(D) 325

2012 December UGC Answer: (B)

NET Solved 6. Component level design is concerned
Question Paper in with
(A) Flow oriented analysis
Computer Science (B) Class based analysis
and Applications (C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
Paper 2 Answer: (A)

7. The ‘C’ language is

(A) Context free language
(B) Context sensitive language
(C) Regular language
(D) None of the above
Answer: (D)

8. The Mobile Application Protocol

(MAP) typically runs on top of which
protocol?
(A) SNMP (Simple Network Management
Protocol)
Answer: (B)
(B) SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer
Protocol)
2. The worst case time complexity of AVL
(C) SS7 (Signalling System 7)
tree is better in comparison to binary
(D) HTTP (Hyper Text Transfer Protocol)
search tree for
Answer: (D)
(A) Search and Insert Operations
(B) Search and Delete Operations
9. If a packet arrives with an M-bit value is
(C) Insert and Delete Operations
‘l’ and a fragmentation offset value ‘0’,
(D) Search, Insert and Delete Operations
and then it is ______ fragment.
Answer: (A)
(A) First
(B) Middle
3. The GSM network is divided into the
(C) Last
following three major systems:
(D) All of the above
(A) SS, BSS, OSS
Answer: (D)
(B) BSS, BSC, MSC
(C) CELL, BSC, OSS
10. The number of bit strings of length
(D) SS, CELL, MSC
eight that will either start with a 1 bit or
Answer: (B)
end with two bits 00 shall be
(A) 32
Answer: (C)
(B) 64
(C) 128
5. If the disk head is located initially at 32,
(D) 160
find the number of disk moves required
Answer: (D)
with FCFS if the disks queue of I/O blocks
11. In compiler design ‘reducing the
requests are 98, 37, 14, 124, 65, 67.
strength’ refers to
(A) 239
(A) Reducing the range of values of input
(B) 310
variables.
(C) 321

1
(B) Code optimization using cheaper Answer: (B)
machine instructions.
(C) Reducing efficiency of program. 17. The design issue of Data link Layer in
(D) None of the above OSI Reference Model is
Answer: (C) (A) Framing
(B) Representation of bits
12. In which addressing mode, the (C) Synchronization of bits
effective address of the operand is (D) Connection control
generated by adding a constant value to the Answer: (B)
contents of register?
(A) Absolute 18. Given the following expressions of a
(B) Indirect grammar
(C) Immediate E -> E * F / F + E / F
(D) Index F -> F – F / id
Answer: (B) Which of the following is true?
(A) * has higher precedence than +
13. Which of the following is true? (B) – has higher precedence than *
(A) A relation in BCNF is always in 3NF. (C) + and – have same precedence
(B) A relation in 3NF is always in BCNF. (D) + has higher precedence than *
(C) BCNF and 3NF are same. Answer: (D)
(D) A relation in BCNF is not in 3NF.
Answer: (B) 19. The maturity levels used to measure a
process are
14. Given memory partitions of 100 K, (A) Initial, Repeatable, Defined, Managed,
500 K, 200 K, 300 K and 600 K (in order) Optimized.
and processes of 212 K, 417 K, 112 K, and (B) Primary, Secondary, Defined,
426 K (in order), using the first-fit Managed, Optimized.
algorithm, in which partition would the (C) Initial, Stating, Defined, Managed,
process requiring 426 K be placed? Optimized.
(A) 500 K (D) None of the above
(B) 200 K Answer: (A)
(C) 300 K
(D) 600 K 20. The problem of indefinite blockage of
Answer: (B) www.netugc.c om low-priority jobs in general priority
scheduling algorithm can be solved using:
15. What is the size of the Unicode (A) Parity bit
character in Windows Operating System? (B) Aging
(A) 8-Bits (C) Compaction
(B) 16-Bits (D) Timer
(C) 32-Bits Answer: (C)
(D) 64-Bits 21. Which API is used to draw a circle?
Answer: (A) (A) Circle ( )
(B) Ellipse ( )
16. In which tree, for every node the height (C) Round Rect ( )
of its left sub tree and right sub tree differ (D) Pie ( )
almost by one? Answer: (B)
(A) Binary search tree
(B) AVL tree 22. In DML, RECONNCT command
(C) Threaded Binary Tree cannot be used with
(D) Complete Binary Tree (A) OPTIONAL Set

2
(B) FIXED Set
(C) MANDATOR Set
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Answer: (D)
24. RAD stands for ______.
(A) Rapid and Design
(B) Rapid Aided Development
(C) Rapid Application Development
(D) Rapid Application Design
Answer: (C)
25. Suppose that someone starts with a
chain letter. Each person who receives the
letter is asked to send it on to 4 other
people. Some people do this, while some
28. Identify the Risk factors which are
associated with Electronic payment
system.
(A) Fraudulent use of Credit Cards.
(B) Sending Credit Card details over
internet.
(C) Remote storage of Credit Card details.
(D) All of the above
Answer: (B)
29. Which of the following are two special
functions that are meant for handling
exception that occurs during exception
handling itself?
(A) Void terminate ( ) and Void
unexpected ( )
(B) Non void terminate ( ) and void
unexpected ( )www.netugc.com

do not send any letter. (C) Void terminate ( ) and non-void

How many people have seen the letter, unexpected ( )
including the first person, if no one (D) Non void terminate ( ) and non-void
receives more than one letter and if the unexpected ( )
chain letter ends after there have been 100 Answer: (D)
people who read it but did not send it out?
Also find how many people sent out the 30. Which of the following memory
letter? allocation scheme suffers from external
(A) 122 & 22 fragmentation?
(B) 111 & 11 (A) Segmentation
(C) 133 & 33 (B) Pure demand paging
(D) 144 & 44 (C) Swapping
Answer: (D) (D) Paging
Answer: (D)
26. A hash function f defined as f (key) =
key mod 13, with linear probing is used to 31. Basis path testing falls under
insert keys 55, 58, 68, 91, 27, 145. What (A) System testing
will be the location of 79? (B) White box testing
(A) 1 (C) Black box testing
(B) 2 (D) Unit testing
(C) 3 Answer: (C)
(D) 4
Answer: (B) 32. The User Work Area (UWA) is a set of
Program variables declared in the host
27. Which of the following is true while program to communicate the contents of
converting CFG to LL (I) grammar? individual records between
(A) Remove left recursion alone (A) DBMS & the Host record
(B) Factoring grammar alone (B) Host program and Host record
(C) Both of the above (C) Host program and DBMS
(D) None of the above (D) Host program and Host language
Answer: (D) Answer: (B)

