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Sample

Exam
ITIL Foundation

ITIL
Sample examination ITIL Foundation
ITIL Foundation Certificate in IT Service Management
Edition September 2006

Content
3 Introduction
4 Sample exam
14 Answer key
34 The evaluation

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Copyright © 2006 EXIN

All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be published,


reproduced, copied or stored in a data processing system or circulated in
any form by print, photo print, microfilm or any other means without
written permission by EXIN.

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ITIL is a Registered Trademark of OGC.

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Introduction

This is the sample examination ITIL Foundation.

This sample examination consists of 40 multiple-choice questions. Each


multiple-choice question has a number of possible answers, of which only one
is the correct answer.

The maximum number of points that can be obtained for this examination is
40. Each correct answer is worth one point. If you obtain 26 points or more
you have passed.

The time allowed for this examination is 60 minutes.

No rights may be derived from this information.

Good luck!

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Sample exam

1 of 40

Which ITIL process or function deals with issues and questions about the use
of services, raised by end users?

A Availability
. Management
B Service Level
. Management
C Problem
. Management
D
Service Desk
.

2 of 40

What is the difference between a Known Error and a Problem?

A The underlying cause of a Known Error is known; the underlying cause of a


. Problem is not known.
B A Known Error involves an error in the IT infrastructure; a Problem does not
. involve such an error.
C A Known Error always originates from an Incident; this is not always the
. case with a Problem.
D With a Problem, the relevant Configuration Items have been identified; this is not
. the case with a Known Error.

3 of 40

Who coordinates the production of the Forward Schedule of Changes (FSC)?

A
Change Manager
.
B Change Advisory
. Board (CAB)
C
Release Manager
.
D
IT Management
.

4 of 40

Within an organization, who is authorized to establish an agreement with the

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IT department, concerning IT Services?

A the Service Level


. Manager
B the user of the IT
. resources
C
the ITIL process owner
.
D the customer of the IT
. department

5 of 40

Where are requirements that influence capacity, recorded?

A
Capacity Plan
.
B Service Improvement
. Program
C
Service Quality Plan
.
D Service Level
. Requirements

6 of 40

When a new version of a software package is installed in a desktop or


client/server environment, it can affect other software packages already in
that environment. Sometimes, these other software packages need to be
installed again.

When installing new software, which ITIL process monitors whether other
software must be reinstalled and tested?

A
Change Management
.
B IT Service Continuity
. Management
C
Problem Management
.
D
Release Management
.

7 of 40

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The Availability Manager wants to know the trend regarding the recovery of IT
components.

From which process or function would he/she request the necessary


information?

A
Service Desk
.
B Release
. Management
C Configuration
. Management
D Service Level
. Management

8 of 40

Which term means that an incident has departed from the normal service
level?

A Escalati
. on
B
Impact
.
C
Priority
.
D
Urgency
.

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9 of 40

Problem Control is a sub-process of Problem Management. The first activity of


Problem Control is to identify and record problems.

What is the first step to be taken in identifying a problem?

A analyze all existing


. incidents
B classify and prioritize
. problems
C
solve problems
.
D provide management
. information

10 of 40

Which one of the following is the direct responsibility of Change Management


to report on a regular basis, say monthly?

A number of Requests for Change (RFCs) registered in the Configuration


. Management Database (CMDB) during the measuring period
B number of Changes raised by Problem Management during the measuring
. period
C number of approved RFCs that had their implementation schedule delayed
. during the measuring period
D
incorrectly registered Configuration Items (CIs) found during the measuring period
.

11 of 40

From which data repository can statistical information be extracted to gain an


insight into the structure and composition of the IT infrastructure?

A
the Capacity Database (CDB)
.
B the Configuration Management
. Database (CMDB)
C
the Definitive Hardware Store (DHS)
.
D
the Definitive Software Library (DSL)
.

12 of 40

What is another term for Uptime?

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A Mean Time Between Failures
. (MTBF)
B
Mean Time To Repair (MTTR)
.
C Mean Time Between System
. Incidents (MTBSI)
D Relationship between MTBF and
. MTBSI

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13 of 40

Which of the following is an activity of IT Service Continuity Management?

A
informing end users of a system failure
.
B
documenting the fallback arrangements
.
C
reporting regarding availability
.
D guaranteeing that the Configuration Items are constantly
. kept up-to-date

14 of 40

What is the definition of Confidentiality within the Security Management


process?

A protection of the data against


. unauthorized access and use
B
ability to access data at any moment
.
C the capability to verify that the data is
. correct
D
the correctness of the data
.

15 of 40

What is usually not an activity of the Service Desk?

A
handling (standard) Requests For Change
.
B handling complaints about the services of
. the IT organization
C
determining the root cause of incidents
.
D
providing information on products and services
.

