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9.In fuel cell, the ______ energy is converted into electrical energy.
(a) mechanical
(b) chemical
(c) heat
(d) sound
Ans: b
12. Thorium Breeder Reactors are most suitable for India because
(a) these develop more power
(b) its technology is simple
(c) abundance of thorium deposits are available in India
(d) these can be easily designed
Ans: c
14. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good steam power plant may be in the range of
(a) 15 to 20 per cent
(6) 35 to 45 per cent
(c) 70 to 80 per cent
(d) 90 to 95 per ceut
Ans: b
15. Rankine cycle operating on low pressure limit of p1 an 1 high pressure limit of p2
(a) has higher the renal efficiency than the carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
(b) has lower the"nal efficiency than carnot cycle operating between same pressure limit?
(c) has same thermal efficiency as carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
(d) may be more or less depending upon the magnitude of p1 and p2
Ans: a
18. In Rankine cycle the work output from the turbine is given by
(a) change of internal energy between inlet and outlet
(b) change of enthaply between inlet and outlet
(c) change of entropy between inlet and outlet
(d) change of temperature between inlet and outlet
Ans: b
22. The maximum percentage gain in Regenerative feed heating cycle thermal efficiency
(a) increases with number of feed heaters increasing
(b) decreases with number of feed heaters increasing
(c) remains same unaffected by number of feed heaters
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
25. Mercury is a choice with steam in binary vapour cycle because it has
(a) higher critical temperature and pressure
(b) higher saturation temperature than other fluids
(c) relatively low vapourisation pressure
(d) all above
Ans: d
31. The draught produced by steel chimney as compared to that produced by brick chimney for the
same height is
(a) less
(b) more
(c) same
(d) may be more or less
Ans: b
33. The draught produced, for a given height of the chimney and given mean temperature of chimney
gases
(a) decreases with increase in outside air temperature
(b) increases with increase in outside air temperature
(c) remains the same irrespective of outside air temperature
(d) may increase or decrease with increase in outside air temperature
Ans: a
34. The draught produced by chimney of given height at given outside temperature
(a) decreases if the chimney gas temperature increases
(b) increases if the chimney gas temperature increases
(c) remains same irrespective of chimney gas temperature
(d) may increase or decrease
Ans: b
38. For the same draught produced the power of induced draught fan as compared to forced draught
fan is
(a) less
(b) more
(c) same
(d) not predictable
Ans: b
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39. Artificial draught is produced by
(a) air fAns
(b) steam jet
(c) fan or steam jet
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
44. The isentropic expAnsion of steam through nozzle for the steam initially superheated at inlet is
approximated by equation
(a) pvls=C
(b) pv1126 = C
(c) pv1A = C
(d) pv = C
Ans: a
45. The ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure for maximum mass flow rate per unit area of steam
through a nozzle when steam is initially dry saturated is
(a) 0.6
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(6) 0.578
(c) 0.555
(d) 0.5457
Ans: b
46. The ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure of maximum mass flow rate per area of steam through a
nozzle when steam is initially superheated is
(a) 0.555
(b) 0.578
(c) 0.5457
(d) 0.6
Ans: c
48. The isentropic expAnsion of steam through nozzle for the steam initially dry saturated at inlet is
approximated by equation.
(a)pv = C
(b)pv1A = C
(c)pv1i = C
(d)pv
Ans: d
49. The effect of considering friction losses in steam nozzle for the same pressure ratio leads to
(a) increase in exit velocity from the nozzle
(6) decrease in exit velocity from the nozzle
(c) no change in exit velocity from the nozzle
(d) increase or decrease depending upon the exit quality of steam
Ans: b
50. The effect of considering friction in steam nozzles for the same pressure ratio leads to
(a) increase in dryness fraction of exit steam
(b) decrease in dryness fraction of exit steam
(c) no change in the quality of exit steam
(d) decrease or increase of dryness fraction of exit steam depending upon inlet quality
Ans: a
52. The pressure on the two sides of the impulse wheel of a steam turbine
(a) is same
(b) is different
(c) increases from one side to the other side
(d) decreases from one side to the other side
Ans: a
63. The thermal efficiency of the engine with condenser as compared to without condenser, for a
given pressure and temperature of steam, is
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) same as long as initial pressure and temperature is unchanged
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
73. For the safety of a steam boiler the number of safety valves fitted are
(a) four
(b) three
(c) two
(d) one Ans: c
74. Steam turbines commonly used in steam power station are
(a) condensing type
(b) non-condensing type
(c) none of the above
Ans: a
77. The efficiency of a modern boiler using coal and heat recovery equipment is about
(a) 25 to 30%
(b) 40 to 50%
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(c) 65 to 70%
(d) 85 to 90%
Ans: d
80. Steam pressure in a steam power station, which is usually kept now-a-days is of the order of
(a) 20 kgf/cm2
(b) 50 kgf/cm2
(c) 100 kgf/cm2
(d) 150 kgf/cm2
Ans: d
90. The amount of air which is supplied for complete combustion is called
(a) primary air
(b) secondary air
(c) tertiary air
Ans: b
92. Under-feed stokers work best for _______ coals high in volatile matter and with caking tendency
(a) anthracite
(b) lignite
(c) semibituminous and bituminous
Ans: c
94. Where unpulverised coal has to be used and boiler capacity is large, the stoker which is used is
(a) underfeed stoker
(b) overfeed stoker
(c) any
Ans: b
4. The latent heat of steam at pressures greater than atmospheric in comparison to latent heat at
atmospheric pressure is
(a) less
(b) more
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(c) equal
(d) may be less or more depending on temperature
(e) unpredictable. Ans: a
7. Coke is produced by
(a) pulverising coal in inert atmosphere
(b) heating wood in a limited supply of air at temperatures below 300GC
(c) strongly heating coal continuously for about 48 hours in the absence of air in a closed vessel
(d) binding the pulverised coal into brick-etts
(e) enriching carbon in the coal. Ans: c
12. Equivalent evaporation is the amount of water evaporated in a boiler from and at
(a) 0°C
(b) 100°C
(c) saturation temperature at given pressure
(d) room temperature
(e) 20°C. Ans: b
15. The coal requirement per kW hour generation in the thermal power plant is of the order of
(a) 0.1 to 0.2 kg
(b) 0.2 to 0.4 kg
(c) 0.6 to 0.8 kg
(d) 1.0 to 1.5 kg
(e) 1.5 to 2 kg. Ans: c
16. Sublimation region is the region where
(a) solid and vapour phases are in equi-librium
(b) solid and liquid phases are in equilibrium
(c) liquid and vapour phases are in equilibrium
(d) solid, liquid and vapour phases are in equilibrium
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
18. One kg of steam sample contains 0.8 kg dry steam; it's dryness fraction is
(a) 0.2
(b) 0.8
(c) 1.0
(d) 0.6 (e) 0.5. Ans: b
19. If a steam sample is nearly in dry condition, then its dryness fraction can be most accurately
determined by
(a) throttling calorimeter
(b) separating calorimeter
(c) combined separating and throttling calorimeter
(d) bucket calorimeter
(e) none of the above. Ans: a
20. If xx and x2 be the dryess fractions obtained in separating calorimeter and throttling calorimeter
respectively, then the actual dryness fraction of steam will be
(a) xxx2
(b) x, + x2 Ans: a
21. The specific heat of superheated steam in kcal/kg is generally of the order of
(a) 0.1
(b) 0.3
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.8 (e) 1.0. Ans: c
25. On Mollier chart, free expAnsion, or throttling process from high pressure to atmosphere is
represented by
(a) horizontal straight line
(b) vertical straight line
(c) straight inclined line
(d) curved line
(e) none of the above. Ans: a
26. The bituminous coal is non-caking if its carbon content is (a) 78-81%
(b) 81-85%
(c) 85-90%
(d) 90-95%
(e) 95-100%.
