Third Part Questions 1-82

PSAE Region IV - Agricultural Engineering Board Review Materials III-1
THIRD PART QUESTIONS

Rural Electrification, Refrigeration and Air Conditioning, Agricultural Crop
Processing, Agricultural Structures, Farm Shop, and Agricultural Engineering
Law
Pre-Board 2004
1. A 94 lb-bag of Portland cement has a bulk volume of:

a. 1 m3 c. 2m3
b. 1 ft3
d. 3 ft3
c.
2. The no. of 10 cm x 20 cm glazed tiles needed for a 9 m2 floor area.
a. 20 pieces c. 405 pieces
b. 450 pieces d. 150 pieces
c.
3. According to Fuller’s rule of concrete estimation, 42 unit volume of raw materials will
yield ________ unit volume of concrete.
a. 47 c. 37
b. 27 d. 57
c.
4. Which of the following is not considered in the design of wood beams?
a. shear stress c. slenderness ratio
b. bending stress d. deflection
c.
5. A wood column that fails primarily due to crushing is considered as:
a. No answer c. long
b. intermediate d. short
c.
6. Which of the following represents the maximum moment M for a simple beam with a
uniformly distributed load of W and a clear span of L? Assume weight of beam to be
negligible.
a. M = WL2/8 c. M = WL/2
b. M = WL3/6 d. M = WL/4
7. Which of the following wood species does not belong to the high strength group?
a. Agoho c. Mahogany
b. Sasalit d Yakal
8. The horizontal part of a step including the nosing.

a. string c. run
b. baluster d. tread
9. It is the capacity of the material to resist fracture under impact loading.

a. Toughness c. Elasticity
b. Hardness d. Workability
10.The tensile stress that will be developed if a force of 10 N is applied to one end of a 10
inches diameter circular rod.
a. 0.10 kPa c. 0.20 kPa
Rural Electrification, Refrigeration and Air Conditioning, Agricultural Crop Processing,

Agricultural Structures, Farm Shop, and Agricultural Engineering Law
b. 0.05 kPa d. 0.15 kPa
11 -13. A 4” x 3” wood column has an unsupported length of 2.5 meters. Allowable compressive
stress parallel to grain is 13.2 MPa and Modulus of elasticity is 8.47 GPa.
11. The actual slenderness ratio of the column is:

a. 31.82 c. 32.81
b. 38.21 d. 24.61
12. The column is classified as:

a. short c. intermediate
b. long d. none of the above
13. The allowable axial load that can be supported by the column is:
a. 20 kN c. 17 kN
b. 18 kN d. 19 kN
14-15. A simply supported horizontal beam ,with a span of 4 m, is carrying loads of 5 kN and 10
kN at 1 m and 3 m from the left support, respectively.
14. What is the maximum bending moment experienced by the beam?

a. 8.50 kN-m c. 6.25 kN-m
b. 8.25 kN-m d. 8.75 kN-m
15. Minimum cross section of the beam to resist bending stress (allowable bending stress is
16.5 MPa).
a. 7”x 7” c. 5” x 5”
b. 6” x 6” d. 8” x 8”
16. The maximum deflection of a 5” x 10” wood beam with a span of 5 m and supports a
total load of 18 kN/m (Modulus of Elasticity = 4 Gpa)
a. 0.069 ft c. 0.397 ft
b. 0.693 ft d. 2.11 m
17. A hollow steel tube with an inside diameter of 100 mm must a tensile load of 400 kN.
Determine the outside diameter of the tube if the stress is limited to 120 MPa.
a. 110 mm c. 200 mm
b. 119 mm d. 210 mm
18. What force is required to punch a 20 mm diameter hole in a plate that is 25 mm thick?
The shear strength is 350 MPa.
a. 550 kN c. 500 kN
b. 400 kN d. 450 kN
e. nota
19. A simply supported rectangular beam 50mm wide by 100 mm deep carries a uniformly
distributed load of 1200 N/m over its entire length. What is the maximum length of the
beam if the flexural stress is limited to 20 MPa.
a. 3.33 m b. 4.25 m
c. 5.25 m d. 6.02 m
20. Calculate the section modulus of a solid circle having a diameter equal to 5”.
a. 1.90x 10-4 m b. 2.02x 10-4 m

c. 6.02x 10-4 m d. 6.90x 10-4 m

21. A simply supported beam having a span of 6 m carries tow concentrated loads of 80 kN
at its middle thirds. Compute the deflection at midspan due to this load. Assume Flexural
rigidity = 30 670 x 109 N – mm2.
a. 24 mm b. 18mm
c. 20 mm d. 30mm
22. A wooden beam having a width of 50 mm is subjected to a moment of 2400 N-m.

determine the depth if it ishas an allowable bending of 28.8 MPa.
a. 80 mm b. 110mm
c. 100mm d. 60mm
23.A simple beam 6.0 m long carries two equal concentrated loads at the third points of the
beam. If the concentrated loads are 40kN each, what is the maximum deflection of
the beam? Assume E = 200,000 MPa, I = 50 x 106 mm4.
a. 30.67 mm b. 94.59 mm
c. 38.38 mm d. 24.43 mm
24. The moment of inertia of any plane figure can be expressed in units of length to the:
a. first power b. second power
c. third power d. fourth power
25. The linear portion of the stress-strain diagram of steel is known as the:
a. modulus of elongation b. plastic range
c. locus of yield points d. elastic range
26. The ultimate load divided by factor of safety is called as:

a. elastic load b. seismic load
c. allowable load d. dead load
27. The measure of the resistance of materials to bending stresses

a. modulus of elasticity b. Young’s modulus
c. Modulus of rigidity d. modulus of rupture
28.The ratio of stress of an elastic material to the strain is called

a. modulus of rupture b. bulk modulus
c. modulus of elasticity d. modulus of rigidity
29. The resistance of a material to repeated bending and twisting as measured by the work
needed to break it during an impact test is known as:
a. toughness b. hardness
c. plasticity d. malleability
30. The property of the material which enables it to be twisted, bent , or stretched and
absorbs energy at high stress without a rupture is known as:
a. hardness b. malleability
c. plasticity d. toughness
31. The stress at which there is an appreciable elongation of the material without any
corresponding increase of load is called:
a. elastic limit b. . yield point
c proportional limit d. plastic limit

32. The property of the material by which it continues to deform without any considerable
increase in load or stress:
a. plasticity b. toughness
c. Stiffness d. malleability
33. The property of a material to resist deformation is known as
a. plasticity b. toughness
c. stiffness d. malleability
34. The elongation per unit length of a material subjected to an axial force is termed as
a. stress b. deflection
c. strain d. elongation
35. Compute the safe uniform load that a simply supported beam having a span of 4 m could
carry if it has a section modulus of 1.04 x 10 6 mm 4. Allowable bending stress is 12 MPa.
a. 5.29 kN/m b. 3.49 kN/m
c. 6.24 kN/m d. 4.89kN/m
36. What is the current I in the circuit shown below?
I a) R3 / (R1R2 + R2R3 + R1R3)

R1 b) V R3 / (R1R2 + R1R3 + R2R3)
R3 R2
c) V R2 / (R1R2 + R1R3 + R2R3)
V
d) V R2 / (R2 + R3 )
37. What is the current in the resistor R3?
(a) 3.33 amps

(b) 6.67 amps
1 ohm 1 ohm
(c) 10.0 amps
10 V
R 3 = 1 ohm
10 V (d) 13.33 amps
(e) 30.0 amps
38. A 120 volt generator delivers 30 kilowatts to an electric furnace. The current supplied by
the generator is about:
(a) 500 amps (b) 4 amps (c) 100 amps (d) 250 amps (e) 360 amps
39. A 10 ohm resistor is connected in series with a capacitive reactance of 24 ohms. What is
the total impedance?
(a) 26 (b) 13 (c) 34 (d) 14 (e) nota
40. How much energy is required to operate an 80% efficient 5 hp motor used every other
day and a 500 watt lamp used for 4 hours a day, both over a 30-day month?
(a) 195.9 kw-hrs (b) 129.9 kw-hrs

(c) 27.8 kw-hrs (d) 368.6 kw-hrs (e) 29.8 kw-hrs

41. What is the current flowing in the center leg?
(a) 4 amps (b) 6 amps (c) 5 amps (d) 3 amps (e) 7 amps 2 ohms 4 ohms
8 ohms
32 V 20 V
42. What is the current flowing in the 4 ohm resistor?
4 ohms
2 ohms 5 ohms
5 ohms 3 ohms
2 ohms
48 V
(a) 5.394 amps (b) 3.415 amps (c) 8.804 amps

(d) 1.423 amps (e) 5.234 amps
43. A delta resistor network has Ra= 30 ohms, Rb= 10 ohms, and Rc= 20 ohms. What is the
equivalent wye network?
(a) 10 ohms, 5 ohms and 3.33 ohms (b) 3 ohms, 6.66 ohms and 7 ohm
(c) 6 ohms, 9 ohms and 10 ohms (d) 5 ohms, 8 ohms and 3.33 ohms
(e) 6.66 ohms, 3.33 ohms and 10 ohms
44. What is the power dissipated when a ½ amp current flows through a 5 ohm resistor?
(a) 2 watts (b) 1 watt (c) 1.25 watts
d) 1.5 watts (e) 5 watts
45. A condition of balance maintained by an equality of opposing forces is called

a. closed system
b. equilibrium
c. isolated system
d. steady state
e. thermodynamic cycle
46. The amount of substance can be given on a molar basis in terms of kilomole (kmol).
Given 1 kg of air, what is its moles in kilomole?
a. 0.036
b. 1
c. 1.25
d. 28
e. 1000
47. What scale is an absolute thermodynamic temperature scale that provides a continuous
definition of temperature, valid for all ranges of temperature.
a. Celcius

b. Centigrade
c. Fahrenheit
d. Kelvin
e. Rankine
48. An air-conditioned room is maintained at 24°C while outside air temperature is 32°C.
What is the temperature difference in degrees Fahrenheit?
a. 4.4
b. 8.0
c. 14.4
d. 32.0
e. 281.2
49. A process with no thermal interaction between the system and its surrounding is called
a. adiabatic
b. diathermal
c. isentropic
d. isolated
e. isothermal
50. The maximum temperature of a pure substance at which liquid and vapor phase can co-
exist in equilibrium is called
a. critical temperature
b. equilibrium temperature
c. phase temperature
d. saturation temperature
e. thermodynamic temperature
51. Air flows through a 10 mm diameter pipe at an average velocity of 0.1 m/s. What is the
mass flux in kg/s?
a. 3.2 x E-06
b.4 x E-06
c.1.25 x E-05
d.4 x E-04
e.1
52. Which process has the highest convection heat transfer coefficient?
a.airflow over plate
b.boiling water
c.forced convection over plate
d.free convection over plate
e.water flow over plate
53. Consider turbulent flow through a smooth pipe. As the Reynolds number increases the
friction factor
a.increases
b.decreases
c.exponentially increases
d.exponentially decreases
e.remains the same

54. The temperatures on the faces of a plane wall 15 cm thick are 370 and 93°C. The wall is
constructed of a special glass with the following properties: k = 0.78 W/m.C,  = 2,700
kg/m3, cp = 0.84 kJ/kg.C. What is the heat flow through the wall at steady-state
conditions?
a.277.0 W
b.1440.4 W
c.1551.2 W
d.3240.9 W
e.747,900 W
55. Water at a mean temperature of 150°F flows through a steel pipe having an inside
diameter of 1” and an outside diameter of 1-1/4”. The outer surface of the pipe is
exposed to air at 70°F. The heat transfer coefficients on the water and air sides are 100
Btu/ft2.hr.°F and 1 Btu/ft2.hr.°F respectively and k for steel may be taken as 25
Btu/ft.hr.°F. the heat transfer rate per foot of pipe is:
a.2.2 Btu/ft.hr b.13.2 Btu/ft.hr
c.19.2 Btu/ft.hr d.25.9 Btu/ft.hr
e.69.2 Btu/ft.hr
56. Water at a mean temperature of 120°F, flows through a 6.0 inch diameter pipe at a rate
of 80 lbm/sec. If the mean temperature of the wall of the pipe is 180°F and if the length
of the pipe is 20 ft, find the Reynolds number. At 120F,  = 61.73 lbm/ft3,  = 1.36
lbm/ft.hr, k = 0.372 Btu/hr.ft.°F, cp = 0.997 Btu/lbm.°F
a.23.76 b.539.25
c.1486.32 d.21570.6
e.2.08 x 106
57. Heat is generated uniformly at a rate of 1000 Btu/hr.ft 3 in a 4” thick plane wall with a
thermal conductivity of 12 Btu/ft.hr.°F. One side of the wall is maintained at a
temperature of 140F and the other at a temperature of 70°F. At what rate is heat being
transferred from the cooler side of the wall?
a.167 Btu/ft2.hr b.1200 Btu/ft2.hr
c.1834 Btu/ft .hr
2
d.2520 Btu/ft2.hr
e.2687 Btu/ft .hr
2
58. What is the ideal work for a refrigerator if the cold room temperature is -15C, ambient
temperature is 30C, and heat rejection is 10kW?
a.1.01 kW b.1.48 kW
c.5.73 kW d.8.51 kW
e.10 kW
59. In radiative heat transfer, which of the following perfect reflector properties is equal to
unity?
a.absorptivity b.emissivity
c.reflectivity d.resistivity
e.transmissivity
60. An incompressible fluid passes through a pump with an isentropic efficiency less than
100%. The work required to operate the pump is
a.less than the work required for isentropic compression
b.equal to the work required for isentropic compression
c.greater than the work required for isentropic compression

d.can be less than or equal to the work required for isentropic compression
e.cannot be determined
61. In a throttling insulated device, the enthalpy in the direction of flow

a.decrease exponentially b.decrease linearly
c.increase exponentially d.increase linearly
e.remains constant
62. In a refrigeration system, the equipment that rejects heat is the

a.capillary tube b.compressor
c.condenser d.evaporator
e.thermostatic valve
63. Consider 100m3 of moist air at 101.325 kPa, 35°C, 70% relative humidity. If saturation
pressure of water is 5.628 kPa at 35°C, then partial pressure of dry air is
a.3.94 kPa b.5.628 kPa
c.97.4 kPa d.101.325 kPa
e.106.953 kPa
64. Shrimp harvested in a pond situated in Bohol are packed in insulated sheet metal
containers and mixed with crushed ice while in transit to the shrimp processing plant in
Manila. Initial temperature of the product is about 25°C and it is desired to cool the
shrimp at approximately 0°C during shipment. Estimate the product load, in kJ/kg. For
shrimp highest freezing temperature is -2.2°C, cp above freezing is 3.38 kJ/kg.K, cp
below freezing is 1.79 kJ/kg.K and latent heat of fusion is 254 kJ/kg.
a.44.8 b.84.5
c.88.4 d.91.9
e.342.4
65. Regular milled rice has how many percent of bran removed?
a.0 b.25
c.50 d.75
e.100
66. The angle measured from the horizontal at which product will start to move downwards
over a smooth surface with gravity discharging the product is called
a.angle of discharge b.angle of friction
c.angle of repose d.hopper angle
e.tangent
67. The best index for determining the optimum time of harvest for grains is
a.color of grains b.date of planting
c.dryness of flag leaf d.hardness
e.moisture content
68. Which is the correct conversion equation from moisture content wet basis to moisture
content dry basis:
a.MCdry = MCwet/(100-MCwet)
b.MCdry = MCwet/(100+MCwet)
c.MCdry = (100-MCwet)/MCwet
d.MCdry = (100+MCwet)/MCwet

e.MCdry = MCwet
69. Oven method is a primary method of moisture determination. If after 3 days at 105°C
the initial 20g palay sample yields a final weight of 15g, what is the moisture content, in
percent wet basis?
a.15 b.20 e.75
c.25 d.33.3
70. When the vapor pressure of water held by the grain is equal to the vapor pressure of the
surrounding air, no moisture transfer occurs and there exists moisture equilibrium
between the grain and the air. If, however, the vapor pressure of the water held by the
grain is greater than the vapor pressure of the air, then what condition exists?
a.absorption b.adsorption
c.desorption d.diffusion
e.rewetting
71. Grain weevil is one of the most destructive insects to stored grains. Ryzophertha
dominica is commonly called
a.Confused beetle b.Corn weevil
c.Flour beetle d.Lesser grain borer
e.Rice weevil
72. Roof rat is also known as black or ship rat. Its scientific name is
a.Rattus domesticus b.Rattus mindanensis
c.Rattus norvegicus d.Rattus ratoides
e.Rattus rattus
73. The toxin produced by some strain of the fungi Aspergillus flavus and Aspergillus
parasitium, the most potent carcinogen yet discovered is called
a.Aflatoxin b.Hydrophilic toxin
c.Fusarium toxin d.Mycotoxin
e.Xerophilic toxin
74. A chemical compound that acts in the gaseous state to destroy insects and their larvae
and other pests is called
a.aerosol b.fumigant
c.herbicide d.insecticide
e.steam
75. _____________________ is defined as natural poisoning of man or animals through

feeds containing fungi toxins.
a. toxins b. toxigenic c. carcinogenic d. mycotoxicoses
76. Paddy grain with 14% MC wet basis has approximately _____________ MC dry basis
a. 16.3 b. 17.6 c. 15 d. 12.87
77. _____________ are small fissures in the internal endosperm of maize and rice kernels
and are caused by large moisture content gradients within the kernels due to rapid
moisture desorption or adsorption.
a. stress cracks b. kernel damage
c. breakage susceptibility d. viability

78. Determine the quantity of heat evolved in transit by 1000 tons of green Davao bananas
(heat value = 7000 BTU/ton –day) when it is shipped at 54 degrees Fahrenheit to a
destination requiring 5 days travel time. If the other heat loads constitute 50% of the
product load, compute for the tons of refrigeration.
a. 36 b. 40 c. 44 d. 32
79. 200,000 lbs of shelled corn at 24% MC wet basis are dried to 14% MC. Determine the
weight of water removed.
a. 23, 256 lbs b. 20,546 lbs c. 2.56 kg d. 32.65 kg
80. A Carnot refrigerator absorbing heat at –10 degrees Celsius requires 1kW of work for
each 6 kW of heat absorbed. The temperature (K) of heat rejection is
a. 44 b. 225 c. 263 d. 307
81. One face of a copper plate 3cm thick is maintained at 400 degrees Celsius and the other
face is maintained at 100 degrees Celsius. How much heat is transferred through the
plate? Assume thermal conductivity of copper is 370 W / m2 C and density is 8,954
kg/m3.
a. 5.4 kW/ m2 b. 2.45 kW/m2 c. 4.3 kW/m2 d. 3.7 kW/m2
82. Air at 20 degrees Celsius blows over a hot plate 50 by 75 cm maintained at 250 degrees
Celsius. The convection heat transfer coefficient is 25 W/ m2 – K. The heat transfer is
a. 1.725 kW b. 2.2 kW c. 2.5 kW d. 3.125 kW
83. Two infinite black plates at 800 and 300 degrees Celsius exchange heat by radiation. The
heat transfer per unit area (kW/m2) is:
a. 69 b. 54 c.45 d.74
84. How much wet (24%w.b.) palay does a trader need to buy if he wants to get 2 tons of
dried (14%wb) grain:
a. 2263.2 kg b. 3428.25 kg c. 4365.3 kg d.1290.5kg
85. How many kilograms of water are lost from a ton of palay at 20.9% w.b., if the grain
moisture content changes to 15.2% w.b.
a. 67.2 kg b. 54.3 kg c. 24.8 kg d. 48.4 kg
86. How many kilograms of rice hulls are needed to dry 1 ton of palay from 24% to
14%w.b.? Assume latent heat of vaporization is 2500 kJ/ kg and efficiency of 100%.
a. 20.8 b. 21.9 c.22.8 d. 23.6
87. It removes metal by abrasive action. They are used to sharpen tools, shape metals,
prepare metals for welding, and remove undesirable metals
a. drill press b. grinders
c. metal cutting power saws d. power shears
88. A hand tool that permits the creation of threads on rods and shafts
a. taps and die b. lathe machine c. tap wrench and tap d. die and die stock
89. This refers to power tools that are used to cut grooves and ornamental shapes on faces
and edges of wood and other soft material
a. power drill b. power routers c. die and die stock d. tap wrench and tap

