TLE (8) - Business Math

1) Find the profit of Weng's water refilling business

with revenue of ₱56,000,000 and costs of
₱42,000,000. 8) Closing entries are made:
a. ₱14,000,000 a. so that financial statements can be made
b. ₱140,000 b. in order to terminate the business as an
c. ₱1,400,000 operating entity
d. ₱14,000 c. in order to transfer net income/loss and owner's
2) Norma's food stall has costs of ₱2,900. Her total drawings to the owner's capital account
food sales are ₱11,600. What percent of her food d. so that all assets, liabilities, and owner's capital
sales do the food costs represent? accounts will have zero balances when the next
a. 20% accounting period starts
b. 25% 9) Suppliers who allow business to receive goods
c. 27% and services before paying for them are known as:
d. 30% a. Finance companies
3) Marvin needs 250 cookies for a buffet. He will b. Leasing companies
make oatmeal raisin, macaroons, and chocolate c. Trade companies
chunk cookies. He wants 25% of the cookies to be d. Trade debtors
oatmeal raisin and 15% of the cookies to be 10) Which of the following is an example of
macaroons. How many chocolate chunk cookies external finance?
must Marvin bake? a. Disposal by a business of surplus assets
a. 150 b. Bank loan
b. 125 c. Day to day cash from sales to customers
c. 140 d. Money loaned from trade suppliers through
d. 100 extended credit
4) If a shirt is marked down 25%, what will the 11) A shareholder sells his shares for more than he
purchase price be? paid for them. This is known as:
a. ₱25 a. Capital gain
b. 75% of its original price b. Profit on disposal
c. 50% off c. God deal
d. ₱75 d. Capital allowance
5) A customer places a special order through 480 12) The point at which the level of sales of a
Furniture Store. The list price in the manufacturer's business exactly equals its costs is known as the:
catalog is ₱1,600. 480 Furniture receives a 35% a. Break-even point
trade discount. What is the net price for the b. Insolvency point
furniture order? c. Start-up stage
a. ₱560 d. Profit point
b. ₱1,535 13) Working capital is:
c. ₱1,565 a. Current Assets-Current Liabilities
d. ₱1,040 b. Notes Payable
6) Ron's Manufacturing offers discounts on most of c. Current Liabilities
its products. What is the trade discount rate on an d. Accounts Payable
item with a list price of ₱16.79 and a net price of 14) Which of the following does not appear in a
?₱2.42? Balance Sheet?
a. 22% a. Cash
b. 26% b. Equipment
c. 54% c. Accounts Payable
d. 74% d. Depreciation Expense
7) What type of financial statement summarizes the 15) Adjusting entries are used to:
information concerning the cash inflows and a. close the books
outflows during a particular period? b. record accruals
a. Balance sheet c. correct errors
b. Statement cash flows d. all of the listed answers are correct
c. Income statement
d. Statement of retained earning 16) Net Income or Profit results from:
a. revenues exceeding expenses
b. assets exceeding liabilities
c. expenses exceeding revenues
d. liabilities exceeding assets
17) Assets are normally recorded at:
a. cost
b. appraised value
c. market value
d. management's estimated value
18) Which financial report measures results for a
period of time?
a. Balance Sheet
b. Income Statement
c. Trial Balance
d. All of the listed answers
19) Using the double entry system, every business
transaction _________.
a. affects two or more accounts
b. affects only asset accounts
c. affects only one account
d. affects only income statement
20) A debt incurred by buying goods or services
from a supplier on credit is called _________.
a. property
b. accounts payable
c. an expense
d. accounts receivable
ANSWERS:
1. A
2. B
3. A
4. B
5. D
6. B
7. B
8. C
9. C
10. B
11. A
12. A
13. A
14. D
15. D
16. A
17. A
18. B
19. A
20. B
LE (4) - Foods 9) What happens to carbohydrates that are not
1) Jonas has sautéed some meat in the pan. There used right away as energy?
are some brown bits left on the bottom of the pan. a. They are stored in the body as fat.
While the pan was still on the stove, he added b. They are stored in the body as amino acids.
some white wine and scarped the bottom of the c. They circulate through the bloodstream until they
pan. What do you call the techniques just used? are burned as fat.
a. Cleaning d. They are all used immediately as energy.
b. Deglazing 10) All of these are good sources of Vitamin C.
c. Caramelizing Which one has the most vitamin C?
d. Flambé a. 1 cup of sliced strawberries
2) Energy value is express in terms of calories b. 1 cup of chopped green chili peppers
which represents the chemical energy that c. 1 cup of orange sections
released as heat when food is oxidized. Which d. 1 cup of diced tomatoes
nutrient has more than twice the calorie per gram? 11) Saturated fats raise the cholesterol level in our
a. Carbohydrates bloodstream. Saturated fats can be found in?
b. Protein a. Olives
c. Fat b. Beans
d. Minerals c. Movie theater popcorn
3) Food furnishes the body with the different d. Fish
nutrients it needs. Which of the following nutrients 12) Water boils at 212 degrees. What does "rolling
is needed as the main structural component of the boil" means? The bubbles are:
body? a. rolling non-stop
a. Carbohydrates b. forming rapidly and cannot be stopped when
b. Protein stirred
c. Fat c. forming slowly and can be stopped when stirred
d. Fiber d. spilling out of a container
4) Frostings are products that are closely 13) Which of the following ingredients will use
associated with sugar. What kind of sugar is used creaming method?
primarily in the preparation of flat icings with butter a. butter, flour and egg
cream? b. flour, butter and egg
a. brown sugar c. butter, egg and sugar
b. refined sugar d. flour butter and sugar
c. granulated sugar 14) Onions when peeled or cut irritate the eyes and
d. confectioner sugar give biting sensations on the tongue. This is due to
5) Meats are considered rich in proteins. What kind the presence of:
of protein is found in connective tissue of meat that a. sulfoxide
converts to gelatin when it is cooked? b. sulfur compounds
a. Elastic c. sodium nitrate
b. Gluten d. mustard oil
c. Marbling 15) The practice of adding baking soda when
d. Collagen cooking vegetables for the purpose of retaining the
6) Which of these nutrients is an anti-oxidant? green color and the crispness should be avoided
a. Vitamin E primarily because:
b. Calcium a. the flavor of the vegetable is modified
c. Fiber b. vitamin C is destroyed in the presence of alkali
d. Vitamin B12 c. they become less palatable
7) Which cooking method destroys nutrients? d. they become hard to digest
a. Boiling 16) To minimize meat shrinkage and retain much
b. Roasting of its nutritive value, the best cooking temperature
c. Slow cooking is?
d. All of the above a. moist heat
8) Which food is the "best source of thiamine?" b. low to moderate heat
a. Pork c. high heat
b. Milk d. dry heat
c. Carrots 17) What does "proofing" mean?
d. Potatoes a. Weighing the dough to make sure loaves are the
same size. 25) A student is preparing chicken macaroni salad
b. Letting the yeast grow to produce carbon as an appetizer dish. What will the student do for
dioxide. the cooked chicken?
c. Testing cakes for doneness. a. chop
d. Brushing risen loaves before baking with egg b. mince
whites for a shiny glazed finish. c. flake
18) Why should eggs be beaten with the use of d. grate
copper bowl? Copper bowl ________. 26) Food is more appetizing to the eye if small
a. is special metal that makes egg fresher portions of colorful food such as celery, parsley
b. makes egg fluffy and moist and tomatoes are added to a dish to improve its
c. keeps eggs fresh and firm appearance. Which of the term applied to the
d. has special property which stabilizes the eggs statement?
19) What do you call that pourable mixture of flour, a. glace
liquid and other ingredients? b. garnish
a. Dough c. frosting
b. Batter d. decoration
c. Cream 27) What vegetable cut is appropriate for potato in
d. Syrup preparing menudo?
20) Which flour typically forms the most gluten? a. slice
a. cake flour b. mince
b. all purpose flour c. julienne
c. bread flour d. cubes
d. pastry flour 28) Which is a thickening agent made by the
21) Diana is cooking eggs for breakfast. She combination of 1 part melted butter and 1 part flour,
breaks the eggs one at a time into a dish and slide cooked together?
them into a hot water for about 3 to 5 minutes or a. Roux
unitl the whites are coagulated and yolks are still b. Roe
soft. What procedure in cooking eggs does she c. Raw
apply? d. Row
a. Boiling 29) The food is prepared by skewing the meat,
b. Poaching seasoned and brushed with oil, placed on greased
c. Simmering grid and cooked over live coals. Which is referred
d. Blanching to?
22) Every chef knows that "mise enplace" is the a. Broil
first step to a successful food preparation. This b. Bake
French term which means putting everything in c. Barbeque
place applies to ________. d. Pan fry
a. throwing the garbage 30) Which term applies when eggs and cream are
b. sautéing the spices beaten rapidly until thick and stiff with a whisk to
c. creaming the butter incorporate air and increase volume?
d. pre-heating the oven a. Creaming
23) Mixed vegetables are best when cooked very b. Whipping
briefly by dipping the food into a boiling water until c. Blending
they are crisp-tender and then into cold water. This d. Stirring
practice is called ________. 31) To soak the meat or fish in a mixture of oil,
a. Blanching vinegar and wine to add flavor and make it tender
b. Baking is to ________ it.
c. Sautéing a. marinade
d. Steaming b. season
24) Pasta is cooked in boiling water with salt and c. dip
oil for about 12 to 15 minutes or until "al dente." Al d. marinate
dente is an Italian term which means ________. 32) Working the dough by stretching and folding in
a. firm yet tender to the bite a floured surface to obtain the required consistency
b. soft and soggy is ________.
c. pleasant flavor a. Beating
d. crisp texture b. Kneading
c. Punching a. Apple
d. Folding b. Strawberry
33) Which of the following term may apply in c. Carrots
cutting vegetables into thin match sticks size which d. Tomatoes
are used to garnished dishes? 42) Which is NOT a function of fat?
a. Mirepoix a. Enhance flavor and palatability of food
b. Macedoine b. Carrier of fat-soluble vitamins
c. Brunoise c. Protect the heart and kidneys
d. Julienne d. Repair body tissues
34) A 50g serving size of chiffon cake contains 3g 43) The following vegetables are good sources of
fat, 22g carbohydrates and 3g protein. How many carotene, EXCEPT:
kcal are in a serving size of chiffon cake? a. Mangoes
a. 117 kcal b. Carrots
b. 127 kcal c. Legumes
c. 137 kcal d. Tomatoes
d. 147 kcal 44) Which is NOT a group from the Food Guide
35) Fat-soluble vitamins can easily be dissolved in Pyramid?
fat. The following are examples of fat soluble a. water, milk, yogurt
vitamins, EXCEPT: b. food additives
a. Vitamin D c. chicken, pork, egg
b. Vitamin K d. rice, corn, pasta
c. Vitamin E 45) Which statement regarding vitamins is most
d. Vitamin C accurate?
36) The food pyramid illustrates the balance of a. Inorganic substances needed in the body
foods needed for a healthy lifestyle. Fat, sugar, salt b. Cannot be destroyed by heat, light or oxygen
and alcohol are group under what classification? c. Regulate physiological processes
a. Eat Least Food d. Control composition of body fluids
b. Eat Moderately Foods 46) Estimate the kilocalorie value of a 25g biscuit
c. Eat All Foods with 16g total carbohydrates.
d. Eat Most Foods a. 54 kcal
37) The following are physiological functions of b. 64 kcal
food, EXCEPT: c. 74 kcal
a. give energy d. 84 kcal
b. build and repair cells 47) Which antioxidant vitamin helps to absorb iron?
c. provide satisfaction a. Vitamin C
d. regulate body process b. Vitamin A
38) CHON is the chemical formula for ________. c. Vitamin D
a. carbohydrates d. Vitamin E
b. protein 48) Which is not a function of water?
c. fat a. Regulate body processes
d. minerals b. Carrier of waste products
39) What vitamin deficiency is present when a c. Provides energy
person suffers from poor night vision or blindness? d. Regulates body temperature
a. Retinol 49) What do you call the sugar in milk or milk
b. Thiamine carbohydrate?
c. Niacin a. Fructose
d. Folic acid b. Lactose
40) What disease would result to a person who has c. Glucose
an iron deficiency? d. Sucrose
a. Cough and cold 50) The loss of riboflavin in milk can be prevented
b. Nose bleed if milk is ________.
c. Anemia a. heated to a boiling point
d. Xeropthalmia b. pasteurized before packing
41) Which of the following fruit and vegetables c. kept cold and protected from light
have higher water percentage composition? d. fermented and sealed
51) Eliza wants to celebrate her birthday in a a. slaughtering
restaurant. She ordered food from appetizer to b. defeathering
dessert at P300.00 per cover, good for 60 pax and c. evisceration
she paid a total amount of P18,000. What type of d. scalding
menu did she avail of? 59) The students are preparing food for their
a. Table d'hote culminating activity. They are expected to invite
b. Cycle menu 100 guests. What type of service is more
c. Ala carte convenient for 100 guests with limited space and
d. Static menu food servers?
52) A TLE teacher plans to prepare Chicken a. Counter service
Galantina for her food and nutrition class. What b. Russian service
cooking method is applied for this chicken dish? c. Buffet service
a. Broiling d. French service
b. Roasting 60) Jessa plans to cook Bopiz for her catering
c. Frying function. Which part of pork cuts would she buy?
d. Steaming a. Leg
53) Sauce is a richly flavored thickened liquid, used b. Loin
to complement a meal. What leading sauce is used c. Picnic
in making Carbonara? d. Variety
a. Veloute sauce 61) What is the function of eggs in mayonnaise
b. Brown sauce preparation?
c. Bechamel sauce a. Emulsifying agent
d. Tomato sauce b. Thickening agent
54) Vegetables have different degrees of c. Browning agent
doneness. It is done when it has reached the d. Leavening agent
desired degree of tenderness. The following are 62) Why do we buy food from approved sources?
the guidelines to achieve proper doneness in a. cheaper price
vegetables, EXCEPT: b. guarantee safe and wholesome food
a. cook vegetables close to serving time c. good customer service
b. cut vegetables into uniform pieces d. accessibility and comfort
c. separate tough part from tender part
d. cook different kinds of vegetables together 63) Which of the following reasons for cooking
meat is FALSE?
55) Eggs serve many important functions in a. improve flavor and appearance
cookery. What is the function of eggs when it is b. tenderize meat
used to bind food together? c. unavailability of nutrients
a. as a leavening agent d. destroy harmful microorganisms
b. as a thickening agent
c. as a clarifying agent 64) Which of the following is NOT a moist-heat
d. as an emulsifying agent method of cooking?
a. Scalding
56) In an American service, all drinks should be b. Stewing
served ________ of the guest. c. Baking
a. at the right side d. Steaming
b. at the left side
c. across 65) One sachet of powdered juice contains 60g
d. in front orange flavor. How many liters of water should be
added if the proportion is 1g powder, 20 mL water?
57) Mother wants to prepare Callos and Goto for a. 3.5 L
father's birthday party. Which variety of meat could b. 2.3 L
you suggest for these recipes? c. 2.0 L
a. Tongue d. 1.2 L
b. Tripe
c. Heart 66) How many ounces is 1 cup of soda?
d. Liver a. 6 ounces
b. 8 ounces
58) The teacher demonstrated to the students the c. 12 ounces
proper way of slitting the abdominal part of the d. 16 ounces
poultry and pulling out the entrails. This step in
dressing chicken is referred to as ________.
67) Which of the statement about the general meals is ________.
direction for Low-Cholesterol diets is FALSE? a. market list
a. use of corn oil b. menu planning
b. avoid coconut milk c. mis en place card
c. use of margarine d. standardized recipe
d. trim all visible fats from meat 77) When guests enter into a restaurant the first
68) What is the menu pattern for breakfast? thing that a receptionist should offer is ________.
a. fruits, protein dish, cereal, beverage a. water
b. appetizer, protein dish, pasta, dessert b. appetizer
c. cereal, protein dish, beverage c. bread and butter
d. soup, vegetable dish, dessert d. menu card
69) Which is considered as the most important 78) Which of the following is the CORRECT menu
meal of the day? sequence?
a. Supper a. main dish, appetizers, cereals, beverages,
b. Lunch desserts
c. Breakfast b. appetizers, main dish, cereals, beverages,
d. Brunch desserts
70) The main course or courses of dinner c. cereals, main dish, appetizers, beverages,
consisting usually of meat, fish or pulses with or desserts
without accompaniments is called ________. d. desserts, main dish, cereals, appetizers,
a. entrée beverages
b. espagnole 79) Which of the following statement about service
c. emincer rule is FALSE?
d. entremets a. Serve women before men
71) The main goal in meal planning, food b. Serve food from the left side of the guest with
preparation and service is _________. service person's left hand
a. present low cost foods c. Scrape and stack dirty plates on guest table
b. serve appetizing meals d. Bring all food to the guest at the same time
c. satisfaction of family members 80) Which of the following is an example of a low
d. keep meals nutritionally adequate cost dish?