Ans: a
27. The dry saturated steam at very low pressure, (5-10 kg/cm2) when throttled to atmosphere will
become
(a) wet
(b) superheated
(c) remain dry satruated
(d) dry
(e) none of the above. Ans: b
28. Water at pressure of 4 kg/cm2 and 160°C temperature when exposed to atmosphere will
(a) boil
(b) flash i.e. get converted into steam
(c) remain as it was
(d) cool down
(e) none of the above. Ans: b
29. The dry saturated steam at very high pressure (150-200 kg/cm2) when throttled to atmosphere
will become
(a) wet
(b) superheated
(c) remain dry saturated
(d) dry
(e) none of the above. Ans: a
35. At critical point, i.e. p=225.65 kg/cm2, the latent enthalpy of vaporisation is
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) depends on temperature also
(e) none of the above. Ans: c
36. At which pressure the properties of water and steam become identical
(a) 0.1 kg/cm2
(b) 1 kg/cm2
(c) 100 kg/cm2
(d) 225.6 kg/cm2
(e) it is never possible. Ans: d
46. Equivalent evaporation of water is the evaporation "for a feed water supply at 100°C
(a) and its corresponding conversion into dry saturated steam at 100°C and 1.033 kg/cm2
(b) and its corresponding conversion into dry steam at desired boiler pressure
(c) conversion into steam at atmospheric condition
(d) conversion into steam at the same pres-sure at which feed water is supplied
(e) none of the above. Ans: a
47. The evaporation of 15.653 kg of water per hour from and at 100°C is called
(a) evaporative capacity
(b) factor of evaporation
(c) equivalent evaporation
(d) one boiler h.p.
(e) boiler efficiency. Ans: d
59. Which of the following gases has the highest calorific value
(a) producer gas
(b) coal gas.
(c) water gas
(d) blast furnace gas
(e) coke oven gas. Ans: b
61. For burning 1 kg of carbon to CO as per chemically correct combusiton, amount of air required is
(a) 1 kg
(b) 4/3kg
(c) 8/3kg
(d) 2 kg
(e) 16/3 kg. Ans: b
64. The diameter of fire tube of Cornish boiler compared to its shell is
(a) one half
(b) one third
(c) one-fifth
(d) two-fifth
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(e) three-fifth. Ans: a
75. The diameter of cylindrical shell of the Lancashire boiler is of the order of
(a)1 tp 1.25m
(b)1 to 1.75 m
(c)2 to 4 m
(d) 1.75 to 2.75 m
(e) 2.25 to 4.5 m.
Ans: d
76. A packaged boiler is one in which various parts like firing equipment, fAns, feed pumps and
automatic controls are
(a) supplied by same manufacturer loose and assembled at site
(b) supplied mounted on a single base
(c) purchased from several parties and packed together at site
(d) packaged boiler does not exist
(e) none of the above. Ans: b
78. Which of the following coals has the highest calorific value
(a) anthracite coal
(b) bituminous coal
(c) lignite
(d) peat
(e) wood. Ans: a
79. The high pressure boiler is oiie producing steam at a pressure more than
(a) atmospheric pressure
(b) 5 kg/cm2
(c) 10 kg/cm2
(d) 40 kg/cm2
(e) 75-80 kg/cm2. Ans: e
82. The fire tubes in, a Coarran and Scotish marine boiler are
(a) horizontal
(b) vertical
(c) inclined
(d) both horizontal and vertical
(e) horizontal and inclined. Ans: a
83. The diameter of internal flue tubes in a Lancashire boiler compared to its shell is
(a) one-half
(b) one-third
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(c) one-fourth
(d) one-fifth
(e) two-fifth. Ans: e
86. The best suited coal for chain or travelling grate stoker boiler is
(a) coking coal
(b) non coking or free burning coal
(c) pulverised coal
(d) high sulphur coal
(e) least ash content coal. Ans: b
94.The diameters of fire tubes and superheaer tubes in locomotive boiler are (a) 47.5 mm, 130 mm
(b) 32.5 mm, 180 mm
(c) 65.5 mm, 210 mm
(d) 24.5 mm, 65 mm Ans: a
96. Which of the following varieties of coals is mostly used in steam boilers
(a) non-coking bituminous coal
(b) brown coal
(c) peat
(d) coking bituminous coal
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(e) none of the above. Ans: e
97. The diameter of tubes for natural circulation boiler as compared to controlled circulation boilers is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) could be more or less depending on other factors
(e) none of the above. Ans: a
98. A boiler in India should conform to safety regulations of
(a) DIN
(b) BS
(c) ASTM
(d) IBR
(e) GOST. Ans: d
99. The function of injector used in small steam plants is to
(a) create vacuum in furnace
(b) create vacuum at turbine exhaust
(c) pump feed water
(d) dose chemicals in feed water
(e) control steam temperature by injecting water. Ans: c
100. Which of the following boilers is best suited to meet fluctuating demands
(a) babcock and wilcox
(b) locomotive
(c) lancashire
(d) cochran
(e) comish. Ans: b
101. The difference between cornish boiler and lancashire boiler is that
(a) former is fire tube type and latter is water tube type boiler
(b) former is water tube type and latter is fire tube type
(c) former contains one fire tube and latter contains two fire tubes
(e) none/of the above. Ans: c
103. Pick up the wrong statement about water tube boiler in comparison to fire tube boilers
(a) former generates steam at high pressure
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(b) former occupies less space for same power