90. Power machine that cuts sheet metal, angle bars, round bars, square bars by shear
action of two moveable blades that are made to move by maximized leverage
a. sheet metal circular cutter b. metal cutting power saw
c. square shearing cutter d. power shear
91. Bolts that could only be tightened on one side

a. carriage bolts b. plow bolts
c. round head stove bolts d. flat head stove bolts
92. Metal sheets that are freshly galvanized and are kept hot for a few minutes to allow zinc
to alloy with the steel
a. BI sheets b. Galvanealed sheets c. Copper sheets d. Galvanized sheet
93. Power tool with saw teeth on a continuous blade/ band.

a. power hacksaw b. planers c. bandsaw d. cutoff saw
94. They are machines with rotating knives that are used to straighten and smoothen edges
of boards.
a. planers b. grinders c. jointers d. edge saw
95. Cut nails, duplex nails, cement nails, and all kind of nails and staples are classified as
a. permanent fasteners
b. adjustable
c. temporary fastener
d. semi – permanent fastener
96. It refers to a ferrous metal that is malleable, corrosion resistant, and is relatively tough.
Often used as decorative
a. tool steel b. cast iron
c. stainless steel d. wrought iron e. platinum
97. Safety cross color is

a. blue b. white c. red d. green
98. Materials that are quite brittlebut are used for machine parts like engine blocks
a. pig iron b. tool steel c. wrought iron d. cast iron
99. Sheet metal that is thicker than gauge 22

a. gauge 24 b. gauge 26 c. gauge 14 d. both a and b
100. They are usually metals that are used to assemble, beautify and as a mechanical
devices to facilitate movement
a. hinges b. screws c. hardwares d. nails
Farm Electrification (Pre-Board 2005)
Difficult

1. A 10 ohm resistor is connected in parallel with a capacitive reactance of 24

ohms. What is the total impedance?
(c)
(a) 26.55 ohms (b) 13.73 ohms (c) 9.23 ohms

(d) 14.56 ohms (e) none of the above
2. How much energy is required to operate an 5 hp motor used every other day for
5 hours and a 500 watt lamp used daily for 4 hours a day, both during a 30-day month?
(b)
(a) 195.9 kw-hrs (b) 339.6 kw-hrs (c) 27.8 kw-hrs

(d) 368.6 kw-hrs (e) none of the
above
3. What is the current flowing in the center leg? (d)

2 ohms 4 ohms
(a) 4 amps (b) 6 amps (c) 5 amps 32 V

8 ohms
20 V
(d) 3 amps (e) 7 amps
4. The potential across two points in a complex network is 50 volts. Eight amperes of current are
flowing. What is the Thevenin equivalent circuit? (c)
6.25 ohms 6.25 ohms 6.25 ohms 6.25 ohms 2 ohms
32 V 2.5 V 50 V 6.25 V 1.32 V
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
5. A No. 10 AWG wire transmits a 220 V, 5-amp current through a distance of 2,000 ft. What is
the voltage drop across the line? (b)
(a) 10 volts (b) 20 volts (c) 15 volts

(d) 25 volts (e) none of the above
6. A 30 ohm resistor, a 0.095 Henry inductor and a 318 µfarad capacitor are connected in series
across a 240 volt 60 Hz supply. What is the total impedance of the circuit? (b)
(a) 8.34 ohms (b) 40.68 ohms (c) 25.2 ohms

(d) 32.3 ohms (e) none of the above
Easy
1. A residence is determined to need 60 lighting and convenience outlets, not including those to
be supplied by small appliance circuits. What type and how many 20-amp branch circuits are
needed? (c)
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 5

(d) 10 (e) none of the above
2. An apartment has an outside dimension of 8 m by 10 m and has four appliance circuits. What
is the approximate lighting load. (b)
(a) 4,560 watts (b) 2,560 watts (c) 1,500 watts
(d) 3,000 watts (e) none of the above
3. The resistivity of a wire is 1.69 × 10 -8 ohm-m. If it has a diameter of 0.1 cm, what is its length
if the total resistance is 10 ohms? (b)
(a) 5,674 m (b) 465 m (c) 1,200 m
(d) 350 m (e) none of the above
4. In a 3-phase Y-configuration system, (a)

a. line current and the phase current are equal
b. line voltage and phase voltage are equal
c. phase current always lags the phase voltage
d. phase voltage always lags the phase current
5. A capacitance of 50 μF and a resistance of 200 ohms are connected in series across a 220-V,
60 Hz mains. What is the power factor? (d)
(a) 0.93 (b) 0.75 (c) 0.83
(d) 0.97 (e) none of the above
6. The main advantage for the use of 3-phase systems is that for the same voltage and current,
a 3-wire, 3-phase system will deliver this much amount of power as a 2-wire, single-phase
system. (d)
(a) 3 times (b) 2 times (c) 1.41 times
(d) 1.73 times (e) none of the above
7. What is the magnitude of allowable 2% voltage drop for a 2-wire run with length of 200
meters at 220 volt supply and 8 ampere circuit? (d)
a. 6.5 volts b. 1.5 volts c. 2.3 volts
d. 4.4 volts e. none of the above
8. A certain farm operation that requires rotary power can be successfully performed by hand.
What size of motor is recommended?
(c)
(a) ½ hp (b) 1 hp (c) ¼ hp
(d) 2 hp (d) none of the above
Pre-Board 2006
1. Power factor of an electric circuit can have a value of:

a. -1.0 b. 1.2 c. 0.75 d. 10 e. none of the above
2. From the point of the view of the load, any network which is composed of ideal voltage and
current sources, and of linear resistors, may be represented by an equivalent circuit
consisting of an ideal current source in parallel with an equivalent resistance. This equivalent
circuit is called:

a. Network equivalent b. Thevenin equivalent

c. Norton equivalent d. Kirchoff equivalent
e. none of the above
3. A circuit has a voltage source of 220 V AC. The total load consists of a 50 ohm resistance, 86.7
inductive reactance and 86.7 capacitive reactance connected in series. What is the total
current?
a. 10 amp b. 20 amp c. 30 amp d. 5 amp e. none of the above
4. A farm residence has 37 general purpose outlets. How many 20-ampere branch circuits are
needed?
a.8 b.5 c.l0 d.2 e.20
5. A farm house has a total electrical load of 15,000 watts. What is the total demand load?
a. 5,000 watts b. 6,500 watts
c. 7,200 watts d. 8,300 watts
6. If the voltage is 18 V and the current through three resistors connected in parallel are 0.2 mA,
0.4 mA, and 1.2 mA, respectively, what is the total equivalent resistance?
a. 5 kΩ b. 10 kΩ c. 50 kΩ d. 100 kΩ e. none of the above
7. A 40 watt fluorescent lamp produces 3,000 lumens of light in a room with a dimension of 3
meters by 5 meters. What is the illumination of the floor?
a. 200 lux b. 40 foot-candles
c. 200 foot-candles d. 50 lux
8. A 12 volts dc source supplies power to a resistor. If the current cannot be greater than 0.1
ampere while the power of the resistor cannot be higher than 1 watt, which one will you
choose among the following resistors?
a. 100Ω b. 110Ω c. 120Ω d. 150Ω e. 75Ω
9. In the circuit below, determine the value of the current passing through R2 if the resistance
flowing through each resistor is 2 Ω and the voltage source is 30 V.
I a. 3 amp b. 5 amp
R1 c. 10 amp d. 15 amp
V
R3 R 2
10. A circuit has a 20 ohm resistance and 10 ohm inductive reactance connected in series. If the
total voltage is 220:
a. The total current is 9.84 amp.
b. The voltage drop across the resistor is 196.77 volts.
c. The voltage drop across the inductor is 98.39 volts.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above
11. In the circuit below, no resistances are directly in parallel or directly in series. What is the
total equivalent resistance Rbd?
a
b d
10 ohms
a. 2 ohms b. 3 ohms c. 6 ohms d. 8 ohms e. none of the above
12. In the circuit below, determine the current Iz.
a. 3 amp b. 0.2 amp

c. 0.1 amp d. 7 amp
13. A resistance of 200 Q and capacitance of 1 0 µF are connected in parallel across a 220- V 60-
cycle mains. Determine the power factor.
a.0.60 b.0.70 c.0.80 d.0.90 e. none of the above
14. A prony brake test of a motor gave the following data:

Force = 1.51b; Length of arm = 2 ft; N(rpm) = 170
Electrical meter readings: Current = 7.8 amp, Voltage = 220
Power = 1,100 watts.
What is the power factor?
a. 0.68 b. 0.80 c. 0.75 d. 0.64 e. none of the above
15. Tools that operate in principle similar with hand tools but power is derived from an electric
motor are called.
a. power machine tools d. reciprocating tools
b. hand tools e. all of the above
c. portable power tools
16. When the owner of the Pauleuge hardware recognized the two engineers purchasing the
materials, he gave them a 10 % discount on the purchase. How much did the two engineers
save?
a. approx. 2,000 pesos d. approx. 7,000 pesos
b. approx. 1,000 pesos e. approx. 5,000 pesos
c. approx. 6,000 pesos f. none of the above

17. It refers to lumber with two faces that are planed.

a. Clear lumber d. S 2 S
b. T and G e. particle board
c. timber
18. Engr. Ines is estimating the area of her perfectly square farm lot. Pacing a side of his lot, he
counted 110 paces. If her pace factor is 0.65 m/pace, what is the area of his lot?
a. 153.85 m d. 6,112.25 m2
b. 71.5 m2 e. 0.64 has.
c. 0.511225 has.
19. Engr. Balalio and Engr. Macaroy were asked by Dean Santos to design 5 pcs. of work
benches for the AE REVIEW 2015. The engineers found out that they needed 10 pcs. of
2"x3"xI2' and 6 pcs. of 2"x2"xI2 for each work bench. How many board feet of lumber would
they need per piece of workbench?
a. 420 board feet d. 5040 board feet
b. 84 board feet e. 100 board feet
c. 648 board feet
20. The Engineers are going to buy the wood materials from the Pauleuge Contractors and
Hardware Supplies, How much money do they need to purchase all lumber materials, if a
board foot of lumber costs 24 pesos?
a. P2,016 b. P7,600 c. P15,552 d. P120,960 e. P10,080
21. The following tools could be used for layout work, except __________.
a. vernier caliper d. chalkline
b. micrometer e. all of the above
c. auger bit
22. Tools used to cut, chop, saw, or otherwise remove materials. (saws, chisels, planes, axes and
wedges, cutters, files, taps and dies)
a. layout tools d. turning tools
b. cutting tools e. boring tools
c. testing tools
23. Among the following names of wood/lumbers, which is not a hardwood?

a. ipil-ipil d. mahogany
b. pine e. a and c
c. langka
24. Thirty pounds of ice at 32°F is placed in 100 lb of water at 100°F. Assume the latent heat of
fusion of water is 144 Btu per lb. If no heat is lost or added to the mixture, the temperature
when equilibrium is reached is:
a. 49°F b. 500°F c. 51°F d. 52°F e. 53°F

25. An automobile tire is inflated to 32 psig pressure at 50°F. After being driven, the temperature
rises to 75°F. Assuming that the volume remains constant, the final gage pressure is:
a. 34.4 psig b. 37.4 psig c. 39.4 psig d. 43.4 psig e. 44.3 psig
26. What is the temperature of 2 liters of water at 30°C after 500 cal of heat have been added to
it?
a. 23.50°C b. 25.30°C c. 30.25°C d. 35.20°C e. 38.25°C
27. If the density of a gas is 0.003 slugs per cubic foot, what is the specific weight of the gas?
a. 9.04 N/m3 b. 15.2 N/m3 c. 30.4 N/m3 d. 76.3 N/m3 e. 98.2 N/m3
28. On what plane is the Mollier diagram plotted?

a. p-V b. p-T c. h-s d. T-s e. P-h
29. The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the following principles?
a. conservation of mass d. the enthalpy-entropy relationship
b. conservation of momentum e. action-reaction
c. conservation of energy
30. What is the value of the work done for a closed, reversible, isometric system?
a.zero d. may be positive, negative or zero
b.positive e. cannot be determined
c. negative
31. Mathematically, a thermodynamic property is which of the following?

a.a point function d. exact differential
b.discontinuous e. linear function
c. a path function
32. What is the most efficient thermodynamic cycle?

a. Carnot b. Diesel c. Otto d. Rankine e. Brayton
33. The maximum thermal efficiency possible for a power cycle operating between 1200°F and
225°F is:
a. 57.00% b. 57.50% c. 57.54% d. 58.00% e. 58.73%
34. Determine the thermal conductivity of a wood that is used in a 1.5 meter square test panel,
25 mm thick. If during a 4-hour test period there are conducted 190,000 J through the panel
with a temperature differential of 6°C, between the surfaces.
a. 0.0244 W/m°C d. 0.0422 W/m°C
b. 0.0255 W/m°C e. 0.0933 W/m°C
c. 0.0322 W/m°C
35. The walls of a cold storage plant are composed of an insulating material (k=0.2336 kJ/hr

m2°C) 10.16 cm thick held between two layers of concrete (k=3.7382 kJ/hr m 2°C) each 10.16
cm thick. The film coefficients are 81.76 kJ/hr m 2°C on the outside and 40.88 kJ/hr m 2°C on
the inside. Cold storage temperature is -6.7°C and the ambient temperature is 32.2°C.
Determine the heat transmitted in kW through an area of 55.74 m 2.
a. 1.14 kW b. 1.25 kW c. 1.74 kW d. 1.81 kW e. 1.95 kW
36. A 12 in thick furnace wall with a dimension of 5 m by 2 m has a temperature difference of

60°C. The wall has a thermal conductivity of 0.75 Btu/hr.ft.oF. Calculate the heat transmitted
across the wall
a. 2440 W b. 2445 W c. 2455 W d. 2545 W e. 2554 W
37. In sensible cooling process, the moisture content:

a. does not change d. can either increase or decrease
b. decreases e. cannot be determined
c. Increases
38. An ideal fluid is one that:

a. is very viscous d. is assumed in problems in conduit flow
b. is also a Newtonian flow e. frictionless and incompressible
c. obeys Newton’s law of viscosity
39. At critical point the latent of enthalpy of vaporization is

a. only depends on temperature d. maximum
b. zero e. optimum
c. minimum
40. How much heat, kJ, must be transferred to 20 kg of air to increase the temperature from
20°C to 280°C if the pressure is maintained constant:
a. 2050 b. 2500 c. 5200 d. 5500 e. 27000
41. At an average temperature of 100°C, hot air flows through a 2.5 m long tube with an inside
diameter of 50 mm. The temperature of the tube is 20°C along its length. Convective heat
transfer coefficient is 20.1 W/m2 K. Determine the heat transfer from air to the tube.
a. 624 W b. 632 W c. 900 W d. 909 W e. 765 W
42. Calculate the energy transfer rate across 6 in wall of firebrick with a temperature difference
across the wall of 50°C. The thermal conductivity of the firebrick is 0.65 BtuJhr.ft.°F at the
temperature of interest.
a. 112 W/m2 b. 285 W/m2 c. 369 W/m2 d. 429 W/m2 e. 568 W/m2
43. The law governing the transfer of radiation energy from a black body is known as
a. Newtons law of cooling d. Provost law of exchanges
b. Stefan Boltzmann law e. Fouriers law
c. Kirchoff law

44. When a system deviates infinitesimally from equilibrium at every instant of its state, it is
undergoing:
a. isobaric process. d. isentropic process
b. quasi-steady process e. cyclic process
c. isometric process
45. Dew point is defined as:

a. the temperature to which the air must be cooled at constant pressure to produce
saturation
b. the point where the pressure and temperature lines meet
c. the point where the dry bulb and wet bulb temperature lines meet
d. the temperature which dew is formed in the air
e. the pressure which dew is formed in the air
46. A room being air conditioned is being held at 25°C dry bulb and 50% relative humidity. A
flow rate of 5 m3/s of supply air at 15°C dry bulb and 80% relative humidity is being
delivered to the room to maintain that steady condition. What is the sensible heat absorbed
from the room air in kW?
a. 40.5 b. 50.8 c. 60.8 d. 70.9 e. 80.9
47. The specific measurement of moisture content in air is

a. relative humidity d. moisture ratio
b. percent saturation e. specific humidity
c. degree of saturation
48. Which of the following refrigerants is most highly toxic?

a. ammonia b. R-12 c. R-22 d. Sulphur dioxide e. Methyl chloride
49. Throttling of the refrigerant through the expansion valve in a vapor refrigeration cycle is
a. reversible adiabatic process d. isometric process
b. irreversible adiabatic process e. isothermal process
c. constant entropy process
50. A Carnot reversed engine receives 130 Btu of heat from a hot reservoir at 700°F and rejects
49 Btu of heat. Calculate the temperature of the cold reservoir.
a. -20.8°F b. -21.9°F c. -22.7°F d. -24.2 OF e. -23.2°F
51. Fish weighing 5,000 kg with a temperature of 6°C is brought to a cold storage and which
shall be cooled to -14°C in 24 hours. Find the cooling load required if the specific heat ofthe
fish is 0.7 kcal per kg per °C above freezing andO.3 kcal per kg per °C below freezing which
is -2.2°C. The latent heat of freezing
a. 4.46 ton b. 5.46 ton c. 6.44 ton d. 15.7 ton e. 19.8 ton
52. In an air conditioning unit 3.5 cubic meter per second of air at 27°C dry bulb and 50% RH

(v=0.85 m3/kg, h=55.2 kJ/kg, w=0.0112 kg/kg) and standard atmospheric pressure enters
the unit. The leaving condition of the air is BOC dry bulb and 90% RH (h=34 kJ/kg,
w=0.0083 kg/kg). Calculate the refrigerating effect in kW and the rate of water removal.
a. 78.3 and 0.102 d.83.7andO.021
b. 78.3 and 0.012 e. 87.3 and 0.012
c. 73.8 and 0.102
53. The refrigerating capacity of a R-12 system is 22 kW. Compressor power is 7.8 hp. Determine
the COP of the refrigeration system.
a. 1.85 b. 2.22 c. 2.82 d. 3.78 e. 5.21
54. A sample of com weighing 105 g is heated in an oven kept at 130°C for 30 h. The sample
when removed from the oven weighs 88.5 g. Assuming that all the moisture has been
removed, the moisture content is
a. 15.7% b. 18.6 % c. 19.2 % d. 30.0 % e. 31.9 %
55. In a flat bed dryer, as the airflow rate (m3/s.m2) is increased exponentially, the pressure
drop per meter depth
a. remains constant d. is increased exponentially
b. is increased linearly e. is decreased exponentially
c. is decreased linearly
56. The process of mixing two or more different products together, such as grains or
supplements, to obtain desired food ratios, or the process of mixing different quantities of
the same product with different moisture contents to obtain a final mass with uniform
moisture content is called
a. Aeration b. batching c. blending d. casing e. turning
57. A sample of com has moisture content of 14% wet basis. What is its moisture content in dry
basis?
a. 11.8% b. 12.3% c. 14.0% d. 16.3% e. 24.0%
58. Given in a drying experiment:

