CDI Next

1
CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION
1. An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible

in a court of law if it was made in the presence of a counsel
of his own choice and must be in
A. the presence of a fiscal
B. the presence of a police investigator
C. writing
D. front of a judge
2. Fiscals and Prosecutors are under the control and supervision

of the
A.National Bureau of Investigation
B. Department of the Interior and Local Government
C. Supreme Court
D.Department of Justice
3.The questioning of a person in a formal and systematic way and is

most often used to question criminal suspects to determine their
probable guilt or innocence.
A. Inquiry
B. Interview
C. polygraph examination
D. interrogation
4.A form of investigation in which the investigator assume a

different and unofficial identity.
A. Tailing
B. Casing
C. Espionage
D. Undercover work
5.A type of surveillance in which extreme precautions and actions

are taken in not losing the subject.
A. loose tail
B. casing
C. pony tail
D. close tail
6.A type of shadowing employed when a general impression of the

subject’s habits and associates is required.
A. loose tail
B. casing
C. pony tail
D. close tail
7.A surveillance activity for the purpose of waiting the anticipated

arrival of a suspect or observing his actions from a fixed location.
A. Casing
B. Tailing
C. Stake out
D. Espionage
8.An examination of an individual’s person, houses, or effects or a

building, or premises with the purpose of discovering contraband's
or personal properties connected in a crime.
A. Search
B. Raid
C. Investigation
D. Seizure
9.A kind of evidence that tends to prove additional evidence of a

different character to the same point.
A. Corroborative evidence
B. Circumstantial evidence
C. Direct evidence
D. Real evidence
2
10.The process of bringing together in a logical manner all evidence

collected during the investigation and present it to the
prosecutor.
A. case preparation
B. order maintenance
C. crime prevention
D. public service
11.Ways and means are resorted for the purpose of trapping and
capturing the law breaker during the execution of a criminal act.
A. Instigation
B. Inducement
C. Buy bust operation
D. Entrapment
12.A special qualification for an undercover agent.

A. excellent built
B. excellent eyesight
C. excellent looks
D. excellent memory
13.The discreet observation of places, persons and vehicles for the

purpose of obtaining information concerning the identities or
activities of suspects.
A. close observation
B. espionage
C. tailing
D. surveillance
14. The questioning of a person by law enforcement officers after

that person has been taken into custody.
A. preliminary investigation
B. interrogation
C. custodial investigation
D. cross examination
15.As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can be served at

A. day time
B. night time
C. any day and at any time of the day or night
D. weekdays
16.Measures through which police seek to detect crimes, or

attempts to be present when they are committed, through the
use of the undercover agents, electronic devices for wiretapping
or bugging, and stakeouts.
A. preventive measures
B. countermeasures
C. pro-active measures
D. tape measures
17.A police activity directed toward the identification and

apprehension of alleged criminals and the accumulation,
preservation, and presentation of evidence regarding their
alleged crimes.
A. police patrol
B. police intelligence
C. Criminal procedure
D. Criminal investigation
18.An extension or continuation of the preliminary investigation.

A. initial investigation
B.custodial investigation
C.secondary investigation
D.follow-up investigation
19.To obtain admission and confession of guilt is the primary purpose of

3
A. Interview
B. Surveillance
C. Investigation
D.Interrogation
20.Such facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably

discreet and prudent man to believe that an offense has been
committed and that the object sought in connection with the
offense are in the place sought to be searched.
A. prima facie evidence
B. probable cause
C. prejudicial question
D.res ipsa loquitur
21.A search warrant shall be valid for _____ days from its date.
Thereafter, it shall be void.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 30
D. 45
22.It means that a specific crime was committed at a specified time,

date and place, and that the person named in his report
committed the crime.
A. corpus delicti
B. sufficiency of evidence
C. stare decisis
D. parens patriae
23.Police seek to prevent crime by being present in places where

crimes might be committed and by alerting citizens to refrain from
practices that make them or their property vulnerable.
A. opportunity denial
C. criminal investigation
D. police intelligence
24.A statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his guilt.

A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation
25.It may be a direct acknowledgement of the truth of the guilty

fact as charge or of some essential part of the commission of the
criminal act itself.
A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation
26.It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling

short of an acknowledgement of guilt.
A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation
27.The simplest type of interview which concerns with the gathering

of information regarding the personal circumstances of a
person who is the subject of investigation.
A. background interview
B. personal interview
C. intimate interview
D. pre-game interview
28.It means method of operation.

A. corpus delicti
4
B. parens patriae
C. stare decisis
D. modus operandi
29.It is one which induces the criminal to act and need not be
shown in order to obtain conviction.
A. Intent
B. Motive
C. Opportunity
D. Inducement
30.The three tools in criminal investigation, whereby their

application varies in proportion on their necessity to establish
the guilt of the accused in a criminal case.
A. information, interrogation, instrumentation
B. detection, apprehension, conviction ‘
C. inquiry, observation, conclusion
D. magnifying glass, pencil, tape measure
31.The simple questioning of a person who is cooperating in the
investigation.
A. Interview
B. Inquiry
C. Interrogation
D. Instrumentation
32.It involves a number of persons who might have handled
evidence between the time of the commission of the alleged
offense and the disposition of the case, should be kept to
a minimum.
A.chain of command
B.chain of custody
C.evidence tracking
D.tracing evidence
33.A kind of evidence which may link the suspect to the crime scene
or offense. Examples are fingerprints, impressions, blood etc.
A. physical evidence
B. associative evidence
C. tracing evidence
D. factual evidence
34.Articles and materials which are found in connection with an

investigation and which help in establishing the identity of the
perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was
committed or which in general, assist in the prosecution of the
criminal.
B. documentary evidence
C. tracing evidence
D. testimonial evidence
35.The following are different techniques in interrogation except

one:
A. sympathetic approach
B. emotional appeal
C. financial assistance
D. friendliness
36.This may be applicable to a crime scene which is approximately

circular or oval. The searchers gather at the center and proceed
outward along radii or spokes.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method
37.The area to be searched is divided into quadrants and each

searcher is assigned to one quadrant.
A. strip method
5
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method
38.The searchers follow each other in the path of a crime scene

beginning in the outside and circling around a central point.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C.spiral method
D.zone method
39.A kind of gathering information whereby a subject is being

followed.
A. Convoy
B. Caravan
C. Tailing
D. Surveillance
40.Another term for tailing.

A.Impersonating
B.Backing
C.Supporting
D.Shadowing
41.A person who gives necessary information to the investigator.

He may give the information openly and even offer to be a
witness or he may inform the investigator surreptitiously and
request to remain anonymous.
A. Witness
B. Expert witness
C. Hostile witness
D. Informant
42.The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly

conversations of other people.
A. Bugging
B. Dubbing
C. Mimicking
D. Tapping
43.The questioning of persons not suspected of being involved in a

crime,but who knows about the crime or individuals involved in it.
A. Interrogation
B. rumor mongering
C. interview
D. inquiry
44.An objective of criminal investigation.

A. determine the motive
B. identify criminals
C. rehabilitate criminals
D. prevent crimes
45.A term used to describe a transition which occur in the

development of a fire, when, for example, most of all the
combustible surfaces within a room are heated above their
ignition temperature at the same time.
A. Intensity
B. Ignition
C. Flash over
D. Starter
46.A term of the start of the combustion, its detailed process of

a solid is very complicated, since the proportion of different
flammable vapors varies from one material to another and
contact with oxygen must take place before combustion can
begin.
A. Intensity
6
B. Ignition
C. Flash over
D. Starter
47.The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum

in a similar way to that of light.
A. Ignition
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Conduction
48.The transfer of heat within a solid material from hotter to

cooler parts.
A. Ignition
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Conduction
49.The greatest concern of the firemen at the fire/crime scene is to

A. interview witnesses
B. view the site of the crime
C. preserve the fire/crime scene
D. opportunity in the fire/crime scene
50.Most malicious fires are set by individuals secretly; it is

either set for revenge or self aggrandizing; or set by psychotic
fire setter, or for sexual gratification.
A. group fire setter
B. arson for profit
C. fire starter
D. solitary fire setter
51.The primary course of action in case of a fire.

A. pack up and flee
B. run for your life
C. call an ambulance
D. raise the alarm Answer: D
52.The main product of the combustion of carbon. It is not

poisonous but is an asphyxia which lowers the proportion of
oxygen available for breathing.
A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide Answer: D
53.A normal product of combustion, and is poisonous, especially

when the air supply to the fire is restricted.
A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide Answer: B
54.The fire resisting property of structural elements and the

behavior of a building material in a fire, it is used to predict
how long it will resist the effect of a fire before it fails.
A. fire resistance
B. fire duration
C. fire proof
D. fire strength Answer: A
55.A type of fire that is the result of the combustion of certain

metals in finely divided forms; magnesium, potassium, zinc, etc….
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D Answer: D
7
56.A type of fire which results from burning of wood, paper,

textiles, and other carbonaceous materials.Extinguishment of
this fire is by quenching and cooling.
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D Answer: A
57.The following are components of fire except one:

A. Gas
B. Fuel
C. Oxygen
D. Heat Answer: A
58.It is observed in structural fires and can be an indicator of

the fire travel and point of origin.
A. Charring
B. Alligatoring
C. V pattern
D. Pour pattern Answer: A
59.A pattern or network of fine, irregular lines in glass and wood.

A. Crazing
B. Spalling
C. Light bulbs
D. Charring Answer: A
60.A tool employed by an arsonist to delay the start of the fire

and allow him to establish an alibi.
A. Accelerants
B. delaying tactic
C. timing device
D. stopper Answer: C
61.It can be readily identified by their distinctive odors, and the
most common examples are gasoline, turpentine and kerosene.
A. Accelerants
B. Trailers
C. timing device
D. Stopper Answer: A
62.This catalytic combustion device is the most common means

employed to detect flammable vapors.
A. Accelerant
B. Sniffer
C. timing device
D. stopper Answer: B
63.The irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a fire and

experience gratification and satisfaction from it.
A. fire starter syndrome
B. pyrotechnic disease
C. pyromania
D. pyrophobia
Answer: C
64.It is known as the “Fire Code of the Philippines.”

A. PD 1108
B. PD 1017
C. PD 1081
D. PD 1185 Answer: D
65.Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used

to set off explosives.
A. blasting agent
B. blasting cap
C. gun powder
D. explosive primer Answer: A
8
66.These are description of materials or compounds that are

easily set on fire except one:
A. Combustible
B. Corrosive
C. Flammable
D. Inflammable Answer: B
67.Any material having a flash point at or above 37.80 degree

Celsius or 100 degree Fahrenheit.
A. combustible liquid
B. flammable liquid
C. inflammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid Answer: A
68.Any liquid that causes fire when in contact with organic matter.
B. flammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid Answer: A
69.An extremely hot luminous bridge formed by the passage of an

electric current across the space between two conductors.
A. electrical arc
B. damper
C. duct system
D. ember Answer: A
70.The active principle of burning, characterized by the heat

and light combustion.
A. explosion
B. arson
C. combustion
D. fire Answer: D
71.A type of fire, of flammable liquid and gasses.

A. class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D Answer: B
72.A mass movement in a fluid, an example a liquid or a gas where

fluid at one temperature and density moves under the influence
of gravity at different temperatures.
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Combustion Answer: B
73.The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or converted to

vapor.
A. burning point
B. melting point
C. freezing point
D. boiling point Answer: B
74.The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a

collision course or to avoid hazard.
A. point of no return
B. point of no escape
C. start of evasive action
D. final position Answer: C
75.The movement of vehicles, and pedestrians in a road or highway.

A. Traffic
B. Flight
C. Trip
D. Journey Answer: A
9
76.A method of locating a spot in the area by measurements from

two or more reference points.
A. traffic report
B. spot report
C . triangulation
D. accident investigation Answer: C
77.The force that tends to pull all objects to the center of the
earth.
A. Inertia
B. Friction
C. Energy
D. Gravity Answer: D
78.Any motor vehicle accident that results in no death, but only

injuries to one or more persons.
A. Fatal
B. Chronic
C. Non fatal
D. Injurious Answer: B
79.The “Traffic and Land Transportation Code of the Philippines”

A. RA 7160
B. RA 8551
C. RA 6425
D. RA 4136 Answer: D
80.An occurrence in a sequence of events, which usually produces

unintended injury, death or property damage.
A. traffic incidents
B. traffic accidents
C. traffic hazards
D. traffic events Answer: B
81.Any motor vehicle accident occurring on a traffic way.

A. non motor vehicle traffic accident
B. non motor vehicle non-traffic accident
C. motor vehicle non-traffic accident
D. motor vehicle traffic accident Answer: D
82.An order wherein a violator is commanded to appear in court,

but without detaining him.
A. traffic citation
B. traffic request
C. traffic warrant
D. D. traffic violation Answer: A
83.The first accidental touching of an object collision course

or otherwise avoid a hazard.
A. primary contact
B. secondary contact
C. disengagement
D. initial contact Answer: D
84.The following are the three E’s of Traffic Management and

Operation except one:
A. Engineering
B. Education
C. Enforcement
D. Evaluation Answer: D
85.The “Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.”

A. RA 9870
B. RA 9165
C. RA 1017
D. RA 6195 Answer: B
86.Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying emotional

10
change, thought disruption and ego distortion. They are called

psychedelics.
A. Tranquillizers
B. Hallucinogens
C. Stimulants
D. Depressants Answer: B
87.Drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or
dullness of the mind with delusions.
A. Stimulants
B. Narcotics
C. Depressants
D. Hallucinogens Answer: B
88.The practice or profession of having sexual intercourse for

money or profit.
A. Gynecology
B. Prostitution
C. White Slavery
D. Sex Trade Answer: B
89.The scientific name of Indian hemp plant.