(c) rate of steam flow is more in former case
(d) former is used for high installed capacity
(e) chances of explosion are less in former case. Ans: e
107. Fusible plug for boilers is made of fusible metal containing tin, lead, and
(a) bismuth
(b) copper
(c) aluminium
(d) nickel
(e) iron. Ans: a
110. The ratio of heat utilised to produce steam and the heat liberated in furnace is known as
(a) boiler effectiveness
(b) boiler evaporative capacity
(c) factor of evaporation
(d) equivalent evaporation
(e) boiler efficiency. Ans: e
114. It is required to produce large amount of steam at low pressure. Which boiler should be used ?
(a) pulverised fuel fired boiler
(b) cochran boiler
(c) lancashire boiler
(d) babcock and wilcox boiler
(e) stoker fired boiler. Ans: c
123. In which of the following boilers, the draught in furnace is increased by utilising exhaust steam
from engine
(a) lancashire boiler
(b) locomotive boiler
(c) babcock and wilcox boiler
(d) cochran boiler
(e) benson boiler. Ans: b
128. A safety valve in a locomotive starts leaking. The leaking medium will be
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(a) water
(b) dry steam
(c) wet steam
(d) super heated steam
(e) supersaturated steam. Ans: d
132. The pressure of reheat steam after passing through reheater compared to inlet condition is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) equal
(d) may be more or less depending on capacity of reheater
(e) none of the above. Ans: b
134. The safety valve at superheater as compared to drum safety valve setting is set at
(a) higher value
(b) lower value
(c) same value
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(d) any value
(e) none of the above. Ans: b
138. Expanding steam to a very low prseeure (high vacuum) in steam engines is
(a) desirable
(b) economical
(c) essential
(d) optional
(e) uneconomical. Ans: e
143. Which device is used in thermal power plants to reduce level of pollution
(a) induced draft fan
(b) smoke meter
(c) chimney
(d) precipitator
(e) pulveriser. Ans: d
153. Sulphur content of fuels is very important to the plant operators because it
(a) has high heating value
(b) retards electric precipitation
(c) promotes complete combustion
(d) has highly corrosive effect
(e) facilitates ash removal. Ans: d
172. Heating value of fuel used is as on fired basis. If it is reported for dry or moisture free fuel, then
latter should be multiplied by the following factor to correct for as fired value
(a) (1- moisture content)
(b) (1 + moisture content)
(c) 1 + moisture content
(d) 1 - moisture content Ans: a
173. Gardually increasing temperature of flue gases at inlet to chimney for given steam outputs is an
indication of
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(a) higher effectiveness of boiler
(b) high calorific value coal being burnt
(c) fouling of heat transfer surfaces
(d) raising of steam temperature
(e) leakage of air. Ans: c
175. The capacity of induced draft fan compared to forced draft fan in a boiler is
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) less or more depending on size of boiler
(e) unpredictable. Ans: b
182. In ordetjo obtain superheated steam, a superheater is added in an existing boiler. As as result,
furnace vacuum will
(a) remain unaffected
(b) improve (c) worsen
(d) may improve/worsen depending on size
(e) unpredictable. Ans: c
187. A supercritical boiler is one that operates above the pressure and temperature of following values
(a) 100 kg/cm2 and 540°C
(b) 1 kg/cm2 and 100°C
(c) 218 kg/cm2 abs and 373°C
(d) 218 kg/cm2 abs and 540°C
(e) 100 kg/cm2 abs and 373°C Ans: c
188. Natural water circulation, by convection in water tube boilers, with increase in pressure of boiler
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaffected
(d) first increases and then decreases
(e) first decreases and then increases. Ans: b
189. The steam temperature with increase in load in case of a boiler fitted with radiation superheater
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaffected
(d) first increases and then decreases
(e) unpredictable. Ans: b
191. The relative heat absorption for successively added equal areas of boiler convection heating
surfaces
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaffected
(d) first increases and then decreases
(e) first decreases and then increases. Ans: b
193. Fire tube boilers are limited to a maximum design working pressure of
(a) 1 kg/cm
(b) 6 kg/cm
(c) 17 kg/cm2
(d) 100 kg/cm2
(e) 250 kg/cm2. Ans: c
194. For the same diameter and thickness of tube, a water tube boiler compared to a fire tube boiler
has
(a) more heating surface
(b) less heating surface
(c) equal heating surface
(d) heating surface depends on other parameters
(e) none of the above. Ans: a
200. The basic job of feed water treatment in boilers is to overcome the problem of
(a) corrosion
(b) scale
(c) carryover
(d) embrittlement
(e) all of the above. Ans: e
SET 3
8. The product of efficiency & heat transferred to the working fluid is?
a) Net temperature change
b) Net work done
c) Net enthalpy change
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d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The formula of efficiency of a steam power plant is,
Efficiency=net work done/net heat transferred
SET 4
10. Steam Power Plants are more popular in electric power generation because
a) Work output of turbine is very large than work input to the pump
b) Work output of turbine is very small than work input to the pump
c) Work output of turbine is equal to work input to the pump
d) None of the mentioned.
Answer: a
Explanation: In a Steam Power Plant, the positive difference of turbine work & pump work makes it useful
in electricity generation.
13. If Evaporator & Condenser pressures are p & q, the intercooler pressure P is given as?
a) P=pq
b) P=p/q
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c) P=(pq)(1/2)
d) P=p2q
Answer: c
Explanation: The relation between Intercooler pressure, Evaporator & Condenser is,
P = (pq)(1/2).
15. Which of these factors don’t cause Internal Irreversibility of a Rankine cycle?
a) Throttling
b) Mixing
c) Fluid Friction
d) Fluid flow
Answer: d
Explanation: The Rankine cycle is an Irreversible cycle. For a cycle to be irreversible naturally throttling,
mixing & friction in fluids are the factors that cause this Irreversibility.
SET 5
2. Rankine cycle operating on low pressure limit of p1 and high pressure limit of p2
a) has higher thermal efficiency than the Carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
b) has lower thermal efficiency than Carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
c) has same thermal efficiency as Carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
d) may be more or less depending upon the magnitudes of p1 and p2
Answer: a
Explanation: Area under P-V curve for Rankine will be more as compared to Carnot cycle.
6. Which of the following contributes to the improvement of efficiency of Rankine cycle in a Thermal
Power Plant?
a) reheating of steam at intermediate stage
b) regeneration use of steam for heating Boiler feed water
c) use of high pressures
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The regenerative features effectively raise the nominal cycle heat input temperature, by
reducing the addition of heat from the Boiler/fuel source at the relatively low feedwater temperatures
that would exist without regenerative feedwater heating.
9. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good Steam Power Plant may be in the range of?
a) 15 to 20%
b) 35 to 45%
c) 70 to 80%
d) 90 to 95%
Answer: b
Explanation: Efficiency of Rankine cycle in actual working condition is found to be between 35 to 45%.