Moisture Ratio = 0.20
Initial Moisture Content = 24%
Final Moisture Content = 16%
Estimate the equilibrium moisture content.
a. 12% b. 14% c. 18% d. 24% e. 30%
59. The ratio of the weight of water vapor in a given volume of air at a given temperature to the
maximum quantity of water vapor which the same volume of air could hold at the same
temperature is called
a. absolute humidity d. specific volume
b. equilibrium moisture content e. vapor pressure
c. relative humidity

60. If the drying air's relative humidity is reduced to zero, then the equilibrium moisture content
of the crop becomes
a. 0% b. 12% c. 14% d. 18% e..20%
61. The equalization of moisture or temperature throughout the product, bringing a product to
desired moisture content or temperature for processing is called
a. Modulation b. recirculation c. tempering d. turning e. ventilation
62. The allowable load and lateral resistance for wood screws in the side grain of seasoned wood
is expressed by the following formula:
a. P = KD3/2 b. P = KD2 c. P = 115060D5/6 d. P = KD5 e. none of the above
63. Its use in farm structures has gained wider coverage in the form of sheets for roofing and
other covering layers, framing parts, grain storage units and others.
a. concrete b. masonry c. metals d. wood e. none of the above
64. A man would like to build a rectangular room having a 5 m x 4 m x 3m (l-w-h) dimension.
Estimate the no. of concrete hollow blocks needed (exclude the foundations).
a. 750 b. 225 c. 675 d. 525 e. 425
For numbers 65-68:

A farmer would like to cement the flooring of his warehouse with a total volume of 150 m3.
Determine the material required using 20 liters of water for every bag of cement and a 1:3:6
mixture.
65. How many bags of cement are needed?

a. 6 b. 830 c. 85 d. 8,000 e. 42
66. How many cu. meters of sand are needed?

a. 1 b. 70 c. 140 d. 700 e. 1400
67. How many cu. meters of gravel are needed?

a. 45 b. 80 c. 140 d. 235 e. 185
68. How many liters of water are needed?

a. 200 b. 5,000 c. 16,600 d. 19,000 e. 8,000
69. The chief purpose of painting is to add to the appearance of buildings and
a. to maintain the hardness of the materials
b. to preserve them from the effects of the weather
c. to prevent insect attack on the materials
d. to reinforce the strength of the materials

70. Suppose that the wooden beam to be used is triangular in shape, what will be its section
modulus if its base is 30 cm and its height is 25 cm?
a. 585.94 cm3 b. 703.12 cm3 c. 781.25 cm3 d. 937.5 cm3 e. 973.5 cm3
71. The loads produced by moving machines, animals or persons are called:
a. dead loads b. live loads c. pasa loads d. wind loads e. none of the above
72. It is the ratio of stress to strain. Thomas Young introduced this as a constant of
proportionality that came to be known as:
a. elasticity d. moment of inertia
b. modulus of elasticity e. none of the above
c. modulus of rupture
73. Which feature of construction does not necessarily refer to the use of concrete?
a. comparatively stronger and more durable than bricks
b. especially adaptable to watertight constructions
c. higher strength in tension
d. particularly suitable for foundations, pillars, walls, floors and for constructing water tanks
74. The allowable load that can be supported by a 10" x 12" simple wood beam having a span of
4 m if it is designed to resist bending stress only (allowable bending stress = 16.5 MPa).
a. 30 kN-m b. 40 kN-m c. 64 kN-m d. 75 kN-m e. 54 kN-m
75. The maximum moment in a 5-m long beam carrying loads of 10 kN and 15 kN acting at 1 m
and 3 m from the left, respectively.
a. 14 kN-m b. 22 kN-m c. 28 kN-m d. 44 kN-m e. 34 kN-m
76. Referring to problem no. 15, what will be the maximum shear?
a. 6.25 kN b. 8.75 kN c. 11 kN d. 14 kN e. 12.2 kN
77. From problem no. 15, what will be the maximum horizontal shearing stress if rectangular
beam has a cross-section of b=12 cm and d = 20 cm?
a. 875 kPa b. 1000 kPa c. 975 kPa d. 500 kPa e. 675 kPa
78. The effective width covering of 1 1/2 corrugation side lapping of corrugated G.I. sheet is:
a. 50 cm b. 60 cm c. 70 cm d. 80 cm d. 90 cm
For numbers 79 to 81:

A 15 cm x 20 cm wooden column with an unbraced length of 7 m is used to carry an axial
load P. The allowable compressive stress parallel to grain and modulus of elasticity are 10 MPa
and 35 GPa, respectively.
79. The column above is classified as:

a. intermediate b. long c. short d. special e. none of the above

80. The modified allowable compressive stress is equal to:

a. 2.35 MPa b. 3.63 MPa c. 4.82 MPa d. 8.55 MPa e. 6.24 MPa
81. The maximum load P the column can support is:

a. 70.5 kN b. 87.63 kN c. 108.9 kN d. 144.6 kN e. 135.5 kN
82. Determine the largest weight W that can be supported by the two wires shown in the figure.
The stress in either wire is not to exceed 30 ksi. The cross sectional areas of wires AB and
AC are 0.4 in2 and 0.5 in2, respectively.
a. 12.5 kips b. 17.1 kips c. 20.2 kips d. 35 kips e. 28.9 kips

83. The total building floor area requirement for 1,000 fattening hogs (100 to 200 lbs) is:
a. 6000 - 10000 sq ft d. 5200 - 6000 sq ft
b. 4000 - 4500 sq ft e. 2000 - 2500 sq ft
c. 3000 - 3500 sq ft
84. The total building floor area requirement for 10,000 hens:
a. 1859 - 3252 sq. m d. 5001- 5982 sq. m
b. 3346 - 4182 sq. m e. none of the above
c. 3904 - 4648 sq. m
85. The process of strengthening concrete through hydration is known as:

a. annealing d. curing
b. tempering e. none of the above
c. hydrolysis
Rural Electrification (Pre-Board 2007)
1.If the total electric load of a certain farm residence is 145,500 watts, find the total demand
load to be considered in selecting the size of conductor wire?
a. 50, 325 b. 53,250 c. 52,000 d. 50,200 e. 50,350
2.There are 42 general purpose outlets in a farm building. If 15-ampere branch circuits are
desired, how many branch circuits are needed?
a. 6 b. 5 c. 7 d. 8 e. 4

3.In an 18-Volt circuit, the current passing through four resistors are 1.6 mA, 0.8 mA, 1.5
mA, and 0.65 mA, respectively. Calculate the total equivalent resistance if the resistors
are connected in parallel.
a. 3.9 b. 3.96 c. 3.8 d. 2.95 e. 2.97
4.In AC installation, a factor called power factor must be included in the computation of
power. This “safety” factor could take a value of:
a. 0.75 b. 0.9 c. 0.95 d. 0.99 e. all of the choices
5.There are three circuit components connected in series. These are 0.075 Henry inductor,
21 ohm resistor, and 415 microFarad capacitor. Find the total impedance of the circuit to
be considered if the source frequency is 60 Hz.
a. 31.32 b. 32.31 c. 40.33 d. 41.2 e. 30.33
6. The percent voltage drop must not exceed 2% for a 230 Volt feeder line at 20 ampere
rating. If No. 14 AWG wire of 2.58 resistance in ohm/1000 ft. is to be used, compute for the
allowable wire length for a 2-wire feeder line.
a. 18 meters b. 12 meters c. 10 meters d. 25 meters e. 60 meters
7.Electrical equipment such as alternators, generators, and electric motors operate based on
what law(s):
a. Kirchoff’s laws b. electromagnetism c. Ohm’s law d. Newton’s law
e. all of the choices given
8.For a given voltage source of 220 V at 50 Hz, a special electric motor required 1.962 kW
and 9.5 amperes. Find the power factor of the motor.
a. 0.96 b. 0.84 c. 0.94 d. 0.86 e. 0.75
9.This wire has a diameter smaller than a No. 12 AWG wire.

a. No. 8 AWG b. No. 6 AWG c. No. 10 AWG d. 3.5mm2 e. none of the choices
10. A complete electrical circuit must have:

a. switch b. power source c. complete wires d. electrical load e. all of the choices
11. It is a device which serves as the first link between the service entrance entrance switch
and the generator.
a. transmission line b. distribution line c. fuse d. transformer
e. none of the choices
12. These are materials where the electrons in the outer shells have low resistance to
movement.
a. conductors b. insulators c. semi-conductors d. capacitors
e. inductors
13. A classification of electric current where electricity flows in one direction only.
a. alternating current b. direct current c. current source d. voltage source
e. all of the choices
14. Any wall space greater than this linear distance must have a wall outlet.
a. 1.8 meters b. 0.6 meter c. 2.0 meters d. 0.75 meter e. 1.9 meters

15. According to the guideline, for each area of this size one 20-ampere circuit must be
provided.
a. 32 mm2 b. 24 mm2 c. 46 mm2 d. 48 mm2 e. 52 mm2
16. The rules say that this number of outlets must be allowed for a 15-ampere circuit.
a. 8 to 10 b. 8 to 12 c. 6 to 10 d. 6 to 8 e. 10 to 12
17. A factor of this value in watts per square meter must be used for all floor area excluding
porches, garages, basements or unused or unfinished spaces not adaptable for future use.
a. 24 b. 36 c. 32 d. 42 e. 46
18. For small appliance circuit in residence a load of this amount must be assumed.
a. 1,500 kW b. 1,550 watts c. 1.5 kW d. 1.6 amperes e. 1.2 amperes
19. If 4 or more fixed appliances are included, this demand factor can be used on the total of
the fixed appliances.
a. 35% b. 65% c. 45% d. 50% e. 75%
20. For electric ranges over 12 kW, this number of kW must be added to 8 kW for each one
kW over 12 kW to get the demand load.
a. 0.2 b. 0.3 c. 0.4 d. 0.5 e. 0.1
21. Service entrance must have ampacity rate equal to or greater than the calculated value.
Common sizes includes the following except:
a. 200 b. 50 c. 60 d. 150 e. 100
22. Light intensity at a given point is measured in
a. lumens b. candela c. foot-candle d. flouresence e. lux
23. When the resistance of a certain circuit is zero or almost zero, the circuit is called
a. series b. shorted c. grounded d. open e. overloaded
24. It is a basic electrical element which prevents the current from changing instantly.
a. inductor b. resistor c. capacitor d. insulator e. conductor
25. When a 2-ohm, a 4-ohm, and a 6-ohm resistors are in delta connection, the equivalent
resistors in Wye connection are:
a. 7.3, 22, 12 ohms b. 7.3, 12, 11 ohms c. 8.3, 22, 11 ohms
d. 8.3, 11, 13 ohms e. 7.3, 22, 11 ohms
26. A 2-ampere current source in parallel with a 4-ohm resistor can be represented by an
equivalent voltage source consisting of a 0.25-mho conductance in series with source of:
a. 2 Volts b. 4 Volts c. 6 Volts d. 8 Volts e. 10 Volts
27. Four resistors connected in parallel have resistances equal to 3, 6, 9, and 12 ohms,
respectively. The equivalent single resistor is
a. 1. 44 ohms b. 1 and 11/25 ohms c. 36/35 ohms d. 72/50 ohms
28. A 1-ohm and a 2-ohm resistors connected in series are in turn connected in parallel with
the series combination of a 4-ohm and 6-ohm resistors. What is the total current flowing
through the circuit when the voltage source is 10 V?

a. 3.5 amperes b. 4 amperes c. 2.5 amperes d. 3.0 amperes e. 4.5 amperes
29. Since it is required that lighting controls should be located to be able to light the path
ahead and turn off lights without retracing steps, if a big room has two doors then the
appropriate switches to use are:
a. three-way switches b. two-way switches
c. four-way switches d. one-way switches
30. The instrument used to measure the speed of the electric motor is:
a. wattmeter b. tachometer c. velocimeter d. kW-hr meter e. Vernier meter
Answers:
1. d 2. b 3. b 4. e 5. e
6. c 7. b 8. c 9. e 10. e
11. d 12. a 13. b 14. b 15. c
16. a 17. c 18. c 19. e 20. a
21. b 22. c 23. b 24. a 25. e
26. d 27. e 28. a 29. a 30. B
Pre-Board 2008
1. Type of loading system wherein it acts at a single point and is usually represented by a
single arrow down in the direction and through the point of action of the force.
a. concentrated load
b. uniformly varying load
c. uniformly distributed load
d. live load
e. dead load
2. Wind loads and earthquake loads are not classified as live load
a.True b. False c. Neither a nor b
d. Partially true e. Partially false
3. Measure of the tendency of beam to bend due to forces acting on it
a.Vertical shear b. Horizontal shear
c. Bending moment d. Torsion
e. Normal stress
4. Maximum moment occurs at beam section at which shear diagram passes thru
a. Zero b. Maximum positive value
c. Maximum negative value d. None of the above
e. All of the above
5. A term used to describe the shape of the beam having a negative bending moment
a. Sagging b. Hogging c. Hopping d. Slipping e. Dipping
6. Which of the following is not a useful information provided by SMD?
a. It shows the most likely section where a beam may fail in shear or bending.
b. Provides data for proper reinforcements of concrete.
c. Provides information on bending moment at any point.

d. Gives an idea about the deflected shape of the beam (bending moment
diagrams).
7. A type of stress resulting from 2 equal and parallel forces acting in different directions,
causing adjoining surfaces of a member to slide one on the other.
a. Normal stress b. Shear stress c. Bearing stress
d. Bending stress e. Sesame stress
8. When the gravel or coarse aggregate is omitted from concrete, the mixture is generally
called:
a. Paste b. Mortar c. Plastic d. Solution e. None of the above
9. Specific gravity of sand?
a. 3.15 b. 2.65 c. 2.66 d. 3.14 e. 1
10. Recommended concrete proportions (mixture) for filling and massive work not exposed
to severe weather.
a. 1 : ½ : 3 b. 1 : 2 : 3 c. 1 : 2 : 3 ½ d. 1 : 2 ½ : 4 e. 1 : 3 : 5
11. The standard length and width of a concrete hollow block:
a. 30cm x 15cm b. 40cm x 20cm c. 50cm x 25cm
d. 25cm x 10cm e. 35cm x 15cm
12. A type of concrete hollow block where thickness ranges from 7.5cm to 10cm
a. Bearing b. Non-bearing c. Compressive d. Non-compressive e. Tensile
13. Thickness of G.I. sheet usually used for gutters and flushing
a. Gauge 14 b. Gauge 16 c. Gauge 20 d. Gauge 24 e. Gauge 30
14. The unsupported length of a column divided by its least dimension in cross-section is
known as
a. Beam ratio b. Slenderness value
c. Slenderness ratio d. Column ratio
15. Determine the quantity of CHB needed for a 15m x 4m (ground line included) wall.
a. 500 b. 750 c. 1000 d. 1250 e. none of the above
16. Design an economical square wood column that will support an axial load of 350 kN. The
unsupported length is 4m and c = 5 MPa. Use E = 2 GPa.
a. 0.26m x 0.26m
b. 0.30m x 0.30m
c. 0.32m x 0.32m
d. 0.35m x 0.35m
e. 0.38m x 0.38m
17. From question #17, identify what is the type/classification of column to be used
a. Short b. Intermediate c. Long d. Extra short e. Midget
18-20. Margarita would like to cement the flooring of her palay warehouse with a total
volume of 150m3. Determine the material required using 20 liters of water for every
bag of cement and a 1:2.5:5 mixture.
18. Determine the required number of bags of cement.
a. 500 b. 800 c. 950 d. 1,100 e. none of the above
19. Determine the required cubic meters of sand.
20. Determine the required cubic meter of gravel
21. A 6” x 12” Katmon beam has a span of 4m. Determine the maximum concentrated load
(kN) applied at the center of span if the beam is to be designed only to resist bending
stress? Use b = 1225 psi.
a. 88.2 kips b. 176.4 kips c. 58.8 kips d. 117.6 kips e. none of the above

22. A 4m long Apitong beam, 200mm x 300mm width and depth respectively, is supported
on both ends by 3m long Guijo posts (square cross section). Determine the maximum
safe uniformly distributed load that can be supported by the beam and the column
structure. Allowable values for Apitong:
v = 1.10 MPa b = 16.3 MPa br = 2.59 MPa a= L/360 E = 20 GPa
E = 12.4 GPa c = 12.4 MPa
Allowable values for Guijo:
a. w= 227.355 kN/m b. w= 51.8 kN/m c. w= 22 kN/m
d. w= 24.45 kN/m e. w= 30 kN/m
23. A cantilever truss is loaded as shown. Determine the cross sectional area of BD if the
stresses will not exceed 60 MPa in compression or 90 MPa in tension.
a. 75 mm2
b. 192.45 mm2
c. 256.60 mm2
d. 866.03 mm2
e. 1000 mm2
24. The 180-mm diameter steel shaft (G=80 GPa) has a 120-mm diameter bronze core
(G=40 GPa) inserted in 4 m of the right end and securely bonded to the steel. When torque
of 50 and 35 KN-m are applied as shown, determine the maximum shearing stress in bronze.
a. 11.30 MPa
b. 13.10 MPa
c. 33.91 MPa
d. 52.84 MPa
e. 63.24 MPa
25. Determine the deflection at midspan if E=200 GPa and I NA=1.52344 x 106 m4
a. 1.5203 x 10-3 m
b. 3.0247 x 10-3 m
c. 4.2483 x 10-3 m
d. 5.8410 x 10-3 m
e. 6.1234 x 10-3 m
26. A detailed, exact statement of particulars, especially a statement describing

materials, dimensions, and quality of work for something to be built, installed, or
manufactured.
a. Contracts b. Bids c. Specifications d. Laws e. standards
27. The equivalent of three 2-ohm resistors in parallel is

a. 1.5 ohm b. 0.67 ohm c. 6 ohm d. 4 ohm e. none of the above

28. Today’s move to save on electricity includes the substitution of incandescent lamp by
CFL. CFL means:
a. Carbon filament lamp b. Carbon fluorescent lamp
c. Carbon fixing lamp d. Convenient fluorescent lamp
29. In a capacitive circuit,
a. the current lags the voltage
b. the voltage is ahead of the current
c. the voltage and current are in phase
d. the current leads the voltage
30. In an inductive circuit,
a. the current lags the voltage
b. the voltage lags the current
c. the voltage and current are in phase
d. the current leads the voltage
31. In a three-phase delta configuration,
a. the line current and the phase current are equal
b. the line voltage and the phase voltage are equal
c. the line current is less than the phase current
d. the line voltage is greater than the phase voltage
32. The human body has high resistance when:
a. the skin is wet b. the skin is dry c. the body is grounded
d. the body is covered with clothes e. none of the above
33. In an electrical wiring system, the color of ‘hot’ wires is:
a. red or black b. green or yellow c. white or green d. white only
34. Ohm’s law states that:
a. the current flowing in a circuit is directly proportional to the voltage;
b. the current flowing in a circuit is directly proportional to the resistance;
c. the voltage drop across a resistor is inversely proportional to the resistance;
d. the voltage drop across a resistor is inversely proportional to the current;
35. While continuously running at 230 AC voltage supply, a 4-hp motor is expected to
draw up an average of:
a. 7.7 amps b. 5.6 amps c. 0.3 amps d. 13 amp e. none of the above
36. A 15-amp fuse will not blow in a 230 voltage circuit if the impedance of the load is
equivalent to:
a. 20 ohms b. 7 ohms c. 10 ohms d. 5 ohms e. none of the above
37. A 10 ohm resistor and a 6 ohm inductor are connected in parallel. The equivalent
total impedance is:
a. 6.234 ohm b. 5.145 ohm c. 3.456 ohm d. 2.653 ohm e. none of the above
38. Select the proper wire needed to maintain a 3% or less voltage drop for a 5 ampere
load at 220 voltage located 100 meters from the distribution point. Use the table below:
AWG Number Ohm/1000 ft Ohm/1000 meter

16 4.020 13.18
14 2.525 8.28
12 1.588 5.21

10 1.000 3.28
8 0.628 2.06
a. No. 16 b. No. 14 c. No. 12 d. No. 10 e. none of the above
39. Determine the current passing through R3 in the circuit below.
5 ohm
10 volts 10 ohm R3 = 10 ohm
a. 0.2 amp b. 0.3 amp c. 0.5 amp d. 1.0 amp e. none of the above
40. Determine the current passing through R3 in the circuit below.
R3 = 10 ohm
10 ohm
10 ohm
10 ohm
10 volt
a. 0.2 amp b. 0.3 amp c. 0.5 amp d. 1.0 amp e.

none of the above
41. Determine the current passing through R3 in the circuit. All resistors have 10 ohm
resistance.

