Reproductive Health

Explanation: Placenta found in human is c
The straight tubules in the testis lead into the:
A.
Efferent ducts
B.
Afferent ducts
C.
Rete testis
D.
Ductus epididymis
E.
Epididymis
8.
The fuction of the epididymis is
A.
Sperm maturation
B.
Produce sperm
C.
Speratid storage
D.
Provide nutrition to sperm
E.
Absorption of calcium
9.
This is formed by the union of the duct from the seminal vesicle and the ampulla of the vas
deferens.
A.
Urethra
B.
Spermatic cord
C.
Inguinal canal
D.
Ejaculatory duct
E.
Prostate
10.
This lies posterior to the bladder and anterior to the rectum and secretes an alkaline, fructose
filled fluid.
A.
Prostate
B.
Cowper's glands
C.
Seminal glands
D.
Spongy urethra
E.
Prostatic urethra
11.
These are located inferior to the prostate on other side of the membranous urethra within the
deep muscles of the perineum.
A.
Cowper's glands
B.
Seminal glands
C.
Ejaculatory ducts
D.
Urethral ducts
E.
Prostate
12.
This is composed of three cylindrical masses of erectile tissue each surrounded by a fibrous
tissue.
A.
Testes
B.
Prostate
C.
Bladder
D.
Penis
E.
Urethra
13.
This ligament arises from the pubic symphysis in males.
A.
Fundiform ligament
B.
Broad ligament
C.
Suspensory ligament
D.
Ejaculatory ligament
E.
Perineum ligament
14.
What is produced by the ovaries?
A.
Primary oocytes, insulin and estrogen
B.
Secondary oocytes, progesterone and cortisol

C.
Tertiary oocytes, insulin and estrogen
D.
Secondary oocytes, estrogen and progesterone
E.
Primary oocytes, estrogen and testosterone
15.
This attaches the ovaries and the uterus to the pelvic wall.
A.
Broad ligament
B.
Mesovarium
C.
Ovarian ligament
D.
Suspensory ligament
E.
Hilum
16.
This is the site of fertilization.
A.
Ureters
B.
Urethra
C.
Uterine tubes
D.
Ovaries
E.
Vagina
17.
This is the portion of the uterus that opes into the vagina.
A.
Urethra
B.
Cervix
C.
Uterine tubes
D.
Inguinal canal
E.
Ovaries
18.
Anterior to the vagina and urethral openings is the
Discuss
A.
Labia majora
B.
Labia minora
C.
Mons pubis
D.
Cervical sphincter
E.
Labial frenulum
19.
Skene's glands secrete
A.
Estrogen
B.
Progesterone
C.
Testosterone
D.
Androgens
E.
Mucus
20.
..................... secreted by the ............................ controls the ovarian and uterine cycles.
A.
FSH, anterior pituitary
B.
LH, anterior pituitary
C.
GnRH, hypothalamus
D.
HGH, hypothalamus
E.
Estrogens, ovaries
21.
This hormone promotes spermatogenesis.
A.
Relaxin
B.
Testosterone
C.
Inhibin
D.
Estrogen
E.
Aldosterone
22.
This hormone triggers ovulation.
A.
GnRH
B.
LH
C.
FSH
D.
Estrogen
E.
Progesterone
23.
This is secreted by the corpus luteum after ovulation.
A.
Progesterone
B.
Relaxin
C.
LH
D.
FSH
E.
HGH
24.
In this uterine phase, the endometrium becomes more vascular.
A.
Menstrual phase
B.
Preovulatory phase
C.
Proliferative phase
D.
Follicular phase
E.
Postovulatory phase
25.
This is the ovarian phase between the end of menstruation and beginning of ovulation.
A.
Menstrual phase
B.
Preovulatory phase
C.
Proliferative phase
D.
Follicular phase
E.
Postovulatory phase
26.
The septum of the tissue is made up of superficial fascia and which muscle tissue?
A.
B.
B
C.
D.
E.
27.
What does "A" point to?
A.
Lymphatic vessels
B.
Pampiniform plexus
C.
Internal spermatic fasica
D.
Spermatic cord
E.
Fundiform ligament
28.
Which structure has a portion removed in vasectomy?
A.
B.
C.
E
D.
E.
29.
What does "G" point to?
A.
Dartos muscle
B.
Cremaster muscle
C.
Fascia
D.
Tunica albuginea
E.
Tunica vaginalis
30.
What is "C" pointing to?
A.
Efferent duct
B.
Body of epididymis
C.
Straight tubule
D.
Seminiferous tubule
E.
Lobule
31.
Where are the straight tubules?
A.
A
B.
C.
D.
E.
32.
What is "F" pointing to?
A.
Ductus epididymis
B.
Rete testis
C.
Efferent duct
D.
Afferent duct
E.
Seminiferous tubules
33.
This attaches the ovaries to the uterus.
Discuss
A.
B
B.
C.
D.
E.
34.
What is "C" pointing to?
A.
Bladder
B.
Fimbriae
C.
Ovary
D.
Uterus
E.
Perineum
35.
This is the site of implantation of a fertilzed ovum.
A.
B.
C.
D.
D
E.
36.
This opens from the uterus to the vagina.
A.
B.
C.
G
D.
E.
None of the above
37.
This consists of primary oocyte that is surrounded by several layers of cuboidal granulosa cells.
A.
A
B.
C.
D.
E.
38.
Where is the mature (graafian) follicle?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
39.
Where is the corpus albicans?
A.
B.
C.
D.
I
E.
None of the above
40.
This will produce progesterone, estrogens, relaxin and inhibin.
Discuss
A.
B.
E
C.
D.
E.
None of the above
41.
What is "D" pointing to?
A.
Follicular fluid
B.
Germinal epithelium
C.
Ovarian cortex
D.
Ovarian medulla
E.
None of the above
Multiple Choice Quiz