10. A simple Rankine cycle operates the Boiler at 3 MPa with an outlet temperature of 350°C and the
Condenser at 50 kPa. Assuming ideal operation and processes, what is the thermal efficiency of this cycle?
a) 7.7
b) 17.7
c) 27.7
d) 37.7
Answer: c
Explanation: Fixing the states; h1 = 340.5 kJ/kg, h2 = h1 + v1 (P2 – P1) = 343.5 kJ/kg, h3 = 3115.3 kJ/kg, s3
= 6.7428 kJ/kg – K, x4 = 0.869, and h4 = 2343.9 kJ/kg. Thus, η = 1 – Qout / Qin = 1 – (h4 – h1) / (h3 – h2) =
27.7%.
11. A simple Rankine cycle produces 40 MW of power, 50 MW of process heat and rejects 60 MW of heat
to the surroundings. What is the utilization factor of this co generation cycle neglecting the pump work?
a) 50
b) 60
c) 70
d) 80
Answer: b
Explanation: Application of the first law to the entire cycle gives Qin = Qp + Qreject + W = 150 MW. The
utilization factor is then = (Qp + W) / Qin = 60%.
SET 6
Brayton Cycle”
4. A simple Brayton cycle uses Helium as the working fluid, has a maximum temperature of 1000 K, and a
pressure ratio of 4. At the start of the compression, the Helium pressure and temperature are 50 kPa and
250 K. Based upon cold-air standard analysis assumptions, the thermal efficiency of the cycle is:
a) 0.13
b) 0.23
c) 0.43
d) 0.53
Answer: d
Explanation: Using the pressure ratio = 1 – rp(1 – k) / k.
5. A simple Brayton cycle has a pressure ratio of 5 and a maximum temperature of 900 K. Air enters the
compressor at 100 kPa, 300 K. Based upon cold-air standard analysis assumptions, the back-work ratio of
this cycle is:
a) 0.23
b) 0.53
c) 0.48
d) 0.36
Answer: b
Explanation: Using the pressure ratio and isentropic process relations, T2 = T1rp(k – 1) / k = 475 K and T4
6. Which of the following methods can be used to increase efficiency of a Brayton cycle?
a) Regeneration
b) Increasing pressure ratio
c) Heat exchanger
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: A heat exchanger that acts as a counter-flow energy recovery device positioned within the
supply and exhaust air streams of an air handling system, in order to recover the waste heat.
7. For the same maximum pressure and heat input, the most efficient cycle is?
a) Brayton cycle
b) Carnot cycle
c) Rankine cycle
d) Dual cycle
Answer: a
Explanation: Efficiency of a Brayton cycle is directly proportional to pressure ratio.
9. A Sterling engine uses an energy source whose temperature is 727°C and an energy sink whose
temperature is 27°C. How much heat must be added to the engine to produce 1 unit of work?
a) 1.10
b) 1.19
c) 1.43
d) 2.0
Answer: c
Explanation: Since the Sterling engine is totally reversible, its thermal efficiency is the same as that of a
Carnot engine, η = 1 – Tl / Th = 0.7. Now, the definition of the thermal efficiency gives Qin / Wout = 1 / η =
1.43.
SET 7
5. Pulverized coal is
a) coal free from ash
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b) non-smoking coal
c) coal which bums For long time
d) coal broken into fine particles
Answer: d
Explanation: Pulverized coal also known as powdered coal or coal dust since it is as fine as face powder in
cosmetic make-up.
10. The temperature to which air must be cooled in order to become saturated is the
a) minimum temperature
b) dew point temperature
c) wet-bulb temperature
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d) freezing point
Answer: b
Explanation: The dew point is the temperature at which the water vapour in air at constant barometric
pressure condenses into liquid water at the same rate at which it evaporates.
SET 8
2. If T2 is the temperature of heat rejection, Tml is the mean temperature of heat addition, the efficiency
n of a Rankine Cycle is given by which of the expressions?
a) n = 1-(T2/Tml)
b) n = 1+(T2/Tml)
c) n = (T2/Tml)
d) n = 1/(T2/Tml)
Answer: a
Explanation: The expression for the efficiency of a Rankine Cycle is given as,
n = 1-(T2/Tml).
3. The saturation pressure corresponding to the minimum practicable temperature of heat rejection is a
function of?
a) Temperature of heat rejection
b) Temperature of surroundings
c) Mean temperature of heat addition
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The relation between saturation pressure & mean temperature of heat addition is given by,
EfficiencyRankine = f(Tml)
where, Tml = Mean temperature of heat addition.
6. The maximum temperature of steam that can be used is fixed from metallurgical considerations. This
temperature limit is called?
a) Mining Limit
b) Metallurgical Limit
c) Metallic Limit
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: ‘Metallurgical Limit’ is defined as the lowest temperature limit of usable steam fixed by
metallurgical considerations.
10. Which of the following diagrams are used while analyzing the effect of superheat & Inlet Pressure on
mean temperature of heat addition?
a) P-V diagram
b) T-S diagram
c) P-T diagram
d) V-T diagram
Answer: b
Explanation: Using the T-S diagram gives us an overview as to where a particular process occurs, i.e., it is
within the solid region, the gaseous region or the vapour region. So, here, we prefer T-S diagram for
analysis process.
12. Work input and work outputs are given & obtained in?
a) 2 reversible adiabatics
b) 2 reversible isotherms
c) 1 reversible isotherm & 1 reversible adiabatic
d) 2 reversible isotherms & 1 reversible adiabatic
Answer: a
Explanation: The work input & output are both in the 2 reversible adiabatics (from the P-V diagram).
15. Which of these shouldn’t be there in the pipelines of working fluid for achieving the conditions of
Carnot Cycle?
a) Heat Transfer
b) Insulation
c) Lubrication
d) Zero Friction
Answer: a
Explanation: Heat Transfer & Friction are the factors affecting the conditions of a Carnot Cycle.
SET 9
2. What is the relation between cooling water temperature (tc1) & condenser pressure (pc)?
a) tc1 is directly proportional to pc
b) tc1 is directly proportional to 2xpc
c) tc1 is directly proportional to 5xpc
d) tc1 is directly proportional to 6xpc
Answer: a
Explanation: Cooling water temperature is directly proportional to condenser pressure 1xpc.
4. What is the effect of increasing superheat at constant inlet steam pressure & condenser pressure on
cycle efficiency?
a) Steady decrement in cycle efficiency
b) Steady improvement in cycle efficiency
c) No effect on cycle efficiency
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: An increase in inlet steam temperature, i.e. an increase in superheat at constant inlet steam
pressure & condenser pressure gives a steady improvement in cycle efficiency & lowers the heat rate due
to an increase in the mean temperature of heat addition.
