (1) pulse code modulation (2) pulse stretcher, {3} query processing (4) queue management Soren net BY fEee fae en Faced oq we ge oedn Gy wo wate St wer ara ze (1) ee te gear 2) eee #8 sR 4) Bia An optical input device that interprets pencil marks on Paper media is (1) magnetic tape (2) punch card reader {3} optical scanners (4) OMR wifes FRE fears St era area oe Hite fe A Same ara (1) Maes ay (2) Fa are thee ay oR Bee {4) atoumtosmt Most important advatitage of an IC is ite (1} easy replacement in gase of circuit failure (2) extremely high reliability (3) reduced cost (4) low power consuyey Pro)17U/101/24 Set No. 1 49. 50. S51. 28) SH Agodo a wae Hel aH 2 HHT () ake Seok A fei A ara ieee (2) ares va farce (3) 3m fear gon arTa (4) Pe oka sostr Data division is the third division of a program. (1) COBOL (2) BASIC (3) PASCAL (4) FORTH — stat sites: fran at gis fewer 21 (i) COBOL #1 (2) BASIC #1 (3) PASCAL @ = (4) FORTH #7 Which language was devised by Dr, Seymour Aubrey Papert? sto aut ata ted & gro fea rn w tan fe var 7? (1) APL (2) COBOL (3) LOGO (4) FORTRAN \ program that converts computer data into some code system other than the normal one is known as (1) Encoder (2) Simulation (3) Emulator (4) Coding wag ca @ are wont & skis ge He Te A wha set aretha a we rat 8 (1) wate (2) Fragen (3) Fae @y an 1853. (28) 17U/101/24 Set No. 1 A device designed to read information encoded into a small plastic card is (1) Magnetic tape (2) badge reader (@) tape puncher 4) card puncher ae ania ad # qeag qa st vet aq sofia ere & () MRE gaa te (3) ue (4) ard eR A hybrid computer uses to convert digital signals from a computer into analog signals. (1) modaiater (2) demodulator. (3), modem. (4) decoder Rien Rem soa A Crh Rint Fo vteis wed de ely eT AG iat & O) tees (2) fatenex a, (3) Sta (4) eater ar A group of magnetic tapes, videos or terminals usually under the control of one master ig (1) cylinder (2) cluster (9) surface (4) track amet Gs are & Ptah ae ou, AT ar eevee er om & (1) Refs 2) ere Bp Gy Pp A device that porforme.signal conversion is (1) modulator (2) modem (3) keyboard 4) plotter ftom weit a ard ea ate are t (a) stage m wien 1g) eee {4) tay 19 ~ @T.O)17U/101/24 Set No. 1 86. 87. 58, 59. {28) Codes consisting of light and dark marks which may be optically read is known as (1) mnemonics (2) bar code (3) decoder (4) All of the above we atc 7a fie we az BA sae A a |G TT aS, Fee Te (1) Fate (2) an ate (3) Featst (4) sade al A type of channel used to connect a central processor and peripherals which uses multiplying is known as (1) modem (2) network (3) multiplexer (4) All of the above WH VEN By Sra fear TAIT Se MAT aA ART A gH & fre rar sa ade at nedteren a aaa ate 2, FT ET ATF (1) ar (2) Feat (3) weet (4) at HT The first generation of computers available was based on the bit microprocessors aay a1 We ae Meh ate aT ——. fe areata se ay 4 (38 (3) 16 (4) 64 ‘The complete picture of data stored in database is known as {1) record (2) schema (3) system flowchart (4) DBMS crate H aaga Set S aepT Teh at aT TT z (4) fate (2) sehr @) fen wie @) Dems 2061, 17U/101/24 Set No. 1 Which one of the following is intended to be used in all applications runs on mainframe computers? Is ea RW ae ant agra it Arafat FQ fear weir anite 37 (2) Loco (2) APL (3) PL/1 (4) OCcAM The value of x that satisfies the equation —t_4_5_-_9 = is x-3°x-5 x13 45 m Water = 49 - 9 2 am =— ¥-5° 3-5 y-1g Mae t qt 3 (3) 2 (a) 4 a wb eb acea.ct mas, then the valve of 315 +h +l te equal Weal abrebi-crac=asb @ Dos aL ar ee amt tm a) 5 (2) 1 (3) 7 (43 A businessman gives commission to his agent 4% up to sale of Rs 1,00,000 and 5%% above it. If businessman has giver! Rs 5,925 as commission to hia agent, then find the sale made by agent (1) Rs 1,35,000 (2) Re 13,500) Rs 1,50,000 (4) Rs 1,40,000 we aad ae) otiteat Ft T00,000 te RET IEG ter wea aE 5% aoten dar ti 2 sada aad afhent a 5,095 % aa fe a i feta fee oft we Ae ar {1) 1,35,000 % (2) 13,500 % ~ (3) 150,000 &o 2 ) 1,40,000 0 TO)17U/101/24 Set No. 1 64, 65. 66. 67. (28) A work can be completed by 30 men in 10 days, then in how many days work can be completed by 40 men? we at 30 one ga 10 fr Foy am fier oem 4, at ame Afia fe 40 srefrdt get fe Rat A anh qa ee fee sre? (1) 7-00 (2) 7:25 (3) 7-75 {4) 7°50 ‘The perimeter of a triangle is 100 cm and its sides are in the retio1:2:3. The area of the triangle (in cm?) is & fs @ ahr 100 om & ok ee qari 2:3 B agua a Pee dasa (ai Gomo #) z (ty 100 (2) 10015 (3) 10/5 @) 10007 If the ratio of the volumes of two spheres is 1:8, then the ratio of there surface area is aR Sate F aT a aU 1:8 8, HS aael wt ayTT e (1:2 2). 1:16 (3) 1:8 (4) 1:4 A man saves Rs 320 during the first month, Rs 360 in the second month, Rs 400 in the third month. If he continues his savings in this sequence, in how many months will he save Rs 20,000 ? we eft som vA A) oeaRY A 520 ve var 4, fete we F 360%, TAM wen ¥ foo Fo) BR ae ATTN saa a et wee A ard cam 8, ah Feet we A ae 20,000 ¥° warm? () 28 (2) 25 (3} 22 (4) 20 2270. Tm. (28) 17U/ 101/24 Set No. 1 ‘The average age of a group of 10 students is 15 years. When 5 more students joined the group, the average age rose by 1 year. The average age (in years) of the new students is (1) 18 years (2) 17 years (3) 16 years (4) 12 years 10 ort & we agg At ahem ong 15 aE thee ae FT o5 otk on atte am & @ stan omg uw ad oft ag ant 81 52 ont A sftea ong (at #) 2 (i) 18 a (2) 17 af @) 16 wt @ 12 a4 A train passes by a stationary man standing on the platform in 7 seconds and passes by the platform completely in 28 seconds. If the length of the platform is 330 metres, what is the length of the train? w& 27 ween w fain we anata gar 7 dee to gaat 2 otk 28 ate wefan Genel & eax got G1 ale teed FVM 330 Met 8, AM oa A TE wa 8? () 11s m (2) 110 m (3) 120 m 100 m Find the compound interest on RS 10,000-for-diyeng if the rate of interest is 4% for the first year, 5% for the second year and 6% for the third year () Re 18652 (2) Re 13752 (Spe 28752 (4) Re 1,4659 10,000 %o &, q Fae we AR ae oT a yom a a, Rita at Bd sme Pott gtla aH BA 6m 8 eligi (1) 15652 Fe) kaTEA ke (3) USTED Fe (4) 1,465 go The marked price of a radio is Rs 480, . and gains 8%. Tf to-dieoount js alow aPKC? allows a discount of 10% Ue Yea Hi aise aes 480 to 21 gementom az dt ate aR ae 7 fear aT, Neer. Te 8% BM SER Fol 3) 1 oe Hi) 28 a au @| 18 23 P.7.0)17U/101/24 Set No. 1 73. 74, 7. 