72) Which food group is a good source of fiber? a. Pork adobo
a. milk, yogurt, cheese b. Chicken kare-kare
b. meat, poultry, eggs c. Baked mussels
c. bread, rice, pasta d. Seafood sinigang
d. banana, apples, oranges 81) When the recipe calls for steaming fish and a
73) Which of the following is NOT a principle in steamer is not available, what will you do?
planning meals? a. Place the fish wrap in banana leaf and cook in a
a. Plan meals ahead of time. tightly covered frying pan containing water.
b. Plan meals that have interesting variety. b. Place the fish in a frying pan and cover with
c. Plan meals that are rich in essential nutrients. coconut milk.
d. Plan meals that are expensive and entail more c. Place the fish in a casserole lined with barbecue
time to prepare. stick and apply heat.
d. Place the fish in a frying pan, add water and
74) Which of the following has the biggest expense cook.
in the food budget?
a. Meat 82) Baking chiffon cake requires a baking
b. Fruits temperature of 350 degrees Fahrenheit. What is its
c. Cereals equivalent in Centigrade if your oven thermostat
d. Dairy was set in degree Celsius?
a. 176 degree Celsius
75) Which is a low cost but nutritious dish? b. 186 degree Celsius
a. Grilled fish c. 196 degree Celsius
b. Beef with broccoli d. 206 degree Celsius
c. Ginataang monggo with dilis
d. Chicken lollipop with tartar sauce 83) Olivia bakes cheese bread, forming a fairly
firm, porous structure. What gives structure to the
76) One of the functions required before cheese bread?
assembling the food materials to produce quality a. Albumen
b. Gluten 92) Which phrase describes a good characteristic
c. Whey of pastry?
d. Casein a. wet and brown
84) What will you do to the shortening if you want b. tender and flaky
to make quick breads using the biscuit method? c. dry and hard
a. Melt the shortening d. sweet and mushy
b. Cream the shortening 93) The following are some safety risks in baking,
c. Fold in the shortening EXCEPT:
d. Cut in the shortening a. hot oven
85) The students are cutting apples for their apple b. moving parts
pie filling. They noticed that browning occurs at the c. sufficient light
cut surfaces of apples. What process may have d. cutting equipment
caused the browning color of an apple? 94) Which icing is made from shortening, sugar
a. Reaction between protein, amino acids and syrup and eggs?
sugar a. boiled icing
b. Oxidative enzymatic changes b. royal icing
c. Carmelization of sugar c. buttercream icing
d. Over handling d. fondant icing
86) Which is NOT a function of salt in food? 95) When the pastry shell is baked before it can be
a. flavor enhancer filled, this is called ________.
b. preservative a. molding
c. increase volume b. blind baking
d. control agent c. proofing
87) Which statement about conventional method of d. resting
mixing is FALSE? 96) Which of the following does NOT belong to the
a. time consuming group?
b. produce velvety texture a. Muffin
c. one-bowl method b. Popover
d. alternate addition of dry and liquid ingredients c. Waffle
88) Which ingredient controls and regulates the d. Pie
fermentation in bread making? 97) Which living organism feeds in sugar to
a. Yeast produce alcohol and carbon dioxide?
b. Salt a. Yeast
c. Baking powder b. Bacteria
d. Sugar c. Fungi
89) A blunt knife with an extremely flexible steel d. Mold
blade primary used for mixing colors in cake 98) What disease-causing microorganism is
designing is ________ knife. commonly found in eggs?
a. cake a. Escherichia coli
b. serrated b. Salmonella
c. chef c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. palette d. Shigella
90) Which is usually done with a fork to make small ANSWERS:
holes in bottoms and side of crust for single crust 1. B
pies? 2. C
a. Docking 3. B
b. Punching 4. D
c. Cutting 5. D
d. Fluting 6. A
91) Which is known as strong flour because it 7. D
contains 12-14% protein? 8. A
a. All purpose flour 9. A
b. Cake flour 10. B
c. Pastry flour 11. C
d. Bread flour 12. B
13. C
14. B 73. D
15. B 74. A
16. A 75. C
17. B 76. B
18. D 77. D
19. B 78. B
20. C 79. C
21. B 80. C
22. D 81. A
23. A 82. A
24. A 83. B
25. C 84. D
26. B 85. B
27. D 86. C
28. A 87. C
29. C 88. B
30. B 89. D
31. D 90. A
32. B 91. D
33. D 92. B
34. B 93. C
35. D 94. C
36. A 95. B
37. C 96. D
38. B 97. A
39. A 98. B
40. C
41. D
42. D
43. C
44. B
45. C
46. B
47. As
48. C
49. B
50. C
51. A
52. D
53. C
54. D
55. B
56. A
57. B
58. C
59. C
60. D
61. A
62. B
63. C
64. C
65. D
66. B
67. C
68. A
69. C
70. A
71. D
72. C

TLE (7) - Entrepreneurship
1) In the entrepreneurial world, new ideas and
opportunities are evolving. What is the ability
to create new things, invest in new enterprises
and expand business?
a. Creativity
b. Entrepreneurship
c. Manufacturing
d. Producing
2) Alvin has transferred to a new locality. He
observed that there is an opportunity for him
to put up his own business since he has
enough capital and very much interested to
the idea. Which of these factors must he
possess so that he will not rely on the services
of the employees?
a. Markets
b. Manpower
c. Supply of resources
d. Knowledge/Skills
3) Management functions and principles play
a very critical role in running a business. What
principle of planning specifies that the
objectives of an entrepreneur should match
the needs of the society?
a. must be realistic
b. must be based on felt needs
c. must focus on dealing with a crisis
d. must start with a simple project
4) Entrepreneurs use various management
tools to succeed in a business. What
management tool is used to analyze business
opportunities?
a. Environmental scanning
b. Market study
c. Market survey
d. SWOT
5) When an entrepreneur communicates with
people through interviews, observations and
advertisement on what is new, what
entrepreneurial activity does he/she engage?
a. Statistical study
b. Marketing study
c. Entrepreneurial scanning
d. Environmental scanning
6) There are P's in preparing market research.
Which P in marketing is designed to
communicate the product to customers?
a. Place
b. Price
c. People
d. Promotion
7) The site of the business enterprise is one of
the requirements of entrepreneurship. Which
of the following is the most important in
choosing the best location for the business?
a. access to supplies and raw materials
b. clean, decent and peaceful environment
c. less competitors in the area
d. enough capital to pay space rental
8) Which term refers to people, institutions or
organizations for whom the business is
designed?
a. sample
b. population
c. market
d. society
9) Which one is not included in planning a
business?
a. how and when to do it
b. how to increase profits
c. what to expect in the future
d. what to do
10) What is the benefit of business planning
wherein the entrepreneur determines whether
the business is profitable or not?
a. minimize cost production
b. detect the weakness of the business
c. eliminate business risk
d. estimate sales
11) What is thinking ahead of objectives,
strategies, financing, production, marketing,
profit proposal and growth facilities?
a. forecasting
b. managing
c. planning
d. projecting
12) Business enterprises should operate in a
dynamic environment in order to survive.
What kind of environment includes
technological, social and ethical/political
factors?
a. Macro environment
b. Micro environment
c. Technological environment
d. Social environment
13) Mr. Silva purchased a right to operate an
already established business, what type of
retail ownership is it?
a. Corporate 21) Which of the following is the correct
b. Franchise definition of the term "entrepreneur"? A
c. Independent person who ________.
d. Single-store-ownership a. pursues opportunity without regard to
14) Who among the following is the principal resources
actor of the production? b. starts a new business with the aim of
a. Entrepreneur making a profit
b. Customer c. seeks to create value for local communities,
c. Production manager people or customer by starting new ventures
d. Worker which exploit new products, processes or
markets.
15) These are the perishable tangible used in d. seeks to generate value through creation or
the production process. expansion of economic activity, by identifying
a. Financial resources and exploiting new products, processes or
b. Human resources markets
c. Information resources
d. Material resources 22) Which of the following skills are NOT
needed by an entrepreneur?
16) Which method of establishing a business a. Technical skills
starts from scratch? b. Personal entrepreneurial skills
a. buy-out c. Working skills
b. franchising d. Business management skills
c. loan
d. start-up 23) Which of the following statement is
INAPPROPRIATE in starting a business?
17) What brief description of the market a. Study the concepts and principles of
describes the buyers and users of the product entrepreneurial skills.
and the area of dispersion? b. Cope with failures of the business.
a. market analysis c. Undergo training on entrepreneurial skills.
b. market dispersion d. Know what characteristics are needed to
c. marketing become an entrepreneur.
d. market study
24) Which of the following is NOT a source of
18) It is a type of organization wherein a fund for Mr. Fajardo's future business?
superior delegates authority to a subordinate. a. Seek assistance from Central Bank of the
a. committee type Philippines.
b. functional type b. Borrow money from friends and relatives.
c. line type c. Avail of the government program on
d. line and staff type financing micro-macro business.
19) Which is one disadvantage of a functional d. Use part of her retirement benefit.
type of organization? 25) If her business idea is a boutique, what
a. Morale is likely to be low when discipline is quality of a future entrepreneur is
weak. INAPPROPRIATE?
b. Each manager is supreme in his own field. a. Relaxed
c. It is difficult to secure executives and b. Hard worker
superiors with an all around knowledge. c. Risk taker
d. There is greater flexibility. d. Innovative
20) What type of product, as designed, 26) Which of the following is NOT a
produced and marketed by the seller? characteristic of an entrepreneur?
a. Licensed brand a. Coping with failure
b. National brand b. Irritated
c. Private label brand c. Opportunity seeker
d. Trademark d. Persistent
27) Which among these characteristics of an 34) From a social viewpoint, which of the
entrepreneur is UNDESIRABLE? following statements about marketing
a. Opportunity seeker objective is NOT true?
b. Goal setter a. Assist in the efficient allocation of
c. Futuristic resources.
d. Impassive b. Create wealth and promote economic
28) Which of the following is a primary cause growth.
of failure in small business? c. Improve income distribution among different
a. Poor financial control sectors of the economy.
b. Poor location d. Maintain instability of supply and demand
c. Management mistakes for marketed goods.
d. Improper inventory control 35) Which is considered a vehicle for
29) Which of these traits gets an entrepreneur informing target market about the enterprise
off of his feet and puts him into action, turning and the products or services?
daydream into reality? a. Product
a. Perseverance b. Price
b. Ambition c. Place
c. Creativity d. Promotion
d. Enthusiasm 36) At what stage of marketing effort does an
30) Which entrepreneurial trait gives an entrepreneur concentrate on targeting a new
entrepreneur a positive outlook in life which market of buyers and taking market share
gives the energy to pursue his endeavors? from competitors by price cutting or
a. Perseverance relaunching the product?
b. Ambition a. Introduction
c. Creativity b. Growth
d. Enthusiasm c. Maturity
d. Decline
31) Which trait is an entrepreneur able to
withstand the troubles that come with a 37) Which of the following is NOT appropriate
starting business? in running a small-scale business?
a. Perseverance a. Keeping clear records
b. Ambition b. Verifying profit and loss
c. Creativity c. Managing cash flow
d. Enthusiasm d. Distribution channel
32) What is the general function of marketing, 38) Which marketing channel operates with
involves the physical meeting point for buyers capital owned directly by the operators and
and sellers at the point of production or via their partners, or in some cases by
some other means of communication? shareholders?
a. Specific functions a. Cooperatives
b. Exchange functions b. Independent, locally based private
c. Physical functions enterprise
d. Facilitating functions c. Marketing boards and other state
enterprises
33) Which type of marketing functions, d. Transnational companies
enables the actual flow of commodities
through space and time from producer to 39) At which stage of a product life cycle must
consumer and their transformation to a form an entrepreneur decide whether he wants to
desirable function to the consumers? try to rejuvenate the product by investing in
a. Specific functions development and aggressive marketing or to
b. Exchange functions quietly admit defeat and exit the market?
c. Physical functions a. Introduction
d. Facilitating functions b. Growth
c. Maturity 45) Which of these stages is the final stage in
d. Decline the marketing planning process flow chart?
40) A marketing mix that can have both a. Control
tangible and intangible aspects and is the b. Marketing planning mix
thing you offer to satisfy your customers' c. Setting marketing objectives
wants and needs is ________. d. Setting the product price
a. Product 46) An entrepreneur might select a target
b. Packaging market probably because the target market
c. Price ________.
d. Promotion a. is attractive to the business and matches its
41) Which is considered to be the best way to supply capabilities
assess entrepreneurial projects or business b. is large and well-served with existing
ventures? products
a. Environmental analysis c. is fully understood by the entrepreneur
b. SWOT analysis d. has a proven track record for buying
c. Competitor analysis product
d. PEST analysis 47) A carefully thought structured formal
42) An analysis that provides the details for commercial report that is extraordinary well
opportunities and threats of a business to documented and clearly written to safeguard
make better decisions regarding marketing any wastage of further investment project is
plan is termed ________. called ________.
a. Environmental analysis a. Portfolio
b. SWOT analysis b. Business plan
c. Competitor analysis c. Resume
d. PEST analysis d. Feasibility study
43) The acronym SWOT stands for: 48) Which is considered as a comprehensive
a. Strengths-Weaknesses-Options-Testing and effective blueprint to guide an
b. Strengths-Weaknesses-Opportunities- entrepreneur in a business venture?
Testing a. Resume
c. Strengths-Weaknesses-Options-Threats b. Portfolio
d. Strengths-Weaknesses-Opportunities- c. Business plan
Threats d. Insurance plan
44) Which question is asked at the first stage
in the marketing planning process of an
enterprise? ANSWERS:
a. Where are we now?
b. Where are we heading? 1. B
c. Are we on course? 2. D
d. Where would we like to be?
3. B
4. D
5. B
6. D
7. A
8. C
9. B
10. C
11. C
12. A
13. B
14. C
15. D
16. D
17. D
18. C
19. A
20. C
21. C
22. C
23. B
24. A
25. A
26. B
27. D
28. B
29. B
30. D
31. A
32. B
33. C
34. D
35. C
36. C
37. C
38. B
39. D
40. A
41. B
42. D
43. D
44. A
45. A
46. A
47. D
48. C
TLE (5) - Carpentry and Masonry a. ruler
1) The preparation of good quality lumber b. caliper
includes several stages. When it is dried, the c. pull-push rule
process involved is? d. meter stick
a. seasoning 8) Fastening materials are important in
b. staining woodworks. The most common of these
c. lumbering materials is ________.
d. logging a. dowel
2) The smallest division of the metric scale b. bolts
that you can find in the steel rule is ________. c. screw
a. decimeter d. nails
b. centimeter 9) A wood product made of three or more
c. millimeter veneer slice that are laid one upon the other
d. meter and bonded with glue or synthetic resin is
3) What is the conversion equivalent of one ________.
inch to centimeters? a. Pressed wood
a. 25.4 b. Plywood
b. 2.54 c. Particle board
c. 0.254 d. Soft wood
d. 0.0254 10) Which of the following tools is used in
4) Find the total number of board feet of six checking the squareness of the corners and
pieces of lumber with a dimension of 2" x 4" x flatness of a surface?