16 of 40

Which of the following documents is an output of one of the tactical


processes?

A
user manual for an application
.

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B
newsletter from the Service Desk about an application
.
C discussion about a Request for Change (RFC) for expansion of an
. application with the person who submitted the RFC
D
agreements on the availability percentage of an application
.

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17 of 40

An end-user's PC crashes. This is not the first time that he has had problems
with his PC. It also crashed three months ago. The user reports the crash to
the Service Desk.

What type of record should be created for the user's call?

A
an Incident
.
B
a Known Error
.
C
a Problem
.
D a Request for
. Change

18 of 40

Which of the following is an example of a Service Request?

A a complaint about the


. provision of services
B
an error report
.
C a request for relocation of
. equipment
D
a request for documentation
.

19 of 40

What is an activity within the area of Proactive Problem Management?

A
handling Requests for Change
.
B performing trend analyses and identifying potential
. incidents and problems
C
following up on all incidents and disruptions
.
D minimizing the disruption to services resulting from Changes to
. the IT environment

20 of 40

Which ITIL process or function makes the most important and most frequent
substantive contribution to keeping the Configuration Management Database

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(CMDB) up to date?

A Change
. Management
B
Service Desk
.
C Incident
. Management
D Problem
. Management

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21 of 40

One of the activities of Configuration Management is Control.

What does this activity entail?

A updating changes to Configuration Items (CIs) and their relationships in the


. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
B verifying that the CIs and their attributes are specified correctly in the
. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
C installing all new CIs and their attributes correctly in the operating
. environment
D making an inventory and baseline of all CIs and their attributes in the operating
. environment

22 of 40

Which activity is part of the Availability Management process?

A
classifying Requests For Change
.
B
defining the impact code for incidents
.
C identifying problems with the
. availability of IT Services
D
measuring the availability of IT Services
.

23 of 40

In which ITIL process are rates for IT services negotiated with customers?

A
Availability Management
.
B
Capacity Management
.
C Financial Management for
. IT Services
D
Service Level Management
.

24 of 40

Which attribute in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) would


help to ascertain which Configuration Items are in maintenance at a particular
moment in time?

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A purchase
. date
B
owner
.
C
location
.
D
status
.

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25 of 40

Which of the following must be individually and uniquely authorized by


Change Management before any action can take place?

A regular data entry from Users into a


. database
B
changing a password for a User
.
C adding a new User to the human
. resources system
D moving a networked printer to a new
. location

26 of 40

There have been two incidents on a server. It appears that the server is
overloaded due to its multiple connections.

What kind of action should Incident Management take in this instance?

A
Ask Capacity Management to expand the Capacity of the server.
.
B
Ask Problem Management to look into the Problem right away.
.
C Ask Security Management to check whether too many
. authorizations may have been issued.
D Ask Service Level Management to revise the Service Level Agreements
. (SLAs).

27 of 40

Which ITIL process includes the matching of incidents with known


(documented) solutions as one of its activities?

A Change
. Management
B Incident
. Management
C Problem
. Management
D Configuration
. Management

28 of 40

When the cause of a Problem is known, what status is given to the Problem?

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A
the status 'Incident'
.
B the status 'Known
. Error'
C
the status 'Solved'
.
D the status 'Request For
. Change'

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29 of 40

After a Change has been implemented, an evaluation is performed.

What is this evaluation called?

A Forward Schedule of
. Changes (FSC)
B Post Implementation Review
. (PIR)
C Service Improvement
. Programme (SIP)
D Service Level Requirement
. (SLR)

30 of 40

Due to a defect, a user's sound card is replaced with a new one, made by a
different manufacturer.

Which ITIL process is responsible for registering the new sound card?

A Change
. Management
B Configuration
. Management
C Incident
. Management
D
Problem Management
.

31 of 40

Where are the contents of software releases maintained?

A
Capacity Database (CDB)
.
B Configuration Management
. Database (CMDB)
C
Definitive Hardware Store (DHS)
.
D
Definitive Software Library (DSL)
.

32 of 40

Which of the following is included in a Service Level Agreement (SLA)?

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A
arrangements about the services to be provided
.
B
availability statistics for the previous period
.
C an action plan for setting up the Service Level
. Management process
D
detailed technical descriptions of a network protocol
.

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33 of 40

Which ITIL process ensures that the IT Services are restored as soon as
possible in the case of a disruption?

A Change
. Management
B Incident
. Management
C Problem
. Management
D Service Level
. Management

34 of 40

Which information does the "Financial Management for IT Services" process


deliver to Service Level Management?

A the availability of the IT services in a


. specific period
B the costs of the Financial
. Management system
C the total costs of network
. management
D how much has been spent on IT services
. per client

35 of 40

What is the responsibility of the Security Manager when a new Service Level
Agreement (SLA) is created?