A. cannabis sativa L
B. Papaver somniforum
C. deoxyribonucleic acid
D. methamphetamine HCl Answer: A
90.The original components of heroin and morphine.

A. Codeine
B. Caffeine
C. Opium
D. Methamphetamine Answer: C
91.An inter department agency that enforce and carry out the law
against illegal drugs.
A. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
B. Bureau of Foods and Drugs
C. Dangerous Drug Board
D. Food and Drug Administration Answer: A
92.A harmful conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to

depravity, wickedness and corruption of the mind and body.
A. Vice
B. Abuse
C. Addiction
D. Virtue Answer: A
93.The most common form of stimulant.

A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. Shabu Answer: D
94.It is chemically known as methamphetamine hydro chloride.

A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. None of these Answer: D
95.A derivative of opium which is used a cough reliever.

A. Codeine
B. Heroin
C. Morphine
D. Caffeine Answer: A
96.Any part of the plant of the papaver somniferum, including the

seeds.
A. opium poppy
B. marijuana
11
C. caffeine components
D. codeine Answer: A
97.Another term for psychological drug addiction.

A. drug habituation
B. drug net consciousness
C. drug pushing
D. drug dependence Answer: D
98.Commercially produced drugs that can be legally sold or

dispensed only by a physician’s order.
A. illegal drugs
B. prohibited drugs
C. regulated drugs
D. prescription drugs Answer: D
99.Any chemical substance that by virtue of its chemical nature

alters the structure and functioning of living organism.
A. Alcohol
B. Poison
C. Drug
D. Vice Answer: C
100.It is, in most cases, the initial step for obtaining information
to determine the origin and cause of fire.
A. Evidence collection
B. laboratory examination of evidence
C. interview witnesses
D. interrogation of suspects Answer: C
1. C 41. D
2. D 42. A
3. D 43. C
4. D 44. B
5. D 45. C
6. A 46. B
7. C 47. C
8. A 48. D
9. A 49. C
10. A 50. D
11. D
12. D
13. D
14. B
15. C
16. C
17. D
18. D
19. D
20. B
21. A
22. A
23. A
24. B
25. B
26. A
27. A
28. D
29. B
30. A
31. A
32. A
33. C
34. A
35. C
36. B
37. D
38. C 39. C 40. B
12
13
CRIMINOLOGISTS Licensure Examination

Second Day - 12:30 p.m. – 2:30 p.m.
=================================================================
REVIEW QUESTIONS IN
CRIME DETECTION, INVESTIGATION & PREVENTION SET ONE
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following

questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 1 only.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible

in a court of law if it was made in the presence of a counsel of
his own choice and must be in
A. the presence of a fiscal
B. the presence of a police investigator
C. writing
D. front of a judge
2. Fiscals and Prosecutors are under the control and supervision of

the
A. National Bureau of Investigation
B. Department of the Interior and Local Government
C. Supreme Court
D. Department of Justice
3. The questioning of a person in a formal and systematic way and is

most often used to question criminal suspects to determine their
probable guilt or innocence.
A. Inquiry
B. Interview
C. polygraph examination
D. interrogation
4. A form of investigation in which the investigator assume a

different and unofficial identity.
A. Tailing
B. Casing
C. Espionage
D. Undercover work
5. A type of surveillance in which extreme precautions and actions

are taken in not losing the subject.
A. loose tail
B. casing
C. pony tail
D. close tail
6. A type of shadowing employed when a general impression of the

subject’s habits and associates is required.
A. loose tail
B. casing
C. pony tail
D. close tail
7. A surveillance activity for the purpose of waiting the anticipated

arrival of a suspect or observing his actions from a fixed
location.
A. Casing
B. Tailing
C. Stake out
D. Espionage
8. An examination of an individual’s person, houses, or effects or a

building, or premises with the purpose of discovering contrabands
or personal properties connected in a crime.
14
A. Search
B. Raid
C. Investigation
D. Seizure
9. A kind of evidence that tends to prove additional evidence of a

different character to the same point.
A. Corroborative evidence
B. Circumstantial evidence
C. Direct evidence
D. Real evidence
10. The process of bringing together in a logical manner all evidence

collected during the investigation and present it to the
prosecutor.
A. case preparation
C. crime prevention
D. public service
11. Ways and means are resorted for the purpose of trapping and
capturing the law breaker during the execution of a criminal act.
A. Instigation
B. Inducement
C. Buy bust operation
D. Entrapment
12. A special qualification for an undercover agent.

A. excellent built
B. excellent eyesight
C. excellent looks
D. excellent memory
13. The discreet observation of places, persons and vehicles for the
purpose of obtaining information concerning the identities or
activities of suspects.
A. close observation
B. espionage
C. tailing
D. surveillance
14. The questioning of a person by law enforcement officers after that

person has been taken into custody.
A. preliminary investigation
B. interrogation
C. custodial investigation
D. cross examination
15. As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can be served at
A. day time
B. night time
C. any day and at any time of the day or night
D. weekdays
16. Measures through which police seek to detect crimes, or attempts

to be present when they are committed, through the use of the
undercover agents, electronic devices for wiretapping or bugging,
and stakeouts.
A. preventive measures
B. countermeasures
C. pro-active measures
D. tape measures
17. A police activity directed toward the identification and

apprehension of alleged criminals and the accumulation,
preservation, and presentation of evidence regarding their alleged
crimes.
A. police patrol
B. police intelligence
C. Criminal procedure
15
D. Criminal investigation
18. An extension or continuation of the preliminary investigation.

A. initial investigation
B. custodial investigation
C. secondary investigation
D. follow-up investigation
19. To obtain admission and confession of guilt is the primary purpose

of
A. Interview
B. Surveillance
C. Investigation
D. Interrogation
20. Such facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably discreet
and prudent man to believe that an offense has been committed and
that the object sought in connection with the offense are in the
place sought to be searched.
A. prima facie evidence
B. probable cause
C. prejudicial question
D. res ipsa loquitur
21. A search warrant shall be valid for _____ days from its
date. Thereafter, it shall be void.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 30
D. 45
22. It means that a specific crime was committed at a specified time,

date and place, and that the person named in his report committed
the crime.
A. corpus delicti
B. sufficiency of evidence
C. stare decisis
D. parens patriae
23. Police seek to prevent crime by being present in places where

crimes might be committed and by alerting citizens to refrain from
practices that make them or their property vulnerable.
A. opportunity denial
C. criminal investigation
D. police intelligence
24. A statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his guilt.

A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation
25. It may be a direct acknowledgement of the truth of the guilty fact

as charge or of some essential part of the commission of the
criminal act itself.
A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation
26. It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling

short of an acknowledgement of guilt.
A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
16
D. Accusation
27. The simplest type of interview which concerns with the gathering
of information regarding the personal circumstances of a person
who is the subject of investigation.
A. background interview
B. personal interview
C. intimate interview
D. pre-game interview
28. It means method of operation.

A. corpus delicti
B. parens patriae
C. stare decisis
D. modus operandi
29. It is one which induces the criminal to act and need not be shown
in order to obtain conviction.
A. Intent
B. Motive
C. Opportunity
D. Inducement
30. The three tools in criminal investigation, whereby their

application varies in proportion on their necessity to establish
the guilt of the accused in a criminal case.
A. information, interrogation, instrumentation
B. detection, apprehension, conviction‘
C. inquiry, observation, conclusion
D. magnifying glass, pencil, tape measure
31. The simple questioning of a person who is cooperating in the

investigation.
A. Interview
B. Inquiry
C. Interrogation
D. Instrumentation
32. It involves a number of persons who might have handled evidence

between the time of the commission of the alleged offense and the
disposition of the case, should be kept to a minimum.
A. chain of command
B. chain of custody
C. evidence tracking
D. tracing evidence
33. A kind of evidence which may link the suspect to the crime scene
or offense. Examples are fingerprints, impressions, blood etc.
B. associative evidence
C. tracing evidence
D. factual evidence
34. Articles and materials which are found in connection with an

investigation and which help in establishing the identity of the
perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was
committed or which in general, assist in the prosecution of the
criminal.
B. documentary evidence
C. tracing evidence
D. testimonial evidence
35. The following are different techniques in interrogation except

one:
A. sympathetic approach
B. emotional appeal
C. financial assistance
D. friendliness
17
36. This may be applicable to a crime scene which is approximately

circular or oval. The searchers gather at the center and proceed
outward along radii or spokes.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method
37. The area to be searched is divided into quadrants and each

searcher is assigned to one quadrant.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method
38. The searchers follow each other in the path of a crime scene
beginning in the outside and circling around a central point.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method
39. A kind of gathering information whereby a subject is being

followed.
A. Convoy
B. Caravan
C. Tailing
D. Surveillance
40. Another term for tailing.

A. Impersonating
B. Backing
C. Supporting
D. Shadowing
41. A person who gives necessary information to the investigator.

He may give the information openly and even offer to be a witness
or he may inform the investigator surreptitiously and request to
remain anonymous.
A. Witness
B. Expert witness
C. Hostile witness
D. Informant
42. The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly

conversations of other people.
A. Bugging
B. Dubbing
C. Mimicking
D. Tapping
43. The questioning of persons not suspected of being involved in a

crime, but who knows about the crime or individuals involved in
it.
A. Interrogation
B. rumor mongering
C. interview
D. inquiry
44. An objective of criminal investigation.

A. determine the motive
B. identify criminals
C. rehabilitate criminals
D. prevent crimes
45. A term used to describe a transition which occur in the

development of a fire, when, for example, most of all the
18
combustible surfaces within a room are heated above their ignition

temperature at the same time.
A. Intensity
B. Ignition
C. Flash over
D. Starter
46. A term of the start of the combustion, its detailed process of

a solid is very complicated, since the proportion of different
flammable vapours varies from one material to another and contact
with oxygen must take place before combustion can begin.
A. Intensity
B. Ignition
C. Flash over
D. Starter
47. The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum
in a similar way to that of light.
A. Ignition
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Conduction
48. The transfer of heat within a solid material from hotter to

cooler parts.
A. Ignition
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Conduction
49. The greatest concern of the firemen at the fire/crime scene is

to
A. interview witnesses
B. view the site of the crime
C. preserve the fire/crime scene
D. phot opportunity in the fire/crime scene
50. Most malicious fires are set by individuals secretly; it is either

set for revenge or self aggrandizing; or set by psychotic fire
setter, or for sexual gratification.
A. group fire setter
B. arson for profit
C. fire starter
D. solitary fire setter
51. The primary course of action in case of a fire.

A. pack up and flee
B. run for your life
C. call an ambulance
D. raise the alarm
52. The main product of the combustion of carbon. It is not poisonous

but is an asphyxiant which lowers the proportion of oxygen
available for breathing.
A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide
53. A normal product of combustion, and is poisonous, especially

when the air supply to the fire is restricted.
A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide
54. The fire resisting property of structural elements and the

behavior of a building material in a fire, it is used to predict
how long it will resist the effect of a fire before it fails.
19
A. fire resistance
B. fire duration
C. fire proof
D. fire strength
55. A type of fire that is the result of the combustion of certain

metals in finely divided forms; magnesium, potassium, zinc, etc….
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D
56. A type of fire which results from burning of wood, paper,

textiles, and other carbonaceous materials. Extinguishment of
this fire is by quenching and cooling.
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D
57. The following are components of fire except one:

A. Gas
B. Fuel
C. Oxygen
D. Heat
58. It is observed in structural fires and can be an indicator of

the fire travel and point of origin.
A. Charring
B. Alligatoring
C. V pattern
D. Pour pattern
59. A pattern or network of fine, irregular lines in glass and

wood.
A. Crazing
B. Spalling
C. Light bulbs
D. Charring
60. A tool employed by an arsonist to delay the start of the fire

and allow him to establish an alibi.
A. Accelerants
B. delaying tactic
C. timing device
D. stopper
61. It can be readily identified by their distinctive odors, and

the most common examples are gasoline, turpentine and kerosene.
A. Accelerants
B. Trailers
C. timing device
D. Stopper
62. This catalytic combustion device is the most common means

employed to detect flammable vapors.
A. Accelerant
B. Sniffer
C. timing device
D. stopper
63. The irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a fire and

experience gratification and satisfaction from it.
A. fire starter syndrome
B. pyrotechnic disease
C. pyromania
D. pyrophobia
64. It is known as the “Fire Code of the Philippines.”

20
A. PD 1108
B. PD 1017
C. PD 1081
D. PD 1185
65. Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used

to set off explosives.
A. blasting agent
B. blasting cap
C. gun powder
D. explosive primer
66. These are description of materials or compounds that are easily

set on fire except one:
A. Combustible
B. Corrosive
C. Flammable
D. Inflammable
67. Any material having a flash point at or above 37.80 degree

Celsius or 100 degree Fahrenheit.
B. flammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid
68. Any liquid that causes fire when in contact with organic
matter.
B. flammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid
69. An extremely hot luminous bridge formed by the passage of an

electric current across the space between two conductors.
A. electrical arc
B. damper
C. duct system
D. ember
70. The active principle of burning, characterized by the heat and

light combustion.
A. explosion
B. arson
C. combustion
D. fire
71. A type of fire, of flammable liquid and gasses.
A. class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
72. A mass movement in a fluid, an example a liquid or a gas where

fluid at one temperature and density moves under the influence of
gravity at different temperatures.
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Combustion
73. The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or converted

to vapor.
A. burning point
B. melting point
C. freezing point
D. boiling point
74. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a

collision course or to avoid hazard.
21
A. point of no return
B. point of no escape
C. start of evasive action
D. final position
75. The movement of vehicles, and pedestrians in a road or highway.