12'. a. Straightedge
a. 8 bd. ft. b. Steel square
b. 96 bd. ft. c. Sliding T-bevel
c. 48 bd. ft. d. Try square
d. 480 bd. ft. 11) The strongest form of wood joint
5) A seasoned lumber is ideal for carpentry applicable for table legs is ________.
works. Which among the following is best to a. miter
use? b. mortise and tenon
a. Sun dried c. dado
b. Kiln dried d. butt and lap
c. Air dried 12) You are almost finished with your project.
d. Natural dried One of the procedure below is done before
6) There are numerous kinds of saw. When the application of finishing materials.
sawing along the grain of wood, you need a a. cutting
________. b. spraying
a. back saw c. sanding
b. cross cut saw d. varnishing
c. rip saw 13) A surfaced lumber where four of its sides
d. circular saw are smooth or planed is called:
7) In measuring cylindrical object, what is the a. S3S
appropriate tool to be used? b. S2S
c. Rough c. Fishing
d. S4S d. Jointing
14) In carpentry, splicing or joining of wood 15) There is considerable number of wood
using two side blocks is called: joints. The simplest and easiest to make is
a. Lapping ________.
b. Scarfing a. Lap joint
b. Dado joint
c. Miter joint 23) Which wood is obtained from deciduous
d. Butt joint trees?
16) In a wooden floor system, the major a. Hard wood
horizontal support member upon which the b. Soft wood
floor system is laid is the ________. c. Dark wood
a. Floor joist d. Brown wood
b. Sill 24) Which is a binding agent that reacts with
c. Header water to form a hard stone-like substance?
d. Girder a. Glue
17) A type of roof frame consisting series of b. Cement
triangles used to distribute loads and stiffen c. Mortar
the structure of the roof is ________. d. Grout
a. Girts 25) Which term refers to inert materials when
b. Rafter bound together into a conglomerated mass
c. Truss from concrete?
d. Purlins a. Aggregates
18) A triangular file is used to sharpen a saw. b. Gravel
What is the angle of the file set against the c. Cement
bevel of the tooth of a cross cut saw? d. Water
a. 30 degrees 26) A lumber that has been sawed, edged,
b. 45 degrees and trimmed in which cutting marks are visible
c. 90 degrees is ________.
d. 60 degrees a. rough
19) What kind of wood finishing material is b. smooth
used when you want a solid color instead of a c. dressed
wood pattern finish? d. worked
a. Opaque finishes 27) Which lumber has been put through
b. Bleaches planing machine which gives fine surface?
c. Stains a. rough
d. Lacquers b. smooth
20) A saw angle should be adjusted c. dressed
depending on the kind of wood. What is the d. worked
recommended angle for soft and thin wood? 28) Which lumber that has been dresses and
a. 30-45 degrees matched, ship lapped, or patterned?
b. 60 degrees a. rough
c. 80 degrees b. smooth
d. 20 degrees c. dressed
21) Which is considered to be the oldest and d. worked
most commonly used building material? 29) Which is a plank of wood that has been
a. Cement roughly cut?
b. Wood a. Timber
c. Steel b. Board
d. Sand c. Lumber
22) A wood which is obtained from conifers d. Block
and are used for framing? 30) Which lumber has been cut from logs
a. Hard wood radially to the growth rings and the fiber runs
b. Soft wood about parallel to the face?
c. Dark wood a. Edge-grain
d. Brown wood b. Angle-grain
c. Flat-grain
d. Close-grain
31) Which lumber has been cut tangentially to 39) In the construction site, what protects the
the growth rings and the fiber runs about 90 carpenter from falling?
degrees to the face? a. Hat
a. Edge-grain b. Belt and harness
b. Angle-grain c. Helmet
c. Flat-grain d. Shed
d. Close-grain 40) These are compress baked clay that are
32) Which is the art of building with stone, processed into workable materials?
bricks, concrete blocks of other similar a. Stone
materials? b. Sand
a. Carpentry c. Bricks
b. Concrete d. CHB
c. Mortar 41) Which lumber has wood fibers that are
d. Masonry packed closely together?
33) If you want to go upstairs, which part do a. Edge-grain
you hold on to? b. Angle-grain
a. Handrail c. Flat-grain
b. Tread d. Close-grain
c. Handle 42) Which lumber has wood fiber that do not
d. Riser run parallel to the board?
34) If you want to upstairs, which part do you a. Edge-grain
step on? b. Cross-grain
a. Handrail c. Flat-grain
b. Tread d. Close-grain
c. Handle 43) A carpenter makes a picture frame. Which
d. Riser type of joint is appropriate?
35) What makes the door swing when you a. Dado joint
close and open it? b. Tenon joint
a. Door knob c. Lap joint
b. Door lock d. Miter joint
c. Door shutter 44) A carpenter fixes shelves of a bookcase.
d. Door hinge Which type of joint is appropriate?
36) A carpenter wants to construct a stair, a. Dado joint
what could be the standard height of the riser? b. Mortise and Tenon joint
a. 5-6 inches c. Lap joint
b. 6-8 inches d. Miter joint
c. 8-10 inches 45) In which wood joint is the end of one
d. 10-12 inches member inserted to hole of the other
37) In masonry works, it is necessary to wear member?
protective equipment, EXCEPT: a. Dado joint
a. mask b. Mortise and Tenon joint
b. goggles c. Lap joint
c. gloves d. Miter joint
d. ear muffs 46) Which wood joint describes the technique
38) In the construction site, what protects the for joining two pieces by putting one side over
carpenter from falling objects? the other?
a. Hat a. Dado joint
b. Belt and harness b. Butt joint
c. Helmet c. Lap joint
d. Shed d. Miter joint
47) Which wood joint describes the technique 55) If you have 2 ft length of a piece of wood,
for joining two pieces by putting one end over how long is it in inches?
the other? a. 25
a. Dado joint b. 12
b. Butt joint c. 22
c. Lap joint d. 24
d. Miter joint 56) If you have 2 yards length of a piece of
48) A carpenter wants to make a dining table. wood, how long is it in inches?
Which joint is appropriate to become rigid and a. 82
durable? b. 72
a. Miter joint c. 84
b. Mortise and Tenon joint d. 64
c. Dado joint 57) 10 yards length of wood is how many
d. Butt joint feet?
49) Which is the simplest type of wood joint? a. 36
a. Dado joint b. 35
b. Butt joint c. 30
c. Lap joint d. 24
d. Miter joint 58) One decameter of G.I. sheets is how
50) Which wood joint describes the technique many centimeters?
for joining two pieces by cutting of 45 degrees a. 10
angle? b. 20
a. Rabbet joint c. 100
b. Butt joint d. 1,000
c. Lap joint 59) A 2" x 3" x 12' lumber is how many board
d. Miter joint feet?
51) Which wood joint protects the room a. 2
occupants from seeing outside? b. 6
a. Rabbet joint c. 8
b. Butt joint d. 10
c. Bridle joint 60) 5 pcs. of a 1" x 1' x 8' lumber is how many
d. Miter joint board feet?
52) Which wood joint is used to support the a. 30
middle of a bench? b. 35
a. Dado joint c. 40
b. Butt joint d. 45
c. Bridle joint 61) 50 millimeters length of a piece of lumber
d. Miter joint is how many decimeter?
53) Which unit is the basic linear unit of an a. 5
English system? b. 0.05
a. foot c. 0.005
b. meter d. 0.5
c. yard 62) How tall is a 10 meter building in inches?
d. inch a. 3.937
54) Which unit is the basic linear unit of a b. 39.37
Metric system? c. 393.7
a. foot d. 3,937
b. meter 63) A carpenter wants to measure long
c. yard distances. Which tool is appropriate?
d. inch a. Ruler
b. Extension rule c. Cold chisel
c. Meter stick d. Brick trowel
d. Pull-push rule 72) A mason wants to mix and move mortar in
64) A carpenter wants to mark very rough brick laying. Which tool is appropriate?
objects. Which tool is appropriate? a. Pointing trowel
a. Chalk line b. Crandall
b. Extension rule c. Cold chisel
c. Level d. Brick trowel
d. Border line 73) A mason wants to mix concrete. Which
65) A carpenter wants to obtain vertical line. tool is appropriate?
Which tool is appropriate? a. Shovel
a. Ruler b. Buttering
b. Level c. Trowel
c. Plum bob d. Float
d. Pull-push rule 74) A mason lays bricks. Which tool is
66) A carpenter wants to cut lumber across appropriate?
the grain. Which tool is appropriate? a. Shovel
a. crosscut saw b. Hawk
b. rip cut saw c. Trowel
c. back saw d. Float
d. hacksaw 75) Which is flat with handle at the back
67) A carpenter wants to fasten and remove usually made of wood?
nails. Which tool is appropriate? a. Shovel
a. Hammer b. Buttering
b. Ballpen hammer c. Trowel
c. Claw hammer d. Float
d. Sledge hammer 76) Which tool is used in shaping and forming
68) A carpenter wants to smoothen wood concrete edges?
surfaces. Which tool is appropriate? a. Shovel
a. File b. Buttering
b. Sand paper c. Edger
c. Back saw d. Float
d. Plane 77) A mason wants to mix concrete for column
69) A mason wants to create a smooth finish and slab. Which mixture is appropriate?
of concrete after floating. Which tool is a. 1 : 2 : 4
appropriate? b. 1 : 1 1/2 : 3
a. Brick hammer c. 1 : 2 1/2 : 5
b. Concrete trowel d. 1 : 3 : 6
c. Plane 78) A mason wants to mix class B mixture.
d. Float Which mixture is correct?
70) A mason wants to set or cut brick, block, a. 1 : 2 : 4
or stone. Which tool is appropriate? b. 1 : 1 1/2 : 3
a. Claw hammer c. 1 : 2 1/2 : 5
b. Crandall d. 1 : 3 : 6
c. Mason's hammer 79) A mason wants to mix concrete for a slab
d. Star drill in the ground. Which mixture is appropriate?
71) A mason wants to repair mortar joints. a. 1 : 2 : 4
Which tool is appropriate? b. 1 : 1 1/2 : 3
a. Pointing trowel c. 1 : 2 1/2 : 5
b. Crandall d. 1 : 3 : 6
80) A mason wants to mix concrete for hollow 88) A mason wants to lay concrete hollow
block filler. Which mixture is appropriate? blocks. Where does he start?
a. 1 : 2 : 4 a. Front
b. 1 : 1 1/2 : 3 b. Left
c. 1 : 2 1/2 : 5 c. Right
d. 1 : 3 : 6 d. Center
81) Which refers to the ease with which the 89) A mason wants to mix mortar for
fresh concrete can be molded without plastering. What does he mix?
segregation? a. cement and water
a. Plasticity b. cement and sand
b. Consistency c. sand and water
c. Mobility d. water and cement
d. Grout 90) A mason wants to lay concrete hollow
82) Which refers to the degree of wetness or blocks into a 10 sq.m. wall. How many CHB
slump of the concrete mixture? are needed?
a. Plasticity a. 100 pcs.
b. Consistency b. 120 pcs.
c. Mobility c. 122.5 pcs.
d. Grout d. 125 pcs.
83) Which is an artificial stone that results 91) A mason wants to lay 16" by 16" ceramic
from mixing cement, sand, gravel, and water? tiles in a 10 sq.m. room. How many tiles are
a. Concrete needed?
b. Grout a. 60 pcs.
c. Mortar b. 61.5 pcs.
d. Bricks c. 62.5 pcs.
84) Which is an artificial stone that results d. 63 pcs.
from mixing cement, sand, and water? 92) How many CHBs are installed for a wall
a. Concrete having a dimension of 2.5 m width and 4.0 m
b. Grout height?
c. Mortar a. 125 pcs.
d. Bricks b. 122.5 pcs.
85) Which is an artificial stone that results c. 300 pcs.
from mixing cement and water? d. 400 pcs.
a. Concrete 93) How many 8" x 8" wall tiles are needed in
b. Grout a wall 2.5 m width and 4.0 m height?
c. Mortar a. 300 pcs.
d. Bricks b. 500 pcs.
86) Which term refers to the process of c. 550 pcs.
finishing using mortar? d. 600 pcs.
a. Finishing 94) A carpenter bought 10 pcs. of a 2" x 3" x
b. Fine finishing 8' lumber. If the price of lumber is ₱50.00 per
c. Concreting board foot, how much did he pay?
d. Plastering a. ₱1,800
87) A mason wants to lay ceramic tiles. Where b. ₱1,900
does he start? c. ₱2,000
a. Front d. ₱2,100
b. Left 95) A carpenter bought 10 pcs. of a 2" x 4" x
c. Right 6' lumber. If the price of lumber is P50.00 per
d. Center board foot, how much did he pay?
a. ₱1,800
b. ₱1,900
c. ₱2,000 b. Workability
d. ₱2,100 c. Strength
96) A carpenter bought 10 pcs. of a 2" x 6" x d. Flexibility
4' lumber. If the price of lumber is P50.00 per 104) Concrete is said to be workable if it can
board foot, how much did he pay? be molded or deformed without segregation.
a. ₱1,800 This characteristic is known as ________.
b. ₱1,900 a. Consistency
c. ₱2,000 b. Plasticity
d. ₱2,100 c. Mobility
97) Which tile is appropriate in the toilet and d. Workability
bathroom flooring? 105) The following are factors that regulate
a. Glaze tiles the strength of concrete, EXCEPT:
b. Ceramic tiles a. Correct proportion of ingredients.
c. Non-skid granite tiles b. Proper method of mixing.
d. Clay tiles c. Adequate protection of concrete during
98) Bricks are laid where its longer side is curing.
exposed to view. This arrangement is called d. Dropping concrete mixture from high
________. elevation.
a. Header 106) What class of concrete mixture is
b. Stretcher consisting of 1 bag cement, 2 cu. ft. of sand,
c. Bond and 4 cu. ft. of gravel or 1:2:4?
d. Mortar a. Class AA
99) The most widely used masonry materials b. Class A
for construction works are? c. Class B
a. Ashlar d. Class C
b. Bricks 107) How many cubic yard of concrete do you
c. Rubble stones need to cover a space with an area of 25
d. Concrete hollow blocks square foot and a slab thickness of four (4)
100) It is a masonry material manufactured inches?
from clay and other materials? a. 0.34 cu. yd.
a. Stones b. 0.32 cu. yd.
b. Stucco c. 0.25 cu. yd.
c. Bricks d. 0.51 cu. yd.
d. Concrete pavers 108) What tool or instrument is used to set-up
101) What is the tool used to guide the vertical the lateral level of a concrete fence?
position in laying bricks? a. Water hose level
a. Plumb bob b. Spirit level
b. Water hose level c. Plumb bob
c. Spirit level d. Straight edge
d. String or chord 109) According to the building code of the
102) Which among the following is a surface Philippines, for how many days shall concrete
finishing tool for concrete? be maintained above 10 °C temperature and
a. Crandal in a moist condition?
b. Bolster a. 3 days
c. Float b. 5 days
d. Spade c. 7 days
d. 10 days
103) Which of the following is NOT a
requirement to consider in proportioning 110) Which of the following are known as
concrete mixture? coarse aggregates in a concrete mixture?
a. Economy a. Sand
b. Soil
c. Gravel a. Fine aggregates
d. Stones b. Coarse aggregates
111) What do you call the process of c. Admixture
hardening of concrete? d. Water
a. Curing 115) Which of the following refers to the
b. Setting structural reinforcing member that holds or
c. Hardening binds together the main reinforcement of a
d. Molding column?
112) What is the type of hydraulic cement is a. Lateral tie
widely used in small and large construction b. Stirrups
including roads and highways? c. Spiral tie
a. Hydraulic cement d. Rebars
b. Portland cement 116) The structure that holds the poured
c. Pozzolan cement concrete until it hardens to form the concrete
d. Lime beam or post.
113) How many pieces of 4" x 8" x 16" a. Scaffolding
concrete hollow blocks (CHB) can be laid per b. Batter board
bag of cement as mortar? c. Forms
a. 55 to 60 pcs. d. Stake
b. 25 to 30 pcs. 117) To convert from feet to get number of
c. 30 to 36 pcs. meters, multiply feet by?
d. 40 to 40 pcs. a. 0.3048
114) What ingredient in concrete is added to b. 25.4
the batch immediately before or during its c. 30.48
mixing to improve its durability and accelerate d. 2.54
strength development? ANSWERS:
1. A
2. C
3. B 16. C 37. D
4. C 17. C 38. C
5. B 18. D - 60 degrees for cross 39. B
6. C (rip saw) - A back saw cut saw; and 90 degrees for 40. C
is used for making cuts for a rip saw 41. D
wood joints; cross cut saw 19. A 42. B
is used to cut wood across 20. A 43. D
its grain; while circular saw 21. B 44. A
is a mechanized saw. 22. B 45. B
7. B 23. A 46. C
8. D 24. B 47. B
9. B 25. A 48. B
10. B 26. A 49. B
11. B 27. C 50. D
12. C 28. D 51. A
13. D (S4S) - S2S means 29. C 52. C
two sides of the lumber are 30. C 53. D
planed or smooth. No such 31. A 54. B
term as S3S; and Rough 32. D 55. D
means that the piece of 33. A 56. B
lumber is not planed. 34. B 57. C
14. C 35. D 58. D
15. A 36. B 59. B
60. C 78. C 99. D
61. A 79. A 100. C
62. C 80. D 101. A
63. D 81. A 102. C
64. A 82. B 103. D
65. C 83. A 104. B
66. A 84. C 105. D
67. C 85. B 106. B
68. D - A carpenter's plane 86. D 107. A
is a hand tool with an 87. D 108. B
adjustable blade for 88. B 109. C
smoothing or shaping wood. 89. B 110. C
69. B 90. D 111. A
70. C 91. C 112. B
71. A 92. A 113. A
72. D 93. B 114. C
73. A 94. C 115. B
74. B 95. C 116. C
75. D 96. C 117. A
76. C 97. C
77. B 98. B
 8) There are several factors involved in
TLE (3) - Basic Electricity electrical wiring installation but the foremost
consideration is ________.
1) A form of electricity where the flow of a. cost
current is always in the same direction: b. labor
a. voltage c. safety
b. power d function
c. alternating current
d. direct current 9) The standard number or diameter of wires
for convenience outlet layout should be?
2) The force which opposes and reduces the a. 12
flow of electrical current is recognized as b. 14
________. c. 18
a. power d. 10
b. resistance
c. electromagnetism 10) To comply with the requirements of the
d. frequency Philippine Electrical Code, the appropriate
fuse rating for lighting outlet should be
3) A part of an electric circuit which converts ________.
electrical energy into another form of energy a. 15 amperes
to do work is ________. b. 30 amperes
a. load c. 60 amperes
b. circuit d. 20 amperes
c. source
d. control 11) Planning and designing of electrical wiring
plan is being done in order to:
4) A part of an electrical circuit, consists of a. Provide efficient and effective wiring system
batteries, generator or a main electrical power of the building.
which supplies electricity is called ________. b. Maintain quality workmanship.
a. control c. Avoid overloaded circuit.
b. load d. Protect the circuit from high current.
c. source
d. voltage 12) Circuit breakers are used to protect
household electrical circuits. What is the
5) A law that states that current is directly ampacity rating of the breaker used for
proportional to voltage and inversely convenience outlets or general purpose
proportional to resistance is known as circuits?
________. a. 20 amperes
a. PEC b. 30 amperes
b. Law of Resistivity c. 15 amperes
c. Kirchoff's Law d. 60 amperes
d. Ohm's Law
13) An electrical component used to control
6) In Ohm's Law, to find the unknown voltage electrical circuit in two different locations is
in the circuit, the formula to be used is: called:
a. E = I x R a. four-way switch
b. E = I / R b. three-way switch
c. I = E / R c. push-button switch
d. R = E / I d. remote controlled switch
7) What amount of current does a 40-watt 14) To conserve energy, what kind of lamp
fluorescent lamp draw from a 220 volts power should be used in lighting fixtures?
source? a. Incandescent lamp
a. 5.5 amperes b. Mercury lamp
b. 0.18 amperes c. Compact fluorescent lamp
c. 25.5 amperes d. Neon lamp
d. 50.5 amperes
15) The size of electrical wire recommended
for installing lighting fixtures is:
a. No. 12 AWG
b. No. 10 AWG
c. No. 18 AWG
d. No. 14 AWG
16) What is the voltage required by an
automatic pressure cooker having a
resistance of 20 ohms when the current
flowing is 8 amperes?
a. 240 volts
b. 480 volts
c. 120 volts
d. 160 volts
17) In a 220-volt power line, three 50-watt
incandescent bulbs are connected in parallel.
How many more bulbs will light if one of the
bulbs is open?
a. One
b. Two
c. All
d. None
18) In a simple electrical connection, one of
the lines of the source is connected to
________.
a. Terminal 1 of the load
b. Terminal 2 of the load
c. Terminal 1 of the switch
d. Terminal 1 & 2 of the switch
19) Which of the following electrical symbols
in wiring diagram means that there are three
wires running in a line?
a. ----/-/-/----
b. -----/-/-/-/----
c. ------------
d. S3W
20) A series connected dry cells will result to
________.
a. increase in the amount of current
b. increase in the amount of voltage
c. increase total resistance
d. more powerful supply of electricty
21) What type of switch is used to control
alternately three-phase line system using two
sources of power?
a. Double Pole Single Throw Switch
b. Single Pole Double Throw Switch
c. Triple Pole Single Throw Switch
d. Triple Pole Double Throw Switch
22) Which of the following is the best
conductor of electricity?
a. Copper
b. Aluminum
c. Silver
d. Gold
23) What type of switch is used when you
want to control one lamp or group of lamps in
two different locations?
a. Two, 3-way switch
b. One, 4-way switch
c. Two, single switch
d. Duplex switch
24) Cells are connected in parallel to increase
the ________ capacity of the cells.
a. current
b. voltage
c. resistance
d. inductance
25) The resistors are to be connected in four
possible types of circuit connections namely
series, parallel, series-parallel and parallel-
series. Which type of connection will give the
least amount of equivalent resistance?
a. Series
b. Parallel
c. Series-parallel
d. Parallel-series
26) Which is an exposed wiring method that
uses cleats, knowbs, tubes and flexible tubing
for the protection and support of single
insulated conductor run in or on building and
not concealed by the building structure?
a. Open wiring on insulators
b. Armored cable wiring
c. Concealed knob and tube wiring
d. Metal clad cable wiring
27) What will happen if two 100-W, 230 V
incadescent lamps are connected in series
across a 230 V source?
a. Both lamps will consume more power.
b. Both lamps will get burnt.
c. Each lamp will give lesser output lights.
d. Each lamp will give more output lights.
28) What is the reason why electrical
appliances are connected in parallel rather
than in series?
a. Parallel connection consumes lesser
power.
b. Parallel connection is simpler than series
connection.
c. Each appliances consumes more power if
connected in series.
d. It makes the operation of each appliance c. Eveready
independent of each other. d. Secondary battery
29) When replacing a busted fuse which of the 37) Which is used to change mechanical
following is important? energy into electrical energy?
a. same size and type a. Battery
b. same type but different rating b. Circuit
c. same size but different rating c. Dry cell
d. different size and type d. Generator
30) Which of the following is a source of 38) A process in splitting the atom of uranum
alternating current? is called ________.
a. Dynamo a. fusion
b. Battery b. fission
c. Dry cell c. friction
d. Alternator d. tension
31) When there is a break in the circuit and 39) A process by joining hydrogen atoms
the current could not pass through, the circuit which causes heat hotter than the sun is
is ________. called ________.
a. closed a. fusion
b. shorted b. fission
c. grounded c. friction
d. open d. tension
32) Which term usually refers to a device that 40) Which transforms heat energy to electric
produces an electric current when light falls energy?
upon them? a. Transformers
a. Solar cell b. Battery
b. Dry cell c. Generator
c. Solar lamp d. Thermocouple
d. Solar light 41) Which is the kinetic energy of falling
33) Which is synchronous alternating-current water?
machine that changes mechanical power into a. Thermo energy
electrical power? b. Hydro energy
a. Dynamo c. Solar energy
b. Motor d. Mechanical energy
c. Alternator 42) Which is a solar collector that is capable
d. Lathe machine of producing voltage when exposed to radiant
34) Which battery CANNOT be recharged energy (sunlight)?
after its chemical energy has been depleted? a. Photoelectric
a. Energizer b. Photovoltaic system
b. Eveready c. Photoemission system
c. Primary battery d. Solar light
d. Secondary battery 43) Energy derived or extracted from the
35) Which generator generates direct current? internal heat of the earth is called ________.
a. Alternator a. volcanic
b. Dynamo b. geothermal
c. Battery c. thermal
d. Adaptor d. chemical
36) Which battery can be recharged after 44) Which refers to the extraction of electrons
each chemical energy has been depleted? from a substance by sunlight on incident
a. Primary battery electromagnetic radiation?
b. Energizer a. Photoelectric effect
b. Photovoltaic effect a. length
c. Photoemission b. cross sectional area
d. Electron microscopy c. temperature
45) Which statement is TRUE? d. material
a. Bigger size of wire has higher resistance. 53) A fluorescent lamp unit connected to a
b. Bigger size of wire has lower resistance. 110v AC line takes 1.2A and requires 110w
c. Long wire has lesser resistance. power. What is its power factor?
d. Short wire has higher resistance. a. 0.9
46) A small light ulb with a resistance of 100 b. 0.833
ohms is connected across a 120-v line. What c. 0.866
is the current through the bulb? d. 0.8
a. 1.2 A 54) An electric heater uses 20kw-in 8 hours. If
b. 0.012 A the voltage across the heater is 240 volts.
c. 0.12 A What is the heater resistance?
d. 12 A a. 2.5 ohms
47) A 200-v lamp has a resistance of 400 b. 83.3 ohms
ohms. The power rating in watts of lamp is c. 23.04 ohms
________. d. 2.30 ohms
a. 100 w 55) The resistance of a 230v incandescent
b. 600 w lamp is 300 ohms. What current is required to
c. 200 w operate the lamp?
d. 250 w a. 0.85 A
48) If 18 resistances, each of a value of 36 b. 0.77 A
ohms, are connected in parallel, then the total c. 1.30 A
resistance is ________. d. 7.74 A
a. 36 ohms 56) A group of lamps operates a current of 12
b. 2 ohms A and a voltage of 120v. What is the total
c. 648 ohms power of the lamps?
d. 54 ohms a. 1.44 kw
49) A toaster takes 10 A from a 120v line. The b. 1.20 kw
power used is: c. 1.34 kw
a. 12 w d. 14.4 kw
b. 130 w 57) What is the maximum load capacity of a
c. 1,200 w 15A circuit breaker protecting a branch circuit
d. 120 w that supplies a continuous load?
50) What is the resistance of a 100 w, 110-v a. 15 A
incandescent lamp? b. 10 A
a. 121 ohms c. 12 A
b. 115 ohms d. 14 A
c. 125 ohms 58) What is the horsepower rating of an
d. 12.1 ohms electric water pump if it has a power rating of
51) How many kilowatts is the water heater if 1.75 Kw?
it draws a current of 10 amperes and has a a. 2 Hp
resistance of 23 ohms? b. 2.3 Hp
a. 23 Kw c. 2.5 Hp
b. 2,300 Kw d. 23 Hp
c. 230 Kw 59) How many kilowatts does a certain
d. 2.3 Kw appliance consume for 5 hours of useif it has
52) The resistance of an electrical wire is a power rating of 1.5 Hp?
inversely proportional to its ________. a. 56 Kw
b. 7.5 Kw
c. 5.6 Kw c. Terminal box
d. 75 Kw d. Pull box
60) A cell supplies a load current of 0.5A for a 67) The minimum size of wire used in
period of 20 hours until its terminal voltage electrical wiring is the no.14 AWG. Under the
falls to an unacceptable level. How long can it SI standard, what is the diameter of this wire?
be expected to supply a current of 100mA? a. 1.2 mm
a. 50 hours b. 1.6 mm
b. 100 hours c. 1.5 mm
c. 60 hours d. 2.0 mm
d. 70 hours 68) A thin-walled steel raceway of circularwith
61) A battery is rated 200Ah. If it is used to a corrosion-resistant coating for protection of
supply a constant current of 8Ah. How long wires or cable is ________.
can the battery last until it becomes unusable? a. rigid metal conduit
a. 20 hours b. flexible metal pipe
b. 2.5 hours c. metal moulding
c. 15 hours d. electrical metallic tubing
d. 2.5 hours 69) Armored cable is commercially known as
62) The resistance of 500 meters of a certain ________.
wire is 125 ohms. What length of the same a. BX cable
wire will have a resistance of 60 ohms? b. flat cable
a. 24 meters c. metallic cable
b. 225 meters d. duplex cable
c. 240 meters 70) Which type of cable is fabricated
d. 235 meters assembly of insulated conductors enclosed in
63) If three equal resistances are connected in a flexible metal sheath?
parallel,the equivalent resistance of the circuit a. Underground cable
will be ________ the value of one resistor. b. Armored cable
a. three time c. Flat cable
b. half d. Flexible cable
c. one-third 71) Flat cable assembly shall be installed for
d. the same ________.
64) Find the cost of using a 100W, 220V lamp I. concealed work only
for 20 hours at P3.00 per kW-hr? II. exposed work only
a. P6.00 a. I only
b. P9.00 b. II only
c. P10.00 c. I and II
d. P60.00 d. cannot be determined
65) Which is a box with a blank cover is 72) An assembly of two pieces of insulating
inserted in one or more runs of raceway to material provided with grooves for holding one
facilitate pulling of the conductors? or more conductors at a definite scpacing from
a. Blank box the surface wired over and from each other,
b. Junction box and with holes for fastening in position is
c. Terminal box called:
d. Pull box a. split knob
66) Which is a box with a blank cover for b. cleat
joining runs of conduits and providing space c. spool insulator
for connection and branching of enclosed d. strain insulator
conductors? 73) Which is a wiring method that uses knobs,
a. Blank box tubes, and flexible non-metallic tubing for the
b. Junction box protection and support of single insulated
conductors concealed in hollow spaces of
walls and ceilings of buildings? 81) Which one of the following uses is
a. Knob and tube wiring permitted by the Code to be used for surface
b. Open wiring on insulators non-metallic raceway?
c. Concealed knob and tube wiring a. dry locations
d. Open wiring with knob and tubes b. where concealed
74) Which term refers to that switch or outlet c. where subject to severe physical damage
body that is embedded or hidden in the wall? d. where voltage is over 300 V
a. Surface type 82) Service entrance using copper conductors
b. Flush type shall have sufficient capacity and shall not be
c. Concealed type smaller than ________.
d. Open type a. 5.5 mm squared
75) The use of surface non-metallic raceway b. 3.5 mm squared
is not permitted in all the following, EXCEPT: c. 14 mm squared
a. dry locations d. 8.0 mm squared
b. where subject to severe physical damage 83) If two identical lamps give normal light
c. where voltage is over 300 V when connected in parallel in a 230v line are
d. where concealed reconnected in series in the same line, the
76) When the entire switch or outlet body is bulb will ________.
visible and extends beyond the wall surface, a. give more light
the device is said to be ________. b. not light
a. Wall type c. give less light
b. Surface type d. blows out
c. Flush type 84) When flexible metal conduit is installed as
d. Open type a fixed raceway, it shall be secured within
77) What device automatically breaks the ________ on each side of every outlet box.
circuit the moment an overload or short circuit a. 250 mm
occurs? b. 300 mm
a. Breaker switch c. 100 mm
b. Overload d. 150 mm
c. Circuit breaker 85) A short circuit can be detected by using
d. Main switch ________.
78) Which term is used when two conductors a. an ohmmeter
are embedded in one solid mass of rubber b. a megger
insulation? c. an oscilloscope
a. two in one d. an ammeter
b. three in one 86) The electrical plans for residential house
c. stranded include the following items, EXCEPT:
d. duplex a. Substation plan
79) What type of socket is used for outdoor or b. Location plan
wet location in wiring installation? c. Floor plan showing location of service
a. Waterproof socket d. Layout of wiring plan for general lighting
b. Special purpose socket and receptacles outlets
c. Weatherproof socket 87) If installed in raceways, conductors of size
d. Outdoor socket ________ and larger shall be stranded.
80) What is the smallest size of wire permitted a. 5.5 mm squared
by the Code to be used in wiring installation? b. 8.0 mm squared
a. 2.0 mm squared c. 14 mm squared
b. 3.5 mm squared d. 3.5 mm squared
c. 2.0 mm 88) At least ________ of free conductor shall
d. 1.25 mm squared be left at each outlet, junction and switch point
for splices or connection of fixture or devices.
a. 250 mm a. shall be
b. 175 mm b. should be
c. 150 mm c. shall not be
d. 300 mm d. should not be
89) A certain residential house has lighting 91) Light fixtures suspended from the ceiling
load of 1.1 kVA and an appliance load of 10A by chains should be wired so that the wires
at 220 volts, single phase, two wires, 60 Hz. ________.