A translating the Service Level Requirements


. for data security
B determining the Security Baseline in the
. Service Catalogue
C providing guidelines for the Security
. section of the SLA
D reporting on the technical availability of
. security components

36 of 40

Which ITIL process is responsible for control and management of the


implementation of a new software release?

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A Change
. Management
B Configuration
. Management
C Release
. Management
D Service Level
. Management

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37 of 40

Which ITIL process determines relevant counter measures based on an


analysis of threats and dependencies concerning IT Services?

A
Availability Management
.
B IT Service Continuity
. Management
C
Problem Management
.
D
Service Level Management
.

38 of 40

Which Capacity Management activity can be used to influence the usage of


computing resources?

A Application
. Sizing
B Demand
. Management
C
Modeling
.
D
Tuning
.

39 of 40

Which ITIL process is responsible for developing a charging system?

A
Availability Management
.
B
Capacity Management
.
C Financial Management for
. IT Services
D
Service Level Management
.

40 of 40

What is IT Service Management?

A
effectively and efficiently managing the quality of the IT Services
.

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B organizing the management of the IT infrastructure according to the best
. practices of ITIL
C managing the IT infrastructure in a process-oriented way so that the IT
. organization can provide the customer with IT products in a professional
way
D
promoting an understanding of IT Services among a wider audience
.

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Answer key

1 of 40

Which ITIL process or function deals with issues and questions about the use
of services, raised by end users?

A Availability
. Management
B Service Level
. Management
C Problem
. Management
D
Service Desk
.

A. Incorrect. Availability Management has no direct contact with users.


B. Incorrect. Service Level Management mainly concerns itself with the
agreements with the customer for the IT Services, not with resolving
malfunctions or answering users' questions.
C. Incorrect. Problem Management concerns itself with investigating the
underlying cause of a Problem.
D. Correct. Dealing with questions about the use or issues with services is the
task of the Service Desk.

2 of 40

What is the difference between a Known Error and a Problem?

A The underlying cause of a Known Error is known; the underlying cause of a


. Problem is not known.
B A Known Error involves an error in the IT infrastructure; a Problem does not
. involve such an error.
C A Known Error always originates from an Incident; this is not always the
. case with a Problem.
D With a Problem, the relevant Configuration Items have been identified; this
. is not the case with a Known Error.

A. Correct. An underlying cause will be identified when a Problem is being


investigated. This results in a Known Error.
B. Incorrect. The cause of both a Known Error and a Problem can be located in
the IT infrastructure. This cause will be known in the case of a Known Error,
but not in the case of a Problem.
C. Incorrect. A Problem should always have been defined from the registration
of one or more Incidents.
D. Incorrect. In the description of a Problem, the Configuration Items involved
are not yet known. The Problem must still be investigated, after which the
cause of the error and the relevant Configuration Items are identified and the
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Problem becomes a Known Error.

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3 of 40

Who coordinates the production of the Forward Schedule of Changes (FSC)?

A
Change Manager
.
B Change Advisory
. Board (CAB)
C
Release Manager
.
D
IT Management
.

A. Correct. The Change Manager is the only person who can assume ultimate
responsibility for the FSC.
B. Incorrect. The Change Advisory Board (CAB) is an advisory body and can
give recommendations, but the Change Manager has ultimate responsibility.
C. Incorrect. The Release Manager uses the Forward Schedule of Changes and
may provide feedback and status reports against it only.
D. Incorrect. The Change Manager is empowered with authority on behalf of
the IT Management.

4 of 40

Within an organization, who is authorized to establish an agreement with the


IT department, concerning IT Services?

A the Service Level


. Manager
B the user of the IT
. resources
C
the ITIL process owner
.
D the customer of the IT
. department

A. Incorrect.The Service Level Manager belongs to the IT department, and as


such cannot establish an agreement with the IT department.
B. Incorrect. The user of the IT resources has no authorization beyond the
daily use for his or her daily tasks.
C. Incorrect. The ITIL process owner belongs to the IT department, and as
such cannot establish an agreement with the IT department.
D. Correct. The customer of the IT department is authorized to establish an
agreement with the IT department, concerning the IT Services he or she may
purchase.

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5 of 40

Where are requirements that influence capacity, recorded?

A
Capacity Plan
.
B Service Improvement
. Program
C
Service Quality Plan
.
D Service Level
. Requirements

A. Incorrect. The Capacity Plan gives a picture of the existing capacity and the
expected developments in the demand for services. It also gives an overview
of expected costs.
B. Incorrect. Actions, phases and delivery dates are documented in the
Service Improvement Program, the goal of which is to improve an IT service.

C. Incorrect. The Service Quality Plan contains process parameters for


purposes of management information.
D. Correct. Requirements are laid down in the Service Level Requirements,
which form the basis for designing, developing and constructing the service to
be able in the end to safeguard the SLA.