10 volts
R3
42. Determine the current passing through R3 in the circuit. All resistors have 10 ohm
resistance.
R3
10 volts
43. Determine the voltage drop across R3 in the circuit below. All resistors have 10 ohm
resistance.
R3
220 volts
a. 48.89 volts b. 35.44 volts c. 171.11 volts d. 123.93 volts

44. Determine the current passing through R3 in the circuit below. All resistors have 10 ohm
resistance.

10 ohm
220 volts R3
a. 8.893 amp b. 3.444 amp c. 2.444 amp

d. 12.935 amp e. none of the above
45. . Determine the voltage drop across R3 in the circuit below. All resistors have 10 ohm
resistance.
R3
220 volts
a. 82.893 volt b. 171.11 volt c. 23.444 volt

d. 122.935 volt e. none of the above
46. A 0.5 hp 220 V motor is located 50 meters from the service entrance. If the full load
current is 5 amp, what size of wire is required to supply power if the allowable voltage
drop is 2%? Use table below.
AWG Number Ohm/1000 ft Ohm/1000 meter

16 4.020 13.18
14 2.525 8.28
12 1.588 5.21
10 1.000 3.28
8 0.628 2.06
a. No. 16 b. No. 14 c. No. 12 d. No. 10 e. none of the above
47. In a Y-resistor network, the three resistors have equal resistance of 10 ohms. The
resistors in an equivalent Δ-resistor network must have resistance of:
a. 3.33 ohms b. 30 ohmsc. 33.33 ohms d. 0.33 ohms
48. In a Δ-resistor network, the three resistors have resistance of 40 ohms, 20 ohms and 30
ohms. The resistors in an equivalent Y-resistor network must have resistance of:
a. 13.33 ohms, 8.89 ohms and 6.67 ohms
b. 30 ohms, 50 ohms and 40 ohms

c. 13.33 ohms, 9.56 ohms and 3.33 ohms

d. 0.33 ohms, 6.67 ohms and 8.34 ohms
49. A circuit load consists of a 10 ohm resistor and a 6 ohm inductor in parallel as shown in
the figure. If they are connected to a 110 volt power source with an internal resistance
of 4 ohm, what is the voltage across the parallel load?
4 ohm 10 ohm
j6 ohm
110 V
a. 100 V b. 89.23 V c. 70.94 V d. 93.22 V e. none of the above
50. A circuit load consists of a 10 ohm resistor and a 6 ohm inductor in parallel as shown in
the figure. If they are connected to a 110 volt power source with an internal resistance
of 4 ohm, what is the real power absorbed by parallel load?
4 ohm 10 ohm
j6 ohm
110 V
a. 542.7 watts b. 503.2 watts c. 589.3 watts

d. 600.7 watts e. none of the above
51. In the circuit below, if the frequency is 60 Hz, what is the value of current I 1?
2 ohm
110 V 5 ohm
I1
2,000 μF
52. A 2 ohm, a 5 ohm resistor, and a 2,000 μF capacitor are connected in series. What is the
power factor?

53. A 2 ohm, a 5 ohm resistor, and a 2,000 μF capacitor are connected in series. What is the
real power absorbed by the 5 ohm resistor?
a. 1,192 watts b. 3,234 watts c. 3,452 watts
d. 980 watts e. non of the above
54. At a frequency of 60 Hz, determine the total equivalent impedance of the 2 resistors, 1
inductor and 1 capacitor connected in the figure below.
50 ohm
100 ohm 10 mH
10μF
a. 212.55 ohm b. 123.66 ohm c. 101.91 + j90.39 d. 212.82 – j23.5

55. A 100 kW load with pf= 0.7 (lagging) is connected to a 480 volt source. A capacitor is
connected in parallel to improve power factor. What is the required capacitance?
100 kW
480 V
pf = 0.7
.
a. 34 μF b. 1,174 μF c. 4,700 μF d. 2,005 μF e. none of the above
56. For the circuit in the figure, if the frequency is 60 Hz, what is reactive power absorbed
by the reactance load?
2 ohm
110 V 5 ohm
I1
2,000 μF
a. 154 amp b. 505 amp c. 316 amp d. 450 amp e. none of the above

57. The ideal gas is a model fluid that is useful because it is described by simple equations
frequently applicable as good approximations for actual gases. In an ideal gas where
there is no molecular interaction, the internal energy of a gas depends on temperature
only. The ratio of PV/RT which is given the symbol Z is called
a. compressibility factor
b. ideal gas ratio
c. universal gas constant
d. virial coefficient
e. volume expansivity
58. 1 kW-h is equivalent to

a. 1.341 hp-h b. 3.6 MJ c. 1,000 J d. 778.16 Btu e. 778.16 Btu/hr
59. The quality (x) of a two-phase mixture is defined as the fraction of mass of the vapor in
the liquid-vapor mixture. The “conservation” of the total property is expressed by m Xmix
= mf Xf + mg Xg hence
a. Xmix = Xg – (1+x)Xfg
b. Xmix = Xg + (1-x)Xfg
c. Xmix = Xg – (1-x)Xfg
d. Xmix = Xf - x Xg
e. Xmix = Xf + x Xg
60. An internally reversible system loses heat to its surroundings. The entropy of the system
a. remains the same
b. decreases
c. increases
d. may increase or remain constant
e. may increase , decrease or remain constant
61. Water flows into the top of an open barrel at a constant mass flow rate of 30 lb/s. Water
exits through a pipe near the vase with a mass flow rate proportional to the height of
liquid inside: me =9 L, where L is the instantaneous liquid height, in ft. The area of the
base is 3 ft3, and the density of water is 62.4 lb/ft3. If the barrel is initially empty,
determine the liquid height 60s after start of filling.
a. 0 ft b. 1.14 ft c. 2.64 ft d. 3.14 ft e. 3.33 ft
62. Glass wool of thermal conductivity 0.038 W/m.°C is to be used to insulate an ice box. If
the maximum heat loss should not exceed 45 W/m2 for a temperature of 40°C across the
walls of the ice box, then the thickness of the insulation is
a. 1.2 cm b. 2.5 cm c. 3.4 cm d. 4.3 cm e. 6.9 cm
63. A 25-cm diameter sphere at 120°C is suspended in air at 20°C. If the natural convection
heat transfer between the sphere and the air is 15 W/m2.C, then the rate of heat loss
from the sphere is
a. 75.0 W b. 150.0 W c. 294.5 W d. 375.2 W e. 3,000 W
64. One surface of a thin plate is exposed to a uniform heat flux of 500 W/m 2, and the other
side dissipates heat by radiation to an environment at -10°C. Determine the temperature
of the plate. Assume blackbody conditions for radiation.
a. 35.1°C b. 52.8°C c. 102.5°C d. 341.5 K e. 458.2 K
65. A cylindrical insulation for a steam pipe has an inside radius r i = 6 cm, outside radius ro =
8 cm, and a thermal conductivity k = 0.5 W/m.C. The inside surface of the insulation is
at a temperature Ti =430°C and the outside at To= 30°C. Determine the heat loss per 1-
m length of this insulation.
a. 2,395 W/m b. 3,459 W/m c. 4,368 W/m

b. d. 6,341 W/m e. 23, 800 W/m

66. In laminar flow, as the surface roughness is increased the friction
a. remains the same
b. decreases
c. increases
d. may increase or decrease
e. cannot be determined
67. An air-conditioning system operating on the reversed Carnot cycle is required to remove
heat from the house at a rate of 25 kJ/s to maintain its temperature constant at 20°C. If
the temperature of the outdoors is 35°C, the power required to operate this air-
conditioning system is
68. Nusselt number is a non-dimensional parameter commonly used in convective heat
transfer. Its physical interpretation is
a. rate of diffusion of viscous effects/rate of diffusion of heat
b. inertia force/viscous force
c. buoyancy force/viscous force
d. dissipation/heat transfer rate
e. convective heat transfer/conduction heat transfer
69. The fan laws are a group of relationships that predict the effect on fan performance of
changing such quantities as the conditions of the air, operating speed, and size of the
fan. Consider Law 3 where variation in air density, constant static pressure, which of the
following statements is wrong?
a. Q ~ 1/√ρ b. V ~ 1/√ρ c. P ~ 1/√ρ d. ω ~ 1/√ρ e. SP = constant
70. In an air handling system, enlargements, contractions, elbows, branches, dampers and
filters are collectively known as
a. Coils b. ducts c. fans d. fittings e. pipesMany of the
procedures for the control of microorganisms are managed by HACCP system of food
safety. Developed in the food industry since the 1960s, HACCP is now accepted by
food manufacturers and regulators. It is a preventive system that builds safety
control features into the food products design and the process by which it is
produced. HACCP stands for
a. Hazard Analysis and Chemical Corrective Point
b. Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point
c. Hazard Advisory Committee on Chemical Program
d. Health Analysis for Critical Corrective Program
e. Health Awareness and Critical Criteria Program
71. It is the primary consideration in the selection of a capillary tube.

a. Bore and stroke b. Diameter and height c. Clearance and diameter
d. Length and diameter e. Diameter and volume
72. Which is the process of food irradiation that eliminates harmful bacteria without the use
of heat?
a. pressure processing b. steam pasteurization c. cold pasteurization
d. ozonation e. electron beam technology
73. It is the application of principles and methods of engineering and life sciences toward
fundamental understanding of structure-function relationships in normal and pathological
mammalian tissues and the development of biological substitutes to restore, maintain, or
improve tissue function.

a. genetic engineering b. tissue engineering c. biological engineering

d. molecular engineering e. biosystems engineering
74. The major advantage of flat storage as compared with conventional metal grain silos is:
a. easier to load and unloading b. easier to aerate c. easier to build
d. easier to control pest e. economical
75. Belt conveyors are very efficient but relatively expensive means of transporting grains.
Grain damage is low so this type of conveyor is often used in seed processing and
conditioning systems. Determine the capacity of a belt conveyor given a cross-sectional
area of 0.1 ft2 and a belt speed of 100 ft/min?
a. 10 bu/h b. 48 bu/h c. 100 bu/h d. 480 bu/h e. 1,000 bu/h
76. The process of joining metals by fusing their surfaces together with an alloy of tin and
lead.
a. soldering b. paste-core solder c. flux-core solder d. plain bar solder e. none
of the choices
77. A common flux that can be used on most metals.
a. cut acid b. rosin c. sal ammoniac d. muriatic acid e. none of the choices
78. A type of composition board made from wood chips.
a. lumber b. plywood c. veneer products d. particle board e. none of the above
79. Small dimension construction units bonded together with cement.
a. concrete b. masonry c. veneer products d. particle board e. none of the choices
80. Fasteners used to attach wood to wood.
a. screw b. nail c. bolt d. nuts e. none of the choices
Pre-Board 2009
1. The concrete cylinder C has a cross-sectional area of 9,000 mm 2. A pressure

measuring device indicates an average pressure between C and the foundation of
3.5 MPa. Contact with the horizontal member E is made through a ball and a steel
cap on C. The axial stresses in rods A and B are 85 and 110 MPa T,
respectively. Determine the cross-
sectional areas of A and B. 300 kN/m
2 2
a. A=638.47 mm ; B=1112.73 mm
b. A=836.47 mm2; B=1112.73 mm2
c. A=638.47 mm2; B=800.34 mm2
d. A=836.47 mm2; B=600.73 mm2 A B
2 2
e. A=638.47 mm ; B=800.73 mm E
C
0.5 m 0.5 m 1.0 m 0.5 m

2. A vertical shaft is supported by a thrust collar and bearing plate. Determine the
maximum axial load that can be applied to the shaft if the average punching shear
stress in the collar and the average bearing stress between the collar and the plate are
limited to 50 and 90 MPa, respectively.
a.565.49 kN 180 mm
b. 848.23 kN 120 mm
c.1130.97 kN
d. 1272.35 kN
e. 706.86 kN
30 mm
3. The rigid beam is supported by a pin at A and wires BD and CE. If the maximum
allowable normal strain in each wire is Єmax = 0.002 mm/mm, determine the
maximum vertical displacement of the load P.
a.6 mm
b. 8 mm E
c.10 mm D
d. 11.2 mm P
e. 14 mm
A B C
3m 2m 2m
4. The horizontal beam is assumed to be rigid and supports the distributed load shown.
Each support consists of a Douglas fir post having a diameter of 200 mm and an
unloaded length of 1.50 m. Use E = 13 MPa. Determine the stress at support B.
a.255,784.59 Pa
25 kN/m
b. 426,307.97 Pa
c.511,569.51 Pa
d. 723,125.45 Pa
e. 812,127.87 Pa A B C
1.5 m
2m 1m
5 – 6. An overhanging beam 5m in length (location of supports are both 1m offset from

both ends) has a rectangular cross section (175 mm wide by 250 mm high). It carries
a uniformly distributed load of 12 kN/m over its entire length. A 600 kN
concentrated load is applied 1m from the left most part while another concentrated

load (300 kN) is applied at the rightmost portion of the beam. Determine the
following:
5. The maximum bending stress developed in the beam.
a.167.86 kPa b. 230.40 kPa c. 235.00 kPa d. 329.14 kPa e. 335.73 kPa
6. The maximum shear stress developed in the beam.

a. 10,697.14 Pa b. 13,714.00 Pa c. 171.15 kPa d. 10.70 MPa
e. 10.70 Pa
7. It states that both the localized deformation and stress which occur within the
regions of load application or at the supports tend to “even out” at a distance
sufficiently removed from these regions.
a.Charpy Test d. Strain Hardening
b. Slenderness Ratio e. Stress Relieving
c.Saint-Venant’s Principle
8. Design an economical square wood column that will support an axial load of 350
kN. The unsupported length is 4m and c = 5 MPa. Use E = 2 GPa.
a. 0.26m x 0.26m d. 0.35m x 0.35m
b. 0.30m x 0.30m e. 0.38m x 0.38m
c. 0.32m x 0.32m
9. The continuity equation is applicable to

a. conservation of mass d. Fourier’s law
b. conservation of momentum e. Newton’s law of cooling
c. conservation of energy
10. At absolute zero temperature, what is the entropy of a pure crystalline

substance?
a. -40 b. 0 c. 32 d. 200 e. 212
11. The critical radius of insulation for a sphere is equal to

a. k/h b. 2 kh c. 2k/h d. h/2k e.
12. The free convection heat transfer is influenced by

a. buoyant force only d. viscous and inertia forces only
b. buoyant and inertia forces only e. viscous, buoyant and inertia
forces
c. viscous and buoyant forces only
13. Glass is
a. transparent at short wavelength d. transparent at long
wavelengths

b. opaque for high temperature radiation e. transparent at both short and long
wavelengths
c. opaque for low temperature radiation
14. LMTD for a heat exchanger is given by
a. b. c. d.
e.
15. The ratio of thermal diffusivity to mass diffusivity is known as

a. Schmidt number d. Stanton number
b. Lewis number e. Darcy number
c. Sherwood number
16. The units of mass diffusion coefficient or diffusivity are

a. m2/s b. kg.m/s2 c. s/m2 d. kg.s/m2 e. dimensionless
17. A Carnot refrigerator operates between 10 and 80F. It's coefficient of

performance is
a.0.14 b. 0.40 c. 4.04 d. 4.28 e. 6.71
18. How much ice, in kg, is needed to cool a gallon of punch from 20°C to 4°C.
Assume specific heat of punch is 4.23 kJ/kg°C, heat of fusion of ice is 335 kJ/kg
and ice initially at freezing temperature.
a. 0.4 b. 0.7 c. 1.0 d. 2.5 e. 3.5
19. Two just saturated air-vapor mixtures are thoroughly mixed. The final state of
the mixture is
a. still saturated d. partly condensed out
b. unsaturated e. no way to tell
c. completely condensed out
20. Consider 100 m3 of moist air at 101.325 kPa, 35°C, 70% relative humidity. If
saturation pressure of water is 5.628 kPa at 35°C, then partial pressure of dry air
is
a. 3.94 kPa b. 5.628 kPa c. 97.4 kPa d. 101.325 kPa e. 106.953 kPa
21. An ideal fluid flow is one that:

a. is very viscous d. is assumed in problems in conduit flow
b. is also a Newtonian flow e. frictionless and incompressible
c. obeys Newton’s law of viscosity

22. Which is the process of food irradiation that eliminates harmful bacteria
without the use of heat?
a. pressure processing d. ozonation
b. steam pasteurization e. electron beam
technology
c. cold pasteurization
23. There are various methods available of preserving crops or increasing their
usable economic life. The method in which food cotnained in a permanently
sealed container is subjected to an elevated temperatures for a definite perod of
time and then cooled is called
a. Canning d. controlled atmosphere
b. chemical treatment e. dehydration
c. chilling
24. There are many different methods of drying solids, liquids and gases. Most of
these methods are used to some extent in the drying of agricultural products. The
method which removes moisture from materials using centrifuge or gravity is
called
a. freeze drying d. mechancial separation
b. decomposition of water e. chemical dessicants
c. adsorption
25. Generally, palay can be stored safely up to 2 to 3 months at moisture content of

a. 28 % b. 24% c. 18% d. 14% e. 10%
26. Determine the quantity of corn in kilogram at 30% (d.b.) required to give 1
metric ton at 14% (w.b.)?
b. 260 b. 860 c. 1,000 d. 1,120 e. 1,230
27. How much liter of kerosene is needed to dry 1 ton of palay from 30% to14%?
Assume latent heat of vaporization is 2500 kJ/kg; heating value of kerosene is 43
MJ/kg; specific gravity is 0.8 and efficiency of 80%.
a. 11 b. 13 c. 17 d. 21 e. 46
28. Which conveying equipment can best carry materials vertically?

b. Belt b. Bucket c. Chain d. Pneumatic e. Screw
29. The expression used to indicate the amount of bran removed in the milling
process is called
a. bran recovery d. milling percentage
b. degree of milling e. milling recovery
c. head rice recovery