5. What is the effect of increasing superheat at constant inlet steam pressure & condenser pressure on
mean temperature of heat addition?
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains same
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: An increase in inlet steam temperature, i.e. an increase in superheat at constant inlet steam
pressure & condenser pressure gives a steady improvement in cycle efficiency & lowers the heat rate due
to an increase in the mean temperature of heat addition.
6. What is the effect of increasing steam inlet temperature on turbine internal efficiency?
a) it remains same
b) it increases
c) it decreases
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Increasing the inlet steam temperature decreases the wetness of the steam in the later
stages of the turbine & improves the turbine efficiency.
7. What is the percentage drop in the ultimate strength of unalloyed steels when the steam temperature
is raised from 400-500 degree Centigrade?
a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 40%
d) 60%
Answer: b
Explanation: The ultimate strength of unalloyed steels is 30% when the steam temperatures are in the
range 400-500 degree Centigrade. Alloying can increase this strength.
10. For the given values of efficiency, inlet steam pressure and quality of steam, pressure limits can be
determined by ?
a) Mollier Charts
b) Gantt Charts
c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The pressure limits can be readily determined by drawing the corresponding expAnsion line
of the turbine om a Mollier Diagram.
SET 10
“Reheating of Steam – 1”
2. Reheating of steam
a) decreases steam rate
b) increases steam rate
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c) no effect on steam rate
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Since work output increases the steam rate decreases.
6. The optimum reheat pressure for the most of the modern power plants is ___________ of the initial
steam pressure
a) 0.1-0.5
b) 0.2-0.3
c) 0.2-0.25
d) 0.25-0.3
Answer: c
Explanation: In this range of reheat pressure efficiency is maximum.
SET 11
“Reheating of Steam”
1. The product of steam rate & network when the steam rate is expressed in kg/kWh is equal to?
a) 36
b) 360
c) 3600
d) 60
Answer: c
Explanation: The Steam Rate in terms of kJ/kWh is given by the expression,
Steam Rate = (3600/Wnet) kg/kWh.
3. What is the effect of reheat pressure on mean temperature of heat addition Tml?
a) Reheat pressure is directly proportional to Tml
b) Reheat pressure is inversely proportional to Tml
c) Reheat pressure is equal to Tml
d) Tml is independent of reheat pressure
Answer: a
Explanation: As cycle efficiency is reduced with a decrease in reheat pressure. Hence, the mean
temperature of heat addition also decreases.
4. Why is the steam not allowed to expand deep into the two phase region before it is taken to reheating?
a) to control flow rate
b) to control phase change
c) to protect reheat tubes
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The steam is not allowed to expand deep into the two phase region before it is taken to
reheating, because the moisture particles in the steam while evaporating would leave behind solid
deposits in the form of scale which is difficult to remove. Hence, when the steam expands, the reheat
tubes are damaged.
6. Which of the following problems are posed by increasing the number of reheats?
a) Cost & Fabrication problems arise
b) Heat transfer problems arise
c) Frictional losses arise
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
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Explanation: Higher the number of Reheats, still higher steam pressures could be used, but mechanical
stresses increase at a higher proportion than the increase in pressure, because of the prevailing high
temperature. The cost & fabrication difficulties will also increase.
7. What is the effect of decrease of reheat pressure on the quality of steam at turbine exhaust?
a) decreases
b) increases
c) remains same
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: For too low a reheat pressure, the exhaust steam may even be in the superheated state
which isn’t good.
8. The optimum reheat pressure for most of the power plants is how many times of the initial steam
pressure?
a) 0.1-0.15
b) 0.2-0.20
c) 0.2-0.25
d) 0.1-0.10
Answer: c
Explanation: The efficiency increases as the reheat pressure is lowered & reaches a peak at a pressure
ratio between 0.2-0.25.
SET 12
Regeneration – 1”
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1. What is the basic principle of regeneration?
a) Steam after coming out of condenser is circulated to boiler
b) Steam after coming out of condenser is circulated to turbine
c Steam after coming out of turbine is circulated to boiler
d) Two stage turbine is used
Answer: b
Explanation: In regeneration steam from condenser is circulated through turbine to increase steam
temperature before it enters boiler.
Answer: a
Explanation: Feedwater is preheated so as to decrease the fuel consumption which increases efficiency.
Regeneration – 2”
2. When is the relation between mean temperature of heat addition (T) with regeneration & without
regeneration?
a) (T)with regeneration is independent of(t)without regeneration
b) (T)with regeneration > (t)without regeneration
c) (T)with regeneration < (t)without regeneration
d) (T)with regeneration = (t)without regeneration
Answer: b
Explanation: The efficiency of the regenerative cycle will be higher than that of the Rankine cycle. Hence,
the relation between mean temperature of heat addition (T) with regeneration & without regeneration is,
(T)with regeneration > (t)without regeneration.
3. What is the relation between energy gain of feedwater & energy given off by vapour in condensation?
a) energy gain of feedwater > energy given off by vapour in condensation
b) energy gain of feedwater < energy given off by vapour in condensation
c) energy gain of feedwater = energy given off by vapour in condensation
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Here heaters are assumed to be adequately insulated, & there is no heat gain from or heat
loss to, the surrounding.
4. The product of Steam rate & the difference of work done between turbine & pump, when the steam
rate is expressed in kg/kWh is equal to?
a) 36
b) 60
c) 360
d) 3600
Answer: d
Explanation: The steam rate in terms of kg/kWh is given by the expression as,
Steam Rate = 3600/(Wt – WP) kg/kWh.
5. The product of cycle efficiency & heat input is given by which of the following relations?
a) Wt – WP
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b) Wt x WP
c) Wt / WP
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The expression for cycle efficiency n is given by the following expression,
n = (Wt – WP)/(Q1).
7. What is the relation between efficiencies of Carnot cycle & the ideal Sterling Engine?
a) Both are equal
b) Carnot cycle efficiency > Efficiency of Sterling Engine
c) Carnot cycle efficiency < Efficiency of Sterling Engine
d) No relation between Carnot cycle efficiency & efficiency of Sterling Engine
Answer: a
Explanation: All the heat is added reversibly & all the heat is rejected reversibly. Hence, the efficiency of
Carnot Cycle is equal to efficiency of Sterling Engine.
10. The relation between the steam rate of ideal regenerative cycle & steam rate of rankine cycle is?
a) steam rate of ideal regenerative cycle = steam rate of rankine cycle
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b) steam rate of ideal regenerative cycle > steam rate of rankine cycle
c) steam rate of ideal regenerative cycle < steam rate of rankine cycle
d) no relation
Answer: b
Explanation: Net Work output of the ideal regenerative cycle is less & hence, its steam rate will be more.