A. Traffic
B. Flight
C. Trip
D. Journey
76. A method of locating a spot in the area by measurements from

two or more reference points.
A. traffic report
B. spot report
C. triangulation
D. accident investigation
77. The force that tends to pull all objects to the center of the
earth.
A. Inertia
B. Friction
C. Energy
D. Gravity
78. Any motor vehicle accident that results in no death, but only
injuries to one or more persons.
A. Fatal
B. Chronic
C. Non fatal
D. Injurious
79. The “Traffic and Land Transportation Code of the Philippines”

A. RA 7160
B. RA 8551
C. RA 6425
D. RA 4136
80. An occurrence in a sequence of events, which usually produces

unintended injury, death or property damage.
A. traffic incidents
B. traffic accidents
C. traffic hazards
D. traffic events
81. Any motor vehicle accident occurring on a traffic way.
A. non motor vehicle traffic accident
B. non motor vehicle non-traffic accident
C. motor vehicle non-traffic accident
D. motor vehicle traffic accident
82. An order wherein a violator is commanded to appear in court,

but without detaining him.
A. traffic citation
B. traffic request
C. traffic warrant
D. traffic violation
83. The first accidental touching of an object collision course or

otherwise avoid a hazard.
A. primary contact
B. secondary contact
C. disengagement
D. initial contact
84. The following are the three E’s of Traffic Management and
Operation except one:
A. Engineering
B. Education
C. Enforcement
22
D. Evaluation
85. The “Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.”

A. RA 9870
B. RA 9165
C. RA 1017
D. RA 6195
86. Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying emotional

change, thought disruption and ego distortion. They are called
psyhedelics.
A. Tranquillisers
B. Hallucinogens
C. Stimulants
D. Depressants
87. Drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or

dullness of the mind with delusions.
A. Stimulants
B. Narcotics
C. Depressants
D. Hallucinogens
88. The practice or profession of having sexual intercourse for

money or profit.
A. Gynaecology
B. Prostitution
C. White Slavery
D. Sex Trade
89. The scientific name of Indian hemp plant.

A. cannabis sativa L
B. Papaver somniforum
C. deoxyribonucleic acid
D. methamphetamine HCl
90. The original components of heroin and morphine.

A. Codeine
B. Caffeine
C. Opium
D. Methamphetamine
91. An inter department agency that enforce and carry out the law
against illegal drugs.
A. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
B. Bureau of Foods and Drugs
C. Dangerous Drug Board
D. Food and Drug Administration
92. A harmful conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to

depravity, wickedness and corruption of the mind and body.
A. Vice
B. Abuse
C. Addiction
D. Virtue
93. The most common form of stimulant.

A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. Shabu
94. It is chemically known as methamphetamine hydro chloride.

A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. None of these
95. A derivative of opium which is used a cough reliever.

23
A. Codeine
B. Heroin
C. Morphine
D. Caffeine
96. Any part of the plant of the papaver somniferum, including the
seeds.
A. opium poppy
B. marijuana
C. caffeine components
D. codeine
97. Another term for psychological drug addiction.

A. drug habituation
B. drug net consciousness
C. drug pushing
D. drug dependence
98. Commercially produced drugs that can be legally sold or

dispensed only by a physician’s order.
A. illegal drugs
B. prohibited drugs
C. regulated drugs
D. prescription drugs
99. Any chemical substance that by virtue of its chemical nature

alters the structure and functioning of living organism.
A. Alcohol
B. Poison
C. Drug
D. Vice
100. It is, in most cases, the initial step for obtaining

information to determine the origin and cause of fire.
A. Evidence collection
B. laboratory examination
of evidence
C. interview witnesses
D. interrogation of
suspects
- End of Set One -

24
1. C 26. A 51. D 76. C

2. D 27. A 52. D 77. D
3. D 28. D 53. B 78. B
4. D 29. B 54. A 79. D
5. D 30. A 55. D 80. B
6. A 31. A 56. A 81. D
7. C 32. A 57. A 82. A
8. A 33. C 58. A 83. D
9. A 34. A 59. A 84. D
10. A 35. C 60. C 85. B
11. D 36. B 61. A 86. B
12. D 37. D 62. B 87. B
13. D 38. C 63. C 88. B
14. B 39. C 64. D 89. A
15. C 40. D 65. A 90. C
16. C 41. D 66. B 91. A
17. D 42. A 67. A 92. A
18. D 43. C 68. A 93. D
19. D 44. B 69. A 94. D
20. B 45. C 70. D 95. A
21. A 46. B 71. B 96. A
22. A 47. C 72. B 97. D
23. A 48. D 73. B 98. D
24. B 49. C 74. C 99. C
25. B 50. D 75. A 100. C
25
Criminal Detection, Identification & Prevention

Set One
26
CRIMINOLOGISTS Licensure Examination

Second Day - 12:30 p.m. – 2:30 p.m.
=================================================================
REVIEW QUESTIONS IN
CRIME DETECTION, INVESTIGATION & PREVENTION SET TWO
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following

questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 1 only.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. What legal doctrine was established in the case Mapp vs. Ohio?
A. Archipelagic Doctrine
B. Fruit of the Poisonous Tree Doctrine
C. Miranda Doctrine
D. Eclectics Doctrine
E. None of these
2. The testimony of witnesses reduced in writing while under oath is

generally called
A. Admission
B. Declaration
C. Information
D. Deposition
3. Human sources of information who voluntarily provide facts to the

detectives are generally known as
A. Informers
B. Suspects
C. Informants
D. Respondents
4. Proof beyond reasonable doubt is the weight and sufficiency of

evidence needed to convict the defendant in
A. administrative cases
B. civil cases
C. criminal cases
D. all of the above
5. The stage of criminal interview purposely done to clarify

information already gathered or to gather additional facts about
the case is the:
A. initial interview
B. follow-up interview
C. concluding interview
D. preliminary interview
6. The prosecutor is the proper authority to subscribe in the

A. Affidavit
B. Complaint
C. Joint affidavit
D. Information
27
7. Any person arrested, detained or under custodial investigation

shall at all times be assisted by
A. Prosecutor
B. police officer
C. counsel
D. complaint
8. Remuneration gain is the main motive of

A. Informants
B. Criminals
C. Informers
D. Witnesses
9. As established by our Supreme Court through the case People vs.

Galit, the first step in arresting an offender is
A. show the warrant of arrest
B. inform the nature and cause of accusation
C. identify yourself as a law enforcer
D. give the Miranda warning
10. Planned and coordinated legal search conducted to locate physical

evidences at the locus criminis refers to
A. Crime scene search
B. Intelligence
C. Instrumentation
D. Covert operation
11. A self-incriminatory statement not tantamount to acknowledgement

of criminal guilt is called
A. Complaint
B. Admission
C. Confession
D. Deposition
12. The fundamentals responsibility of the officer in charge of

protecting the crime scene is
A. interrogating the witnesses
B. engaging in the search for traces left by the search for
traces left by the criminal
C. removal of evidence which may prone important to the case
D. preserving the site of the crime in the same physical
condition as it was left by the perpetrator
13. Which of the following is NOT among the rules to be observed in

questioning a suspect?
A. simplicity of the question
B. one question at a time
C. accepted applied answer
D. saving faces
14. One of the following is an art, which deal with the identity and
location of the offender and provides evidence of his guilt
through criminal proceedings.
A. information
B. interrogation
C. instrumentation
D. criminal investigation
28
15. The declaration made under a consciousness of an impending death

is called
A. Res gestae
B. Declaration against interest
C. Dying declaration
D. all of these
16. A police officer testifying to the fact that he observed the

defendant assault the victim is presenting to the court ____
evidence.
A. circumstantial evidence
B. direct evidence
C. artificial evidence
D. real evidence
17. A standard arrow to designate the north must be indicating to

facilitate proper orientation. This is known as
A. map
B. wind whirl
C. compass direction
D. window
18. The profession and scientific discipline directed to the

recognition, identification, individualization and evaluation of
physical science by application of natural sciences in matters of
law and science.
A. chemist
B. scientist
C. toxicologist
D. criminalistics
19. The number of person who handle the evidence from the scene of the
crime and between the times of the commission of the crime up to
the final disposition of the case.
A. time of disposition
B. chain of custody
C. time of custody
D. time of disposal
20. A technique useful in investigation with the application of

instrumental detection of deception is called
A. ballistic test
B. questioned document test
C. fingerprint testing
D. polygraph testing
21. The warrant of arrest is good only for

A. 10 days
B. 15 days
C. 20 days
D. none of these
22. The effectiveness of this tool in investigation depends on the

craft, logic, and psychological insight of the initiator in
interpreting the information relevant to the case is called
A. instrumentation
B. information
29
C. interrogation
D. interview
23. The systematic classification of the fundamentals or basic factors

of a criminal method is called
A. corpus delicti
B. modus operandi
C. methodology
D. all of the above
24. It is a type of reconstruction of crime wherein collected

information is analyzed carefully thereby developing a theory of
the crime.
A. deductive reasoning
B. physical reconstruction
C. inductive reasoning
D. mental reconstruction
25. The defense of the suspect that he was present in a place other
than the crime scene during the estimated time when the crime was
committed is called
A. Defense
B. Allegation
C. Alibi
D. Statement
26. These are hints that suggest lines of investigative actions and
information that is valuable in expanding the universe of
suspects, identifying prime suspects and finding the guilty
person. This is called
A. Information
B. Investigative leads
C. Corpus delicti
D. Modus operandi
27. Complaint document is filed by the

A. Police to the prosecutor's office
B. Offended party directly to the court
C. Fiscal against the offended party
D. Prosecutor directly to the court
28. That type of reasoning used in reconstruction of the crime

whereby the detective assumes a theory based on collected
information is regarded as
A. deduction approach
B. logical reasoning
C. inductive approach
D. positive approach
29. The lawful act of restraining a person believed to have

committed a crime and placing him under custody is termed as
A. Imprisonment
30
B. Restraint
C. Arrest
D. Detention
30. The use of scientific instruments, methods and processes while

detecting and investigating crimes is technically called
A. Criminal Justice
B. Forensic Science
C. Criminalistics
D. Instrumentation
31. Preponderance of evidence is the weight and sufficiency of

evidence needed to convict a person in
A. Murder cases
B. Civil cases
C. Criminal cases
D. None of these
32. The two forms of arrest are arrest by actual restraint and
A. By forcible surrender
B. By detention
C. By voluntary submission
D. By virtue of a warrant
33. In portrait parle method the witness provides a vivid physical

appearance of the offender. Portrait parle means
A. Oral discussion
B. Verbal description
C. Photographic files
D. Facial appearance
34. The application of the same or substantially the same pattern,

plan, system of a particular offender in committing a crime is
known as
A. Premeditation
B. plan
C. modus operandi
D. all of the above
35. The method employed by peace officers to trap and catch

malefactor in inflagrante delicto is known as
A. modus operandi
B. “buy-bust”
C. Entrapment
D. Instigation
36. An effort made to determine what actually occurred and what the
circumstances of a crime were is called
A. physical construction
B. crime scene investigation
C. mental reconstruction
31
D. crime reconstruction
37. Which of the following is under the Field Laboratory Work of the
SOCO?
A. Macro-etching
B. DNA examination
C. Casting
D. DNA typing
38. “Releases the crime scene to the officer on case” is the function
of
A. evidence custodian
B. team leader
C. sketcher
D. technician
39. “The xerox copy signed by Rose” is an example of