The branch circuit fuse protection for lighting a. will be grounded
and appliance loads are ________ and b. will not touch the chains
________, respectively. c. will support the fixture
a. 20 A and 60 A d. will not support the fixture
b. 20 A and 30 A 92) In rigid metal conduit wiring, conduit of 15-
c. 15 A and 30 A 20 mm diameter shall be supported at least
d. 15 A and 20 A every ________.
90) Live vegetation or trees ________ used a. 2,500 mm
for support of overhead conductors spans. b. 3,500 mm
c. 1,800 mm 93) Why do conductors need additional wiring
d. 3,800 mm insulators?
a. Electrical wiring needs to be protected from c. 1,500 mm
mechanical harm. d. 1,000 mm
b. Wires are connected by joints therefore 98) In concealed knob and tube wiring, the
need reinsulation. clearance to be maintained between
c. Wires touches wood surface therefore need conductors is ________.
protection. a. 65 mm
d. Wires skin is weak. b. 45 mm
94) What is the total number of mechanical c. 76 mm
degrees that an electrical pipe run maybe bent d. 50 mm
between pull points? 99) Three bulbs are connected in parallel and
a. 360 degrees controlled by a single switch. If one of the 3
b. 180 degrees bulbs is busted, what will happen to the
c. 120 degrees remaining bulbs?
d. 270 degrees a. it will not lit
95) Rigid non-metallic conduit shall be b. its brightness is reduced
supported within ________ of each box. c. its brightness increases
a. 600 mm d. its brightness in maintained
b. 800 mm ANSWERS:
c. 900 mm
d. 760 mm 1. D
2. B
96) Electrical metallic tubing smaller than 3. A
________ electrical trade size shall NOT be 4. C
used. 5. D
a. 12 mm 6. A
b. 10 mm 7. B
c. 15 mm 8. C
d. 20 mm 9. A
97) Type AC cable shall be secured by 10. D
approved staples, straps, hangers or similar 11. A
fittings at intervals NOT exceeding ________. 12. A
a. 1,250 mm 13. B
b. 1,300 mm 14. C
15. D
16. D 69. A
17. B 70. B
18. A 71. B
19. A 72. B
20. B 73. C
21. D 74. B
22. C 75. A
23. A 76. B
24. A 77. C
25. B 78. D
26. A 79. C
27. C 80. A
28. D 81. A
29. A 82. D
30. D 83. C
31. D 84. B
32. A 85. A
33. C 86. A
34. C 87. B
35. B 88. C
36. D 89. D
37. D 90. C
38. B 91. D
39. A 92. D
40. D 93. A
41. B 94. A
42. B 95. C
43. B 96. C
44. A 97. B
45. B 98. C
46. C 99. D
47. A
48. B
49. C
50. A
51. D
52. B
53. B
54. C
55. B
56. A
57. C
58. B
59. C
60. B
61. B
62. C
63. C
64. A
65. D
66. B
67. B
68. D
 a. Silicon diode
b. Crystal diode
c. LED
d. Zener diode
8) You will find an electrode nearest the white
band on a rectifier. What is it?
TLE (6) - Basic Electronics a. Anode
1) A schematic diagram shows the b. Cathode
components of an electronic circuit by means c. Gate
of: d. Main Terminal
a. Symbol 9) When a diode is tested and the reading is
b. Construction zero, it means the diode is ________.
c. Physical appearance a. Shorted
d. Linear appearance b. Open
2) What is the best place for electronic hand c. Leaky
tools and equipment? d. Good
a. Tool box 10) If the transistor is an NPN type, the base
b. Tool cabinet is ________.
c. Tool room a. negative & positive
d. Tool bag b. negative
3) Imagine three resistors in parallel, with c. positive
values of 22 ohms, 27 ohms, and 33 ohms. If d. common
a 12 V battery is connected across this 11) If the arrow of a transistor symbol is
combination, what is the current drawn from pointing inward it tells us that the transistor is:
the battery? a. NPN
a. 1.4 A b. PNP
b. 15 mA c. Bipolar
c. 150 mA d. Injunction
d. 1.5 A 12) In the electronic symbol of a transistor, the
4) Which of the following is a non-polarized electrode with an arrow is the:
electronic component? a. Emitter
a. Transistor b. Base
b. Resistor c. Collector
c. Diode d. Cathode
d. Electrolytic capacitor 13) The production of magnetic field by
5) The voltage rating found in a capacitor is current in a conductor is ________.
called ________. a. Electromagnetism
a. Peak-reverse voltage b. Ferromagnetism
b. Working voltage c. Magnetism
c. Blow-up voltage d. Diamagnetism
d. Breakdown voltage 14) The type of current whose amplitude
6) A diode is an electronic part that at all times drops to zero periodically and is produced in
is expected to do one of the following rectifier is known as ________.
functions. Which one is it? a. Pulsating Direct Current
a. allow current to flow in both directions b. Damped Alternating Current
b. multiply voltage c. Varying Direct Current
c. allow current to flow in one direction only d. Saw tooth wave
d. not allow any current flow 15) Printed on the dial of an AM radio is an RF
7) There are various types of diodes. This band covering _________.
diode that acts as a regulator is the ________. a. kHz 76 - 90 MHz
b. 88 - 108 MHz 23) Which is a type of modulation where the
c. 16 Hz - 20 kHz amplitude of the carriers is changed in
d. 535 - 1,605 kHz accordance with demodulating signal?
16) An ordinary radio can be tuned to different a. FM
stations. The electronic component b. PDM
responsible for this function is the: c. AM
a. Tuning capacitor d. PCM
b. Oscillator coil 24) The actual flow of current is from
c. IF transformer ________.
d. Detector diode a. negative to positive
17) The condition of a loud speaker is tested b. positive to negative
more accurately using one of the ranges listed c. positive to positive
below: d. negative to negative
a. R x 1K 25) The rate of doing work is called ________.
b. R x 10 a. energy
c. R x 1 b. power
d. R x 10K c. voltage
18) Working efficiently is a good work habit. d. resistance
Tinning the tip of a soldering iron refers to: 26) MilliHenry is equal to ________.
a. Cleaning the tip with a sand paper a. 10th Henry
b. Making the tip pointed b. 100th Henry
c. Cutting the tip c. 1,000th Henry
d. Applying flux to the tip d. 1,000,000th Henry
19) The common cause of an erratic or 27) An inductor opposes any change in
distorted sound of a transistor radio is a ________.
defective? a. voltage
a. Amplifier b. current
b. Volume control c. frequency
c. Antenna d. modulation
d. Tuner 28) A circuit having two or more current paths
20) An appliance with 110 Volts AC Supply is is a ________ connection.
accidentally plugged to a 220 Volts AC outlet. a. parallel
What component is usually destroyed? b. series
a. Switch c. series-parallel
b. AC plug d. cannot be determined
c. Line fuse 29) Which is an electrical unit of measuring a
d. Power transformer power?
21) The word electron was derived from the a. Ohms
Greek word "elektron", which means: b. Ampere
a. to rub c. Watt
b. to flow d. Volt
c. amber 30) A category of a resistor which obey Ohm's
d. friction Law is ________.
22) The peak to peak voltage in a 117 V AC a. linear
outlet is ________. b. non-linear
a. 620 V c. potentiometer
b. 165.5 V d. resistance
c. 331 V 31) Which is an electronic device that is used
d. 220 V to limit or oppose the flow of current in a
circuit?
a. Capacitor b. 0.6 V
b. Resistor c. 3.4 V
c. Diode d. 6 V
d. Inductor 40) If two resistors are placed in series, the
32) An instrument that is used to measure the final resistance is ________.
amount of resistance in a circuit is called a. higher
________. b. lower
a. DC voltmeter c. the same
b. ohmmeter d. cannot be determined
c. AC voltmeter 41) A 100n capacitor in parallel with 10n
d. ammeter produces ________.
33) Solder is a mixture of ________. a. 90n
a. tin lead b. 110n
b. zinc and lead c. 100n
c. zinc and tin d. cannot be determined
d. copper and lead 42) The 10k resistor in parallel with 10k
34) The common used soldering lead is produces ________.
________. a. 10K
a. 40-60 b. 20K
b. 60-40 c. 5K
c. 50-50 d. cannot be determined
d. 50-40 43) The 2 pcs. of 3V batteries are connected
35) A standard 220VAC has a frequency of in series. The output voltage is ________.
________. a. 3V
a. 45 Hz b. 6V
b. 30 Hz c. 0V
c. 50 Hz d. cannot be determined
d. 60 Hz 44) An electronic device that is used to limit or
36) A low frequency speaker is sometimes oppose the flow of current in a circuit is called
known as ________. a ________.
a. tweeter a. capacitor
b. squeaker b. resistor
c. woofer c. diode
d. howler d. inductor
37) The three leads of a common transistor 45) Which tool is needed in removing soldered
are a/an: components in the circuit board?
a. collector base emitter a. Long nose pliers
b. emitter collector base b. Desoldering pump
c. base collector case c. Diagonal cutting pliers
d. collector base emitter d. Wire stripper
38) Connecting lead from the negative to the 46) Which tool is used in joining or soldering
positive of a battery will produce a/an electronic components in the circuit board?
________. a. Soldering iron
a. high resistance circuit b. Electrical pliers
b. low current path c. Desoldering pump
c. short circuit d. Long nose plier
d. open circuit 47) Which tool is used to hold or pick up
39) What is the approximate characteristic components in the circuit board?
voltage that develops across a red LED? a. Mechanical pliers
a. 1.7 V b. Long nose pliers
c. Electrical pliers c. forward
d. Wire stripper d. series
48) Which tool is used in turning slotted 56) Which fuse has its internal fusible wire
screws? wrapped around an insulator?
a. Flat screw driver a. a slow-blow type fuse
b. Phillips screw driver b. an inductive fuse
c. Electrical pliers c. a capacitive fuse
d. Wire stripper d. intended for high voltage fuse
49) Which is a pocket-sized tool that provides 57) Which would be considered "basic
maximum safety when pulling cartridge fuses components of a power supply"?
and checking electrical connections? a. zener, regulator, transformer
a. Fuse puller b. regulator, diode, AC power, load
b. Screw driver c. transformer, bridge, capacitor, load
c. Desoldering tool d. filter, regulator, rectifier, transformer
d. Mini drill 58) Which presents the rise and fall of
50) If a 10K resistor is placed across a 10 v alternating current and voltages?
supply, the current will be ________. a. Graph
a. 10 mA b. Sine wave
b. 0.001 mA c. Fluctuation
c. 1 mA d. Cycle
d. 65 mA 59) When two capacitors are connected in
51) A disadvantage of LCD (liquid crystal parallel, the capacitance will ________.
display) is ________. a. increase
a. high current demands b. have the same value
b. slow reactance to input c. decrease
c. environmental temperature sensitivity d. increase and decrease
d. persistence limitations 60) Which circuit has the most gain?
52) Which is TRUE of a series DC motor with a. Common emitter
no load? b. Common collector
a. Tends to stop or not start c. Common base
b. Maybe damaged by excessive speed d. Emitter follower
c. Has reverse direction 61) Which rectifier circuit uses four diodes for
d. Becomes an AC generator its rectification?
53) A fuse marked 250V, 650m can be used a. half-wave rectifier
in circuits with an "open fuse" supply voltage b. full-wave rectifier
of ________. c. full-wave rectifier
a. 125 Volts d. split type rectifier
b. 500 Volts 62) When a resistor is open, the resistance
c. 5,000 Volts ________.
d. 250 Volts a. increases
54) To prevent transistor from getting hot, use b. gets zero
________. c. decreases
a. silicon grease d. is infinite
b. insulator 63) A low voltage power supply converts
c. heat sink ________.
d. exhaust fan a. AC voltage output
55) To obtain a higher value of resistance, b. Pulsating DC voltage
resistors are ________. c. DC output voltage
a. reverse d. AC and DC voltage outputs
b. parallel
64) When checking an open resistor using an c. Capacitor tester
ohmmeter the resistance reads d. VOM
________. 72) From what part of the ohmmeter do you
a. zero level derive resistance reading?
b. high resistance but within the tolerance a. Range multiplier
c. infinite b. Reading scale
d. low but not zero c. Test probes
65) Moving one plate of a capacitor further d. Pointer
away from the other will ________. 73) Which instrument serves as 3 measuring
a. decrease capacitance instruments in one?
b. increase capacitance a. Audio generator
c. decrease voltage rating b. Oscilloscope
d. increase mutual transductunce c. Signal generator
66) In checking capacitor to see if it is shorted, d. VOM
open or leaky, you would use the ________ 74) Which device produces simple
ohmmeter range. waveforms?
a. lowest a. Audio amplifier
b. highest b. VOM
c. middle c. Signal tracer
d. upper d. Signal generator
67) A schematic diagram shows the 75) What is the another name for connection
components of an electronic circuit by means diagram?
of ________. a. Wiring diagram
a. a symbol b. Block diagram
b. a construction c. Pictorial diagram
c. physical appearance d. Schematic diagram
d. linear appearance
76) Which equipment is used to discharge
68) If there are only two resistors with the electrical charges produced by the human
same values in parallel circuit, which formula body?
may be used to find its total resistance? a. Audio generator
a. Rt = R/n b. Signal generator
b. Rt = (R1xR2) / (R1+R2) c. ESD
c. 1/Rt = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + ......1/Rn d. VOM
d. Rt = (R1+R2) / (R1xR2)
77) Which term refers to the set of rules or
69) Which hand tool is used solely for cutting practices to ensure no accident prevention?
metals? a. Safety practices
a. utility knife b. Rules and regulation
b. saw c. Policy order
c. magnifying glass d. Action plan
d. paint brush
78) What tools are NOT recommended to be
70) What is the reason why threads become used in electronics works?
stripped? a. brand new tools
a. screws are over tightened b. branded tools
b. screws are heated c. damaged tools
c. screws are molded d. locally produced tools
d. screws are painted
79) Which type of lines is used to show
71) In what instrument is the ohmmeter mechanical linkages between components or
found? parts on schematic diagram?
a. Ammeter a. Connecting lines
b. Tube tester b. Dashed lines
c. Medium lines
d. Thin lines
80) What does VOM mean?
a. AC Voltmeter
b. Ohmmeter
c. DC Milliammeter
d. Volt-Ohm-Milliammeter
81) Which tool is used to cut the insulation
without cutting the wire?
a. utility knife
b. hacksaw
c. side cutter
d. wire stripper
82) What does LED stands for?
a. Light emitting display
b. Low energy display
c. Light emitting diode
d. Light emitting detector
83) Which picture or sketch shows the
components of a circuit and how these
components are connected together?
a. Wiring diagram
b. Block diagram
c. Pictorial diagram
d. Schematic diagram
84) 3 pieces of resistors in which the values
are 10 ohm, 20 ohms, and 50 ohms. If the 20
ohms is open, what will be the reading in the
ohmmeter?
a. 60 ohms
b. 0
c. infinite
d. 80 ohms
85) Why does an AM receiver receive or pick-
up signal despite the far distance from the
transmitter compared to the FM receiver?
a. The AM receiver picks up signal easily
because of the transistor.
b. The AM receiver picks up signal easily
because the signals transmitted by the AM
transmitter is by means of line to sight.
c. The AM receiver picks up signal easily
because the signals transmitted by the AM
transmitter is by means of line to ground.
d. The AM receiver picks up signal easily
because the signals transmitted by the AM
transmitter is by means of line to televise.
86) Why is it needed to place antenna in
higher or an elevated area particularly in a
mountainous place?
I. All signals transmitted by the transmitter
station is by means of line to ground; the
higher antenna the more signal can be
received.
II. The antenna is placed in higher or elevated
area in order to capture the wind direction.
III. Signals transmitted by the transmitter
station is by means of line of sight; the higher
antenna the more signal can be received.
a. I only
b. III only
c. II only
d. I, II, III
87) A Service Electronics Technician cleaned
the terminal of the component using sand
paper or knife before it soldered to the PCB.