SET 14
5. What effect does the heating of feedwater by steam ‘bled’ from the turbine has on the Rankine Cycle?
a) it rankinises the Rankine Cycle
b) it carnotinises the Rankine Cycle
c) it reheats the Rankine Cycle
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The heating of feedwater by steam ‘bled’ from the turbine, known as regeneration,
carnotinises the Rankine cycle.
7. If h & h1 are the enthalpies at the inlet & at the exhaust, s & s1 are the enthalpies at the inlet & exhaust,
the mean temperature of heat addition, T with regeneration is ?
a) (h + h1)/(s + s1)
b) (h + h1)/(s – s1)
c) (h – h1)/(s + s1)
d) (h – h1)/(s – s1)
Answer: d
Explanation: The expression for mean temperature of heat addition is given as,
T = (h – h1)/(s – s1).
8. If Q represents the heat input, P represents the heat output; the efficiency n in terms of Q & P is given
by?
a) n = QP
b) n = (Q-P)/Q
c) n = (P-Q)/Q
d) n = Q/(Q-P)
Answer: b
Explanation: The expression of efficiency in terms of heat input & output is given by,
n = (Q-P)/Q.
9. If q represents the work output, r represents the work input, Q represents the heat input, the efficiency
n in terms of q & r is given by?
a) n = (q-r)/Q
b) n = ( q+r)/Q
c) n = (qr)/Q
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d) n = (qr x qr)/Q
Answer: a
Explanation: The efficiency in terms of work input, work output & heat input is given by,
n = (q-r)/Q.
SET 15
“Feedwater Heaters – 1”
Set 16
“Feedwater Heaters – 2”
5. What is the other name of the condensate obtained after condensation in a shell-and-tube heat
exchanger type closed heaters?
a) Heater rise
b) Heater fall
c) Heater drip
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Closed heaters are shell-and-tube heat exchangers where the feedwater flows through the
tubes & the extracted steam condenses outside the walls in the shell. The heat released by condensation
is transferred through the walls of the tubes. The condensate sometimes called the heater drip then
passes to the next lower level.
14. What is the purpose of using open heaters in steam power plants?
a) feedwater purification
b) feedwater esterification
c) feedwater deaeration
d) feedwater carbonisation
Answer: c
Explanation: In most steam power plants, closed heaters are more favored than open heaters & so are
used primarily for the purpose of feedwater deaeration.
SET 17
5. A regenerative feedwater heating cycle with an infinite number of feedwater heaters has efficiency
equal to?
a) Brayton cycle
b) Carnot cycle
c) Diesel cycle
d) Otto cycle
Answer: b
Explanation: In the T-S diagram, the area of the parallelogram representing the cycle output will be equal
to the area of the rectangle representing the output of the Carnot cycle. Thus, the efficiency of a
regenerative feedwater heating cycle with an infinite number of feedwater heaters is equal to that of a
carnot cycle.
6. In the T-S diagram, the process of heating from condenser to boiler saturation temperature when the
number of turbine extraction stages are finite is?
a) Reversible
b) Irreversible
c) Adiabatic
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
7. For the process of heating from condenser to boiler saturation temperature to be reversible, the
number of extraction stages involved in the entire cycle should be?
a) Zero
b) One
c) Infinite
d) Finite
Answer: c
Explanation: When the number of extraction stages are finite, the process is irreversible. On the contrary,
when there are infinite extraction stages, the process becomes reversible.
10. The area of parallelogram in the T-S diagram representing the cycle output is equal to?
a) area of rectangle representing the output of the Carnot cycle
b) area of the triangle representing the output of the Carnot cycle
c) area of the square representing the output of the Carnot cycle
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: From the T-S diagram the area of parallelogram representing the cycle output is equal to the
area of rectangle representing the output of the Carnot cycle.
SET 18
2. The expression for temperature rise t in feedwater heater when a & b are the temperatures of boiler
saturation & condenser resprctively, is given by which of the following expression?
a) t = 0.5 (a x b)
b) t = 0.5 (a / b)
c) t = 0.5 (a + b)
d) t = 0.5 (a – b)
Answer: d
Explanation: The expression for temperature rise t in feedwater heater when a & b are the temperatures
of boiler saturation & condenser respectively, is given by,
t = 0.5 (a – b).
6. The temperature rise from condenser to boiler saturation is divided __________ among the feedwater
heaters for maximum gain in efficiency.
a) unequally
b) partially
c) equally
d) remains undivided
Answer: c
Explanation: The total enthalpy rise or the temperature rise from condenser to boiler saturation is divided
equally among the feedwater heaters for maximum gain in the efficiency.
7. What is the expression for enthalpy of each heater h heater if a represents the enthalpy of heated
feedwater from the economiser and b represents the enthalpy at condenser & n represents the number
of heaters?
a) h heater = ( a-b )/ (n +1)
b) h heater = ( a-b ) x (n -1)
c) h heater = ( a-b ) + (n -1)
d) h heater = ( a-b ) – (n +1)
Answer: a
Explanation: the expression for enthalpy of each heater h if a represents the enthalpy of heated
feedwater from the economiser and b represents the enthalpy at condenser & n represents the number
of heaters is given by,
h heater = ( a- b)/ (n +1).
8. If n denotes the number of heater, t denotes the overall temperature difference & T denotes the total
temperature rise of feedwater. The expression for T is?
a) ( n/(n+1)) x t
b) ( n/(n-1)) x t
c) ( n/(n+1)) / t
d) ( n/(n+1)) – t
Answer: a
Explanation: If n denotes the number of heater, t denotes the overall temperature difference & T denotes
the total temperature rise of feedwater. The expression for T is given by the following relation,
T = ( n/(n+1)) x t.
12. The effect on the degree of regeneration due to an increase in feedwater temperature is?
a) degree of regeneration increases
b) degree of regeneration decreases
c) degree of regeneration remain same
d) degree of regeneration is optimised
Answer: d
Explanation: An increase in feedwater temperature reduces the heat absorption from the outgoing flue
gases in the economiser & may cause a reduction in boiler efficiency. The number of heaters & the degree
of regeneration thus get optimised.
13. The expression for efficiency when a & b are two constants corresponding to alpha & beta and c
corresponds to gamma, is?
a) Efficiency = 1 – ((b2))/((b + c)(a + b – c)))
b) Efficiency = 1 + ((b2))/((b + c)(a + b – c)))
c) Efficiency = ((b2))/((b + c)(a + b – c)))
d) Efficiency = 1 / ((b2))/((b + c)(a + b – c)))
Answer: a
Explanation: The expression for efficiency when a & b are two constants corresponding to alpha & beta
and c corresponds to gamma, is given as,
Efficiency = 1 – ((b2))/((b + c)(a + b – c))).
14. What is the relation between a & c if a & c correspond to alpha & gamma respectively, for maximum
efficiency of a cycle?
