2013

In 1976, Tonegawa’s experiment gave clue about gene rearrangement during differentiation of Bcells.
The two different types of cells used in this experiment were

(A) HeLa cells and fibrosarcoma cells

(B) embryonic cells and fibroblasts

(C) adult myeloma cells and HeLa cells

(D) embryonic cells and adult myeloma cells

Q.2 To which one of the following groups, the antibiotics kanamycin, streptomycin and gentamicin

belong

(A) cephalosporins (B) macrolides (C) aminoglycosides (D) quinolones

Q.3 Shine Dalgarno’s sequence present in mRNA binds to

(A) 3end of rRNA

(B) 5end of rRNA

(C) 5end of tRNA

(D) 3end of tRNA

Q.4 Which one of the following transport mechanism is NOT employed by prokaryotes?

(A) Passive diffusion (B) Group translocation (C) Endocytosis (D) Active transport

Q.5 The most common indicator organism of faecal pollution in water is

(A) Clostridium botulinum (B) Bacillus subtilis (C) Escherichia coli (D) Clostridium tetani

Q.6 The theoretical maximum number of ATP molecules produced from aerobic oxidation of glucose

by eukaryotic cells is

(A) 38 (B) 24 (C)12 (D) 8

Q.7 Which one of the following DO NOT use water as an electron source during photosynthesis?

(A) Sulfate reducing bacteria

(B) Methanogenic bacteria

(C) Green and purple bacteria

(D) Nitrifying bacteria

Q.8 If the radius of a spherical coccus is 0.8 µm, the value of surface area/ vol in µm-1 will be

(A) 7.45 (B) 4.05 (C) 3.75 (D) 0.85

Q.9 The enzyme that catalyzes the reduction of nitrogen to ammonia is

(A) nitrogenase (B) nitrate reductase (C) nitrite reductase (D)deaminase

Q.10 Chemostat is a continuous culture system in which sterile medium is fed into the culture vessel
at the same rate as the spent medium is removed. If in a chemostat culture, the flow rate is 30 ml h-1
and volume of the medium inside the vessel is 100 ml, the dilution rate in h-1 is

(A) 3.33 (B) 1.50 (C) 0.75 (D) 0.30

Q.11 In an experiment the structural genes lacZYAof lac operon were found to be constitutively

expressed. The following explanations were given for the constitutive expression

(P) absence of a functional repressor due to mutation in the repressor gene lacI

(Q) mutation in the operator that can no longer bind the repressor

(R) mutation in the lacAgene

Which of the following is CORRECT

(A) Only P (B) Only Q (C) Both P & Q (D) Only R

Q.12 Which one of the following is TRUE about siderophores in bacteria?

(A) Siderophores are secreted only when soluble iron is available in the medium

(B) Siderophores form complex with ferrous ions in the medium

(C) Siderophores are the only route of iron uptake

(D) Siderophores form complex with ferric ions in the medium

Q.13 In a population containing fast and slow growing bacteria, the slow growing bacteria can be

enriched by supplementing the medium with

(A) chloramphenicol (B) penicillin (C) penicillin & chloramphenicol (D) rifampin

Q.14 When the supply of tryptophan is plentiful, the tryptophan operon is repressed because the
(A) repressor protein-corepressor complex is bound at the operator

(B) repressor protein is synthesized in large quantity

(C) repressor-corepressor complex is not formed

(D) repressor becomes inactive and therefore has reduced specificity for the operator

Q.15 Match the scientists in Group I with their contributions in microbiology in Group II

Group I

P. Robert Hooke

Q. Paul Ehrlich

R. Antony van Leeuwenhoek

S. Sergei Winogradsky

Group II

I. Proved that microbes can cause diseases

II. First to observe cells

III. First to observe bacteria

IV. Used the first synthetic chemotherapeutic agent

V. Linked specific bacteria to biogeochemical transformations

(A) P-I, Q-II, R-III, S-V (B) P-II, Q-IV, R-III, S-V

(C) P-II, Q -I, R-III, S-IV (D) P-V, Q-III, R-IV, S-II

Q.16 Match the infectious agents in Group I with the associated diseases in Group II