A. document evidence
B. direct evidence
C. secondary evidence
D. positive evidence
40. Evidence which the law does not allow to be contradicted is known
as
A. competent evidence
B. conclusive evidence
C. expert evidence
D. substantial evidence
41. An interrogation technique where to police officers are employed,

a relentless investigator and a king-hearted man is called
A. shifting the blame
B. mutt and jeff
C. tom and jerry
D. none of the above
42. What law enumerated and provided definition of the different

felonies in the Philippines?
A. RA 8177
B. RA 6975
C. RA 8353
D. None of these
43. The following are authorized to issue a valid search warrant,

except:
A. Appellate Judge
B. Presiding Judge of MCTC
C. Chief Prosecutor
D. RTC Judge
44. Which of the following detective system prioritized on information

that are bought?
A. American System
B. English System
C. French System
32
D. All of these
45. In crime reconstruction, gathering information first then

developing a theory on how the crime was committed is one
approach, otherwise known as:
A. Deductive reasoning
B. Inductive reasoning
C. Productive reasoning
D. Pragmatic reasoning
46. The branch of medicine, which deal with the application of medical
knowledge to the purpose of law and in the Administration of
justice.
A. Nursing
B. Medico Legal
C. Legal
D. None of these
47. It pertains to law, arising out of, it also refer anything

conformable to the law.
A. Legal
B. Rule
C. Sanction
D. All of these
48. One of the following denotes things belonging to the court of law
or use in court or legal proceeding or something fitted for legal
or legal argumentation.
A. Jurisdiction
B. Jurisprudence
C. Law or Legal
D. None of these
49. The legal maxim which means “both drivers displayed negligence”
A. Res Ipsa Loquitor
B. Pare Delicto
C. Inflagrante Delicto
D. Locus criminis
50. Which of the following is useful in the investigation of hit and

run accidents?
A. Motor vehicle registers
B. Employees of the body fender shops
C. Records of accidents and stolen vehicles
D. all of the above
51. When 6 pedestrians who witnessed an automobile accident all tell

identical stories, the investigating officer might reasonably
suspect that:
33
A. the story which they tell is true since they all agree so
perfect
B. the delay between the time of the accident and the
witnesses time together to discuss and compare their
observations
C. all of the witnesses are close friends with similar
physical abilities opinions, educational and the like
D. all of the witnesses are dishonest
52. The police must arrived at the scene of the crime as quickly as
possible because:
A. he is the source of the most productive evidence
B. the principals are there or may still be present
C. some physical evidence may deteriorate
D. all of the above
53. The traffic sign that is triangular in shape and have a red
colored border is known as:
A. information sign
B. instruction sign
C. direction sign
D. caution sign
54. The systematic examination of all the facts relating to condition,

actions and physical features associated with motor collision or
accident is called:
A. traffic engineering
B. reckless driving
C. traffic accident investigation
D. hit and run investigation
55. An event in the road which characterizes the manner of occurrence

of a motor vehicle traffic accident is
A. Accident
B. key event
C. chain of accident
D. all of these
56. The delay resulting from traffic congestion affect not only the
time of travel but also the productivity of individual is part of
what we call
A. traffic engineering
B. traffic environment
C. traffic economy
D. traffic congestion
57. The traffic enforcement action that does not contemplate possible
assessment of penalty by the court
A. traffic arrest
B. traffic citation
C. traffic warning
D. traffic violation
34
58. In accordance with Sec. 6 of PD 1613, which of the following

circumstances does not constitute a prima facie evidence of arson?
A. The property was insured substantially more than its actual
value at the time of the issuance of the policy.
B. Substantial amounts of flammable substances were stored
within the building not necessary in the business.
C. Doors and windows that were normally kept open in the
course of business were found closed during the fire.
D. The fire started in more than one part of the building or
establishment.
59. After a fire in which arson is suspected, you may be able to trace
the fire to its origin because __.
A. the alligator pattern of charring is not as light absorbent
of the surrounding areas
B. the checks of the charring process will be larger then the
surrounding areas
C. the pattern of charring at the point of origin is smaller
and deeper than the rest of the areas
D. the point of origin will be darker than the rest of the
areas
60. One of the following situations is a good indication of an

accidental fire.
A. Smell of ammonia
B. Fire of several origin
C. Intense heat
D. Fire of only one origin
61. The purpose of closing the doors and windows during fire is to __.
A. stop the fire
B. confine the fire
C. slow the spread of fire
D. spread the accelerants
62. The purpose of opening the doors and windows of adjacent rooms in
a burning building is to __.
A. extinguish the fire
B. supply the oxygen in the area
C. prevent back draft
D. serve as entrance of firemen
63. An arsonist may rearrange materials or furniture in a room prior
to setting it on fire in order to __.
A. mislead the investigators
B. camouflage the odor of accelerants
C. provide a quick burning situation
D. all of the above
64. If the fire is set by rationale motive, the important point to

establish is ___.
A. intensity of fire
B. size of fire
C. rapidity of spread
D. origin of fire
65. The “eyes and ears” of the investigators in fire investigation are
the
35
A. By standers
B. Arsonists
C. Victims
D. Firemen
66. The fire that started in almost all corners of the building at the
same time is called __.
A. separate burning
B. simultaneous burning
C. non-related burning
D. related burning
67. A building which is unsafe in case of fire because it lacks

adequate fire exit is said to be a __.
A. Fire hazard
B. Fire trap
C. Fire resistive
D. Fire unsafe
68. In cases where a structure is completely burned to the ground, the

position of doors and windows during the fire whether opened or
closed may be ascertained by __.
A. consulting the original structure blueprint on file
B. interviewing spectators
C. collecting broken pieces of window glasses
D. locating the hardware used in the construction of such
doors
69. Using electrical appliances, which draws electrical current beyond

the designed capacity of the electrical circuit, is known as __.
A. Over using
B. Over loading
C. Over plugging
D. Over capacity
70. The introduction of drugs into the deeper layer of the skin by
means of special electric current is known as:
A. Topical method
B. Injection method
C. Iontophoresis
D. Oral method
71. When too much drug is taken into the physiological system of the
human body, there maybe an over extension of its effect which is
commonly called:
A. Overdose
B. Allergic reaction
C. Side effect
D. Idiosyncracy
72. When two drugs are taken together, or with in a few hours of each
other, they may interact with:
A. good effects
B. bad effects
C. unexpected results
D. no effects
36
73. The actual action of a particular drug depend on the basis of:
A. it’s chemical component
B. person’s tolerance
C. body absorption
D. food and water intake
74. Which of the following is considered as the world’s oldest

cultivated plant as a source of prohibited drug?
A. Marijuana
B. Coca Bush
C. Opium Poppy
D. Peyote Cactus
75. The opium poppy plant is scientifically known as:

A. Cannabis Sativa
B. Hashis
C. Erythroxylon coca
D. None of these
76. The word hashis is derived from the name Hasan/Hashasin, a Muslim
leader. Hashis refers to:
A. male marijuana plant
B. female marijuana plant
C. the marijuana resin
D. marijuana leaves
77. Opium use in China was stemmed out from India and became
widespread in the 19th Century. From Middle East, the plant was
cultivated in India, Pakistan, Iran and Afghanistan which is known
as the:
A. City of Dope
B. Golden Crescent
C. Green triangle
D. Golden triangle
78. Among the following was the German pharmacist who discovered the
morphine drug.
A. Allan Heithfield
B. Troy Mcweigh
C. Freidrich Serturner
D. Alder Wright
79. What do you call the incident where vast numbers of American
soldiers were addicted on the morphine drug during the American
Civil War?
A. Morpheum Illness
B. Soldier’s Disease phenomenon
C. American Addiction
D. Dreamer’s syndrome
80. What is the chemical name of the Heroin drug?

A. Amphetamine Sulfate
B. Diacetylmorphine
C. Acetonyl Dioxide
D. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride
37
81. Which of the following law was enacted to provide for the
registration of collection, and the imposition of fixed and
special taxes upon all persons who engage in illegal drug
production?
A. R.A. 953
B. PD 44
C. R.A 7659
D. R.A. 6425
82. The cause of majority of fire deaths is:

A. Shock
B. Burn
C. Falling materials
D. Asphyxiation
83. One of the following is a fire resistant item.

A. Asbestos
B. Borax
C. Phosphate of ammonia
D. Sulfur
84. Uncontrollable impulse to incendiarism is commonly known as

A. Kleptomania
B. Pedophilia
C. Manic depressive
D. Arson
85. Normally, fire feeds in all directions, but the least likely path
a fire will follow is
A. Upward
B. Sideward
C. Downward
D. Outward laterally
86. What part of the investigation report that gives a brief summary
of the major investigative steps accomplished?
A. Details
B. Synopsis
C. Undeveloped
D. Conclusions
87. He was a buckle maker then a brothel operator; a master criminal

who became London’s most effective criminal investigator. He was
the most famous thief catcher in 1720s.
A. Henry Fielding
B. Jonathan Wild
C. John Fielding
D. Chales Dickens
88. The America’s most famous private investigator and founder of

Criminal Investigation in USA. He established the practice of
handwriting examination in American courts and promoted a plan to
centralize criminal identification records.
A. Henry Fielding
B. Jonathan Wild
C. John Fielding
D. Allan Pinkerton
38
89. In this method, the three searchers follow each other along the
path of a spiral, beginning on the outside and spiraling in toward
the center.
A. Skip method search
B. Round the clock method of search
C. Quadrant search
D. None of these
90. A fire started from the basement of the building. After 30

minutes, the whole building has turned into ashes. Which among the
following is responsible for the spread of fire in the building?
A. Heat
B. Smoke
C. Flame
D. Combustion products
91. These are used by fire setters in spreading the fire throughout
the building
A. Plants
B. Accelerants
C. Trailers
D. Gasoline
92. The sudden ignition of accumulated radical gases produced when

there is incomplete combustion of fuel
A. Backdraft
B. Flashfire
C. Flashover
D. Biteback
93. A flow which would be obtained if there is a continuous flow of

vehicle and are given a one hundred percent green time is called:
A. Saturation flow
B. Traffic flow
C. Acceleration flow
D. Smooth flow
94. A signal system is created when two or more signals on any traffic
route is coordinated with a fixed time relationship among the
several intervals known as:
A. Signal system
B. Traffic system
C. Traffic lights
D. Traffic signals
95. The time within which the traffic indicates of any particular
traffic signal face does not change:
A. Interval
B. Cycle
C. Phase
D. Timing
96. The total time required for the complete sequence of the phase is
known as:
A. Cycle
B. Cycle length
C. Timing
39
D. Interval
97. the objective of traffic signal time apportionment to secure

movement with safety through an intersection with a minimum delay
is called:
A. Timing
B. Cycle length
C. Phase
D. Interval
98. A portion of a signal cycle during which an assignment of right of

way is made to given traffic management:
A. Offset
B. Traffic phase
C. Signal cycle
D. Cycle split
99. The number of times allocated to each phase of traffic light is

called:
A. Split
B. Cycle time
C. Cycle split
D. Traffic phase
100. On a highway, a yellow or white line with a dotted white line

means that
A. you cannot overtake if the solid is in your side
B. absolutely no overtaking
C. overtaking allowed
D. keep right
Criminal Detection, Investigation & Prevention

Set Two
1. B 18. D 35. C 52. D 69. B 86. B

2. D 19. B 36. D 53. D 70. C 87. B
3. C 20. D 37. C 54. C 71. D 88. D
4. C 21. D 38. B 55. B 72. C 89. D
5. B 22. C 39. C 56. C 73. A 90. A
6. D 23. B 40. B 57. B 74. A 91. C
7. C 24. D 41. B 58. C 75. D 92. C
8. C 25. C 42. D 59. B 76. C 93. A
9. C 26. B 43. C 60. D 77. B 94. A
10. A 27. A 44. C 61. B 78. C 95. A
11. B 28. A 45. B 62. C 79. B 96. B
12. D 29. C 46. B 63. D 80. B 97. A
13. D 30. C 47. A 64. D 81. A 98. B
14. D 31. B 48. B 65. D 82. D 99. A
15. C 32. C 49. A 66. B 83. A 100. A
16. B 33. B 50. D 67. A 84. A
17. C 34. C 51. A 68. D 85. C
CRIME DETECTION, INVESTIGATION, AND PREVENTION
1. The word investigation may have been derived from “ vestigium”, another Latin word which literally meant
A. Footprint B. To trace C. To track D. B and or C E. Inquiry
2. This refers to official inquiry conducted by a government agency in an effort to uncover facts and determine the truth.
a. Inquest B. Inquisition C. Formal Investigation D. Probe E. Research
3. This type of investigation is most often employed to refer the careful, patient investigations done by scientists or
scholars in their effort to identify original sources of data or causes of problem.
A. Inquest B. Inquisition c. For5mal Investigation D. Probe E. Research
4. Which of this is defined as the process of carefully examining or researching what transpired in a criminal act?
A. Preliminary investigation B. Inquest C. Criminal Investigation
D. All of these E. Police Investigation
5. He is the proponent of “ employing a thief to catch another thief.”

A. John Fielding B. Jo Nathan Wild C. Henry Fielding
D. Allan Pinkerton E. A and C
6. He coined the word “detective.”

A. Dr, Arthur Conan Doyle B. Howard Vincent C. Hans Gross
D. Charles Dickens E. Dr. Paul Kirk
7. Criminal investigation as an art is governed by the following, except:

A. Rigid rules B. Intuition C. Felicity of inspiration
D. Chance or luck E. None of these
8. As a process, criminal investigation is composed of five functions stated as follows: 1- Collection; 2-

Preservation; 3- Evaluation; 4- Presentation; and 5- Recognition. As a rule, these functions are enumerated in the right
order as-
A. 1 2,3,4,5 B. 5, 4,3,2,1 C. 3, 2,1,5,4,
D. 4, 5,2,3,1 E. 5, 1,2,3,4
9. It mandates that prior to questioning; the police must inform the rights of the suspect.
A. Exclusionary rule B. Fruit of the Poisonous tree C. Miranda doctrine
D. Rights of the accused E. A and C
10. There are crimes that take months before they are finally solved. Because of this, investigators must possess-
A. Integrity B. Intelligence C. Dedication D. Patience E. Reliability
11. This involves the examination of the evidence and particulars of a case and the use of this information as a basis for
formulating a unifying and internally consistent explanation of the event or crime.
A. Logical mind B. Inductive reasoning C. Deductive reasoning
D. Keen observation E. Rationality
12. Among the following, which is the primary reason why crimes are investigated?
A. Establish, in fact, a crime was committed
B. Identify and apprehend the suspect
C. Recover stolen properties
D. Preserve knowledge or information about a case
E. Provide accurate details about a case
13. In protecting the citizen or public, which is the first line of defense?
A. Criminal investigation B. Crime prevention C. Crime suppression D.
Community support E. All of these
14. This anticipates criminal activity, as with many vice and organized crime investigations. Here, the investigation is
conducted before the crime is committed (rather than after), and the suspect is identified before he or she commits the
crime.
A. Reactive B. Pro active C. Preventive D. Expective E. None of these
15. The primary purpose of criminal investigation is the establishment of facts and the removing of doubts that a crime has
in fact been committed and it aims to, except-
A. Prevent crime B. Apprehend criminals C. Recover stolen properties
D. Preserve information about the crime E. None of these
16. What stage of investigation focuses in tracing, locating, and eventually arresting suspects?
A. Preliminary investigation B. In-depth investigation
C. Final Investigation D. Concluding Investigation
E. C and D
17. Investigation at the crime follows delineated stages. Of these, which is the last to be done?
A. securing the crime scene
B. Considering the possible arrest of the suspect
C. locating and questioning witnesses and victims
D. documenting the crime scene
E. collecting evidence
18. Processing the crime scene involves the following, except-