What is the main purpose of that cleaning?
a. To attract more charges.
b. To remove the insulator so that soldering
can be made easily.
c. To attract electrons, protons, and neutrons.
d. To maximize the desired voltages.
88) If the Service Electronics Technician
applied the so-called pre-tinning, how should
be the process be?
a. The Service Electronics Technician applies
a little amount of soldering lead and soldering
flux to the tip during pre-heating of the
soldering iron.
b. The Service Electronics Technician cleans
the soldering tip using files, sand paper or a
cutter.
c. The Service Electronics Technician allows
his soldering iron to heat atleast 40 minutes
before he uses it and solders with the terminal
of the component.
d. The Service Electronics Technician checks
the temperature of the tip before soldering is
made.
ANSWERS:
1. A
2. A
3. A
4. B
5. B
6. C
7. D
8. B
9. A
10. C
11. B
12. A
13. A
14. A 67. A
15. D 68. B
16. A 69. B
17. C 70. A
18. D 71. D
19. B 72. A
20. C 73. D
21. B 74. D
22. D 75. D
23. C 76. C
24. A 77. A
25. B 78. C
26. C 79. A
27. B 80. D
28. A 81. D
29. C 82. C
30. A 83. C
31. B 84. C
32. B 85. C
33. A 86. B
34. B 87. B
35. D 88. A
36. C
37. D
38. C
39. C
40. A
41. A
42. C
43. B
44. B
45. B
46. A
47. B
48. A
49. A
50. B
51. B
52. B
53. A
54. C
55. D
56. D
57. B
58. B
59. A
60. A
61. C
62. D
63. B
64. C
65. A
66. B
 b. Pliers
c. Wrenches
d. Threader
8) The kind of fitting used to connect fixed
pipe and fixtures is a ________.
TLE (2) - Plumbing a. Wye fitting
b. Coupling
1) A person who installs pipes, fixtures and
c. Union fitting
other apparatus to convey and supply water in
d. Reducer
buildings and to dispose and discharge waste
water. 9) A fitting or device installed at the inlet of a
a. Carpenter water pump to prevent backflow of water.
b. Plumber a. Ball valve
c. Mason b. Check valve
d. Mechanic c. Blackwater valve
d. Gate valve
2) It is a receptacle or vault used to collect
organic waste discharged from the house 10) It is a device installed in water lines that
sewer. can be closed or opened to allow installation
a. Septic tank or troubleshooting of fixtures.
b. Manhole a. Check valve
c. Water tank b. Gate valve
d. Waste tank c. Ball valve
d. Float valve
3) The semi-liquid substance accumulated at
the bottom of the septic tank. 11) A schedule 40 pipe is:
a. Scum a. Thicker than schedule 20
b. Sediment b. Thicker than schedule 80
c. Sludge c. Thinner than schedule 10
d. Silt d. None among the choices
4) An underground tunnel that carries off the 12) What material is used to seal off threaded
drainage and waste matter from a home or fittings to avoid leakage?
town is called: a. Masking tape
a. Drainage system b. Teflon tape
b. Fixture c. Scotch tape
c. Sewerage d. Adhesive gum
d. Sewer 13) What must be installed to prevent
5) The pipe that conveys waste from various siphonage or backflow of the water seal in the
fixture other than from the water closet. drainage system?
a. Waste pipe a. Vent pipe
b. Soil pipe b. Drain pipe
c. Vent pipe c. Soil pipe
d. Drain pipe d. Cleanout
6) It is a fitting or device that provides liquid 14) Which of the following is NOT required by
seal to prevent the back passage of air. the National Plumbing Code?
a. Loop a. Drainage pipe should be inclined properly
b. Fixture for a downward gravity flow of water.
c. Sewer b. Drainage pipe should be provided with
d. Trap adequate cleanout.
c. No vent pipe is needed.
7) The tools used to tighten or loosen
d. All pipe joints must be well-fitted and tightly
hexagonal fittings like unions and other metal
connected.
fittings.
a. Pipe vise
15) What is the ideal inclination of a horizontal b. Back saw
waste pipe as recommended by the National c. Handsaw
Plumbing Code? d. Drywall knife
a. 2% slope 23) Metal with semi-rigid auger whose end is
b. 3% slope usually fitted with a hook or corkscrew is
c. 4% slope called ________.
d. 0% slope or level position a. plumber's snake
16) For purposes of troubleshooting in case of b. plunger
stoppage of flow, what must be installed in the c. valve
pipe system? d. bushing
a. Vent pipe 24) If your toilet has trouble, you use rubber
b. Cleanout funnel-shape instrument attached to the end
c. Drain of the handle for unblocking. What is this tool?
d. Tee fitting a. plumber's snake
17) Plastic pipes are commonly used in water b. valve
fixture installation nowadays. Which of the c. plunger
following is preferred? d. bushing
a. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) 25) Which plumbing tool is used for gripping
b. Chlorinated PVC (CPVC) large pipes and irregular objects?
c. Cross-linked polyethylene (PEX) a. monkey wrench
d. Polyethylene b. chain wrench
18) The Plumbing Code on House Drain c. yoke vise
provides that there must be no more than two d. pipe wrench
closets that shall discharge into a ________ 26) A plumber wants to create thread outside
pipe diameter. pipe by hand. Which tool is appropriate?
a. 3 inches or 75 mm a. Pipe cutter
b. 80 mm b. Pipe threader
c. less than 75 mm c. Yoke vise
d. 70 mm d. Pipe wrench
19) A metal or plastic fitting used to connect 27) A plumber wants to cut pipes. Which
smaller pipe from a larger pipe. holding tool is needed?
a. Reducer a. Vise grip
b. Elbow b. Pipe threader
c. Union c. Yoke vise
d. Coupling d. Pipe wrench
20) As a basic prerequisite for most plumbing 28) A plumber wants to hold pipe by hand.
project, what should be connected for each What tool is needed?
faucet, toilet, and fixtures? a. Vise grip
a. Fixture shutoffs b. Pipe threader
b. Main shutoffs c. Yoke vise
c. Intermediate shutoffs d. Pipe wrench
d. Valves
29) The following are good plumbing
21) A plumber wants to tighten and loosen practices, EXCEPT:
pipes. Which tool is appropriate? a. rainwater harvesting
a. Pipe cutter b. water conservation
b. Flux c. gray water recycling
c. Pipe wrench d. excessive water consumption
d. Butane torch
30) Water contaminants are being forced back
22) A plumber wants to cut metal pipe. Which into the water piping system. Which term is
tool is appropriate? referred to?
a. Hacksaw
a. Water flow d. The device that provides a supply of water
b. Back flow and/or its disposal, e.g. sinks, tubs, toilet
c. Pressure 37) Plumbing ventilation means to ________.
d. Harvesting a. carry sewer gas out and relieve pressure of
31) The following are examples of plumbing the drainage system
fixtures, EXCEPT: b. discourage corrosion in the drainage piping
a. water closet c. maintain the trap seals
b. drainage d. give pressure differentials in the public
c. shower sewer
d. urinals 38) Rainwater from the roof down to the
32) Which statement is NOT true about ground passes through what pipe?
plumbing standards based on Republic Act a. Down spout
1378 which is known as "Plumbing Law"? b. Conductor
a. Each fixture directly connected to the c. Gutter
drainage system shall be equipped with a d. Vent
water-sealed trap. 39) A pipe that conveys only liquid waste is
b. Plumbing shall be designed and adjusted to called ________.
use the maximum quantity of water consistent a. vent pipe
with proper performance and cleaning. b. soil pipe
c. Water closet must be located in a room c. main pipe
which is properly lighted and ventilated. d. waste pipe
d. No substance which will clog the pipes,
produce explosive mixtures, destroy the pipes 40) If you install water supply inside the
or their joints or interfere unduly with the building, what is the diameter of pipes
sewage disposal process shall be allowed to needed?
enter the building drainage system. a. 4 inches
b. 1 inch
33) A compartment that receives solid or liquid c. 0.75 inch
waste, located below the normal grade of the d. 0.5 inch
gravity system is called ________.
a. septic 41) In which type of pipes does portable water
b. sump travel
c. trap a. ABS pipes
d. interceptor b. Galvanized pipes
c. Cast iron pipes
34) Which is true toxic substance? d. PVC pipes (orange)
a. Hazardous to human health
b. A fixture drain for a laboratory 42) If your water system has leak, where can
c. Not hazardous to human health you shut off the flow of water?
d. Bedpan washer and sterilizer drain a. Gate valve
b. Globe valve
35) Water that is safe for drinking, cooking, c. Check valve
and personal use is ________. d. Angle valve
a. potable
b. purified 43) A plumber wants to install a liquid seal to
c. clean prevent sewer gasses from entering the
d. healthy building. What device is needed?
a. Union
36) Which among the following best describes b. Trap
a toilet bowl? c. Backflow preventer
a. A room or booth containing a toilet d. Pump
b. The Box Type compartment holding water
for flushing the toilet 44) A plumber wants to shut off the flow of
c. An opening in the wall or ceiling near water just 90 degrees turn. Which valve is
appropriate?
a. Gate valve 52) If you put source of potable water, what is
b. Globe valve the minimum safe distance from the septic
c. Check valve tank?
d. Angle valve a. 15 meters
45) What do you call those flexible waterproof b. 10 meters
ribbon for covering threaded pipes joints to c. 5 meters
prevent leakage? d. 20 meters
a. Rubber bond 53) No cesspool, septic tank or drain fields
b. Masking tape shall be located within how many meter radius
c. Teflon tape from the well?
d. Tape a. 15 meters
46) If the end of a PVC pipe is fitted with a b. 10 meters
male adopter, what fitting will be used to stop c. 50 meters
the flow of the water? d. 45 meters
a. Elbow 54) If you plan to drill for a well that can supply
b. Coupling water for public use, what is the minimum
c. Cap meter radius from a well to the residences?
d. Plug a. 150 meters
47) How many PVC pipes can be installed in a b. 100 meters
7.50 meter distance? c. 50 meters
a. 2 pcs. d. 200 meters
b. 2.5 pcs. 55) Every trap for bath tubs, lavatories, sink,
c. 3 pcs. and other similar fixture shall be _________.
d. 3.5 pcs. a. self-regulating
48) If the end of the PVC pipe is fitted with a b. tight
female adopter, what fitting will be used to c. fix
stop the flow of the water? d. self cleaning
a. Elbow 56) There should be no concrete sanitary
b. Coupling sewers existing within how many meter radius
c. Cap from the well?
d. Plug a. 15 meters
49) A plumber wants to connect two length of b. 10 meters
pipes. Which fitting is necessary? c. 50 meters
a. Coupling d. 45 meters
b. Elbow 57) The standard length of a PVC pipe is
c. Tee _________.
d. Pipe wrench a. 12 ft.
50) If there is leaking in the water supply of b. 2.0 m
lavatory, sink, and water closet, which valve c. 6.0 m
are you going to shut off? d. 10 ft.
a. Gate valve 58) If you want to estimate the number of G.I.
b. Globe valve pipes needed from your house to the main
c. Check valve supply, what is the standard length of a G.I.
d. Angle valve pipe that you are going to use?
51) If you install a soil pipe, what is the a. 20.0 m
standard pitch or slope? b. 6 ft.
a. 5% c. 3.0 m
b. 10% d. 20 ft.
c. 2% 59) If you want to estimate the number of PVC
d. 1% pipes needed from your house to the main
supply, what is the standard length of a PVC
pipe that you are going to use? 41. B
a. 20.0 m 42. A
b. 6 ft. 43. C
c. 3.0 m 44. B
d. 20 ft. 45. C
60) All plumbing fixtures must have P-trap, 46. C
EXCEPT: 47. B
a. lavatory 48. D
b. water closet 49. A
c. sink 50. D
d. bath tub 51. C
52. A
ANSWERS: 53. D
1. B 54. B
2. A 55. D
3. C 56. A
4. D 57. D
5. A 58. B
6. D 59. C
7. C 60. B
8. C
9. B
10. C
11. A
12. B
13. A
14. C
15. A
16. B
17. A
18. A
19. A
20. A
21. C
22. A
23. A
24. C
25. B
26. B
27. C
28. A
29. D
30. B
31. B
32. B
33. A
34. A
35. A
36. B
37. A
38. A
39. D
40. D
 7) A make-up tool that makes eyelashes wavy
is:
a. blush on brush
b. curl lash
TLE (1) - Cosmetology c. eye liner
d. mascara
1) In facial, make-up foundation serves as
make-up base. What is the type of foundation 8) A corrective make-up that makes small
recommended for dry skin? eyes appear bigger is:
a. cake a. adding lines on the eyelids
b. cream b. using dark colored eye shadow
c. liquid c. using light colored eye shadow
d. stick d. using mascara
2) The purpose of thinning the hair is to 9) An emery board is used to shape the
remove its excess bilk without shortening its ________ of the nails.
length. What is the best shear to use for a. cuticle
thinning bulky hair? b. free edge
a. all purpose shear c. lunula
b. clipping shear d. root of the nails
c. razor 10) An orange wood stick is used to:
d. thinning shear a. apply oil on the nails
3) The process of thinning, tapering and b. remove excess cuticle remover
shortening of the hair is called: c. remove excess nail polish around the nails
a. hair cutting d. remove stain on nails
b. hair drying 11) The ability of the hair to absorb moisture
c. hair setting whether the hair is coarse, medium or fine is:
d. hair styling a. hair analysis
4) Make-up is applied to the face for the b. hair elasticity
purpose of improving its appearance. To give c. hair porosity
color to the cheeks, which of the following d. hair texture
should be applied? 12) Foot cosmetics with tiny particles that
a. Eye shadow helps remove stubborn dirt when giving foot
b. Lipstick spa is:
c. Mascara a. foot balm
d. Rogue b. foot scrub
5) To correct misshaped eyebrows, it is best c. foot soak
to use: d. foot spray
a. depilatory 13) Arrange steps in cleaning the nails:
b. eyebrow pencil I. Apply cuticle remover
c. electric clipper II. Cut & file nails
d. razor III. Push cuticle
6) Arrange the following cosmetics in their IV. Trim cuticle
order of use in applying make-up? a. I, III, II, IV
I. Curl lash b. II, I, III, IV
II. Eyeliner c. III, I, IV, II
III. Eye shadow d. I, III, IV, I
IV. Mascara
14) One best way of shaping the eyebrow with
a. I, II, III, IV the use of shave is:
b. II, III, IV, I a. Depilation
c. III, II, I, IV b. Epilation
d. IV, I, II, III
c. Threading d. Ask for an apology, maintain
d. Waxing professionalism and ask what she wants.
15) A heavy make-up is suitable for: 22) Which of these is the first thing the
a. casual affair pedicurist should do to avoid such situation?
b. evening affair a. Be courteous.
c. picture affair b. Ask the customer what she wants for her
d. night swimming toenails like the shape, color, etc.
16) The first cosmetic applied on the nail c. Decide you own design and styles.
when applying nail polish is: c. Proceed to the service right after customer
a. base coat A says that she wants pedicuring.
b. colored nail polish 23) Which is NOT desirable quality for
c. cuticle remover effective client relation?
d. top coat a. emotional control
17) What is the proper term for the practice of b. positive approach
dividing the hair into smaller, more workable c. good manners
pieces for the purpose of control? d. discussing personal life
a. Bunching 24) Which of the following statement is NOT
b. Spitting true?
c. Sectioning a. Cosmetologist is one of the best
d. Texturizing advertisements for a salon.
18) A darker shade of eye color makes the b. Salon owners and managers do not
natural color of the eye appear ________. consider appearance, personality and poise to
a. Lighter be as important as technical knowledge and
b. Darker manual skills.
c. Smaller c. The female cosmetologist should wear
d. Deeper stylish shoes that fit and are comfortable at
the end of a long day.
19) Mariana would like to apply the principles d. All female stylists should have their hair
she learned in corrective make-up to a friend done at least once a week and their hair
whose lips are broad. Which should you not should reflect the best workmanship of the
recommend? salon.
a. apply light color lipstick
b. apply lip gloss 25) The following are guidelines for good
c. use lip liner at the outer portions of the lips human relations and professional attitude,
d. use lip liner on the inner lips EXCEPT one:
a. Always greet a client by name with a
20) The nail is composed mainly of: pleasant tone of voice.
a. Melanin b. Show interest in the client's personal
b. Keratin preferences.
c. Collagen c. Make a good impression by wearing
d. Sebum obtrusive jewelry to look at your best.