Group I

P. Bordetellapertusis

Q. Mycobacterium leprae

R. Haemophilusinfluenzae

S. Rubella

Group II
I. Mumps

II. Meningitis

III. Tuberculosis

IV. Whooping cough

V. Hansen’s disease

(A) P-IV, Q-V, R-II, S-I (B) P-V, Q-III, R-I, S-IV

(C) P-I, Q-III, R-V, S-IV (D) P-III, Q-II, R-V, S-I

Q.17 Match the microscopes in Group I with their working principles in Group II

Group I

P. Phase contrast

Q. Dark field

R. Bright field

S. Electron microscopy

Group II

I. Light reaches the specimen only from the sides

II. Uses fluorescent dyes

III. Difference in the refractive index of cells from their

surrounding medium

IV. Difference in contrast between specimen and its

surrounding medium

V. Uses electrons instead of photons as energy source

(A ) P-V, Q-II, R-III, S-V (B)P-III, Q-I, R-IV, S-V

(C) P-III, Q-II, R-V, S-I (D) P-II, Q-I, R-III, S-V

Q.18 In a phenol coefficient test for determining the efficacy of a disinfectant X, the maximum
effective

dilution for X and phenol was found to be 1/450 and 1/90, respectively. Calculate the phenol
coefficient for X.

(A) 10.0 (B) 5.0 (C) 1.0 (D) 0.2

Q.19 How many electrons are accepted when sulfate acts as the terminal electron acceptor in bacteria

such as Desulfovibrio?

(A) 8 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 2

Q.20 A bacterial population increases from 103 cells to 109 cells in 10 h. Calculate the number of

generations per hour.

(A) 20 (B)10 (C)4 (D)2

2014
Q.1 Most viral capsids have

(A) 08 faces (B) 12 faces (C) 16 faces (D) 20 faces

Q.2 Intergenic suppression involves mutation in

(A) rRNA (B) mRNA (C) tRNA (D) cDNA

Q.3 Which one of the following proteins does NOT bind to a gaseous ligand?

(A) Leghemoglobin (B) Carbonic anhydrase (C) Nitrogenase (D) NADPH oxidase

4. A bacterial culture (5 ×10 8 cells/ml) is maintained in a chemostat of working volume 10 L. If the

doubling time of the bacteria is 50 min, the required rate of flow of nutrients (in ml/min) is

_______________.

Q.5 Rheumatic fever is an example of

(A) autoimmune disease (B) type IV hypersensitive reaction

(C) immunodeficiency disease (D) neurodegenerative disorder

Q.6 Oxygenases that catalyse the initial step in the degradation of polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons
by using molecular oxygen belong to which enzyme class?

(A) Hydrolase (B) Transferase

(C) Lyase (D) Oxido-reductase

Q.7 Which one of the following is NOT involved in horizontal gene transfer?

(A) Conjugation (B) Transformation

(C) Transduction (D) Mutation

Q.8 The principle of immunization was first explained by

(A) Edward Jenner (B) Elie Metchnikoff

(C) Louis Pasteur (D) Robert Koch

Q.9 Lysozyme catalyzes the breakdown of

(A) NAG-NAM (B) lipopolysaccharide (C) teichoic acid (D) lipoprotein A

Q.10 Which one of the following microscopic techniques can be used to study the contour of proteins?

(A) SEM (B) TEM (C) AFM (D) Confocal microscopy

Q.11 Match compounds in Group I with inhibitory activities in Group II.

Group I

(P) Vancomycin

(Q) Rifampin

(R) Puromycin

(S) Ciprofloxacin

Group II

(i) Folate metabolism

(ii) DNA synthesis

(iii)Protein synthesis

(iv) RNA synthesis

(v) Cell wall synthesis

(A) P-v, Q-iv, R-iii, S-ii (B) P-iv, Q-iii, R-i, S-ii

(C) P-iv, Q-i, R-iii, S-ii (D) P-v, Q-iii, R-ii, S-iv
Match the organisms with the appropriate growth curves.

(P) Bacteria

(Q) Extracellular virus

(R) Intracellular virus

(A) P-iii, Q-i, R-ii (B) P-ii, Q-i, R-iii

(C) P-ii, Q-iii, R-i (D) P-i, Q-ii, R-iii

Q.13 The length of a coding region in an mRNA is 897 bases. How many amino acids will be there in
the polypeptide synthesized using this mRNA?