30. The amount of foreign materials or impurities from a sample of paddy, which
is usually expressed as percentage, is called
a. Chaff b. dockage c. immature grains d. purity e. scalper
31. A type of dryer wherein the flow is transverse to the direction of flow of the
product being dried is called
a. Batch b. circulating c. concurrent d. counter-flow e. cross-flow
32. The metal particles blown away from the welding arc.
a. arc b. dig c. spatter d. spot e. mess
33. Which of the following can be used as food handling equipment

a. copper b. galvanized steel c. tool steel d. mild steel e. stainless steel
34. Which is not a cutting tool

a. tap wrench b. countersink c. tap d. die stock e. die
35. 200 lux is equivalent to

a. 15 ft candle b. 20 ft candle c. 25 ft candle d. 30 ft candle e. NOTA
36. Engr. Salvanera and Engr. Opiña were asked by Dean Pabustan to design 6 pcs.
of work benches for the AE REVIEW 2020. The engineers found out that they
needed 12 pcs. of 2”x3”x12’ and 8 pcs. of 2”x2”x12’ for each work bench. How
many board feet of lumber would they need for all the benches?
a. 324 board feet d. 624 board feet
b. 104 board feet e. 100 board feet
c. 3888 board feet
37. It embodies the first Agricultural Engineering Law in the Philippines
a. RA 8559 b. RA 8435 c. RA 3927 d. RA 9184 e. RA 9367
38. Based on the latest PAES, the total number of standards developed and adopted by the
agricultural
a. 132 b. 144 c. 120 d. 152 e. 103
39. Agricultural Engineering permit is an ancillary permit supplementary to building

permit to be signed and sealed by a registered Agricultural Engineer. The documents
to be signed include the following except for:
a. Hatcheries d. Dams and spillways
b. Lighting requirements of a milking house
c. Slaughter house e. Farm Products packing house
40. The ASEAN Mutual Recognizition Arrangement of Engineering Services as stipulates

in PRC Res. No. 3.5 2007 is an agreement among ASEAN countries except for:

a. Socialist Republic of Vietnam d. Republic of the Philippines

b. Malaysia e. Bangladesh
c. Kingdom of Thailand
41. Contract in which the agreement of the parties is inferred from their conduct.
a. express contract b. implied contract c. quasi contract d. joint contract
e. valid contract
42. A parameter called power factor must be included in the computation of

power in AC installation. This “safety” factor could take a value of:
a. 0.75 b. 0.9 c. 0.95 d. 0.99 e. all of the choices
43. Three circuit components namely, 0.075 Henry inductor, 21 ohm resistor, and
415 microFarad capacitor are connected in series. Calculate the total impedance of
the circuit if the source frequency is 60 Hz.
a. 31.32 b. 32.31 c. 40.33 d. 41.2 e. 30.33
44. A special electric motor required 1.962 kW and 9.5 amperes from a given
voltage source of 220 V with 50 Hz frequency. What is the power factor of the motor.
a. 0.96 b. 0.84 c. 0.94
d. 0.86 e. 0.75
45. Type of electric current where electricity flows in one direction only.
a. alternating current b. direct current c. current source d. voltage source
46. When the resistance of a certain circuit is zero or almost zero, the circuit is called
a. series b. Shorted c. grounded d. open e. overloaded
47. It is a basic electrical element which prevents the current from changing instantly.
a. inductor b. resistor c. capacitor d. insulator e. conductor
48. For the circuit shown, the current i is:

a. 3 A b. 4 A c. 5 A d. 2 A e. 1 A
49. In the same circuit, v1 is equal to:

a. 2 V b. 4 V c. 8 V d. 6V e. 10 V
50. And v2 is:

a. -8 V b. -10 V c. 10 V d. -12 Volts e. 8 V
For #51 to #53. For the circuit below,

51. The value of i2 is:

a. 0.3 A b. 0.35A c. 0.2 A d. 0.4 A e. 0.25 A
52. The current i1 is:

a. 2.5 A b. 2.15 A c. 2.0 A d. 1.5 A e. 1.15 A
53. And the voltage v2 is:

a. 1.5 A b. 1.75 A c. 2 V d. 2.2 V e. 2.5 A
54. When connected at 120-Volts, 60-Hz power line, a load absorbs 4 kW at a lagging
power factor of 0.8. The value of capacitance necessary to raise the pf to 0.95 is:
a. 300.5 microF b. 310.5 microF c. 290.5 micro F d. 200.5 mocroF
e. 210.5 microF
55. An induction motor draws 7.6 A from a 220-V 60-Hz single-phase voltage supply. To
improve the power factor of an induction motor from 0.787 to 1.0, the size of the parallel
connected capacitor should be:
a. 54.4 microF
b. 56.2 microF
c. 56.4 microF
d. 46.4 microF
e. 46.2 microF
56. Which of the following is not useful information provided by Shear and Moment
Diagram?
a. It shows the most likely section where a beam may fail in shear or bending.
b. Provides data for proper reinforcements of concrete.
c. Provides information on bending moment at any point.
d. Gives an idea about the deflected shape of the beam (bending moment
diagrams).

Farm Electrification
Easy and Medium Level Questions
1. To obtain the actual power, what is that factor which the VA must be multiplied?
a. power factor b. voltage regulation factor c. resistive load factor

d. inductance e. none of the above
2. Electric current that passes through the human body is fatal within the range of:
a. 0.05-0.20 A b. 0.001-0.010 A c. 0.0001-0.0050 A

d. 0.010-0.040 A e. none of the above
3. It is the ratio of the resistance to total impedance.
a. power factor b. voltage regulation factor c. resistive load factor

d. inductance e. none of the above
4. It is an electric distribution system whereby more than one voltage sources are combined
through the wye (Y) or delta (Δ) connections.
a. multi-voltage b. polyphase c. variable emf

d. multi-system e. none of the above
5. This is the stationary part of an electric motor. It contains pairs of cores made up of thin
section of soft iron. The cores are wound with insulated copper wire to form one or more
pairs of magnetic poles.
a. rotor b. stator c. magnet d. motor frame e. none of the above
6. When the resistance of a circuit is zero, it is a/an:
a. open circuit b. close circuit c. short circuit

d. grounded circuit e. none of the above
7. The human body offers less opposition to the flow of current when the skin is:
a. wet b. dry c. grounded d. insulated e. none of the above
8. The speed of an electric motor can be measured by a:
a. wattmeter b. tachometer c. velocimeter d. Vernier meter e. none of the above
9. The total resistance of two resistors R1 and R2 in parallel is given by the following equation:
a. (R1+R2)/R1R2 b. R1/2 + R2/2 c. R1R2/(R1+R2) d. R1R2+ 1/2R1 + 1/2R2
10. The recommended fuse rating of a 40-hp would rotor electric motor at 220 volts is:
a. 150 b. 100 c. 50 d. 75 e. none of the above.

11. A No. 8 AWG wire has a smaller diameter than this wire.
a. 2.0 mm2 wire b. No. 6 AWG c. No. 10 A
d. 3.5 mm2 wire e. none of the above
12. The standard frequency of AC electricity in the Philippines is:

a. variable
b. 60 cyles/second
c. 50 Hz
d. dependent on the locality
13. A wattmeter is usually a combination of the following instruments:
a. ammeter and ohmmeter b. ohmmeter and voltmeter

c. ammeter and voltmeter d. voltmeter and transformer
14. The voltmeter and ammeter readings are 220 and 0.1 respectively. If the power generated
is 0.018 kilowatt, what is the power factor?
a. 100 b. 0.18 c. 0.82 d. 0.90 e. none of the above
15. When measuring an unknown voltage or current in a circuit, always start with:
a. the highest range of the meter b. the lowest range of frequency

c. the lowest range of the meter d. the mid-range of the meter
16. It is a safety device which opens or breaks the electrical circuit in cases of overload or short
circuit.
a. inductor b. resistor c. fuse d. panelboard e. none of the above
17. What amount of current will cause a 15-ampere fuse in a 120-volt circuit to blow?
a. 1450 microamperes b. 120 milliamperes c. current exceeding 15 amperes

d. 15 milliamperes e. none of the above
18. The resistance in ohm/1000 ft of a No. 14 AWG wire is 2.58. What is the allowable length of
run of a 2-wire 230 volt feeder line at an ampere rating of 20 if the percent voltage drop is
not to exceed 2%?
a. 75 meters b. 10 meters c. 100 meters d. 50 meters e. none of the above
19. A capacitor of 100 µF and a resistance of 200 ohms are connected in series across a 230 V
60-cycle mains. What is the impedance of the circuit?
a. 0.202 ohms b. 101 ohms c. 226 ohms d. 174 ohms e. none of the above
20. The quantity of light output by a source is measured in:
a. foot-candle b. lux c. candela d. lumen e. none of the above

21. The operation of electric motors, generators and alternators is based on:
a. principle of electromagnetism b. Kirchhoff’s laws c. Ohm’s law
d. Newton’s law e. none of the above
22. Most heating appliances such as stoves, ovens, heat lamps and heaters produce heat by:
a. dielectric heating b. induction heating c. arc heating

d. resistance heating e. none of the above
23. What would be the speed of a 120 V 6-pole motor on a 60 Hz source?
a. 1800 rpm b. 1200 rpm c. 900 rpm d. 2400 rpm e. none of the above
24. An electric motor draws 2,304 watts and 12 amperes when operating on a 240 volt 60 Hz
source. What is the power factor of the motor?
25. A lamp can be controlled from two locations using:
a. one-way switches b. two-way switches c. three-way switches

d. four-way switches e. none of the above
26. When a 10-ohm, a 20-ohm, and a 30-ohm resistors are connected in parallel, the total
equivalent resistance is:
a. 60 ohms b. 5.45 ohms c. 5.00 ohms d. 12.30 ohms e. none of the above
27. The color of the ground wire of a kilowatthour meter is:
a. white b. black c. green d. red e. none of the above
28. For general illumination, the recommended approximate lighting load per unit area is about:
a. 100 watt/m2 b. 64 watt/m2 c. 24 watt/m2 d. 10 watt/m2 e. none of the above
29. A No. 8 AWG wire has an approximate diameter of:
a. 2 mm2 b. 3.5 mm2 c. 5.5 mm2 d. 8.0 mm2 e. none of the above
30. Each 20-ampere branch circuit should have no more than this number of outlets:
31. It is a basic electrical element which opposes change in voltage.
a. inductor b. resistor c. capacitor d. insulator e. none of the above
32. It refers to the motor torque at zero speed or the maximum torque available to start a load.
a. break-down torque b. full-load torque c. locked-rotor torque

d. pull-up torque e. none of the above
Medium To Difficult Level Questions
1. In the construction of an ammeter, a resistor is placed in parallel with the permanent magnet
moving coil instrument. If the moving coil instrument has a resistance of 30 ohms and gives
a full scale reading with a current of 0.01 amperes, what size resistor is needed in order to
have the ammeter read a full-scale when measuring 0.03 amperes.
a. 200 ohms b. 10 K ohms c. 15 ohms d. 0.1 ohm e. none of the above
2. Given a 220 volt, single phase, 60 Hz inductor motor which draws 7.6 amperes with a power
factor of 0.787, what parallel-connected capacitor is required to return the power factor to 1?
a. 4.67 µfarad b. 47.2 µfarad c. 56.3 µfarad d. 22 µfarad e. none of the above
3. A 17 ohm resistor, a 0.095 Henry inductor and a 318 µfarad capacitor are connected in series
across a 120 volt 60 Hz supply. What is the total impedance of the circuit?
a. 8.34 ohms b. 35.8 ohms c. 25.2 ohms d. 32.3 ohms e. none of the above
A prony brake test of a motor gave the following data:
Force = 2 lb Length of arm = 1 ft N (rpm) = 1720

Electrical meter readings: Current = 11.4 A; Voltage = 110; Power = 960 Watts
4. What is the actual power delivered by the motor as measured by the prony brake?
a. 3 hp b. 0.66 hp c. 1.3 hp d. 5 hp e. none of the above
5. What is the efficiency of the motor in converting electric energy to mechanical energy?
a. 75 % b. 95 % c. 63% d. 51% e. none of the above
6. What is the power factor?
A capacitance of 40 μF and a resistance of 100 ohms are connected in series across a 220-V,
60 Hz mains.
7. Determine the impedance of the circuit.
8. Determine the voltage across the resistance.
a. 18 b. 36.1 c. 183 d. 144 e. none of the above
9. What is the angle between voltage and current?

10. What is the power factor?
11. If the period of an AC sine wave doubles, and nothing else about it changes, then the
frequency is
a. doubled b. cut in half c. quadrupled d. still the same e. none of the above
12. In an AC sine wave, 12.5% of a cycle is equivalent to
a. 12.5° of phase
b. 25° of phase
c. 45° of phase
d. 90° of phase
13. The direction in which magnetic flux flows near a straight wire, relative to the current that
produces it, can be figured out if we know
a. the voltage applied to the wire

b. Ohm’s Law
c. Ampere’s Law
d. the current and the length of the wire
14. If the rms value of voltage is 240 volts for a sine wave, what is the peak value?
a. 120 V b. 240 V c. 339.41 V d. 480 V e. none of the above
15. Calculate the resistance of a 500 m of AWG # 8 wire at 90°C if the wire is made of copper.
a. 0.97 Ω b. 1.1 Ω c. 1.25 Ω d. 1.32 Ω e. none of the above
Farm Electrification Questions 2005
Easy
1. A residence is determined to need 60 lighting and convenience outlets,

not including those to be supplied by small appliance circuits. What type and how many 20-A
branch circuits are needed?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 5 (d) 10 (e) none of the above
2. What is the power dissipated when a ½ A current flows through a 5 ohm

resistor?

(a) 2 watts (b) 1 watt (c) 1.25 watts (d) 1.5 watts (e) none of the above.
3. A certain farm operation that requires rotary power can be successfully performed by hand.
What size of motor is recommended?
(a) ½ hp (b) 1 hp (c) ¼ hp (d) 2 hp (e) none of the above
4. A delta resistor network has R a= 30 ohms, Rb= 10 ohms, and Rc= 20 ohms. What is the
equivalent wye network?
(a) 10 ohms, 5 ohms and 3.33 ohms (b) 3 ohms, 6.66 ohms and 7 ohm
(c) 6 ohms, 9 ohms and 10 ohms (d) 5 ohms, 8 ohms and 3.33 ohms
(f) 6.66 ohms, 3.33 ohms and 10 ohms
CROP PROCESSING AND ALLIED SUBJECTS (Pre-Board 2007)
1. Absolute zero is
a. the same as zero on the Centigrade scale
b. the same as zero on the Rankine scale
c. 144 ° below zero on the Fahrenheit scale
d. 460 ° below zero on the Fahrenheit scale
e. 970 ° below zero on the Fahrenheit scale
2. Heat normally flowing from a high temperature body to a low temperature body wherein
it is impossible to convert heat without other effects is referred to as the
a. zeroth law of thermodynamics b. first law of thermodynamics
c. second law of thermodynamics d. third law of thermodynamics
e. fourth law of thermodynamics
3. It is the proportionality constant which when multiplied by the heat transfer area and
the mean temperature difference between the fluids that produce the rate of heat transfer.
a. conductivity of tube metal b. heat transfer coefficient
c. refrigerating capacity d. heat capacity
e. Reynolds number
4. What is another term for the heat transfer coefficient?

a. thermal conductivity b. thermal diffusivity
c. film coefficient d. molecular diffusivity
e. thermal efficiency
5. Water flows inside the tubes (8 mm ID) of an evaporator at 10 °C at a velocity of 2 m/s.

Calculate Reynolds number. The properties of water at 10 °C are μ=0.00131 Pa-s, ρ=1000
kg/m3, k = 0.573 W/m.K, cp = 4190 J/kg.K
a. 12.21 b. 6,106 c. 12,214 d. 6,106,870 e. 12,213,740
6. The wall of a furnace consists of a 9” thick layer firebrick (k= 0.8 Btu/ft.hr.°F), a ½ steel
frame (k = 25 Btu/ft.hr.°F) and an outer 2” thick layer of insulation (k = 0.05 Btu/ft.hr.°F).
The outer surface of the insulation is exposed to air at 100 °F and the heat transfer
coefficients is estimated to be9.1 Btu/ft.hr.°F. If the temperature of the steel must not

exceed about 500 °F, what is the maximum temperature that the inner surface of the
firebrick can be allowed to reach?
a. 500 °F b. 527 °F c. 587 °F d. 875 °F e. 937 °F
7. The temperatures on the faces of a plane wall 15 cm thick are 370 and 93 °C. The wall
is constructed of a special glass with the following properties: k = 0.78 W/m. °C, ρ=2,700
kg/m3, cp=0.84 kJ/kg.°C. What is the heat flow through the wall at steady-state conditions?
a. 277.0 W/m2 b. 1440.4 W/m2 c. 1551.2 W/m2 d. 3240.9 W/m2 e. 747,900 W/m2
8. What is the enthalpy of the air-vapor mixture at 65% relative humidity and 34 °C when
the barometric pressure is 101.3 kPa.
a. 34.0 kJ/kg b. 86.7 kJ/kg c. 87.3 kJ/kg d. 90.4 kJ/kg e. 95.5 kJ/kg
9. The highest pressure drop in the refrigeration cycle occurs at the

a. compressor b. condenser
c. expansion valve d. evaporator
e. liquid receiver
10. The drinking water needs of an office are met by cooling tap water in a refrigerated
water fountain from 22 °C to 8 °C at an average rate of 8 kg/hr. If the EER of this
refrigerator is 11.2, the required power input to this refrigerator is
a. 28 W b. 42 W c. 88 W d. 130 W e. 403 W
11. A refrigeration system using refrigerant 22 is to have a refrigerating capacity of 60 kW.

The evaporating temperature is -10°C and the condensing temperature is 42°C. Determine
the power required by the compressor. Enthalpy condenser entrance = 440 kJ/kg,
condenser exit = 252.4 kJ/kg, evaporator exit = 401.6 kJ/kg, evaporator entrance = 252.4
kJ/kg.
12. A refrigeration system is to be used to cool 45,000 kg of water from 29°C to 18°C in 5
hours. The refrigerant is ammonia and the operating conditions are 616 kPa evaporating
pressure and 1737 kPa liquefaction pressure. Determine the quantity of cooling water in
the condenser for an increase in temperature of 7°C. Enthalpy at condenser entrance =
1650 kJ/kg, condenser exit = 410.4 kJ/kg, evaporator entrance = 410.4 kJ/kg, evaporator
exit = 1471.6 kJ/kg.
a. 3.02 kg/s b. 4.59 kg/s c. 5.94 kg/s d. 6.32 kg/s e. 8.45 kg/s
13. The halocarbon group includes refrigerants which contain one or more of the three
halogen chlorine, fluorine, and bromine. Monochlorodifluoromethane, CHClF 2, has a
numerical designation
a. R-11 b. R-12 c. R-22 d. R-134a e. R-501
14. It is the ratio of mass of water vapor in moist air to mass of water vapor in saturated
air at the same temperature and pressure.
a. absolute humidity b. humidity ratio
c. moisture content d. relative humidity
e. specific humidity
15. The specific measurement of moisture content in air:

a. degree of saturation b. percent saturation
b. relative humidity c. specific humidity

d. water activity
16. At which temperature would air be able to hold the most water vapor?
a. 0 °C b. 10°C c. 25°C d. 30°C e. 40°C
17. An air stream at a specified temperature and relative humidity undergoes evaporative
cooling by spraying water into it at about the same temperature. The lowest temperature
the air stream can be cooled to is
a. the dry bulb temperature at the given state
b. the wet bulb temperature at the given state
c. the dew point temperature at the given state
d. the saturation temperature corresponding to the humidity ratio at the given state
e. the triple point temperature of water
18. The most abundant constituent in fresh fruits and vegetables is water, which exists as
a continuous liquid phase within the fruit or vegetable. The process by which fresh fruits
and vegetable lose some of this water is called
a. latent heat loss
b. transpiration heat loss
c. refrigeration heat loss
d. respiration heat loss
e. sensible heat loss
19. What is an air chamber maintained under pressure (positive or negative) usually
connected to one or more distributing ducts in a drying or aeration system called? The
term is also used to designate the air chamber under the perforated floor in a grain bin and
the pressure chamber between grain columns in some type of batch or continuous dryer.
a. plenum b. orifice c. valve d. ventilation front e. void space
20. One bushel is equal to

a. 1.25 ft3
b. 1.25 ft3/min
c. 1.25 lb
d. 1.25 lb/min
e. 1.25 m3
21. If 2,200 lb of palay at 23% moisture content wet basis is loaded in the dryer and dried
to 14%, calculate the amount of moisture removed, in kg.
a. 100 kg b. 105 kg c. 220 kg d. 230 kg e. 895 kg
22. A farmer-trader pays P9.00 per kilogram for a palay with moisture content of 24% wet
basis and purity 80%. After passing it through the cleaner, the purity became 95%.
Moreover, the former used open sundrying to dry the palay to 14% wet basis. Determine
how much should the farmer-trader sell her clean dried palay if she wants to have a profit
of P0.40 per kilogram clean dried palay. Assume a processing fee of P0.30 per kilogram
clean dried palay.
a. P10.80/kg b. P10.50/kg c. P11.50/kg d. P12.50/kg e. P12.80/kg
23. How many cubic meter of 1.045% tomato puree can be made from one cubic meter
30% tomato paste?
a. 28.2 m3 b.28.7 m3 c. 29.2 m3 d.29.7 m3 e. 30.0 m3
24. Shelled corn is to be stored at a depth of 16 ft in a 36 ft diameter bin. An airflow rate
of 0.5 cfm/bu is required to aerate the grain, requiring a 3 hp fan. The grain is to stored

for 32 weeks and the aeration fan is to be operated 24 h every 2 weeks. The cost of
electricity is P9.60/kWh.
a. P515.65 b. P1,031.30 c. P8,246.85 d. P79,407.85 e. P115, 502.30
25. Bucket elevators are one of the commonly used conveyors of grain. The typical bucket
elevator conveys grain vertically using buckets attached along a belt. The grain exists the
bucket elevator by centrifugal force as the bucket begin their downward movement.
Determine the power requirement of an 80 percent efficient bucket elevator to transport
shelled corn (56 lb/bu) to a height of 30 ft at a rate of 1,000 bu/h.
a. 92 hp b. 96 hp c. 100 hp d. 106 hp e. 116 hp
26. Belt conveyors are very efficient but relatively expensive means of transporting grains.
Grain damage is low so this type of conveyor is often used in seed processing and
conditioning systems. Determine the capacity of a belt conveyor given a cross-sectional
area of 0.1 ft2 and a belt speed of 100 ft/min?
a. 10 bu/h b. 48 bu/h c. 100 bu/h d. 480 bu/h e. 1,000 bu/h
27. The major advantage of flat storage as compared with conventional metal grain silos is:
a. easier to load and unloading
b. easier to aerate
c. easier to build
d. easier to control pest
e. economical
28. Which is not a fixed cost?
a. Depreciation
b. Interest on Investment
c. Labor
d. Staff housing
e. Taxes and insurance
Engineering Thermodynamics
1. At what temperature are Celcius and Fahrenheit equal?