21) Customer A is complaining and getting d. Be ethical in all your dealings with clients
pushy about the pedicure service she and others with whom you come in contact.
received. If you were the pedicurist, what 26) Lisa applied as public teacher. She
would you do? doesn't have any experience for job interview.
a. Tell your customer to look for another Could you please help her decide? What type
pedicurist. of clothing will she wear?
b. Refrain from becoming emotional and a. Casual dress
continue working without being bothered by b. Sunday dress
the complained. c. Business attire
c. Remain cool and calm, pleasant and d. Party dress
professional.
27) What type of make-up may she put on?
a. Corrective make-up
b. Light make-up
c. Heavy make-up
d. Photographic make-up
28) Miss T was invited as one of the principal
sponsors in her best friend's daughter's
wedding. She went to a salon to have
hairstyle, makeup, manicure and pedicure.
Miss T wants a neatly finished up style. Which
of the following styles is best suited for her?
a. French Twist Hairstyle
b. Laced-up and Elegant Hairstyle
c. Chignon
d. Petal and Blooms Hairstyle
29) Which of the following makeup does she
need?
a. Day make-up
b. Evening make-up
c. Photographic make-up
d. Theatrical/Fantasy make-up
30) Miss T has short nails. What nail shape is
best for her?
a. Round nail
b. Oval nail
c. Square nail
d. Pointed nail
31) Which of these are implements?
a. chair, manicure pillow, and finger bowl
b. assorted colored polish, top coat, base
coat, and cuticle remover
c. cuticle pusher, nail brush, cuticle nipper,
nail file and orange wood stick
d. cotton, hand towel, antiseptic solution,
alcohol, and nail polish remover
32) Which of these are cosmetics?
a. cotton, hand towel, antiseptic solution,
alcohol, and nail polish remover
b. top coat, base coat, assorted colored polish
and cuticle remover
c. finger bowl, manicure pillow, and chair
d. orange wood stick, cuticle pusher, cuticle
nipper, nail file and nail brush
33) Which of these are equipment?
a. cuticle remover, base coat, top coat, and
assorted colored polish
b. cuticle nipper, nail file, nail brush, orange
wood stick and cuticle pusher
c. hand towel, nail polish remover, and
antiseptic solution
d. manicure pillow, chair, and finger bowl
34) Which of these is the correct way to use
cuticle nail file?
a. The pointed side is used to push back and
moisten the cuticles.
b. The dull spade side is used to scrape and
moisten the cuticles.
c. The pointed side is used to push back and
remove the cuticles.
d. The dull spade side is used to push back
and loosen the cuticles.
35) Which of these is the correct way to use
nail brush? Insert the ring finger and pinky in
the nail brush handle and brush the nails with
a _________.
a. downward motion from the base to the
fingertips to clean the nails and fingers.
b. sideward motion from the base to the
fingertips to clean the nails and fingers.
c. upward motion from the base to the
fingertips to clean the nails and fingers.
d. sawing motion from the base to the
fingertips to clean the nails and fingers.
36) Which is created by allowing the nail to
grow out straight and then filing the tip straight
across at right angles with the rest of the nail
plate?
a. round nail
b. square nail
c. pointed nail
d. oval nail
37) Massage is part of manicuring and
pedicuring services. When is a massage
applied? Before _________.
a. removing old polish
b. coloring polish
c. base coat
d. top coat
38) Which of the following is the last step in
manicuring/pedicuring?
a. apply top coat
b. clean under free edge
c. re-examine nails and cuticles
d. dry fingertips
39) Which of these is an imaginative and
artistic process of caring for the nails and
toenails, involving special care and expertise
for bringing out the best effects?
a. nail tattoo
b. nail art
c. nail extender
d. nail technician
40) Which of the following statement is c. I and III
CORRECT? d. I and IV
a. Adult fingernails grow at an average rate of 46) In shaping the nails, what comes first?
1/8 inch a month. a. Hold the client's finger between the thumb
b. Older people nail grow slowly than younger and the two fingers of the left hand.
people. b. Hold the file or emery board in the right
c. Fingernails grow more easily than toenails. hand and tilt it slightly so that filling is confined
d. The rate of nail growth is greatest during mainly to the underside of the free edge.
winter. c. Discuss with the client the nail shape best
41) Which is the technical term for nail? suited for him/her. File the nails at the left
a. Onyx hand starting with the little finger and working
b. Onychosis towards the thumb.
c. Onychology d. Shape the nails.
d. Keratin 47) Teacher F is a MAPEH teacher.
42) Which refer to hand-held tools used in Sometimes or most of the time she is exposed
manicure which are durable and must be to the sunlight. What type of skin protection
sanitized after use with each client? should she apply?
a. Cosmetics a. face toners
b. Equipment b. anti-aging body creams
c. Materials c. body mask
d. Implements d. SPF lotion
43) Which of the following term refers to a 48) Which of the following drinks can she take
light, continuous stroking movement applied to hydrate herself?
with the fingers and palms in a slow and a. soft drinks
rhythmic manner? b. gatorade
a. friction c. cobra juice
b. vibration d. plain water
c. petrissage 49) Which part of the body is best for the color
d. effleurage testing of a foundation?
44) It is not good to apply massage when a a. earlobe
person has _________. b. jawline
a. high blood pressure and heart condition c. nose
b. mayoma and diabetic d. cheek
c. deliver a baby 50) Which aids in maintaining face?
d. cancer a. face cleansers
45) If you are going to start a home service as b. face toners
a manicurist/pedicurist and your parents give c. face lotions
you ₱500.00 to start with, which equipment, d. face serums
implements, cosmetics and materials should 51) Which one helps to moisturize the face to
you buy first? return lost moisture and hydrate the skin to
I. Nail cutter, nail pusher, cuticle nipper, slow down the skin's aging process?
assorted nail polish, base coat, and top coat a. anti-aging face creams
II. Solvent, lotion, cuticle oil, and nail art b. face toners
designs c. face exfoliators
III. Tray basket, emery board, orangewood d. face cream
stick, nail brush, nail file, and nail polish
remover 52) Which among the following would be the
IV. Finger bowl, manicure pillows, hand towel, first step in giving facial?
antiseptic solution, and nail buffer a. apply cleansing cream
b. apply treatment mask
a. I only c. apply moisturizer
b. I and II d. apply massage cream
53) Which of the following statement is NOT a
concern in analyzing the client's skin? If the
_________.
a. skin is dry, normal, or oily
b. shape of the face
c. lines or creases exist
d. skin texture is smooth or rough
54) Which of the following is NOT beneficial
for facial treatments?
a. Softening and improving skin texture and
complexion
b. Helping prevent the formation of wrinkles
and aging lines
c. weakening muscle tissue
d. correcting skin disorders
55) Which of the following is a common skin
disorder caused by the formation of
sebaceous matter within or under the skin?
a. blackheads
b. whiteheads
c. pimples
d. acne
56) Which of the following facial is
recommended for dry, scaly skin, or skin that
is inclined to wrinkles?
a. plain facial
b. packs and masks
c. facial for dry
d. hot oil mask facial
57) Mitch has acne problem so she went to a
cosmetologist for an advice, though she is
under medical care. What would be the role of
the cosmetologist?
a. Work closely with the client's physician to
carry out instructions as to the kind and
frequency of facial treatments.
b. Advice the client to stop the medication
from the physician.
c. She can have her own separate medication
aside from the physician.
d. Refuse and do not give further service.
58) Under medical direction, the following are
the measures of limitation in cosmetic
treatment for acne, EXCEPT:
a. Remove blackheads using proper
procedures
b. Reduce the oiliness of the skin by local
application
c. Apply moisturizer
d. Clean the face
59) What kind of cosmetic is used to set the
foundation, giving a matte finish, and also to
conceal small flaws or blemishes?
a. powder
b. lipstick
c. eyeliner
d. blush
60) Which of the following provides the
backdrop for the entire colorful facial make-up
artistry?
a. concealer
b. blush
c. cheek color
d. foundation
61) How is highlight produced for corrective
make-up? A highlight is produced when:
a. a darker foundation than the original one is
applied to a particular part of the face
b. a lighter shade than the original one is
applied to a particular part of the face
c. a medium shade similar to the original one
is applied to a particular part of the face
d. a shadow subdues or minimizes prominent
features
62) What must one remember in giving facial
manipulations to induce relaxation?
a. routine
b. tempo
c. pressure
d. skin type
63) A client comes into the salon for a scalp
treatment. She has some obvious abrasions
on her scalp. Which treatment would be
acceptable?
a. Apply an antiseptic scalp treatment with
minimum massage.
b. Apply an oil treatment with a heat cap.
c. Advise the client of her scalp condition and
reschedule her appointment.
d. Give a first aid treatment and proceed with
manipulations.
64) Mika noticeably has gray hairs but she is
only 11 years old and she is not an albino.
What may be the cause of gray hairs at this
early age?
a. Lack of sleep and overexposed to
computers.
b. She has serious illness.
c. She has defects in pigment formation
occurring at birth.
d. A result of the natural aging process of 71) The following are some myths about hair
humans. growth, EXCEPT:
65) Who is an albino? A person born with a. Close clipping, shaving, trimming, cutting,
_________. or singeing has an effect on the rate of hair
a. an hypertrichosis or superfluous hair, an growth.
abnormal development of hair b. The application of oils increases hair
b. an absence of coloring matter in the hair growth.
shaft, which is accompanied by no marked of c. Hair grows after death.
pigment coloring in the skin or irises of the d. Normal, healthy hair grows and sheds each
eyes follicle repeatedly cycles through three stages.
c. androgenetic alopecia 72) Cutting the hair for a graduated effect is
d. a small involuntary muscle attached to the called _________.
underside of a hair follicle a. taped haircutting
66) What type of haircutting is done when one b. wedge haircutting
holds the shears at an angle to the hair strand c. sectioning
other than 90 degrees? d. barbering
a. blunt cut 73) Which of the following is an art of creating
b. beveled cut curls or weaving?
c. graduated cut a. Hairstyling
d. undercutting b. Thermal styling
67) Which of the following safety measures in c. Hair setting
haircutting is NOT true? d. Traditional finger waving
a. Always palm the shears when combing the 74) Which is done to increase the circulation
hair. of the blood to the scalp, rest and soothe the
b. When cutting bangs or any area close to nerves, stimulate the muscles and the activity
the skin. of the scalp glands?
c. Beginners should always use a guard when a. Shampooing
razor cutting. b. Hair treatment
d. Cut past the second knuckle when cutting c. Scalp manipulation
on the inside of the hand. d. Rebonding
68) Which is an art of arranging the hair with 75) Which is the correct way to remove
attractive shapes and styles? tangles from the hair before hairstyling.
a. Hairstyling a. Crown
b. Hair trimming b. Forehead
c. Curling c. Nape of the neck
d. Waving d. Back of the head
69) David cut the hair of Miss P. David just did 76) Under normal circumstances, how many
partially wet and partially dry of Miss P's hair. strands of hair does an average person shed
What would be the result of Miss P's hair? per day?
a. Even a. 20-50
b. Uneven b. 40-100
c. Perfect c. 80-120
d. Curly d. 150-200
70) Following a haircut, when is texturizing 77) Hair is distributed all over the body,
performed most effectively? EXCEPT:
a. On dry hair styled the way it will typically be a. Soles of the feet
worn. b. earlobe
b. At the shampoo bowl after the conditioner is c. hands
applied. d. eyes
c. On soaking wet hair that has been brushed. ANSWERS:
d. On moderately damp hair prior to styling.
1. B 54. C
2. D 55. B
3. A 56. D
4. D 57. A
5. B 58. C
6. C 59. A
7. B 60. D
8. A 61. B
9. B 62. B
10. C 63. C
11. C 64. C
12. B 65. B
13. C 66. B
14. A 67. D
15. B 68. A
16. A 69. B
17. C 70. A
18. A 71. D
19. C 72. A
20. B 73. C
21. D 74. C
22. B 75. C
23. D 76. B
24. B 77. A
25. C
26. C
27. B
28. B
29. C
30. A
31. C
32. B
33. D
34. D
35. A
36. B
37. C
38. A
39. B
40. A
41. A
42. D
43. D
44. A
45. C
46. C
47. D
48. D
49. B
50. A
51. D
52. A
53. B

TLE – DRAFTING
1. When a designer or an ordinary person
translates his or her own design idea
with the use of paper and pencil, what
is the name of the activity?
a. Architectural delineation
b. Freehand Sketching
c. Geometric Construction
d. Drafting
2. After two dimensional drawings are
done and all the shapes and sizes being
laid-out, the next step to be executed
to complete the process is_.
a. Dimensioning
b. Tolerancing
c. Specifications
d. Sectional Drawing
3. With the help of drawing instruments
such as T-square and triangles, one
produces quick and accurate
delineations for an intended project.
The process is considered as:
a. Drafting
b. Pictorial Drawing
c. Graphics
d. Shape and Size Descriptions
4. Technical drafting involves the
manipulation of the elements of
geometry to make accurate description
of shapes. Which term is referred to by
engineering’s and drafting professionals
all over world?
a. Blueprint Reading
b. Geometric Construction
c. Line Weight
d. Measurement
5. Objects to be drawn are not always
solid in nature and if we want to explain
complex objects to the reader of our
blueprints we need an imaginary cut
through the component or an assembly
drawing to portray exactly what is
inside. This element is called:
a. Sectioning
b. Parallel Perspective
c. Etching
d. Dimensioning
6. To make drawings look more
professional, the notes, dimensions,
and other specifications must be
professionally executed. In manual
drafting this is called:
a. Lettering by the hand
b. Scaling
c. Drawing of views
d. Legibility
7. In various engineering fields, multiple
line weights are being to emphasize
areas of drawing. It is also standardized
in order for a uniform interpretation
drawing. The term is called:
a. Horizontal Line
b. Center line
c. Alphabet lines
d. Dimensioning
8. It is about placing units of measure to
the height, width, and length of an
object to convey accurate instructions
to part. In old English it is called
“dimensions”. IN drafting this means:
a. Tolerance
b. Datum
c. axis
d. dimensioning
9. Which is a method of representing the
exact shape and size of an object drawn
to scale on “set of planes” which
sometimes are called planes of
projection? It is also known as 3-view
drawing.
a. Orthographic Projection
 b. Perspective Construction d. Waist line
c. Isometric Drawing 15. Of the many styles of letters, the most
d. Fourth Dimension commonly used are script or italics,
10. Which technique in pictorial drawing gothic, old English and roman. Which of
appears like 3-dimensional but the lines them is most commonly used in college
are exactly 30 degrees from horizontal diploma?
part of the object? a. Roman
a. Isometric Drawing b. Script or italics
b. Cabinet Drawing c. Old English
c. Oblique Drawing d. Gothic
d. Perspective Drawing 16. Time is gold so a drafter must not get
11. As far as the appearance of the drawing into a habit of making excessively time-
is concerned, it is the most important consuming letters. Single-stroke letters
part for the usefulness of the drawing it are advised with:
can be ruined if it is done carelessly: a. Rapidity of stroke
a. Painting b. Sloppiness
b. Lettering c. Laziness
c. Etching d. Free and natural
d. Calligraphy 17. A grade 9 student understood that the
12. There are six secrets of lettering Roman letters consist of thick and thin
namely: form, proportion, stability, lines and was asking to him. What were
density, and spacing. Identify the sixth those small thin lines at the end of
secret by completing the adage: “A every letter except O? in the drafting
good draft man will never letter without field the lines are called:
use of: a. Serifs
a. Line b. Stem
b. Guidelines c. Dash line
c. Horizontal lines d. Ditto
d. Border lines 18. Prior to the introduction of Computer
13. Five guidelines are accepted in the Aided Design and Drafting there are
drafting field. Which of them are laid- tools in lettering which are made of
out to touch the capital letter c aside either plastic or aluminum on which the
from the base line? drafter just traced the letters using a
a. Base line technical pen to produce each letter.
