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SET 1 (100)

1.The commercial sources of energy are


(a) solar, wind and biomass
(b) fossil fuels, hydropower and nuclear energy
(c) wood, animal wastes and agriculture wastes
(d) none of the above
Ans: b

2. Modern steam plants works on which of the following cycles?


a. Carnot cycle
b. Rankine cycle
c. Otto cycle
d. Bell- Coleman cycle
Ans:b
3.In India largest thermal power station is located at
(a) Kota
(b) Sarni
(c) Chandrapur
(d) Neyveli
Ans: c

4.The percentage O2 by Weight in atmospheric air is


(a) 18%
(b) 23%
(c) 77%
(d) 79%
Ans: b

5.The percentage 02 by volume in atmosphere air is


(a) 21%
(b) 23%
(c) 77%
(d) 79%
Ans: a

6. The proper indication of incomplete combustion is


(a) high CO content in flue gases at exit
(b) high CO2 content in flue gases at exit
(c) high temperature of flue gases
(d) the smoking exhaust from chimney
Ans: a

7.The main source of production of biogas is


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(a) human waste
(b) wet cow dung
(c) wet livestock waste
(d) all above
Ans: d

8.India's first nuclear power plant was installed at


(a) Tarapore
(b) Kota
(c) Kalpakkam
(d) none of the above
Ans: a

9.In fuel cell, the ______ energy is converted into electrical energy.
(a) mechanical
(b) chemical
(c) heat
(d) sound
Ans: b

10. Solar thermal power generation can be achieved by


(a) using focusing collector or heliostates
(b) using flat plate collectors
(c) using a solar pond
(d) any of the above system
Ans: d

11. The energy radiated by sun on a bright sunny day is approximately


(a) 700 W/m2
(b) 800 W/m2
(c) 1 kW/m2
(d) 2 kW/m2
Ans: c

12. Thorium Breeder Reactors are most suitable for India because
(a) these develop more power
(b) its technology is simple
(c) abundance of thorium deposits are available in India
(d) these can be easily designed
Ans: c

13. The overall efficiency of thermal power plant is equal to


(a) Rankine cycle efficiency
(b) Carnot cycle efficiency
(c) Regenerative cycle efficiency
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(d) Boiler efficiency x turbine efficiency x generator efficiency
Ans: c

14. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good steam power plant may be in the range of
(a) 15 to 20 per cent
(6) 35 to 45 per cent
(c) 70 to 80 per cent
(d) 90 to 95 per ceut
Ans: b

15. Rankine cycle operating on low pressure limit of p1 an 1 high pressure limit of p2
(a) has higher the renal efficiency than the carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
(b) has lower the"nal efficiency than carnot cycle operating between same pressure limit?
(c) has same thermal efficiency as carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
(d) may be more or less depending upon the magnitude of p1 and p2
Ans: a

16. Rankine efficiency of a steam power plant


(a) improves in summer as compared to that in winter
(6) improves in winter as compared to that in summer
(c) is unaffected by climatic conditions
(d) none of the above
Ans: b

17. Carnot cycle comprises of


(a) two isentropic processes and two constant volume processes
(b) two isentropic processes and two constant pressure processes
(e) two isothermal processes and three constant pressure processes
(d) none of the above
Ans: b

18. In Rankine cycle the work output from the turbine is given by
(a) change of internal energy between inlet and outlet
(b) change of enthaply between inlet and outlet
(c) change of entropy between inlet and outlet
(d) change of temperature between inlet and outlet
Ans: b

19. Regenerative cycle thermal efficiency


(a) is always greater than simple Rankine thermal efficiency
(b) is greater than simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency only when steam is bled at particular
pressure
(c) is same as simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency
(d) is always less than simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency
Ans: a
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20. In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the optimum value of the fraction of steam extracted for feed
heating
(a) decreases with increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
(b) increases with increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
(c) is unaffected by increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
(d) none of the above
Ans: b

21. In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the greatest economy is affected


(a) when steam is extracted from only one suitable point of steam turbine
(b) when steam is extracted from several places in different stages of steam turbine
(c) when steam is extracted only from the last stage of steam turbine
(d) when steam is extracted only from the first stage of steam turbine
Ans: b

22. The maximum percentage gain in Regenerative feed heating cycle thermal efficiency
(a) increases with number of feed heaters increasing
(b) decreases with number of feed heaters increasing
(c) remains same unaffected by number of feed heaters
(d) none of the above
Ans: a

23. In regenerative cycle feed water is heated by


(a) exhaust gases
(b) heaters
(c) draining steam from the turbine
(d) all above
Ans: c

24. Reheat cycle in steam power plant is used to


(a) utilise heat of flue gases
(b) increase thermal efficiency
(c) improve condenser performance
(d) reduce loss of heat
Ans: b

25. Mercury is a choice with steam in binary vapour cycle because it has
(a) higher critical temperature and pressure
(b) higher saturation temperature than other fluids
(c) relatively low vapourisation pressure
(d) all above
Ans: d

26. Binary'vapour cycles are used to


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(a) increase the performance of the condenser
(b) increase the efficiency of the plant
(c) increase efficiency of the turbine
Ans: b

27. A steam power station requires space


(a) equal to diesel power station
(b) more than diesel power station
(c) less than diesel power stationAns: b
28. Economiser is used to heat
(a) air
(b) feed water
(c) flue gases
(d) all above
Ans: b

29. The modern steam turbines are


(a) impulse turbines
(b) reaction turbines
(c) impulse-reaction turbines
(d) none of the above
Ans: c

30. The draught which a chimney produces is called


(a) induced draught
(b) natural draught
(c) forced draught
(d) balanced draught
Ans: b

31. The draught produced by steel chimney as compared to that produced by brick chimney for the
same height is
(a) less
(b) more
(c) same
(d) may be more or less
Ans: b

32. In a boiler installation the natural draught is produced


(a) due to the fact that furnace gases being light go through the chimney giving place to cold air from
outside to rush in
(b) due to the fact that pressure at the grate due to cold column is higher than the pressure at the
chimney base due to hot column
(c) due to the fact that at the chimney top the pressure is more than its environmental pressure
(d) all of the above
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Ans: b

33. The draught produced, for a given height of the chimney and given mean temperature of chimney
gases
(a) decreases with increase in outside air temperature
(b) increases with increase in outside air temperature
(c) remains the same irrespective of outside air temperature
(d) may increase or decrease with increase in outside air temperature
Ans: a

34. The draught produced by chimney of given height at given outside temperature
(a) decreases if the chimney gas temperature increases
(b) increases if the chimney gas temperature increases
(c) remains same irrespective of chimney gas temperature
(d) may increase or decrease
Ans: b

35. For forced draught system, the function of chimney is mainly


(a) to produce draught to accelerate the combustion of fuel
(b) to discharge gases high up in the atmosphere to avoid hazard
(c) to reduce the temperature of the hot gases discharged
(d) none of the above
Ans: b

36. Artificial draught is produced by


(a) induced fan
(b) forced fan
(c) induced and forced fan
(d) all of the above
Ans: d

37. The draught in locomotive boilers is produced by


(a) forced fan
(b) chimney
(c) steam jet
(d) only motion of locomotive
Ans: c

38. For the same draught produced the power of induced draught fan as compared to forced draught
fan is
(a) less
(b) more
(c) same
(d) not predictable
Ans: b
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39. Artificial draught is produced by
(a) air fAns
(b) steam jet
(c) fan or steam jet
(d) all of the above
Ans: d

40. The artificial draught normally is designed to produce


(a) less smoke
(b) more draught
(c) less chimney gas temperature
(d) all of the aboveAns: d
41. For the induced draught the fan is located
(a) near bottom of chimney
(b) near bottom of furnace
(c) at the top of the chimney
(D) anywhere permissible
Ans: a

42. The pressure at the furnace is minimum in case of


(a) forced draught system
(b) induced draught system
(c) balanced draught system
(d) natural draught system
Ans: c

43. The efficiency of chimney is approximately


(a) 80%
(b) 40%
(c) 20%
(d) 0.25%
Ans: d

44. The isentropic expAnsion of steam through nozzle for the steam initially superheated at inlet is
approximated by equation
(a) pvls=C
(b) pv1126 = C
(c) pv1A = C
(d) pv = C
Ans: a

45. The ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure for maximum mass flow rate per unit area of steam
through a nozzle when steam is initially dry saturated is
(a) 0.6
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(6) 0.578
(c) 0.555
(d) 0.5457
Ans: b

46. The ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure of maximum mass flow rate per area of steam through a
nozzle when steam is initially superheated is
(a) 0.555
(b) 0.578
(c) 0.5457
(d) 0.6
Ans: c

47. The critical pressure ratio of a convergent nozzle is defined as


(a) the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure of nozzle
(b) the ratio of inlet pressure to outlet pressure of nozzle
(c) the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure only when mass flow rate per unit area is minimum
(d) the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure only when mass flow rate = c
Ans: d

48. The isentropic expAnsion of steam through nozzle for the steam initially dry saturated at inlet is
approximated by equation.
(a)pv = C
(b)pv1A = C
(c)pv1i = C
(d)pv
Ans: d

49. The effect of considering friction losses in steam nozzle for the same pressure ratio leads to
(a) increase in exit velocity from the nozzle
(6) decrease in exit velocity from the nozzle
(c) no change in exit velocity from the nozzle
(d) increase or decrease depending upon the exit quality of steam
Ans: b

50. The effect of considering friction in steam nozzles for the same pressure ratio leads to
(a) increase in dryness fraction of exit steam
(b) decrease in dryness fraction of exit steam
(c) no change in the quality of exit steam
(d) decrease or increase of dryness fraction of exit steam depending upon inlet quality
Ans: a

51. In case of impulse steam turbine


(a) there is enthalpy drop in fixed and moving blades
(b) there is enthalpy drop only in moving blades
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(c) there is enthalpy drop in nozzles
(d) none of the above
Ans: c

52. The pressure on the two sides of the impulse wheel of a steam turbine
(a) is same
(b) is different
(c) increases from one side to the other side
(d) decreases from one side to the other side
Ans: a

53. In De Laval steam turbine


(a) the pressure in the turbine rotor is approximately same as in con¬denser
(b) the pressure in the turbine rotor is higher than pressure in the con¬denser
(c) the pressure in the turbine rotor gradually decreases from inlet to exit from condenser
(d) none from the above
Ans: a

54. Incase of reaction steam turbine


(a) there is enthalpy drop both in fixed and moving blades
(b) there is enthalpy drop only in fixed blades
(c) there is enthalpy drop only in moving blades
(d) none of the above
Ans: a

55. Curtis turbine is


(a) reaction steam turbine
(b) pressure velocity compounded steam turbine
(c) pressure compounded impulse steam turbine
(d) velocity compounded impulse steam turbine
Ans: b

56. Rateau steam turbine is


(a) reaction steam turbine
(b) velocity compounded impulse steam turbine
(c) pressure compounded impulse steam turbine
(d) pressure velocity compounded steam turbine
Ans: c

57. Parson's turbine is


(a) pressure compounded steam turbine
(b) simple single wheel, impulse steam turbine
(c) simple single wheel reaction steam turbine
(d) multi wheel reaction steam turbine
Ans: d
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58. For Parson's reaction steam turbine, degree of reaction is
(a) 75%
(b) 100%
(c) 50%
(d) 60%
Ans: c

59. Reheat factor in steam turbines depends on


(a) exit pressure only
(b) stage efficiency only
(c) initial pressures and temperature only
(d) all of the above
Ans: c

60. The value of reheat factor normally varies from


(a) 0.5 to 0.6
(b) 0.9 to 0.95
(c) 1.02 to 1.06
(d) 1.2 to 1.6
Ans: c

61. Steam turbines are governed by the following methods


(a) Throttle governing
(b) Nozzle control governing
(c) By-pass governing
(d) all of the above
Ans: d

62. In steam turbines the reheat factor


(a) increases with the increase in number of stages
(b) decreases with the increase in number of stages
(c) remains same irrespective of number of stages
(d) none of the above
Ans: a

63. The thermal efficiency of the engine with condenser as compared to without condenser, for a
given pressure and temperature of steam, is
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) same as long as initial pressure and temperature is unchanged
(d) none of the above
Ans: a

64. In jet type condensers


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(a) cooling water passes through tubes and steam surrounds them
(b) steam passes through tubes and cooling water surrounds them
(c) steam and cooling water mix
(d) steam and cooling water do not mix
Ans: c

65. In a shell and tube surface condenser


(a) steam and cooling water mix to give the condensate
(b) cooling water passes through the tubes and steam surrounds them
(c) steam passes through the cooling tubes and cooling water surrounds them
(d) all of the above varying with situation
Ans: b

66. In a surface condenser if air is removed, there is


(a) fall in absolute pressure maintained in condenser
(b) rise in absolute pressure maintained in condenser
(c) no change in absolute pressure in the condenser
(d) rise in temperature of condensed steam
Ans: a
67. The cooling section in the surface condenser
(a) increases the quantity of vapour extracted along with air
(b) reduces the quantity of vapour extracted along with air
(c) does not affect vapour quantity extracted but reduces pump capacity of air extraction pump
(d) none of the above
Ans: b

68. Edward's air pump


(a) removes air and also vapour from condenser
(b) removes only air from condenser
(c) removes only un-condensed vapour from condenser
(d) removes air alongwith vapour and also the condensed water from condenser
Ans: d

69. In a steam power plant, the function of a condenser is


(a) to maintain pressure below atmospheric to increase work output from the primemover
(b) to receive large volumes of steam exhausted from steam prime mover
(c) to condense large volumes of steam to water which may be used again in boiler
(d) all of the above
Ans: d

70. In a regenerative surface condenser


(a) there is one pump to remove air and condensate
(b) there are two pumps to remove air and condensate
(c) there are three pumps to remove air, vapour and condensate
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(d) there is no pump, the condensate gets removed by gravity
Ans: b

71. Evaporative type of condenser has


(a) steam in pipes surrounded by water
(b) water in pipes surrounded by steam
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: a

72. Pipes carrying steam are generally made up of


(a) steel
(b) cast iron
(c) copper
(d) aluminium
Ans: a

73. For the safety of a steam boiler the number of safety valves fitted are
(a) four
(b) three
(c) two
(d) one Ans: c
74. Steam turbines commonly used in steam power station are
(a) condensing type
(b) non-condensing type
(c) none of the above
Ans: a

75. Belt conveyer can be used to trAnsport coal at inclinations upto


(a) 30°
(b) 60°
(c) 80°
(d) 90°
Ans: a

76. The maximum length of a screw conveyer is about


(a) 30 metres
(b) 40 metres
(c) 60 metres
(d) 100 metres
Ans: a

77. The efficiency of a modern boiler using coal and heat recovery equipment is about
(a) 25 to 30%
(b) 40 to 50%
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(c) 65 to 70%
(d) 85 to 90%
Ans: d

78. The average ash content in Indian co als is about


(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 15%
(d) 20%
Ans: d

79. Load center in a power station is


(a) center of coal fields
(b) center of maximum load of equipments
(c) center of gravity of electrical system
Ans: c

80. Steam pressure in a steam power station, which is usually kept now-a-days is of the order of
(a) 20 kgf/cm2
(b) 50 kgf/cm2
(c) 100 kgf/cm2
(d) 150 kgf/cm2
Ans: d

81. Economisers improve boiler efficiency by


(a) 1 to 5%
(b) 4 to 10%
(c) 10 to 12%
Ans: b

82. The capacity of large turbo-generators varies from


(a) 20 to 100 MW
(b) 50 to 300 MW
(c) 70 to 400 MW
(d) 100 to 650 MW
Ans: b

83. Caking coals are those which


(a) burn completely
(b) burn freely
(c) do not form ash
(d) form lumps or masses of coke
Ans: d

84. Primary air is that air which is used to


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(a) reduce the flame length
(b) increase the flame length
(c) trAnsport and dry the coal
(d) provide air around burners for get¬ting optimum combustion
Ans: c

85. Secondary air is the air used to


(a) reduce the flame length
(b) increase the flame length
(c) trAnsport and dry the coal
(d) provide air round the burners for getting optimum combustion
Ans: d

86. In coal preparation plant, magnetic separators are used to remove


(a) dust
(b) clinkers
(c) iron particles
(d) sand
Ans: c

87. Load carrying capacity of belt conveyor is about


(a) 20 to 40 tonnes/hr
(b) 50 to 100 tonnes/hr
(c) 100 to 150 tonnes/hr
(d) 150 to 200 tonnes/hr
Ans: b
88. Method which is commonly applied for unloading the coal for small power plant is
(a) lift trucks
(b) coal accelerators
(c) tower cranes
(d) belt conveyor
Ans: b

89. Bucket elevators are used for


(a) carrying coal in horizontal direction
(b) carrying coal in vertical direction
(c) carrying coal in any direction
Ans: b

90. The amount of air which is supplied for complete combustion is called
(a) primary air
(b) secondary air
(c) tertiary air
Ans: b

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91. In ______ system fuel from a central pulverizing unit is delivered to a bunker and then to the
various burners
(a) unit
(b) central
(c) none of the above
Ans: b

92. Under-feed stokers work best for _______ coals high in volatile matter and with caking tendency
(a) anthracite
(b) lignite
(c) semibituminous and bituminous
Ans: c

93. Example of overfeed type stoker is


(a) chain grate
(b) spreader
(c) travelling grate
(d) all of the above
Ans: d

94. Where unpulverised coal has to be used and boiler capacity is large, the stoker which is used is
(a) underfeed stoker
(b) overfeed stoker
(c) any
Ans: b

95. TravelUng grate stoker can burn coals at the rates of


(a) 50—75 kg/m per hour
(b) 75—100 kg/m per hour
(c) 100—150 kg/m per hour
(d) 150—200 kg/m2 per hour
Ans: d

96. Blowing down of boiler water is the process


(a) to reduce the boiler pressure
(b) to increase the steam temperature
(c) to control the solid concentration in the boiler water by removing some of the concentrated saline
water
(d) none of the above
Ans: c