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a) a = 3c
b) c = 2a
c) c = (a/3)
d) a = 2c
Answer: d
Explanation: The relation between a & c if a & c correspond to alpha & gamma respectively, for maximum
efficiency of a cycle is given by,
c = (a/2).
15. The expression for efficiency gain due to regeneration if a, b, n correspond to alpha, beta, cycle
efficiency respectively, is?
a) n = ((a x a x b)/((a + b)((a + 2b)2))
b) n = ((a x a x b)/((a – b)(a + 2b)2))
c) n = ((a x a x b)/((a + b)(a + b)2))
d) n = ((a x a x b)/((a + b)(a + 2b)3))
Answer: a
Explanation: The expression for efficiency gain due to regeneration if a, b, n correspond to alpha, beta,
cycle efficiency respectively is given by,
n = ((a x a x b)/((a + b)(a + 2b)2)).
SET 19
2. Apart from feedheating, what should a plant have to obtain a gain in thermal efficiency?
a) Lubrication
b) Differential heating
c) Reheating cycles
d) Regenerative cycles
Answer: c
Explanation: To obtain a gain in thermal cycle efficiency, apart from the feedheating, there should be
multiple number of reheats.
3. The increment in thermal efficiency compared to the corresponding Subcritical cycle is gained at the
expAnse of?
a) compactness of the plant
b) simplicity of the plant
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c) complexity of the plant
d) expAnse of the plant
Answer: c
Explanation: The increment in thermal efficiency compared to the corresponding Subcritical cycle is
gained at the expAnse of complexity of the plant. Naturally, more the complexity, more this increment.
4. Which of the following needs to be incorporated to prevent the low pressure turbine exhaust wetness
from being excessive?
a) Double regeneration
b) Double carnotization
c) Double reheat
d) Double cooling
Answer: c
Explanation: Incorporating double reheat is one way to prevent the low pressure turbine exhaust wetness
from being excessive.
6. In a typical layout of a 215MW reheat power plant, the feed in the boiler is at?
a) 280 degree Centigrade
b) 230 degree Centigrade
c) 238 degree Centigrade
d) 250 degree Centigrade
Answer: c
Explanation: In a typical layout of a 215MW reheat power plant, the feed in the boiler is at 238 degree
Centigrade.
SET 20
4. Among 1 MW, 2 MW, 30 MW & 660 MW locomotive steam engines, the highest efficiency is of?
a) 1 MW
b) 2 MW
c) 30 MW
d) 660 MW
Answer: d
Explanation: From the performance table consisting of performance data of various steam power
plants(Aschner), the efficiency of 1 MW locomotive steam engine is about 7%, 2 MW locomotive steam
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engine is about 20%, 30 MW locomotive steam engine is about 35%, 660 MW locomotive steam engine is
about 44%.
7. The number of feedwater heaters required for a 660 MW locomotive steam engine is?
a) 4
b) 0
c) 7
d) 8
Answer: c
Explanation: From the performance table consisting of performance data of various steam power
plants(Aschner), the number of feedwater heaters required by a 660 MW locomotive steam engine are 7.
8. Among 1 MW, 2 MW, 30 MW & 660 MW locomotive steam engines, the highest initial pressure is of?
a) 1 MW
b) 2 MW
c) 30 MW
d) 660 MW
Answer: d
Explanation: From the performance table consisting of performance data of various steam power
plants(Aschner), the initial pressure of 1 MW locomotive steam engine is about 15 bar, 2 MW locomotive
steam engine is about 15 bar, 30 MW locomotive steam engine is about 40 bar, 660 MW locomotive
steam engine is about 160 bar.
9. Among 1 MW, 2 MW, 30 MW & 660 MW locomotive steam engines, the highest initial temperature is
of?
a) 1 MW
b) 2 MW
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c) 30 MW
d) 660 MW
Answer: d
Explanation: From the performance table consisting of performance data of various steam power plants
(Aschner), the initial temperature of 1 MW locomotive steam engine is about 300 degree Celsius bar, 2
MW locomotive steam engine is about 250 degree Celsius, 30 MW locomotive steam engine is about 450
degree Celsius, 660 MW locomotive steam engine is about 540 degree Celsius.
SET 21
“Deaerator – 1”
1. Deaerator is an
a) closed heater
b) open heater
c) surface heater
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: One of the feedwater heater is a contact type open heater, known as deaerator.
5. What chemicals are added for residual dissolved oxygen and carbon dioxide?
a) sodium sulphite
b) hydrazine
c) alum
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Na2SO3 and N2H4 are used to remove residual gasses.
7. Why deaerator is not used in water cooled and moderated nuclear power plant?
a) radioactivity
b) not economical
c) not safe
d) not mechanically possible
Answer: a
Explanation: deaerator is not used in water cooled and moderated nuclear power plant because of the
concern regarding radioactivity release with deaeration.
SET 22
“Deaerator – 2”
3. In the deaerator, the feedwater is heated to the saturation temperature by the steam extracted from?
a) compressor
b) turbine
c) pump
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The steam extracted from the turbine is used to heat the feedwater to the saturation
temperature.
5. What kind of steam comes through the other side of the feedwater spray?
a) pure steam
b) bled steam
c) saturated steam
d) superheated steam
Answer: b
Explanation: Feedwater after passing through a heat exchanger, is sprayed from the top & bled steam
from the turbine is fed from the bottom.
6. The chemical injected into the feedwater at the suction of the boiler feed pump is ?
a) Sodium Sulphide
b) Sodium Sulphate
c) Sodium Sulphite
d) Sodium Hydride
Answer: c
Explanation: To minimise the effect of the residual dissolved oxygen & carbon dioxide gases in water,
Sodium Sulphite & Hydrazine are injected in suitable calculated doses into the feedwater at the suction of
the boiler feed pump.
7. Why is Sodium Sulphite added into the feedwater at the suction of the boiler feed pump?
a) to maximise the effect of dissolved gases
b) to minimise the effect of dissolved gases
c) to increase feedwater concentration
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: To minimise the effect of the residual dissolved oxygen & carbon dioxide gases in water,
Sodium Sulphite & Hydrazine are injected in suitable calculated doses into the feedwater at the suction of
the boiler feed pump.
8. Name another chemical apart from Sodium Sulphite which is into the feedwater at the suction of the
boiler feed pump?
a) Calcium peroxide
b) Hydroxide
c) Hydrazine
d) Oxymes
Answer: c
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Explanation: To minimise the effect of the residual dissolved oxygen & carbon dioxide gases in water,
Sodium Sulphite & Hydrazine are injected in suitable calculated doses into the feedwater at the suction of
the boiler feed pump.