3
Answer: (A) Answer: (C)

34. The maximum number of keys stored 39. Match the following with respect to
in a B-tree of order m and depth d is C++ data types:
(A) md + 1 – 1 a. User defined type 1. Qualifier
(B) (md+1 – 1) / (m – 1) b. Built in type 2. Union
(C) (m – 1) (md + 1 – 1) c. Derived type 3. Void
(D) (md – 1)/(m – 1) d. Long double 4. Pointer
Answer: (B) Code:
abcd
35. Which of the following is the most (A) 2 3 4 1
powerful paring method? (B) 3 1 4 2
(A) LL (I) (C) 4 1 2 3
(B) Canonical LR (D) 3 4 1 2
(C) SLR Answer: (C)
(D) LALR
Answer: (C) 40. Given an empty stack, after performing
push (1), push (2), Pop, push (3), push (4),
36. In UNIX, which of the following Pop, Pop, push (5), pop, what is the value
command is used to set the task priority? of the top of the stack?
(A) Init (A) 4
(B) Nice (B) 3
(C) Kill (C) 2
(D) PS (D) 1
Answer: (D) Answer: (D)

37. AES is a round cipher based on the 41. Enumeration is a process of

Rijndal Algorithm that uses a 128-bit (A) Declaring a set of numbers
block of data. AES has three different (B) Sorting a list of strings
configurations. ______ rounds with a key (C) Assigning a legal values possible for a
size of 128 bits, ______ rounds with a key variable
size of 192 bits and ______ rounds with a (D) Sequencing a list of operators
key size of 256 bits. Answer: (D)
(A) 5, 7, 15
(B) 10, 12, 14 42. Which of the following mode
(C) 5, 6, 7 declaration is used in C++ to open a file
(D) 20, 12, 14 for input?
Answer: (D) (A) ios: : app
(B) In:: ios
38. Match the following IC families with (C) ios: : file
their basic circuits: (D) ios: : in
a. TTL 1. NAND Answer: (B)
b. ECL 2. NOR
c. CMOS 3. Inverter 43. Data Encryption Techniques are
Code: particularly used for ______.
abc (A) Protecting data in Data
(A) 1 2 3 Communication System.
(B) 3 2 1 (B) Reduce Storage Space Requirement.
(C) 2 3 1 (C) Enhances Data Integrity.
(D) 2 1 3 (D) Decreases Data Integrity.

4
Answer: (B) (C) Designing
(D) Software quality assurance
44. Let L be a set accepted by a Answer: (C)
nondeterministic finite automaton. The
number of states in non-deterministic finite 49. Identify the operation which is
automaton is |Q|. The maximum number of commutative but not associative?
states in equivalent finite automaton that (A) OR
accepts L is (B) NOR
(A) |Q| (C) EX-OR
(B) 2|Q| (D) NAND
(C) 2|Q| – 1 Answer: (C)
(D) 2|Q|
Answer: (A) 50. Given a Relation POSITION (Posting
No, Skill), then query to retrieve all
45. What is the result of the following distinct pairs of posting-nos. requiring skill
expression? is
(1 & 2) + (3 & 4) (A) Select p.posting-No, p.posting-No
(A) 1 From position p where p.skill= p.posting-
(B) 3 No <p.posting-No.
(C) 2 (B) Select p1-posting-No, p2.posting-No
(D) 0 from position p1, position p2 where
Answer: (A) p1.skill=p2.skill
www.netugc.c om (C) Select p1.posting-No, p2.posting-No
46. Back propagation is a learning from position p1, position p2 where
technique that adjusts weights in the neural p1.skill=p2.skill and p1.posting-No<
network by propagating weight changes. p2.posting-No
(A) Forward from source to sink No (D) Select p1.posting-No, p2.posting-No
(B) Backward from sink to source from from position p1, position p2 where
position p p1.skill=p2.skill and p1.posting-
(C) Forward from source to hidden nodes No=p2.posting-No
(D) Backward from since to hidden nodes Answer: (C)
Answer: (C)

47. Match the following: 1. Which of the following set of statements

a. TTL 1. High fan out best describes the nature and objectives of
b. ECL 2. Low propagation delay teaching?
c. CMOS 3. High power dissipation (a) Teaching and learning are integrally
Code: related.
abc (b) There is no difference between
(A) 3 2 1 teaching and training.
(B) 1 2 3 (c) Concern of all teaching is to ensure
(C) 1 3 2 some kind of transformation in students.
(D) 3 1 2 (d) All good teaching is formal in nature.
Answer: (D) (e) A teacher is a senior person.
(f) Teaching is a social act whereas
48. ______ is an “umbrella” activity that is learning is a personal act.
applied throughout the software Code:
engineering process. (1) (a), (b) and (d)
(A) Debugging (2) (b), (c) and (e)
(B) Testing (3) (a), (c) and (f)