6 of 40

When a new version of a software package is installed in a desktop or


client/server environment, it can affect other software packages already in
that environment. Sometimes, these other software packages need to be
installed again.

When installing new software, which ITIL process monitors whether other
software must be reinstalled and tested?

A
Change Management
.
B IT Service Continuity
. Management
C
Problem Management
.
D
Release Management
.

A. Correct. Change Management ensures that the risks associated with a


Change are assessed and kept to a minimum.
B. Incorrect. IT Service Continuity Management may be involved indirectly in
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this matter if there is a serious problem as a result of the Change, and the IT
Service Continuity Plan must be put into effect as a result. However, this is
not the responsibility of IT Service Continuity Management.
C. Incorrect. This is not the task of Problem Management.
D. Incorrect. The actual activities (reinstalling and testing packages) may be
the task of Release Management, but Change Management is responsible for
assessing the necessity of these activities, and monitoring the results and the
quality of these activities.

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7 of 40

The Availability Manager wants to know the trend regarding the recovery of IT
components.

From which process or function would he/she request the necessary


information?

A
Service Desk
.
B Release
. Management
C Configuration
. Management
D Service Level
. Management

A. Incorrect. This is not the responsibility of the Service Desk. The Incident
Management process does provide relevant information to Configuration
Management by linking incident records to CI's.
B. Incorrect. This is not the responsibility of Release Management.
C. Correct. Data pertaining to the failure rate, duration, etc. can be retrieved
from the CMDB as incidents can be linked to CI records.
D. Incorrect. This is not the responsibility of Service Level Management.

8 of 40

Which term means that an incident has departed from the normal service
level?

A Escalati
. on
B
Impact
.
C
Priority
.
D Urgenc
. y

A. Incorrect. This situation involves an incident; it does not (yet) involve an


Escalation.
B. Correct. The Impact is the degree to which the incident leads to a
departure from the normal service level.
C. Incorrect. The Priority is determined by Impact and Urgency.
D. Incorrect. Urgency pertains to the rate at which the incident should be
remedied.

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9 of 40

Problem Control is a sub-process of Problem Management. The first activity of


Problem Control is to identify and record problems.

What is the first step to be taken in identifying a problem?

A analyze all existing


. incidents
B classify and prioritize
. problems
C
solve problems
.
D provide management
. information

A. Correct. Analysis of all existing incidents is the first activity of Problem


Management in the Problem Control subprocess.
B. Incorrect. This is not one of the first steps.
C. Incorrect. This will certainly not be the first step. In order to solve a
Problem, Problem Management must first investigate what the Problem is.
D. Incorrect. Problem Management can only report on the Problem when
information is known about the Problem. This is the last step.

10 of 40

Which one of the following is the direct responsibility of Change Management


to report on a regular basis, say monthly?

A number of Requests for Change (RFCs) registered in the Configuration


. Management Database (CMDB) during the measuring period
B number of Changes raised by Problem Management during the measuring
. period
C number of approved RFCs that had their implementation schedule delayed
. during the measuring period
D incorrectly registered Configuration Items (CIs) found during the measuring
. period

A. Incorrect. This is the responsibility of Configuration Management to report.


B. Incorrect. This is the responsibility of Problem Management to report.
C. Correct. This is the responsibility of Change Management to report all
exceptions to the Change schedule.
D. Incorrect. This is the responsibility of Configuration Management.

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11 of 40

From which data repository can statistical information be extracted to gain an


insight into the structure and composition of the IT infrastructure?

A
the Capacity Database (CDB)
.
B the Configuration Management
. Database (CMDB)
C
the Definitive Hardware Store (DHS)
.
D the Definitive Software Library
. (DSL)

A. Incorrect. The Capacity Database (CDB) contains only capacity and


performance data on the IT infrastructure.
B. Correct. The Configuration Management Database (CMDB) contains a
record of the entire IT infrastructure and its interrelationships.
C. Incorrect. The Definitive Hardware Store (DHS) is the storage location for
hardware stocks of standardized basic configurations.
D. Incorrect. The Definitive Software Library (DSL) contains operational and
earlier versions of software, and documentation on them.

12 of 40

What is another term for Uptime?

A Mean Time Between Failures


. (MTBF)
B
Mean Time To Repair (MTTR)
.
C Mean Time Between System
. Incidents (MTBSI)
D Relationship between MTBF and
. MTBSI

A. Correct.
B. Incorrect. Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) is the average time required to
resolve an incident (Downtime).
C. Incorrect. Mean Time Between System Incidents (MTBSI) is the average
time between the occurrence of two successive incidents. This includes MTBF
and MTTR.
D. Incorrect. A relationship between two different time indicators produces a
factor or percentage as a result. This has nothing to do with Uptime.