b. Cap line The instrument is called:
c. Drop line a. Lettering template
d. Waist line b. Lettering box
14. Which of these are positioned to limit c. Leroy guide
letter g aside from waist line? d. Pressure sensitive guide
a. Base line 19. For beginning drafters the suggested
b. Cap line height of letters to practice first is 6mm
c. Drop line and then shift to a height of:
 a. 30mm d. invisible Line
b. 3mm 24. There are six principal views of an
c. 1mm object, TV, FV and RSV, RV, LSV, BV.
d. 50mm Which the views are accepted by the
20. In the field of Drafting, each line has a industry as standard multi-views
specific meaning. This is to establish a according to the 3rd angle projection?
uniform way when interpreting a. Top view, front view, and right
complex blueprints of objects and other side view
mega projects. These lines are called: b. Side view, bottom view, and
a. Alphabet of Lines rear view
b. Alpha numeric of Lines c. Right side view, left side view,
c. Language of Lines and bottom view
d. Lines of Sight d. Front view, rear view and side
21. Based on the Blueprint, machinist is view
about to drill a 16mm diameter hole on 25. A group of students is experimenting on
a piece of 100mmx120mm flat bar. views in orthographic projection. They
Which line in the alphabet of lines must extract first the front view of a simple
he look for first? object using a transparent material as
a. Hidden Line discussed by their teacher. What
b. Phantom Line technique are they using?
c. Center Line a. Glass box technique
d. Section Line b. Onion skin technique
22. When drawing the different views in c. Japanese paper technique
orthographic projection, a drafter must d. Polycarbonate technique
acknowledge that there are hidden 26. Orthographic projection goes farther
edges that must be emphasized in order than right angle. A drafter can actually
to produce complete drawing extract views for more details of the
information. Which line is he going to object provided that the projectors are
use? parallel to each other and normal to the
a. Hidden Line plane of projection. The additional
b. Section Line plane is called:
c. Center Line a. Frontal plane
d. Object Line b. Auxiliary plane
23. A drawing teacher on a local high school c. Profile plane
was discussing a feature on which the d. Horizontal plane
surface appears to have imaginary cut
along the cutting plane line. Which line 27. All of objects have distinct limits which
is she going to apply to the surface can be considered as the width, depth,
where the cutting plane cut through? and height. So when a drafter is
a. Center Line working on the difference in elevation
b. Dimension Line between any two points, measured as
c. Section line the perpendicular distance between a
 pair of horizontal lines, he is now 32. Which technique is commonly used
engaged in the_ of the object? around the world as a graphic method
a. Depth or representing a 3- dimensional object
b. Height and intended to combine the illusion of
c. Width depth, with the undistorted
d. Bottom presentation of the object’s principal
28. When an engineer is engaged in the dimension?
preparation of views prior to formal a. Cavalier oblique
drafting activities, he practically bases b. Isometric drawing
his information on actual and accurate c. Cabinet oblique
observation. This process is regarded d. General oblique
as: 33. When an observer stands in the middle
a. Pencil and paper exercise of a street, the end of the street seems
b. Glass box technique to narrow as far as his eyes can see.
c. Orthographic sketch Then he tries to draw the buildings as it
d. Order drawing appears on his visual observations. The
29. After all the views are given, the drafter process is called_.
must now work on the real form of the a. Perspective drawing
objects based on actual result of the b. Isometric drawing
orthographic projection. This process is c. Diametric drawing
called: d. Cabinet drawing
a. Pictorial drawing 34. A student in drafting has done three
b. Depth dimensioning views; his next task is to indicate the
c. Height dimensioning dimensions to complete the
d. Center dimensioning information. What is the distance of the
30. In isometric drawings, the angle used first dimension from the views?
to aid the construction of the object is a. 1”
30 degrees and all vertical line are b. 2”
equal lengths or scale but in oblique c. 1/8”
drawing the angle used is: d. ½”
a. 40 degrees 35. There is a good reason why we should
b. 45 degrees not place dimensions directly on the
c. 30 degrees itself. This is to avoid_
d. 60 degrees a. Super dimensioning
31. In oblique drawing, the depth of the b. Overcrowding of dimensions
object is reduced to ½ in case of cabinet c. Inaccurate dimensions
oblique, ¾ in case of a general oblique, d. Aligned dimension
and true or same measurement in: 36. The radius of an arc should always be
a. Width specified by the drafter in the form of a
b. Cavalier symbol which denotes_.
c. Specific a. R
d. Object b. r
 c. rad
d. ra
37. It is important to the drafting students
to place the overall dimension of a part
or view to appear more pleasing to the
reader. It is placed starting from the_.
a. Shortest dimension line outside
the view
b. Longest dimension line outside
the views
c. Longer dimension inside the
view
d. Shorter dimension inside the
view
38. Some drafter often place dimensions
every while the maybe permitted in
some drafting classes let us keep in
mind that these are repetitions and can
be avoided. This is referred to as_.
a. Superfluous dimension
b. Unidirectional dimensioning
c. Aligned dimensioning
d. Tolerance dimensioning
39. In the rule of sectional drawing, all
visible edges exposed by the cutting-
plane line must be emphasized and
series of lines can now be drawn. This
process is called_.
a. Filling-up of section lines
b. Eliminating hidden lines
c. Eliminating object lines
d. Symmetrical objects
40. There are situations in executing
sectional drawings that every drafter
must be familiar with especially when
dealing with blow-up part of an object.
We find this very reasonable with tiny
and complicated parts. This refers to_.
a. Detail sections or spot details
b. Dual dimensioning
c. Aligned objects
d. Isometric objects
41. For a professional looking section detail,
which additional feature shall a drafter
include to really portray the drawing?
a. Line symbols
b. Common section line symbols
for materials
c. Material line weight
d. Symmetric object line
42. There are several types of section- a full
section which the cutting plane line
passes across entire object and half
section on which the cutting plane
passes through an object which is_.
a. Symmetrical
b. Orthographic
c. Offset drawing
d. Common section
43. When a section is to be detailed
according to the intended parts,
assembly is called_.
a. Assembly of parts
b. Assembly section
c. Assembly of materials
d. Assembly of common section
44. The world has adopted the metric
system of dimensioning but some
countries used it voluntarily depending
on the situation they practice. What is
the name of their approach?
a. Unidirectional system
b. Dual dimensioning system
c. Aligned system
d. Position dimensioning
45. A third-world country even for its stage
can’t neglect drafting as part of its
industrial pursuit is it manual,
mechanized, or automated. So a citizen
of a third world country must have the
necessary skill in the use of:
a. Graphic or drafting language
b. Foreign language
c. Sign language
 d. English language
46. Mr. John cross purchased a 12.00m x
9.00m (frontal) land along the road.
Local building code mandated that the
building must have a set-back of 3.00m
with respect to the edge of the paved
barangay road. What then is the total
area of the land minus the building
code?
a. 80 square meters
b. 81 square meters
c. 90 square meters
d. 79.90 square meters
47. Grade 10 students from a local central
school in the North wanted to build a
square culvert with one side open for
an irrigation system. The dimensions
are; w=80, d=1.20, h =.80m, and the
thickness is .80m. What then is the set
of drawings they need before giving it
to an engineer to determine the size of
reinforcement bars?
a. Top view, front view, right side
view, isometric
b. Top view, front view, bottom
view, isometric
c. Top view, front view, rear view,
isometric
d. Top view, side view
48. A half-moon protractor is divided into
how many degrees?
a. 360
b. 180
c. 270
d. 310
49. A line drawn with a long section, short
dash, and another long section is a_.
a. Hidden feature
b. Center of a circle
c. Center axis of a hidden cylinder
d. Center of a radius
50. Traditional drafters need to be able to
create several different line widths
because_.
a. Different line widths convey
different information
b. The line width has to with how
dark it appear in the finished
drawing
c. They seem to transmit better in
a fax machine
d. It makes no difference
51. Several of the tools used in traditional
drafting include the following:
a. Parallel straight edge
b. 45 degrees triangle
c. Circle template
d. All the above
52. A civil engineer working on a bridge
design would probably rely on his _
scale for checking printed drawings.
a. Engineer’s
b. Metric
c. Architect’s
d. None of the above
53. In order to connect fractional inches
into decimal inches_____.
a. Look on a metric conversion
chart
b. Divide the numerator by the
denominator
c. Check the engineer’s scale
d. All of the above
54. An engineer would be used to measure
lines on a drawing where the scale
factor reads _____.
a. ¼” = 1’ – 0”
b. 1/8” = 1’ =0”
c. 1” = 100’
d. ¾”= 1’ 0”
55. Referring to the fractional inches to
decimal inches to millimeter conversion
 chart on page 55 what is the equivalent d. ISO international units
mm measurement of 3/16 inch? 61. This is how axonometric, oblique, and
a. 1.906 perspective sketches show objects:
b. 4.7625 a. Orthographically
c. 5.958 b. Pictorially
d. 14.6844 c. Obliquely
56. Some traditional board drafter d. Parallel
preferred the drafting machine over the 62. This type of projection is when
parallel straight edge because it could projectors are parallel to each other,
be used without the need for _____. but are at an angle other than 90
a. Circle template degrees to the plane of projection:
b. Triangles a. Oblique projection
c. Technical pens b. Perpendicular projection
d. Lettering guides c. Aesthetic projection
57. The first step in creating a traditional d. Angular projection
technical drawing is to;_______ 63. There are two main types of projection:
a. Draw a series of guidelines a. Parallel and orthographic
b. Set up the miter line b. Station-point and perspective
c. Align the paper so that it will be c. Parallel and convergent
positioned square to the d. Perspective and parallel
parallel bar 64. The top, front, and bottom and views
d. Sharpen the leads in the align in this manner.
technical pen a. Horizontally
58. When lettering a CAD drawing, for b. Vertically
clarity you should limit the number of c. According to the planar views
fonts to: d. Parallel to the frontal plane
a. One 65. If a plane is parallel to the plane of
b. Two projection, it appears;
c. Three a. True size
d. Any number b. As a line or edge
59. The primary unit of measurement for c. Foreshortened
engineering drawings and design in the d. As an oblique surface
mechanical industries is the: 66. This line pattern is composed of three
a. millimeter dashes, one long dash on each end with
b. centimeter a short dash in the middle:
c. meter a. Object
d. kilometer b. Hidden
60. These units are based on inch-foot and c. Center
yard measurements: d. Phantom
a. international customary units 67. This is the plane upon which the top
b. U.S. metric units view is projected:
c. U.S. customary units a. Horizontal
 b. Frontal b. Figure what lines are to be
c. Profile illustrated vertical and
d. Base horizontal
68. An advance of this type of view is that c. Position isometric drawing in
each view shows the object all the way paper space
through as if it were transparent. d. None of the above
a. Planar 74. The offset tool should only be used for
b. Horizontal placing_____ in an isometric drawing.
c. Auxiliary a. Circles
d. Orthographic b. Horizontal lines
69. This type of surface is tipped to all c. Vertical lines
principal planes of projection and does d. None of the above
not appear true size in any standard 75. When creating an isometric drawing in
view. Auto CAD, the drafter can utilize the
a. Foreshortened Dynamic input and Polar Coordinate
b. Parallel system to place both vertical and
c. Orthographic horizontal lines. A line created from one
d. Oblique point 3 inches at 180 degrees would be
70. Isometric drawings are often used by a _____line.
______to help illustrate complex a. Horizontal
designs. b. Vertical
a. Mechanical engineers c. Inclined
b. Piping drafters d. None of the above
c. Aerospace engineers 76. Auto CAD refers to isometric ellipses as
d. All the above ____
71. A fillet is a rounded surface on the a. Ellipses
___corner of a part. b. Isoellipses
a. Inside c. Isocircle
b. Outside d. Circles
c. Radial 77. These lines are used to indicate the
d. Isoplane measurement of objects and are
72. A round is a rounded surface on the represented by fine dark solid lines.
___corner of part. a) Leader lines
a. Inside b) Extensions lines
b. Outside c) Dimensions lines
c. Radial d) Center lines
d. Isoplane 78. If a drawing has an equal measure then
73. The bounding box method for setting it refers to __________.
up an isometric drawing helps the a) Perspective drawing
drafter____. b) Isometric drawing
a. Confine the isometric drawing c) Mechanical drawing
of its maximum size d) Oblique drawing
79. When parts that are not seen are b) Text letters
represented by series of light dash lines c) Gothic letters
then this line is classified as _________. d) Roman letters
a) Reference line 86. Horizontal lines are best drawn using
b) Visible line this instrument.
c) Section line a) T-square
d) Invisible line b) Ruler
80. One of the best practices of a good c) Meter stick
draftsman is to NEVER letter without d) Triangles
__________. 87. The drawing pencil of a draftsman is
a) Guide lines graded the softest, medium, and
b) Pencil hardest. Which of the following grades
c) Lettering pens is the softest?
d) Ink a) 6B
81. If drawing has one surface that is b) HB
parallel to the picture plane then this c) 3B
method is called ____. d) 9H
a) Oblique drawing 88. Which grade of pencil is commonly
b) Isometric drawing used for lettering by a draftsman?
c) Perspective drawing a) 2H
d) Orthographic drawing b) HB
82. This pictorial view is normally seen by c) 4H
the observer’s eyes. Which one is it? d) 6H
a) Isometric drawing 89. A drawing instrument that serves as
b) Oblique drawing guide in drawing vertical and diagonal
c) Perspective drawing lines as in triangles. It is generally used
d) Orthographic drawing in drawing horizontal lines. Which one
83. The line used to show clearly the is it?
dimension limits as called ____? a) Triangular scale
a) Center line b) T- square
b) Extension line c) Triangle
c) Dimension line d) French curve
d) Phantom line or section line 90. Which is instrument is used in drawing
84. A horizontal line used to determine the curves except circles and arcs?
general height of lower case letters. a) Compass
a) Base line b) Protractor
b) Cap line c) French curve
c) Waist line d) Divider
d) Drop line 91. To completely describe a cone, sphere,
85. Letters that are composed of uniform and rectangular pyramid the number of
width elements are classified as _____. views needed is ______.
a) Italic letters a) One
 b) Two a) Compass
c) Three b) Protractor
d) Six c) Triangles
92. This line is projected as a shorter line in d) Triangular scales
a drawing. 99. This drafting tool is used to protect the
a) Incline line rest of drawing when removing
b) Vertical line unnecessary lines.
c) Curve line a) Erasing shield
d) Horizontal line b) Eraser
93. Boxing method is the most widely used c) Masking tape
method of drawing a/an _____. d) Pencil sharpener
a) Isometric view 100. Best tool when measuring arcs,
b) Pictorial view angles, and circles.
c) Mechanical view a) Eraser
d) Perspective view b) Triangular scale
94. Two intersecting lines which form right c) Protractor
angles are called ____. d) Divider
a) Straight lines
b) Parallel lines
c) Perpendicular lines
d) Tangent lines
95. A polygon is classified according to the
number of sides. What do you call a
four – sided polygon?
a) Pentagon
b) Quadrilateral
c) Hexagonal
d) Octagon
96. How many meters is thirty feet?
a) 3 meters
b) 30 meters
c) 12 meters
d) 9 meters
97. Drafting material used for fastening the
drawing paper on the drawing table.
a) Compass
b) Divider
c) Masking tape
d) Triangle
98. The main function of this tool is to
reproduce the measurements of an
object to any size.
1. B

2. A 3. A
4. b 19. b 34. b
5. a 20. a 35. d
6. a 21. c 36. b
7. c 22. c 37. a
8. d 23. c 38. a
9. a 24. a 39. a
10. a 25. a 40. a
11. b 26. b 41. b
12. b 27. c 42. a
13. c 28. c 43. a
14. c 29. c 44. b
15. c 30. b 45. a
16. d 31. c 46. b
17. a 32. b
18. b 33. b
47. a 59. a 71. a
48. b 60. c 72. b
49. c 61. b 73. b
50. a 62. a 74. c
51. d 63. b 75. b
52. a 64. b 76. C
53. b 65. a 77. c
54. c 66. c 78. b
55. b 67. a 79. d
56. b 68. d 80. a
57. c 69. d 81. a
58. b 70. d
82. c 94. c
83. b 95. b
84. c 96. c
85. c 97. c
86. a 98. d
87. a 99. a
88. b 100. c
89. b
90. c
91. b
92. a
93. a