5
(4) (d), (e) and (f)
Answer: (3)
2. Which of the following learner
characteristics is highly related to
effectiveness of teaching?
(1) Prior experience of the learner
(2) Educational status of the parents of the
learner
(3) Peer groups of the learner
(4) Family size from which the learner
comes.
Answer: (1)
3. In the two sets given below Set –I
indicates methods of teaching while Set –II
provides the basic requirements for
(a) A teacher awards grades to students
after having transacted the course work.
(b) During interaction with students in the
classroom, the teacher provides corrective
feedback.
(c) The teacher gives marks to students on
a unit test.
(d) The teacher clarifies to doubts of
students in the class itself.
(e) The overall performance of a student’s
us reported to parents at every three
months interval.
(f) The learner’s motivation is raised by
the teacher through a question-answer
session.
Codes:
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
www.netugc.c om

success/effectiveness. Match the two sets (2) (b), (c) and (d)
and indicate your answer by choosing from (3) (a), (c) and (e)
the code: (4) (b), (d) and (f)
Answer: (4)
Set – I (Method Set – II Instructional
of teaching) procedure (Basic 5. Assertion (A): All teaching should aim
requirements for at ensuring learning.
success/effectiveness) Reason (R): All learning results from
(a) Lecturing (i) Small step teaching.
presentation with Choose the correct answer from the
feedback provided following code:
(b) Discussion (ii) Production of large (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is
in groups number of ideas the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (iii) Content delivery in (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
Brainstorming a lucid language not the correct explanation of (A).
(d) Programmed (iv) Use of teaching- (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
aids (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(v) Theme based Answer: (3)
interaction among
participants 6. There are two sets given below. Set – I
specifies the types of research, while Set –
Code: II indicates their characteristics. Match the
(a) (b) (c) (d) two and given your answer by selecting
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) the appropriate code.
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) Set – I Set – II
(3) (iii) (v) (ii) (i) (Research (Characteristics)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) types)
Answer: (3) (a) (i) Finding out the extent
Fundamental of perceived impact of an
4. From the list of evaluation procedures research intervention
given below identify those which will be (b) Applied (ii) Developing an
called ‘formative evaluation’. Indicate research effective explanation
your answer by choosing from the code: through theory building

6
(c) Action (iii) Improving an 9. The problem of ‘research ethics’ is
research existing situation through concerned with which aspect of research
use of interventions activities?
(d) Evaluative (iv) Exploring the (1) Following the prescribed format of a
research possibility of a theory for thesis
use in various situations (2) Data analysis through qualitative or
(v) Enriching quantitative technique
technological resources (3) Defining the population of research
Codes: (4) Evidence based research reporting
(a) (b) (c) (d) Answer: (4)
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii) 10. In which of the following activities,
(3) (iii) (ii) (iii) (iv) potential for nurturing creative and critical
4 (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) thinking is relatively greater?
Answer: (1) (1) Preparing research summary
(2) Presenting a seminar paper
7. Which of the sets of activities best (3) Participation in research conference
indicate the cyclic nature of action (4) Participation in a workshop
research strategy? Answer: (3)
(1) Reflect, Observe, Plan, Act
(2) Observe, Act, Reflect, Plan Read the following passage carefully
(3) Act, Plan, Observe, Reflect and answer questions from 11 to 15:
(4) Plan, Act, Observe, Reflect If India has to develop her internal
Answer: (4) strengths, the nation has to focus on the
technological imperatives, keeping in mind
8. Which of the following sequence of three dynamic dimensions: the people, the
research steps is nearer to scientific overall economy and the strategic interests.
method? These technological imperatives also take
(1) Suggested solution of the problem, into account a ‘fourth’ dimensions, time,
Deducing the consequences of the and offshoot of modern day dynamism in
solution, Perceiving the problem situation, business, trade, and technology that leads
Location of the difficulty and testing the to continually shifting targets. We believe
solutions. that technological strengths are especially
(2) Perceiving the problem situation, crucial in dealing with this fourth
Locating the actual problem and its dimension underlying continuous change
definition, Hypothesizing, Deducing the in the aspirations of the people, the
consequences of the suggested solution economy in the global context, and the
and Testing the hypothesis in action. strategic interests. The progress of
(3) Defining a problem, Identifying the technology lies at the heart of human
causes of the problem, Defining a history. Technological strengths are the
population, Drawing a sample, Collecting key to creating more productive
data and Analysing results. employment in an increasingly competitive
(4) Identifying the causal factors, Defining market place and to continually upgrade
the problem, Developing a hypothesis, human skills. Without a pervasive use of
Selecting a sample, Collecting data and technologies, we cannot achieve overall
arriving at generalization and Conclusions. development of our people in the years to
Answer: (2) come. The direct linkages of technology to
the nation’s strategic strengths are
becoming more and more clear, especially
since 1990s. India’s own strength in a