16. (28) The mean of first 8 natural numbers is wer 8 wepite ceri at area qs (2) 45 (3) 4 (4) 55 A work can be completed by 12 men in 10 days working 8 hours daily, Find in how many days work-will be completed by 20 meri working 6 hours daily Ww am) 12 eeh 10 Raa s we sft ad ah we a eat t,t aT Hira fH 20 sre 6 ue wits art aA fart Peal A art qo a ah ayo (2) 8 (3) 7 (4) 6 3/2 The cimpleot form of (2) ie rasa sit | wm eT Te 4 3 81 05 as 8s ae A fruit seller purchased 12 apples for Rs 100 and sold 10 apples for Rs 100. if, he earned Rs 100, then find numbers of apple he purchased and sold fiat TH 10 Ba 100 Fo H fama fee ae & Be PRT Ay 12 Be 100 Fo A we i ga fea Loo fo ara &, at aa ABA Pe sed flea Ba wa ce Fama Fe (1) 60 (2) 50 (3) 40 (4) 30 The goodwill prought ip by new partner is withdrawn by old partners in their () new profit sharing ratio (2) old profit sharing ratio 7 (4) cquall 63) capital ratio (4) equally 24Tt. 78. (28) 17U/101/24 Set No. 1 a8 aman ger ah EE Uae Gut ae eT Rane ah 8 (1) 8 am oa (2) get em argue (3) tt & agua t (4) Serer ~arra In which of the following would an adjusting entry for depreciation be made? {1) Cash Book (2) Journal (8) Sales Book (4) Purchase Book Prefered 42 saa aunter ar wa & fq Ren ser 87 (1) 355 Gr (2) ster (3) Ber arn (4) 7 Great Receipts and Payments Account is (1) Real Accormt (@) Personal Account (3) Nominal Account (4) None of these sa we rae crear ® (1) rahe Har (2) afta Fe 3) RMR ara) aa BRE a Which one of the following is correct? (1) Opening capital = Closing capital + Addltforidl capital Drawings — Profit (2) Opening capital = Closing capital + Drawings ~ Additional capital - Loss (3) Opening capital = Closing capital + Drawings ~ AddITSTa capital - Profit (4) Opening capital = Closing capital ~ Drawings — Additional capital ~ Profit frafaiaa #3 sta-a ae a7 () srs dot = af Gh + afte fot tree — ae (2) Sree ape = afte + srreor — fieer a — fh (2) rR fot = orf = (4) Sree fat = iF eat — agg — aE fe 25 PTO)17U/101/24 Set No. 1 80. al 82. (28) Goods valued Rs 3,600 lost by fire. The insurance company admitted a claim for Rs 2,000. What amount will be shown in Trading Account? (1) Rs 1,600 (2) Rs 2,000 (3) Rs 3,600 (4) No amount 3,600 0 ART a at a a we a a Teg a SHH 2,000 % HTT waar farm) cam cat A far afr Raed are? (1) 1,600 (2) 2,000 ¥o (3) 3,600 0 (4) FS of ae Provision for depreciation on fixed asset made in the Profit & Loss Account of the accounting year will be deducted in the Balance Sheet from (1) the book value of the asset concerned {Z} Ihe market value of the asset concerned (3) the original value of the asset concerned (4) the inflated price of the asset concemed poet ofteraf % years ar Sar ae reef Ser FA well ose SL OITA 4 gem ari (1) wears Ramat & ae APT a (2) Wabi vaca & aa aeT a ) wahia ctewath 3% ania TA a (4) weatae aitarata % eA Apa a AB and C ave partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2:2:1. C tires, The new profits and losses sharing ratio between A and B will be ag vac Mae UT aah wr Rae 2:2:1 % agua A we el C HAR en wet 3) A Ste & Sta oe Sa fae a oT eT Qy dl (a) 2:1 (3) 3:2 (5:3 2683. 84. 85. (28) 17U/101/24 Set No. 1 Profit on cancellation of own debentures should be transferred to (1) Profit & Loss Account (2) Profit & Lose Appropriation Account (3) Capital Resorve Account (4) Reserve Capital Account Bet one & Puctlewr we ne at spate een ate, Q) eRe (2) aa farsa ora (3) Of daa on 4) aaa fst arr Profits prior to the incorporation -wrc an example of (2) Capital Reserve (2) Secret Reserve (3) Revenue Reserve (4) Statutory Reserve waren @ ad & cre we seer ® Q) et waa Qa a (3) Sr ea (4) dente dar ay Premium received