Please answer all questions
1
The primary sex organ in the male is the _____.
penis
A)
testis
B)
scrotum
C)
epididymis
D)
2
Where do the testes originate in a fetus?
scrotal sac
A)
pelvic cavity
B)
abdominal cavity
C)
retroperitoneal space
D)
3
When do the testes begin to descend?
at birth
A)
two months after birth
B)
two months prior to birth
C)
in the fifth month of pregnancy
D)
4
The failure of a testes to descend is referred to as _____.
inguinal hernia
A)
strangulated hernia
B)
vaginal process
C)
cryptorchidism
D)
5
Spermatogenesis is a function of the _____.
tunica albuginea
A)
rete testis
B)
seminiferous tubule
C)
seminal vesicle
D)
6
What is the source of the male sex hormones?
epididymis
A)
vas deferens
B)
seminiferous tubules
C)
interstitial cells
D)
7
Testicular cancer usually arises from the _____.
scrotal sac
A)
seminiferous tubules
B)
epididymis
C)
interstitial cells
D)
8
Which cells are present in a male age five?
spermatocytes
A)
spermatozoa
B)
spermatogonia
C)
spermatid
D)
9
Where do sperm cells attain fertilization competence and motility?
rete testis
A)
epididymis
B)
vas deferens
C)
seminiferous tubule
D)
10
Which structure contains lysosomal-like enzymes?
Sertoli cells
A)
sperm head
B)
acrosome
C)
sperm tail
D)
11
Where does the epididymis direct sperm cells into?
vas efferens
A)
vas deferens
B)
rete testis
C)
prostate gland
D)
12
The end of the vas deferens is a dilated sac called the _____.
ductus deferens
A)
seminal vesicle
B)
ampulla
C)
ejaculatory duct
D)
13
The ejaculatory duct is the union of the vas deferens and _____.
seminal vesicle
A)
prostate
B)
ampulla
C)
urethra
D)
14
The substrate used for sperm metabolism is produced by the _____.
prostate
A)
seminal vesicle
B)
Cowper's gland
C)
testes
D)
15
The main function of the prostate seems to be _____.
spermatogenesis
A)
production of glycogen
B)
secretion of alkaline mucus
C)
maturation of sperm cells
D)
16
Infertility could develop when the sperm cells display _____.
a count of 120 million per ml semen
A)
increased acrosomal activity
B)
normal morphology
C)
a count of less than 20 million per ml semen
D)
17
Which of the following has no homolog in the female?
penis
A)
scrotum
B)
prostate
C)
bulbourethral glands
D)
18
The process of capacitation usually occurs in the _____.
vagina
A)
testis
B)
prostate
C)
epididymis
D)
19
Which term includes the other terms?
spermatozoa
A)
alkaline mucus
B)
semen
C)
fructose
D)
20
The urethra passes through the _____ of the penis.
tunica albuginea
A)
prepuce
B)
corpora spongiosum
C)
corpora cavernosa
D)
21
Which of the following is not compatible with penile erection?
parasympathetic stimulation
A)
arterial dilation
B)
venous compression
C)
blood leaves erectile tissue
D)
22
Which hormone initiates the changes in puberty?
FSH
A)
ICSH
B)
testosterone
C)
GnRH
D)
23
The target of FSH is the _____.
prostate
A)
seminiferous tubule
B)
pituitary
C)
penis
D)
24
The target of ICSH is the _____.
prostate
A)
seminiferous tubule
B)
interstitial cells
C)
seminal vesicle
D)
25
Testosterone is converted to _____ in the prostate.
cholesterol
A)
estrogen
B)
progesterone
C)
dihydrotestosterone
D)
26
Which of these is not a function of testosterone?
loss of body hair
A)
thickening of the larynx
B)
anabolism of skeletal muscle
C)
thickening of bones
D)
27
What normally inhibits testosterone production?
increasing FSH
A)
increasing ICSH
B)
decreasing ICSH
C)
decreasing FSH
D)
28
The largest ovarian ligament is the _____ ligament.
ovarian
A)
broad
B)
suspensory
C)
sacral
D)
29
How many oocytes are there in the ovaries of an adult?
fewer than 400
A)
10 million
B)
50 million
C)
400,000
D)
30
Which cell has been fertilized by a sperm cell?
primary oocyte
A)
secondary oocyte
B)
ovum
C)
oogonia
D)
31
A cell called the ______ is a fertilized cell with 46 chromosomes.
spermatozoon
A)
polar body
B)
ovum
C)
zygote
D)
32
The result of oogenesis is _____.
one secondary oocyte
A)
two secondary oocytes
B)
one ovum
C)
four ootids
D)
33
The initiation of puberty and menses in a female, involves increased levels of _____.
FSH
A)
LH
B)
estrogen
C)
progesterone
D)
34
The outside layer of the oocyte is the _____.
theca interna
A)
theca externa
B)
zona pellucida
C)
antrum
D)
35
The mature follicle is also called a _____.
Graafian follicle
A)
granulosa cell
B)
primary follicle
C)
secondary follicle
D)
36
When do the corona radiata cells appear?
at birth
A)
12 days
B)
28 days
C)
1 day
D)
37
During ovulation, the oocyte passes into the _____.
uterine tube
A)
uterus
B)
pelvic cavity
C)
ovary
D)
38
What is the first structure to receive the oocyte?
fimbriae
A)
uterine tube
B)
infundibulum
C)
uterus
D)
39
The largest component of the uterus by weight is the _____.
broad ligament
A)
myometrium
B)
round ligament
C)
endometrium
D)
40
The superior portion of the uterus is the _____.
body
A)
cervix
B)
fundus
C)
infundibulum
D)
41
The outer serosal layer of the uterus is the _____.
perimetrium
A)
cervix
B)
endometrium
C)
myometrium
D)
42
The superior region of the vagina is the _____.)
vaginal orifice
A)
cervix
B)
hymen
C)
vaginal rugae
D)
43
The inner lining of the vagina is _____ epithelium.
simple cuboidal
A)
simple columnar
B)
mucous
C)
stratified squamous
D)
44
Which of these includes the other terms?
labia
A)
clitoris
B)
vulva
C)
vestibular glands
D)
45
What structure corresponds to the scrotum in the male?
labia major
A)
labia minor
B)
pudendal cleft
C)
mons pubis
D)
46
The _____ is the space between the labia minor.
vulva
A)
vestibule
B)
vaginal orifice
C)
pudendal cleft
D)
47
Which of the following are not parts of the clitoris?
corpora cavernosa
A)
crura
B)
glans
C)
corpus spongiosum
D)
48
The female Bartholin glands correspond to the male _____.
prostate
A)
Cowper's
B)
seminal vesicle
C)
glans
D)
49
Which of the following is a steroid?
FSH
A)
LH
B)
estrogen
C)
GnRH
D)
50
Which hormone stimulates the secondary female sex organs?
FSH
A)
LH
B)
GnRH
C)
estrogen
D)
51
Which of these is not a function of estrogen?
decreases adipose
A)
breast development
B)
increased skin blood vessels
C)
enlarges clitoris
D)
52
What area experiences the greatest changes in a menstrual cycle?
vagina
A)
perimetrium
B)
cervix
C)
endometrium
D)
53
Which of the following is not a source of estrogen?
adrenal gland
A)
ovary
B)
pituitary
C)
follicle
D)
54
Which factor causes the act of ovulation?
blood pressure
A)
LH levels
B)
FSH levels
C)
estrogen
D)
55
Where is the majority of progesterone produced?
Graafian follicle
A)
corpus luteum
B)
secondary follicle
C)
adrenal cortex
D)
56
Which hormone is produced throughout a menstrual cycle?
FSH
A)
estrogen
B)
LH
C)
progesterone
D)
57
Which factor will inhibit the secretion of estrogens?
FSH
A)
LH
B)
estrogens
C)
progesterone
D)
58
What factor will inhibit LH secretion?
FSH
A)
progesterone
B)
estrogen
C)
LH
D)
59
Which of the following is the most accurate sequence of hormones?
FSH, LH, estrogen, progesterone
A)
LH, FSH, estrogen, progesterone
B)
FSH, estrogen, LH, progesterone
C)
FSH, estrogen, progesterone, LH
D)
60
Which hormone thickens the lining of the uterus?
FSH
A)
estrogen
B)
LH
C)
progesterone
D)
61
Which hormone causes the uterus to increase glycogen?
progesterone
A)
FSH
B)
LH
C)
estrogen
D)
62
The shedding and bleeding of the decidua during menses is directly caused by low levels of
_____.
FSH
A)
LH
B)
sex steroids
C)
GnRH
D)
63
Which of the following is not a result of menopause?
loss of hormones
A)
reduction in breast mass
B)
increase in calcium deposition
C)
psychological changes
D)
64
Where does fertilization normally occur?
uterus
A)
uterine tube
B)
ovary
C)
pelvic cavity
D)
65
Where does implantation of the blastocyst occur?
uterine tubes
A)
endometrium
B)
cervix
C)
ovary
D)
66
Which structure will actually become the fetus?
morula
A)
blastocyst
B)
inner cell mass
C)
zygote
D)
67
When are HCG levels the highest?
before pregnancy
A)
first days of gestation
B)
second month of pregnancy
C)
end of pregnancy
D)
68
What is the source and function of HCG?
uterus; cause labor
A)
ovary; stimulates FSH
B)
placenta; inhibits LH
C)
placenta; mimics LH
D)
69
Which of these is not produced by the placenta?
estrogen
A)
relaxin
B)
progesterone
C)
lactogen
D)
70
Which hormone initiates and sustains labor contractions?
estrogen
A)
HCG
B)
relaxin
C)
oxytocin
D)
71
The contraction of the myoepithelial breast cells is stimulated by _____.
estrogen
A)
progesterone
B)
oxytocin
C)
prolactin
D)
Reproductive Physiology Quiz, part 1

Question 1
Testosterone acts to __________ production of high density lipoproteins and estradiol acts to
__________ bone resorption.
A decrease - decrease
B decrease - increase
C increase - decrease
D increase - increase
Question 2
An XO female (Turner’s syndrome) has __________ Wolffian ducts and __________ Mullerian
ducts.
A developed - developed
B developed - regressed
C regressed - developed
D regressed - regressed
Question 3
Estradiol will act to __________ spinnbarkeit and progesterone will act to __________ cervical
mucous ferning.
A decrease - decrease
B decrease - increase
C increase - decrease
D increase - increase
Question 4
Starting with cholesterol, indicate the proper enzyme sequence in the synthesis of testosterone.
1. 3-β-ol-dehydrogenase
2. 17-hydroxylase
3. 17-β-OH-steroid dehydrogenase
4. 17- 20-desmolase
5. 20, 22-desmolase
A 3, 2, 4, 1, 5
B 4, 1, 2, 5, 3
C 4, 2, 1, 5, 3
D 5, 1, 2, 4, 3
E 5, 1, 4, 2, 3
Question 5
Using the following list of events, indicate the proper sequence concerning the ovarian/uterine
cycle.
1. High levels of estradiol
2. High levels of estradiol and progesterone
3. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge
4. Menstruation
5. Presence of a corpus albicans
A 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B 1, 2, 3, 5, 4
C 1, 3, 2, 5, 4
D 4, 2, 3, 1, 5
E 4, 2, 3, 5, 1
Question
6
Use this scenario to answer questions 6-8.
Bob and Miriam Pataki walk in to your office with their 16 year-old daughter Helga, who
has not yet menstruated for the first time. Examination revealed a thin girl with normal
breast development and the normal presence of pubic and axillary hair. On talking with
Helga, you discover she is a junior in high school and is very active in sports. She is the
highschool’s track and field star, and she is an avid swimmer. Because of her track
practice, Helga stays up late most nights to do her homework, consequently, she only gets
five to six hours of sleep a night.
The most likely diagnosis for Helga is __________.
A adrenal hyperplasia
B exercise induced amenorrhea
C excessive secretion of melatonin
D testicular feminization
E Turner’s syndrome
Question 7
Helga’s condition is described as _________.
A hypergonadotropic hypergonadism
B hypergonadotropic hypogonadism
C hypogonadotropic hypergonadism
D hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
Question 8
The improper secretion of which of the following hormones do you suspect to be the original
culprit of Helga’s amenorrhea?
A estradiol
B folicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
C gonadotrophin releasing hormone (GnRH)
D luteinizing hormone (LH)
E testosterone
Question 9
Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) is primarily responsible for __________.
A conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone

B testosterone production
C maintaining the corpus luteum
D ovulation
E spermatogenesis
Question 10
Which of the following cells is INCORRECTLY matched to the secretion or product it

produces?
A granulosa cells - activin

B interstitial cells of Leydig - aromatase
C neurons of the arcuate nucleus - gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)
D Sertoli cells - antimullerian hormone (AMH)
E theca cells - androgens
Question 11
What is the most probable cause of an individual with ovaries, developed Mullarian ducts,
regressed Wolffian ducts and male/female external genetalia?
A adrenal 11-hydroxylase deficiency

B deficiency in 5α-reductase
C Klinefelter’s syndrome
D testicular feminization
E Turner’s Syndrome
Question 12
Which of the following processes IS NOT part of spermatogenesis?