7
number of core areas still puts it in a
position of reasonable strength in geo-
political context. Any nation aspiring to
become a developed one needs to have
strengths in various strategic technologies
and also the ability to continually upgrade
them through its own creative strengths.
For people-oriented actions as well,
whether for the creation of large scale
productive employment or for ensuring
nutritional and health security for people,
or for better living conditions, technology
is the only vital input. The absence of
greater technological impetus could lead to
lower productivity and wastage of precious
natural resources. Activities with low
productivity or low value addition, in the
final analysis hurt the poorest most
important. India, aspiring to become a
major economic power in terms of trade
and increase in GDP, cannot succeed on
the strength of turnkey projects designed
and built abroad or only through large-
scale imports of plant machinery,
equipment and know how. Even while
being alive to the short-term realities,
medium and long-term strategies to
develop core technological strengths
within our industry are vital for
envisioning a developed India.
11. According to the above passage, which
of the following are indicative of the
fourth dimension?
(a) Aspirations of people
(b) Modern day dynamism
(c) Economy in the global context
(d) Strategic interests
Code:
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only
(2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a), (b) and (d) only
www.netugc.c om
Answer: (3)
If India has to develop her internal
strengths, the nation has to focus on the
technological imperatives, keeping in mind
three dynamic dimensions: the people, the
overall economy and the strategic interests
8
12. More productive employment
demands:
(1) Pervasive use of technology
(2) Limiting competitive market place
(3) Geo-political considerations
(4) Large industries
Answer: (1)
13. Absence of technology would lead to:
(a) Less pollution
(b) Wastage of precious natural resources
(c) Low value addition
(d) Hurting the poorest most
Codes:
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only
(2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only
(4) (a), (c) and (d) only
Answer: (2)
14. The advantage if technological inputs
would result in:
(1) Unbridled technological growth
(2) Importing plant machinery
(3) Sideling environmental issues
(4) Lifting our people to a life of dignity
Answer: (4)
15. Envisioning a developed India
requires:
(1) Aspiration to become a major
economics player
(2) Dependence upon projects designed
abroad
(3) Focus on short-term projects
(4) Development of core technological
strengths
Answer: (4)
16. Differentiation between acceptance
and non-acceptance of certain stimuli in
classroom communication is the basis of:
(1) Selective expectation of performance
(2) Selective affiliation to peer groups
(3) Selective attention
(4) Selective morality
Answer: (3)
17. Assertion (A): The initial messages to (c) Communication is not a universal
students in the classroom by a teacher need panacea.
not be critical to establish interactions (d) Communication cannot break-down.
later. (e) More communication means more
Reason (R): More control over the effective learning by students.
communication process means more (f) Value of what is learnt through
control over what the students are learning. classroom communication is not an issue
Codes: for students.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is Codes:
the correct explanation of (A). (1) (a), (c), (e) and (f)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is (2) (b), (d), (e) and (f)
not the correct explanation of (A). (3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (4) (a), (d), (e) and (f)
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true. Answer: (3)
Answer: (4) 21. The next term in the series -1, 5, 15,
29, ________, … is
18. Assertion (A): To communicate well in (1) 36
the classroom is a natural ability. (2) 47
Reason (R): Effective teaching in the (3) 59
classroom demands knowledge of the (4) 63
communication process. Answer: (2)
Code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is 22. The next term in the series: ABD,
the correct explanation of (A). DGK, HMS, MTB, SBL, ________, … is:
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is (1) ZKU
not the correct explanation of (A). (2) ZCA
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (3) ZKW
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (4) ZKU
Answer: (4) Answer: (3)

19. Assertion (A): Classroom 23. If VARANASI is coded as

communication is a transactional process. WCUESGZQ, then the code of
Reason (R): A teacher does not operate KOLKATA will be:
under the assumption that students’ (1) LOQOZEH
responses are purposive. Select the correct (2) HLZEOOQ
code for your answer: (3) ZELHOQO
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is (4) LQOOFZH
the correct explanation of (A). Answer: (4)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A). 24. Introducing, Rakesh to her husband a
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false. women said, “His brother’s father is the
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true. only son of my grandfather”. The woman
Answer: (3) is related to Rakesh as:
(1) Aunt
20. Which of the following set of (2) Mother
statements is correct for describing the (3) Sister
human communication process? (4) Daughter
(a) Non-verbal communication can Answer: (3)
stimulate ideas.
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(b) Communication is a learnt ability.

9
25. Two numbers are in the ratio 2: 5. If 16 29. If the proposition ‘domestic animals
is added to both the numbers, their ratio are hardly ferocious’ is taken to be false,
becomes 1: 2. The numbers are: which of the following
(1) 16, 40 proposition/propositions can be claimed to
(2) 20, 50 be certainly true? Select the correct code:
(3) 28, 70 Propositions:
(4) 32, 80 (a) All domestic animals are ferocious.
Answer: (4) (b) Most of the domestic animals are
ferocious.
26. Superiority of intellect depends upon (c) No domestic animal is ferocious.
its power of concentration on one theme in (d) Some domestic animals are non-
the same way as a concave mirror collects ferocious.
all the rays that strike upon it into one Code:
point. (1) (a) and (b)
(1) Mathematical (2) (a) only
(2) Psychological (3) (c) and (d)
(3) Analogical (4) (b) only
(4) Deductive Answer: (1)
Answer: (3)
30. Which one of the following statements
27. Given below are two premises (A and is not correct in the context of Venn
B). Four conclusions are drawn from them. diagram method?
Select the code that states validity drawn (1) It is a method of testing the validity of
conclusion (s) (taking the premises arguments.
individually or jointly). Premises: (2) It represents both the premises of a
(A) Most of the dancers are physically fit. syllogism in one diagram.
(B) Most of the singers are dancers. (3) It requires two overlapping circles for
Conclusions: the two premises of a standard-form
(a) Most of the singers are physically fit. categorical syllogism.
(b) Most of the dancers are singers. (4) It can be used to represent classes as
(c) Most of the physically fit persons are well as propositions.
dancers. Answer: (3)
(d) Most of the physically fit persons are
singers. The table below embodies data on the
Code: production, exports and per capita
(1) (a) and (b) consumption of rice in country P for the
(2) (b) and (c) five years from 2012 to 2016. Answer
(3) (c) and (d) questions 31 - 35 based on the data
(4) (d) and (a) contained in the table.
www.netugc.c om

Answer: (2)
Year-wise Production, Exports and Per
28. Which one among the following is a Capita Consumption of Rice
presupposition in inductive reasoning? Year Productio Export Per Capita
(1) Law of identity n s Consumptio
(2) Unchangeability in nature (in million (in n
(3) Harmony in nature kg) million (in kg)
(4) Uniformity of nature kg)
Answer: (4) 201 186.5 114 36.25
2
201 202.0 114 35.20