on issue of shares can be used for (1) payment of dividend *” (2) witty o® pretiminary expenses (3) payment of directordoes— {4) redemption of debentures aiet & fotos Mea 1 ren Ran a get (2) Brat yrara % fey 8 ouday } (3) Fares fa gros 3 FAT (4) RTF ea 3 fr a7 PTO)17U/101/24 Set No. 1 86. The credit purchases of fixed assets are recorded in (i) Purchases Book (2) Cash Book (3) Journal Proper (4) Sales Return Book fan aft ar son wa orftietfea rar sar @ () ma at (2) tes ae () ate ome 4) ft ageh adt 87. The Statement of Affairs is prepared under Single Entry System (1) to ascertain the capital on any date (2) to ascertain total value of various aseete (3) to ascertain the amount of various liabilities (4) to ascertain the financial position of the business pret wae weet a fexfe flat da fen orn & (1) Prt fae we fot ar & fore (2) Fata wRearatiral ot got ART IAT B fore (9) fafa Raarait Ah Ga af sr & fee (4) saerea a faeftr feat wert & fee g8, Incase ofa firm’s dissolution, the balance of Realisation Account is transferred to Partners’ Capital Accounts (3) in capital ratio (2) equally {3} in profit sharing satio (4) in partners’ loan ratio 28 (28)(28) 17U/101/24 Set No. 1 wa & fire A AU A, sate Ga am dy mMaR BG aa Fora fet art & (1) Yet ayaa ¥ (2) raat (3) em Ran agua F 4) wae & am} agua § . By forfeiture of shares is meant (1) cancellation of shares (2) seizure of shares (3) imposition of fine for late payment (4) underwriting of shares oft ar wer a ona t Q) att at Pretec (2) ate a wer war (3) fees 8 gam see os a aT (4) stat at attri Which Account has a credit balance? (1) Carriage Inward (2) Carriage Outward (3) Return Inward (4) Return Outward fea ta a am ty aa 8? () are% Ag) TET (2) sere org (3) Bae amet “@ sama 29 : (P70)17U/ 101/24 Set No. 1 91. 92. 93. 94. (28) Which one of the following is not a form of business organisation? {1} Sole Proprietorship (2) Partnership (3) Charitable Trust (4) Joint-stock Company freafater fa ate care arora GH eT FE 27 O) ea aM) Tat gw we 4) Haw aU eh ‘The Indian Partnership Act was came into force from the year andy amg afthan fra ad & warestict Gem en? (1) 1932 (2) 1940 (3) 1948 (4) 1956 Social responsibility improves (1) public image of business {2) product quality (3) managerial efficiency (4) managerial control antes afica 3 gaat & (1) saree atteraFs (2) seme A YoaCT (3) SRA aaa (4) sere Fre Which one of the following is related to both solc trading and partaeralnye (1) Direct motivation (2) Unlimited liability (3) Mutual agency (4) Full control 3096. 97. (28) 17U/ 101/24 Set No. 1 Frafefad 4 8 whee were omm wd wmtat dat a aafhra 87 (1) cer afro (2) aeffite wafea (3) Tete arfraror (4) at Pero In company, risk is borne by (1) Directors (Q) Shareholders (8) Creditors of Company (4) Managing Director spent 3 otter sot ar aa (1) arene (2) siren (3) Fert & tree (4) yee gas Restricting the, transfer of shares is a feature of . . (1) Public Company () Stibsidiary Company (3) Holding Company (4) Private Company or & Pt Hit eH Te 2 (1) ardahia ett a (2) SERRE RPA =e, (3) aad sort aa (4) Raf wert oo Procedure for transfer of shares in contained in (i) Articles of Association (2) Memorandum of Association (3) Prospectus 4 Statement in lieu of Prospectus cit 3 wearer fire cae () We arate 4 (2) whe eahtey F aneers as (FARE 3 ea Poe 5 Pto)17U/101/24 Set No. 1 98. 