A. Documentation
B. Marking handling, and tagging of evidence
C. Searching
D. Observance of the chain of custody
E. None of these
19. Criminals’ bad lucks are unconscious or subliminal act aiming at self-betrayal or also known as “ VEBRECHERPECH”
clue which may a result of the perpetrator’s except-
A. Prudence B. Carelessness C. Faulty acts D. Negligence E. Vanity
20. It is an effort made to determine the appearance of the place and the objects as to what actually occurred and the
circumstances of the crime.
A. Evaluation B. Reconstruction C. Analysis
D. Visualization E. Picturing
21. It is an express acknowledgment by the accused in a criminal case of the truth of his guilt as to the crime charge, or of
some essential part thereof.
A. Admission B. Acknowledgment C. Confession
D. Interview E. None of these
22. What kind of subject whom this can be applied: Remove his anxiety or fair and let him think that his uncooperativeness
will work against him?
A. K now-nothing type B. Disinterested type C. Drunken type
D. Suspicious type E. Talkative
23. Shift his loquaciousness to those matters useful in the investigation is the best approach subjects who are-
A. Know-nothing type B. Disinterested type C. Drunken type
24. This type of subjects needs extensive warm-up and presenting him multiple questions then lead him to relevant
questions.
` A. Know-nothing type B. Disinterested type C. Drunken type
25. The interviewer must possess insights, intelligence and persuasiveness, and his voice should be suited to the occasion.
This qualification of the police interviewer is called-
A. Rapport B. Breadth of interest C. Forceful character
D. Salesman E. None of these
26. What qualification of an interviewer in which the interviewer must be able to develop meeting ground with the
subject?
D. Salesman E. None of f these
27. What qualification of an interviewer in which the interviewer must induce trust and confidence by his dominant
personality?
28. The interviewer must develop good relationship with the subject. This is attained by having a-
29. They are the most alert and their perception is not dulled by pre-occupation.
A. Children B. Girls C. boys
D. Young persons E. Middle-aged persons
30. They have the tendency to fantasize things.

A. Children B. Girls C. Boys
31. They are usually pre-occupied which prevents them from being ideal witnesses but they are inclined to be truthful but
their testimony is not strengthened by any power of great observation.
32. They could be excellent sources of information because of their ability to observe even those intrinsically boring things.
However, they may be dangerous because of tende ncy of fantastic interpretation.
33. They are good witnesses but are prone to exaggeration.

A. Honest B. Deceitful C. Timid D. Refusal to talkE. Egocentric
34. Employ friendly approach and explain to him that the interview will be confidential.
A. Honest B. Deceitful C. Timid D. Refusal to talkE. Egocentric
35. The witness provides vivid description (strong and clear mental picture) or pictorial physical appearance of the
criminal. He may do it by direct description or by comparison.
A. Police Line-up B. Rogues Gallery C. Cartography
D. Portrait Parle E. General Photographic method
36. Based on the description provided by the witness, the artist draws on composite face that approximates the
criminal’s facial appearance.
D. Portrait Parle E. General Photographic Method
37. The witness is invited to the police station and then requested to examine photographic files of known criminals.
38. In this method, the investigat5or shows variety of facial types that may not necessarily / directly represent the face
of the criminal.
39. This involves a process of letting/ allowing a witness to select the primary suspect from a group of chosen persons
(suspects and innocent persons).
40. POIII Max Hine, during interrogation, elicited information from Joe Knot. In the elicited information, Mr. Knot
admitted killing the victim because of jealousy. The admission of Mr. Knot is called-
A. Admission B. Sworn Statement C. All of these
D. Confession E. Information of Guilt
41. Information developed after comparing questioned latent prints with inked fingerprints which establishes the
identity of the suspect is called.
A. Tracing Identification B. Circumstantial Identification
C. Suspects Identification D. All of these
E. Positive Identification
42. Which is not a scientific method of identification?

A. DNA B. Blood Typing C. Portrait Parle
D. Questioned DocumentsE. None of these
43. Pre-surveillance activities are normally done as part of the preparation for undercover operations. These
activities are: 1. Briefing; 2. Physical Preparation; 3. Planning; and 4. Coordination and communication. Which of the
following would be the correct chronological listing of these3 activities?
A. 3,2,4, and 1 B. 1,2,3, and 4 C . 3,4,1, and 2 D. 3,1,4, and 2
E. 4,2,3, and 1
44. It is the commonly applied form of undercover assignment which involves covert observation of persons,
places, and things or events to obtain information concerning the identities or activities of suspected criminals. This is
known as-
A. Covert operation B. Surveillance C. Elicitation
D. Espionage E. All of these
45. In conducting foot surveillance, there are some” don’ts “ which govern the activity. Which is not a part of it?
A. Meeting the eye of the contact
B. Adopting a slinking, creeping, or “hacksaw” manner
C. Wearing story-book
D. Carrying articles that do not attract attention
E. Greeting fellow officers or allowing them to greet you
46. In this tool of identification, the witness provides vivid description (strong and clear mental picture) or pictorial
physical appearance of the criminal. He may do it by direct description or by comparison.
D. Portrait Photographic E. General Photographic
47. Based on the description provided by the witness, the artist draws on composite face that approximates the
criminal’s facial appearance. What tool of identification is applied?
48. The witness is invited to the police station and then requested to examine photographic files of known criminals. These
photographic files are known as
49. In this method, the investigator shows variety of facial types that may not necessarily/ directly represent the face
of the criminal.
A. Unknown Fugitives B. A and D C. Cartography
D. Known Fugitives E. General Photographic
50. Among the following, which one is the most reliable method of identification of dead persons before the onset of
decomposition or before the body start to decompose?
A. Odontology B. Finderprinting C. Blood Identification
D. Anthropometry E. All of these
51. For a person to qualify as a witness, the following are some of the requirements, except:
A. He must have actually seen the commission of the crime
B. He must have personal knowledge regarding the matter under investigation
C. He must be free from prejudices
D. He must have the incapability to perceive
E. None of these
52. What kind of evidence links the suspect to the crime scene or offense?
A. Associative B. Tracing evidence C. Physical
D. Corpus Delicti E. All of these
53. A trespassing was reported to the police. Officers responding to the scene found a point of forced entry. Upon
searching the immediate vicinity, they chanced upon a young man hiding behind the bushes. Valuable items, later
identified as taken from the building, were frisked from the suspect. The recovered items are called-
A. Tracing evidence B. Associative evidence C. Circumstantial Evidence
D. Valuable evidence E. None of these
54. An incident of peeping tom was reported to the police station. The officer responded to the call found a man’s wallet
on the floor of the men’s room. A records check on the identification contained in the wallet revealed the identity of
the suspect. Among the classes of physical evidence3, the collected wallet is called-
A. Tracing evidence B. Associative evidence C. Circumstantial evidence
D. Valuable evidence E. None of these
55. To detect dishonest employees and of illegal transactions involving money, fluorescent substances or chemicals
are placed on items or paper bills that will stain a person’s clothing or skin. The staining will facilitate detection on the
person being watched. This is called-
A. Contact surveillance B. Technical surveillance C. None of these
D. Scientific surveillance E. Tracer surveillance
56. During undercover operations, which of the following evidence are inadmissible as evidence?
A. Confession of the suspect while accompanied by his counsel
B. Secret photograph taken while the illegal transaction is going on
C. Recorded conversation by intercepting the communication lines of the suspect
D. Marked money used during entrapment operation
E. All of these apply
57. The following are the “DON’TS” in conducting shadowing by foot, except-
A. meeting the eye of the subject
B. adopting a slinking, creeping, peeking, or “hacksaw” manner
C. wearing inconspicuous disguise
D. carrying articles that attract attention
E. none of these
58. George when arrested confessed that he was at the crime scene before the crime was committed. What do you
call George’s statement?
A. Admission B. Information C. Confession
D. Deposition E. A and C
59. Which is not true about surveillance?

A. The most common form of undercover operation
B. Involves overt observation of persons, places, and things
C. The purpose is to obtain information concerning identities and/ or activities of suspected criminals
D. It also uses of ruse and disguises
60. According to the nature of the investigation, surveillance is classified as-

A. Continuous and sporadic B. Fixed and moving
C. Long-range and short range D. Visual, audio, and contact
E. None of these
61. Based on fixed visual surveillance, surveillance of places maybe categorized into-
A. Long-range and short-range B. Moving and stationary
C. continuous and sporadic D. stake-out or stake-in
62. What form of undercover operation is best applied in extortion cases?

A. Surveillance B. Entrapment C. Roping
D. Penetration E. All of these
63. Surveillance of place is called-

A. roping B. casing C. reconnaissance
D. stake-out E. B and C
64. What type of cover is applied by a police officer posing as a buyer to validate the trading story of an undercover man?
A. Cover within a cover B. Natural C. Multiple
D. Artificial cover E. None of these
65. Which of the following ought to be avoided by an investigator while securing a dying declaration?
A. Advising the dying person of the importance of making such
B. Memorizing the victim’s statement
C. Manifest an atmosphere of an impending death
D. Asking leading questions
66. What is that means of identifying physical evidence, in which the investigator inscribes initial, date and time directly on
the evidence?
A. Marking B. Tagging C. Labeling
D. None of these E. Initialing
67. That type of reasoning used in reconstruction of the crime whereby the detective assumes a theory based on collected
information is referred to as:
A. Deduction B. Logical reasoning C. Positive approach
D. Inductive approach E. None of these
68. Jun witnessed the killing of the victim. Later in the day, he was invited to the police station where photographs of varied
facial types which do not necessarily represent the criminal were shown to him. What file of photographs was shown to
Jun?
A. General photographs B. Mug files C. Rogues gallery
D. Photographic files
69. DNA uses the complex molecular structure forming the principal constituent of the genes to identify persons. DNA
stands for-
A. Deoxirybonucleic Acid B. Deoxyribonucliec Acid C.
Deoxyribonucleic Acid D. None of these
70. The word “traffic” is believed to have originated from the French word “ Trafic” from old French “ trafique,” and or
from Italian word “traffic” or “ trafficare.”(Italian). These ancient words mean the following, except-
A. to trade B. commerce C. to move D.carry on trade E. none of these
71. The English term nomad came from the Greek word namas or nomein which originally refers to-
A. All of these apply
B. Groups of people travelling by foot to look for foods
C. People who wander for food
D. Groups that migrate in an established pattern to find pastures lands for their domestic livestock
E. Tribes who were primarily engaged in nomadic lifestyle
72. What was the contribution of Etienne Lenoir as far as transportation is concerned?
A. Pneumatic tires B. Dandy horse C. Hobby horse
D. Motor vehicle E. Internal Combustion Engine
73. Henry Ford is known in Land Transportation as the-
A. inventor of the internal combustion engine
B. inventor of the popular Model T
C. pioneer in making horseless carriage
D. pioneer in mass production of vehicles
E. Both B and D
74. A road that interconnects cities and municipalities are classified to as-
A. City road or high way B. Municipal road or highway
C. National Road or highway D. Provincial Road or highway
E. Either A or B
75. Safety campaigns are usually carried on through the-

A. Local Government Units B. Mass Media
C. Land Transportation Office D. PNP Traffic Management Bureau
E. Citizen Support Groups
76. The government agency having the primary responsibility of enforcing the R.A 4136 is the-
A. DOTC B. LTO C. LTFRB D. Both B and C E. All of these
77. Training of traffic auxiliary personnel answers the problem concerning-

A. Human errors B. Poor control measures C. Poor maintenance
D. Physical in adequacy E. All of these
78. The conducting of fact-finding activities, surveys, and recommendations of traffic rules and regulations is a function of-
A. Traffic Enforcement B. Traffic Engineering C. Traffic Environment
D. Traffic Education E. All of these
79. In general, drivers’ training and education aims primarily to-