97. Deaerative heating is done to


(a) heat the water
(b) heat the air in the water
(c) remove dissolved gases in the water
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Ans: c

98. Reheat factor is the ratio of


(a) isentropic heat drop to useful heat drop
(b) adiabatic heat drop to isentropic heat drop
(c) cumulative actual enthalpy drop for the stages to total is isentropic enthalpy heat drop
Ans: c

99. The value of the reheat factor is of the order of


(a) 0.8 to 1.0
(b) 1.0 to 1.05
(c) 1.1 to 1.5
(d) above 1.5
Ans: c
100. Compounding of steam turbine is done for
(a) reducing the work done
(b) increasing the rotor speed
(c) reducing the rotor speed
(d) balancing the turbine
Ans: c
Set 2 (200)
Steam Boilers, Engines, Nozzles and Turbines
1. For water, at pressures below atmospheric,
(a) melting point rises slightly and boiling point drops markedly
(b) melting point rises markedly and boiling point drops markedly
(c) melting point drops slightly and boiling point drops markedly
(d) melting point drops slightly and boiling point drops slightly
(e) none of the above. Ans: a
2. At very low temperature, the melting and boiling temperatures become equal. This temperature is
(a) 373°K (b) 273.16°K
(c) 303°K
(d) 0°K. (e) 300°K. Ans: b

3. The critical pressure at which latent heat of vaporisation is zero is


(a) 225.65 kgf/cm2
(b) 273 kgf/cm2
(c) 100 kgf/cm2
(d) 1 kgf/cm2
(e) - 1 kgf/cm2. Ans: a

4. The latent heat of steam at pressures greater than atmospheric in comparison to latent heat at
atmospheric pressure is
(a) less
(b) more
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(c) equal
(d) may be less or more depending on temperature
(e) unpredictable. Ans: a

5. The saturation temperature of steam with increase in pressure increases


(a) linearly
(b) rapidly first and then slowly
(c) slowly first and then rapidly
(d) inversely
(e) none of the above. Ans: b

6. Carbonisation of coal is the process of


(a) pulverising coal in inert atmosphere
(b) heating wood in a limited supply of air at temperatures below 300°C
(c) strongly heating coal continuously for about 48 hours in the absence of air in a closed vessel
(d) binding the pulverised coal into brick-ettes
(e) enriching carbon in the coal. Ans: c

7. Coke is produced by
(a) pulverising coal in inert atmosphere
(b) heating wood in a limited supply of air at temperatures below 300GC
(c) strongly heating coal continuously for about 48 hours in the absence of air in a closed vessel
(d) binding the pulverised coal into brick-etts
(e) enriching carbon in the coal. Ans: c

8. Heating of dry steam above saturation temperature is known as


(a) enthalpy
(b) superheating
(c) supersaturation
(d) latent heat
(e) super tempering. Ans: b
9. Superheating of steam is done at
(a) constant volume
(b) constant temperature
(c) constant pressure
(d) constant entropy
(e) constant enthaply. Ans: c

10. 1 kg.m is equal to


(a) 9.81 Joules
(b) All Joules
(c) 427 Joules
(d) 102 Joules
(e) 539 Joules. Ans: a

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11. If partial pressure of air and steam be pa andps respectively in a condenser, then according to
Dalton's law, the pressure in condenser is equal to
(a) Ps-Pa
(b) pa-ps
(C) Pa+P, Ans: c

12. Equivalent evaporation is the amount of water evaporated in a boiler from and at
(a) 0°C
(b) 100°C
(c) saturation temperature at given pressure
(d) room temperature
(e) 20°C. Ans: b

13. The specific volume of steam with increase in pressure decreases


(a) linearly
(b) slowly first and then rapidly
(c) rapidly first and then slowly
(d) inversely
(e) none of the above. Ans: c

14. The equivalent evaporation of a boiler is a measure to compare


(a) the given boiler with the model
(b) the two different boilers of the same make
(c) two different makes of boilers operat¬ing under the same operating conditions
(d) two boilers of same make but operaing under different conditions
(e) any type of boilers operating under any conditions. Ans: e

15. The coal requirement per kW hour generation in the thermal power plant is of the order of
(a) 0.1 to 0.2 kg
(b) 0.2 to 0.4 kg
(c) 0.6 to 0.8 kg
(d) 1.0 to 1.5 kg
(e) 1.5 to 2 kg. Ans: c
16. Sublimation region is the region where
(a) solid and vapour phases are in equi-librium
(b) solid and liquid phases are in equilibrium
(c) liquid and vapour phases are in equilibrium
(d) solid, liquid and vapour phases are in equilibrium
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

17. Stoichiometric quantity of air is the


(a) air present in atmosphere at NTP conditions
(b) air required for complete combustion of fuel with no excess air
(c) air required for optimum combustion so as to have reasonable excess air
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(d) air required to convert CO into C02
(e) air required to form an explosive mixture. Ans: b

18. One kg of steam sample contains 0.8 kg dry steam; it's dryness fraction is
(a) 0.2
(b) 0.8
(c) 1.0
(d) 0.6 (e) 0.5. Ans: b

19. If a steam sample is nearly in dry condition, then its dryness fraction can be most accurately
determined by
(a) throttling calorimeter
(b) separating calorimeter
(c) combined separating and throttling calorimeter
(d) bucket calorimeter
(e) none of the above. Ans: a

20. If xx and x2 be the dryess fractions obtained in separating calorimeter and throttling calorimeter
respectively, then the actual dryness fraction of steam will be
(a) xxx2
(b) x, + x2 Ans: a

21. The specific heat of superheated steam in kcal/kg is generally of the order of
(a) 0.1
(b) 0.3
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.8 (e) 1.0. Ans: c

22. On Mollier chart, flow through turbine is represented by '


(a) horizontal straight line
(b) vertical straight line
(c) straight inclined line
(d) curved line
(e) none of the above. Ans: b

23. A wet vapour can be completely specified by


(a) pressure only
(b) temperature only
(c) dryness fraction only
(d) specific volume only
(e) pressure and dryness fraction. Ans: e

24. On Millier chart, the constant pressure lines


(a) diverge from left to right
(b) diverge from right to left
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(c) are equally spaced throughout
(d) first rise up and then fall
(e) none of the above. Ans: a

25. On Mollier chart, free expAnsion, or throttling process from high pressure to atmosphere is
represented by
(a) horizontal straight line
(b) vertical straight line
(c) straight inclined line
(d) curved line
(e) none of the above. Ans: a

26. The bituminous coal is non-caking if its carbon content is (a) 78-81%
(b) 81-85%
(c) 85-90%
(d) 90-95%
(e) 95-100%.
Ans: a

27. The dry saturated steam at very low pressure, (5-10 kg/cm2) when throttled to atmosphere will
become
(a) wet
(b) superheated
(c) remain dry satruated
(d) dry
(e) none of the above. Ans: b

28. Water at pressure of 4 kg/cm2 and 160°C temperature when exposed to atmosphere will
(a) boil
(b) flash i.e. get converted into steam
(c) remain as it was
(d) cool down
(e) none of the above. Ans: b

29. The dry saturated steam at very high pressure (150-200 kg/cm2) when throttled to atmosphere
will become
(a) wet
(b) superheated
(c) remain dry saturated
(d) dry
(e) none of the above. Ans: a

30. In a throttling process


(a) steam temperature remaisn constant
(b) steam pressure remains constant
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(c) steam enthalpy remains constant
(d) steam entropy remains constant
(e) steam volume remains constant. Ans: c

31. In a throttling process


(a) heat transfer takes place
(b) work is done by the expanding steam
(c) internal energy of steam changes
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above. Ans: e

32. The pressure at which latent heat of vaporisation of water is zero, is


(a) below atmospheric pressure
(b) 1 kg/cm2
(c) 100 kg/cm2
(d) 170 kg/cm2 (e) 225.6 kg/cm2. Ans: e

33. Latent heat of dry steam at atmospneric pressure is equal to


(a) 539 kcal/kg
(b) 539 BTU/lb
(c) 427 kcal/kg
(d) 100 kcal/kg
(e) 471 kcal/kg. Ans: a

34. The latent heat of steam with increase of pressure


(a) remains same
(b) increases
(c) decreases
(d) behaves unpredictably
(e) none of the above. Ans: c

35. At critical point, i.e. p=225.65 kg/cm2, the latent enthalpy of vaporisation is
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) depends on temperature also
(e) none of the above. Ans: c

36. At which pressure the properties of water and steam become identical
(a) 0.1 kg/cm2
(b) 1 kg/cm2
(c) 100 kg/cm2
(d) 225.6 kg/cm2
(e) it is never possible. Ans: d

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37. In an experiment to determine dryness fraction of steam, the mass of water separated was 1.2 kg
in 15 mts and the mass of steam passed out in same time was 4.8 kg. Dryness fraction is
(a) 40%
(b) 25%
(c) 50%
(d) 80% (e)90%. Ans: d

38. While steam expands in turbines, theoretically the entropy


(a) remains constant
(b) increases
(c) decreases
(d) behaves unpredictably
(e) none of the above. Ans: a

39. Heating wet steam at constant temperature is heating it at constant


(a) volume
(b) pressure
(c) entropy
(d) enthalpy
(e) none of the above. Ans: b

40. Adiabatic process is


(a) essentially an isentropic process
(b) non-heat transfer process
(c) reversible process
(d) constant temperature process
(e) constant enthalpy process. Ans: b

41. The state of vapour under saturation condition is described by


(a) pressure alone
(b) temperature alone
(c) pressure and temperature
(d) pressure and dryness fraction
(e) dryness fraction alone. Ans: d

42. Pick up the wrong statement about critical condition of steam


(a) latent heat is zero
(b) liquid directly becomes steam
(c) specific volume of steam and liquid is same
(d) this is the maximum pressure limit
(e) all properties of liquid and steam are same. Ans: d
43. Water boils when its vapour pressure
(a) equals that of the surroundings
(b) equals 760 mm of mercury
(c) equals to atmospheric pressure
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(d) equals the pressure of water in the container
(e) boiling has ^nothing to do with vapour pressure. Ans: a

45. Mechanical equivalent of heat for 1 kcal or Joule's equivalent is equal to


(a) 421 kgm
(b) 421 kgm
(c) 539 kgm
(d) 102 kgm
(e) 75 kgm. Ans: a

46. Equivalent evaporation of water is the evaporation "for a feed water supply at 100°C
(a) and its corresponding conversion into dry saturated steam at 100°C and 1.033 kg/cm2
(b) and its corresponding conversion into dry steam at desired boiler pressure
(c) conversion into steam at atmospheric condition
(d) conversion into steam at the same pres-sure at which feed water is supplied
(e) none of the above. Ans: a

47. The evaporation of 15.653 kg of water per hour from and at 100°C is called
(a) evaporative capacity
(b) factor of evaporation
(c) equivalent evaporation
(d) one boiler h.p.
(e) boiler efficiency. Ans: d

48. The increase in pressure


(a) lowers the boiling point of a liquid
(b) raises the boiling point of a liquid
(c) .does not affect the boiling point of a liquid
(d) reduces its volume
(e) none of the above. Ans: b

49. During polytropic process


(a) heat transfer takes place across cylinder walls
(b) work is done
(c) steam may be wet, dry or superheated after expAnsion
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above. Ans: d
50. Hygrometery deals with the
(a) Hygroscopic substances
(b) water vapour in air
(c) temperature of air
(d) pressure of air
(e) density measurement. Ans: b
51. Orsat meter is used for
(a) gravimetric analysis of the flue gases
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(b) volumetric analysis of the flue gases
(c) mass flow of the flue gases
(d) measuring smoke density of flue gases
(e) none of the above. Ans: b

52. Alkaline pyrogallate is used in Orsat's apparatus for absorption of


(a) C02
(b) CO
(c) 02
(d) N2
(e) none of the above. Ans: c

53. An ideal regenerative cycle is


(a) equal to carnot cycle
(b) less than carnot cycle
(c) more than carnot cycle
(d) could be anything
(e) none of the above. Ans: b

54. Efficiency of rankine cycle can be increased by


(a) decreasing initial steam pressure and temperature
(b) increasing exhaust pressure
(c) decreasing exhaust pressure
(d) increasing the expAnsion ratio
(e) increasing number of regenerative heaters. Ans: a

55. Cochran boiler is a


(a) horizontal fire-tube boiler
(b) horizontal water-tube boiler
(c) veritcal water-tube boiler
(d) vertical fire tube boiler
(e) forced circulating boiler. Ans: d
56. Lancashire 'boiler is a
(a) stationary fire tube boiler
(b) stationary water tube boiler
(c) water tube boiler with natural/forced circulation
(d) mobile fire tube boiler
(e) none of the above. Ans: a

57. Efficiency of a thermal cycle increases by


(a) regeneration
(b) reheating of steam
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) cooling of steam
(e) none of the above. Ans: c
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58. One kilowatt-hour energy is equivalent to
(a) 1000 J
(b) 360 kJ
(c) 3600 kJ
(d) 3600 kW/sec
(e) 1000 kJ. Ans: c

59. Which of the following gases has the highest calorific value
(a) producer gas
(b) coal gas.
(c) water gas
(d) blast furnace gas
(e) coke oven gas. Ans: b

60. 100% efficiency of a thermal cycle cannot be achieved because of


(a) frictional losses
(b) it is not possible to achieve 0°K temperature
(c) leakage
(d) non-availability of ideal substance
(e) none of the above. Ans: b

61. For burning 1 kg of carbon to CO as per chemically correct combusiton, amount of air required is
(a) 1 kg
(b) 4/3kg
(c) 8/3kg
(d) 2 kg
(e) 16/3 kg. Ans: b

62. The diameter of Cornish boiler is of the order of


(a) 1-2 m
(b) 1.5-2.5 m
(c) 2-3 m
(d) 2.5-3.5 m
(e) 0.5 to 1 m. Ans: a

63. The lenght of Cornish boiler is of the order of


(a)2-4 m
(b)3-5 m (c) 5-7.5 m
(d) 7-9 m (e) 9-11 m. Ans: c

64. The diameter of fire tube of Cornish boiler compared to its shell is
(a) one half
(b) one third
(c) one-fifth
(d) two-fifth
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(e) three-fifth. Ans: a

65. Steam engine operates on


(a) carnot cycle
(b) joule cycle
(c) Stirling cycle
(d) brayton cycle
(e) none of the above. Ans: d

66. The change in internal energy in steam engines equals to


(a) work done during the rankine cycle ;
(b) work done during compression.
(c) work done during adiabatic expAnsion
(d) change in enthalpy
(e) none of the above. Ans: a

67. Water tube boilers are those in which


(a) flue gases pass through tubes and water around it
(b) water passes through the tubes and flue gases around it
(c) work is done during adiabatic expAnsion
(d) change in enthalpy
(e) none of the above. Ans: c

68. Locomotive type' boiler is


(a) horizontal multitubular water tube boiler
(b) water wall enclosed furnace type
(c) vertical tubular fire tube type
(d) horizontal multi-tubular fire tube type
(e) none of the above types. Ans: d

69. Lancashire boiler is of


(a) stationary<fire tube-type
(b) horizontal type
(c) natural cirulation type
(d) internally fired type
(e) all of the above. Ans: e

70. Fire tube boilers are those in which


(a) flue gases pass through tubes and water around it
(b) water passes through the tubes and flue gases around it
(c) forced circulation takes place
(d) tubes are laid vertically
(e) none of the above. Ans: a

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71. Which of the following substance will have same percentage in both proximate and ultimate
analysis
(a) ash
(b) volatile matter
(c) moisture
(d) hydrogen
(e) none of the above. Ans: a

72. The number of flue tubes in Lancashire boiler is


(a) zero
(b) one
(c) two
(d) four
(e) many. Ans: c

73. Which of the following is a fire tube boiler


(a) locomotive boiler
(b) Babcock and Wilcox boiler
(c) Stirling boiler.
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above. Ans: a

74. Which of the following is a water tube boiler


(a) locomotive boiler
(b) Cochran boiler
(c) Cornish boiler
(d) Babcock and Wilcox boiler
(e) Lancashire boiler. Ans: d

75. The diameter of cylindrical shell of the Lancashire boiler is of the order of
(a)1 tp 1.25m
(b)1 to 1.75 m
(c)2 to 4 m
(d) 1.75 to 2.75 m
(e) 2.25 to 4.5 m.
Ans: d

76. A packaged boiler is one in which various parts like firing equipment, fAns, feed pumps and
automatic controls are
(a) supplied by same manufacturer loose and assembled at site
(b) supplied mounted on a single base
(c) purchased from several parties and packed together at site
(d) packaged boiler does not exist
(e) none of the above. Ans: b

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77. The biggest size of thermal power unit operating in India is
(a) 30 MW
(b) 60 MW
(c) 100 MW
(d) 210 MW
(e) 500 MW. Ans: e

78. Which of the following coals has the highest calorific value
(a) anthracite coal
(b) bituminous coal
(c) lignite
(d) peat
(e) wood. Ans: a

79. The high pressure boiler is oiie producing steam at a pressure more than
(a) atmospheric pressure
(b) 5 kg/cm2
(c) 10 kg/cm2
(d) 40 kg/cm2
(e) 75-80 kg/cm2. Ans: e

80. The crown of the fire box is made hemispherical in order to


(a) give maximum space
(b) give maximum strength
(c) withstand pressure inside boiler ,
(d) resist intense heat in fire box
(e) enable easy,manufacture. Ans: d

81. Which of the following is steam dbal


(a) non-coking bituminous coal
(b) brown coal
(c) pulverised coal
(d) coking bituminous coal
(e) none of the above. Ans: a

82. The fire tubes in, a Coarran and Scotish marine boiler are
(a) horizontal
(b) vertical
(c) inclined
(d) both horizontal and vertical
(e) horizontal and inclined. Ans: a

83. The diameter of internal flue tubes in a Lancashire boiler compared to its shell is
(a) one-half
(b) one-third
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(c) one-fourth
(d) one-fifth
(e) two-fifth. Ans: e