100. 101. (238) Direct motivation is related to (1) sole trading (2) partnership (3) public company (4) holding company wens ation safer & () He oa a (2) aera @ (3) aah srt t (4) aad art a Registration of Cooperative Society is (1) compulsory (2) optional (3) essential (4) unnecessary weer ofa a Tht () aRard & (2) Safes 2 (3) SMA F(a) OHTETTT @ Diesel Locomotive Works (DLW) is an example of (1) Public Company (2) Public Corporation (3) Departmental Undertaking (4) Government Company doa stata aA (Goqoesrye) GH ITET e (1) wears ar a (2) ite Fy aT (gy Brant we TT (4) arent Ferd aT itl of Lading is issued. by (3) exporter (2) importer (3) shipping company (4) exporter’s agent 32102. 103. 104, (28) 17U/101/24 Sct No. 1 wart fea Peter fear sien & (1) Frakes arr (2) serve ger (3) Sesh ser grt (4) Bates & aferet are Which one of the following is an auxiliary export document? (1) Commercial Invoice (2) Bill of Exchange (3) Certificate of Inspection (4) Proforma Invoice Rfid 4 3 staan wee Pata wer t? (1) abies a5 (0) faPiaa for (3) Pater at smo (4) stamet aia Special Economic Zone hae been crcateil to (2) encourage export (2) encourage import (3} encourage free trade (4) encourage domestic trade fete oats atx er yore flea Ta & (1) Pate steerer 3% fore (2) arene eaTET & fhe 3) Ge wR ¥ steer & fe (4) 2x8 sara & steerer General principle of insurance inchides (1) utmost good faith (2} insurable interest (3) contribution . ~ 44) AlLof the above 93 1.0)17U/101/24 Set No. 1 105. 106. 107, (28) air 3 aaa fegra & aie & () WH wakes) dn trae (8) TET (4) athe wh Partner and firm are mutually related to (J) management (2) servant (3) agent (4) shareholder wardar ste wah ar oeertes Brae Bat 2 () 3era aT (2) aaa FT 3) Gea @) serat a Which one of the following is a part of controlling process? (1) Setting standards (2) Searching alternatives (3) Awareness of problems (4) Division of work fer @ stem Pian shar a fem 8? (1) AR aT (2) frei qon/ats (3) wae 8 Aa EAT (@) ad fer Which one of the following is related to both planning and control? (1) Example (2) Observation (3) Budget (4) Audit protetten H&B Pro GE fie art a ahs 87 (1) Sart (2) sracitert @) we (4) ste 34108, 109. 110, 111. (28) 17U/ 101/24 Sct No. 1 In how many parts Fayol’s administrative functions are divided? Yale 3 serehs areal at feat anit F fare fier? (1) 4 @ 5 @7 a3 The term ‘Mental Revolution’ was coined by (1) Heraberg (2) Henri Fayol (3) Maslow (4) F. W. Taylor ante sha’ St aan a ae (1) wef ger (2 ®t Bie go (3) Set ger (4) Who Zero te qT Which one of the following is not an element of planning? (1) Principle (2) Objective (3) Policy (4) Strategy fer 8 vy Peter or we aa att 8? ) Reger (2) are (3) a (4) rhe A plan when expressed in quantitative term is known as (1) process (2) ebjective (3) policy (4), budget we atom ot ware gal Ht vee fan ag 8, al ay anf ont a (1) sien 2) 3a (3) A (4) we 35 20)17U/101/24 Set No. 1 112. 113. (28) Father of Management by Objectives is (1) Henri Fayol (2) F. W. Taylor (3) G. R. Terry (4) Peter Drucker wei gu wat & fie a (l) &e tate (2) Who Serqo Fat @) Wo ake 28 (4) ex SR Which is the highest form of Democratic Organisation? (1) Line Organisation (2) Line and Staff Organisation (0) Comumittce Organioution (4) Punctional Organisation att aad afte ctaaifis a1s7 8? Q) ta oer (2) ter wa aad dee 3) afBfa ares (4) feererg A134 Measuring actial performance with the planned performance is the subject-matter of (1) policies (2) organisation (3) control {4) span of management arafas ard ea Pati eR) at are faery t (a) att a (2) We (3) Ream @) RT & Pree a 36115. 