A. Teach the rudiments of driving
B. Instill awareness of one’s legal and moral responsibilities in traffic
C. Teach the abilities required for one to be eligible for the driver’s license
D. Prepare the student pass the regulatory testing for driver’s license
E. All of these
80. PO2 Vargas apprehended Miss Mindurown B. Isness for traffic infraction. The infraction involves a violation of a
provision of R.A. 4136. If you are PO2 Vargas, which will you issue as receipt of confiscation of the latter’s driver’s
license?
A. Traffic Citation Ticket B. Traffic Violator’s Receipt
C. Temporary Operator’s Permit D. Traffic Infraction Receipt
E. Any of these can be issued
81. There are five essential steps in the traffic enforcement process: 1) apprehension; 2) adjudication; 3) prosecution; 4)
detection; and 5) penalization. Which is correct enumeration in reverse chronology?
A. 1,2,3,4,& 5 B. 2,3,4,5, &1 C. 4,1,3,2,& 5
D. 1,4,3,2, & 5 E. 3,4,2,5, & 1
82. The reduction of number of traffic violators particularly those related to traffic obstruction to have free-flow of traffic is
a goal of traffic law enforcement which is to-
A. All of these B. Increase traffic efficiency
C. Increase traffic mobility D. increase safety level
E. insure harmonious and comfortable environment
83. There are two major functions in traffic law enforcement. Whose function the enforcement of traffic laws deterrent of
law violations, special assistance to prosecutors and courts?
A. Traffic Enforcement B. Police Traffic Law Enforcement
C. Court Traffic Law Enforcement D. Either B and C E. None of these
84. There are three elements of traffic enforcement system. Which one is consist of legislation, police, and courts?
A. Enforcement system B. Road User System C. Road System
D. Traffic System E. Trafficway System
85. One of the specific causes of traffic accidents is misperceiving or misjudging the road situation ahead. This cause is
under the factor involving-
A. Driver’s condition B. Main vehicle or motor vehicle factors
C. Road Factors D. Human errors E. A or D
86. Under the three principles of preventing or reducing traffic accidents, the preceding condition can be corrected by “E”
or pillar of traffic?
A. Enforcement B. Education C. Environment or ecology
D. Engineering E. Economy
87. This is actually a form of safety education where the traffic enforcer tells the violator that he violated a traffic law and
explains the hazards of his violation.
A. Traffic Education B. Written Warning C. Verbal Warning
D. Citation Warning E. Traffic Safety Education
88. What is the enforcement action which does not contemplate possible assessment of penalty by the court or otherwise as
a result of warning alone?
A. Traffic Warning B. Traffic Citation C. Traffic Accosting
D. Written Warning E. Pursuit in Traffic Enforcement
89. Traffic patrol does not necessary mean that the patrol officer will be constantly moving from one place to another. For
effective traffic observation, there are instances that the traffic officer will be stationing himself in a strategic place. In
relation to this, what is the traffic observation in which the traffic observation in which the traffic officer is in full view but
so located, for example at side street, so as to require effort on the part of traffic users?
A. Stationary observation B. Visible observation C. Conspicuous observation
D. Full view position Concealed observation
90. Traffic patrolling is usually conducted for the following purposes, except-
A. None of these B. Promoting violations and dangerous driving
C. Detecting and apprehending violators D. Providing certain services to the public
E. Handling emergencies to keep smooth flow of traffic
91. Motor vehicle accidents are those caused directly or indirectly to the action of a motor vehicle or its loads. Which is not
one of them?
A. Discharged of firearm within the motor vehicle while the in motion
B. Deliberate injury from inhalation of exhausted gas
C. Failure of any part of the motor vehicle while traveling
D. Collision between a motor vehicle and a railroad train or street car
E. None of these
92. There are five levels of activities in traffic accident investigation. Which one covers the finalization of sketches and or
diagrams?
A. Reporting B. Technical preparationC. At-scene investigation
D. Cause analysis E. Professional reconstruction
93. In the preceding item, if A is 1, B is 2, C is 3, D is 4, and E is 5, which of the following could be the correct reverse
chronology of the five levels of activities in traffic accident investigation?
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, & 5 B. 2, 3, 4, 5, & 1 C. 4, 5, 2, 3, & 1
D. 5, 4, 3, 2, & 1 E. 4, 3, 2, 5, & 1
94. As a traffic investigator, what is the last action to be undertaken at the scene?
A. Check for injured persons B. Check for hazards C. Interview witnesses
D. Call for assistance E. None of these
95. If in the preceding item A is 1, B is 2, C is 3, and D is 4, which would be the chronological arrangement of the actions to
be taken?
A. 1, 2, 3, & 4 B. 1, 3, 4, & 2 C. 4, 3, 2, & 1
D. 3, 2, 1, & 4 E. 1, 2, 4, & 4
96. It is the combination of simultaneous and sequential factors without any one of which the result could not have
occurred.
A. cause B. factor C. primary cause
D. attribute E. modifier
97. The speed adjusted to the potential or possible hazards or the road and traffic situation ahead and usually determined by
the road rather than the particular driver of a vehicle is-
A. speed limit B. minimum limit C. allowable limit
D. safe speed E. None of these
98. It refers to the time from the point of possible perception to actual perception.
A. point of possible perception B. perception delay
C. perception of hazard D. actual perception point E. none of these
99. Which could be considered an indication of hit-and-run accident?

A. The driver leaving the area of accident because he is in imminent danger.
B. The driver fleeing the area of accident to evade responsibility.
C. After hitting someone on the highway, the driver left and reported to the police.
D. After sideswiping a pedestrian the driver fled to seek assistance of a physician.
E. None of these
100. Three categories of suspects in hit-and-run cases can be explained psychologically. A driver who finds the other driver
as faulty is categorized as-
A. Projectionist B. Apprehensive C. Sneak operator
D. Hit-and-run drivers E. Either C or A
TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT
1. The chronological arrangement of the color of the traffic lights from the top is:
a. YELLOW, RED, GREEN c. RED , YELLOW, GREEN
b. GREEN, RED, YELLOW d. GREEN, YELLOW, RED
2. If present the left or right arrow light is usually placed:

a. Beneath the red, yellow and green lights.
b. Over the red, yellow and green lights
c. At the right of the red, yellow and green lights.
d. At the left of the red, yellow and green lights.
3. While approaching an intersection, the green traffic light is on, however, a police officer suddenly proceed to the center
and signals you stop. What you should do?
a. Ignore the police officer and proceed with caution.
b. Ignore the traffic light and come to a full stop.
c. Ignore both police officer and traffic light and cross the intersection.
d. Ignore the police officer and stop only when he will signal you again to stop.
4. The arrangement of the traffic lights from the bottom is:

a. red, green, yellow c. yellow, red, green
b. red, yellow, green d. green, yellow, red
5. Traffic signal lights which are designed to regulate and control traffic along traffic ways are referred to as:
a. traffic control signal
b. special pedestrian signal
c. train approach signal
d. road and traffic way signal light
6. The following should be observed when you are approaching an intersection and you are facing a flashing yellow, expect:
a. This is the same as a YIELD SIGN.
b. Proceed through the intersection with CAUTION.
c. You have the right of way over a flashing RED LIGHT.
d. Slow down in crossing the intersection.
7. Which of the following is used to regulate and inform motorist on what to do along train- road intersections?
a. traffic control signal
b. special pedestrian signal
c. Train approach signal
d. Road and traffic way signal light
8. A traffic control signal by which traffic is alternately commanded to stop and permitted to proceed in accordance with
predetermined time schedule is an example of:
a. Fixed time signal
b. Progressive system
c. Computerized traffic signal system
d. Traffic signal light
9. When the red light is on, motorist should observe the following, except?
a. STOP at the designated line.
b. Vehicles will be crossing from the other side.
c. Expect pedestrian to cross at the pedestrian lane.
d. Unless specified, you can TURN LEFT after a FULL STOP to clear traffic coming from the left.
10. When approaching an intersection with directional arrows, you should:

a. Ignore the traffic lights and wait for signals of traffic officers.
b. Ignore the directional arrows an follow the instruction of the traffic enforcer.
c. Follow the lane as directed by the directional arrow.
d. Ignore everything including the directional arrows.
11. Pedestrian when crossing n the road should use only the:
a. pedestrian walk c. sidewalk
b. crosswalk d. all of the above
`12. When traversing on a solid yellow or white line with a dotted yellow or white line, you can overtake only when:
a. The solid line is in your lane.
b. The dotted line is in your lane.
c. Oncoming traffic from the opposite direction is free from any hazard
d. The on coming traffic is visible that no vehicle or whatsoever is coming from the opposite direction.
13. In mountainous areas with passing lane, the overtaking vehicle should:
a. use the outer lane in passing
b. use the inner lane when passing
c. Use either the inner lane or the other lane for oncoming vehicles when the latter is clear.
d. Blow its horn or give an audible signal to inform the other vehicle its intention to overtake.
14. When traversing on a highway with double yellow line with dotted line in between, you can:
a. not overtake under any circumstances
b. overtake when then other direction is clear of oncoming vehicles
c. Overtakes as long a there are no traffic enforcers around.
d. Not overtake when there are oncoming vehicles on the opposite lane
15. On a 4 lane 2way road, when there are slow and fast lanes, never overtake by passing over the solid white line. This
statement is:
a. true under any circumstances
b. true only when the other direction is loaded with oncoming vehicles
c. false under all circumstances
d. false, depending on the traffic and weather condition
16. On a 4lane 2way road, the outer lanes are

a. 4 overtaking restrictions c. 4 fast moving vehicles
b. 4 overtaking purpose d. 4 slow moving vehicles
17. Pavement markings and markers indicate:

a. traffics flow regulations
b. prohibitions to motorist only
c. traffic laws for vehicles only
d. information for defensive driving
18. Inner lanes of four lane 2ways roads are designed for:
a. overtaking purposes
b. fast moving vehicles
c. slow moving vehicles
d. overtaking and fast moving vehicles
19. What are the 3 classification of international traffic signs?

a. danger warning signs, regulatory signs and informative signs
b. stop sign, yield sign and traffic sign
c. danger warning sign, regulatory sign and mandatory sign
d. none of the above
20. These signs are also known as caution signs