A mitosis
B meiosis
C spermatocytogenesis
D spermiogenesis
E spermiation
Question 13
Between ejaculations, sperm is primarily stored in the __________.
A epididymis
B rete testis
C seminal vesicles
D seminiferous tubules
E vas deferens
Question 14
Erection is controlled by the ________ division of the autonomic nervous system and ejaculation
is controlled by the division of the autonomic nervous system ________.
A parasympathetic - parasympathetic
B parasympathetic - sympathetic
C sympathetic - parasympathetic
D sympathetic - sympathetic
Question 15
Completion of oogenesis results __________.
A after implantation
B at fertilization
C at ovulation
D before capacitation
E during the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle
Question 16
Which hormone, from the profiles above, is inhibited by inhibin?

AA
BB
CC
DD
Question 17
Days 15 to 28 of the menstrual cycle (i.e. both ovarian and uterine cycles) are referred to as the
__________ or _________.
A follicular phase - luteal phase

B luteal phase - secretory phase
C proliferative phase - follicular phase
D secretory phase - proliferative phase
Question 18
What day of the ovarian cycle might you expect to see low levels of estrogen and progesterone
and high levels of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)?
A day 1
B day 7
C day 14
D day 21
Question 19
During gestation, androgens are produced by the __________.
A fetus only
B mother only
C placenta only
D fetus and the mother
E mother and the placenta
Question 20
All of the following hormones are produced from the chorionic portion of the placenta
EXCEPT:
A human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG)

B estrogen
C placental lactogen
D progesterone
E relaxin
Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked
incorrect.
1 The right age to begin sexuality education is:
Around 5 years
Around 8 years
Around 12 years
Around 18 years
None of the above
2 Contraceptive methods such as pills, injectables, implants and intrauterine

devices have negative effects on the health of adolescent girls.

True
False
3 Child marriage – in which one or both persons are below the age of 18 –
affects:
1 in 50 girls globally
4 The Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) vaccine is an effective means of

preventing:
Breast cancer
Uterine cancer

Ovarian cancer
Cervical cancer
All of the above
None of the above
5 Who is more likely agree that it is right for a man to beat his wife is she does
something wrong (e.g... does not take care of the children, burns the food, leaves
the house without permission, is disrespectful or refuses sex)?
Adolescent boys
Adolescent girls
Both are equally likely to agree
6 What is the leading cause of death among 15-19 year old girls?
Diarrheal diseases
Pregnancy and childbirth complications
Road injury

Self-harm
Tuberculosis
Self-Study Post-Test for

Reproductive Health of Young Adults
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back button or the "Contents" tab to return to the presentation. Once you have
finished the content section return here for testing.
Please answer the following questions based on the material from this
presentation. Answer each question by clicking the box(es) that corresponds
with the correct statement(s). After you have completed the test, click on the
submit button at the bottom of the page to view your score and the correct
answers.
Section 1: Reproductive Health Issues of Young Adults

1. Please indicate whether the following statement is True (T) or False (F).
T / F
Young people have many problems and hence offer little help in addressing
reproductive health problems.
2. Check all that apply. Sexually active youth face the following reproductive health
risks:
a. Unintended and too-early pregnancy.
b. Sexual violence and unwanted sexual activity.
c. Too much influence on peers.
d. Sexually transmitted infections, including HIV.
e. Lack of communication with parents.
3. Please indicate whether the following statements regarding gender and HIV/AIDS
among youth
are True (T) or False (F).
T / F
a. Risk of infection varies because of gender.
b. Girls purchase condoms as easily as boys.
c. Girls see condoms as a sign of promiscuity.
d. Boys use condoms most often with regular partners.
T / F
The length of time when women are fertile prior to marriage has been
increasing due to nutrition and health in developed countries but not in
developing countries.
5. What are the main reasons that unmarried, sexually active youth report they do not use
contraception? Check all below that apply.
a. Did not have permission from their parents.
b. Did not expect to have sex.
c. Lacked information about contraception.
d. Lacked access to resources.
T / F
As many as half of pregnancies among unmarried women in developing
countries are unintended.
7. Please indicate whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F).
T / F
a. Using contraception can reduce the risk of unsafe abortion among youth.
b. More than half of women seeking hospital care for unsafe abortion in
developing
countries are under age 20.
c. Medical complications from abortion are not serious.
8. Check all that apply. Youth are at high risk for STIs/HIV due to which of the
following factors:
a. Non-use or incorrect use of condoms.
b. Failure to seek treatment.
c. Lack of communication among peers.
d. Having multiple partners.
Section 2: How to Reach Young Adults

9. Check all that apply. Communication skills needed by providers working with youth
include
which of the following:
a. Reflective listening.
b. Superior knowledge.
c. Closed-ended questions.
d. Honesty.
e. Nonjudgmental attitude.
10. Please indicate whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F).
T / F
a. Sex education leads to earlier or increased sexual activity.
b. Sex education tries to give young people skills to delay sexual activity.
c. Sex education can lead to increased use of contraceptive.
11. Check all that apply. The following are outcomes of effective sex education
programs:
a. Strengthens individual and group values against unprotected intercourse.
b. Provides clear lecture notes for teachers.
c. Involves students in teaching methods.
d. Maintains discipline in classroom.
e. Focuses on reducing sexual risk-taking.
12. Check all that apply. The most important elements in designing programs for young
adults:
a. Are designed by the Ministry of Health.
b. Involve youth.
c. Make services accessible, as identified by youth.
d. Identify target groups, their assets and their needs.
e. Work with community, including parents.
13. Check all that apply. Elements of good youth-adult partnerships include:
a. Organizational commitment and capacity.
b. An equal number of youth and adults on all projects.
c. Attitude shifts among adults and youth.
d. Substantive levels of youth participation.
e. Youth working equal hours as adults.
Section 3: Contraceptive Options for Young Adults

T / F
Some contraceptive methods are not appropriate for adolescents or young
adults for medical reasons.
15. Check all that apply. Complete sexual abstinence can include a range of which
following sexual
expressions?
a. Hugging.
b. Massage.
c. Mutual masturbation.
d. Withdrawal.
e. Oral sex.
16. Check all that apply. Why are barrier methods considered particularly appropriate for
young
people?
a. Many young adults are at high risk for STIs.
b. Many young people have easier access to barrier methods than to other
contraceptives.
c. They are good methods for couples in long-term relationships.
d. They can be easily initiated and discontinued.
e. All of the above.
17. Check all that apply. Which of the following is true of the spermicide nonoxynol-9?
a. Is more effective against pregnancy when used with another barrier method.
b. Offers protection against HIV.
c. Is an appropriate method of contraception for women at low risk of STIs.
d. May increase the risk of HIV transmission in some circumstances.
18. Check all that apply. When using the male condom, you should:
a. Open the package carefully to avoid tearing the condom.
b. Unroll the condom directly onto the erect penis.
c. Hold onto the rim of the condom while withdrawing the penis from the vagina.
d. Use oil-based lubricants, such as petroleum jelly.
19. Please indicate whether the following statements about oral contraceptives are True
(T)
or False (F).
T / F
a. Oral contraceptives are very safe for young women.
b. Oral contraceptives can protect against ectopic pregnancy, benign breast
disease,
ovarian and endometrial cancer, and some forms of pelvic inflammatory
disease.
c. Fertility returns ten months to a year after a woman stops taking the pill.
d. Oral contraceptives are usually available only through a clinic or other
trained
provider.
e. Progestin-only pills are the best type of oral contraception for most young
women.
f. Oral contraceptives offer protection against some STIs.
20. Please indicate which of the following statements about injectables and implants are
True (T)
or False (F).
T / F
a. Young people can safely use injectables and implants.
b. Injectables and implants have pregnancy rates of less than 1 percent after
one year
of use.
c. Injectables and implants are easy to use without a partner's knowledge.
d. Injectables and implants are inexpensive.
e. Using implants and progestin-only injectables reduces estrogen levels,
which
theoretically could predispose women who use them before age 16 to
osteoporosis
late in life; however, definitive studies have not been completed.
21. For the lactational amenorrhea method to be effective, a woman must be:
a. Fully or nearly fully breastfeeding.
b. Amenorrheic.
c. Within the first six months postpartum.
d. Choices a and b only.
e. Choices a, b and c.
22. Please indicate whether the following statements about traditional contraceptive
methods are
True (T) or False (F).
T / F
a. Traditional methods can promote reproductive health awareness.
b. They have low pregnancy rates in typical use.
c. Traditional methods offer no protection against STIs.
d. Periodic abstinence is particularly appropriate for young women just after
menarche.
e. Natural family planning requires knowledge of reproductive physiology,
including
fertility.
23. Dual protection refers to:
a. Use of a highly effective contraceptive method for pregnancy prevention along
with
condoms for STI prevention.
b. Use of condoms to prevent pregnancy and STI transmission.
c. Choices a and b.
d. None of the above.
24. Please indicate whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F) in terms of
when
emergency contraception can be used to prevent pregnancy.
T / F
a. After unprotected intercourse.
b. Anytime during cycle.
c. As a regular method.
d. As a backup method after contraceptive failure.
e. Anytime within a week after unprotected intercourse.
25. Which of the following methods are considered appropriate for young people? Check
all
that apply.
a. Complete abstinence.
b. Oral contraceptives.
c. Condoms.
d. IUDs.
e. Sterilization.
Section 4: STI/HIV Prevention and Treatment: Priority