(A) 297 (B) 298 (C) 299 (D) 897

Q.14 Match the media in Group I for screening microbial isolates in Group II.

Group I Group II

(P) Blood agar media (i) Coliforms

(Q) Minimal media (ii) Protease producers

(R) Skimmed milk agar media (iii) Hemolytic microbes

(S) Bile salt media (iv) Lipase producers

(v) Autotrophs

(A) P-iii, Q-v, R-ii, S-i (B) P-iii, Q-ii, R-i, S-iv

(C) P-i, Q-iii, R-ii, S-iv (D) P-ii, Q-i, R-iv, S-v

Q.15 During a bacterial growth experiment, the total viable cell count at 2 h and 6 h was 1×104

cells/ml and 1×109 cells/ml, respectively. The specific growth rate (in h-1) of the culture is
_____________.

Q.16 The concentration of sodium chloride in the cytoplasm of a Halobacterium sp. was found to be

250 ng/nl. The molarity (in M) of sodium chloride is ________

Match organisms in Group I with shapes in Group II and flagellar arrangements in Group III.

Group I Group II Group III

(P) Salmonella typhi (i) helical (1) non-motile

(Q) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (ii) rod (2) amphitrichous

(R) Aquaspirillum serpens (iii) curved rod (3) peritrichous

(S) Vibrio cholerae (iv) ovoid (4) polar

(A) P-ii-3, Q-iv-1, R-i-2, S-iii-4

(B) P-iii-1, Q-iv-2, R-ii-4, S-i-3

(C) P-i-2, Q-ii-4, R-iii-2, S-iv-3

(D) P-ii-2, Q-iii-1, R-i-3, S-iv-4

Q.18 Lethal dose curves of different microorganisms (1, 2, 3 and 4) are shown below. Which of these

microorganisms are the most lethal?

(A) 1 & 3 only (B) 1 & 2 only (C) 3 & 4 only (D) 2 & 3 only

Q.19 Match items in Group I with sterilization methods in Group II.

Group I Group II

(P) Ampicillin (i) 70 % alcohol treatment

(Q) 1% glucose in phosphate buffer (ii) Autoclaving at 15 psi for 15 min

(R) Plastic syringe (iii) Autoclaving at 10 psi for 20 min

(S) Luria broth (iv) Membrane filtration

(v) γ-ray irradiation

(A) P-iv, Q-iii, R-v, S-ii (B) P-iii, Q-iv, R-ii, S-v

(C) P-i, Q-ii, R-v, S-iii (D) P-v, Q-ii, R-iii, S-i
Q.20 Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding recA mutants of E. coli?

(P) Exhibit much reduced recombination

(Q) Do not survive UV irradiation

(R) Show no effect on doubling time

(S) Exhibit pleiotropy

(A) P, Q & R only (B) P, Q & S only

(C) P, R & S only (D) Q, R & S only

From zoology

The end products of glycolysis include ATP,

(A) CO2 and H2O (B) H2O and pyruvate

(C) NADH and pyruvate (D) CO2 and NADH

Q.17 Which ONE of the following combinations of products will result, when 3 molecules of acetyl CoA

is fed into TCA cycle?

(A) 1 ATP, 2 CO2, 3 NADH, and 1 FADH2

(B) 3 ATP, 6 CO2, 9 NADH, and 3 FADH2

(C) 3 ATP, 3 CO2, 3 NADH, and 3 FADH2

(D) 38 ATP, 6 CO2, 3 NADH, and 12 FADH2

2016

Q.1 Which one of the following is the most appropriate technique to determine the relatedness of
two bacterial species?

(A) DNA hybridization (B) Doubling time measurement

(C) Biochemical characterization (D) Plasmid profiling

Q.2 Which one of the following phages undergoes non-integrative lysogenic phase?

(A) lambda (B) P1 (C) T7 (D) M13

Q.3 Which one of the following is NOT a part of human microbiome?

(A) Propionibacterium acnes (B) Lactobacillus casei

(C) Streptococcus suis (D) Bacteroides fragilis

Q.4 Resident macrophages of _________ are called Kupffer cells.

(A) brain (B) liver (C) lung (D) kidney

Q.5 The enzyme responsible for generation of hypochlorous ions during phagocytosis is

(A) NADPH oxidase (B) catalase

(C) myeloperoxidase (D) superoxide dismutase

Q.6 Teichoic acid is composed of repetitive units of

(A) keto-deoxy octanoic acid (B) glucose

(C) N-acetyl glucosamine (D) glycerol

Q.7 Biofilm produced by bacteria is detected by

(A) Saffranin (B) Malachite green (C) Basic fuchsin (D) Congo red

Q.8 The precursor for the synthesis of aromatic amino acids is

(A) phosphoenolpyruvate (B) pyruvate

(C) oxaloacetate (D) -ketoglutarate

Q.9 The net yield of NADH in the Embden-Meyerhof pathway in E. coli is________.
Q.10 E. coli ribonuclease contains 124 amino acids. The number of nucleotides present in the gene

encoding the protein is _______________.

Which of the following infectious agents cross the blood-brain barrier?

(P) Streptococcus pneumoniae (Q) Coxsackie virus

(R) Rotavirus (S) Streptococcus pyogenes

(A) P & S (B) R & S (C) P & Q (D) Q & R

Q.12 At OD540nm= 0.5, which one of the following bacterial mono-dispersed cell suspensions will
have

(i)maximum and (ii) minimum number of cells?

(P) Mycoplasma pneumoniae (Q) Micrococcus luteus

(R) Bacillus subtilis (S) Escherichia coli

(A) P & Q (B) P & R (C) Q & R (D) R & S

Q.13 Which one of the following enzyme combinations allows some bacteria to utilize acetate through

glyoxylate pathway?

(P) Isocitrate lyase (Q) Isocitrate dehydrogenase

(R) Succinyl CoA synthetase (S) Malate synthase

(A) P & S (B) P & R (C) Q & S (D) Q & R

Q.14 The decimal reduction time (D121) for Clostridium botulinum spores is 0.2 min. The time
requiredto reduce the spore count from 1012 to one spore at 121°C is_______ minutes.
Q.15 E. coli requires three genes, galK (kinase), galT (transacetylase) and galE (epimerase) to utilize

galactose. If there is a mutation in any one of these genes, the mutant cannot utilize galactose.

Which one of the following combinations of merodiploids will support the growth of mutants on

galactose?

(P) galK+galT+galE-/ galK-galT+galE-

(Q) galK-galT+galE-/ galK+galT-galE+

(R) galK+galT-galE-/ galKgalTgalE+

(S) galK+galT+galE-/ galK+galTgalE+

(A) P & Q (B) P & R (C) R & S (D) Q & S

Q.16 Nitrogenase reduces N2 to NH3. Metal co-factors required for this activity are __________.

(A) Fe & Cu (B) Mo & Fe

(C) Mo & Mn (D) Cu & Mn

Q.17 If a bacterial cell contains 5,000 genes and if the average mutation frequency per gene is 2 ×10-4

Per generation, the average number of new mutations per generation is _________.

Q.19 Match the cell structure components given in Group I with appropriate functions from Group II.

Group I Group II

(P) Cell membrane (I) Nutrient transport

(Q) Purple membrane (II) Photosynthesis

(R) Cisternae (III) Active transport

(S) Outer membrane (IV) Protein glycosylation

(V) Light-driven proton transport

(A) P-I, Q-V, R-II, S-III (B) P-I, Q-II, R-IV, S-III

(C) P-III, Q-II, R-V, S-I (D) P-III, Q-V, R-IV, S-I
Q.20 Match the antibiotics given in Group I with appropriate targets from Group II.

Group I Group II

(P) Nalidixic acid (I) RNA polymerase

(Q) Tetracycline (II) DNA gyrase

(R) Erythromycin (III) DNA polymerase

(S) Rifampin (IV) 50S ribosomal subunit

(V) Aminoacyl tRNA

(A) P-III, Q-IV, R-V, S-I (B) P-V, Q-I, R-IV, S-II

(C) P-II, Q-V, R-IV, S-I (D) P-II, Q-V, R-I, S-IV