116. 417. (28) 17U/101/24 Set No. 1 Delegation of authority means () transfer of authority only (2) transfer of responsibility only {3) wansfer of authority and responsibility both. (4) transfer of authority, responsibility and accountability after sree oma R (1) Fae oer a arr (2) Fan sgh a ATT . 8) aRER CE smeies ai et sre (4) after, seater ud gareten a1 ara Which one of the following is not related with Job Analysis? (1) Interview Method (2) Point Method (3) Questionnaire Method (4) Observation Method fet i a aly ard feeder 8 acafis at) (1) Bremer FAR (2) flee fa (3) weneet BR (4) aaeten AR The method applied to KiiGW the need for wraining is (1) job evaluation _ (2) performance appraisal (3) SWOT analysis (4) personnel review sre STEHT wr aT SUT Fy AY (1) we apa (2) PONT Star (a) eee (9) ats eaten 37 70)17U/101/24 Set No. 1 118. Who propounded the X and ¥ theory of motivation? (1) Vroom (2) McGregor (3): Urwick (4) Maslow afte x ae y fara ar witarg feet fen en? (1) 3 (2) dali (3) sia (4) Beet 119. Breakeven analysis is a technique related with ()) planning Q) staffing (3) motivation (4) control aafacde fare aeotien writ 8 Q) friar 3 (2) safer & (3) after a ) Pam 2 120. Highly democratic motivational theory is (1) hygiene (2) participative (3) X @y afirkon a fart at aftrs cteaiBer 8 (1) SRT (2) sftart @Q) x a ¥ 121, Which of the following is not a part of Financial Market? (1) Capital Market (2) Commodity Market (3) Money Market (4) Secondary Market freq ate Petia areca TT HEE 8? () dst Sar (2) Fq Ta (2) Ta AR (4) ders are 28) 38122. 123. 124. 125. (28) 17U/101/24 Set No. 1 Which of the following is not a speculators in the stock exchange? (1) Broker (2) Bull (3) Bear {4) Stag frafafaa fa att eer fief a aga wef a? (1) ere 2 a @ a @) Rr _ Money Market deals with (2) long-term funds (2) medium-term funds (3) short-term funds (4) Government funds Wal aren fah are aiar set #7 ) Sear fat (2) Tener fife 3) aeraeia RR (4) arent fat ‘The maximum period of maturity of capital market instrument is {l) no timit (2) 3 years (3) 364 days (4) 20° years ” Uh arene cen & afemr A stem: sai & {l) #E tim wt (2) 3 at (3) 364 fa {4} 20 af Out of the following. which one is not a capital market instrument? (1) Equity shares (2) Preference shares (3) Bill of Exchange (4) pesenaire” 39 (PTO)17U/ 101/24 Set No. 1 126. 127. 128. 129, (28) faites & @ ate ft aon aera ae a? (1) Bort sit (2) after sit (9) fafa fret 4) 30a The public oubscription chould be kept open for minimum of (1) 3 days (2) 10 days (3) 15 days (4) 30 days ate singe A an-d-an fod fel & fae Gen wT aT? (1) 3 fr 2) 10 fr (3) 15 fer (4) 30 fr In which year National Stock Exchange (NSE) was started? faa ad fava ete qreds (NSE) SREY GT oT? (1) 1990 (2) 1991 (3) 1992 (4) 1993 Sub-brokers are appointed by (1) brokers (2) stock exchange {3} clients (4) companies waster Pape fad ant etch 2? (1) aat (2) rare fui (3) We (4) arr Which one of the following is not an institutional investor? (4) Foreign Individual Investors (2) Mutual Funds @) Insurance Companies (4) Foreign Financial Institutions 40130. 131. 