for Young Adults
T / F
Young adults may be at high risk for STIs due to both behavioral and
biological susceptibility.
27. Check all that apply. High-risk behavior for contracting STIs include:
a. Having multiple partners.
b. Having one partner who has multiple partners.
c. Drug and alcohol use.
d. Using condoms inconsistently or incorrectly.
T / F
Most curable STIs are caused by bacteria and can be treated effectively with
antibiotics.
T / F
The most common curable STI is HIV.
30. Check all that apply. HIV is transmitted in which of the following ways?
a. Air.
b. Semen.
c. Vaginal fluids.
d. Blood.
e. Breastmilk.
31. Which three of the following are good examples of effective behavior by a provider
during
voluntary counseling and testing?
a. Discussion of disclosure of HIV status.
b. Preventive counseling.
c. Shouting at the client.
d. Providing social and medical support.
32. Check all that apply. Viral STIs include the following:
a. HIV.
b. Syphilis.
c. Herpes.
d. Hepatitis B.
33. A full STI management program involves:

a. Training providers.
b. Diagnosing STIs.
c. Treating STIs with antibiotics.
d. Tracing partners for treatment.
34. The consequences of untreated STIs can include:

a. Painful urination.
b. Complications with pregnancy.
c. Infertility.
d. Death.
e. All of the above
T / F
Multiple Choice Questions for Reproductive Health and Gender-Based Violence
1. Reproductive health includes which of the following:
a) Access to acceptable, effective and safe contraception

b) Protection from sexually transmitted infections
c) Health services for safer pregnancies and deliveries
d) Services to promote healthier babies
e) All of the above
Answer: e
2. Which of the following is not true with regards to sexual and reproductive health in
humanitarian emergencies:
a) Women and children make up the majority of affected populations

b) Every day an average of 50 women die in humanitarian settings
c) It is critical to include sexual and reproductive health care in humanitarian responses
d) Approximately a quarter of women in humanitarian settings are of childbearing age
Answer: b
3. Which of the following is true with regards to MISP?
a) It stands for Maximal Initial Services Package

b) MISP is comprehensive reproductive health care
c) It is implemented in the earliest days of the emergency
d) MISP includes a reproductive health kit that will meet all reproductive health care needs
of 500,000 people for 6 months
Answer: c
4. What are some of the underlying root causes of gender-based violence?
a) Gender inequality and social norms that are accepting of violence

b) Previous experiences of violence
c) Substance abuse
d) Mental heath disorders
e) All of the above
Answer: e
5. Which of the following statements is/are true about gender-based violence?

a) It is a global problem that affects all regions of the world
b) Both women / girls as well as men / boys are affected
c) Its impact is often minimal and short-lived.
d) a and b are correct
Answer: d
Reproductive Health: MCQs Quiz - 1

Question 1
What is the correct surgical method for preventing pregnancy in which the vas deferens is cut?
A Ovariectomy
B Hysterectomy
C Vasectomy
D Castration
Question
2
In ______ the egg is first fertilized outside the body and then it is inserted into the oviduct.
A GIFT
B ZIFT
C ICSI
D IVF
Question 3
The highly sophisticated procedure of directly injecting a sperm into an egg is called
A ICSI
B ZIFT
C GIFT
D AID
Question 4
Emergency contraceptives may prevent pregnancy if used within 72 hrs of ______.
A Menstruation
B Ovulation
C Coitus
D Implantation
Question 5
Oral contraceptive pills help in birth control by
A Killing sperms
B Killing ova
C Preventing ovulation
D Forming barrier between sperms and ova
Question 6
Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is considered safe up to how many weeks of
pregnancy?
A Six weeks
B Eight weeks
C Twelve weeks
D Eighteen weeks
Question 7
GIFT (Gamete intrafallopian transfer) mixes egg and sperm in the ______.
A Fallopian tube
B Uterus
C Vagina
D Culture medium
Question
8
The permissible use of the technique amniocentesis is for
A Detecting any genetic abnormality
B Detecting sex of the unborn foetus
C Artificial insemination
D Transfer of embryo into the uterus of a surrogate mother
Question 9
Which one of the following statements is incorrect regarding IUDs (Intrauterine devices)?
A These are small pieces of plastic/metal that are inserted into the uterus
B They should be removed only by a health care provider.
C IUDs offer protection from sexually transmitted diseases.
D IUDs prevent pregnancy by creating a mild chronic inflammation
Question 10
The technique called gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females
A Whore cervical canal is too narrow to allow passage for the sperms
B Who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilisation
C Who cannot produce an ovum
D Who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus
Question 11
In vitro fertilisation is a technique that involves transfer of which one of the following into the
fallopian tube?
A Zygote only
B Embryo only, up to 8 cell stage
C Either zygote or early embryo up to 8 cell stage
D Embryo of 32 cell stage
Question 12
Cu ions released from copper-releasing Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs)
A Prevent ovulation
B Make uterus unsuitable for implantation
C Increase phagocytosis sperms
D Suppress sperm motility
Question 13
Consider the statements given below regarding contraception and answer as directed thereafter:
(a) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) during first trimester is generally safe
(b) Generally chances of conception are nil until mother breast-feeds the infant upto two years
(c) Intrauterine devices like copper-T are effective contraceptives
(d) Contraception pills may be taken upto one week after coitus to prevent conception
Which two of the above statements are correct?
A a, b
B b, c
C c, d
D a, c
Question 14
Which of the following statements is wrong regarding Medical Termination of Pregnancy
(MTP)?
A In India it is legal up to the 20th week of pregnancy.
B MTPs can't be done without surgery
C MTPs are considered to be relatively safe during the first trimester.
D It needs the assistance of qualified medical practitioners.
Question 15
Given below are four methods (A - D) and their modes of action (a - d) in achieving
contraception. Select their correct matching from the four options that follow:
Method Mode of Action
A. The pill a. Prevents sperms
reaching cervix
B. Condom b. Prevents implantation
C. Vasectomy c. Prevents ovulation
D. Copper T d. Semen contains no
sperms
A-(b), B-(c), C-(a), D-
A
(d)
A-(c), B-(a), C-(d), D-
B
(b)
A-(d), B-(a), C-(b), D-
C
(c)
A-(c), B-(d), C-(a), D-
D
(b)
1. Cells become variable in morphology and function in different regions of the embryo.
The process is
(a) differentiation
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(b) metamorphosis
(c) organisation
(d) rearrangement
ADVERTISEMENTS:
Answer and Explanation:
1. (a): Differentiation are the changes from simple to more complex forms undergone by
developing tissues and organs so that they become specialized for particular functions.
Differentiation occurs during embryonic development and regeneration.
2. Human eggs are
(a) alecithal
ADVERTISEMENTS:
(b) microlecithal
(c) mesolecithal
(d) macrolecithal
2. (a): Eggs are of 4 types regarding the amount of yolk present in them:
(i) Alecithal egg: Almost free of yolk e.g. man.
(ii) Microlecithal egg: Very small amount of yolk e.g. Branchiostoma.
(iii) Mesolecithal egg: Moderate amount of yolk eg. Frog’s egg
(iv) Macrolecithal egg: Large amount of yolk eg, reptiles, birds and egg-laying mammals.
3. Egg is liberated from ovary in
(a) secondary oocyte stage
(b) primary oocyte stage
(c) oogonial stage
(d) mature ovum stage.
3. (a): In humans, ovum is released from the ovary in the secondary oocyte stage. The wall of the
ovary gets ruptured to release the oocyte. In humans ovulation occurs about 14 days before the
onset of the next menstruation. Ovulation is induced by LH.
4. Gonads develop from embryonic
(a) ectoderm
(b) endoderm
(c) mesoderm
(d) both mesoderm and endoderm.
4. (c): Ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm are the three germ layers that give rise to specific
tissues, organs and organ systems. Gonads, muscles, dermis, kidneys etc. develop from
mesoderm. Ectoderm produces epidermis, glands, nervous system etc. Pancreas, lining of urinary
bladder etc develop from endoderm.
5. How many sperms are formed from a secondary spermatocyte?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 2
(d) 1.
5. (c): At sexual maturity, the undifferentiated primordial germ cells divide several times by
mitosis to produce a large number of spermatogonia. Each spermatogonium actively grows to a
larger primary spermatocyte. Each primary spermatocyte undergoes two successive divisions,
called maturation divisions.
The first maturation division is reductional or meiotic. Hence, the primary spermatocyte divides
into two haploid daughter cells called secondary spermatocytes. Both secondary spermatocytes
now undergo second maturation division which is an ordinary mitotic division to form, four
haploid spermatids.
Thus each secondary spermatocyte gives rise to two spermatids that undergo transformation to
form two sperms. Overall, both secondary spermatocytes give rise to four sperms.
6. Fertilizins are emitted by
(a) immature eggs
(b) mature eggs
(c) sperms
(d) polar bodies.
6. (b): Mature egg (ovum) secretes a chemical named fertilizin (composed of glycoprotein =
monosaccharides + amino acids). Sperm has on its surface a protein substance called
antifertilizin (composed of acidic amino acids). The fertilizin of an egg interacts with the
antifertilizin of a sperm of the same species. This interaction makes the sperms stick to the egg
surface.
7. During cleavage, what is true about cells?
(a) nucleocytoplasmic ratio remains unchanged
(b) size does not increase
(c) there is less consumption of oxygen
(d) the division is like meiosis.
7. (b): The term cleavage refers to a series of rapid mitotic divisions of the zygote following
fertilization, forming a many-celled blastula. Interphase in cleavage divisions is short and does
not involve growth so that the resulting blastomeres become smaller in size as their number
increases. Thus, the size of the cells (blastomeres) does not increase during cleavage.
8. Freshly released human egg has
(a) one Y-chromosome
(b) one X-chromosome
(c) two X-chromosome
(d) one X-chromosome and one Y-chromosome
8. (b): The egg released is haploid (has only one X-chromosome and 22 autosomes) as it is
formed due to meiotic division of diploid primary oocyte having XX chromosome and 44
autosomes.
9. Location and secretion of Leydig’s cells are
(a) liver-cholesterol
(b) ovary-estrogen
(c) testis-testosterone
(d) pancreas-glucagon.