84. The basic purpose of drum in boiler is to


(a) serve as storage of steam
(b) serve as storage of feed water for water wall
(c) remove salts from water
(d) separate steam from water
(e) control level. Ans: d
85. Duplex feed pumps are used in small steam boilers. These operate on the principle of
(a) centrifugal pump
(b) axial flow pump
(c) gear pump
(d) ejector pump
(e) reciprocating pump. Ans: e

86. The best suited coal for chain or travelling grate stoker boiler is
(a) coking coal
(b) non coking or free burning coal
(c) pulverised coal
(d) high sulphur coal
(e) least ash content coal. Ans: b

87. In natural circulation type boiler,


(a) heating takes place at bottom and the water supplied at bottom gets converted into the mixture of
steam bubbles and hot water which rise to drum
(b) water is supplied in durm and through down-comers located in atmospheric conditon it passes to
the water wall and rises to drum in the form of mixture of water and steam
(c) feed pump is employed to supplement natural circulation in water wall type furnace
(d) water is converted into steam in one . pass without any recirculation
(e) water is fed at atmospheric pressure. Ans: a

88. Hard coke is produced by carborisation of coal at


(a) atmospheric temperature (b) 500-600°C
(c) 70O-850°C
(d) 95O-1100°C (e) 120O-1500°C.
Ans: d

89.. Hard coke is used in


(a) cement industry
(b) thermal power plant
(c) blast furnace
(d) domestic use
(e) locomotives Ans: c
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90. Pick up the correct statement as regards Cornish boiler and Lancashire boiler
(a) cornish is fire tube and lancashire is water tube
(b) cornish is water tube and lancashire is fire tube
(c) cornish has two fire tubes and lancashire has one
(d) lancashire has two fire tubes and cornish has one
(e) both have two fire tubes. Ans: d

91. In locomotive boiler, maximum steam pressure is limited to


(a) 1 kg/cm2
(b) 5 kg/cm2
(c) 10 kg/cm2
(d) 18 kg/cm2
(e) 31 kg/cm2. Ans: d

92. Locomotive boiler is of the following type


(a) multitubular
(b) horizontal
(c) internally fired
(d) mobile
(e) all of the above. Ans: e

93.The shell diameter and length of locomotive boiler are


(a) 1.5 m, 4 m
(b) 1.5 m, 6 m
(c)1 m, 4 m
(d)2 m, 4 m (e) 1.5 m, 8 m. Ans: a

94.The diameters of fire tubes and superheaer tubes in locomotive boiler are (a) 47.5 mm, 130 mm
(b) 32.5 mm, 180 mm
(c) 65.5 mm, 210 mm
(d) 24.5 mm, 65 mm Ans: a

95. The water tubes in a babcock and wilcox boiler are


(a) horizontal
(b) vertical
(c) inclined
(d) horizontal and inclined
(e) vertical and inclined. Ans: c

96. Which of the following varieties of coals is mostly used in steam boilers
(a) non-coking bituminous coal
(b) brown coal
(c) peat
(d) coking bituminous coal
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(e) none of the above. Ans: e

97. The diameter of tubes for natural circulation boiler as compared to controlled circulation boilers is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) could be more or less depending on other factors
(e) none of the above. Ans: a
98. A boiler in India should conform to safety regulations of
(a) DIN
(b) BS
(c) ASTM
(d) IBR
(e) GOST. Ans: d
99. The function of injector used in small steam plants is to
(a) create vacuum in furnace
(b) create vacuum at turbine exhaust
(c) pump feed water
(d) dose chemicals in feed water
(e) control steam temperature by injecting water. Ans: c

100. Which of the following boilers is best suited to meet fluctuating demands
(a) babcock and wilcox
(b) locomotive
(c) lancashire
(d) cochran
(e) comish. Ans: b

101. The difference between cornish boiler and lancashire boiler is that
(a) former is fire tube type and latter is water tube type boiler
(b) former is water tube type and latter is fire tube type
(c) former contains one fire tube and latter contains two fire tubes
(e) none/of the above. Ans: c

102. In accelerated circulation type boiler


(a) heating takes place at bottom and the water supplied at bottom gets converted into the mixture of
stdam bubbles and hot water which rise to durm
(b) water is supplied in drum and through downcomers" located in atmospheric conditon it passes to
the water wall and rises to durm in the from of mixture of water and steam
(c) feed pump is employed to supplement natural circulation in water wall type furnace
(e) water is converted into steam in one pass without any recirculation
(e) water is fed under high pressure and high velocity. Ans: b

103. Pick up the wrong statement about water tube boiler in comparison to fire tube boilers
(a) former generates steam at high pressure
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(b) former occupies less space for same power
(c) rate of steam flow is more in former case
(d) former is used for high installed capacity
(e) chances of explosion are less in former case. Ans: e

104. The number of drums in Benson steam generator is


(a) one
(b) two
(c) one steam drum and one water drum
(d) no drum
(e) none of the above. Ans: d

105. A fusible plug is fitted in small boilers in order to


(a) avoid excessive build up of pressure
(b) avoid explosion
(c) extinguish fire if water level in the boiler falls below alarming limit
(d) control steam dome
(e) remove molten aslj. Ans: c

106. The fusible plug in small boilers is located


(a) in the drum
(b) in the fire tubes
(c) above steam dome
(d) over the combustion chamber
(e) at the inlet of chimney. Ans: d

107. Fusible plug for boilers is made of fusible metal containing tin, lead, and
(a) bismuth
(b) copper
(c) aluminium
(d) nickel
(e) iron. Ans: a

108. Boiler H.P. is defined as the


(a) steam evaporation rate per kg of fuel fired
(b) work done in evaporating 1 kg of steam per hour from and at 100°C into dry saturated steam
(c) the evaporation of 15.65 kg of water per hour from and at 100°C into dry saturated steam
(d) work done by 1 kg of steam at saturation condition
(e) heat consumed in evaporating 1 kg water at 0°C to steam at 100°C and 1.033 kg/cm pressure.
Ans: c

109. In forced recirculation type boiler,


(a) heating takes place at bottom and the water supplied at bottom gets converted into the mixture of
steam bubbles and hot water which rise to drum

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(b) water is supplied in drum and through down-comers located in atmospheric condition it passes to
the water wall and rises to drum in the form of mixture of water and steam
(c) feed pump is employed to supplement natural circulation in water wall type furnace
(d) water is converted into steam in one pass without any recirculation
(e) heating of water takes place in stages. Ans: c

110. The ratio of heat utilised to produce steam and the heat liberated in furnace is known as
(a) boiler effectiveness
(b) boiler evaporative capacity
(c) factor of evaporation
(d) equivalent evaporation
(e) boiler efficiency. Ans: e

111. Steam in water tube boiler as compared to fire tube boiler


(a) can be raised rapidly
(b) is raisd at slower rate
(c) is raised at same rate
(d) could be raised at fast/slow rate depending on design
(e) none of the above is true. Ans: a
112. Thermal efficiency of well maintained boiler will be of the order
(a) 20%
(b) 40%
(c) 50%
(d) 75% (e) 90%. Ans: e

113. Thermal efficiency of a thermal power plant is of the order of


(a) 15%
(b) 20%
(c) 30%
(d) 45% (e ) 60%. Ans: c

114. It is required to produce large amount of steam at low pressure. Which boiler should be used ?
(a) pulverised fuel fired boiler
(b) cochran boiler
(c) lancashire boiler
(d) babcock and wilcox boiler
(e) stoker fired boiler. Ans: c

115. The overall efficiency of thermal power plant is


(a) boiler efficiency, turhine efficiecny, generator efficiency
(b) all the three above plus gas cycle efficiency
(c) carnot cycle efficiency
(d) regenerative cycle efficiency
(e) rankine cycle efficiency. Ans: a

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116. Which type of boiler can meet rapid changes of load
(a) vertical fire tube type
(b) horizontal fire tube type
(c) horizontal water tube type
(d) vertical water tube type
(e) forced circulation type. Ans: e

117. In forced circulation type boiler


(a) heating takes place at bottom and the water supplied at bottom gets converted into the mixture of
steam bubbles and hot water which rise to drum
(b) water is supplied in drum and through down-comers located in atmospheric condition it passes to
the water wall and rises to drum in the form of mixture of water and steam
(c) feed pump is employed to supplement natural circulation in water wall type furnace
(d) water is converted into steam in one pass without any recirculation
(e) water is heated in a large number of tubes. Ans: d

118. Boiler stays are used to


(a) prevent flat surfaces under pressure from tearing apart
(b) take care of failure in shear

(c) take care of failure in compression


(d) provide support for boiler
(e) provide foundation of boiler. Ans: a

119. The radius of a dished head is taken approximately as


(a) one-fourth
(b) half
(c) one
(d) two
(e) three. Ans: c

120. Size of boiler tubes is specified by


(a) mean diameter and thickness
(b) inside diameter and thickness
(c) outside diameter and thickness
(d) outside diameter and inside diameter
(e) outside diameter alone. Ans: c

121. The heat loss in a boiler takes place in the form of


(a) heat carried away by flue gases
(b) heat carried away by ash
(c) moisture present in fuel and steam formed by combustion of hydrogen in fuel
(d) radiation
(e) all of the above. Ans: e

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122. The major axis of elliptical manholes on the shell should be provided
(a) longitudinally
(b) circumferentially
(c) on dished end
(d) anywhere
(e) vertically. Ans: b

123. In which of the following boilers, the draught in furnace is increased by utilising exhaust steam
from engine
(a) lancashire boiler
(b) locomotive boiler
(c) babcock and wilcox boiler
(d) cochran boiler
(e) benson boiler. Ans: b

124. With increase in load, radiant superheater has


(a) drooping characteristic
(b) lihear characterisstic
(c) rising characteristic
(d) flat characteristic
(e) none of the above. Ans: a

125. With increase in load, convection superheater has


(a) drooping characteristic
(b) linear characterisstic
(c) rising characteristic
(d) flat characteristic
(c) none of the above. Ans: c

126. The diameter of fire tubes in Cochran boiler is of the order of


(a) 2 cm
(b) 6 Cm
(C) 8 cm
(d) 12 cm
(e) 15 cm. Ans: b

127. In a recuperative air preheater, the heat is transferred


(a) from a metal wall from one medium to another
(b) from heating an itermediate material and then heating the air from this material
(c) by direct mixing ,
(d) heat is transferred by bleeding some gases from furnace
(e) none of the above. Ans: a

128. A safety valve in a locomotive starts leaking. The leaking medium will be
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(a) water
(b) dry steam
(c) wet steam
(d) super heated steam
(e) supersaturated steam. Ans: d

129. The temperature of flue gases at air heater outlet should be


(a) 100°C
(b) above dew-point temperature of flue gases
(c) below dew-point temperature of flue gases
(d) less than wet bulb temperature of flue gases
(e) above wet bulb temperature of flue gases. Ans: b

130. In regenerative air preheater, the heat is transferred


(a) from a metal wall from one medium to another
(b) from heating an intermediateanaterial and then heating the air from this material
(c) by direct mixing
(d) heat is transferred by bleeding some gas from furnace
(e) none of the above. Ans: b

131. In designing air preheater, the important design consideration is that


(a) approach temperature should be as low as possible
(b) handling and maintenance should be easier
(c) heat transfer area should be optimum
(d) stack gases should not be cooled to the dew point
(e) none of the above. Ans: d

132. The pressure of reheat steam after passing through reheater compared to inlet condition is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) equal
(d) may be more or less depending on capacity of reheater
(e) none of the above. Ans: b

133. The function of injector used in small capacity boilers is to


(a) create vacuum
(b) inject chemical solution in feed pump
(c) pump water, similar to boiler feed pump
(d) add make up water in the system
(e) none of the above. Ans: c

134. The safety valve at superheater as compared to drum safety valve setting is set at
(a) higher value
(b) lower value
(c) same value
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(d) any value
(e) none of the above. Ans: b

135. The height of chimney in a power plant is governed by


(a) the draft to be created
(b) limitation of construction facilities
(c) control of pollution
(d) quantity of flue gases to be handled
(e) all of the above. Ans: c

136. Steam exhaust from high pressure turbine is reheated in


(a) boiler drum
(b) superheater tubes
(c) economiser
(d) a separate coil
(e) a separate coil located in convection path. Ans: e

137. Vacuum for reciprocating steam engines compared to steam turbines is


(a) more
(b) equal
(c) less
(d) could be more or less depending on the size of plant
(e) none of the above. Ans: c

138. Expanding steam to a very low prseeure (high vacuum) in steam engines is
(a) desirable
(b) economical
(c) essential
(d) optional
(e) uneconomical. Ans: e

139. In locomotives, the draught is produced by


(a) chimney
(b) induced draft fan
(c) both combined (a) and (b)
(d) steam jet draught
(e) none of the above. Ans: d

140. Reheating of steam under ideal conditions takes place at constant


(a) entropy
(b) enthaply
(c) pressure
(d) temperature
(e) all of the above. Ans: d

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141. The maximum discharge through a chimney occurs when the height of chimney is
(a) infinitely long
(b) around 200 meters
(c) equal to the height of the hot gas column producing draught
(d) outside temperature is very low
(e) more than the tallest building nearby. Ans: c

142. Proximate analysis of fuel is determination of percentage of


(a) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulphur, moisture
(b) fixed carbon, ash, volatile matter, moisture
(c) higher calorific value
(d) lower calorific value
(e) rough analysis. Ans: b

143. Which device is used in thermal power plants to reduce level of pollution
(a) induced draft fan
(b) smoke meter
(c) chimney
(d) precipitator
(e) pulveriser. Ans: d

144. Bomb calorimeter is used to determine


(a) Higher calorific value at constant volume
(b) Lower calorific value at constant volume ,
(c) Higher calorific value at constant pressure
(d) Lower calorific value at constant pressure
(e) None of the above. Ans: a

145. Ultimate analysis of fuel is determination of percentage of


(a) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulphur, moisture
(b) fixed carbon, ash, volatile matter, moisture
(c) higher calorific value
(b) lower calorific value
(e) best analysis. Ans: a

146. For combutsion of a fuel, following is essential


(a) correct fuel air ratio
(b) proper ignition temperature
(c) 02 to support combustion
(d) all the three above
(e) none of the above. Ans: d

147. Spontaneous combustion is a phenomenon in which


(a) all the fuel burns instantaneously producing high energy release
(b) fuel burns with less air
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(c) coal bursts into flame without any external ignition source but by itself due to gradual increase in
temperature as a result of heat released by combination of oxygen with coal
(d) explosion in furnace
(e) none of the above. Ans: c

148. The economiser is used in boilers to


(a) increase thermal efficiency of boiler
(b) economise on fuel
(c) extract heat from the exhaust flue gases
(d) increase flue gas temperature
(e) to heat feed water by bled steam. Ans: a

149. An economiser in a boiler


(a) increases steam pressure
(b) increases steam flow
(c) decreases fuel consumption
(d) decreases steam pressure
(e) increases life of boiler. Ans: c

150.02 content in atmospheric air on volume basis is


(a) 21%
(b) 23%
(d) 30%
(d) 40% (e) 70%. Ans: a

151. 02 content in atmospheric air on weight basis is


(a) 21%
(b) 23%
(c) 30%
(d) 40% (e ) 70%. Ans: b

152. Primary air is the air used to


(a) provide air around burners for obtaining optimum combustion
(b) trAnsport and dry the coal
(c) convert CO (formed in lower zone of furnace) into C02 at higher zone
(d) air-delivered by forced draft fan
(e) none ot the above. Ans: b

153. Sulphur content of fuels is very important to the plant operators because it
(a) has high heating value
(b) retards electric precipitation
(c) promotes complete combustion
(d) has highly corrosive effect
(e) facilitates ash removal. Ans: d

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154. Presence of moisture in fuel oil would
(a) keep the burner tips cool
(b) aid in proper combustion
(c) cause sputtering, possibly extinguish¬ing flame
(d) clean the nozzles
(e) reduce flame length. Ans: c

155. Gusset stays in a boiler are provided to


(a) prevent the bulging of flat surfaces
(b) avoid explosion in furnace
(c) prevent leakage of hot flue gases
(d) support furnace freely from top
(e) prevent atmospheric air leaking into furnace. Ans: a

156. Water and sediment in fuel oil can be removed by


(a) heating the oil in the settling tanks
(b) cooling the oil in the settling tanks
(c) burning the oil
(d) suspension
(e) filtering. Ans: a

157. Pour point of fuel oil is the


(a) lowest temperature at which oil will flow under set condition
(b) storage temperature
(c) temperature at which fuel is pumped through burners
(d) temperature at which oil is trAnsported
(e) none of the above. Ans: a

158. Secondary air is the used to


(a) provide air around burners for obtaining optimum combustion
(b) trAnsport and dry the coal
(c) convert CO (formed in lower zone of furnace) into C02 at higher zone
(d) air delivered by induced draft fan
(e) air fed to pulverisers. Ans: a

159. The behaviour of coal in a furnace is determained by


(a) the content of sulphur
(b) the content of ash and heating value
(c) the proximate analysis
(d) the exact analysis
(e) its type. Ans: c

160. Pick up wrong statement about desired properties of a good fuel


(a) high calorific value
(b) produce minimum smoke and gases
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(c) ease in storing
(d) high ignition point
(e) ecomomical Ans: d

161. Sulphur in coal results in


(a) causing clinkering and slagging
(b) corroding air heaters
(c) spontaneous combustion during coal storage
(d) facilitating ash precipitation
(e) all of the above. Ans: e

162. Caking coals are those which


(a) form lumps or masses of coke
(b) burn freely
(c) show little or no fusing action
(d) burn completely
(e) do not form ash. Ans: a

163. Green coal, in order to be burnt, must be


(a) heated sufficiently
(b) burnt in excess air
(c) heated to its ignition point
(d) burnt as powder
(e) burnt as lumps. Ans: c

164. The ultimate analysis of fuel lists


(a) various chemical constituents, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen etc, plus ash as per-cents by volume
(b) various chemical constituents, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, etc, plus ash as per-cents by weight
(c) fuel constituents as percents by volume of moisture, volatile, fixed carbon and ash
(d) fuel constituents as percents by weight of moisture, volatile, fixed carbon and ash
(e) moisture and ash free heating value. Ans: b