a. –273.15
b. –40
c. 0
d. 40
e. 100
2. What Kelvin temperature is equal to 170°F?

a. 76.7 d. 443.2
b. 611.2 e. 443.2
c. 349.8
3. In a closed system undergoing a constant-pressure process, the entropy change:

a. must be positive
b. must be zero
c. must be negative

d. may be positive, negative or zero

e. may be positive or zero but not negative
4. The entropy change for any closed system which undergoes an adiabatic process:
a. must be positive
b. must be zero
c. must be negative
5. The entropy change for any closed system which undergoes an irreversible adiabatic process:
a. must be positive
b. must be zero
c. must be negative
6. A fluid expands irreversibly in an uninsulated cylinder. The entropy change for the fluid:
a. must be positive
b. must be zero
c. must be negative
7. A fluid is compressed with friction in an uninsulated cylinder. The entropy change of the
fluid:
a. must be positive
b. must be zero
c. must be negative
8. An insulated resistor has an electric current flowing through it. The entropy change of the
resistor:
a. must be positive
b. must be zero
c. must be negative
9. A system with paddle-work is irreversible. Therefore the change in its entropy:

a. must be positive
b. must be zero
c. must be negative
10. The entropy change of an idealized work reservoir:

a. must be positive
b. must be zero

c. must be negative
11. A system undergoes an irreversible cycle. The entropy change of the system:
a. must be positive
b. must be zero
c. must be negative
12. A system undergoes an irreversible cycle. The entropy change of the universe:
a. must be positive
b. must be zero
c. must be negative
13. What is the density (kg/m3) of dry air at 101 kPa and 25 °C? Gas constant = 287 J/kg.K for
air and 462 J/kg.K for water.
a. 0.014 d. 1.28
b. 1.0 e. 14.1
c. 1.18
14. What is the mass of air contained in a room of dimensions 6 by 6 by 3 m if the density of air
is 1.20 kg/m3?
a. 0.9 kg
b. 43.2 kg
c. 90.0 kg
d. 108.0 kg
e. 129.6 kg
15. “It is impossible to construct an engine that, when operated over a complete cycle, has the
sole effect of extracting heat from a reservoir and delivering an equivalent amount of work”
is a statement by:
a. Clasius b. Fourier
c. Kelvin-Plank
d. Newton
e. Stefan-Boltzman
16. A process in which the gas is assumed to change its condition (i.e. pressure, volume and
temperature of the gas vary) without the transfer of heat to or from the surroundings is
called
a. adiabatic process
b. diathermal process
c. isothermal process
d. isentropic process
e. polytropic process
17. An ideal gas is throttled through an insulated valve. The exit pressure is lower than the inlet
pressure. The exit temperature is:
a. higher than

b. equal to
c. less than
d. sometimes higher, sometimes lower than
e. not determined by, the inlet temperature
18. At the critical point, the quality is

a. Zero
b. Unity
c. One-third
d. Two-third
e. Indeterminate
19. Heat is transferred directly from a hot reservoir to a colder reservoir. The process is
a. is reversible
b. is irreversible
c. could be either
d. both reversible and irreversible
e. is indeterminate
20. A system undergoes an irreversible cycle (just like your refrigerator). The entropy of the
system
a. Increases
b. Remain the same
c. Decreases
d. Cannot be defined
e. Increases then decreases
21. The amount of heat required to change a unit mass of pure substance from the solid state to
the liquid state, the pressure (or temperature) remaining constant is called
a. entropy change
b. latent heat of vaporization
c. latent heat of fusion
d. latent heat of sublimation
e. specific heat
22. Quality of a two-phase (liquid-vapor) mixture is defined as the fraction

a. by mass of vapor over the liquid of the mixture
b. by mass of vapor over the mixture
c. by the mass of liquid over the mixture
d. by volume of vapor over the mixture
e. by volume of vapor over the liquid of the mixture
Heat Transfer

Review Problems 2003
1. Two cubic meters per hour of water are cooled from 30 to 4°C. What is the rate of heat
transfer in kilowatts?
a. 0.06 d. 144.4
b. 14.4 e. 217,880
c. 60.5
2. A value of 9.37 W/(m2.K) for fi and fo is frequently used for still air. If the outer surface is
exposed to about 24 km/h wind, then fo
a. will still be 9.37 W/(m2.K)
b. is increased
c. is decreased
d. can either increase or decrease
e. cannot be determined
3. The thermal conductance for a 1 in. thickness of plywood (k = 0.115 W/m.K) is
a. 0.115 W/m2.K d. 4.5 W/m2.K
b. 0.222 W/m .K 2
e. 8.7 W/m2.K
c. 0.453 W/m .K 2
4. What is the rate of heat input to a water heater if 0.4 kg/s of water enters at 82°C and
leaves at 93°C? Water has an approximate specific heat of 4.19 kJ/kg.K.
a. 1.7 kJ/kg d. 46.1 kJ/kg
b. 4.4 kJ/kg e. 389.8 kJ/kg
c. 18.4 kJ/kg
5. A flow rate of 0.06 kg/s of water enters a boiler at 90°C, at which temperature the enthalpy
is 376.9 kJ/kg. The water leaves as steam at 100°C (2676 kJ/kg). What is the rate of heat
added by this boiler?
a. 22.6 kW d. 2299.1 kW
b. 137.9 kW e. 2653.4 kW
c. 1379.5 kW
6. Water is pumped from a chiller in the basement, where z 1 = 0 m, to a cooling coil located on
the top floor of a building, where z 2 = 80 m. What is the minimum pressure rise the pump
must be capable of providing if the temperature of the water is 4°C? The density of water is
1,000 kg/m3.
a. .78 kPa d. 785 kPa
b. 9.81 kPa e. 2576 kPa
c. 80 kPa
7. Air flowing at the rate of 2.5 kg/s is heated in a heat exchanger from -10 to 30°C. What is
the rate of heat transfer?
a. 50 kW d. 100 kJ
b. 100 kW e. 2.5 kg
c. 50 kJ
8. The first law of thermodynamics is also called
a. conservation of energy
b. conservation of entropy
c. conservation of heat
d. conservation of mass
e. conservation of material
9. Select the material with the lowest thermal conductivity.
a. Air d. silver
b. Copper e. water
c. glass wool
10. Select the material with the highest thermal conductivity.

a. Air d. silver
b. Copper e. water
c. glass wool
The outer-facing of a room is constructed from 25 cm thick brick, 2.5 cm of mortar, 10

cm of limestone (k = 0.186 W/m.K) and 1.2 cm of plaster ( k = 0.096 W/m.K). Thermal
conductivities of mortar and brick are both 0.52 W/m.K. Assume that the heat transfer
coefficients on the inside (plaster side) and outside (brick side) surfaces of the wall to be 6 and
12 W/m2.K, respectively.
11. Calculate the overall coefficient of heat transfer (W/m2.K)

a. 0.0197 d. 1.44
b. 0.6937 e. 50.74
c. 0.8393
12. Calculate the rate of heat transfer (W) per 10 m 2 of the wall surface from the room at 18°C
to the outside air at 36°C.
a. 3.5 d. 259.2
b. 124.9 e. 9133.2
c. 151.1
13. In thermal radiation, which of the following black body properties is equal to unity?
a. Absorptivity d. resistivity
b. Conductivity e. transmissivity
c. reflectivity
14. Two infinite black plates at 800 and 300°C exchange heat by radiation. The heat transfer
rate per unit area (kW/m2) is
a. 2.85 x 10-5
b. 12.1
c. 60.0
d. 69.0
e. 121.0
Review Problems 2005
1. During a heating process, the temperature of an object rises 10°C. This temperature rise is
equivalent to a temperature rise of
a. 10°F
b. 42°F
c. 18 K
d. 18 R
e. 283 K
2. The specific heat of a material is given in a strange unit to be Cp = 3.60 kJ/kg°F. The
specific heat of this material in the SI units of kJ/kg.°C is
a. 200 kJ/kg.°C
b. 3.20 kJ/kg.°C
c. 3.60 kJ/kg.°C
d. 4.80 kJ/kg.°C
e. 6.48 kJ/kg.°C
3. A 2-kW electric resistance heater in a laboratory dryer turned on and kept on for 30 min.
The amount of energy transferred to the dryer by the heater is
a. 1 kJ
b. 60 kJ
c. 1,800 kJ
d. 3,600 kJ
e. 7,200 kJ
4. A well-sealed room contains 80 kg of air at 200 kPa and 25°C. Now solar energy enters the
room at an average rate of 1 kJ/s while a 100-W fan is turned on to circulate the air in the
room. If heat transfer through the walls is negligible, the air temperature in the room in 30
min will be
a. 28.3°C
b. 49.8°C
c. 52.5°C
d. 56.0°C
e. 59.5°C
5. A 6-pack canned drink is to be cooled from 25°C to 3°C. The mass of each canned drink is
0.355 kg. The drinks can be treated as water, and the energy stored in the aluminum can
itself is negligible. The amount of heat transfer from the 6 canned drinks is
a. 33 kJ
b. 37 kJ
c. 47 kJ
d. 196 kJ
e. 223 kJ
6. An ordinary egg with a mass of 0.1 kg and a specific heat of 3.32 kJ/kg.°C is dropped into
boiling water at 95°C. If the initial temperature of the egg is 5°C, the maximum amount of
heat transfer to the egg is
a. 12 kJ
b. 30 kJ
c. 24 kJ
d. 18 kJ
e. infinity
7. Thermal conductivity is a thermo-physical property and units of this property are W/m.K in
the SI system of units, kcal/hr.°C in the metric system and Btu/hr.ft.°F in British thermal
units. If the thermal conductivity has directional variation, the medium (such as wood) is
said to be
a. anisotropic
b. heterogeneous
c. homogeneous
d. isotropic
e. pure
8. Thermal conductivity of a substance is a thermo-physical property of that substance. It
depends on the material’s chemical composition, physical structure, and state of it. Which
one of the following has the largest thermal conductivity:
a. conductors
b. gases
c. insulators
d. liquid
e. porous materials
9. Heat is transferred steadily through a 0.2-m thick 9-m x 4-m wall at a rate of 1.6 kW. The
inner and outer surface temperatures of the wall are measured to be 15°C to 5°C. The
average thermal conductivity of the wall is
a. 0.001 W/m.°C
b. 0.5 W/m.°C
c. 1.0 W/m.°C

d. 2.0 W/m.°C
e. 5.0 W/m.°C
10. Consider a 10 cm wall made of polyurethane board (k = 0.0260 W/m.K) which is exposed to
still air (h = 9.37 W/m2.K) on the inside and the outer surface exposed to 24 km/h wind (h =
34 W/m2.K). Determine the overall coefficient of heat transfer (W/m 2.K).
a. 0.25
b. 1.92
c. 3.98
d. 5.73
e. 13.24
11. The heat transfer coefficient is a complicated function of the flow conditions, transport and
thermo-physical properties (viscosity, thermal conductivity, specific heat, density) of the fluid,
and geometry and dimensions of the surface. Which one has the lowest heat transfer
coefficient
a. forced convection, water
b. forced convection, boiling water
c. free convection, water
d. free convection, boiling water
e. free convection, condensing water vapor
12. Air at 20°C blows over a hot plate 50 by 75 cm maintained at 250°C. The convection heat
transfer coefficient is 25 W/m2.°C. The heat transfer is
a. 2.2 kW
b. 22.0 kW
c. 220 kW
d. 2.2 MW
e. 22 MW
13. A 12-cm high and 18-cm wide circuit board houses on its surface 100 closely spaced chips,
each generating heat at a rate of 0.07 W and transferring it by convection to the surrounding
air at 40°C. Heat transfer from the back surface of the board is negligible. If the convection
heat transfer coefficient on the surface of the board is 10 W/m 2.°C and the radiation heat
transfer is negligible, the average surface temperature of the chips is
a. 7.6°C
b. 40.7°C
c. 47.0°C
d. 68.2°C
e. 72.4°C
14. A 3-m2 hot black surface at 80°C is losing heat to the surrounding air at 25°C by convection
with a convection heat coefficient of 12 W/m2.C and by radiation to the surrounding surfaces
at 15°C. The total rate of heat loss from the surface is
a. 1,987 W
b. 2,239 W
c. 2,348 W
d. 3,451 W
e. 3,811 W
15. When radiation impinges on a surface, the fraction reflected is called reflectivity ρ, the
fraction absorbed as absorptivity α, and the fraction transmitted as transmissivity τ. For an
opaque material,
a. τ = 1
b. α = 1
c. ρ = 1
d. ρ + α = 1
e. ρ + α + τ = 1

16. The total emission of radiation per unit surface area per unit time from a blackbody is related
to the fourth power of the absolute temperature according to the Stefan-Boltzmann’s Law of
Radiation. In the British thermal units, the Stefan Boltzmann constant has a value of 0.1714
x 10-8 Btu/hr.ft2.°R4. In the SI system of units, it has the value
a. 9.3 x 10-8 W/m.K
b. 5.7 x 10-8 W/m2.K4
c. 5.7 x 10-8 W/m2.K
d. 6.5 x 10-8 W/m2.K4
e. 6.5 x 10-8 W/m2.K
17. Two infinite black plates at 800 and 300°C exchange heat by radiation. The heat transfer
per unit area (kW/m2) is
a. 1.4
b. 12.1
c. 23.0
d. 40.0
e. 69.0
18. The general heat conduction equation for heterogeneous isotropic solid is
T
  k T   q   c . For homogeneous isotropic substance k is constant and the
t
q 1 T
general heat conduction equation reduces to  T  
2
which is also called the
k  t
a. Fourier equation
b. Fourier-Biot equation
c. Heat diffusion equation
d. Laplace equation
e. Poisson equation
19. Adding insulation to the outside of small pipes does not always reduce heat transfer.
Calculate the critical thickness of asbestos insulation (k = 0.151 W/m.K) added to a 2 inch
outer diameter pipe with a surface heat transfer coefficient of h = 5 W/m 2.K.
a. 0.66 cm
b. 2 cm
c. 2.54 cm
d. 3.2 cm
e. 5.08 cm
20. A Cr-Ni steel wire, 2.5 mm in diameter and 30 cm in length, has a voltage of 10 volts applied
to it, while its surface is maintained at 90°C. Assuming that the electrical resistance of the
wire is 4.27 x 10-2 ohm and the thermal conductivity is 17.3 W/m.K, calculate the internal
heat generation in W/m3.
a. 3.88 x 10-3
b. 7.81 x 103
c. 2.89 x 106
d. 3.78 x 107
e. 1.59 x 109
21. A fin which is highly efficient when used with a gas coolant will usually be found hopelessly
inefficient when used with water. For a fin of given material and shape, as the convective
heat transfer coefficient is increased, the efficiency will
a. decrease
b. increase
c. remain the same
d. can increase or decrease

e. cannot be defined
22-23. A wall of 25 cm thickness and 10 m2 surface area is to be constructed from a material

which has an average thermal conductivity of 0.5 W/m.K. The average inner and outer fluid
temperature are 20°C and -20°C, and the corresponding heat transfer coefficients are 8 W/m 2.K
and 23 W/m2.K, respectively.
22. Calculate the rate of heat loss through the wall.