9. (c): In between the seminiferous tubules in the connective tissue of testes, there are present
small groups of rounded interstitial or Leydig’s cells which secrete androgens (e.g., testosterone),
i.e. male sex hormones.
10. Middle piece of mammalian sperm possesses
(a) mitochondria and centriole
(b) mitochondria only
(c) centriole only
(d) nucleus and mitochondria.
10. (a): The middle piece of human sperm contains the mitochondria coiled around the axial
filament called mitochondrial spiral. They provide energy for the movement of the sperm. At the
end of the middle piece there is a ring centriole (annulus) with unknown functions.
11. Meroblastic cleavage is a division which is
(a) horizontal
(b) partial/parietal
(c) total
(d) spiral.
11. (b): Depending mostly on the amount of yolk in the egg, the cleavage can be holoblastic
(total or entire cleavage) or meroblastic (partial cleavage). In the presence of a large amount of
yolk in the fertilized egg cell, the cell can undergo partial or meroblastic cleavage. Two major
types of meroblastic cleavages are discoidal e.g. birds and superficial e.g. arthropods.
12. Eye lens is formed from
(a) ectoderm
(b) mesoderm
(c) endoderm
(d) ectoderm and mesoderm.

12. (a): Ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm are the three germ layers that give rise to the
specific tissues, organs and organ-systems. Ectoderm gives rise to conjunctiva, cornea, lens of
eye, muscles of iris, vitreous humour, retina, lacrimal gland along with other parts of the body.
13. Blastopore is
(a) opening of neural tube
(b) opening of gastrocoel
(c) future anterior end of embryo
(d) found in blastula.
13. (b): Blastopore is the opening by which the cavity of the gastrula (gastrocoel), communicates
with the exterior. It is formed as a result of invagination of endoderm during embryonic
development. During maturation of some animals it evolves into the anus or the mouth; in others
it is covered over and contributes to the canal joining the primitive gut with the cavity of the
neural tube.
14. Extrusion of second polar body from egg nucleus occurs
(a) after entry of sperm before completion of fertilization
(b) after completion of fertilization
(c) before entry of sperm
(d) without any relation of sperm entry.
14. (a): The entry of sperm stimulates the secondary oocyte to resume and complete the
suspended meiosis II. This produces a haploid mature ovum and a second polar body. The
second polar body immediately degenerates and I sperm tail as well.
15. Termination of gastrulation is indicated by
(a) obliteration of blastocoel
(b) obliteration of archenteron

(c) closure of blastopore
(d) closure of neural tube.
15. (a): Gastrulation is the process through which the presumptive areas of organ specific
rudiments present on the surface of blastula move to their specific positions where these occur in
the adult’. Gastrulation results in setting a part of the three primary germinal layers i.e., the
ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm from single layer of cells, the blastoderm, and in the
formation of primordial gut or archenteron. Example in Amphioxus, blastula is ball-like with a
large blastocoel surrounded by a single layer of columnar cells.
At the onset of gastrulation the blastoderm at the vegetal pole becomes flat. It gradually bends
inwards till the embryo assumes the appearance of a double-walled cup. The cavity formed by
invagination is called archenteron or primitive gut. Its opening is called blastopore and the
embryo at this stage is gastrula.
As a result of invagination, the presumptive endoderm, mesoderm and notochord are shifted
from the surface to the interior of the embryo. The blastocoel is gradually obliterated till the two
layers come in contact. By the completion of gastrulation, the lateral horns of mesodermal
crescent converge and come to lie on either side of the presumptive notochord.
16. In telolecithal egg the yolk is found
(a) all over the egg
(b) on one side
(c) both the sides
(d) centre.
16. (b): Eggs with abundant yolk concentrated in one hemisphere of the egg are termed
telolecithal. This occurs in many invertebrates and in all vertebrates lower than marsupial
mammals.
17. Acrosome reaction in sperm is triggered by
(a) capacitation
(b) release of lysin
(c) influx of Na+

(d) release of fertilizin.
17 (c): The activated spermatozoan on reaching the egg plasma membrane undergoes a number
of changes in its acrosomal region. All these changes are collectively described under acrosome
reaction.
Acrosome reaction is calcium-dependent involving massive uptake of calcium and sodium with
an efflux of hydrogen generating high pH and osmotic pressure, producing negative surface
charge, and partial or total release of the acrosomal enzymes. Calcium influx may activate
phospholipase resulting in accumulation of unsaturated fatty acids and fusiogenic
lysophospholipids contributing to acrosome reaction.
18. Amount of yolk and its distribution are changed in the egg. Which one is affected?
(a) pattern of cleavage
(b) formation of zygote
(c) number of blastomeres
(d) fertilization.
18. (a): Based on the amount and pattern of distribution of yolk in the zygote, cleavage is of two
types: holoblastic and meroblastic. Holoblastic cleavage divides the zygote and blastomeres
completely into daughter cells. In meroblastic cleavage the divisions are confined to the animal
pole or peripheral region of egg. The yolk remains undivided.
19. Male hormone is produced in the testis by cells of
(a) Sertoli
(b) epithelial
(c) spermatocytes
(d) leydig.
19. (d): Refer answer 9.
20. What is true about cleavage in the fertilized egg in humans?

(a) it starts while the egg is in fallopian tube
(b) it starts when the egg reaches uterus
(c) it is meroblastic
(d) it is identical to the normal mitosis.
20. (a): Cleavage is a series of rapid mitotic divisions of the zygote which convert the single
celled zygote into a multicellular structure called blastula (blastocyst). About thirty hours after
fertilization, the newly formed zygote divides into two cells, the blastomeres, in the upper
portion of the Fallopian tube. This is the first cleavage.
The next division occurs within forty hours after fertilization. The third division occurs about
three days after fertilization. During these early cleavages, the young embryo is slowly moving
down the fallopian tube towards the uterus. At the end of fourth day, the embryo reaches the
uterus. It has thirty two cells.
21. The extra embryonic membranes of the mammalian embryo are derived from
(a) trophoblast
(b) inner cell mass
(c) formative cells
(d) follicle cells.
21. (a): Trophoblast is the layer of cells encircling the blastocoel and the inner cell mass. The
latter gives rise to the embryo. The cells of the trophoblast form the placenta and foetal
membrane.
22. In the 28 day human ovarian cycle, the ovulation takes place typically on
(a) day 14 of the cycle
(b) day 28 of the cycle
(c) day 1 of the cycle
(d) day 5 of the cycle.