165. The proximate analysis of fuel lists


(a) various chemical constituents, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen etc, plus ash as per-cents by volume
(b) various chemical constituents, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, etc, plus ash as per-cents by weight
(c) fuel constituents as percents by volume of moisture, volatile, fixed carbon and ash
(d) fuel constituents as percents by weight of moisture, volatile, fixed carbon and ash
(e) moisture and ash free heating value. Ans: d

166. Tertiary air is the air used to


(a) provide air around burners for obtaining optimum combustion
(b) trAnsport and dry the coal
(c) cool the scanners
(d) supply air for ignitors
(e) convert CO (formed in lower zone of furnace) into C02 at higher zone. Ans: e
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167. The safety valve on boiler drum compared to safety valve on superheater is set at
(a) same value
(b) higher value
(c) lower value
(d) lower/higher depending on steam flow
(e) unpredicatble. Ans: b

168. Which is not correct statement about pulverised fuel firing


(a) high burning rate is possible
(b) heat release can be easily controlled
(c) fuel burns economically
(d) it is the best technique for burning high ash content fuel having low fusion ash
(e) separate mills are required to powder the coal. Ans: d

169. The three "Ts" for good combustion are


(a) temperature, time, and turbulance
(b) total air, true fuel, and turbulance
(c) thorough mixing, total air, and temperature
(d) total air, time, and temperature
(e) none of the above. Ans: a

170. Which is not correct statement about the function of furnace


(a) to provide proper conditions for con-tinuous complete combustion
(b) mix fuel with air and ignite
(c) separate ash from coal
(d) maintain heat supply to prepare and ignite the incoming fuel
(e) to minimise radiation losses. Ans: c

171. Which is not correct statement about effect of sulphur in fuel


(a) it has heating value
(b) it helps in electrostatic precipitation of ash in flue-gases
(c) it leads to corrosion of air heaters, ducting, etc. if flue gas exit temperature is low
(d) it erodes furnace walls
(e) none of the above. Ans: d

172. Heating value of fuel used is as on fired basis. If it is reported for dry or moisture free fuel, then
latter should be multiplied by the following factor to correct for as fired value
(a) (1- moisture content)
(b) (1 + moisture content)
(c) 1 + moisture content
(d) 1 - moisture content Ans: a

173. Gardually increasing temperature of flue gases at inlet to chimney for given steam outputs is an
indication of
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(a) higher effectiveness of boiler
(b) high calorific value coal being burnt
(c) fouling of heat transfer surfaces
(d) raising of steam temperature
(e) leakage of air. Ans: c

174. Incomplete combustion can be best judged by


(a) smoky chimney exit
(b) excess air in flue gases
(c) measuring carbon mono-oxide in flue gases
(d) measuring temperature of flue gases at exit of furnace
(e) measuring oxygen in flue gases. Ans: c

175. The capacity of induced draft fan compared to forced draft fan in a boiler is
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) less or more depending on size of boiler
(e) unpredictable. Ans: b

176. Pulverised fuel is used for


(a) better burning
(b) more calorific value
(c) less radiation loss
(d) medium sized units
(e) stoker fired boilers. Ans: a

177. Calorific value of coal is of the order of


(a) 200-400 kcal/kg
(b) 800-1200 kcal/kg (c) 2000-4000 kcal/kg (d) 5000-8000 kcal/kg
(e) 8000-10,000 kcal/kg. Ans: c

178. Evaporative capacity of boiler is expressed as


(a) kg of steam produced
(b) steam pressure produced
(c) kg of fuel fired
(d) kg of steam produced per kg of fuel fifed
(e) kg of water evaporated. Ans: d

179. Boiler parameters are expressed by


(a) tonnes/hr. of steam
(b) pressure of steam in kg/cm2
(c) temperature of steam in °C
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above. Ans: d
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180. The condition of steam in boiler drum is always
(a) dry
(b) wet
(c) saturated
(d) supersaturated
(e) superheated. Ans: b

181. The balanced draft furnace is one using


(a) induced draft fan and chimney
(b) induced draft fan and forced draft fan
(c) forced draft fan and chimney
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of the above. Ans: b

182. In ordetjo obtain superheated steam, a superheater is added in an existing boiler. As as result,
furnace vacuum will
(a) remain unaffected
(b) improve (c) worsen
(d) may improve/worsen depending on size
(e) unpredictable. Ans: c

183. Maximum energy loss in a boiler occurs due to


(a) unburnt carbon in ash
(b) incomplete combustion
(c) ash content
(d) flue gases
(e) radiation losses. Ans: d

184. Overfire burning is the phenomenon of


(a) supply of excess, air
(b) supply of excess coal
(c) burning CO and unburnts in upper zone of furnace by supplying more air
(d) fuel bed firing
(e) none of the above. Ans: c

185. Which is not the correct statement about moisture in coal


(a) inherent moisture and surface mois¬ture are different things
(b) in some coals moisture may be present upto 40%
(c) some moisture in coal helps in better burning which is not possible with completely dry coal
(d) it increases thermal efficiency
(e) moisture in coal is removed before firing by heating it with hot air. Ans: d

186. Deaeration of feed water is carried out because it reduces


(a) cavitation of .boiler feed pumps
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(b) corrosion caused by oxygen
(c) heat transfer coefficient
(d) pH value of water
(e) weight of water to be handled. Ans: b

187. A supercritical boiler is one that operates above the pressure and temperature of following values
(a) 100 kg/cm2 and 540°C
(b) 1 kg/cm2 and 100°C
(c) 218 kg/cm2 abs and 373°C
(d) 218 kg/cm2 abs and 540°C
(e) 100 kg/cm2 abs and 373°C Ans: c

188. Natural water circulation, by convection in water tube boilers, with increase in pressure of boiler
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaffected
(d) first increases and then decreases
(e) first decreases and then increases. Ans: b

189. The steam temperature with increase in load in case of a boiler fitted with radiation superheater
(a) increases

(b) decreases
(c) remains unaffected
(d) first increases and then decreases
(e) unpredictable. Ans: b

190. During storage, the heating value of coal


(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase or decrease depending upon the method of storage
(e) none of the above. Ans: b

191. The relative heat absorption for successively added equal areas of boiler convection heating
surfaces
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaffected
(d) first increases and then decreases
(e) first decreases and then increases. Ans: b

192. Film boling occurs at


(a) very low pressure
(b) atmospheric pressures
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(c) medium pressures
(d) very high pressures
(e) none of the above. Ans: d

193. Fire tube boilers are limited to a maximum design working pressure of
(a) 1 kg/cm
(b) 6 kg/cm
(c) 17 kg/cm2
(d) 100 kg/cm2
(e) 250 kg/cm2. Ans: c

194. For the same diameter and thickness of tube, a water tube boiler compared to a fire tube boiler
has
(a) more heating surface
(b) less heating surface
(c) equal heating surface
(d) heating surface depends on other parameters
(e) none of the above. Ans: a

195. In water wall furnace, the heat is transferred to the water-walls by


(a) convection
(b) radiation
(c) conduction
(d) radiation and conducton
(e) radiation and convection. Ans: b

196. Relative percentage of heat absorbed through the heat transfer of


(i) furnace water wall,
(ii) boiler bank, (Hi) superheater,
(iv) economiser,
(v) airheater of a typical boiler of 200 MW capacity would be of the order of (a) 48:20:15:7:10
(b) 10:7:15:20:48
(c) 20:48:7:15:10
(d) 7:15:20:10:48
(e) 48:15:10:7:20.
Ans: a

197. The feed check valve is used in order to


(a) regulate flow of boiler water
(b) check level of water in boiler drum
(c) recirculate unwanted feed water
(d) allow high pressure feed water to flow to drum and not allow reverse flow to take place
(e) none of the above. Ans: d

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198. The size of a boiler drum in pulverised fuel fired boiler,as its size and capacity, (steam pressure and
flow ratings) increase
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unchanged
(d) increases/decreases depending on steam temperature requirements
(e) unpredictable. Ans: b

199. Feed water conditioning in thermal power plants in done to


(a) reduce hardness and for removal of solids
(b) increase efficiency-of thermal power plant
(c) increase *heat transfer rate
(d) increase steam parameters
(e) all of the above. Ans: a

200. The basic job of feed water treatment in boilers is to overcome the problem of
(a) corrosion
(b) scale
(c) carryover
(d) embrittlement
(e) all of the above. Ans: e

SET 3

Analysis of Steam Engine

1. Which of these is a ‘fissile fuel’?


a) Thorium
b) Carbon
c) Potassium
d) Graphite
Answer: a
Explanation: A fissile fuel is one which is based on a sustained chain reaction with neutrons of any energy.

2. Which of these is a ‘working fluid’ in liquid phase?


a) Water
b) Steam
c) Mercury
d) Oxygen
Answer: a
Explanation: The working fluid is water in liquid phase & steam in gas phase.

3. Which of these is an output of a ‘Furnace’?


a) Fuel gas
b) Air
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c) Flue gases
d) Water Vapor
Answer: c
Explanation: A furnace takes in a Fuel gas, Air & Water Vapour while it gives off Flue Gases.

4. What kind of energy output is obtained from a ‘Steam Power Plant’?


a) Heat energy
b) Sound energy
c) Electricity
d) Thermal energy
Answer: c
Explanation: A ‘Steam Power Plant’ is used primarily for electricity generation.

5. What kind of a process does a ‘Steam Power Plant’ undergoes?


a) Adiabatic
b) Cyclic
c) Irreversible
d) ExpAnsion
Answer: b
Explanation: As the internal energy change in the ‘Steam Power Plant’ is ZERO. Hence, the entire plant
obeys a Cyclic Process.

6. Water that is fed back to the boiler by the pump is called?


a) Adsorbate
b) Absorbate
c) Condenset
d) Condensate
Answer: d
Explanation: The water feedback is from condenser & so called condensate.

7. The net change in internal energy in a steam power plant is?


a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Zero
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: As the steam power plant is based on a cyclic process. A cyclic process has net change in
internal energy=0.

8. The product of efficiency & heat transferred to the working fluid is?
a) Net temperature change
b) Net work done
c) Net enthalpy change
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d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The formula of efficiency of a steam power plant is,
Efficiency=net work done/net heat transferred

9. The components of a Steam Power Plant are?


a) Evaporator, Condenser, Boiler, ExpAnsion valve
b) Evaporator, Condenser, Boiler, Turbine
c) Boiler, Turbine, Condenser, Pump
d) Boiler, Turbine, Pump, ExpAnsion valve
Answer: c
Explanation: A Steam Power Plant has the sequence,
Boiler, Turbine, Condenser, Pump

10. Shaft work is fed to __________ for getting an electrical output.


a) Motor
b) Generator
c) Rotor
d) Accelerator
Answer: b
Explanation: The flow in a Steam Power Plant follows the sequence,
Source-Shaft-Generator

SET 4

Rankine Cycle and Carnot Cycle”

1. Ideal ‘Rankine Cycle’ is a __________ process.


a) Reversible
b) Irreversible
c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Ideal Rankine Cycle is a reversible process.

2. For analytical purposes, the Rankine Cycle is assumed to be in?


a) Unsteady flow operation
b) Turbulent flow operation
c) Steady flow operation
d) Laminar flow operation
Answer: c
Explanation: For analytical purposes , always steady flow operation is considered, as in unsteady flow, the
various fluid properties vary considerably which remain same when the steady flow operation is assumed.

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3. The net work done in a Rankine Cycle is the difference of?
a) Condenser work & Boiler work
b) Boiler work & Pump work
c) Turbine Work & Pump work
d) Condenser work & Pump work
Answer: c
Explanation: The net work done in a Rankine Cycle is given by,
Wnet = Wt – Wp.

4. In a Rankine Cycle, heat input is provided to?


a) Condenser
b) Pump
c) Turbine
d) Boiler
Answer: d
Explanation: As the heating of the liquid working fluid occurs in the Boiler, the heat input is provided to
the Boiler for the same.

5. In a Rankine Cycle, heat output is obtained from?


a) Condenser
b) Boiler
c) Turbine
d) Pump
Answer: a
Explanation: As the heated water comes to the condenser, it loses its heat & gets condensed. The heat
output is obtained from Condenser.

6. The water that flows from the Pump is?


a) Compressible
b) Incompressible
c) Unsteady
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The water flowing through the pump is incompressible so as to extract work from the
turbine.

7. Steam Rate is the reciprocal of _________


a) Net work done
b) Heat extracted from condenser
c) Heat given to reciprocal
d) Work done by turbine.
Answer: a
Explanation: Steam Rate is given by,
Steam Rate = 1/Wnet.

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8. Which of these is sometimes neglected?
a) Turbine work
b) Pump work
c) Condenser heat
d) Boiler heat
Answer: b
Explanation: Pump Work is very small as compared to Turbine Work & so is often neglected.

9. Efficiency of a Rankine Cycle is also expressed as__________


a) Capacity Ratio
b) Heat Rate
c) Heat Ratio
d) Steam Rate

10. Steam Power Plants are more popular in electric power generation because
a) Work output of turbine is very large than work input to the pump
b) Work output of turbine is very small than work input to the pump
c) Work output of turbine is equal to work input to the pump
d) None of the mentioned.
Answer: a
Explanation: In a Steam Power Plant, the positive difference of turbine work & pump work makes it useful
in electricity generation.

11. The most common type of Evaporator is?


a) Flooded Evaporator
b) Plate Evaporator
c) Coil Evaporator
d) Brine Evaporator
Answer: b
Explanation: The most common type is a coil winding on a plate & so the name ‘plate evaporator’.

12. In Rankine Cycle, water is converted to saturated liquid in ___________


a) Evaporator
b) Economizer
c) Superheater
d) Preheater
nswer: b
Explanation: The saturation of water occurs in an Economizer in a Rankine Cycle.

13. If Evaporator & Condenser pressures are p & q, the intercooler pressure P is given as?
a) P=pq
b) P=p/q
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c) P=(pq)(1/2)
d) P=p2q
Answer: c
Explanation: The relation between Intercooler pressure, Evaporator & Condenser is,
P = (pq)(1/2).

14. Phase change at constant pressure takes place in?


a) Economiser
b) Evaporator
c) Superheater
d) Air-Preheater
Answer: c
Explanation: Superheater undergoes a change in phase at constant pressure.

15. Which of these factors don’t cause Internal Irreversibility of a Rankine cycle?
a) Throttling
b) Mixing
c) Fluid Friction
d) Fluid flow
Answer: d
Explanation: The Rankine cycle is an Irreversible cycle. For a cycle to be irreversible naturally throttling,
mixing & friction in fluids are the factors that cause this Irreversibility.

SET 5

1. What is the unit of Heat rate?


a) kJ/KW
b) KW/kJ
c) kJ
d) KW
Answer: a
Explanation: Heat rate is the rate of input required to produce unit shaft output.

2. Rankine cycle operating on low pressure limit of p1 and high pressure limit of p2
a) has higher thermal efficiency than the Carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
b) has lower thermal efficiency than Carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
c) has same thermal efficiency as Carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
d) may be more or less depending upon the magnitudes of p1 and p2
Answer: a
Explanation: Area under P-V curve for Rankine will be more as compared to Carnot cycle.

3. Rankine efficiency of a Steam Power Plant


a) improves in Summer as compared to that in Winter
b) improves in Winter as compared to that in Summer
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c) is unaffected by climatic conditions
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: In winters, temperature of cooling water is low, which increases Condenser’s efficiency.

4. Rankine cycle comprises of


a) two isentropic processes and two constant volume processes
b) two isentropic processes and two constant pressure processes
c) two isothermal processes and two constant pressure processes
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Rankine cycle is a reversible cycle which have two constant pressure and two constant
temperature processes.

5. In Rankine cycle, the work output from the turbine is given by


a) change of internal energy between inlet and outlet
b) change of enthalpy between inlet and outlet
c) change of entropy between inlet and outlet
d) change of temperature between inlet and outlet
Answer: b
Explanation: Work output(turbine) = h1-h2.

6. Which of the following contributes to the improvement of efficiency of Rankine cycle in a Thermal
Power Plant?
a) reheating of steam at intermediate stage
b) regeneration use of steam for heating Boiler feed water
c) use of high pressures
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The regenerative features effectively raise the nominal cycle heat input temperature, by
reducing the addition of heat from the Boiler/fuel source at the relatively low feedwater temperatures
that would exist without regenerative feedwater heating.

7. Match the following:

a) Boiler 1. reversible adiabatic expAnsion of steam


b) turbine 2. constant pressure heat heat addition
c) Condenser 3. reversible adiabatic compression
d) pump 4. constant pressure heat rejection

Answer: a-2 b-1 c-4 d-3


Explanation: Working fluid in Rankine cycle undergoes 4 processes, expAnsion in turbine, heat addition in
Boiler, heat rejection in Condenser and compression in pump.

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8. What is the actual turbine inlet temperature in Rankine cycle?
a) 700C
b) 800C
c) 550C
d) 1150C
Answer: c
Explanation: The TIT(Turbine Inlet Temperature) is of the range 500-570C.

9. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good Steam Power Plant may be in the range of?
a) 15 to 20%
b) 35 to 45%
c) 70 to 80%
d) 90 to 95%
Answer: b
Explanation: Efficiency of Rankine cycle in actual working condition is found to be between 35 to 45%.

10. A simple Rankine cycle operates the Boiler at 3 MPa with an outlet temperature of 350°C and the
Condenser at 50 kPa. Assuming ideal operation and processes, what is the thermal efficiency of this cycle?
a) 7.7
b) 17.7
c) 27.7
d) 37.7
Answer: c
Explanation: Fixing the states; h1 = 340.5 kJ/kg, h2 = h1 + v1 (P2 – P1) = 343.5 kJ/kg, h3 = 3115.3 kJ/kg, s3
= 6.7428 kJ/kg – K, x4 = 0.869, and h4 = 2343.9 kJ/kg. Thus, η = 1 – Qout / Qin = 1 – (h4 – h1) / (h3 – h2) =
27.7%.