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13 of 40

Which of the following is an activity of IT Service Continuity Management?

A
informing end users of a system failure
.
B
documenting the fallback arrangements
.
C
reporting regarding availability
.
D guaranteeing that the Configuration Items are
. constantly kept up-to-date

A. Incorrect. Informing users of system failure is a Service Desk activity.


B. Correct.
C. Incorrect. Providing reports on availability is an activity of Availability
Management.
D. Incorrect. Guaranteeing that the Configuration Items are constantly kept
up-to-date is an activity of Configuration Management.

14 of 40

What is the definition of Confidentiality within the Security Management


process?

A protection of the data against


. unauthorized access and use
B
ability to access data at any moment
.
C the capability to verify that the data is
. correct
D
the correctness of the data
.

A. Correct. Protection of the data against unauthorized access and use is the
definition of Confidentiality as used in the Security Management process.
B. Incorrect. Ability to access data at any moment is a definition of Availability
as used in the Security Management process.
C. Incorrect. The capability to verify that the data is correct is part of the
definition of Integrity as used in the Security Management process.
D. Incorrect. The correctness of the data is part of the definition of Integrity as
used in the Security Management process.

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15 of 40

What is usually not an activity of the Service Desk?

A
handling (standard) Requests For Change
.
B handling complaints about the services of
. the IT organization
C
determining the root cause of incidents
.
D providing information on products and
. services

A. Incorrect. The handling of (standard) Requests For Change is an activity


within Change Management, but it can also be a Service Desk activity.
B. Incorrect. The handling of complaints about the services of the IT
organization is an activity within Service Level Management, but it can also
be a Service Desk activity.
C. Correct. Determining the root cause of incidents is an activity of Problem
Management.
D. Incorrect. Providing information on products and services can be an
activity of the Service Desk.

16 of 40

Which of the following documents is an output of one of the tactical


processes?

A
user manual for an application
.
B
newsletter from the Service Desk about an application
.
C discussion about a Request for Change (RFC) for expansion of an
. application with the person who submitted the RFC
D
agreements on the availability percentage of an application
.

A. Incorrect. User support for an application is part of the Incident


Management process, an operational process.
B. Incorrect. A newsletter from the Service Desk about an application is a
form of communication from the Service Desk, an operational department.
C. Incorrect. A discussion about a Request for Change (RFC) for the expansion
of an application with the person who submitted this RFC is a form of
communication in the Change Management process, an operational process.
D. Correct. Agreements on the availability percentage needed of an
application are made in the Service Level Management process, a tactical
process.
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17 of 40

An end-user's PC crashes. This is not the first time that he has had problems
with his PC. It also crashed three months ago. The user reports the crash to
the Service Desk.

What type of record should be created for the user's call?

A
an Incident
.
B
a Known Error
.
C
a Problem
.
D a Request for
. Change

A. Correct. This is an Incident.


B. Incorrect. A recurring malfunction is not necessarily a Known Error. The
occurences might have different causes.
C. Incorrect. A recurring malfunction is not necessarily a Problem.
D. Incorrect. This is not a Request For Change.

18 of 40

Which of the following is an example of a Service Request?

A a complaint about the


. provision of services
B
an error report
.
C a request for relocation of
. equipment
D
a request for documentation
.

A. Incorrect. A complaint about the provision of services is possibly an


Incident, but it is not a Service Request that can be solved by the Service
Desk according to a straightforward standard procedure.
B. Incorrect. An error report is not a Service Request, but it requires Incident
Management procedures to ensure the rapid recovery of services.
C. Incorrect. A request for the relocation of equipment is a Change request.
D. Correct. A request from a user for information, advice, documentation or a
new password, for example, is a Service Request.

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19 of 40

What is an activity within the area of Proactive Problem Management?

A
handling Requests for Change
.
B performing trend analyses and identifying potential
. incidents and problems
C
following up on all incidents and disruptions
.
D minimizing the disruption to services resulting from
. Changes to the IT environment

A. Incorrect. Handling Requests for Change is the task of Change


Management.
B. Correct. Proactive Problem Management concerns itself with trend analysis
and identifying potential incidents and problems.
C. Incorrect. Following up on all incidents and disruptions is the task of
Incident Management.
D. Incorrect. Minimizing the impact of changes is not the task of Proactive
Problem Management but of Change Management.

20 of 40

Which ITIL process or function makes the most important and most frequent
substantive contribution to keeping the Configuration Management Database
(CMDB) up to date?

A Change
. Management
B
Service Desk
.
C Incident
. Management
D Problem
. Management

A. Correct. Change Management continuously implements changes in the IT


infrastructure and is responsible for directing changes in the CI registration.
B. Incorrect.The Service Desk may be involved in Configuration Management
activities. However, having Change Management in place is more important
for keeping the CMDB up to date than having a Service Desk.
C. Incorrect. Incident Management consults the CMDB, but does not provide
input for keeping it up to date.
D. Incorrect. Problem Management consults the CMDB and links problems and
known errors to CIs.

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21 of 40

One of the activities of Configuration Management is Control.

What does this activity entail?

A updating changes to Configuration Items (CIs) and their relationships in the


. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
B verifying that the CIs and their attributes are specified correctly in the
. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
C installing all new CIs and their attributes correctly in the operating
. environment
D making an inventory and baseline of all CIs and their attributes in the
. operating environment

A. Correct.
B. Incorrect. Verifying that the CIs and their attributes are specified correctly
in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) is a description of
Verification, and not the Control activity.
C. Incorrect. Installing new CIs in the operating environment does not
describe the Control activity. It is an activity that is usually executed by
Release Management under the responsibility of Change Management.
D. Incorrect. To inventory the Configuration Items (CIs) is a description of
Identification and Registration, and not the Control activity.

22 of 40

Which activity is part of the Availability Management process?

A
classifying Requests For Change
.
B
defining the impact code for incidents
.
C identifying problems with the
. availability of IT Services
D measuring the availability of IT
. Services

A. Incorrect. Classifying Requests For Change is a Change Management


activity.
B. Incorrect. Defining the impact code for incidents is an Incident
Management activity.
C. Incorrect. Identifying problems with the availability of IT Services is a
Problem Management activity.
D. Correct. In addition to reporting, measurement is the most important
activity in the Availability Management process. The measurement and

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reporting activities create the basis for verifying service agreements,
removing problem situations and formulating proposals for improvement.

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23 of 40

In which ITIL process are rates for IT services negotiated with customers?

A
Availability Management
.
B
Capacity Management
.
C Financial Management for
. IT Services
D
Service Level Management
.

A. Incorrect. Availability Management does not negotiate with the customer.


B. Incorrect. Capacity Management does not negotiate with the customer.
C. Incorrect. Financial Management for IT Services determines the cost price
and sales price based on the financial policy or negotiations with the
customer, but is not directly involved in negotiations.
D. Correct. One of the activities of Service Level Management is 'drawing up
and negotiating the agreement'. Part of this activity involves negotiating on
the desired level of services in relation to the costs. Pricing information is
recorded in a Service Level Agreement (SLA).

24 of 40

Which attribute in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) would


help to ascertain which Configuration Items are in maintenance at a particular
moment in time?

A purchase
. date
B
owner
.
C
location
.
D
status
.

A. Incorrect. The purchase date of a Configuration Item (CI) has nothing to do


with the maintenance of the CI.
B. Incorrect. The owner does not change if a CI is in maintenance.
C. Incorrect. While the location of a CI may change when in repair, this
attribute would not be a useful way to show all CIs currently in maintenance
(there may be multiple maintenance locations).
D. Correct. Selecting on status 'in maintenance', all CIs in maintenance should
be shown.

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25 of 40

Which of the following must be individually and uniquely authorized by


Change Management before any action can take place?

A regular data entry from Users into a


. database
B
changing a password for a User
.
C adding a new User to the human
. resources system
D moving a networked printer to a new
. location

A. Incorrect. Entering data into a database is not a change based on the ITIL
definition of a 'Change', because it does not change the CI status of the
database.
B. Incorrect. Changing a password is not a Change because a password is not
a Configuration Item (CI)I.
C. Incorrect. Adding a new User to the system is not a Change, because the CI
status of the system is not changed.
D. Correct. Moving a networked printer is a Change, because the attribute of
the location for this Printer-CI is changed. In addition, the change of the
location of this printer can have a certain impact on the way the IT
infrastructure functions. As such, the impact of this change should be
assessed, understood , and authorized. Thus, it should be under the control of
Change Management.

26 of 40

There have been two incidents on a server. It appears that the server is
overloaded due to its multiple connections.

What kind of action should Incident Management take in this instance?

A
Ask Capacity Management to expand the Capacity of the server.
.
B
Ask Problem Management to look into the Problem right away.
.
C Ask Security Management to check whether too many
. authorizations may have been issued.
D Ask Service Level Management to revise the Service Level
. Agreements (SLAs).

A. Incorrect. An inquiry should take place before any expansion to the server
is carried out.

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B. Correct. The first step is to find out the real cause of the incidents. It is the
responsibility of the Problem Manager to initiate and monitor this. Once it is
clear that a lack of capacity is the cause, then several options can be
considered.
C. Incorrect. When the server was put into operation, the number of persons
who could log on to the server was known. The Problem Manager should first
carry out an inquiry into the underlying cause.
D. Incorrect. There is no reason to revise the Service Level Agreements.