132. (28) 17U/101/24 Set No. 1 Frater 4 a ate deans Rass at 37 () Ret Pet Ale (2) Wyse we (3) afar weet (4) fateh fart eat Stock Exchange is a (1) ‘State subject (2) Central subject (3) Regional subject (4) Corporate subject era faa 8 (a Birt (2) Fela Pave 3) dita fea (4) Pret weet feg By whom the Chairman of SEBI appointed? (1) Stock Exchanges (2) Reserve Bante of India (3) Central Government (4) Mutual Funds ah % aes A Ag’ fab ga ait 8? (1) eee faehh (2) TE RS 8) Fate we (4) Agee gE ‘The National Securities Depository Tttntted {NSDL was established in the year ‘ever Raat Peet RAMEE (NSDL ar eae fe ae apy (1) 1986 2) 1998" (3) 1999 4) 2002 41 P70.)17U/ 101/24 Set No. t 133. 134, (28) Where is the recognised Stock Exchange located in Uttar Pradesh (UP) ? (i) Lucknow (2) Kanpur (3) Agra (4) Ghaziabad See Sa 4 ara wn cara Pf wet Bra 2? (1) Fare (2) ART (3) ser (a) rasa New Issue Market is an integral part of (1) Stock Exchange (2) Capital Market (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Money Market adn fobs aan afte a? (1) wae feat ar (2) {sft ase aT (3) (1) BQ) at (4) Iau sea SEBI is a (1) Regulatory Authority (2) Statutory Authority @) Both (1) and (2) (4) Group Authority ad? & (1) aes strat (2) Aerts sift a watt (a) Fag safer 42136. 137. (28) 17U/ 101/24 Set No. 1 Reverse Repo is a tool used by REI to (1) regulate liquidity ratio (2) absorb liquidity (3) increase the liquidity with banking systein (4) keep the liquidity at one level RBI fad th are ama ar vatt —_ & foe wee BI (2) eT aR (2) weer (Fed) Frere (3) Sim caren H amg apt (4) ed St ew What is Repo Rate? {}) Itis the rate at which RBI sell Govemment securities to banks {2) Weis the rate at which RBI lends short-term money to the Dani against securities cB {9) tis the rate at which RBI allows small loans in the market (4) It is the rate which is offered by banks to their most valued customers . th te a7 2 () ETE Re WC Reet eit eel ae O) We aE ee fa we Rar Hae suit a eT a & (3) 78 38 & % Hae RBI @ BET LSB AT RT 43 fre am tag fear rar 2.0)17U/101/24 Set No. 1 138. 139. 140. 141. (28) When demonetization happened in India in 2016 ? (Ll) 8 September, 2016 (2) 8 October, 2016 (3) 8 November, 2016 (4) 8 December, 2016 2016 4 ana # auger ea GT? (1) 8 fama, 2026 (2) 8 sm, 2016 (3) 8 7aRR, 2016 (4) 8 fearat, 2016 How many banks were nationalised in the second phase in 1980? 190 4 fader sem Ht feat deal Hl CTH Ea a? (i) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8 In which of the following fund transfer mechanisms, can funds be moved from one bank to another and where the transaction is settled instantly without being bunched with any other transaction? pay seam Patan HS ae mee Hat ow age de A A on wall & Cae sey a) Ra gh ae ee wae Be west Pe Fer tet 2? ) RTGS (2) NEFT (3) TT (4) EFT ‘Smart Money’ is a term used for (iy toternet Banking (2) Foreign Currency (3) Credit Card (4) Demand Draft 44142, 143, 144, (28) 17U/101/24 Set No. 1 ‘ond we! we at ant —_ a (1) wee af (2) Reet ae (3) Sz ae (4) fare yRe Which one of the following rates is not controlled by the Reserve Bank of India? (1) Cash Reserve Ratio - {2} Statutory Liquidity Ratio (3) Cess () Repo Rate Fret Re me a & aha orctia Res a fife PR od 7 (1) onfaa ae AR aga 2) sitar ah ogee 3) 7 (4) Me International Standards on Combatting Money Laundering and the Financing of a a ane i el wil cig an onieag i aide att oma & fia shor a sranfite ares fia art ia al a ont €7 (t) K¥e EPAPER. .n. (3) TARE (4) IcoA RuPay Card is issued by (1) State Bank of India (2) National Payments Corporation of India (3) Reserve Bank of India (4) National Securities Deposttory, Limited 45 P.T.0,)17U/ 101/24 Set No. 1 145. 