11. A simple Rankine cycle produces 40 MW of power, 50 MW of process heat and rejects 60 MW of heat
to the surroundings. What is the utilization factor of this co generation cycle neglecting the pump work?
a) 50
b) 60
c) 70
d) 80
Answer: b
Explanation: Application of the first law to the entire cycle gives Qin = Qp + Qreject + W = 150 MW. The
utilization factor is then = (Qp + W) / Qin = 60%.

SET 6

Brayton Cycle”

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1. A gas turbine works on?
a) Carnot cycle
b) Brayton cycle
c) Dual cycle
d) Rankine cycle
Answer: b
Explanation: A gas turbine works on 2 isentropic and 2 isobaric processes which is nothing else but
Brayton cycle.

2. What is the range of Thermal efficiency in Brayton cycle?


a) 30-35%
b) 40-45%
c) 50-55%
d) 50-60%
Answer: c
Explanation: Efficiency of Brayton cycle in actual working condition is found to be between 35 to 45%.

3. What is the maximum possible TIT(Turbine Inlet Temperature)?


a) 1000 K
b) 1500 K
c) 950 K
d) 1300 K
Answer: d
Explanation: The maximum temperature is limited by metallurgical conditions.

4. A simple Brayton cycle uses Helium as the working fluid, has a maximum temperature of 1000 K, and a
pressure ratio of 4. At the start of the compression, the Helium pressure and temperature are 50 kPa and
250 K. Based upon cold-air standard analysis assumptions, the thermal efficiency of the cycle is:
a) 0.13
b) 0.23
c) 0.43
d) 0.53
Answer: d
Explanation: Using the pressure ratio = 1 – rp(1 – k) / k.

5. A simple Brayton cycle has a pressure ratio of 5 and a maximum temperature of 900 K. Air enters the
compressor at 100 kPa, 300 K. Based upon cold-air standard analysis assumptions, the back-work ratio of
this cycle is:
a) 0.23
b) 0.53
c) 0.48
d) 0.36
Answer: b
Explanation: Using the pressure ratio and isentropic process relations, T2 = T1rp(k – 1) / k = 475 K and T4

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= T3rp(1 – k) / k = 568 K. Application of the first law to the compressor and turbine processes and
substituting the results into the back-work ratio definition produces rb = (T2 -T1) / (T3 -T4) = 0.53.

6. Which of the following methods can be used to increase efficiency of a Brayton cycle?
a) Regeneration
b) Increasing pressure ratio
c) Heat exchanger
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: A heat exchanger that acts as a counter-flow energy recovery device positioned within the
supply and exhaust air streams of an air handling system, in order to recover the waste heat.

7. For the same maximum pressure and heat input, the most efficient cycle is?
a) Brayton cycle
b) Carnot cycle
c) Rankine cycle
d) Dual cycle
Answer: a
Explanation: Efficiency of a Brayton cycle is directly proportional to pressure ratio.

8. The compression ratio is the ratio of?


a) Swept volume to total volume
b) Total volume to swept volume
c) Total volume to clearance volume
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: According to definition, compression ratio is the ratio of swept volume to total volume.

9. A Sterling engine uses an energy source whose temperature is 727°C and an energy sink whose
temperature is 27°C. How much heat must be added to the engine to produce 1 unit of work?
a) 1.10
b) 1.19
c) 1.43
d) 2.0
Answer: c
Explanation: Since the Sterling engine is totally reversible, its thermal efficiency is the same as that of a
Carnot engine, η = 1 – Tl / Th = 0.7. Now, the definition of the thermal efficiency gives Qin / Wout = 1 / η =
1.43.

10. Which of the following is not a component of Brayton cycle?


a) Compressor
b) Combustion Chamber
c) Turbine
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d) Pump
Answer: d
Explanation: Pump is used in Rankine cycle to circulate water from Condenser to Boiler.

SET 7

Mean Temperature of Heat Addition – 1”

1. For a given value of mean temperature of heat addition(Tm)


a) efficiency of Rankine is more if turbine exit temperature(Tmin) is less
b) efficiency of Rankine is less if turbine exit temperature(Tmin) is less
c) efficiency does not depend on turbine exit temperature
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Efficiency = 1 – Tmin / Tm.

2. Mean temperature of heat addition can be increased by?


a) decreasing the amount of heat added
b) increase the amount of heat added
c) increase condensor pressure
d) decreasing Turbine Inlet Temperature(TIT)
Answer: c
Explanation: Increasing condensor pressure decreases turbine exit temperature which in turn increases
mean temperature of heat addition.

3. Internal irreversibility of Rankine cycle is caused by?


a) fluid friction
b) throttling and mixing
c) expAnsion and compression process are quite rapid
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Practical analysis shows that Internal irreversibility of Rankine cycle depends upon above
stated factors.

4. Which of the following statement is true?


a) efficiency is directly proportional to mean temperature of heat addition
b) efficiency is inversely proportional to mean temperature of heat addition
c) efficiency is exponential function of mean temperature of heat addition
d) efficiency does not depend on mean temperature of heat addition
Answer: a
Explanation: Efficiency = 1 – Tmin / Tm.

5. Pulverized coal is
a) coal free from ash
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b) non-smoking coal
c) coal which bums For long time
d) coal broken into fine particles
Answer: d
Explanation: Pulverized coal also known as powdered coal or coal dust since it is as fine as face powder in
cosmetic make-up.

6. What is caking in Power Plants?


a) making cakes of coal out of fine powders
b) a variety of free burning coals
c) coal produced from burning of wood in inert atmosphere
d) in boiler furnace some coals become plastic and form lumps or masses of coal
Answer: d
Explanation: When many bituminous coals are heated, they soften and form a plastic mass that swells
and re solidifies into a porous solid.

7. Water gas is a mixture of


a) CO2 and O2
b) O2and H2
c) H2, N2 and O2
d) CO, N2 and H2
Answer: b
Explanation: Water gas is basically HHO that is H2 and 02.

8. Critical pressure of water is


a) 1 kg / cm2
b) 100 kg / cm2
c) 155 kg / cm2
d) 217.7 kg / cm2
Answer: d
Explanation: The critical pressure of a substance is the pressure required to liquefy a gas at its critical
temperature.

9. Coal used in power plant is also known as


a) steam coal
b) charcoal
c) coke
d) soft coal
Answer: a
Explanation: Because this coal is used to generate steam.

10. The temperature to which air must be cooled in order to become saturated is the
a) minimum temperature
b) dew point temperature
c) wet-bulb temperature
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d) freezing point
Answer: b
Explanation: The dew point is the temperature at which the water vapour in air at constant barometric
pressure condenses into liquid water at the same rate at which it evaporates.

SET 8

“Mean Temperature of Heat Addition – 2”

1. Mean Temperature of Heat Addition is the ratio of?


a) Difference of temperatures to difference of entropies
b) Difference of enthalpies to difference of entropies
c) Difference of temperatures to difference of enthalpies
d) Difference of entropies to difference of enthalpies.
Answer: b
Explanation: The formula for Mean Temperature of Heat Addition is given by,
Tml = (h1 – h4)/(s1 – s4).

2. If T2 is the temperature of heat rejection, Tml is the mean temperature of heat addition, the efficiency
n of a Rankine Cycle is given by which of the expressions?
a) n = 1-(T2/Tml)
b) n = 1+(T2/Tml)
c) n = (T2/Tml)
d) n = 1/(T2/Tml)
Answer: a
Explanation: The expression for the efficiency of a Rankine Cycle is given as,
n = 1-(T2/Tml).

3. The saturation pressure corresponding to the minimum practicable temperature of heat rejection is a
function of?
a) Temperature of heat rejection
b) Temperature of surroundings
c) Mean temperature of heat addition
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The relation between saturation pressure & mean temperature of heat addition is given by,
EfficiencyRankine = f(Tml)
where, Tml = Mean temperature of heat addition.

4. What is the effect of the increase in the superheat at constant pressure?


a) Decreases cycle efficiency
b) Increases mean temperature of heat addition
c) Decreases mean temperature of heat addition
d) None of the mentioned
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Answer: b
Explanation: As there is an increase in superheat at constant pressure, the cycle efficiency increases &
hence there is an increase in the mean temperature of heat addition.

5. PWR stands for?


a) Pressurized Water Relator
b) Pressurized Water Reheater
c) Pressurized Water Reactor
d) Pressurized Water Refractory
Answer: c
Explanation: PWR stands for Pressurized Water Reactor which does not use Superheat.

6. The maximum temperature of steam that can be used is fixed from metallurgical considerations. This
temperature limit is called?
a) Mining Limit
b) Metallurgical Limit
c) Metallic Limit
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: ‘Metallurgical Limit’ is defined as the lowest temperature limit of usable steam fixed by
metallurgical considerations.

7. Most of the turbine expAnsion takes place in?


a) Liquid Region
b) Solid Region
c) Vapour Region
d) Plastic Region
Answer: c
Explanation: Most of the turbine expAnsion should take place in the vapour region, so as to increase the
life of the blades of the turbine.

8. Pelton Wheel Turbine is suited for?


a) high heads
b) low heads
c) medium heads
d) zero heads
Answer: a
Explanation: A Pelton wheel turbine is based on the principle of changing Kinetic Energy of fluid into
output work.

9. A Hydraulic Ram Pump is based on the principle of?


a) Wind Hammer
b) Water hammer
c) Wind gushing
d) None of the mentioned
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Answer: b
Explanation: A Hydraulic Ram Pump is based on the principle of Water Hammer. This principle states that,
“When a flowing fluid is stopped suddenly, the kinetic energy of the rapidly moving fluid decreases to zero
& in turn, increases the pressure which pulls the fluid to high heads.

10. Which of the following diagrams are used while analyzing the effect of superheat & Inlet Pressure on
mean temperature of heat addition?
a) P-V diagram
b) T-S diagram
c) P-T diagram
d) V-T diagram
Answer: b
Explanation: Using the T-S diagram gives us an overview as to where a particular process occurs, i.e., it is
within the solid region, the gaseous region or the vapour region. So, here, we prefer T-S diagram for
analysis process.

11. Which of these constitute a Carnot Cycle?


a) 2 reversible isotherms & 2 reversible adiabatics
b) 1 reversible isotherms & 2 reversible adiabatics
c) 2 reversible isotherms & 1 reversible adiabatics
d) 1 reversible isotherms & 2 reversible adiabatics
Answer: a
Explanation: A combination of 2 reversible isotherms & 2 reversible adiabatics gives a Carnot Cycle (from
the P-V diagram).

12. Work input and work outputs are given & obtained in?
a) 2 reversible adiabatics
b) 2 reversible isotherms
c) 1 reversible isotherm & 1 reversible adiabatic
d) 2 reversible isotherms & 1 reversible adiabatic
Answer: a
Explanation: The work input & output are both in the 2 reversible adiabatics (from the P-V diagram).

13. Heat input & output is obtained in?


a) 2 reversible adiabatics
b) 2 reversible isotherms
c) 1 reversible isotherm & 1 reversible adiabatic
d) 2 reversible isotherms & 1 reversible adiabatic
Answer: b
Explanation: The heat inputs & outputs are in 2 reversible isotherms (from the P-V diagram).

14. The elements of a Carnot heat engine are?


a) Heat Exchangers, Turbine, Pump
b) Heat Exchangers, Turbine, Evaporator
c) Heat Exchangers, Turbine, Condenser
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d) Heat Exchangers, Turbine, Superheater
Answer: a
Explanation: There are 2 heat exchangers, a turbine & a pump in a Carnot heat engine.

15. Which of these shouldn’t be there in the pipelines of working fluid for achieving the conditions of
Carnot Cycle?

a) Heat Transfer
b) Insulation
c) Lubrication
d) Zero Friction
Answer: a
Explanation: Heat Transfer & Friction are the factors affecting the conditions of a Carnot Cycle.

SET 9

Effect of variation of Steam Condition on Thermal Efficiency”

1. The cycle efficiency ________________ with the _____________ of condenser pressure.


a) decreases, decrease
b) increases, decrease
c) remains same, decrease
d) does not vary, decrease
Answer: b
Explanation: As the decrease in condenser pressure mainly depends on the available cooling water
temperature & thus on the climatic conditions of the place. Hence, cycle efficiency being a function of
condenser pressure has an inverse relation with the condenser pressure.

2. What is the relation between cooling water temperature (tc1) & condenser pressure (pc)?
a) tc1 is directly proportional to pc
b) tc1 is directly proportional to 2xpc
c) tc1 is directly proportional to 5xpc
d) tc1 is directly proportional to 6xpc
Answer: a
Explanation: Cooling water temperature is directly proportional to condenser pressure 1xpc.

3. An increase in inlet steam temperature ___________ the heat rate.


a) lowers
b) increases
c) does not have any effect on
d) temperature has no significance in heat rate
Answer: a
Explanation: An increase in inlet steam temperature, i.e. an increase in superheat at constant inlet steam

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pressure & condenser pressure gives a steady improvement in cycle efficiency & lowers the heat rate due
to an increase in the mean temperature of heat addition.

4. What is the effect of increasing superheat at constant inlet steam pressure & condenser pressure on
cycle efficiency?
a) Steady decrement in cycle efficiency
b) Steady improvement in cycle efficiency
c) No effect on cycle efficiency
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: An increase in inlet steam temperature, i.e. an increase in superheat at constant inlet steam
pressure & condenser pressure gives a steady improvement in cycle efficiency & lowers the heat rate due
to an increase in the mean temperature of heat addition.

5. What is the effect of increasing superheat at constant inlet steam pressure & condenser pressure on
mean temperature of heat addition?
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains same
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: An increase in inlet steam temperature, i.e. an increase in superheat at constant inlet steam
pressure & condenser pressure gives a steady improvement in cycle efficiency & lowers the heat rate due
to an increase in the mean temperature of heat addition.

6. What is the effect of increasing steam inlet temperature on turbine internal efficiency?
a) it remains same
b) it increases
c) it decreases
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Increasing the inlet steam temperature decreases the wetness of the steam in the later
stages of the turbine & improves the turbine efficiency.

7. What is the percentage drop in the ultimate strength of unalloyed steels when the steam temperature
is raised from 400-500 degree Centigrade?
a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 40%
d) 60%
Answer: b
Explanation: The ultimate strength of unalloyed steels is 30% when the steam temperatures are in the
range 400-500 degree Centigrade. Alloying can increase this strength.

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8. Apart from alloying, name a material that is used instead of ferritic steels to increase the ultimate
strength of unalloyed steels.
a) Chromium
b) Molybdenum
c) Austenitic steel
b) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The use of Austenitic steels increases the ultimate strength of unalloyed steels at high
temperatures. The temperature limits are in the range 538-565 degree Centigrade.

9. Which of these cases will have a higher cycle efficiency?


a) Condenser Pressure= 25 mm of Hg; Cooling Water Temperature= 12 degree Centigrade
b) Condenser Pressure= 50 mm of Hg; Cooling Water Temperature= 27 degree Centigrade
c) Condenser Pressure= 75 mm of Hg; Cooling Water Temperature= 36 degree Centigrade
d) Condenser Pressure= 100 mm of Hg; Cooling Water Temperature= 45 degree Centigrade
Answer: a
Explanation: In identical steam conditions cycle efficiency is inversely proportional to cooling water
temperature.

10. For the given values of efficiency, inlet steam pressure and quality of steam, pressure limits can be
determined by ?
a) Mollier Charts
b) Gantt Charts
c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The pressure limits can be readily determined by drawing the corresponding expAnsion line
of the turbine om a Mollier Diagram.

SET 10

“Reheating of Steam – 1”

1. Why Reheating of steam is used?


a) to increase efficiency
b) to increase work output
c) to increase Turbine Inlet Temperature
d) to reduce amount of fuel used
Answer: b
Explanation: Work output = work done by turbine – work done by compressor.

2. Reheating of steam
a) decreases steam rate
b) increases steam rate
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c) no effect on steam rate
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Since work output increases the steam rate decreases.

3. Efficiency of cycle will increase due to Reheating if


a) mean temperature of heat addition in boiler is higher than in reheat process
b) mean temperature of heat addition in boiler is lower than in reheat process
c) it will increase without any conditions
d) it will not increase
Answer: a
Explanation: Efficiency = work output / heat supplied, heat supplied is less in this condition only.

4. Why don’t we use more than two reheats?


a) not economical
b) increased mechanical stresses
c) net efficiency is decreased
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The mechanical stresses increases in much higher proportion than the pressure pressure
because of the prevailing high temperature.

5. The cycle efficiency in a single reheat plant is influenced by


a) pressure at tubine inlet
b) pressure at which steam is reheated
c) temperature at which steam is reheated
d) temperature at tubine inlet
Answer: b
Explanation: The cycle efficiency is a function of the ratio of reheat to initial pressure.

6. The optimum reheat pressure for the most of the modern power plants is ___________ of the initial
steam pressure
a) 0.1-0.5
b) 0.2-0.3
c) 0.2-0.25
d) 0.25-0.3
Answer: c
Explanation: In this range of reheat pressure efficiency is maximum.

7. What is the effect of reheat on steam quality?


a) increases
b) decreases
c) does not change
d) depends on several parameters

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Answer: a
Explanation: Because this steam is undergoing expAnsion two times.

8. What should be the dryness fraction at the time of exhaust?


a) 0.88
b) 0.80
c) 0.90
d) 0.75
Answer: a
Explanation: For modern turbines the admissible dryness fraction of exhaust steam (at the turbine exit)
should be not less than x = 0.86 to 0.88.

9. Reheat is preferred for the plants having efficiency greater than


a) 150MW
b) 200MW
c) 100MW
d) 250MW
Answer: c
Explanation: For producing power less than this reheat will not be economical.

10. Which one of the following is an advantage of reheat cycle


a) the size of the Low pressure (LP) turbine blades is reduced because specific volume is reduced by 7 to
8%
b) the reheating reduce 4 to 5% fuel consumption with a corresponding reduction in the fuel handling
c) lower steam pressures and temperatures and less costly materials can be used to obtain the required
thermal performance
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Reheat increases work output.