a. regulatory signs
b. danger warning signs
c. informative signs
d. priority signs
ANSWER KEY
1. C 11. D
2. D 12. C
3. C 13. C
4. D 14. A
5. A 15. A
6. D 16. D
7. C 17. A
8. A 18. B
9. A 19. A
10. C 20. B
www.rkmfiles.net
MOCK BOARD EXAMINATION
CRIME DETECTION, INVESTIGATION AND PREVENTION
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Write the letter of your choice on
the answer sheet provided.
1. An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible in a court of law if it was made in the
presence of a counsel of his own choice and must be in
a. the presence of a fiscal b. the presence of a police investigator
c. writing d. front of a judge
2. Fiscals and Prosecutors are under the control and supervision of the…
a. National Bureau of Investigation
b. Department of the Interior and Local Government
c. Supreme Court
d. Department of Justice
3. The questioning of a person in a formal and systematic way and is most often used to question criminal
suspects to determine their probable guilt or innocence.
a. inquiry b. interview
c. polygraph examination d. interrogation
4. A form of investigation in which the investigator assume a different and unofficial identity.
a. tailing b. casing
c. espionage d. undercover work
5. A type of surveillance in which extreme precautions and actions are taken in not losing the subject.
a. loose tail b. casing
c. pony tail d. close tail
6. A type of shadowing employed when a general impression of the subject’s habits and associates is
required.
a. loose tail b. casing
c. pony tail d. close tail
7. A surveillance activity for the purpose of waiting the anticipated arrival of a suspect or observing his
actions from a fixed location.
a. casing b. tailing
c. stake out d. espionage
8. An examination of an individual’s person, houses, or effects or a building, or premises with the purpose
of discovering contrabands or personal properties connected in a crime.
a. search b. raid
c. investigation d. seizure
9. A kind of evidence that tends to prove additional evidence of a different character to the same point.
a. corroborative evidence b. circumstantial evidence
c. direct evidence d. real evidence
10. The process of bringing together in a in logical manner all evidence collected during the investigation
and present it to the prosecutor.
a. case preparation b. order maintenance
c. crime prevention d. public service
11. Ways and means are resorted for the purpose of trapping and capturing the law breaker during the
execution of a criminal act.
a. instigation b. inducement
c. buy bust operation d. entrapment
12. A special qualification for an undercover agent.
a. excellent built b. excellent eyesight
c. excellent looks d. excellent memory
13. The discreet observation of places, persons and vehicles for the purpose of obtaining information
concerning the identities or activities of suspects.
a. close observation b. espionage
c. tailing d. surveillance
14. The questioning of a person by law enforcement officers after that person has been taken into custody.
a. preliminary investigation b. interrogation
b. custodial investigation d. cross examination
15. As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can be served at…
a. day time
b. night time
c. any day and at any time of the day or night
d. weekdays
16. Measures through which police seek to detect crimes, or attempts to be present
when they are committed, through the use of the undercover agents, electronic devices for wiretapping or bugging, and
stakeouts.
a. preventive measures b. countermeasures
c. pro-active measures d. tape measures
17. A police activity directed toward the identification and apprehension of alleged criminals and the
accumulation, preservation, and presentation of evidence regarding their alleged crimes.
a. police patrol b. police intelligence
c. criminal procedure d. criminal investigation
18. An extension, or continuation of the preliminary investigation.
a. initial investigation b. custodial investigation
c. secondary investigation d. follow-up investigation
19. To obtain admission and confession of guilt is the primary purpose of…
a. interview b. surveillance
c. investigation d. interrogation
20. Such facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably discreet and prudent man to believe that an
offense has been committed and that the object sought in connection with the offense are in the place
sought to be searched.
a. prima facie evidence b. probable cause
c. prejudicial question d. res ipsa loquitur
21. A search warrant shall be valid for _____ days from its date. Thereafter, it shall be void.
a. 10 b. 15
c. 30 d. 45
22. It means that a specific crime was committed at a specified time, date and place, and that the person
named in his report committed the crime.
a. corpus delicti b. sufficiency of evidence
c. stare decisis d. pares patriae
23. Police seek to prevent crime by being present in places where crimes might be committed and by
alerting citizens to refrain from practices that make them or their property vulnerable.
a. opportunity denial b. order maintenance
c. criminal investigation d. police intelligence
24. A statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his guilt.
a. admission b. confession
c. deposition d. accusation
25. It may be a direct acknowledgement of the truth of the guilty fact as charge or of some essential part of
the commission of the criminal act itself.
26. It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling short of an acknowledgement of guilt.
27. The simplest type of interview which concerns with the gathering of information regarding the personal
circumstances of a person who is the subject of investigation.
a. background interview b. personal interview
c. intimate interview d. pre-game interview
28. It means method of operation.
a. corpus delicti b. parens patriae
c. stare decisis d. modus operandi
29. It is one which induces the criminal to act and need not be shown in order to obtain conviction.
a. intent b. motive
c. opportunity d. inducement
30. The three tools in criminal investigation, whereby their application varies in proportion on their necessity
to establish the guilt of the accused in a criminal case.
a. information, interrogation, instrumentation
b. detection, apprehension, conviction ‘
c. inquiry, observation, conclusion
d. magnifying glass, pencil, tape measure
31. The simple questioning of a person who is cooperating in the investigation.
a. interview b. inquiry
c. interrogation d. instrumentation
32. It involves a number of persons who might have handled evidence between the time of the commission
of the alleged offense and the disposition of the case, should be kept to a minimum.
a. chain of command b. chain of custody
c. evidence tracking d. tracing evidence
33. A kind of evidence which may link the suspect to the crime scene or offense. Examples are fingerprints,
impressions, blood etc.
a. physical evidence b. associative evidence
c. tracing evidence d. factual evidence
34. Articles and materials which are found in connection with an investigation and which help in establishing
the identity of the perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was committed or which in
general, assist in the prosecution of the criminal.
a. physical evidence b. documentary evidence
c. tracing evidence d. testimonial evidence
35. The following are different techniques in interrogation except one:
a. sympathetic approach b. emotional appeal
c. financial assistance d. friendliness
36. This may be applicable to a crime scene which is approximately circular or oval. The searchers gather
at the center and proceed outward along radii or spokes.
a. strip method b. wheel method
c. spiral method d. zone method
37. The area to be searched is divided into quadrants and each searcher is assigned to one quadrant.
38. The searchers follow each other in the path of a crime scene beginning in the outside and circling
around a central point.
39. A kind of gathering information whereby a subject is being followed.
a. convoy b. caravan
c. tailing d. surveillance
40. Another term for tailing.
a. impersonating b. backing
c. supporting d. shadowing
41. A person who gives necessary information to the investigator. He may give the information openly and
even offer to be a witness or he may inform the investigator surreptitiously and request to remain
anonymous.
a. witness b. expert witness
c. hostile witness d. informant
42. The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly conversations of other people.
a. bugging b. dubbing
c. mimicking d. tapping
43. The questioning of persons not suspected of being involved in a crime, but who knows about the crime
or individuals involved in it.
a. interrogation b. rumor mongering
c. interview d. inquiry
44. An objective of criminal invstigation.
a. determine the motive b. identify criminals
c. rehabilitate criminals d. prevent crimes
45. A term used to describe a transition which occur in the development of a fire, when, for example, most
of all the combustible surfaces within a room are heated above their ignition temperature at the same
time.
a. intensity b. ignition
c. flash over d. starter
46. A term of the start of the combustion, its detailed process of a solid is very complicated, since the
proportion of different flammable vapours vary from one material to another and contact with oxygen
must take place before combustion can begin.
a. intensity b. ignition
c. flash over d. starter
47. The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum in a similar way to that of light.
a. ignition b. convection
c. radiation d. conduction
48. The transfer of heat within a solid material from hotter to cooler parts.
a. ignition b. convection
c. radiation d. conduction
49. The greatest concern of the firemen at the fire/crime scene is to….
a. interview witnesses
b. view the site of the crime
c. preserve the fire/crime scene
d. phot opportunity in the fire/crime scene
50. Most malicious fires are set by individuals secretly, it is either set for revenge or self aggrandizing; or
set by psychotic fire setter, or for sexual gratification.
a. group fire setter b. arson for profit
c. fire starter d. solitary fire setter
51. It is, in most cases, the initial step for obtaining information to determine the origin and cause of fire.
a. evidence collection b. laboratory examination of evidence
c. interview witnesses d. interrogation of suspects
52. The primary course of action in case of a fire.
a. pack up and flee b. run for your life
c. call an ambulance d. raise the alarm
53. The main product of the combustion of carbon. It is not poisonous but is an asphyxiant which lowers
the proportion of oxygen available for breathing.
a. carbon oxide b. carbon monoxide
c. carbon paper d. carbon dioxide
54. A normal product of combustion, and is poisonous, especially when the air supply to the fire is restricted.
a. carbon oxide b. carbon monoxide
c. carbon paper d. carbon dioxide
55. The fire resisting property of structural elements and the behavior of a building material in a fire, it is
used to predict how long it will resist the effect of a fire before it fails.
a. fire resistance b. fire duration
c. fire proof d. fire strength
56. A type of fire that is the result of the combustion of certain metals in finely divided forms; magnesium,
potassium, zinc, etc….
a. class A b. class B
c. class C d. class D
57. A type of fire which results from burning of wood, paper, textiles, and other carbonaceous materials.
Extinguishment of this fire is by quenching and cooling.
58. The following are components of fire except one:
a. gas b. fuel
c. oxygen d. heat
59. It is observed in structural fires and can be an indicator of the fire travel and point of origin.
a. charring b. alligatoring
c. V pattern d. pour pattern
60. A pattern or network of fine, irregular lines in glass and wood.
a. crazing b. spalling
c. light bulbs d. charring
61. A tool employed by an arsonist to delay the start of the fire and allow him to establish an alibi.
a. accelerants b. delaying tactic
c. timing device d. stopper
62. It can be readily identified by their distinctive odors, and the most common examples are gasoline,
turpentine and kerosene.
a. accelerants b. trailers
63. This catalytic combustion device is the most common means employed to detect flammable vapors.
a. accelerant b. sniffer
64. The irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a fire and experience gratification and satisfaction from it.
a. fire starter syndrome b. pyrotechnic disease
c. pyromania d. pyrophobia
65. It is known as the “Fire Code of the Philippines.”
a. PD 1108 b. PD 1017
c. PD 1081 d. PD 1185
66. Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used to set off explosives.
a. blasting agent b. blasting cap
c. gun powder c. explosive primer
67. These are description of materials or compounds that are easily set on fire except one:
a. combustible b. corrosive
c. flammable d. inflammable
68. Any material having a flash point at or above 37.80 degree Celsius or 100 degree Fahrenheit.
a. combustible liquid b. flammable liquid
c. inflammable liquid d. corrosive liquid
69. Any liquid that causes fire when in contact with organic matter.
a. combustible liquid b. flammable liquid
c. inflammable liquid d. corrosive liquid
70. An extremely hot luminous bridge formed by the passage of an electric current across the space
between two conductors.
a. electrical arc b. damper
c. duct system d. ember
71. The active principle of burning, characterized by the heat and light combustion.
a. explosion b. arson
c. combustion d. fire
72. A type of fire, of flammable liquid and gasses.
73. A mass movement in a fluid, an example a liquid or a gas where fluid at one temperature and density
moves under the influence of gravity at different temperatures.
a. conduction b. convection
c. radiation d. combustion
74. The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or converted to vapor.
a. burning point b. melting point
c. freezing point d. boiling point
75. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a collision course or to avoid hazard.
a. point of no return b. point of no escape
c. start of evasive action d. final position
76. The movement of vehicles, and pedestrians in a road or highway.
a. traffic b. flight
c. trip d. journey
77. A method of locating a spot in the area by measurements from two or more reference points.
a. traffic report b. spot report
c. triangulation d. accident investigation
78. The force that tends to pull all objects to the center of the earth.
a. inertia b. friction
c. energy d. gravity
79. Any motor vehicle accident that results in no death, but only injuries to one or more persons.
a. fatal b. chronic
c. non fatal d. injurious
80. The “Traffic and Land Transportation Code of the Philippines>”
a. RA 7160 b. RA 8551
c. RA 6425 d. RA 4136
81. An occurrence in a sequence of events, which usually produces unintended injury,
death or property damage.
a. traffic incidents b. traffic accidents
c. traffic hazards d. traffic events
82. Any motor vehicle accident occurring on a traffic way.
a. non motor vehicle traffic accident
b. non motor vehicle non-traffic accident
c. motor vehicle non-traffic accident
d. motor vehicle traffic accident
83. An order wherein a violator is commanded to appear in court, but without detaining him.
a. traffic citation b. traffic request
c. traffic warrant d. traffic violation
84. The first accidental touching of an object collision course or otherwise avoid a hazard.
a. primary contact b. secondary contact
c. disengagement d. initial contact
85. The following are the three E’s of Traffic Management and Operation except one:
a. Engineering b. Education
c. Enforcement d. Evaluation
86. The “Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.”

a. RA 9870 b. RA 9165
c. RA 1017 d. RA 6195
87. Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying emotional change, thought disruption and ego
distortion.
a. tranquillisers b. hallucinogens
c. stimulants d. depressants
88. Drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or dullness of the mind with delusions.
a. stimulants b. narcotics
c. depressants d. hallucinogens
89. The practice or profession of having sexual intercourse for money or profit.
a. gynaecology b. prostitution
b. pornography d. sex business
90. The scientific name of marijuana.
a. cannabis sativa L b. pappaver somniferum
c. deoxyribonucleic acid d. methamphetamine
91. The original components of heroin and morphine.
a. codeine b. caffeine
c. opium d. methamphethamine
92. An inter department agency that enforce and carry out the law against illegal drugs.
a. Phil. Drug Enforcement Agency b. Bureau of Drugs
c. Dangerous Drug Board d. Food and Drug Administration
93. A harmful conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to depravity, wickedness and corruption of the
mind and body.
a. vice b. abuse
c. addiction d. virtue
94. The most common form of stimulant.
a. heroin b. codeine
c. morphine d. shabu
95. It is scientifically known as methamphethamine hydrochloride.
a. heroin b. codeine
c. morphine d. shabu
96. A derivative of opium which is used a cough reliever.
a. codeine b. heroin
c. morphine d. caffeine
97. Any part of the plant of the papaver somniferum, including the seeds.
a. opium poppy b. marijuana
c. caffeine d. codeine
98. Another term for drug addiction.
a. drug use b. drug net
c. drug pushing d. drug dependence
99. Commercially produced drugs that can be legally sold or dispensed only by a physician’s order.
a. illegal drugs b. prohibited drugs
c. regulated drugs d. prescription drugs
100. Any chemical substance that by virtue of its chemical nature alters the structure and functioning of living
organism.
a. alcohol b. poison
c. drug d. vice
**Nothing Follows**
Traffic Management and Accident Investigation
(Pre-test)
Direction: Choose the best answer from the choices given after each question.
1. A suspected drunk driver should undergo this last test.

a. pupils of the eyes c. breath test
b. walking and turning d. balance test
2. Most common defect attributed to the human element in cases of traffic vehicular accidents.
a. intellectual c. perceptual
b. decision d. attitudinal
3. This represents the ratio of traffic arrests, citation and warnings to the frequency of traffic accidents.
a. enforcement tax c. non-index crime
b. crime index d. crime rate
4. It refers to the practice of traffic law enforcers to hide in places where they await traffic violations.
a. in the hole enforcement c. fair play enforcement
b. traffic tolerance d. none of these
5. The installation of traffic lights will logically result to a decrease in:
a. accidents involving right of way c. cross traffic accidents
b. accidents of confusion d. accidents due to drunk driving
6. Statistically it is considered as the most common reason for public utility vehicular accidents.
a. not observing the proper distance and following too close
b. unnecessary speed
c. recklessness
d. discussion regarding fare
7. The predominant factor which causes traffic accidents.
a. traffic educational background of the traffic law violators
b. human behavior
c. unsafe road conditions
d. speeding
8. To best determine the proper distribution of personnel the best criterion would be the
number of.
a. fatal accidents c. accidents involving negligence
b. reported accidents d. amount of traffic using the public road
9. The fundamental rule in traffic accident investigation.
a. consider road condition
b. look for the key event
c. consider the degree of damage or injury
d. consider the violation of traffic law
10. In implementing new parking regulations it is most advisable to utilize.
a. verbal warning c. issue citation
b. written warning d. traffic arrest
11. It is considered as the most effective deterrent to traffic accidents.
a. regular maintenance and check up of traffic units
b. increase insurance premium
c. arrest and prosecution of traffic law violators
d. decrease car insurance liability to a minimum
12. Refers to the distance travelled before applying the brakes.
a. coefficient of friction c. maximum accident speed
b. drag factor d. reaction time
13. The measurement of the maximum frictional resistance of pavements.
a. skid marks c. drag factor
b. scuff marks d. reaction time
14. When two vehicles approach or enter an intersection at the same time who shall yield the
right of way as a general rule?
a. the driver on the left c. the faster vehicle
b. the driver on the right d. the slower vehicle
15. An executive function which includes planning, directing, organizing, supervising,

coordinating, operating, recording and budgeting the affairs of traffic.
a. traffic management c. traffic law enforcement
b. traffic supervision d. all of these
16. Agency which regulates and prescribes transport routes for public utility vehicles.
a. LTFRB c. DOTC
b. LTO d. MMDA
17. The number of days which constitutes the physical cycle or mans cycle of strength.
a. 21 c. 28
b. 23 d. 33
18. It refers to the right to proceed ahead of another vehicle or pedestrian.
a. right of way c. go
b. last clear chance d. all of these
19. It is an accident wherein one or more person was seriously injured or has died as a result
of the mishap in traffic accident investigation, how is it classified?
a. 1 c. 4
b. 2 d. 5
20. It refers to the separation of traffic units involved in a vehicular accident.
a. final position c. disengagement
b. hazards d. stopping
21. It is the place and time at which the normal person could perceived the unusual or
unexpected condition or movement.
a. point of no escape c. perception of hazards
b. point of possible perception d. all of these
22. It is a regulation which prescribes proper conduct and decorum during confrontation with
or of traffic law.
a. memorandum circular 19-05 c. M.C. 19-0005
b. M.C. 19-005 d. section 55 of RA 4136
23. A term use to denote any vehicle use for commercial purposes without any franchise.
a. tricycle c. mega taxi
b. FX d. colorum
24. All signals along a given street always show the same indication at the same time.
a. flexible progressive system c. simulated system
b. simple progressive system d. alternative system
25. Common type of thing carried away in cases of burglary and hit and run vehicular
accidents.
a. glass c. hair
b. blood d. metal
26. any motor vehicular accident that result in injuries other than fatal to one or more persons.
a. non-fatal injury accident c. fatal accident
b. traffic accident d. property damage accident
27. Refers to traffic signs intended to warn road users of special obligations.
a. danger warning signs c. informative signs
b. regulatory signs d. mandatory signs
28. It includes pedestrians, pedal cyclist, drivers and passengers utilizing the public roads
a. road users c. traffic system
b. road user system d. enforcement system
29. A number representing the resistance to sliding of two surfaces in contact is known as:
a. attribute c. contact damage
b. traffic jam d. coefficient of friction
30. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a collision course or otherwise to
avoid hazard.
a. final position c. start of evasive action
b. point of possible perception d. point of no escape
31. They are objects commonly left at the scene of the collision involved in accidents.
a. debris c. skid marks
b. scuff marks d. hazards
32. It is an enforcement action, wherein the violator is commanded to appear in court, but
without detaining him.
a. traffic arrest c. traffic warning
b. traffic citation d. all of these
33. The credit of having invented the internal combustion engine was given to a Frenchman
named:
a. Napoleon Bonaparte c. Nicolas Otto
b. Etienne lenoir d. Gottlieb Daimler
34. The romans brought road building to its peak of perfection in ancient times, hence the
saying “all roads, lead to _____.
a. Forum c. Paris
b. Coliseum d. Rome
35. Refers to the main roads as conduit system with a right of way ranging from 20 meters to
120 maters.
a. provincial roads c. city roads
b. national roads d. municipal roads
36. Linkages between two municipalities with a right of way from 15m to 60m.
a. provincial roads c. city roads
b. national roads d. municipal roads
37. A road intended for farm to market traffic.
a. local collector road c. feeder road
b. express way d. subway
38. A modern urban system of roadway above street level for free flow of traffic.
a. expressway c. skyway
b. subway d. major collector road
39. A road intended for free flow vehicular movement.
a. expressway c. skyway
b. subway d. all of these
40. For private vehicles a green sticker is issued, for hire vehicles yellow, red for gov’t.
vehicles, and _____ for diplomatic vehicles.
a. pink c. black
b. blue d. orange
41. The yardstick of an effective traffic law enforcement program.
a. smooth traffic flow
b. increased traffic enforcement action
c. less traffic law enforcement officers deployed with the same output
d. reduction of traffic accidents and delays
42. It is the sum of indulgence or restraint by the public in judging the reasonableness
of the traffic enforcement program.
a. traffic tolerance c. fair play enforcement
b. in the whole enforcement d. all of these
43. A passenger AUV skidded on a wet pavement injuring several bystanders in the process.
In making the report, apparent good condition should not be employed in reference to.
a. the injured bystanders c. the driver
b. the brakes d. the tires
44. For most among the preliminary action, when the officer receives a call regarding the
occurrence of an accident.
a. number of injured
b. seriousness of the injury
c. name of the victim
d. when and were the accident occurred
45. What refers to an occurrence in a sequence of events, which usually produces un intended
death, injury or property damage?
a. motor vehicle traffic accident
b. motor vehicle non-traffic accident
c. non-motor vehicle non-traffic accident
d. accident
46. It is a defined as telling the drivers and pedestrians when, how and where they may or may
not move or stand at a particular place.
a. traffic supervision c. traffic control
b. traffic direction d. all of these
47. What is the real objective of traffic enforcement?
a. to apprehend traffic law violators
b. to improve safety traffic conditions
c. to change the wrong driving habits and attitude of violators
d. to prevent traffic accidents
48. A power operated traffic control device by which traffic is warned or directed to take some
specific action.
a. traffic signs c. traffic islands
b. warning lights d. traffic light signals
49. All lines, patterns, words, colors of other gadgets EXCEPT signs set into the surface or
applied upon or attached to the pavement or curbing officially placed for the purposed of
regulating traffic is called.
a. pavement markings c. traffic signs
b. traffic islands d. traffic engineering
50. Hazardous traffic law violations are:
a. unsafe condition and unsafe behavior
b. physically handicapped drivers
c. disregarding safety of others
d. obstructions
Answer key for

Traffic Management and Accident
Investigation
1. d 11. c 21. b 31. a 41. d
2. d 12. d 22. c 32. b 42. a
3. a 13. c 23. d 33. b 43. b
4. a 14. a 24. c 34. d 44. d
5. a 15. a 25. a 35. b 45. d
6. a 16. a 26. a 36. a 46. b
7. b 17. b 27. b 37. c 47. c
8. b 18. a 28. b 38. c 48. d
9. b 19. d 29. d 39. a 49. c
10. c 20. c 30. c 40. b 50. a
REVIEW TEST
Fire Technology
(Pre-test)
Prepared by: Dr. Miller F. Peckley, CSP, CSMS, CST
MFP Review and Training Services
Instructions: Choose the letter corresponding to your answer, erase answers will be marked wrong.
1. What will happen if the temperature of a fuel is raised to its ignition temperature?
a) auto-ignition (self –ignition) will occur
b) Oxidation will take place
c) Chemical reaction takes place
2. The fire tetrahedron differ from the fire triangle and that a fourth element has been added. What is the added elements?
a. Combustion
b. Pyrolosis
c. Oxidation
d. Chemical chain reaction
3. What is the composition of a typical poisonous smoke?

a) Contains combustion products composed of atoms and molecules forming the poisonous fuel, together with the
oxidizer that support combustion
b) Contains oxidizing agents that supports combustion.
c) Contains the chemical chain reaction that takes place during combustion.
d) Contains the proportion of vapor-to-air in which the mixture will ignite.
4. Spontaneous ignition starts as a result of what action?

a) auto-ignition
b) combustion
c) evaporation
d) chemical chain reaction
5. The term Flashpoint is used to expense what condition?

a) Fuel evaporizing whether or not it is evaporizing fast enough to keep burning.
b) The degree of heat necessary to ignite flammable vapors.
c) The amount of fuel vapor that mixed with air to form flammable mixture.
d) A condition whereby the surface area of fuel is exposed to the air.
6. What are oxidizing agents and what effects do they have on fire?
a) Are chemical compounds which when heated give oxygen and support the burning flammable materials.
b) Are vapor that support combustion.
c) Density of vapors that support the burning.
d) The temperature of material that will give off ample vapors that support the burning of a material.
7. After you are sure that the electricity has been turned off to a burning electric motor, how should the fire be fought?
a) As a class A or B fire
b) As a class C fire
c) As a class D fire
d) None of these
8. At what level would you expect to find vapor having the density of 1.75?
a) at all levels
b) the lowest level
c) the highest level
d) ground level
9. The magnitude of fire is governed by what factor?

a) The surface area of fuel exposed to the air.
b) The size of fire which is governed by its intensity.
c) The degree of heat necessary to ignite material.
d) All of the above.
10. Fire propagation will be increased by what action?

a) By means of oxidation.
b) With the action of chemical reaction.
c) By the transmission of heat to nearby materials.
d) By the action of spontaneous heating.
11. What factor makes water such an excellent fire-fighting agent?

a) cooling effect
b) heat absorption
c) dilution
d) smothering
12. Why is carbon dioxide so effective for use on class C fires?

a) knock-down effect
b) non-conductivity
c) cooling effect
d) dilution
13. What agent should be used in fighting combustible metal fires?

a) dry chemical
b) dry powder
c) dry “ordinary” chemical
d) G.I powder
14. In what manner CO2 makes it a desirable extinguishing agent?

a) Because of its number of properties.
b) Because of its cooling effect.
c) Because it inhibits in the chemical reaction.
d) Because of its conductivity.
15. The most effective agent used in chemical chain reaction?
a) AFFF
b) halon
c) dry chemical
d) dry powder
1. A
2. D
3. A
4. A
5. A
6. A
7. A
8. B
9. A
10. C
11. B
12. B
13. B
14. A
15. B
Post test
Prepared by: Dr. Miller F. Peckley, CSP, CSMS, CST
MFP Review and Training Services
1. The year the U.S. DOD implemented the hazard classification and identification system for international use.
a) 1967
b) 1987
c) 1976
d) 1978
2. this word may be used in place of “combustible” for highway transportation of fuel that is not classed as a “flammable
liquid”
a) Gasoline
b) Non-flammable
c) Fuel oil
d) Dangerous
3. It restricts the spread of the fire to the point of origin or at least to the area involved.
a) extinguishment
b) confinement
c) suppression
d) control
4. The responsibility to locate, confine and extinguish the fire lies in the hands of:
a) Firefighter
b) senior firefighter
c) nozzle man
d) fire captain
5. A very useful tool used to make quick connection to damage male hose connections
a) Siamese connector
b) Universal thread adapter
c) Wye connector
d) Hydrant wrench
6. The lowest section of an extension ladder?

a) heel
b) bed ladder
c) butt
d) fly ladder
7. A rope or cable which is used to raise the fly ladder of an extension ladder?
a) pawl
b) halyard
c) guides
d) stop
8. A straight ladder with hooks in a movable socket is called:
a) top or tip ladder
b) roof ladder
c) hook ladder
d) attic ladder
9. How many men are required to carry extension ladder from 24 to 36 feet length?
a) three persons
b) minimum of two person
c) four person
d) six person
10. On a two-man raise, what does the man on the top of the ladder do after the ladder is placed close to the building?
a) raise the ladder up to the building.
b) “walk” the ladder up to the building by using the rugs.
c) turn the extension ladder before placing it to the building.
d) divide the ladder to its desired height.
11. Type of ladder that allows the user to climb up and down, one storey at a time?
a) attic ladder
b) extension ladder
c) wall ladder
d) pompier
12. Type of ladder capable of extending up to 100 feet.

a) Hydraulic aerial ladder
b) aerial ladder
c) elevating platform
d) 4 section extension ladder
13. One of the strategies used in post-extinguishment procedures that prevent excessive damage by fire, smoke and water?
a) overhaul
b) salvage
c) exposure
d) blanketing
14. Factor that can do more damage to the building/ facility during firefighting operation?
a) fire
b) water
c) smoke
d) heat
15. Methods used to prevent excessive damage from water?

a) sawdust
b) salvage cover
c) sand
d) none of the above
16. A method or quick way to spread the small salvage cover in protecting materials.
a) accordion method
b) “one-man throw”
c) the “counter payoff”
d) none of these
17. The complete and detailed check of the structures and material after the fire?
a) ventilation
b) investigation
c) inspecting
d) overhaul
18. The most important and excellent supporting evidence in arson?

a) drawing and sketching
b) photography
c) investigator’s note
d) all o these
19. The uncontrollable impulse to burn anything without any motivation?

a) revenge
b) pyromania
c) pyromaniac
d) hatred
20. It is considered the fire prevention month in the Philippines?

a) summer
b) April
c) March
d) May
1.C 11.C
2.C 12.C
3.B 13.B
4.B 14.B
5.B 15.B
6.B 16.B
7.B 17.D
8.B 18.B
9.B 19.B
10. B 20.C

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1

CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION

1. An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible

2. Fiscals and Prosecutors are under the control and supervision

3.The questioning of a person in a formal and systematic way and is

4.A form of investigation in which the investigator assume a

5.A type of surveillance in which extreme precautions and actions

6.A type of shadowing employed when a general impression of the

7.A surveillance activity for the purpose of waiting the anticipated

8.An examination of an individual’s person, houses, or effects or a

9.A kind of evidence that tends to prove additional evidence of a

10.The process of bringing together in a logical manner all evidence

12.A special qualification for an undercover agent.

13.The discreet observation of places, persons and vehicles for the

14. The questioning of a person by law enforcement officers after

15.As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can be served at

16.Measures through which police seek to detect crimes, or

17.A police activity directed toward the identification and

18.An extension or continuation of the preliminary investigation.

19.To obtain admission and confession of guilt is the primary purpose of

20.Such facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably

22.It means that a specific crime was committed at a specified time,

23.Police seek to prevent crime by being present in places where

24.A statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his guilt.

25.It may be a direct acknowledgement of the truth of the guilty

26.It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling

27.The simplest type of interview which concerns with the gathering

28.It means method of operation.

30.The three tools in criminal investigation, whereby their

34.Articles and materials which are found in connection with an

35.The following are different techniques in interrogation except

36.This may be applicable to a crime scene which is approximately

37.The area to be searched is divided into quadrants and each

38.The searchers follow each other in the path of a crime scene

39.A kind of gathering information whereby a subject is being

40.Another term for tailing.

41.A person who gives necessary information to the investigator.

42.The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly

43.The questioning of persons not suspected of being involved in a

44.An objective of criminal investigation.

45.A term used to describe a transition which occur in the

46.A term of the start of the combustion, its detailed process of

47.The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum

48.The transfer of heat within a solid material from hotter to

49.The greatest concern of the firemen at the fire/crime scene is to

50.Most malicious fires are set by individuals secretly; it is

51.The primary course of action in case of a fire.

52.The main product of the combustion of carbon. It is not

53.A normal product of combustion, and is poisonous, especially

54.The fire resisting property of structural elements and the

55.A type of fire that is the result of the combustion of certain

56.A type of fire which results from burning of wood, paper,

57.The following are components of fire except one:

58.It is observed in structural fires and can be an indicator of

59.A pattern or network of fine, irregular lines in glass and wood.

60.A tool employed by an arsonist to delay the start of the fire

62.This catalytic combustion device is the most common means

63.The irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a fire and

64.It is known as the “Fire Code of the Philippines.”

65.Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used

66.These are description of materials or compounds that are

67.Any material having a flash point at or above 37.80 degree

69.An extremely hot luminous bridge formed by the passage of an