22. (a): Ovulation is the releasing of egg by ruptured graafian follicle. The wall of graafian
follicle is ruptured by sudden increase in the level of luteinising hormone. The length of
menstruation cycle is 28 days (average) from the start of one menstruation period to the start of
the next. At about 14th day of the cycle, the distended follicle ruptures and the ovum is extruded
into the fallopian tube.
23. Coelom derived from blastocoel is known as
(a) pseudocoelom
(b) schizocoel
(c) haemocoel
(d) enterocoelom.
23. (a): Roundworms have a body cavity called pseudocoelom consisting of a fluid-filled space
between the body wall and digestive tract. Pseudocoelom is derived from the blastocoel of the
embryo rather than from a secondary cavity within the embryonic mesoderm (which results in a
true body cavity or coelom). The internal organs of pseudocoelomate animals are actually found
free within the fluid-filled body cavity as there is no layer of mesodermal epithelium lining the
cavity and surrounding the organs.
24. Which of the following statements is correct with reference to a test tube baby?
(a) fertilization of the egg is effected outside the body; the fertilized egg is then placed in the
womb of the mother where the gestation is completed
(b) fertilization of the egg is effected in the female genital tract. It is then taken out and grown in
a large test tube
(c) a prematurely born baby is reared in an incubator
(d) fertilization of the egg and growth of the embryo are affected in a large test tube.
24. (a): By in vitro fertilization, the ovum is fertilized with sperm outside the body of a woman,
providing the ovum with the same environmental conditions as it would have got inside the
uterus. The zygote is grown inside a culture and when embryo is formed, it is then implanted into
uterus where it develops into foetus and then into a child. This is called test tube baby.
25. The mammalian corpus luteum produces
(a) luteotrophic hormone
(b) luteinizing hormone
(c) estrogen
(d) progesterone.
25. (d): Progesterone is secreted by the corpus luteum of the ovary. It stimulates further
development of the uterine epithelium and mammary glands. It is also required for the formation
of the placenta and for the maintenance of pregnancy. Luteotrophic hormone and luteinizing
hormone are secreted by the anterior lobe of pituitary gland. Estrogen is secreted by the cells of
the graafian follicles.
26. In an egg, the type of cleavage is determined by
(a) the amount and distribution of yolk
(b) the number of egg membranes
(c) the shape and size of the sperm
(d) the size and location of the nucleus.
26. (a): The amount of yolk and how it is distributed determines the type of cleavage. On this
basis cleavage is of two types:
(a) Holoblastic – where the segmentation line passes through the entire egg. It occurs in alecithal
(without yolk), microlecithal (with very little amount of yolk) and mesolecithal (little amount of
yolk) egg.
(b) Meroblastic – where segmentation line does not pass through the egg and remained confined
to a part of the egg. It occurs in megalecithal (large amount of yolk) egg.
27. The test tube baby means
(a) fertilization and development both in uterus
(b) fertilization in vitro and then transplantation in uterus

(c) a baby grown in test tube
(d) fertilized and developed embryo in test tube.
27. (b): Refer answer 24.
28. Foetal sex can be determined by examining cells from the amniotic fluid by looking for
(a) chiasmata
(b) kinetochore
(c) barr bodies
(d) autosomes.
28. (c): Barr body is a structure consisting of a condensed X chromosome that is found in
nondividing nuclei of female mammals. Amniotic fluid contains foetal skin cells, that are stained
to determine the presence of sex chromatin (barr body). The presence of barr body indicates that
the developing foetus is female with two X-chromosome.
29. Fertilizin is a chemical substance produced from
(a) polar bodies
(b) middle piece of sperm
(c) mature eggs
(d) acrosome.
29. (c): Egg (ovum) secretes a chemical named fertilizin (composed of glycoprotein =
monosaccharides + amino acids). Sperm has on its surface a protein substance called
antifertilizin (composed of acidic amino acids). The fertilizing of an egg interacts with the
antifertilizin of a sperm of the same species. This interaction makes the sperms stick to the egg
surface. The adhesion of sperm to the egg of the same species through chemical recognition is
known as agglutination.
30. In human beings, the eggs are

(a) mesolecitlial
(b) alecithal
(c) microlecithal
(d) macrolecithal
30. (b): In human beings, the eggs are alecithal i.e. they do not contain yolk. Mesolecithal eggs
contain moderate amount of yolk e.g., frog. Microlecithal eggs contain a little amount of yolk
e.g., Amphioxus. Macrolecithal eggs contain large amount of yolk e.g. birds.
31. In the fertile human female, approximately on which day of the menstrual cycle does
ovulation take place?
(a) day 14
(b) day 18
(c) day 1
(d) day 8.
31. (a): Refer answer 22.
32. The middle piece of the sperm contains
(a) proteins
(b) mitochondria
(c) centriole
(d) nucleus.
32. (b): The sperm consists of head, neck, middle piece and tail. The middle piece of human
sperm contains the mitochondria coiled around the axial filament called mitochondrial spiral.
They provide energy for the movement of the sperm.
33. After ovulation Graafian follicle regresses into

(a) corpus artesia
(b) corpus callosum
(c) corpus luteum
(d) corpus albicans.
33. (c): After ovulation many of the follicular cells remain in the collapsed graafian follicle on
the surface of the ovary. The antrum (cavity) of the collapsed follicle fills with a partially clotted
fluid. The follicular cells enlarge and fill with a yellow pigment, lutein. Such a follicle is called a
corpus luteum – literally, yellow body.
34. Blastopore is the pore of
(a) archenteron
(b) blastocoel
(c) coelom
(d) alimentary canal
34. (a): Archenteron is known as the primitive gut that forms during gastrulation in the
developing blastula. It develops into the digestive tract of an animal. The open end of the
archenteron is called blastopore.
35. Which set is similar?
(a) corpus luteum – graafian follicles
(b) sebum – sweat
(c) bundle of His – pace maker
(d) vitamin B7 – Niacin.
35. (a): A mature ovarian follicle is called Graafian follicle. It contains follicular cells, an
antrum, and an oocyte. After ovulation, the empty graffian follicle shows deposition of leutin and
forms corpus luteum that ultimately degenerates.
36. What is true for cleavage?
(a) size of embryo increases
(b) size of cells decreases
(c) size of cells increases
(d) size of embryo decreases.
36. (b): During cleavage, the zygote divides repeatedly to convert the large cytoplasmic mas-
into a Iarge number of small blastomeres. It involves cell division without growth in size because
cells continue to be retained within the zona pellucida. However, cell size decreases during
cleavage.
37. Test tube baby means a baby born when
(a) it is developed in a test tube
(b) it is developed through tissue culture method
(c) the ovum is fertilized externally and thereafter implanted in the uterus
(d) it develops from a non-fertilized uterus
37. (c): By in vitro fertilization, the ovum is fertilized with sperm outside the body of a woman,
providing the ovum with the same environmental conditions as it would have got inside the
uterus. The zygote is grown inside a culture and when embryo is formed, it is then implanted into
uterus where it develops into foetus and then into a child. This is called test tube baby.
Methodology involves the following steps:
• Removal of unfertilised ovum from reproductive tract of a female.
Ovum is kept under aseptic conditions.
• Fusion of sperm and ovum in a culture medium, outside the female body to form the zygote.
• Zygote is stimulated to develop in vitro upto 32-celled stage.

• Developing embryo is implanted on the endometrium of the uterus at 32-celled stage. So the
pregnancy in the woman starts and further the development of the child continues in the womb
till it is born.
38. During embryonic development, the establishment of polarity along anterior/posterior,

dorsal/ventral or medial/lateral axis is called
(a) organizer phenomena
(b) axis formation
(c) anamorphosis
(d) pattern formation
38. (a): During embryonic development, the establishment of polarity along anterior/posterior,
dorsal/ventral or medial/lateral axis is called organizer phenomenon. The organizer is the part of
an embryo consisting of undifferentiated cells that follow a specific course of development by
identifying the polarity of particular region.
39. Ovulation in the human female normally takes place during the menstrual cycle
(a) at the mid secretory phase
(b) just before the end of the secretory phase
(c) at the beginning of the proliferative phase
(d) at the end of the proliferative phase.
39. (d): Ovulation (the release of secondary oocyte from the graafian follicle) takes place at the
end of proliferative phase of menstrual cycle. During this phase, the follicle stimulating hormone
(FSH) secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland stimulates the ovarian follicle to secrete
oestrogen. Oestrogen stimulates the proliferation of the endometrium of the uterine wall.
The endometrium becomes thicker by rapid cell multiplication and this is accompanied by an
increase of uterine glands and blood vessels. This phase ends when the ovarian follicle ruptures
and ovulation occurs and at the same time the production of oestrogen stops.
40. Which of the following hormones is not a secretion product of human placenta?
(a) human chorionic gonadotropin

(b) prolactin
(c) estrogen
(d) progesterone.
40. (b): The outer surface of the chorion in humans develops a number of finger like projections,
known as chorionic villi, which grow into the tissue of the uterus. These villi, penetrate the
tissues of the uterine wall in which they are embedded, make up the organ known as the
placenta, by means of which the developing embryo obtains nutrients and oxygen and gets rid of
carbon dioxide and metabolic wastes.
Placenta also secretes hormones such as oestrogens, progesterone and human chorionic
gonadotropin (HCG). Prolactin is secreted by anterior pituitary gland which stimulates mammary
gland development during pregnancy and lactation after child birth.
41. In oogamy, fertilization involves
(a) a small non-motile female gamete and a large motile male gamete
(b) a large non-motile female gamete and a small motile male gamete
(c) a large non-motile female gamete and a small non-motile male gamete
(d) a large motile female gamete and a small non- motile male gemete.
41. (b): Oogamy is the sexual reproduction involving the formation and subsequent fusion of a
large, usually stationary, female gamete and a small motile male gamete. The female gamete
may contain nourishment for the development of the embryo, which is often retained and
protected by the parent organism.
42. Grey crescent is the area
(a) at the point of entry of sperm into ovum
(b) Just opposite to the site, of entry of sperm into ovum
(c) at the animal pole
(d) at the vegetal pole.