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27 of 40

Which ITIL process includes the matching of incidents with known


(documented) solutions as one of its activities?

A Change
. Management
B Incident
. Management
C Problem
. Management
D Configuration
. Management

A. Incorrect. Change Management deals with submitted Requests for Change,


and with processing them.
B. Correct. Matching is an activity that is part of the Incident Management ITIL
process.
C. Incorrect. Problem Management deals with investigating the underlying
cause of one or more incidents.
D. Incorrect. Configuration Management deals with the registration of CI
information.

28 of 40

When the cause of a Problem is known, what status is given to the Problem?

A
the status 'Incident'
.
B the status 'Known
. Error'
C
the status 'Solved'
.
D the status 'Request For
. Change'

A. Incorrect. The status 'Incident' does not exist. Several incidents together
make up a Problem.
B. Correct. If the cause of the Problem is known, it gets the status Known
Error.
C. Incorrect. The status 'Solved' is not a correct term in the ITIL descriptions.
The Problem must still be solved after its cause is known.
D. Incorrect. A Request For Change (RFC) may be the logical consequence of
a Known Error. The Known Error may be solved by applying for and
implementing an RFC.

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29 of 40

After a Change has been implemented, an evaluation is performed.

What is this evaluation called?

A Forward Schedule of
. Changes (FSC)
B Post Implementation Review
. (PIR)
C Service Improvement
. Programme (SIP)
D Service Level Requirement
. (SLR)

A. Incorrect. A Forward Schedule of Changes (FSC) is not an evaluation, but a


calendar with a schedule of the coming changes.
B. Correct.
C. Incorrect. A Service Improvement Programme (SIP) is not an evaluation. A
SIP can, however, be the consequence of an evaluation (from Service Level
Management).
D. Incorrect. Service Level Requirements (SLR's) are the expectations of the
customer for a (new) service. They do not involve an evaluation.

30 of 40

Due to a defect, a user's sound card is replaced with a new one, made by a
different manufacturer.

Which ITIL process is responsible for registering the new sound card?

A Change
. Management
B Configuration
. Management
C Incident
. Management
D Problem
. Management

A. Incorrect. Change Management is responsible for the Change, but not for
registering the new Configuration Item (CI) in the Configuration Management
Database (CMDB).
B. Correct. Configuration Management registers new Configuration Items (CIs)
in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB).
C. Incorrect. Incident Management registers the Incident and its development,
but does not register the CI in the CMDB.

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D. Incorrect. Problem Management may have concluded that the sound card
had to be replaced, but it is not responsible for registering the CI.

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31 of 40

Where are the contents of software releases maintained?

A
Capacity Database (CDB)
.
B Configuration Management
. Database (CMDB)
C
Definitive Hardware Store (DHS)
.
D
Definitive Software Library (DSL)
.

A. Incorrect. The Capacity Database (CDB) consists of technical data, business


data and all other data that is important for Capacity Management.
B. Incorrect. The Definitive Software Library (DSL) can be part of the
Configuration Management Database (CMDB).
C. Incorrect. Hardware quantities are stored in the Definitive Hardware Store
(DHS), particularly with regard to standardized basic configurations.
D. Correct. The contents of software releases are maintained in the DSL.

32 of 40

Which of the following is included in a Service Level Agreement (SLA)?

A
arrangements about the services to be provided
.
B
availability statistics for the previous period
.
C an action plan for setting up the Service Level
. Management process
D detailed technical descriptions of a network
. protocol

A. Correct.
B. Incorrect. The availability statistics are described in reports.
C. Incorrect. The agreement to establish and/or execute the action plan may
be included in a Service Level Agreement (SLA), but not the plan itself.
D. Incorrect. Detailed technical descriptions of services are not included in a
good SLA (customer language), let alone a technical description of a network
protocol.

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33 of 40

Which ITIL process ensures that the IT Services are restored as soon as
possible in the case of a disruption?

A Change
. Management
B Incident
. Management
C Problem
. Management
D Service Level
. Management

A. Incorrect. Change Management can sometimes be involved in the solution


procedure.
B. Correct. Disruptions (Incidents) are reported through Incident Management.
Incident Management tries to resolve the disruptions as soon as possible.
C. Incorrect. It is only after it has become clear that one or more disruptions
have a structural cause - that is, there is a Problem involved - that Problem
Management tries to resolve the Problem.
D. Incorrect. Service Level Management does not resolve disruptions. This
process records the arrangements made about service levels in a Service
Level Agreement (SLA).

34 of 40

Which information does the "Financial Management for IT Services" process


deliver to Service Level Management?