10
 3 (2) 102.1
201 238.0 130 38.70 (3) 108
4 (4) 100.1
201 221.0 116 40.50 Answer: (4)
5 36. Which of the following statements,
201 215.0 088 42.00 regarding the term ICT is/are TRUE? P:
6 ICT is an acronym that stands for Indian
Where, Per Capita Consumption = Classical Technology. Q: Converging
(Consumption in million kg) / (Population technologies that exemplify ICT include
in million) and consumption (in million the merging of audio-visual, telephone and
kg) = Production – Exports. computer networks through a common
cabling system.
31. The Percentage increase in the (1) P Only
consumption of rice over the previous year (2) Q Only
was the highest in which year? (3) P and Q
(1) 2013 (4) Neither P nor Q
(2) 2014 Answer: (2)
(3) 2015
(4) 2016 37. A new Laptop has been produced that
Answer: (2) weighs less, is smaller and uses less power
previous Laptop models. Which of the
32. What is the population of the country following technologies has been used to
in the year 2014 (in million)? accomplish this?
(1) 2.64 (1) Universal Serial Bus Mouse
(2) 2.72 (2) Faster Random Access Memory
(3) 2.79 (3) Blu Ray Drive
(4) 2.85 (4) Solid State Hard Drive
Answer: (3) Answer: (4)

33. The ratio of exports to consumption in 38. Given the following email fields,
the given period was the highest in the which of the email addresses will ‘swami’
year: be able to see when he receives the
(1) 2012 message? Mail-
(2) 2013 To… ram@test. com
(3) 2014 Cc… raj@test. com; ravi@test.com
(4) 2015 Bcc… swami@test. com; rama@test. com
Answer: (1) Codes:
(1) ram@test. com
34. In which year, the population of (2) ram@test. com; raj@test. com;
country was the highest? ravi@test. com
(1) 2013 (3) ram@test. com; rama@test. com
(2) 2014 (4) ram@test. com; rama@test. com;
(3) 2015 raj@test. com; ravi@test. com
(4) 2016 Answer: (2)
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Answer: (4)
39. Put the following units of storage into
35. What is the average consumption of the correct order, starting with the smallest
rice (in million kg) over the years 2012 - unit first and going down to the largest
2016? unit:
(1) 104 (a) Kilobyte

11
(b) byte Reason (R): The dispersal of air pollutants
(c) Megabyte is rather limited in indoor environment.
(d) Terabyte Choose the correct answer from the code
(e) Gigabyte given below:
(f) Bit (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
Give your answer from the following code: correct explanation of (A)
(1) (f), (b), (a), (c), (d), (e) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not
(2) (f), (b), (a), (d), (e), (c) the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (f), (b), (a), (c), (e), (d) (3) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(4) (f), (b), (a), (d), (c), (e) (4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer: (3) Answer: (1)

40. With regard to computer memory, 44. In terms of their contribution to the
which of the following statement (s) is/are total power generation in India, Identify
TRUE? P: Read Only Memory (ROM) is the correct sequence of energy sources –
‘volatile’ memory. Q: Random Access Thermal Power Plants (TPP), Large
Memory (RAM) is ‘volatile’ memory. R: Hydropower Projects (LHP), Nuclear
Secondary Memory is ‘volatile’ memory.
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Energy (NE) and Renewable Energy (RE)
(1) P only which includes solar energy, wind energy,
(2) Q only biomass and small hydropower projects.
(3) P and Q only (1) TPP > RE > LHP > NE
(4) P and R only (2) TPP > LHP > RE > NE
Answer: (2) (3) LHP > TPP > RE > NE
(4) LHP > TPP > NE > RE
41. ‘Fly ash’ produced in thermal power Answer: (1)
plants is an ecofriendly resource for use in:
(a) Agriculture as micro-nutrient 45. Which of the following is considered
(b) Wasteland development as major source of pollution in rivers of
(c) Dam and water holding structures India?
(d) Brick industry (1) Unregulated small scale industry
Choose the correct answer from the code (2) Untreated sewage
given below: (3) Agricultural run-off
(1) (a), (b) and (d) only (4) Thermal power plants
(2) (b), (c) and (d) Only Answer: (2)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) Only
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 46. India has the largest Higher Education
Answer: (4) System in the World after:
(a) The United States of America
42. Which of the following types of natural (b) Australia
disasters has no definite beginning and (c) China
end? (d) United Kingdom (UK)
(1) Earthquakes Select the correct answer from the code
(2) Landsides given below:
(3) Hurricanes (1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) Droughts (2) (a), (b) and (c) only
Answer: (4) (3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a) and (c) only
43. Assertion (A): Indoor air pollution is Answer: (4)
serious hazard.

12
47. Prime Minister Research Fellowship is (d) Lack of job opportunities for the youth
for students pursuing Ph. D programme in: Select the correct answer from the code
(1) State and Central Universities given below:
(2) Central Universities, IISc, IITs, NITs, (1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
IISERs and IIITs (2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs, IIITs, State (3) (a), (b) and (d) only
and Central Universities (4) (a) and (b) only
(4) IITs and IISc Answer: (4)
Answer: (4)

48. Leader of the opposition is a member
of committees which select:
(a) The central information Commissioner
(b) The Central Vigilance Commissioner
(c) The Chairperson of National Human
Rights Commission
(d) The Chairperson of National
Commission for women
Select the correct answer from the code
given below:
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a), (b) and (d) only
Answer: (2)
49. Which of the following statements are
correct about gender budgeting?
(a) It is separates budget addressing the
specific needs of women.
(b) It assesses the impact of government
budget on women.
(c) It is an accounting exercise.
(d) It is another budgeting innovation.
1. From the following list of statements,
select those which indicate the
characteristics and basic requirements of
teaching.
(i) Teaching implies communication.
(ii) Teaching is like selling goods.
(iii) Teaching means managing and
monitoring.
(iv) Teaching implies influencing others.
(v) Teaching requires convincing others.
(vi) There can be no teaching without
infrastructural support.
Choose the correct answer from the code
given below:
Code:
(1) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iv), (v) and (vi)
(4) (ii), (v) and (vi)
Answer: (1)
2. What is the purpose underlying the use
of teaching aids?
(1) To make the lessons interesting
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Select the correct answer from the code (2) To capture the students’ attention
given below: (3) To enhance access to technological
(1) (b) and (d) only
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resources
(2) (a) and (d) only (4) To optimise learning outcomes
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only Answer: (4)
(4) (a) and (b) only
Answer: (1) 3. In the two lists given below, List I
provides the list of teaching methods,
50. Which of the following are the barriers while List II indicates the factors helpful in
to citizen-centric administration in India? rendering them effective. Match the two
(a) Wooden and inflexible attitude of the lists and choose the correct answer from
civil servants the code given below.
(b) Ineffective implementation of laws and List I (Teaching methods) List II (Factors helpful in
rules (a) Expository method (i) Trust and openness in re
(c) Awareness of rights and duties of (b) Investigative method (ii) Freedom to choose a the
citizens of ideas