a. 12.1 W
b. 59.8 W
c. 598.4 W
d. 1,316 W
e. 13,160 W
23. Calculate the temperature of the inner surface of the wall.
a. -17.4°C
b. 3.6°C
c. 12.5 °C
d. 19.2°C
e. 20.0°C
24. Heat conduction is the term applied to the transfer of heat from one body to another or from
one part of a body to another part of the same body by the exchange of kinetic energy on a
molecular scale without any bulk motion of the body or portion of the body. Heat conduction
occurs in solids, liquids and gases, but as a distinct mode of heat transfer, it is usually of
most importance in the case of heat transfer through
a. gases
b. liquids
c. Newtonian fluids
d. Non-Newtonian fluids
e. solids
25. Heat transfer involving a change of phase from liquid to gas i.e. heat transfer when boiling or
condensing occurs, is classified as
a. conductive heat transfer
b. convective heat transfer
c. radiative heat transfer
d. sensible heat transfer
e. latent heat transfer
26. The value of thermal conductivity for a given material depends to some extent on the local
temperature and, in some materials, on the direction of heat flow although for most
engineering problems it is usually adequate to ignore this latter effect i.e. to assume that the
material involved is
a. anisotropic
b. heterogeneous
c. homogeneous
d. isotropic
e. pure
27. Among the terms commonly used to describe h are “convective heat transfer coefficient”,
“unit thermal convective conductance”, “film coefficient” or simply “heat transfer coefficient”.
The units of h are
a. kcal/hr.°C or Btu/hr.ft.°F
b. W/m2.K or Btu/ft.hr.°F
c. W/m2.K or Btu/ft2.hr.°F
d. W/m2.K or kcal/hr.°C

e. W/m2C or Btu/ft.hr.°F
28. Consider a combined heat transfer problem where there is heat loss from a surface by both
radiation and convection. If it is assumed that the fluid is transparent to the radiation, then
the governing equation is
a. Q convection = Q radiation
b. Q convection = Q conduction
c. Q radiation = Q conduction
d. Q total = Q convection + Q radiation
e. Q total = Q convection = Q radiation
29. Thermal diffusivity, α, has the units m2/s or ft2/hr. It is equal to
a. ρ.cp
b. k/ρ.cp
c. k/μ.cp
d. ρ.cp/k
e. μ.cp/k
30. Water at a mean temperature of 150°F flows through a steel pipe having an inside diameter
of 1” and an outer diameter of 1-1/4”. The outer surface of the pipe is exposed to air at
75°F. The heat transfer coefficients on the water and air sides are 100 Btu/ft 2.hr.°F and 1
Btu/ft2.hr.°F, respectively. Find the heat transfer rate per foot length of pipe.
a. 4.1 Btu/ft.hr
b. 25.9 Btu/ft.hr
c. 48.6 Btu/ft.hr
d. 49.2 Btu/ft.hr
e. 310.8 Btu/ft.hr
31. Heat is being transferred across a flat wall with thermal conductivity k = 0.5 W/m.K and
thickness L = 0.15 m. The convection coefficient on the left side of the wall is h L = 5
W/m2.K. The convection coefficient on the right side of the wall is h R = 25 W/m2.K. The
overall convection coefficient U is
a. 1.85 W/m2.K
b. 2.64 W/m2.K
c. 3.91 W/m2.K
d. 4.17 W/m2.K
e. 6.34 W/m2.K
32. In a Newtonian flow,
a. buoyancy force is negligible
b. fluid friction is negligible
c. kinetic energy is negligible
d. ρ is constant
e. μ is constant
33. When performing dimensional analysis, it is necessary to determine the dimensions of all
variables involved in a problem. Using the same notation as in the class notes, the
dimensions of specific power (W/kg) are
a. M-1L2t-1
b. M-1L3t-2
c. M-1L-2t-2
d. M-1L2t-3
e. L2t-3
34. A certain heat exchanger consists basically of 10 plates each 6” wide and 30” long. These
plates are held at a surface temperature of about 200°F. Air at a temperature of 100°F is
blown over them at a velocity of 30 ft/sec. Compute the Reynolds number. At the mean
temperature, 150°F, air has the following properties: ρ = 0.065 lbm/ft3, μ = 0.045 lbm/ft.hr,
k = 0.017 Btu/ft.hr.°F

a. 21.7
b. 1.6 x 104
c. 7.8 x 104
d. 3.9 x 105
e. 7.8 x 105
35. In order to derive empirical equations for use in the prediction of convective heat transfer
rates, only four variables i.e. Nu, Re, Gr and Pr need to be correlated. If there is no forced
flow or if its negligibly small, then purely free convection exists and
a. Nu = f(Re, Gr, Pr)
b. Nu = f(Re, Pr)
c. Nu = f(Re, Gr)
d. Nu = f(Gr, Pr)
e. Nu = f(Gr)
36. The flow in a boundary layer can either be laminar or turbulent. The Reynolds number is the
main criterion that determines when transition from laminar to turbulent occurs although
pressure gradients and steadiness in the initial flow have some influence. For a flow over a
flat plate, the Reynolds number at transition is about
a. 0
b. 2,000
c. 4,000
d. 5 x 105
e. 5 x 107
37. For an incompressible pipe flow, the Reynolds number at transition is about
a. below 2,000
b. 2,000 to 4,000
c. 4,000 to 5 x 105
d. 5 x 105 to 5 x 107
e. above 5 x 107
38. In a semi-transparent medium, portion of the irradiation may be reflected, absorbed and
transmitted. However, in case where transmission is negligible and the remaining absorption
and reflection processes may be treated as surface phenomena, the medium is said to be
a. absorber
b. incandescent
c. opaque
d. reflector
e. translucent
Refrigeration and Air Conditioning
1. The process of enlarging one tube end so that the end of the other tube of the same size will
fit within is called
a. Brazing d. swaging
b. Flaring e. welding
c. Joining
2. The compressor, hot gas line, condenser, and receiver tank, along with the compressor
motor are often combined into one compact unit, commonly called
a. air handling unit d. hermetic assembly
b. compressor assembly e. vapor compression system
c. condensing unit
3. The compressor power per kilowatt of refrigeration, which is the reciprocal of the coefficient
of performance is also known as
a. actual work d. performance factor

b. flow rate e. power of coefficient
c. net work
4. The quantity of heat that each unit mass of refrigerant absorbs from the refrigerated space is
known as
a. evaporator heat rate d. refrigeration load
b. refrigerating capacity e. system capacity
c. refrigerating effect
5. R-22 which is used in residential and commercial air conditioning is also called
a. Ammonia
b. Sulphur dioxide
c. Dichlorodifluoromethane
d. Monocholorodifluoromethane
e. Tricholorodifluoromethane
6. Carnot ideal refrigerator operates between 0 and 30 °C. What fraction of the cooling effect
(kW) is required as the work input?
a. 0.0 d. 0.11
b. 0.099 e. 0.91
c. 0.101
7. A Carnot reversed engine has a coefficient of performance of 3.5, when discharging heat at
45 °C. What is the heat-supply temperature (°C)?
a. –45.8 d. 12.9
b. –25.8 e. 35.0
c. 0.0
8. One (1) ton of refrigeration is equal to:

a. 1 kW d. 1,000 kg
b. 3.52 kW e. 2,000 lb
c. 4.14 kW
9. A reversed Carnot ideal cycle has a refrigerating COP of 4.5. What is the ratio T H/TL?
a. 0.77 d. 1.28
b. 0.82 e. 4.5
c. 1.22
10. In an “ideal” situation, what is the COP of a refrigerating cycle that is operating between
minus 40 °C and 40 °C?
a. 0.5 d. 5.0
b. 0.0 e. 7.0
c. 3.0
11. The area enclosed in the temperature-entropy diagram of the refrigeration cycle is
a. compressor work d. coefficient of performance
b. heat of absorption e. performance coefficient
c. heat of rejection

12. Tetrafluoroethane, a typical HFC and one of the more environment friendly refrigerants, has
been introduced in the market just recently to replace existing CFC refrigerants. Its
designation is
a. R-11 d. R-134a
b. R-12 e. R-501
c. R-22
13. What is the heat leakage, in kW, on a 1 in. thick plywood wall which has an area 4 x 8 ft
given a 20 °C difference between the surface temperatures?
a. 0.0135 d. 0.269
b. 0.736 e. 0.269
c. 0.136
14. A refrigerated room has 4 in. thick hollow block wall (k=0.7 W/m.C). If the convection
coefficient inside and outside the room is 9.3 W/m 2.C and 30 W/m2.C, respectively, calculate
the overall heat transfer coefficient (W/m 2.C).
a. 0.142 d. 6.89
b. 0.285 e. 7.04
c. 3.5
15. The primary sources of refrigeration load from products brought into and kept in the
refrigerated space are (1) heat removal required to reduce temperature from receiving to
storage temperature and (2)
a. Fenestration d. respiration heat
b. infiltration e. sensible heat
c. latent heat
16. Calculate the heat removal (kJ) to freeze 1 kg water from 30 °C to –4 °C. Assume cp above
freezing of 4.19 kJ/kg.K, cp below freezing of 1.94 kJ/kg.K and latent heat of fusion 335
kJ/kg.
a. 133.5 d. 468.5
b. 335.0 e. 477.5
c. 401.0
17. Refrigeration system capacity for products brought into refrigerated spaces is determined
from the time allotted for heat removal and assumes that the product is properly exposed to
remove the heat
in that time. Supposing it takes 3 hours to freeze the water in the previous
problem, calculate the refrigerating capacity, in W.
a. 12.4 d. 156.2
b. 37.2 e. 235.1
c. 43.4
18. Most food products freeze in the range of –3 to –0.5 °C. When the exact freezing
temperature is not know, we can assume that it is
a. 0 °C d. –2.2 °C
b. –0.5 °C e. –3 °C
c. –1.75 °C
19. 100 kg of lean beef is to be cooled from 18 to 4 °C. Specific heat of beef before freezing is
3.23 kJ/kg.K, after freezing, 1.68 kJ/kg.K. The latent heat of fusion is 233 kJ/kg. Determine
the product load in kJ

a. 4,522 d. 29,114
b. 5,814 e. 32,470
c. 23,300
20. Any moisture shrinkage involved in the extraction process appears as latent heat gain.
Subtracting the latent heat component from the total heat gain determines the
a. latent heat component d. sensible heat component
b. moisture content e. specific heat
c. relative humidity
21. In distribution-type warehouses and similar applications, infiltration air heat gain and
associated equipment-related load can amount to
a. 10 percent of the total ref load
b. less than a quarter of the total ref load
c. half of the fenestration load
d. more than half of total ref load
e. the entire refrigeration load
22. Fully established flow occurs only in the unusual case of an unused doorway standing open
to a large room or to the outdoors, where the cold outflow is not impeded by obstructions
(such as stacked pallets within or adjacent to the flow path either within or outside the cold
room) and can rapidly escape the vicinity of the doorway. The ratio of actual air exchange to
fully established flow is called
a. density factor d. effectiveness of doorway
b. doorway flow factor e. heat gain ratio
c. doorway open-time factor
23. Generally, how much safety factor (percent) is applied to the calculated load to allow for
possible discrepancies between the design criteria and actual operations.
a. 5 d. 20
b. 10 e. 50
c. 15
24. Which of the following is not susceptible to chilling injury?

a. Banana d. tomato
b. Eggplant e. strawberries
c. melons
25. The storage life recommendations are based on usual commercial practice, not necessarily
including special treatments, which could, in certain instances, extend storage life
considerably. For long term storage of fresh products, the optimum storage temperature for
many foods is
a. ambient temperature d. just below freezing
b. just above freezing e. at low freezing temperature
c. at freezing point
26. Severe physiological disorder that develops because of exposure to low but not freezing
temperature are classified as
a. chilling injury d. deterioration
b. dehydration e. shriveling injury
c. desiccation

27. To maintain top product quality, temperature in the cold storage room must be accurately
maintained. Variations of 1 to 1.5 K in the product temperature above or below the desired
temperature are too large in most cases. It is therefore important that the storage rooms be
equipped with an accurate
a. anemometer d. psychrometer
b. humidistat e. thermostat
c. manometer
28. Since beer bottles or cans is either pasteurized or filtered to destroy or remove the living
yeast cells, it does not require as low a storage temperature as keg beer. Bottled beer may
be stored at ordinary room temperature 21 to 24 °C, but for convenience, it is often stored at
temperature of
a. –2 to 0 °C d. 4 to 6 °C
b. 0 to 2 °C e. 6 to 8 °C
c. 2 to 4 °C
29. Seeds generally benefit from low temperatures and low humidity storage. High temperatures
and high humidity favor loss of
a. dry matter weight d. total weight
b. moisture e. viability
b. nutrients
30. The heart of the vapor compression system is the
a. compressor d. expansion device
b. condenser e. refrigerant
c. evaporator
31. The motor, compressor and condenser may be compactly mounted on the same frame and
located remotely from the expansion valve and evaporator. The system is often called
a. air handling unit d. fan unit
b. compressor unit e. motor unit
c. condensing unit
32. A reasonably accurate statement of where the compressors are used can be based on their
refrigerating capacity. Reciprocating compressors dominate from very small refrigerating
capacities to
a. about 0.3 kW
b. about 3 kW
c. about 30 kW
d. about 300 kW
e. about 3000 kW
33. An R-134a compressor has a 5 percent clearance volume and a displacement rate of 80 L/s
and pumps against a condensing temperature of 40°C and an evaporating temperature of
10°C. The refrigerant flow rate, in kg/s, is then
a. 0.037 d. 0.7
b. 0.37 e. 1.0
c. 0.5
34. The required rate of heat transfer in the condenser is predominately a function of the
refrigerating capacity and the temperatures of evaporation and condensation. The
condenser must reject both the energy absorbed by the evaporator and the heat of

compression added by the compressor. The ratio of the rate of heat rejected at condenser to
the rate of heat absorbed at evaporator is called
a. capacity control d. fin effectiveness
b. coefficient of performance e. heat-rejection ratio
c. discharge to suction heat ratio
35. A condenser manufacturer guarantees the U value under operating conditions to be 900
W/m2.K based on the water side-area. In order to allow fouling of the tubes, what is the U
value required when the condenser leaves the factory?
a. 1,070 W/m2.K d. 1,300 W/m2.K
b. 100 W/m .K2
e. 5,680 W/m2.K
c. 1,200 W/m .K2
38-39. A condenser is to transfer 60 kW with an airflow rate of 15 kg/s entering at 25°C and a
condensing temperature of 45°C.
36. The exit air temperature, in Celcius, is

a. 26 d. 29
b. 27 e. 30
c. 28
39. The log mean temperature difference is

a. 10.88 C d. 283.88 K
b. 17.92 C e. 4894.8 K
c. 39.0 C
40-42. The following properties of water are at 10°C:  = 0.00131 Pa.s;  =

1,000 kg/m3; k = 0.573 W/m.K; c p = 4,190 J/kg.K. Consider an evaporator with
water at 10°C flowing inside the tubes (8 mm ID) with velocity of 2m/s.
40. The Reynolds number is

a. 763 d. 763,358
b. 1,527 e. 1,526,717
c. 12,214
41. The Prandlt number is

a. 0.1 d. 5.0
b. 0.7 e. 9.6
c. 1.0
42. The Nusselt number is

a. 1 d. 1,000
b. 10 e. 10,000
c. 100
43. A mixture of two substances which cannot be separated into its components by distillation is
called
a. azeotrope d. refrigerant
b. hydrocarbon e. solution
c. ozone

44. An incompressible fluid passes through the compressor with an isentropic efficiency less than
100 percent. Compared to the ideal compressor, the work required to generate the
compression is
a. Less d. R-501
b. Greater e. greater than or equal
c. equal
45. An incompressible liquid flow through a pipe of constant diameter. Because of frictional
resistance to flow, the exit pressure is lower than the entrance pressure. The velocity
change is therefore
a. positive
b. negative
c. zero
e. may be positive or negative, but not zero
46. Which of the following can reduce economically the refrigeration requirements of the storage
space AND prevent condensation of the exterior?
a. Double glazing of windows
b. Increasing compressor capacity
c. Providing drains
d. Insulating the walls
47. An operation which consists of drawing a mixture of refrigerant vapor and noncondensibles
from the condenser, separating the
refrigerant, and discharging the noncondensibles is called
a. Frosting d. purging
b. Condensing e. subcooling
c. Priming
48. An expansion device which allows the pressure in the system to equalize during the off cycle
is called
a. capillary tube
b. constant-pressure expansion valve
c. float valve
d. superheat-controlled expansion valve
e. thermostatic expansion valve
49. A process of examining how one variable in a refrigerating system, or any system for that
matter, is affected by a change in another variable or parameter of the system is called
a. mathematical analysis d. successive substitution
b. performance trend e. system simulation
c. sensitivity analysis
50. A phenomenon in a capillary flow where further reduction in pressure differential fails to
increase the flow rate of the refrigerant is called
a. capillary flow d. supersonic flow
b. choked flow e. transonic flow
c. subsonic flow

53 - 55 Supposing that in a certain area the temperature is 34°C, relative humidity is 65 percent
and barometric pressure is 101.3 kPa.
Assume further:
Saturation pressure at 34°C = 5.318 kPa
Specific heat of dry air = 1.006 kJ/kg.K
Enthalpy of sat. steam at 34°C = 2,563.6 kJ/kg

Gas constant of dry air = 287 J/kg.K
Gas constant of water vapor = 461.5 J/kg.K
Do not use the psychrometric chart!
51. The humidity ratio, in decimal, is

a. 0.012 d. 0.027
b. 0.017 e. 0.032
c. 0.022
52. The enthalpy, in kJ/kg, is

a. 90 d. 120
b. 100 e. 130
c. 110
53. The specific volume of the air-vapor mixture

a. 0.86 d. 0.89
b. 0.87 e. 0.90
c. 0.88
54. When in the refrigerator, food is best wrapped in

a. aluminum foil d. glass
b. cardboard e. paper
c. china ware
55. When unlike metals are formed together on one end and then heated on the fastened end,
electrical current flow due to the difference in the temperature in the two ends of the device.
This is the basic principle of the temperature sensor called
a. Bellow d. thermocouple
b. heat anticipator e. thermostat
c. thermistor
56. Twenty three hundred liters of partially frozen ice cream at –4°C enter a hardening room
each day. Hardening is completed and the temperature of the ice cream is lowered to –28°C
in 10 hours. The average density of ice cream is 0.60 kg/L, the average latent heat per
kg is 233 kJ. Assume cp above freezing is 0.7 cal/g.°C, cp below freezing is 0.39 cal/g.°C
and freezing point is –5.6°C. 1 cal is equal to 4.18 J. The product load in kW is
a. 9.5 d. 12.5
b. 10.5 e. 13.5
c. 11.5
61-62 Water at the rate of 68 kg/min is heated from 35 to 75°C by an oil having a specific heat
of 1.9 kJ/kg.°C. The fluids are used in a counterflow double-pipe heat exchanger, and the
refrigerant enters the exchanger at 110°C and leaves at 75°C. The overall heat-transfer
coefficient is 320 W/m2.°C.