SET 11

“Reheating of Steam”

1. The product of steam rate & network when the steam rate is expressed in kg/kWh is equal to?
a) 36
b) 360
c) 3600
d) 60
Answer: c
Explanation: The Steam Rate in terms of kJ/kWh is given by the expression,
Steam Rate = (3600/Wnet) kg/kWh.

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2. The product of heat rate & efficiency when the heat rate is expressed in kJ/kWh is equal to?
a) 60
b) 36
c) 360
d) 3600
Answer: d
Explanation: The heat rate in terms of kJ/kWh is given by the expression,
Heat Rate = (3600/n) kJ/kWh
where, n = efficiency.

3. What is the effect of reheat pressure on mean temperature of heat addition Tml?
a) Reheat pressure is directly proportional to Tml
b) Reheat pressure is inversely proportional to Tml
c) Reheat pressure is equal to Tml
d) Tml is independent of reheat pressure
Answer: a
Explanation: As cycle efficiency is reduced with a decrease in reheat pressure. Hence, the mean
temperature of heat addition also decreases.

4. Why is the steam not allowed to expand deep into the two phase region before it is taken to reheating?
a) to control flow rate
b) to control phase change
c) to protect reheat tubes
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The steam is not allowed to expand deep into the two phase region before it is taken to
reheating, because the moisture particles in the steam while evaporating would leave behind solid
deposits in the form of scale which is difficult to remove. Hence, when the steam expands, the reheat
tubes are damaged.

5. Net Work output of the plant __________ with reheat.


a) decreases
b) increases
c) remains same
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: With reheat, the area under the curve increases in comparison to what it was without
reheat. Hence, Net Work output of the plant increases.

6. Which of the following problems are posed by increasing the number of reheats?
a) Cost & Fabrication problems arise
b) Heat transfer problems arise
c) Frictional losses arise
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
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Explanation: Higher the number of Reheats, still higher steam pressures could be used, but mechanical
stresses increase at a higher proportion than the increase in pressure, because of the prevailing high
temperature. The cost & fabrication difficulties will also increase.

7. What is the effect of decrease of reheat pressure on the quality of steam at turbine exhaust?
a) decreases
b) increases
c) remains same
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: For too low a reheat pressure, the exhaust steam may even be in the superheated state
which isn’t good.

8. The optimum reheat pressure for most of the power plants is how many times of the initial steam
pressure?
a) 0.1-0.15
b) 0.2-0.20
c) 0.2-0.25
d) 0.1-0.10
Answer: c
Explanation: The efficiency increases as the reheat pressure is lowered & reaches a peak at a pressure
ratio between 0.2-0.25.

9. What is the most preferable dryness fraction of the exhaust steam?


a) 0.99
b) 0.77
c) 0.66
d) 0.88
Answer: d
Explanation: The dryness fraction of the exhaust steam is in the range of 0.86-0.88 for modern turbines.

10. For pressure ratio = 1, efficiency = 0,


a) reheat is used
b) reheat is not used
c) only reheat is used
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: There cannot be any reheat cycle employed when the cycle efficiency is zero and the
pressure ratio is equal to 1.

SET 12

Regeneration – 1”
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1. What is the basic principle of regeneration?
a) Steam after coming out of condenser is circulated to boiler
b) Steam after coming out of condenser is circulated to turbine
c Steam after coming out of turbine is circulated to boiler
d) Two stage turbine is used
Answer: b
Explanation: In regeneration steam from condenser is circulated through turbine to increase steam
temperature before it enters boiler.

2. Ideal regenerative rankine cycle


a) Increases efficiency
b) Increases work output
c) Increases the heat supplied
d) does not effect efficiency

Answer: a
Explanation: Feedwater is preheated so as to decrease the fuel consumption which increases efficiency.

3. Mean temperature of heat addition is _______ due to Regeneration


a) Decreases
b) not effected
c) Increases
d) varied exponentially
Answer: c
Explanation: Since less heat is required in the boiler so mean temperature of heat addition increases.

4. Name the coolants commonly used for fast breeder reactors?


a) Liquid metal (Na (or) Na K)
b) Helium (He)
c) Carbon dioxide
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Liquid metals are commonly used, in some plants He and CO2 are also used.

5. Why trash rack is used?


a) To prevent the entry of debris
b) To prevent steam overflow
c) It is used as an insulter
d) Prevents back flow
Answer: a
Explanation: The trash rack is used to prevent the entry of debris, which might damage the turbine
runners and chock up the nozzle of impulse turbine.

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6. What is the use of surge tank?
a) To store condensate
b) To prevent surging
c) To provide better regulation of water pressure in the system
d) To prevent chocking
Answer: c
Explanation: The surge tank controls the water when the load on the turbine decreases and supplies
water when the load on the turbine increases.

7. What is the function of Fore bay?


a) Temporary water storage
b) Steam passage
c) Water flow in penstock
d) condensate storage
Answer: a
Explanation: It is temporary water storage when the load on the plant is reduced and provides water for
initial increment on increasing load.

8. What is the use of draft tube?


a) To regain kinetic energy
b) To regain potential energy
c) Passage for water
d) Stores energy
Answer: a
Explanation: The draft tube is used to regain the kinetic energy of water coming out of reaction turbine. It
enables the reaction turbine to be placed over tailrace level.

9. Is regenerative cycle alone useful?


a) Yes
b) No
c) may be
d) depends on other factors
Answer: a
Explanation: Feedwater is preheated so as to decrease the fuel consumption which increases efficiency.

10. Function of surge tank?


a) Regulation of water pressure
b) Regulation of steam pressure
c) Storage
d) Regulation of lubricants
Answer: a
Explanation: The surge tank controls the water when the load on the turbine decreases and supplies
water when the load on the turbine increases

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SET 13

Regeneration – 2”

1. External Thermal Irreversibility can be removed by which of the following process?


a) Reheat
b) Regeneration
c) Pre-heat
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: In the process of regeneration, energy is exchanged internally between the expanding fluid
in the turbine & the compressed fluid before heat addition.

2. When is the relation between mean temperature of heat addition (T) with regeneration & without
regeneration?
a) (T)with regeneration is independent of(t)without regeneration
b) (T)with regeneration > (t)without regeneration
c) (T)with regeneration < (t)without regeneration
d) (T)with regeneration = (t)without regeneration
Answer: b
Explanation: The efficiency of the regenerative cycle will be higher than that of the Rankine cycle. Hence,
the relation between mean temperature of heat addition (T) with regeneration & without regeneration is,
(T)with regeneration > (t)without regeneration.

3. What is the relation between energy gain of feedwater & energy given off by vapour in condensation?
a) energy gain of feedwater > energy given off by vapour in condensation
b) energy gain of feedwater < energy given off by vapour in condensation
c) energy gain of feedwater = energy given off by vapour in condensation
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Here heaters are assumed to be adequately insulated, & there is no heat gain from or heat
loss to, the surrounding.

4. The product of Steam rate & the difference of work done between turbine & pump, when the steam
rate is expressed in kg/kWh is equal to?
a) 36
b) 60
c) 360
d) 3600
Answer: d
Explanation: The steam rate in terms of kg/kWh is given by the expression as,
Steam Rate = 3600/(Wt – WP) kg/kWh.

5. The product of cycle efficiency & heat input is given by which of the following relations?
a) Wt – WP
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b) Wt x WP
c) Wt / WP
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The expression for cycle efficiency n is given by the following expression,
n = (Wt – WP)/(Q1).

6. What is the effect of increase in regeneration on steam rate?


a) decreases
b) remains same
c) increases
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: More steam has to circulate per hour to produce unit shaft output.

7. What is the relation between efficiencies of Carnot cycle & the ideal Sterling Engine?
a) Both are equal
b) Carnot cycle efficiency > Efficiency of Sterling Engine
c) Carnot cycle efficiency < Efficiency of Sterling Engine
d) No relation between Carnot cycle efficiency & efficiency of Sterling Engine
Answer: a
Explanation: All the heat is added reversibly & all the heat is rejected reversibly. Hence, the efficiency of
Carnot Cycle is equal to efficiency of Sterling Engine.

8. Heat transfer taking place in the turbine is?


a) from the vapour to the condensate
b) from the condensate to the vapour
c) no heat transfer
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Following the Stirling cycle, in the ideal regenerative cycle the condensate after leaving the
pump circulates around the turbine casing so that heat is transferred from the vapour expanding in the
turbine to the condensate circulating around it.

9. The heat transfer taking place in the turbine is?


a) irreversible
b) reversible
c) both of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: At each point the temperature of the vapour is only infinitesimally higher than the
temperature of the liquid.

10. The relation between the steam rate of ideal regenerative cycle & steam rate of rankine cycle is?
a) steam rate of ideal regenerative cycle = steam rate of rankine cycle
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b) steam rate of ideal regenerative cycle > steam rate of rankine cycle
c) steam rate of ideal regenerative cycle < steam rate of rankine cycle
d) no relation
Answer: b
Explanation: Net Work output of the ideal regenerative cycle is less & hence, its steam rate will be more.

SET 14

“Regenerative Feedwater Heating”

1. In an ideal regenerative cycle, heat input is at?


a) Boiler
b) Turbine
c) Condenser
d) Pump
Answer: a
Explanation: In a regenerative cycle, the heat input is at Boiler (from the flow chart of an ideal
regenerative cycle).

2. In an ideal regenerative cycle, heat output is at?


a) Boiler
b) Turbine
c) Condenser
d) Pump
Answer: c
Explanation: In a regenerative cycle, the heat output is at the Condenser (from the flow chart of an ideal
regenerative cycle).

3. In an ideal regenerative cycle, the work output is at?


a) Boiler
b) Turbine
c) Condenser
d) Pump
Answer: b
Explanation: In a regenerative cycle, the work output is at the Condenser (from the flow chart of an ideal
regenerative cycle).

4. In an ideal regenerative cycle, the work input is at?


a) Boiler
b) Turbine
c) Condenser
d) Pump
Answer: d

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Explanation: In a regenerative cycle, the work input is at the Condenser (from the flow chart of an ideal
regenerative cycle).

5. What effect does the heating of feedwater by steam ‘bled’ from the turbine has on the Rankine Cycle?
a) it rankinises the Rankine Cycle
b) it carnotinises the Rankine Cycle
c) it reheats the Rankine Cycle
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The heating of feedwater by steam ‘bled’ from the turbine, known as regeneration,
carnotinises the Rankine cycle.

6. What is the effect of increase in regeneration on steam rate?


a) steam rate increases
b) steam rate decreases
c) steam rate isindependent of regeneration
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: More steam has to circulate per hour to produce unit shaft output.

7. If h & h1 are the enthalpies at the inlet & at the exhaust, s & s1 are the enthalpies at the inlet & exhaust,
the mean temperature of heat addition, T with regeneration is ?
a) (h + h1)/(s + s1)
b) (h + h1)/(s – s1)
c) (h – h1)/(s + s1)
d) (h – h1)/(s – s1)
Answer: d
Explanation: The expression for mean temperature of heat addition is given as,
T = (h – h1)/(s – s1).

8. If Q represents the heat input, P represents the heat output; the efficiency n in terms of Q & P is given
by?
a) n = QP
b) n = (Q-P)/Q
c) n = (P-Q)/Q
d) n = Q/(Q-P)
Answer: b
Explanation: The expression of efficiency in terms of heat input & output is given by,
n = (Q-P)/Q.

9. If q represents the work output, r represents the work input, Q represents the heat input, the efficiency
n in terms of q & r is given by?
a) n = (q-r)/Q
b) n = ( q+r)/Q
c) n = (qr)/Q
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d) n = (qr x qr)/Q
Answer: a
Explanation: The efficiency in terms of work input, work output & heat input is given by,
n = (q-r)/Q.

10. What is the effect of increase in steam rate on boiler size?


a) boiler size increases
b) boiler size increases
c) boiler size is independent of steam rate
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Increase in steam rate increases by regeneration, i.e., more steam has to circulate per hour
to produce unit shaft output. Hence, it increases boiler size.

SET 15

“Feedwater Heaters – 1”

1. Feedwater heaters are of two types, they are


a) natural and forced
b) saturated and non saturated
c) open and close
d) water driven and steam driven
Answer: c
Explanation: Feedwater heaters are classified by the methods of mixing steam and feedwater.

2. In open feedwater heater


a) the extracted steam is allowed to mix with feedwater
b) feedwater flows trough tubes and steam is condensed outside
c) steam flows outside tubes and feedwater inside
d) steam flows inside tubes and outside inside
Answer: a
Explanation: In a closed heater, the extracted steam is allowed to mix with feedwater and both leave the
heater at a common temperature.

3. Closed heaters are also called


a) contact type heater
b) shell and heat exchanger
c) drip heaters
d) shell and tube heater
Answer: b
Explanation: Closed heaters are also called shell and heat exchanger where the feedwater flows through
the tubes.
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4. Expand TTD?
a) turbine temperature difference
b) total temperature difference
c) terminal temperature difference
d) turbine terminal difference
Answer: c
Explanation: Terminal temperature difference = saturation temperature of bled steam – exit water
temperature.

5. The value of TTD varies with?


a) heater pressure
b) heater temperature
c) turbine inlet temperature
d) independent of all mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The value of TTD varies with heater pressure. heaters receiving wet steam, the TTD is
positive.

6. Why at least one open heater is used?


a) installed vertically
b) feedwater deaeration
c) less cost
d) increase efficiency
Answer: b
Explanation: The open heater works as a deaerator.

7. What are the advantages of open heater?


a) lower cost
b) high heat transfer capacity
c) high feedwater temperature
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Open heaters are cheap as compared to closed heaters, in closed heaters feedwater
temperature is not high.

8. What do you mean by heater drip?


a) condensate
b) heater failure
c) extract
d) maximum temperature
Answer: a
Explanation: Saturated water at the steam extraction pressure.

9. Which of the following material can be used as a moderator?


a) Beryllium
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b) Graphite
c) Heavy water
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: A neutron moderator is a medium that reduces the speed of fast neutrons, thereby turning
them into thermal neutrons capable of sustaining a nuclear chain reaction involving uranium-235.

10. Closed heaters are?


a) horizontal
b) vertical
c) inclined
d) depends on requirement
Answer: d
Explanation: Closed heaters are mostly horizontal. Sometimes, they are made vertical to reduce the floor
areas.

Set 16

“Feedwater Heaters – 2”

1. Feed water heaters are of how many types?


a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: There are two types of feed water heaters-
1) Open Heater
2) Closed Heater.

2. What is the other name of open heater?


a) shell & tube heat exchangers
b) contact type heaters
c) regenerative heat exchangers
d) closed heaters
Answer: b
Explanation: Open heaters are also known as contact type heaters where the extracted steam is allowed
to mix with feedwater & both leave the heater at a common temperature.

3. What is the condition of the fluids in closed heaters?


a) they are separate
b) they are mixed
c) they are partially mixed
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d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The fluids in a closed heater are un-mixed or separated. Closed heaters are heat exchangers.

4. Closed heaters are ______________ heat exchangers.


a) parallel flow
b) shell-and-tube
c) counter flow
d) cross- flow
Answer: b
Explanation: Closed heaters are shell-and-tube heat exchangers where the feedwater flows through the
tubes & the extracted steam condenses outside the walls in the shell. The heat released by condensation
is transferred through the walls of the tubes.

5. What is the other name of the condensate obtained after condensation in a shell-and-tube heat
exchanger type closed heaters?
a) Heater rise
b) Heater fall
c) Heater drip
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Closed heaters are shell-and-tube heat exchangers where the feedwater flows through the
tubes & the extracted steam condenses outside the walls in the shell. The heat released by condensation
is transferred through the walls of the tubes. The condensate sometimes called the heater drip then
passes to the next lower level.

6. What is the function of the trap applied to the condensate?


a) the trap stops the condensate fully
b) the trap stops only vapour & allows liquid to pass through it
c) the trap stops only liquid & allows vapour to pass through it
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The main function of the trap applied to the flow of condensate is to stop vapour & allow
liquid to flow through it.

7. Which of these is the correct expression for terminal temperature difference(TTD) ?


a) TTD = saturation temperature of ‘bled’ steam – exit water temperature
b) TTD = saturation temperature of ‘bled’ steam + exit water temperature
c) TTD = saturation temperature of ‘bled’ steam x exit water temperature
d) TTD = saturation temperature of ‘bled’ steam / exit water temperature
Answer: a
Explanation: The expression for terminal temperature difference for a closed heater is given as,
TTD = saturation temperature of ‘bled’ steam – exit water temperature.

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8. If terminal temperature difference (TTD) is too small, what will be its impact on plant efficiency?
a) it increases
b) it decreases
c) it remains same
d) none of mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The formula for TTD is given as,
TTD = saturation temperature of ‘bled’ steam – exit water temperature.

9. If plant efficiency is high, what will be its effect on heater size?


a) it remains same
b) it increases
c) it decreases
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Too small a value of TTD, it is good for plant efficiency & consequently, tjis would require a
larger heater.

10. When is a drain-cooler used?


a) when the extracted steam upon condensation gets subcooled
b) when the extracted steam upon subcooling gets condensed
c) the extracted stream has no dependence on drain-cooler
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: When extracted steam gets subcooled upon condensation, a drain cooler may be used.

11. Which of these is a disadvantage of open heater?


a) simplicity
b) lower cost
c) high heat transfer capacity
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The disadvantage is the necessity of a pump at each heater to handle the large feedwater
stream.

12. Which of the following is not an advantage of an open heater?


a) simplicity
b) lower cost
c) high heat transfer capacity
d) necessity of a pump at each heater to handle the large feedwater stream
Answer: d
Explanation: The disadvantage is the necessity of a pump at each heater to handle the large feedwater
stream.

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13. The number of pumps required by a closed heater for pumping the main feedwater stream is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: a
Explanation: A closed heater requires only a single pump for the main feedwater stream regardless of the
number of heaters.

14. What is the purpose of using open heaters in steam power plants?
a) feedwater purification
b) feedwater esterification
c) feedwater deaeration
d) feedwater carbonisation
Answer: c
Explanation: In most steam power plants, closed heaters are more favored than open heaters & so are
used primarily for the purpose of feedwater deaeration.

15. Why are closed heaters sometimes made vertical?


a) to reduce weight of heaters
b) to reduce floor areas for installations
c) to minimize losses due to weight
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Closed heaters are mostly horizontal. Sometimes, they are made vertical to reduce the floor
areas needed for their installations.

SET 17

Carnotinization of Rankine Cycle”

1. In the T-S diagram of a Rankine cycle, the abscissa represents?


a) total entropy of turbine steam
b) partial entropy of turbine steam
c) partial enthalpy of turbine steam
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The T-S diagram of a Rankine Cycle has total entropy of turbine steam in the abscissa &
temperature on the ordinate.

2. After the expAnsion of throttle steam, why is some steam extracted?


a) so that the total amount of steam in the entire system remains same
b) so that the variation in temperature is constant
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c) so that pressure variation is constant
d) so that the total entropy is reduced
Answer: d
Explanation: The expAnsion of throttle steam is mainly to reduce the total entropy & the heat given up by
this steam is added to feed water, thereby heating it.

3. The heat given up by the expAnsion of throttle steam is utilised in?


a) maintaining the heat flow in the system
b) reducing temperature variation in the system
c) heating the feedwater
d) cooling feedwater
Answer: c
Explanation: The expAnsion of throttle steam is mainly to reduce the total entropy & the heat given up by
this steam is added to feed water, thereby heating it.

4. “Regenerative feedwater heating by turbine extraction” is often termed as?


a) Electrophoresis of Rankine cycle
b) Sterlinisation of Rankine cycle
c) Carnotization of Rankine cycle
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: In the T-S diagram, the area of the parallelogram representing the cycle output will be equal
to the area of the rectangle representing the output of the Carnot cycle. That is why we often term
regenerative feedwater heating by turbine extraction as carnotization of rankine cycle.

5. A regenerative feedwater heating cycle with an infinite number of feedwater heaters has efficiency
equal to?
a) Brayton cycle
b) Carnot cycle
c) Diesel cycle
d) Otto cycle
Answer: b
Explanation: In the T-S diagram, the area of the parallelogram representing the cycle output will be equal
to the area of the rectangle representing the output of the Carnot cycle. Thus, the efficiency of a
regenerative feedwater heating cycle with an infinite number of feedwater heaters is equal to that of a
carnot cycle.

6. In the T-S diagram, the process of heating from condenser to boiler saturation temperature when the
number of turbine extraction stages are finite is?
a) Reversible
b) Irreversible
c) Adiabatic
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b

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Explanation: When the number of extraction stages are finite, the process is irreversible. On the contrary,
when there are infinite extraction stages, the process becomes reversible.

7. For the process of heating from condenser to boiler saturation temperature to be reversible, the
number of extraction stages involved in the entire cycle should be?
a) Zero
b) One
c) Infinite
d) Finite
Answer: c
Explanation: When the number of extraction stages are finite, the process is irreversible. On the contrary,
when there are infinite extraction stages, the process becomes reversible.

8. Which of the processes immediately follows the expAnsion of throttle steam?


a) heat given up by the steam is added to feedwater
b) heating from condenser to boiler saturation temperature
c) carnotization of rankine cycle
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The expAnsion of throttle steam is mainly to reduce the total entropy & the heat given up by
this steam is added to feed water, thereby heating it.

9. The output from boiler goes to?


a) Turbine
b) Condenser
c) Pump
d) Economiser
Answer: a
Explanation: The sequence of flow is
Boiler, Turbine, Condenser, Pump, Economiser.

10. The area of parallelogram in the T-S diagram representing the cycle output is equal to?
a) area of rectangle representing the output of the Carnot cycle
b) area of the triangle representing the output of the Carnot cycle
c) area of the square representing the output of the Carnot cycle
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: From the T-S diagram the area of parallelogram representing the cycle output is equal to the
area of rectangle representing the output of the Carnot cycle.

SET 18

“Optimum Degree of Regeneration”


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1. What is the value of “beta” if h represents the local enthalpy on the given expAnsion line at a given
pressure & hf is the enthalpy of saturated water at that pressure?
a) h + hf
b) h x hf
c) h – hf
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The expression for the value of “beta” if h represents the local enthalpy on the given
expAnsion line at a given pressure & hf is the enthalpy of saturated water at that pressure is given as,
Beta = h – hf.

2. The expression for temperature rise t in feedwater heater when a & b are the temperatures of boiler
saturation & condenser resprctively, is given by which of the following expression?
a) t = 0.5 (a x b)
b) t = 0.5 (a / b)
c) t = 0.5 (a + b)
d) t = 0.5 (a – b)
Answer: d
Explanation: The expression for temperature rise t in feedwater heater when a & b are the temperatures
of boiler saturation & condenser respectively, is given by,
t = 0.5 (a – b).

3. What happens to the feedwater that enters the economiser?


a) Feedwater is heated to the saturation temperature at the boiler pressure
b) Feedwater is heated to the boiler temperature at the saturation pressure
c) Feedwater is cooled to the saturation temperature
d) Feedwater is cooled at the boiler pressure
Answer: a
Explanation: The function of an economiser is to heat the feedwater to the saturation temperature at the
boiler temperature. Naturally, this is what happens to the feedwater in the Economiser.

4. The economiser can also be assumed as?


a) Feedwater cooler
b) Feedwater heater
c) Economiser has nothing to do with Feedwater
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The function of an economiser is to heat the feedwater to the saturation temperature at the
boiler temperature. Hence, it is assumed as ‘feedwater heater’.

5. The feedwater in the Economiser _________


a) is heated by bled turbine steam
b) is cooled by bled turbine steam
c) is heated by outgoing flue gases
d) is cooled by outgoing flue gases
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Answer: c
Explanation: The function of an economiser is to heat the feedwater to the saturation temperature at the
boiler temperature. This heating of feedwater occurs by the heat given to the feedwater by outgoing flue
gases.

6. The temperature rise from condenser to boiler saturation is divided __________ among the feedwater
heaters for maximum gain in efficiency.
a) unequally
b) partially
c) equally
d) remains undivided
Answer: c
Explanation: The total enthalpy rise or the temperature rise from condenser to boiler saturation is divided
equally among the feedwater heaters for maximum gain in the efficiency.

7. What is the expression for enthalpy of each heater h heater if a represents the enthalpy of heated
feedwater from the economiser and b represents the enthalpy at condenser & n represents the number
of heaters?
a) h heater = ( a-b )/ (n +1)
b) h heater = ( a-b ) x (n -1)
c) h heater = ( a-b ) + (n -1)
d) h heater = ( a-b ) – (n +1)
Answer: a
Explanation: the expression for enthalpy of each heater h if a represents the enthalpy of heated
feedwater from the economiser and b represents the enthalpy at condenser & n represents the number
of heaters is given by,
h heater = ( a- b)/ (n +1).

8. If n denotes the number of heater, t denotes the overall temperature difference & T denotes the total
temperature rise of feedwater. The expression for T is?
a) ( n/(n+1)) x t
b) ( n/(n-1)) x t
c) ( n/(n+1)) / t
d) ( n/(n+1)) – t
Answer: a
Explanation: If n denotes the number of heater, t denotes the overall temperature difference & T denotes
the total temperature rise of feedwater. The expression for T is given by the following relation,
T = ( n/(n+1)) x t.

9. The expression for the overall temperature difference T is given by?


a) t = boiler saturation temperature – condenser temperature
b) t = boiler saturation temperature + condenser temperature
c) t = boiler saturation temperature x condenser temperature
d) t = boiler saturation temperature / condenser temperature
Answer: a
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Explanation: The expression for the overall temperature difference t is given by,
t = boiler saturation temperature – condenser temperature.

10. Efficiency gain follows the law of?


a) diminishing forward motion
b) increasing return
c) decreasing return
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The gain in cycle efficiency is proportional to the gain in feedwater temperature, the
efficiency gain thereby follows the law of diminishing return with the increase in the number of heaters.

11. The number of heaters for a plant is fixed by?


a) Mass Balance
b) Energy balance
c) Heat balance
d) None of the mentioned.
Answer: b
Explanation: The number of heaters for a plant is fixed by Energy Balance of the whole plant when it is
found that cost of adding another heater does not justify the saving in heat supply or marginal increase in
cycle efficiency.

12. The effect on the degree of regeneration due to an increase in feedwater temperature is?
a) degree of regeneration increases
b) degree of regeneration decreases
c) degree of regeneration remain same
d) degree of regeneration is optimised
Answer: d
Explanation: An increase in feedwater temperature reduces the heat absorption from the outgoing flue
gases in the economiser & may cause a reduction in boiler efficiency. The number of heaters & the degree
of regeneration thus get optimised.

13. The expression for efficiency when a & b are two constants corresponding to alpha & beta and c
corresponds to gamma, is?
a) Efficiency = 1 – ((b2))/((b + c)(a + b – c)))
b) Efficiency = 1 + ((b2))/((b + c)(a + b – c)))
c) Efficiency = ((b2))/((b + c)(a + b – c)))
d) Efficiency = 1 / ((b2))/((b + c)(a + b – c)))
Answer: a
Explanation: The expression for efficiency when a & b are two constants corresponding to alpha & beta
and c corresponds to gamma, is given as,
Efficiency = 1 – ((b2))/((b + c)(a + b – c))).

14. What is the relation between a & c if a & c correspond to alpha & gamma respectively, for maximum
efficiency of a cycle?
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a) a = 3c
b) c = 2a
c) c = (a/3)
d) a = 2c
Answer: d
Explanation: The relation between a & c if a & c correspond to alpha & gamma respectively, for maximum
efficiency of a cycle is given by,
c = (a/2).

15. The expression for efficiency gain due to regeneration if a, b, n correspond to alpha, beta, cycle
efficiency respectively, is?
a) n = ((a x a x b)/((a + b)((a + 2b)2))
b) n = ((a x a x b)/((a – b)(a + 2b)2))
c) n = ((a x a x b)/((a + b)(a + b)2))
d) n = ((a x a x b)/((a + b)(a + 2b)3))
Answer: a
Explanation: The expression for efficiency gain due to regeneration if a, b, n correspond to alpha, beta,
cycle efficiency respectively is given by,
n = ((a x a x b)/((a + b)(a + 2b)2)).

SET 19

“Supercritical Pressure Cycle and Layout of a Stem Power Plant”

1. Steam is generated in a _____________ boiler at a pressure above the critical point.


a) simple
b) once through
c) superficial
d) thrice through
Answer: The steam generation in a supercritical pressure cycle is in a once through boiler when the steam
is heated at a pressure above the critical point.

2. Apart from feedheating, what should a plant have to obtain a gain in thermal efficiency?
a) Lubrication
b) Differential heating
c) Reheating cycles
d) Regenerative cycles
Answer: c
Explanation: To obtain a gain in thermal cycle efficiency, apart from the feedheating, there should be
multiple number of reheats.

3. The increment in thermal efficiency compared to the corresponding Subcritical cycle is gained at the
expAnse of?
a) compactness of the plant
b) simplicity of the plant
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c) complexity of the plant
d) expAnse of the plant
Answer: c
Explanation: The increment in thermal efficiency compared to the corresponding Subcritical cycle is
gained at the expAnse of complexity of the plant. Naturally, more the complexity, more this increment.

4. Which of the following needs to be incorporated to prevent the low pressure turbine exhaust wetness
from being excessive?
a) Double regeneration
b) Double carnotization
c) Double reheat
d) Double cooling
Answer: c
Explanation: Incorporating double reheat is one way to prevent the low pressure turbine exhaust wetness
from being excessive.

5. What is the critical point of steam generation in a “once through” boiler?


a) 221.5 bar
b) 221.4 bar
c) 221.3 bar
d) 221.2 bar
Answer: d
Explanation: Steam generation in a “once through” boiler is at the critical point of 221.2 bar.

6. In a typical layout of a 215MW reheat power plant, the feed in the boiler is at?
a) 280 degree Centigrade
b) 230 degree Centigrade
c) 238 degree Centigrade
d) 250 degree Centigrade
Answer: c
Explanation: In a typical layout of a 215MW reheat power plant, the feed in the boiler is at 238 degree
Centigrade.

7. The input to the deaerator is from a __________ pressure feedwater heater.


a) high
b) low
c) medium
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The deaerator input is at low pressure feedwater heater and so the working of the deaerator
comes into play.

8. The input to the low pressure feedwater heater is from?


a) Drain heater
b) Drain cooler
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c) Drain pipe
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The input to the low pressure feedwater heater comes from the drain cooler which the goes
to the deaerator.

SET 20

Steam Power Plant Appraisal”

1. The thermal efficiency of a Watt’s Beam Engine is about?


a) 50%
b) 100%
c) 5%
d) 2%
Answer: d
Explanation: From the performance table consisting of performance data of various steam power
plants(Aschner), the efficiency of Watt’s Beam Engine is about 2%.

2. The thermal efficiency of a 1 MW locomotive steam engine is about?


a) 2%
b) 3%
c) 6%
d) 7%
Answer: d
Explanation: From the performance table consisting of performance data of various steam power
plants(Aschner), the efficiency of 1 MW locomotive steam engine is about 7%.

3. The number of feedwater heaters required in a Watt’s Beam Engine is?


a) 0
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
Answer: a
Explanation: A Watt’s Beam Engine does not employ any feedwater heaters & hence the number of
feedwater heaters in a Watt’s Beam Engine is ZERO.

4. Among 1 MW, 2 MW, 30 MW & 660 MW locomotive steam engines, the highest efficiency is of?
a) 1 MW
b) 2 MW
c) 30 MW
d) 660 MW
Answer: d
Explanation: From the performance table consisting of performance data of various steam power
plants(Aschner), the efficiency of 1 MW locomotive steam engine is about 7%, 2 MW locomotive steam
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engine is about 20%, 30 MW locomotive steam engine is about 35%, 660 MW locomotive steam engine is
about 44%.

5. The initial pressure of a Watt’s Beam Engine is about?


a) 1 bar
b) 2 bar
c) 3 bar
d) 4 bar
Answer: b
Explanation: From the performance table consisting of performance data of various steam power
plants(Aschner), the pressure of a Watt’s Beam Engine is about 2 bar.

6. What is the exhaust condition of a Watt’s Beam Engine?


a) near saturation
b) dry
c) wet
d) 0.9 dry
Answer: c
Explanation: From the performance table consisting of performance data of various steam power
plants(Aschner), the exhaust condition of a Watt’s Beam Engine is wet.

7. The number of feedwater heaters required for a 660 MW locomotive steam engine is?
a) 4
b) 0
c) 7
d) 8
Answer: c
Explanation: From the performance table consisting of performance data of various steam power
plants(Aschner), the number of feedwater heaters required by a 660 MW locomotive steam engine are 7.

8. Among 1 MW, 2 MW, 30 MW & 660 MW locomotive steam engines, the highest initial pressure is of?
a) 1 MW
b) 2 MW
c) 30 MW
d) 660 MW
Answer: d
Explanation: From the performance table consisting of performance data of various steam power
plants(Aschner), the initial pressure of 1 MW locomotive steam engine is about 15 bar, 2 MW locomotive
steam engine is about 15 bar, 30 MW locomotive steam engine is about 40 bar, 660 MW locomotive
steam engine is about 160 bar.

9. Among 1 MW, 2 MW, 30 MW & 660 MW locomotive steam engines, the highest initial temperature is
of?
a) 1 MW
b) 2 MW
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c) 30 MW
d) 660 MW
Answer: d
Explanation: From the performance table consisting of performance data of various steam power plants
(Aschner), the initial temperature of 1 MW locomotive steam engine is about 300 degree Celsius bar, 2
MW locomotive steam engine is about 250 degree Celsius, 30 MW locomotive steam engine is about 450
degree Celsius, 660 MW locomotive steam engine is about 540 degree Celsius.

10. Common size unit of a Steam Power Plant is?


a) 30 MW(e)
b) 300 MW(e)
c) 500 MW(e)
d) 150 MW(e)
Answer: c
Explanation: The most common size steam power plant is of 500 MW(e). Further large size plants have
been built, but aren’t found in common usage.

SET 21

“Deaerator – 1”
1. Deaerator is an
a) closed heater
b) open heater
c) surface heater
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: One of the feedwater heater is a contact type open heater, known as deaerator.

2. What is the purpose of deaerator?


a) to remove the dissolved oxygen and carbon dioxide
b) to remove the dissolved nitrogen
c) to remove the dissolved impurities
d) to supply more oxygen to feedwater
Answer: a
Explanation: Purpose of deaerator is to remove the dissolved oxygen and carbon dioxide in water which
makes water corrosive.

3. What do you mean by vent condenser?


a) a condensing unit
b) a temperature measuring instrument
c) a heat exchanger
d) dissolves oxygen
Answer: c
Explanation: Feedwater is passed through a heat exchanger commonly called as vent condenser.

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4. How dissolved oxygen and carbon dioxides are removed?
a) by allowing it to fall from height
b) by series of chemical reactions
c) by condensing feedwater
d) by heating feedwater to saturation temperature
Answer: d
Explanation: The solubility of these gases decreases with an increase in temperature.

5. What chemicals are added for residual dissolved oxygen and carbon dioxide?
a) sodium sulphite
b) hydrazine
c) alum
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Na2SO3 and N2H4 are used to remove residual gasses.

6. Why deaerator is installed at a certain height from the pump?


a) to provide a net positive suction head
b) to maintain less pressure
c) to avoid leakage
d) to maintain pressure
Answer: a
Explanation: Deaerator is installed at a certain height from the pump so as to maintain a optimum
pressure before suction.

7. Why deaerator is not used in water cooled and moderated nuclear power plant?
a) radioactivity
b) not economical
c) not safe
d) not mechanically possible
Answer: a
Explanation: deaerator is not used in water cooled and moderated nuclear power plant because of the
concern regarding radioactivity release with deaeration.

8. Location of high pressure heaters


a) after the deaerator
b) before the deaerator
c) middle of deaerator
d) depends on pressure conditions
Answer: b
Explanation: The feedwater heaters before the deaerator are often called high pressure heaters(h.p.).