14. Why is the deaerator not employed in water cooled & moderated nuclear power plant?
a) due to radioactivity release in degeneration
b) due to emissivity of degeneration
c) due to reheating
d) due to regeneration
Answer: a
Explanation: The deaerator is not employed in water cooled & moderated nuclear power plant because of
the radioactivity released in degeneration.
15. Which among the following goes to the Vent Condenser along with Oxygen & Carbon dioxide?
a) Sodium sulphite
b) Carbon monoxide
c) Water vapour
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The gases Oxygen, Carbon dioxide & Water vapour are subjected to the vent condenser
wherein the moisture gets absorbed & so the exhaust gases vented out are Oxygen & Carbon dioxide.
SET 23
4. Overall efficiency is the ratio of power available at generator terminals to rate of energy released by
combustion of fuel.
a) true
b) false
c) can’t say
d) not true for all conditions
Answer: a
Explanation: Efficiency is power generated / power supplied.
5. The steam from steam generator of a nuclear power plant is best described as
a) superheated steam
b) supercritical steam
c) saturated dry steam
d) saturated wet steam
Answer: d
Explanation: Steam contains moisture after coming out of boiler.
6. Under certain conditions, the specific enthalpies of dry steam, saturated water and wet steam are 2783
kJ/kg, 1219 kJ/kg and 2750 kJ/kg respectively. Determine the dryness fraction of wet steam.
a) 0.01
b) 0.02
c) 0.021
d) 0.03
Answer: c
Explanation:Specific enthalpies of saturated water (hl) and dry steam (hs) are 1219 kJ/kg and 2783 kJ/kg.
Substituting these values in the equation “hws= xdhg+(1-xd)hl” gives the dryness fraction as 0.021.
8. Name the major isotope present in steam generated in a Boiling Water Reactor.
a) N-16
b) D-32
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c) N-32
d) D-16
Answer: a
Explanation: It is more economical and more efficient.
SET 24
1. The steam power plant is a bulk energy converter where fuel energy is converted to?
a) heat energy
b) electrical energy
c) chemical energy
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Energy conversion in a steam power plant is as below
Fuel energy to Electricity.
4. Which of the following shows the correct relation? (nboiler denotes efficiency of a boiler)
a) nboiler = (rate of energy absorption by water to form steam / rate of energy released by the combustion
of fuel)
b) nboiler = (rate of energy absorption by water to form steam + rate of energy released by the combustion
of fuel)
c) nboiler = (rate of energy absorption by water to form steam – rate of energy released by the combustion
of fuel)
d) nboiler = (rate of energy absorption by water to form steam x rate of energy released by the combustion
of fuel)
Answer: a
Explanation: The efficiency of a boiler is given by the following expression,
nboiler = (rate of energy absorption by water to form steam / rate of energy released by the combustion of
fuel).
5. The mechanical efficiency of a turbine is given by? (ntm denotes the mechanical efficiency)
a) ntm = (brake output of the turbine x internal output of the turbine)
b) ntm = (internal output of the turbine / break output of the turbine)
c) ntm = (brake output of the turbine / internal output of the turbine)
d) ntm = (brake output of the turbine – internal output of the turbine)
Answer: c
Explanation: The expression for the turbine mechanical efficiency is given by,
ntm = (brake output of the turbine / internal output of the turbine).
6. If Q1 represents the rate of heat addition to the cycle and W represents net cycle work output, the
expression for net cycle heat rate is ?
a) Q1 + W
b) Q1 / W
c) Q1 / (1/ W)
d) Q1 x W
Answer: b
Explanation: The expression for the net cycle heat rate is given by,
Net cycle heat rate(HR) = Q1 / W.
9. Which of these shows the formula for the efficiencies of the auxiliaries n1?
a) n1 = (net power trAnsmitted by the generator x gross power produced by the plant)
b) n1 = (net power trAnsmitted by the generator / gross power input to the plant)
c) n1 = (net power trAnsmitted by the generator / gross power produced by the plant)
d) n1 = (net power trAnsmitted by the generator / gross power transferred by the plant)
Answer: c
Explanation: The auxiliary equipment or auxiliaries in a power plant are those equipment which are
driven by the electricity taken from the generated power of the plant. Their efficiency is given by,
n1 = (net power trAnsmitted by the generator / gross power produced by the plant).
SET 25
1. Having two separate units for process heat and power is?
a) useful
b) useless
c) pollution reducing
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
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Explanation: Having two separate units for process heat & power is wasteful, for of the total heat
supplied to the steam generator for power purposes, a greater part will normally be carried away by the
cooling water in the condenser.
2. A plant producing both, electrical power & process heat simultaneously is?
a) Cogenital plant
b) Cogenerial plant
c) Cogeneration plant
d) Conglomerate plant
Answer: c
Explanation: Cogeneration plant is defined as a plant which produces electrical power and processes heat
simultaneously.
5. Back pressure turbines are usually _________________ with respect to their power output.
a) large
b) small
c) very large
d) very small
Answer: b
Explanation: Back pressure turbines are usually small with respect to their power output because they
have no great volume of exhaust to cope with, the density being high.
6. In terms of cost per MW compared to condensing sets of the same power, the back pressure turbines
are?
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a) more expensive
b) cheaper
c) costly
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Back pressure turbines are usually small with respect to their power output because they
have no great volume of exhaust to cope with, the density being high. They are usually single cylinder and
hence, usually cheaper in terms of cost per MW.
10. The cogeneration plant efficiency nco if WT, Qi, QH represents turbine work, heat input, heat output
respectively is given by?
a) nCO = (WT + Qi) / QH
b) nCO = (WT – Qi) / QH
c) nCO = (WT + QH) / Qi
d) nCO = (WT + QH) / Qi
Answer: d
Explanation: The cogeneration plant efficiency nco if WT, Qi, QH represents turbine work, heat input,
11. The electricity fraction of total energy output if W1 and Q1 represents the turbine work and heat
output is given by?
a) W1 / (W1 + Q1)
b) W1 / (W1 – Q1)
c) W1 / (W1Q1)
d) W1 / Q1
Answer: a
Explanation: The electricity fraction of total energy output if W1 and Q1 represents the turbine work and
heat output is,
W1 / (W1 + Q1).
12. If e is the electricity fraction of the total energy output, m is the electric plant efficiency and n is the
steam generator efficiency; the heat added per unit total energy output is given by?
a) (1 / m) + ((1 – e) / n)
b) (1 / n) + ((1 – e) / m)
c) (1 / m) + ((1 + e) / n)
d) (1 / n) + ((1 – e) / m)
Answer: a
Explanation: If e is the electricity fraction of the total energy output, m is the electric plant efficiency and
n is the steam generator efficiency; the heat added per unit total energy output is given by?
(1 / m) + ((1 – e) / n).