13
(c) Discussion method (iii) Creating a challenge
(1) (i),to(ii),
address
(iii) and
the (iv)
problems
(d) Personalised method (2) (iii), (iv),
(iv) Systematic, step-by-step (v) and (vi)
presentation
(3) (i), (iii),
(v) Maximising infrastructural support(iv) and (v)
Code: (4) (ii), (iii), (v) and (vi)
(a) (b) (c) (d) Answer: (3)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 6. Identify the correct order of the
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) following components which are
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) interrelated in research.
Answer: (1) (i) Observation
(ii) Hypothesis making
4. Below are given statements pertaining (iii) Developing concepts
to evaluation systems. Identify those (iv) Deducing the consequences of theories
which correctly explain them. (v) Methods employed to obtain them
(i) Criterion-Referenced Testing (CRT) Choose the correct answer from the code
focuses on a delimited domain of learning given below:
tasks. Code:
(ii) Norm-Referenced Testing (NRT) (1) (v), (iv), (iii), (ii) and (i)
requires a clearly defined group. (2) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv) and (v)
(iii) Formative tests are given at the end of (3) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv) and (v)
a course. (4) (iv), (v), (iii), (ii) and (i)
(iv) Both Norm-Referenced Testing (NRT) Answer: (2)
and Criterion-Referenced Testing (CRT)
use the same type of test items. 7. In the list given below, identify those
(v) Summative tests are used regularly statements which correctly describe the
during teaching transactions. meaning and characteristics of research.
(vi) Mastery tests are examples of Norm- (i) Research is a method of improving our
Referenced Testing. common sense.
Choose the correct answer from the code (ii) Deductive and inductive methods get
given below: integrated in a research process.
Code: (iii) Research is creativity and charisma.
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(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (iv) Research is the use of scientific
(2) (i), (ii) and (iv) method to provide answers to meaningful
(3) (iv), (v) and (vi) questions.
(4) (ii), (v) and (vi) (v) Method of consulting and using
Answer: (2) experience is called research.
(vi) The answers provided by research can
5. In the list given below, identify those be empirically verified.
key teaching behaviours which have been Choose the correct answer from the code
observed to be contributive to given below:
effectiveness. Code:
(i) Lesson clarity (1) (ii), (iv) and (vi)
(ii) Probing (2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(iii) Teacher-task orientation (3) (iv), (v) and (vi)
(iv) Student success rate (4) (i), (iii) and (v)
(v) Instructional variety Answer: (1)
(vi) Using student ideas
Choose the correct answer from the code 8. In the two lists given below, List I
given below: provides the types of research methods,
Code: while List II indicates the critical features

14
associated with them. Match the two lists the tidal waves were at their highest as a
and choose the correct answer from the consequence of the big clash of sea and
code given below. fresh water at the Amazon delta most
List I (Research List II (Critical vigorously in March and April (2018),
methods) features) more than 40,000 people were talking
(a) Ex-post facto (i) Finding out the about the power of water. Brasilia hosted
method status based on a study the eighth edition of the World Water
of a large sample Forum (WWF – 8), where heads of states,
(b) Case study (ii) Interpretation of civil societies and private sector gathered
method thoughts of a great to discuss the present and future of
thinker mankind’s most valuable resource. This
(c) Philosophical (iii) Intervention based year’s theme was ‘Sharing Water’, and the
method ameliorative approach government authorities expectedly put
(d) Descriptive (iv) Causal comparison forth a political declaration, aimed at
survey method and correlational raising awareness about threats and
studies opportunities associated with water
resources. Deliberations here would play a
(v) In-depth study of a
decisive role in the periodic assessment of
unit specified for the
the sustainable development goals of
purpose
Agenda 2030.
Code: www.netugc.c om

(a) (b) (c) (d) Brazil has established a solid

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) institutional and legal framework for water
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) management, based on the principle of
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (v) multi-stakeholder participation. Brazil has
(4) (iv) (v) (ii) (i) also been conducting one of the boldest
Answer: (4) river inter-linking projects in which 500
km of canals will transfer abundant waters
9. A researcher uses parametric test in lieu from the Sāo Francisco basin to small
of non-parametric test for analysis and rivers and weirs in one of Brazil’s most
interpretation of results. This may be arid areas, benefitting more than 12
described as a case of million people in almost 400
(1) Unethical research practice municipalities.
(2) Malpractice in reporting of results India, too, has a large variety of
(3) Technical lapse in handling data water resources. An institutional
(4) Manipulation of research results framework consisting of regional river
Answer: (3) boards and river cleansing missions has
been set up, while successive Central
10. Which of the following provides more Governments have made efforts to address
latitude to the researcher for creative the dire needs of irrigation and mitigation
expression ? of ground water depletion. As in the case
(1) Thesis writing of Brazil, a lot remains to be done in India.
(2) Writing of a research article Adequate treatment of industrial
(3) Presentation of a conference paper waste-water, the fight against
(4) Preparing a research synopsis contamination of riverbeds and assistance
Answer: (3) to drought affected areas are high priority
topics for both New Delhi and Brasilia.
Read the following passage carefully Due to these commonalities, there is ample
and answer questions no. 11 to 15. room for bilateral co-operation. Water is a
Some 2000 km down south of the local, regional and global common and as
Amazon, and about the same time when