9. Location of low pressure heaters


a) after the deaerator
b) before the deaerator
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c) middle of deaerator
d) depends on pressure conditions
Answer: a
Explanation: The feedwater heaters after the deaerator are often called low pressure heaters(l.p.).

10. Steam used to heat water comes from?


a) boiler
b) turbine
c) condenser
d) external power source
Answer: b
Explanation: Steam from turbine is at high pressure and temperature.

SET 22

“Deaerator – 2”

1. Which of the following type heater is known as deaerator?


a) Contact-type open heater
b) Contact-type closed heater
c) Closed heater
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: A deaerator is a closed-type open feedwater heater while all the other heaters are closed
heaters.

2. What is the solubility of dissolved gases at boiling or saturation temperature?


a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Zero
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The solubility of dissolved gases in water decreases with an increase in pressure and
becomes zero at boiling or saturation temperature.

3. In the deaerator, the feedwater is heated to the saturation temperature by the steam extracted from?
a) compressor
b) turbine
c) pump
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The steam extracted from the turbine is used to heat the feedwater to the saturation
temperature.

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4. The heat exchanger after passing through which, the feedwater is sprayed from the top is called?
a) Vent condenser
b) Vent evaporator
c) Vent economiser
d) Vent heater
Answer: a
Explanation: Feedwater after passing through a heat exchanger, is sprayed from the top & bled steam
from the turbine is fed from the bottom.

5. What kind of steam comes through the other side of the feedwater spray?
a) pure steam
b) bled steam
c) saturated steam
d) superheated steam
Answer: b
Explanation: Feedwater after passing through a heat exchanger, is sprayed from the top & bled steam
from the turbine is fed from the bottom.

6. The chemical injected into the feedwater at the suction of the boiler feed pump is ?
a) Sodium Sulphide
b) Sodium Sulphate
c) Sodium Sulphite
d) Sodium Hydride
Answer: c
Explanation: To minimise the effect of the residual dissolved oxygen & carbon dioxide gases in water,
Sodium Sulphite & Hydrazine are injected in suitable calculated doses into the feedwater at the suction of
the boiler feed pump.

7. Why is Sodium Sulphite added into the feedwater at the suction of the boiler feed pump?
a) to maximise the effect of dissolved gases
b) to minimise the effect of dissolved gases
c) to increase feedwater concentration
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: To minimise the effect of the residual dissolved oxygen & carbon dioxide gases in water,
Sodium Sulphite & Hydrazine are injected in suitable calculated doses into the feedwater at the suction of
the boiler feed pump.

8. Name another chemical apart from Sodium Sulphite which is into the feedwater at the suction of the
boiler feed pump?
a) Calcium peroxide
b) Hydroxide
c) Hydrazine
d) Oxymes
Answer: c
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Explanation: To minimise the effect of the residual dissolved oxygen & carbon dioxide gases in water,
Sodium Sulphite & Hydrazine are injected in suitable calculated doses into the feedwater at the suction of
the boiler feed pump.

9. Where is the deaerator placed in the feedwater system?


a) in the beginning
b) in the middle
c) at the end
d) there is no deaerator in the feedwater system
Answer: b
Explanation: The deaerator is usually placed in the middle of the feedwater system so that the total
pressure difference between the condenser & the boiler is shared equally between condensate pump &
boiler feed pump.

10. Why is the deaerator placement in the feedwater system so important?


a) to maximise pressure difference between the condenser & the boiler
b) to minimise pressure difference between the condenser & the boiler
c) to make the pressure difference between the condenser & the boiler Zero
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The deaerator is usually placed in the middle of the feedwater system so that the total
pressure difference between the condenser & the boiler is shared equally between condensate pump &
boiler feed pump.

11. Which gases are vented out of the deaerator?


a) Oxygen only
b) Carbon dioxide only
c) Oxygen & Carbon dioxide both
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The exhaust of the feedwater deaerator contains Oxygen & Carbon dioxide both.

12. Net positive suction head(NPSH) is provided because?


a) to prevent vapour lock
b) to prevent cavitation
c) to prevent friction
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: In order to prevent the cavitation arising, a net positive suction head is provided for the
pump. The deaerator is placed at a sufficient height from the basement.

13. The output of the boiler heat pump is to?


a) the high pressure heater
b) the low pressure heater
c) simultaneously to the low & high pressure heaters
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d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The Boiler feed pump give an output which goes to the high pressure heater.

14. Why is the deaerator not employed in water cooled & moderated nuclear power plant?
a) due to radioactivity release in degeneration
b) due to emissivity of degeneration
c) due to reheating
d) due to regeneration
Answer: a
Explanation: The deaerator is not employed in water cooled & moderated nuclear power plant because of
the radioactivity released in degeneration.

15. Which among the following goes to the Vent Condenser along with Oxygen & Carbon dioxide?
a) Sodium sulphite
b) Carbon monoxide
c) Water vapour
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The gases Oxygen, Carbon dioxide & Water vapour are subjected to the vent condenser
wherein the moisture gets absorbed & so the exhaust gases vented out are Oxygen & Carbon dioxide.

SET 23

“Efficiencies in a steam power plant – 1”

1. What percentage of fuel energy is actually converted to electrical energy?


a) 50%
b) 40%
c) 34%
d) 25%
Answer: c
Explanation: In overall process due to losses the 66% of energy is lost.

2. Maximum energy of a power plant is lost in?


a) condensor
b) pump
c) boiler
d) environment
Answer: a
Explanation: In a condensor heat is rejected to cooling water.This is the loss due to heat to work energy
conversion in the cycle.

3. The lower is the value of heat rate, __________ is the efficiency.


a) lower
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b) higher
c) same
d) depends on further parameters
Answer: b
Explanation: The parameter that readily reflects the fuel economy is the heat rate, which is inversely
proportional to the efficiency.

4. Overall efficiency is the ratio of power available at generator terminals to rate of energy released by
combustion of fuel.
a) true
b) false
c) can’t say
d) not true for all conditions
Answer: a
Explanation: Efficiency is power generated / power supplied.

5. The steam from steam generator of a nuclear power plant is best described as
a) superheated steam
b) supercritical steam
c) saturated dry steam
d) saturated wet steam
Answer: d
Explanation: Steam contains moisture after coming out of boiler.

6. Under certain conditions, the specific enthalpies of dry steam, saturated water and wet steam are 2783
kJ/kg, 1219 kJ/kg and 2750 kJ/kg respectively. Determine the dryness fraction of wet steam.
a) 0.01
b) 0.02
c) 0.021
d) 0.03
Answer: c
Explanation:Specific enthalpies of saturated water (hl) and dry steam (hs) are 1219 kJ/kg and 2783 kJ/kg.
Substituting these values in the equation “hws= xdhg+(1-xd)hl” gives the dryness fraction as 0.021.

7. What includes fixed cost?


a) cost of land, Cost of building, Cost of equipment, Cost of installation
b) interest
c) management cost
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: These are the parameters that cannot be neglected and come under the fixed cost.

8. Name the major isotope present in steam generated in a Boiling Water Reactor.
a) N-16
b) D-32
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c) N-32
d) D-16
Answer: a
Explanation: It is more economical and more efficient.

9. Efficiency of a power plant is more in summers or winters?


a) summers
b) winters
c) same in both
d) depends on variation
Answer: b
Explanation: In summers the heat loss is more so efficiency is less.

10. What is the mechanical efficiency of turbine?


a) brake output / internal output
b) internal output / brake output
c) blade energy / energy supplied
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

SET 24

“Efficiencies in a Steam Power Plant – 2”

1. The steam power plant is a bulk energy converter where fuel energy is converted to?
a) heat energy
b) electrical energy
c) chemical energy
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Energy conversion in a steam power plant is as below
Fuel energy to Electricity.

2. Rate of energy released by the combustion of the fuel is given by?


a) Fuel burning rate x Calorific Value of the fuel
b) Fuel burning rate / Calorific Value of the fuel
c) Fuel burning rate + Calorific Value of the fuel
d) Fuel burning rate – Calorific Value of the fuel
Answer: a
Explanation: Rate of energy released by the combustion of the fuel is given by,
Fuel burning rate x Calorific Value of the fuel.

3. The overall efficiency noverall of a steam power plant is given by?


a) noverall = (power available at the generator terminals / (Fuel burning rate x Calorific Value of the fuel))
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b) noverall = (power available at the generator terminals + (Fuel burning rate x Calorific Value of the fuel))
c) noverall = (power available at the generator terminals – (Fuel burning rate x Calorific Value of the fuel))
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The overall efficiency noverall of a steam power plant is given by,
noverall = (power available at the generator terminals / (Fuel burning rate x Calorific Value of the fuel)).

4. Which of the following shows the correct relation? (nboiler denotes efficiency of a boiler)
a) nboiler = (rate of energy absorption by water to form steam / rate of energy released by the combustion
of fuel)
b) nboiler = (rate of energy absorption by water to form steam + rate of energy released by the combustion
of fuel)
c) nboiler = (rate of energy absorption by water to form steam – rate of energy released by the combustion
of fuel)
d) nboiler = (rate of energy absorption by water to form steam x rate of energy released by the combustion
of fuel)
Answer: a
Explanation: The efficiency of a boiler is given by the following expression,
nboiler = (rate of energy absorption by water to form steam / rate of energy released by the combustion of
fuel).

5. The mechanical efficiency of a turbine is given by? (ntm denotes the mechanical efficiency)
a) ntm = (brake output of the turbine x internal output of the turbine)
b) ntm = (internal output of the turbine / break output of the turbine)
c) ntm = (brake output of the turbine / internal output of the turbine)
d) ntm = (brake output of the turbine – internal output of the turbine)
Answer: c
Explanation: The expression for the turbine mechanical efficiency is given by,
ntm = (brake output of the turbine / internal output of the turbine).

6. If Q1 represents the rate of heat addition to the cycle and W represents net cycle work output, the
expression for net cycle heat rate is ?
a) Q1 + W
b) Q1 / W
c) Q1 / (1/ W)
d) Q1 x W
Answer: b
Explanation: The expression for the net cycle heat rate is given by,
Net cycle heat rate(HR) = Q1 / W.

7. The generator efficiency n of the electric alternator is?


a) n = (electrical output at generator terminals / Brake output of the turbine)
b) n = (electrical output at generator terminals x Brake output of the turbine)
c) n = (electrical output at generator terminals / (1/ Brake output of the turbine))
d) none of the mentioned
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Answer: a
Explanation: The generator efficiency of the electric alternator is defined as the ratio of electrical output
at generator terminals to the brake output of the turbine.

8. Which of these is not an auxiliary equipment in a power plant?


a) FAns
b) Crushers
c) Galvanisers
d) Conveyors
Answer: c
Explanation: The auxiliary equipment in a power plant are those equipment which are driven by the
electricity taken from the generated power of the plant.

9. Which of these shows the formula for the efficiencies of the auxiliaries n1?
a) n1 = (net power trAnsmitted by the generator x gross power produced by the plant)
b) n1 = (net power trAnsmitted by the generator / gross power input to the plant)
c) n1 = (net power trAnsmitted by the generator / gross power produced by the plant)
d) n1 = (net power trAnsmitted by the generator / gross power transferred by the plant)
Answer: c
Explanation: The auxiliary equipment or auxiliaries in a power plant are those equipment which are
driven by the electricity taken from the generated power of the plant. Their efficiency is given by,
n1 = (net power trAnsmitted by the generator / gross power produced by the plant).

10. What approximate percentage of energy in the fuel is converted to electricity?


a) 55%
b) 45%
c) 35%
d) 25%
Answer: c
Explanation: Only 34% of the energy stored in the fuel is converted to electricity & 66% is lost. The
maximum loss of energy takes place in the condenser where heat is rejected to cooling water.

11. Heat rejection in a condenser is to?


a) cooled water
b) coolant
c) cooling water
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The maximum loss of energy takes place in the condenser where heat is rejected to cooling
water. This is the loss due to heat to work energy conversion in the cycle or the loss due to second law.

12. Heat rate indicates?


a) heat added per unit volume
b) heat added per unit of work produced
c) heat added per unit of mass stored
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d) heat added per unit area
Answer: b
Explanation: The parameter which readily affects the fuel economy is the heat rate which is inversely
proportional to the efficiency, and hence the lower its value the better. It broadly indicates the heat
added per unit of work produced.

13. Which of the following parameters affects the fuel economy?


a) heat constant
b) specific heat
c) heat rate
d) heat consumption
Answer: c
Explanation: The parameter which readily affects the fuel economy is the heat rate which is inversely
proportional to the efficiency, and hence the lower its value the better. It broadly indicates the heat
added per unit of work produced.

14. Gross cycle heat rate is equal to?


a) (rate of heat addition / turbine output)
b) (rate of heat rejection / turbine input)
c) (heat rejected / turbine output)
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The gross cycle heat rate is given by,
Gross cycle heat rate = (rate of heat addition / turbine output).

15. The relation between heat rate & efficiency is?


a) both are directly proportional
b) both are inversely proportional
c) they are independent of each other
d) heat rate is also called efficiency
Answer: b
Explanation: The parameter which readily affects the fuel economy is the heat rate which is inversely
proportional to the efficiency, and hence the lower its value the better. It broadly indicates the heat
added per unit of work produced.

SET 25

“Cogeneration of Power & Process Heat”.

1. Having two separate units for process heat and power is?
a) useful
b) useless
c) pollution reducing
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
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Explanation: Having two separate units for process heat & power is wasteful, for of the total heat
supplied to the steam generator for power purposes, a greater part will normally be carried away by the
cooling water in the condenser.

2. A plant producing both, electrical power & process heat simultaneously is?
a) Cogenital plant
b) Cogenerial plant
c) Cogeneration plant
d) Conglomerate plant
Answer: c
Explanation: Cogeneration plant is defined as a plant which produces electrical power and processes heat
simultaneously.

3. In a back pressure turbine?


a) pressure at the exhaust from the turbine is the saturation pressure corresponding to the temperature
desired in the process
b) pressure at the entrance of the turbine is the saturation pressure corresponding to the temperature
desired in the process
c) pressure at the exhaust from the turbine is the saturation pressure corresponding to the pressure
desired in the process
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The name back pressure turbine is given because pressure at the exhaust from the turbine is
the saturation pressure corresponding to the temperature desired in the process.

4. In a by-product power cycle?


a) the power is produced initially
b) power production is in the middle stages of the cycle
c) power production is after the cycle has ended
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: When the process steam is the basic need, and the power is produced incidentally as a by-
product, the cycle is often called as the by-product power cycle.

5. Back pressure turbines are usually _________________ with respect to their power output.
a) large
b) small
c) very large
d) very small
Answer: b
Explanation: Back pressure turbines are usually small with respect to their power output because they
have no great volume of exhaust to cope with, the density being high.

6. In terms of cost per MW compared to condensing sets of the same power, the back pressure turbines
are?
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a) more expensive
b) cheaper
c) costly
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Back pressure turbines are usually small with respect to their power output because they
have no great volume of exhaust to cope with, the density being high. They are usually single cylinder and
hence, usually cheaper in terms of cost per MW.

7. Which of these is not an application of back pressure turbine?


a) desalination of sea water
b) filtration of water
c) process industries
d) petrochemical installations
Answer: b
Explanation: The applications of back pressure turbine are desalination of sea water, process industries,
petrochemical installations, district heating and also for driving compressors and feed pumps.

8. Back pressure turbine is placed between?


a) Turbine & Pump
b) Boiler & Pump
c) Turbine & Heat Exchanger
d) Boiler & Turbine
Answer: d
Explanation: In a cogeneration plant, the back pressure turbine is placed between the boiler & turbine.

9. Which of the following is a good medium for constant temperature heating?


a) Water
b) Steam
c) Coolant
d) Diesel
Answer: b
Explanation: For constant temperature heating (or drying), steam is a very good medium since isothermal
condition can be maintained by allowing saturated steam to condense at that temperature and utilising
the latent heat released for heating purposes.

10. The cogeneration plant efficiency nco if WT, Qi, QH represents turbine work, heat input, heat output
respectively is given by?
a) nCO = (WT + Qi) / QH
b) nCO = (WT – Qi) / QH
c) nCO = (WT + QH) / Qi
d) nCO = (WT + QH) / Qi
Answer: d
Explanation: The cogeneration plant efficiency nco if WT, Qi, QH represents turbine work, heat input,

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heat output respectively is,
nCO = (WT + QH) / Qi.

11. The electricity fraction of total energy output if W1 and Q1 represents the turbine work and heat
output is given by?
a) W1 / (W1 + Q1)
b) W1 / (W1 – Q1)
c) W1 / (W1Q1)
d) W1 / Q1
Answer: a
Explanation: The electricity fraction of total energy output if W1 and Q1 represents the turbine work and
heat output is,
W1 / (W1 + Q1).

12. If e is the electricity fraction of the total energy output, m is the electric plant efficiency and n is the
steam generator efficiency; the heat added per unit total energy output is given by?
a) (1 / m) + ((1 – e) / n)
b) (1 / n) + ((1 – e) / m)
c) (1 / m) + ((1 + e) / n)
d) (1 / n) + ((1 – e) / m)
Answer: a
Explanation: If e is the electricity fraction of the total energy output, m is the electric plant efficiency and
n is the steam generator efficiency; the heat added per unit total energy output is given by?
(1 / m) + ((1 – e) / n).

13. Pass-out turbines are used in which of these cases?


a) relatively high back pressure
b) small heating requirement
c) only a
d) both a and b
Answer: d
Explanation: Pass-out turbines are used in cases of relatively high back pressure and small heating
requirements. They are used in cases where a certain quantity of steam is continuously extracted from
the turbine at an intermediate stage for heating purposes at the desired temperature and pressure.

14. Which of these is not considered economical for cogeneration?


a) a high fraction of electric to total energy
b) a low fraction of electric to total energy
c) a low fraction of total energy to electric energy
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: A low fraction of electric to total energy is considered as an economical condition for
cogeneration. Cogeneration plant is defined as a plant which produces electrical power and processes
heat simultaneously.

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