A the availability of the IT services in a


. specific period
B the costs of the Financial
. Management system
C the total costs of network
. management
D how much has been spent on IT
. services per client

A. Incorrect. This information is reported from Availability Management.


B. Incorrect. This information is reported to IT management.
C. Incorrect. These costs are not customer-related and therefore not useful to
Service Level Management.
D. Correct. This is one of the cost-related items that are reported to Service
Level Management.

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35 of 40

What is the responsibility of the Security Manager when a new Service Level
Agreement (SLA) is created?

A translating the Service Level Requirements


. for data security
B determining the Security Baseline in the
. Service Catalogue
C providing guidelines for the Security
. section of the SLA
D reporting on the technical availability of
. security components

A. Incorrect. This is the responsibility of the Service Level Manager. The


Service Level Manager does, however, obtain input on this subject from the
Security Manager.
B. Incorrect. This is the responsibility of the Service Level Manager. The
Service Level Manager does, however, obtain input on this subject from the
Security Manager.
C. Correct. The actual execution of this activity is the responsibility of Security
Management.
D. Incorrect. Reporting on availability is the responsibility of Availability
Management.

36 of 40

Which ITIL process is responsible for control and management of the


implementation of a new software release?

A Change
. Management
B Configuration
. Management
C Release
. Management
D Service Level
. Management

A. Correct. Control and management of the distribution of releases are the


responsibility of Change Management.
B. Incorrect. Configuration Management does not manage the distribution of
releases. It is, however, involved in providing Configuration Item information
and in modifying that information as a result of the distribution.
C. Incorrect. Release Management does not manage the distribution of
releases, but it does provide content-related information about releases and

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the schedule.
D. Incorrect. Service Level Management does not manage the distribution of
releases, but it does provide the user with reports on releases.

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37 of 40

Which ITIL process determines relevant counter measures based on an


analysis of threats and dependencies concerning IT Services?

A
Availability Management
.
B IT Service Continuity
. Management
C
Problem Management
.
D Service Level
. Management

A. Incorrect. Availability Management provides data about the requisite


availability of components in the IT infrastructure and their mutual
dependency. This data is used for the analysis of threats and dependencies in
the IT Service Continuity Management process.
B. Correct. IT Service Continuity Management analyzes the threats and
dependencies and determines the relevant countermeasures.
C. Incorrect. Problem Management investigates the IT infrastructure in order
to detect the causes of (potential) malfunctions in the provision of services.
However, external threats are not considered to be malfunctions or errors in
the IT infrastructure.
D. Incorrect. Service Level Management presents a transparent account of the
roles and responsibilities regarding the IT Services.

38 of 40

Which Capacity Management activity can be used to influence the usage of


computing resources?

A Application
. Sizing
B Demand
. Management
C
Modeling
.
D
Tuning
.

A. Incorrect. Application Sizing is the discipline that predicts the hardware


capacity necessary for running new or adapted applications.
B. Correct. Demand Management is the management of capacity demands.
C. Incorrect. Modeling is used to make predictions of infrastructure 'behavior'.

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D. Incorrect. Tuning is the optimal adjustment of systems to the actual or
expected workload based on the data that has been measured, analyzed and
interpreted.

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39 of 40

Which ITIL process is responsible for developing a charging system?

A
Availability Management
.
B
Capacity Management
.
C Financial Management for
. IT Services
D
Service Level Management
.

A. Incorrect. The task of Availability Management is to manage the availability


of the IT Services.
B. Incorrect. The task of Capacity Management is to facilitate the expected
demand for IT Services.
C. Correct.
D. Incorrect. The task of Service Level Management is to make agreements
about IT Services.

40 of 40

What is IT Service Management?

A
effectively and efficiently managing the quality of the IT Services
.
B organizing the management of the IT infrastructure according to the best
. practices of ITIL
C managing the IT infrastructure in a process-oriented way so that the IT
. organization can provide the customer with IT products in a professional
way
D
promoting an understanding of IT Services among a wider audience
.

A. Correct.
B. Incorrect. IT Service Management is much broader than the ITIL method.
C. Incorrect. IT Service Management focuses on IT services rather than on IT
products.
D. Incorrect. IT Service Management restricts itself to people who are working
or are involved in the specialized field.

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The evaluation

The table below shows the correct answers to the questions in this
sample examination.

numb answer point numb answer point


er s er s
1 D 1 21 A 1
2 A 1 22 D 1
3 A 1 23 D 1
4 D 1 24 D 1
5 D 1 25 D 1
6 A 1 26 B 1
7 C 1 27 B 1
8 B 1 28 B 1
9 A 1 29 B 1
10 C 1 30 B 1
11 B 1 31 D 1
12 A 1 32 A 1
13 B 1 33 B 1
14 A 1 34 D 1
15 C 1 35 C 1
16 D 1 36 A 1
17 A 1 37 B 1
18 D 1 38 B 1
19 B 1 39 C 1
20 A 1 40 A 1

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