15
such, collaboration is key to address most
of its associated threats.
Today, mankind is faced with two
facts: water is too powerful a force to be
fought over, and too valuable a resource to
be lost. To harmonise these two conflicting
aspects, sharing water is perhaps the only
meaningful motto for the ages to come.
11. As per the text of the passage, the
eighth edition of the World Water Forum
was concerned with
(1) Present and future of mankind
(2) The issue of high tidal waves
(3) The power of water
(4) The role of civil society in solving
water-related problems
Answer: (3)
12. Deliberations on the theme ‘Sharing
Water’ should facilitate
(1) Regular evaluation of sustainable
development goals
(2) The role of private sector in preserving
water resources
(3) The establishment of institutional
framework
(4) Sensitisation of government authorities
Answer: (1)
13. The institutional framework of Brazil
for water management
(1) Promotes bilateral collaboration
(2) Provides for multi-stakeholder
participation
(3) Consists of regional river boards
(4) Addresses legal dimensions of water
sharing
Answer: (2)
14. What would be of high priority to both
New Delhi and Brasilia as regards river
water ?
(1) Proposing water as a global common
(2) Sharing water
(3) Development of large water resources
(4) Fight against contamination of
riverbeds
Answer: (4)
16
15. The main focus of the passage is on
(1) Resolution of water conflicts
(2) Encouraging bilateral co-operation
(3) Management of water as a valuable
resource
(4) River inter-linking
Answer: (3)
16. Given below are two statements, one
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
labelled as Reason (R). Read the
statements and choose the correct answer
using the code given below.
Assertion (A): Meanings of messages used
in the classroom are arbitrary in nature.
Reason (R): Meanings are learnt as a result
of one’s prior experiences.
Code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (1)
17. Given below are two statements, one
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
labelled as Reason (R). Read the
statements and choose the correct answer
using the code given below.
Assertion (A): Classroom communication
has a cultural dimension.
Reason (R): Beliefs, habits, customs and
languages are the cultural characteristics of
communication.
Code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (1)
18. In a classroom, teachers and students
use self-interest issues to judge
(1) Their acceptability
(2) Uncritical dispositions
(3) Negative re-inforcement of ideas
(4) External non-verbal cues
Answer: (1) 22. The next term in the series XY, ABC,
FGHI, ? , ... is
19. Variables that affect the information (1) MNPQO
processing in a classroom are (2) MNOPQ
(i) Perception levels (3) PQOMN
(ii) Learned habits (4) NMPOQ
(iii) Attitudes, beliefs and values Answer: (2)
(iv) Selectivity factor
(v) Market expectation
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23. If the code of ALLAHABAD is
(vi) Institutional intervention DPQGOIKKO, then the code of
Choose the correct answer from the code BENGULURU will be
given below: (1) ESBTBDIMF
Code: (2) MBDBFEIST
(1) (i), (ii), (v) and (vi) (3) EISMBTDBF
(2) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) (4) ESBDFBTMI
(3) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi) Answer: (3)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (4) 24. A man paid Rs. 160 while travelling 10
km in a taxi which has some initial fixed
20. Given below are two statements, one charges. Another man paid Rs. 276 for
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other travelling 16 km and the taxi driver
labelled as Reason (R). Read the charged double of the initial fixed charges
statements and choose the correct answer from him. The charges of the taxi per km
using the code given below. is
Assertion (A): Selective exposure in the (1) Rs. 10
classroom is dependent upon students’ (2) Rs. 13
perceptions and knowledge about the (3) Rs. 11
source of information. (4) Rs. 17
Reason (R): The effectiveness of the Answer: (3)
communication source determines the
selective exposure of students to 25. Gopal walks 20 m North. Then he
information. turns right and walks 30 m. Then he turns
Code: right and walks 35 m. Again he turns left
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the and walks 15 m. Then he again turns left
correct explanation of (A). and walks 15 m. The shortest distance
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is between his original position and final one
not the correct explanation of (A). is
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (1) 65 m
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (2) 55 m
Answer: (1) (3) 40 m
(4) 45 m
21. The next term in the series 5, 11, 21, Answer: (4)
35, 53, ?, ... is
(1) 75 26. Choose the proper alternative given in
(2) 90 the code to replace the question mark.
(3) 115 Cow – Milk
(4) 125 Bee – Honey
Answer: (1) Teacher – ?
Code:
(1) Marks

17
(2) Discipline (3) An inductive argument claims the
(3) Wisdom probability of its conclusion.
(4) Lesson (4) An inductive argument cannot provide
Answer: (3) us any new information about matters of
fact.
27. Among the following, two statements Answer: (4)
are related in such a way that if one
becomes undetermined, the other will also 30. When the purpose of the definition is
be undetermined. Select the code that to explain some established use of a term,
refers to these two statements. the definition is called
Statements: (1) Stipulative
(i) Every fruit is nutritious. (2) Lexical
(ii) Fruits are hardly nutritious. (3) Persuasive
(iii) Fruits are mostly nutritious. (4) Theoretical
(iv) Some food items are nutritious. Answer: (2)
Code: Consider the following two tables
(1) (i) and (ii) (I and II) that indicate the percentage of
(2) (ii) and (iii) employees working in various departments
(3) (iii) and (iv) of an organization along with the ratio of
(4) (i) and (iv) men to women in the same departments.
Answer: (1) The total number of employees in the
organization is 4600. Based on these tables
28. Given below are two premises (a) and I and II, answer the questions that follow
(b). Four conclusions are drawn from (Questions no. 31 – 35):
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them. I: Percentage of Employees Department

Select the code that embodies validly wise
drawn conclusion(s) (taking the premises Name of the Percentage of
individually or jointly). Department Employees (%)
Premises: IT 26
(a) All saints are noble. Marketing 22
(b) Some religious men are saints. Purchase 18
Conclusions: HR 11
(i) Some religious men are noble.
Accounts 8
(ii) All religious men are noble.
(iii) Some saints are religious men. Production 15
(iv) All noble persons are saints. II: Gender Ratio of Employees
Code: Name of the Ratio
(1) (i) and (ii) Department Men Women
(2) (ii) and (iii) IT 1 3
(3) (i) and (iii) Marketing 1 1
(4) (i) and (iv)
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Purchase 5 1
Answer: (3) HR 1 1
Accounts 3 1
29. Which one is not correct in the context Production 3 2
of deductive and inductive reasoning?
(1) A deductive argument makes the claim 31. What is the total number of women in
that its conclusion is supported by its the Accounts department?
premises conclusively. (1) 86
(2) A valid deductive argument may have (2) 102
all false premises and true conclusion. (3) 80

18
(4) 92 Choose the correct answer from the
Answer: (4) following:
(1) P only
32. What is the total number of employees (2) Q only
working in the IT and HR departments (3) P and Q
together ? (4) Neither P nor Q
(1) 1628 Answer: (2)
(2) 1646
(3) 1766 37. A confidential file needs to be deleted
(4) 1702 from a workstation. Which is the most
Answer: (4) effective way to ensure this?
(1) Rename the file
33. What is the ratio of the total number of (2) Compress the file and back-up to tape
men to total number of women working in (3) Copy and paste the file into the recycle
all the departments put together?
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bin and empty the recycle bin
(1) 63 : 41 (4) Drag the file into the recycle bin and
(2) 41 : 27 empty the recycle bin
(3) 53 : 47 Answer: (4)
(4) 27 : 19
Answer: (3) 38. Which of the following statement(s)
is/are true with regard to websites?
34. The number of women in the Purchase P: A blog is a website that consists of posts
department forms what percentage of the in reverse chronological order.
total number of employees in the Q: A wiki is a website that is designed to
organization? allow people to collaborate easily.
(1) 3% Choose the correct answer from the
(2) 6% following:
(3) 1% (1) P only
(4) 12% (2) Q only
Answer: (1) (3) P and Q
(4) Neither P nor Q
35. What is the ratio of the number of men Answer: (3)
in the Production department to the
number of men in the Marketing 39. In the context of e-mail, what is
department ? ‘spam’?
(1) 7 : 3 (1) The act of overloading an e-mail server
(2) 9 : 11 by using denial-of-service attacks
(3) 13 : 7 (2) E-mail messages that are infected with
(4) 11 : 9 viruses
Answer: (2) (3) A large quantity of messages that do
not reach the recipient
36. Which of the following statement(s) (4) Unsolicited advertising sent to a large
regarding the term ICT is/are true? number of recipients
P: A digital divide is an economic and Answer: (4)
social equality with regard to access to, use
of, or impact of ICT. 40. A virus type that is capable of shifting
Q: ICT helps in international development from one computer to another without user
by bridging the digital divide and interaction is known as a
providing equitable access to technologies. (1) Worm
(2) Trojan

19
(3) Logic bomb (2) (i) and (iii)
(4) Boot sector (3) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (1) (4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (4)
41. Sustainable Development Goals
(SDGs) are formally known as 45. As per the Indian Government’s target
(1) Transforming Our World: 2030 for exploiting renewable energy sources,
Agenda the percentage share of solar and wind
(2) Sustainable Living For All: 2022 energy in the total power generation from
Agenda renewable energy sources by the year 2022
(3) Life Of Dignity For All: 2022 Agenda will be about
(4) One Planet, One People: 2030 Agenda (1) ~ 91·43%
Answer: (1) (2) ~ 57·14%
(3) ~ 50%
42. An earthquake of a magnitude in the (4) ~ 60%
range of 6·0 – 6·9 on the Richter Scale is Answer: (1)
considered
(1) Moderate 46. The mandate of the University Grants
(2) Strong Commission (UGC) includes
(3) Major (i) Disbursing grants to Universities and
(4) Great colleges
Answer: (2) (ii) Recognising and monitoring technical
institutions
43. Frequent episodes of dense smog in (iii) Funding research centres in
winter season in the National Capital Universities
Region (NCR) can be attributed to (iv) Managing various scholarship
(i) Stubble burning programmes
(ii) Biomass burning in rural households Choose the correct answer from the code
(iii) Transport given below:
(iv) Transboundary movement of Code:
pollutants (1) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Choose the correct answer from the code (2) (i), (iii) and (iv)
given below: (3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Code: (4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(1) (i) and (iii) Answer: (2)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv) 47. Which one of the following States is
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) going to have India’s first National Rail
Answer: (4) and Transportation University?
(1) Uttar Pradesh
44. Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) (2) Maharashtra
comprises of
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(3) Bihar
(i) Household waste (4) Gujarat
(ii) Sanitation residue Answer: (4)
(iii) Waste from streets
(iv) Construction and demolition debris 48. The Citizen’s Charter is an instrument
Choose the correct answer from the code which seeks to make an organisation
given below: (i) Transparent
Code: (ii) Accountable
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (iii) Formal

20
(iv) Accessible
Choose the correct answer from the code
given below:
Code:
(1) (i) and (iii)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (3)

49. The Chief Minister of a State is not

eligible to vote in the Presidential election,
if
(1) he/she himself/herself is a candidate
(2) he/she is a caretaker Chief Minister
(3) he/she has a criminal case pending
against him/her
(4) he/she is a nominated member of the
State Legislative Assembly
Answer: (4)

50. In the QS World Rankings (2018),

which of the following Indian Universities
is/are among the top 500 Universities?
(i) University of Delhi
(ii) University of Hyderabad
www.netugc.c om

(iii) Banaras Hindu University

(iv) Jawaharlal Nehru University
Choose the correct answer from the code
given below:
Code:
(1) (i) only
(2) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (1)

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