57. The total heat transfer, in kW, from the energy absorbed by the water is
a. 11.4 d. 647
b. 64.7 e. 2720
c. 189.5
58. The log mean temperature difference, in Celcius, is calculated to be

a. 35.0
b. 36.4
c. 37.4
d. 38.4
e. 40.0
Crop Processing
1. The moisture content at the turning point from the constant rate drying to the first stage
falling rate drying is said to be
a. absolute moisture content d. equilibrium moisture content
b. ambient moisture content e. saturation moisture content
c. critical moisture content
2. In conveying loose grains and bulk packages, the most appropriate materials handling
equipment is
a. belt conveyor d. pneumatic conveyor
b. bucket conveyor e. screw conveyor
c. chain conveyor
3. Grains in storage is alive, it breathes by expending nourishment, consuming oxygen and
generating carbon dioxide, water vapor and heat. For every kmol of glucose consumed in
respiration, how much heat is generated
a. 14 MJ d. 2,820 MJ
b. 1,000 MJ e. 4,000 MJ
c. 2,500 MJ
4. Triboleum Castaneum is commonly known as
a. Confused Flour Beetle d. Rice Weevil
b. Larger Grain borer e. Red Flour Beetle
c. Lesser Grain borer
5. A sample of corn has a moisture content of 11.8% on a wet basis. What is its moisture
content on a dry basis?
a. 10.5 % d. 14.0 %
b. 11.8 % e. 18.0 %
c. 13.4 %
6. Given
Initial moisture content = 22 %
Equilibrium moisture content = 14 %
Actual moisture content = 18 %
Calculate the moisture ratio
a. 0 d. 0.67
b. 0.375 e. 0.75
c. 0.5
7. The process of returning a portion of the exhaust air to the air intake of a dryer, or to return
under dried grains to the dryer or container from which it was removed is
a. curing d. tempering

b. drying e. turning
c. recirculation
8. A group of highly poisonous and carcinogenic compounds. which are, produced by molds or
fungi Aspergillus flavus on suitable substrate such as corn and peanuts are called
a. Aflatoxin d. Mycotoxins
b. Hydrophilic toxins e. Xerophilic toxins
c. Fusarium toxins
9. Milled corn grains where the outer covering and germs have been removed is called
a. brewers d. dent corn
b. broken corn e. flint corn
c. corn grits
10. The load added to the cooling equipment when cooled air is displaced by outdoor air entering
through the cracks around doors and windows when doors open
a. fenestration load d. product load
b. infiltration load e. transmission load
c. internal load
11. Palay varieties possessing special genetic characteristics in terms of color, aroma, flavor and
other cooking and eating qualities that make them distinct from other varieties are called
a. Fancy palay d. Modem variety
b. Grade A e. Traditional variety
c. Premium palay
12. An open-sundrying floor is used to reduce the moisture content of four tons of paddy from
25% to 15% wet basis. The amount of moisture removed is about
a. 301 kg d. 451 kg
b. 351 kg e. 471 kg
c. 401 kg
13. A batch type dryer is used to reduce the moisture content of 5 tons of corn from 26% to
14% wet basis. The total weight of the grain after drying is about
a. 4402 kg d. 4102 kg
b. 4302 kg e. 4002 kg
c. 4202 kg
14. A sample of corn weighing 105 g is heated in an oven kept at 130°C for 30 h. The sample
when removed from the oven weighs 88.5 g. Assuming that all the moisture has been
removed from the grain, what is the moisture content of the grain expressed on a wet basis?
a. 15.7 %
b. 18.6 %
c. 19.2 %
d. 30 %
e. 31.9 %
15. The equilibrium moisture content at zero relative humidity is
a. 0
b. 14
c. 18
d. 24
e. 100
Farm Structures

1. A type of dairy barn in which the cows are housed in a covered or partially covered yard,
but they are milked in batches in the milking parlor.
a. stanchiorn barn d. stall barn
b. open air barn e. distributed barn
c. loose house barn
2. The ability of the material to return to its original shape after the removal of stress.
a. brittleness d. elasticty
b. ductility e. plasticity
c. malleability
3. Concrete proportion used for footing.

a. 1:2:4 d. 1:2.5:5
b. 1:3:6 e. 1:3.5:7
c. 1:2:3
4. The average volume of loam or sand excavated by a man per hour.

a. 4.0 m3 d. 7.56 m3
b. 10.3 m3 e. 2.22 m3
c. 0.76 m 3
5. The ability of a material to retain its strength and other properties over a considerable
period of time.
a. durability d. stiffness
b. elasticity e. Resilience
c. toughness
6. Farmstead zone where large-scale animal production is placed.

a. Zone I d. Zone III
b. Zone II e. NOTA
c. Zone III
7. One of the most commonly used building material in many parts of the world because of
its reasonable cost, ease of working, attractive appearance and adequate life if protected
from moisture and insects.
a. concrete d. steel
b. wood e. glass
c. plastic
8. Foundation used often to support the timber frames of light buildings with no suspended
floors.
a. pier foundation d. pad and pole
b. continuous wall foundation e. raft
c. pile
9. The most common type of farmstead where buildings are located sufficiently far apart to
allow adequate room for roads, drives, and yards, reasonable fire safety and sanitation,
yet sufficiently close together to be effective for farm operation.
a. plantation d. distributed
b. concentrated e. ranch
c. suburban

10. The number of concrete hollow blocks needed per square meter of work.
a. 25 pcs d. 15.5 pcs
b. 12.5 pcs e. 50 pcs
c. 32.5 pcs
11. The distance of pit latrines from the nearest house or kitchen should be at least
a. 20 m d. 10 m
b. 40 m e. 200 m
c. 100 m
12. A force of 10 N is applied to one end of a 10 inches diameter circular rod. Calculate the
stress.
a. 0.20 kPa d. 0.10 kPa
b. 0.05 kPa e. 0.15 kPa
c. 0.30 kPa
13. The condition in which the concrete reaches its full compressive strength when the steel
reaches its yield strength is called
a. over reinforced d. pre-stressed
b. under reinforced e. NOTA
c. balanced
14. As per ACI code, the steel percentage in a reinforced concrete to give occupants warning
before failure occurs should be limited to:
a. 0.75 that of balanced design
b. 0.55 that of balanced design
c. 1.50 that of over reinforced design
d. 0.75 that of over reinforced design
e. NOTA
15. Group of Philippine timber used primarily for medium construction such as general
framing, paneling, and medium-grade furniture.
a. Class I d. Class IV
b. Class II e. Class V
c. Class III
16. The height of the truss from the bottom chord to the top of the ridge is called:
a. rise d. span
b. run e. slope
c. pitch
17. A mixture of methane, carbon dioxide and other gases produced by anaerobic treatment
of manure is called:
a. slurry d. solution
b. sewage e. effluent
c. biogas
18. The amount of oxygen used to break down organic and inorganic matter contained in
water.
a. biochemical oxygen demand d. oxygen concentration
b. oxygen demand e. oxygen depletion

c. chemical oxygen demand
19. The recommended minimum thickness of concrete footing if its projection from the
foundation is 20 cm.
a. 40 cm d. 80 cm
b. 60 cm e. NOTA
c. 10 cm
20. The estimated number of concrete hollow blocks (CHB) required in constructing a wall 7
m high and 10 m long.
a. 857 pcs d. 578 pcs
b. 125 pcs e. NOTA
c. 875 pcs
21. Which of the following is not true about reinforced concrete beam.
a. the tensile load is entirely carried by the steel bars
b. the compressive stress in concrete varies linearly from the neutral axis
c. the steel bars are assumed to be uniformly stressed
d. steel bars are placed in one layer on the tensile side of the beam located below the
neutral axis
e. NOTA
Problems 22-24. A simply supported yakal with a clear span of 4 m carries a load of 5 kN/m
extending over the entire length. The beam is 5 cm wide and 20 cm high.
22. The maximum bending moment that may occur under the given loading is:
a. 20 kN-m d. 30 kN-m
b. 10 kN-m e. NOTA
c. 15 kN-m
23. The maximum horizontal shear stress caused by the vertical load is:
a. 2.5 MPa d. 1.5 MPa
b. 1.75 MPa e. NOTA
c. 1.0 MPa
24. The actual deflection of the beam is:

a. 0.00325 m d. 0.325 m
b. 3.25 cm e. NOTA
c. 3.75 cm
25. Which of the following is not considered as a roof shape normally used in farm buildings
a. Flat d. Hip
b. Gable e. Howe
c. Monitor
26. The standard commercial size of a corrugated G.I. sheet is:

a. 80 cm wide with varying length of 1.5 m to 3.6 m at an interval of 30 cm
b. 0.9 m wide by 2.40 m long
c. 90 cm wide with varying length of 1.5 to 3.2 m at an interval of 30 cm
d. effective width of 60 cm and 3 m long
e. NOTA

27. Which of the following is a basic part of a farm building.

a. foundation d. floors
b. walls and pillars e. AOTA
c. roofs
28. The proportion by volume of cement, sand, and gravel in a Class A concrete.
a. 1:2:3 d. 1:3:6
b. 1:4:5 e. 1:3.5:7
c. 1:2:4
29. Which of the following is not a factor in selecting farmstead site

a. orientation d. soil conditions
b. prevailing wind e. NOTA
c. elevation and drainage
30. Loads that develop through the use of the structure which include the weight of the
stored productts, animals, machinery and equipment, vehicles and other similar items.
a. windloads c. live loads
b. dead loads d. NOTA
31. Structural elements which support loads parallel to its longitudinal axis are called:
a. beams c. combined members
b. columns d. NOTA
32. Which of the following statements is/are true?

a. wood is more resistant to compression perpendicular to the grain than parallel to the
grain.
b. shearing stress may occur either parallel or perpendicular to the grain.
c. the resistance of wood to shearing stress parallel to the grain is high compared to
shearing stress perpendicular to the grain.
d. AOTA
33. The formula used to measure the safe lateral load for wire nails driven perpendicular to
the grain of seasoned wood with the nail at least 2/3 of its length into the member receiving
the point in softwoods and ½ its length in hardwoods.
a. P = KD3/2 c. P = KD2
b. P = 1380G D 5/2
d. NOTA
34. The basic formula for determining the safe lateral resistance of wood screws driven
perpendicular to the grain seasoned wood.
a. P = KD3/2 c. P = KD2
a. P = 1380G D 5/2
d. NOTA
35. Smaller members which directly support the floor or ceiling.

a. joists c. girders
b. rafters d. purlins
36. Larger members which support the ends of the joists.

a. joists c. girders
b. rafters d. purlins

37. Stress perpendicular to the grain of wood beam occurring at beam supports or where loads
from other members frame into the beam.
a. bearing stress c. shearing stress
b. bending stress d. bonding stress
38. The assembly consisting of a tread and a riser.

a. rise c. spandril
b. string d. steps
39. A small post supporting the handrail or a coping.

a. balustrade c. riser
b. baluster d. run
40-44. An 8” x12” rectangular wood column has an unbraced length of 16 ft. The modulus of
elasticity and allowable compression stress parallel to the grain are assumed to have a value
of 11GPa and 8 MPa , respectively.
40. The wood column can be classified as :

a. short c. long
b. intermediate d. NOTA
41. Determine the maximum axial load that the column can support.
a. 350kN c. 532kN
b. 253kN d. 352kN
42. Compute the section modulus of the beam.

a. 5 x 10-7 mm3 c. 4.28 x 10-2 mm3
-3
b. 4.28 x 10 m 3
d. 4.28 x 10-3 mm2
43. The maximum resisting moment of the beam.
a. 42.8 kN.m c. 48.2 kN.m
b. 4.28 kN.m d. 4.28 kN.m
44. The maximum concentrated load that the beam can support if it will be designed for
bending.
a. 13.54 kN c. 15.3 kN
b. 53.1 kN d. 35.1kN
ENGINEERING LAWS AND SPECIFICATIONS (Pre-Board 2007)
1. They are rules of conduct of any organized society, however simple or small, that are
enforced by threat of punishment if they are violated.
a. Contracts b. Laws c. Specifications d. Bids
2. The first school that offered the BSAE program.

a. UPLB b. CLSU c. GAUF d. MSU
3. The first Agricultural Engineering Law that was enacted by the Philippine Congress
a. RA 8559 b. RA 3927 c. RA 8293 d. RA 8435

4. It refers to the profession requiring the application of the fundamental and known
principles of engineering to the peculiar condition and requirements of agriculture as an
industry and as a field of science.
a. Agricultural Engineering c. Practice of Agricultural Engineering
b. Code of Standards d. Code of Ethics
5. The Agricultural and Fishery Modernization Act of 1997.

a. RA 8559 b. RA 3927 c. RA 8293 d. RA 8435
6. A requirement for taking the AE board examination

a. Must be a graduate of BSAE c. Must be a Filipino citizen
c. Must have work experienced d. Must be at least 21 years old
7. To be a member of the board of agricultural engineering, one must have a valid

professional license and an active practitioner for not less than ________ prior to his
appointment.
a. 5 years c. 3 years
b. 20 years d. 10 years
8. To be qualified as having passed the board examination for agricultural engineers, a

candidate must obtain a weighted general average of ________ with no grades lower
than ___________ in any given subject.
a. 75 %, 55% c. 75%, 50%
b. 70%, 55% d. 70%, 50%
9. Documents signed by a Registered Professional Agricultural Engineer shall include the

following data except
a. Bureau Internal Revenue number c. Seal
b. License number and its validity d. Professional Tax Receipt number
10. One of the sanctions imposed for the violation of RA 8559 is______
a. a fine not < P 50,000 but not > P 300,000
b. imprisonment of 3 months to 3years
c. a fine not < P 50,000 but not > P 200,000
d. imprisonment of 6 months to 6 years
11. An agricultural engineer who has been delinquent for________ years shall be
temporarily removed from the roll of agricultural engineering.
a. 3 years c. 5 years
b. 10 years d. 7 years
12. A detailed, exact statement of particulars, especially a statement describing

materials, dimensions, and quality of work for something to be built, installed, or
manufactured.
a. Contracts c. Specifications
b. Bids d. Laws
13. A technical drawing that defines fully and clearly the requirements for engineered
items.
a. Engineering Drawing c. Engineering specifications
b. Technical Specifications d. Published specifications

14. This is implemented to attain and maintain the highest standards and quality in the
practice of agricultural engineering profession.
a. Agricultural Engineering Standards
b.. Continuing Professional Education
c. Agricultural Engineering Code of Ethics
d. Intellectual Property Code
15. Well prepared specifications based on the experiences of engineers through time.
a. Engineering specifications c. Technical specifications
b. Published specifications d. Detailed specifications
STRUCTURES (Pre-Board 2007)
1. It is the measure of the resistance of materials to bending stresses

a. elasticity c. modulus of rupture
b. modulus of elasticity d. moment of inertia
2. Suppose that the wooden beam to be used is circular in shape, what will be its
section modulus if its diameter is 20 cm?
a. 785.4 cm3 c. 7068.6 cm3
b. 98.2 cm 3
d. 14137.17 cm3
3 – 6. A farmer would like to cement the flooring of his palay warehouse with a total
volume of 100 m3. Determine the material required using 20 liters of water for
every bag of cement and a 1:2:3 mixture.
3. How many bags of cement are needed?

a. 10 c. 950
b. 500 d. 10,000
4. How many cu. meters of sand are needed?

a. 1 c. 100
b. 55 d. 580
5. How many cu. meters of gravel are needed?

a. 45 c. 300
b. 80 d. 850
6. How many liters of water are needed?
a. 200 c. 10,000
b. 5,000 d. 19,000
7. This stonework is made from squared stones, with thin mortar joints.
a. ashlar c. mortar
b. Flagg d. rubble
8. The total building floor area requirement for 1,000 fattening hogs is:
a. 3000 – 3500 sq ft c. 5000 – 5200 sq ft
b. 4000 – 4500 sq ft d. 6000 – 10000 sq ft

9. The allowable load and lateral resistance for wood screws in the side grain of
seasoned wood is expressed by the following formula:
a. P = KD3/2 c. P = 115060D5/6
b. P = KD 2
d. P = KD5
10. Which feature of construction does not necessarily refer to the use of concrete?
a. comparatively stronger and more durable than bricks
b. especially adaptable to watertight constructions
c. higher strength in tension
d. particularly suitable for foundations, pillars, walls, floors and for
constructing water tanks
11. The process of strengthening concrete through hydration is known as:

a. annealing c. hydrolysis
b. tempering d. curing
12 - 14. A 10 cm x 15 cm wooden column with an unbraced length of 5 m is used to

carry an axial load P. The allowable compressive stress parallel to grain and
modulus of elasticity are 8 MPa and 30 GPa, respectively
12. The column above is classified as:

a. intermediate c. short
b. long d. special
13. The modified allowable compressive stress is equal to:

a. 2.35 MPa c. 5.58 MPa
b. 3.60 MPa d. 8.55 MPa
14. The maximum load P the column can support is:

a. 54.00 kN c. 95.2 kN
b. 87.63 kN d. 52.9 kN
15. The allowable load that can be supported by a 10” x 12” simple wood beam
having a span of 4 m if it is designed to resist bending stress only (allowable
bending stress = 16.5 MPa).
a. 30 kN-m c. 32.4 kN-m
b. 40 kN-m d. 64.8 kN-m
16. A man would like to build a rectangular room having a 6 m x 4 m x 3m (l-w-h)

dimension. Estimate the no. of concrete hollow blocks needed (exclude the
foundations).
a. 375 c. 750
b. 450 d. 900
17. The recommended distance of a septic tank from a well is:

a. 10-11 meters c. 15 meters or more
b. 12 – 14 meters d. none of the above
18 - 19. A solid aluminum shaft 2 in. in diameter is subjected to two torques as

shown in the figure.

200 lb-ft 800 lb-ft
2 ft 3ft
18. Determine the maximum shearing stress in each segment.

a. seg A = 47.7 psi; seg B = 63.7 psi c. seg A = 763 psi; seg B = 1.02 ksi
b. seg A = 573 psi; seg B = 763.9 psi d. seg A = 9.17 ksi, seg B = 12.22ksi
19. Determine the angle of rotation at the free end. Use G = 4 x 10 6 psi.
a. 0.03° c. 4.73°
b. 0.08° d. 14.85°
20. Determine the beam deflection at 1.5 m from the left support of the simply
supported beam loaded as shown below:
20 KN/m
10 KN
A B C D E
1m 1m 2m 1m
a. 341.57 KN-m3 c. 683.14 KN-m3

b. 463.05 KN-m3 d. 724.08 KN-m3


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PSAE Region IV - Agricultural Engineering Board Review Materials III-1

THIRD PART QUESTIONS

1. A 94 lb-bag of Portland cement has a bulk volume of:

8. The horizontal part of a step including the nosing.

9. It is the capacity of the material to resist fracture under impact loading.

Rural Electrification, Refrigeration and Air Conditioning, Agricultural Crop Processing,

b. 0.05 kPa d. 0.15 kPa

11. The actual slenderness ratio of the column is:

12. The column is classified as:

14. What is the maximum bending moment experienced by the beam?

Rural Electrification, Refrigeration and Air Conditioning, Agricultural Crop Processing,

c. 6.02x 10-4 m d. 6.90x 10-4 m

22. A wooden beam having a width of 50 mm is subjected to a moment of 2400 N-m.

26. The ultimate load divided by factor of safety is called as:

27. The measure of the resistance of materials to bending stresses

28.The ratio of stress of an elastic material to the strain is called

Rural Electrification, Refrigeration and Air Conditioning, Agricultural Crop Processing,

36. What is the current I in the circuit shown below?

I a) R3 / (R1R2 + R2R3 + R1R3)

37. What is the current in the resistor R3?

(a) 3.33 amps

(a) 26 (b) 13 (c) 34 (d) 14 (e) nota

(a) 195.9 kw-hrs (b) 129.9 kw-hrs

Rural Electrification, Refrigeration and Air Conditioning, Agricultural Crop Processing,

41. What is the current flowing in the center leg?

42. What is the current flowing in the 4 ohm resistor?

(a) 5.394 amps (b) 3.415 amps (c) 8.804 amps

45. A condition of balance maintained by an equality of opposing forces is called

Rural Electrification, Refrigeration and Air Conditioning, Agricultural Crop Processing,

Rural Electrification, Refrigeration and Air Conditioning, Agricultural Crop Processing,

Rural Electrification, Refrigeration and Air Conditioning, Agricultural Crop Processing,

61. In a throttling insulated device, the enthalpy in the direction of flow

62. In a refrigeration system, the equipment that rejects heat is the

Rural Electrification, Refrigeration and Air Conditioning, Agricultural Crop Processing,

75. _____________________ is defined as natural poisoning of man or animals through

Rural Electrification, Refrigeration and Air Conditioning, Agricultural Crop Processing,

Rural Electrification, Refrigeration and Air Conditioning, Agricultural Crop Processing,

91. Bolts that could only be tightened on one side

93. Power tool with saw teeth on a continuous blade/ band.

97. Safety cross color is

99. Sheet metal that is thicker than gauge 22

Farm Electrification (Pre-Board 2005)

Rural Electrification, Refrigeration and Air Conditioning, Agricultural Crop Processing,

1. A 10 ohm resistor is connected in parallel with a capacitive reactance of 24

(a) 26.55 ohms (b) 13.73 ohms (c) 9.23 ohms

(a) 195.9 kw-hrs (b) 339.6 kw-hrs (c) 27.8 kw-hrs

3. What is the current flowing in the center leg? (d)

(a) 4 amps (b) 6 amps (c) 5 amps 32 V

(d) 3 amps (e) 7 amps

6.25 ohms 6.25 ohms 6.25 ohms 6.25 ohms 2 ohms

32 V 2.5 V 50 V 6.25 V 1.32 V

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(a) 10 volts (b) 20 volts (c) 15 volts

(a) 8.34 ohms (b) 40.68 ohms (c) 25.2 ohms

Rural Electrification, Refrigeration and Air Conditioning, Agricultural Crop Processing,

(d) 10 (e) none of the above

4. In a 3-phase Y-configuration system, (a)

1. Power factor of an electric circuit can have a value of:

Rural Electrification, Refrigeration and Air Conditioning, Agricultural Crop Processing,

a. Network equivalent b. Thevenin equivalent

Rural Electrification, Refrigeration and Air Conditioning, Agricultural Crop Processing,

d. All of the above.

a. 2 ohms b. 3 ohms c. 6 ohms d. 8 ohms e. none of the above

12. In the circuit below, determine the current Iz.