146. (28) et ae WO fT wets (1) aida Re J er 2) ada wea yar Fs an (3) wedla fad te GI (4) Fare Rasiftcis Petivett fakes ae AXIS Bank was formerly known as (1) YES Bank (2) UTI Bonk (3) City Union Bank (4) HDFC Bank ufae de qd A arn arn () wt (2) qodioomto As (3) Ra afer aa (4) TaodouRctte FH Which one of the following is the purpose of introducing ‘Know Your Customer’ norms by the banks? (i) To bring more and more people under the banking net 2) Identifying people who do not pay income tax (3) To ensure that the money deposited in banks has come from genuine sources (4) None of the above 46147, 148, 149. (28) 17U/101/24 Set No. 1 Frofeioa 4 & flor ster 8 det ge new at afte’ chee Ye St net? Q) are 8 sities cit at fe 82% seat sat 2) 31 SG wear wor st ome aT ya at ae E (3) we ePitea wen fe Set war A rT afer ee a oe ed a (4) 310 2 at ae The headquarters of Export-Import Bank of. India is situated at (1) Lucknow (2) Bengaluru (3) 'NfuTBaY = yayeateeite rea Flae-arrare ae aor ayer Feet (1) were # (2) agp. a 8) We a (4) aie ‘Legal Tender Maney’ refers to (1) Cheques (2) Drafts (3) Bilt of Exchange (4) Currency Notes ‘faftora sent yar & RGAE () ae (2) ere (3) Rifas @ Wie Which one of the following WOCE Weasere Tr CONTOT inna Government and or the RBI ? & adopted by the {l) Monetary policy (2) Fiscal policy (3) Financial tretuston: (4) Price como 47 PTO)17U/101/24 Set No. 1 150. Fes 4 se wet oe fk = RRS RS 2 (1 see (2) core He (9) Reta wee (4) ara Fe Which organisation issues Monetary Policy in India? (1) Parliament (2) Reserve Bank of India (3) State Bank of India (4) Ministry of Finance caren ater AAR er Petes aah dear Seatl 27 (1) Fee 2) wrafia evd (a) mite Be A (4) fe tare +e 4g D/7(28}—10000aaa & fem Fer (ya yom & yan ore we en Fes HH aw Sas Set a eh ae a a a fre) 1. 7m Yfte fied & 90 ae Ho ore fh deo we A wh ee hee foo Af We ed 21 pam args oA we weft gan an safes A ter ep eee A gat yfera mma at a) 2. wien we ferarer cle wows & ofa, Foran a wey aE a geN wT aT AT 3, Beas oem 8 fe an by ge ah ag ate oF Page wey ge ame et fer wed, Serer a wo Ot yea fen wht 4. arr agen am saw a sei mer army eH Faalfea weTT fea 5. weG Ber we we oer aganis fale ew ford aa AA RA A A mE ee a aelael sree eh wel werafiven ar wee ToT Ae aT aT ate ea ve fre 6. she Wie ame FH ayanis tor, weewern ten a Be then (ale ae a) aa wea arama tio ai ate THe smo 4A We w Bhd HF suite at oui wt 7 sof ofa akg af feta Grae ora amare Sen eS aT eee faa a a eT wm wai 8, Wee gc Hee wer Fan tafe sae RE ne Bi wmlw ner defer a # feet sree) sor cox oF aoa fir a arnt fed ord ya wh aera Foe ge RA me fede & agen 7 8 arm by 9. WAR wae oR ee aaa Ww A ga wg Bw A ofte eA FS TT ae apt wea aE See TER AT PT! 10. un Se ew a Bae gre alfa Tee eM AA eT 1 TT iT Pa ver aH Te TEP Sr Tee ot waten dis Fa fe TH wT Ga A orct he FB we ae a 1 ce aM & fe weegfere & gaye Fa ae we wo afer ye eT FT a2. Uden aT Hea sPoyTese sALaT Teh yaa 7 om a a1 13. ade eae 4A BWA Th var a TR oA at opi wT ey ta. ee AE ee chen A agfae ae ar wee ae Ba ae Paratearers gre Fre <= a, eT ama