42. (b): Grey crescent is the area just opposite to the site of entry of sperm into ovum. It marks
the future dorsal side of the embryo.
43. If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized, which one of the following is unlikely?
(a) corpus luteum will disintegrate
(b) progesterone secretion rapidly declines
(c) estrogen secretion further increases
(d) primary follicle starts developing.
43. (c): If the mammalian ovum fails to fertilize choices, (a) and (b) are obvious. Since corpus
luteum declines so progesterone also decreases rapidly (progesterone is essential for maintenance
of pregnancy). Also estrogen continues to cause growth of the endometrium which ultimately
becomes thick enough to break down and cause menstruation. Hence choice (c) is incorrect as
estrogen secretion doesnot decrease further. Primary follicles continue developing irrespective of
ovulatory condition.
44. Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary hormone known as
(a) LH
(b) FSH
(c) GH
(d) prolactin
44. (b): Sertoli cells are present in the germinal epithelium of the seminiferous tubules. These
cells nourish the developing sperms. These cells differentiate spermatogonia into sperms. They
are under the influence of FSH released by anterior pituitary gland.
45. Withdrawal of which of the following hormones is the immediate cause of

menstruation?
(a) progesterone
(b) estrogen
(c) FSH
(d) FSH-RH
45. (a): The menstrual cycle consists of three phases; proliferative phase, secretory phase and
menstrual phase. During menstrual phase the production of LH is considerably reduced. The
withdrawal of this hormone causes degeneration of the corpus luteum and, therefore,
progesterone production is reduced. The endometrium degenerates and breaks down. Thus
menstruation begins.
46. Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an endocrine gland after ovulation?
(a) stroma
(b) germinal epithelium
(c) vitelline membrane
(d) Graafian follicle.
46. (d): The Graafian follicle is fluid-filled capsule that surrounds and protects the developing
egg cell inside the ovary during the menstrual cycle. Graafian follicle represents the final stage of
follicular development before ovul ation. Shortly before ovulation the follicle swells and
develops a stigma. At ovulation, the stigma ruptures, releaising the secondary oocyte and corona
radiata into the peritoneal cavity to be taken up by the oviduct.
The zona granulosa and theca cells remaining in the ovary after ovulation and some surrounding
capillaries and connective tissue evolve into the corpus luteum (a temporary endocrine gland)
i.e., after the egg cell has been released,, the follicle remains and is known as a corpus luteum.
The corpus luteum produces progesterone and, in the event of fertilization, provides the required
progesterone until the placenta is formed. The corpus luteum also produces some estrogen.
47. In the human female, menstruation can be deferred by the administration of
(a) combination of FSH and LH
(b) combination of estrogen and progesterone
(c) FSH only
(d) LH only.

47. (b): Menstruation is the term given to the periodic discharge of blood, tissue, fluid and
mucus from the reproductive organs of sexually matured females. The flow usually lasts from 3-
6 days each month and is caused by a sudden reduction in the hormones estrogen and
progesterone.
Two sex hormones play a role in the control of the menstrual cycle: estradiol and progesterone.
Estrogen peaks twice, during follicular growth and during the luteal phase.
Progesterone remains virtually absent prior to ovulation, but becomes critical in the luteal phase
and during pregnancy. Many tests for ovulation check for the presence of progesterone.
After ovulation the corpus luteum — which develops from the burst follicle and remains in the
ovary — secretes both estradiol and progesterone. Only if pregnancy occurs do hormones appear
in order to suspend the menstrual cycle, while production of estradiol and progesterone
continues.
Cavity of graafian follicle is

A Amniotic cavity
B Antrum
C Liquor folliculi
D Discus proligerous
Question 2
Cells of corona radiata remain grouped together by
A Pectins
B Lipids
C Hyaluronidase
D Hyaluronic acid
Question 3
Cells of Leydig occur in
A Liver
B Ovary
C Testis
D Spleen
Question 4
Cleavage starts after fertilization in
A Fallopian tube
B Uterus
C Vestibule
D Clitoris
Question 5
Connective tissue around seminiferous tubules possess endocrine cells called
A Leydig cells
B Sertoli cells
C Primary germ cells
D Both (A) and (B)
Question 6
Conversion of spermatids into sperms is
A Spermiogenesis
B Ppermatogenesis
C Gametogenesis
D Metamorphosis
Question 7
Corona radia is made up of
A zona pellucid around the oocyte
B vitelline membrane
C follicular cells around the oocyte
D stratum functionalis
Question 8
Corpus leteum develops from
A Oocyte
B Nephrostome
C Graafian follicle
D none of the above
Question 9
Corpus luteum
A Degenerates during pregnancy
B Later forms corpus albicans
C Remains present throughout pregnancy
D Decreases in size during pregnancy
Question 10
Corpus luteum develops under the influence of
A Progesterone
B Estrogen
C FSH
D LH
Question 11
Corpus luteum disintegrates due to non-availability of
A LTH
B FSH
C Progesterone
D LH
Question
12
Corpus luteum produces
A Estrogen
B Testosterone
C Progesterone
D None of the above
Question 13
Corpus luteum secretes hormone
A Estrogen
B Progesterone
C FSH
D LH
Question
14
Correct sequence in development is
A Fertilization – Zygote – cleavage – Morula – Blastula - Gastrula
B Fertilization – Zygote – Blastula – Morula – Cleavage - Gastrula
C Fertilization – Cleavage – Morula – Zygote – Blastula – Gastrula
D Cleavage – Zygote – Fertilization – Morula – Blastula - Gastrula
Question 15
Correct sequence of hormone secretion from beginning of menstruation is
A FSH, progesterone, estrogen
B Estrogen, FSH, progesterone
C FSH, estrogen progesterone
D Estrogen, progesterone, FSH
Question 16
Cryptorchidism is a condition of tests
A Unable to descend in scrotal sacs
B Unale to produce sperms
C Having been surgically removed
D Having remained undeveloped
Question 17
Fertilizin is a chemical substance produced from
A Mature eggs
B Acrosome
C Polar bodies
D Middle piece of sperm
Question 18
Immediately after ovulation, the mammalian egg is covered by a membrane known as:
A Chorion
B Zona pellucida
C Corona radiata
D Vitelline membrane
Question 19
Loss of reproductive capacity in women after age of 45 years is
A Menstruation
B Ageing
C Menopause
D Menarche
Question
20
When released from ovary, human egg contains
A One Y chromosome
B Two X chromosomes
C One X chromosome
D XY chromosomes
1.A complicated process of growth and change converts the spermatid into a
Spermatogonia
Primary spermatocyte
Secondary spermatocyte
Function sperm
ANSWER : : Function sperm
2.Which are called sperm mother cells
Spermatids
Spermatogonia
Spermatocytes
Primordial germ cells
ANSWER : : Spermatogonia
3.Embryology is
The study of development of sex cells
The study of development of sex organs
The study of an individual from the fertilized egg
The study of development of plants
ANSWER : : The study of an individual from the fertilized egg
4.From a primary Oocyte
One egg is produced
Three eggs are produced
Four eggs are produced
Two eggs are produced
ANSWER : : One egg is produced
5.Each centriole in the mature sperm consists of
2 central and 9 peripheral fibrils
ANSWER : : 2 central and 9 peripheral fibrils
6.Sertoli cells are otherwise called

Plasma cells
Nurse cells
Germinal cells
Parietal cells
ANSWER : : Nurse cells
7.The cytoplasm surrounding the mitochondria found in the middle piece of the sperm is
called
Acrosome
Centrosome
Microsome
Manchette
ANSWER : : Manchette
8.The length of frog’s sperm ranges about
0.01 - 0.02 mm
0.01 - 0.03 mm
0.02 - 0.03 mm
0.03 - 0.04 mm
ANSWER : : 0.03 - 0.04 mm
9.At the end of spermatogenesis each primary spermatocyte gives rise to
Only one spermatid
Two spermatids
Three spermatids
Four spermatids
ANSWER : : Four spermatids
10.Testis is made up of sperm tubules called
Malpighian tubules
Uriniferous tubules
Seminiferous tubules
Collecting Seminiferous tubules
ANSWER : : Seminiferous tubules
.Gametogenesis is the formation of
Gonads
Ova
Sperms
Gametes
ANSWER : : Gametes
12.The size of the mature egg ranges from
1000 - 2000 µ
1500 - 2000 µ
2000 - 2500 µ
2000 - 3000 µ
ANSWER : : 2000 - 3000 µ
13.Name the special cells which provide nutrient materials to the matured spermatozoa in
the testis
Spermatogonia
Leydig’s cells
Interstitial cells
Sertoli cells
ANSWER : : Sertoli cells
14.The function of Sertoli cells is
To secrete hormones
To help in ejaculation
To develop sperms
To provide nutrition to developing spermatozoa in the testis
ANSWER : : To provide nutrition to developing spermatozoa in the testis
15.The acrosome is formed from
Nucleus
Golgi bodies
Centrosome
Mitochondria
ANSWER : : Golgi bodies
16.The term gametogenesis means the

Formation of ovary
Formation of testis
Formation of gametes
Formation of embryo
ANSWER : : Formation of gametes
17.Which one of the following undergo meiotic division
Spermatogonia
Primary spermatocytes
Spermatids
ANSWER : : Primary spermatocytes
18.First polar body is formed from
Oogonia
Primary oocyte
Secondary oocyte
ANSWER : : Primary oocyte
19.In Rana pipens, the period of growth in oogenesis takes about
One year
Two years
Three years
Four years
ANSWER : : Three years
20.Acrosome of sperm is formed by
Mitochondria
Centriole
Golgi bodies
Nucleus
ANSWER : : Golgi bodies
21.Spermatozoa get their nourishment from the
Nucleus
Cytoplasm
Sertoli cells
Ciliated Epithelium
ANSWER : : Sertoli cells
22.Which is unique in the oogenesis
Polar body formation
Meiotic division
Unequal cytoplasmic division
Mitotic division
ANSWER : : Polar body formation
23.How many ootids are formed in oogenesis
Only one
Two
Three
Four
ANSWER : : Only one
24.Which part of sperm secretes lysine
Nucleus
Acrosome
Middle piece
Tail
ANSWER : : Acrosome
25.Chromosomal reduction during gametogenesis occurs due to the
Meiosis
Mitosis
Non-disjunction
Amitosis
ANSWER : : Meiosis
26.The lysine secreted by the acrosome helps in the

Activation of sperm
Penetration of sperm
Clumping of sperm
Fertilization of sperm
ANSWER : : Penetration of sperm
27.Which of the following undergoes differentiation process
Spermatogonia
Primary spermatocyte
Secondary spermatocyte
Spermatids
ANSWER : : Spermatids
28.The unspecialized germ cells found in the seminiferous tubules are called
Primary spermatocytes
Secondary spermatocytes
Spermatogonia
ANSWER : : Primordial germ cells
29.The process of transformation of a spermatid into a spermatozoan is called as
Spermatogenesis
Gametogenesis
Spermiogenesis
Sperm maturation
ANSWER : : Spermiogenesis
Human Anatomy Questions and Answers –

Ovum & Spermatozoon
This set of Human Anatomy Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Ovum
& Spermatozoon”.
1. Hormone inhibin is secreted by ______

a) Theca cells
b) Zona pellucida
c) Granulosa cells
d) Corpus luteum
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hormone inhibin is secreted by Corpus luteum. It inhibits the production of FSG
by pituitary gland.
2. The follicle that ruptures at the time of ovulation promptly fills with blood forming is
_______
a) Corpus albicans
b) Corpus luteum
c) Corpus haemorrhagium
d) Corpus callosum
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Corpus haemorrhagium is a temporary structure formed by immediately after
ovulation from the ovarian follicle as it collapses and is filled with blood that quickly clots.
3. Cessation of menstrual cycle is called __________

a) Ovulation
b) Menopause
c) Parturition
d) Menarche
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Menopause is the natural decline in reproductive hormones when a woman reaches
40s or 50s. It is absence of menstrual cycle. It is a gradual process.
4. During oogenesis each diploid primary oocyte produces ____________

a) Four functional sperms
b) Four functional polar bodies
c) Two functional eggs and two polar bodies
d) One functional egg and three polar bodies
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Oogenesis occurs within embryo sac and leads to formation of single egg cell.
During oogenesis each diploid primary oocyte produces One functional egg and three polar
bodies.
5. Graafian follicle is maintained by ____________

a) FSH
b) Prolactin
c) Estrogen
d) Androgens
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: FSH stands for follicle stimulating hormone. It is synthesized by pituitary gland. It
controls menstrual cycle and production of eggs by the ovaries.
6. The lytic enzyme released by sperm is _____________

a) Hyaluronidase
b) Acrosome
c) Ligase
d) Androgamone
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hyaluronidase is a type of enzyme which catalyses degradation of hyaluronic acid.
It is released to help the sperm to penetrate into the ovum.
7. The cytoplasm surrounding the mitochondria found in the middle piece of sperm is _______
a) Manchette
b) Microsome
c) Acrosome
d) Centrosome
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Manchette is an array of microtubules that invests in the nucleus of a spermatid. It
is believed to play a role in shaping the nucleus during spermiogenesis.
8. Secondary spermatocytes are ____________

a) Diploids
b) Haploids
c) Tetraploids
d) Triploids
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main function of spermatocytes is to divide and produce spermatids. They
undergo meiosis to form haploid Secondary spermatocytes each receiving half set of DNA.
9. Acrosome of spermatozoa is formed by _____________
a) Ribosome
b) Mitochondria
c) Lysosomes
d) Golgi complex
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Acrosome contains digestive enzymes. They break down outer membrane of
ovum. Acrosome of spermatozoa is formed by Golgi complex.
10. Nebenkern is the part of ___________

a) Ovary
b) Sperm
c) Fetus
d) Testis
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Nebenkern is the mitochondrial formation in the sperm. The Nebenkern proceeds
to elongate into double stranded helical structure.
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11. Middle piece of sperm contains ______________

a) Mitochondria and Golgi body
b) Centriole and Golgi body
c) Mitochondria and axial filament
d) Axial filament and Golgi body
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The middle piece of sperm has a central filamentous core with many mitochondria
spiraled around. It is used for ATP production for the journey into female oviduct.
Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Series – Human Anatomy and Physiology.

Reproductive Health

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Explanation: Placenta found in human is c

The straight tubules in the testis lead into the:

The fuction of the epididymis is

Provide nutrition to sperm

This ligament arises from the pubic symphysis in males.

What is produced by the ovaries?

Primary oocytes, insulin and estrogen

Secondary oocytes, progesterone and cortisol

Tertiary oocytes, insulin and estrogen

Secondary oocytes, estrogen and progesterone

Primary oocytes, estrogen and testosterone

This is the site of fertilization.

Anterior to the vagina and urethral openings is the

Skene's glands secrete

FSH, anterior pituitary

LH, anterior pituitary

This hormone promotes spermatogenesis.

This is secreted by the corpus luteum after ovulation.

In this uterine phase, the endometrium becomes more vascular.

Internal spermatic fasica

What does "G" point to?

Where are the straight tubules?

This attaches the ovaries to the uterus.

This opens from the uterus to the vagina.

None of the above

None of the above

This will produce progesterone, estrogens, relaxin and inhibin.

None of the above

What is "D" pointing to?

None of the above

Multiple Choice Quiz

Reproductive Physiology Quiz, part 1

Use this scenario to answer questions 6-8.

The most likely diagnosis for Helga is __________.

Helga’s condition is described as _________.

Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) is primarily responsible for __________.

A conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone

Which of the following cells is INCORRECTLY matched to the secretion or product it

A granulosa cells - activin

A adrenal 11-hydroxylase deficiency

Which of the following processes IS NOT part of spermatogenesis?

Between ejaculations, sperm is primarily stored in the __________.

Completion of oogenesis results __________.

Which hormone, from the profiles above, is inhibited by inhibin?

A follicular phase - luteal phase

During gestation, androgens are produced by the __________.

A human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG)

1 The right age to begin sexuality education is:

None of the above

2 Contraceptive methods such as pills, injectables, implants and intrauterine

4 The Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) vaccine is an effective means of

All of the above

None of the above

Both are equally likely to agree

Pregnancy and childbirth complications

Self-Study Post-Test for

Section 1: Reproductive Health Issues of Young Adults

Section 2: How to Reach Young Adults

Section 3: Contraceptive Options for Young Adults

Section 4: STI/HIV Prevention and Treatment: Priority

33. A full STI management program involves:

34. The consequences of untreated STIs can include: