Acts

Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 - MCQs with answers - Part I
1. In which year did the act come into operation?
a. 1947
b. 1949
c. 1953
d. 1963
ANSWER: a. 1947
2. To which settlement machinery can the central government refer the disputes
under rule 81 - A?
a. Conciliation
b. Arbitration
c. Adjudicator
d. Supreme Court
ANSWER: c. Adjudicator
3. Before the industrial disputes act was implemented in the year 1947, which act took
care of the industrial disputes?
a. Trade Disputes Act, 1929
b. Royal Commission on Labour, 1934
c. Labour Management Relations Act, 1947
d. None of the above
ANSWER: a. Trade Disputes Act, 1929

4. Choose the correct option that correctly states out the defect in the Trade Disputes
Act, 1929.
a. Restraints imposed on the rights of strike
b. To render the proceedings unstatutable under the Act for the settlement of an industrial
dispute
c. Solution to industrial unrest
d. All of the above
ANSWER: b. To render the proceedings unstatutable under the Act for the settlement
of an industrial dispute
5. The bill passing rule 81A has made two new institutions for the prevention and
settlement of industrial disputes, i.e. Work Committees and _______
a. Industrial Tribunal
b. Commission on Labour
c. Arbitration
d. Adjudication
ANSWER: a. Industrial Tribunal
6. The industrial peace is secured through voluntary _______ and compulsory

a.Compromise and Arbitration
b. Adjudication and Arbitration
c. Work Committee and Industrial Tribunal
d. Negotiation and Adjudication
ANSWER: d. Negotiation and Adjudication
7. Choose the correct objective of the Industrial Disputes Act.

a. To prevent illegal strikes
b. To promote measures for securing and preserving good relations between the employers
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and the employees
c. To provide relief to workmen in matters of lay - offs,
retrenchment, wrongful dismissals
d. All of the above
ANSWER: d. All of the above
8. State true or false

i. Industrial disputes act can be described as the milestone in the historical development of
industrial law in India.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
9. The act was first amended in the year ______

a. 1929
b. 1946
c. 1947
d. 1949
ANSWER: d. 1949
10. Power has been given to _______________ to require Works Committee to be

constituted in every industrial establishment employing 100 workmen or more.
a. Appropriate Government
b. State Government
c. High Court
d. Board of Conciliation
ANSWER: a. Appropriate Government
1. Which permanent settlement machinery has been mentioned in the act accountable
for the speedy and amicable settlement of industrial disputes?
a. Adjudication
b. Conciliation
c. Arbitration
d. Appropriate government
ANSWER: b. Conciliation
2. State true of false.

i. The industrial disputes act bill empowers the conciliation to declare emergency if required,
by notification in the official Gazette.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b. False
Reason: The bill empowers the appropriate government to declare emergency if
required
3. A report of the select committee on the Industrial Disputes Bill, 1946 was published
in the Gazette of India, Part ____
a. V
b. IV
c. III
d. I
ANSWER: a. V
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4. On which date did the industrial disputes act, 1947 receive assent and came in the
Statute Book?
a. 1st April, 1947
b. 23rd April, 1936
c. 28th April, 1937
d. 11th March, 1947
ANSWER: d. 11th March, 1947
5. ________ means an interim or a final determination of any industrial dispute or of

any question relating thereto by any labour court.
a. Banking Company
b. Closure
c. Award
d. Conciliation Proceeding
ANSWER: c. Award
6. State True or False

i. A controlled industry is any industry which is controlled by the union and has been
declared by any central act to be expedient in the public interest.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
7. Clause (d) of section 2 of ______________ act defines Khadi.

a. Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
b. Payment of wages act, 1936
c. Khadi and Village Industries commission Act, 1956
d. Industrial Relations Act, 1967
ANSWER: c. Khadi and Village Industries commission Act, 1956
8. How many members does a conciliation board consist of as per the appropriate
government?
a. Chairman and 2 or 4 other members
b. Chairman and 1 more member
c. Chairman and 5 or 6 other members
d. Chairman and 10 other members
ANSWER: a. Chairman and 2 or 4 other members
9. A person shall not be appointed as the presiding officer of a labour court unless he
has been the presiding officer under any provincial or state act for not less than ____
years.
a. 2
b. 10
c. 5
d. 15
ANSWER: c. 5
10. How many persons shall a national tribunal consist of which is to be appointed by
the central government?
a. 1
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b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
ANSWER: a. 1
Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 - MCQs with answers - Part III
1. Which section in the industrial disputes act discusses about the disqualifications of
the presiding officers of labour courts?
a. 7A
b. 7B
c. 7C
d. 8
ANSWER: c. 7C
2. What is the required minimum age of the person to be appointed in the office of the
presiding officer of a labour court, Tribunal or National Tribunal?
a. 65 years
b. 60 years
c. 58 years
d. 50 years
ANSWER: a. 65 years
3. As per section 8, if a vacancy arises in the office of the presiding officer of a labour
court, Tribunal or National Tribunal or in the chairman's office in the case of National
Tribunal, the __________ and in any other office the ___________ shall appoint
another person in accordance with the provisions of this Act.
a. Central Government for both
b. Appropriate Government for both
c. Central Government; Appropriate Government
d. Appropriate Government; Central Government
ANSWER: c. Central Government; Appropriate Government

i. No settlement arrived at in the course of a conciliation proceeding shall be invalid by
reason only of the fact that such settlement was arrived at after the expiry of the period
referred to in sub-section (6) of section 12 or sub - section (5) of 13.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
5. How many days of notice has to be given to the workman by the employer in case
of any changes to be made in the service conditions specified in the fourth schedule?
a. 30 days
b. 15 days
c. 21 days
d. 45 days
ANSWER: c. 21 days

i. The details in the arbitration act, 1940 are applicable to arbitrations under this section as
well
a. True
b. False
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ANSWER: b. False
Reason: Both the arbitration act, 1940 and the arbitration section here are different
and are not interconnected.
7. Which of the below mentioned is the duty of a conciliation officer?
a. The board shall submit its report within 2 months of the date on which the dispute was
referred to
b. The court shall inquire that matters referred to it and report thereon to the appropriate
government within a period of 6 months.
c. Where any industrial dispute exists or is apprehended, the conciliation officer may, or
where the dispute relates to a public utility service and a notice under section 22 has been
given shall hold the conciliation proceedings in the prescribed manner.
d. All of the above
View Answer / Hide Answer
ANSWER: c. Where any industrial dispute exists or is apprehended, the conciliation

officer may, or where the dispute relates to a public utility service and a notice under
section 22 has been given shall hold the conciliation proceedings in the prescribed
manner.
8. Where do the labour court, tribunal and national tribunals submit their awards of
the dispute?
a. Appropriate government
b. Central government
c. Employer
d. Conciliation
ANSWER: a. Appropriate government

i. Is it necessary for all the members of the board or court to sign the written award as per
section 16 of the act or can be signed by the presiding officer as the case may be?
a. False
b. True
ANSWER: b. True
Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 - MCQs with answers - Part IV
1. What is the time period in which all the awards of the arbitration are to be published
from the date of its receipt by the appropriate government?
a. 30 days
b. 15 days
c. 7 days
d. 1 day

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ANSWER: a. 30 days
2. State true or false.
i. As per section 17A, the award published under sub - section (1) shall be revised and shall
not be called in question by in any manner whatsoever.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b. False
Reason: The award under this section is final and cannot be questioned by anybody.
3. If any declaration has been made in relation to an award under the provision to sub
- section (1), the appropriate government or the central government within _______
days from the date of publication of the award under section 17, make an order
rejecting or modifying the award.
a. 6 months
b. 3 months
c. 90 days
d. 1 year
ANSWER: c. 90 days
4. If the date of operation is not mentioned in the awards, then according to sub -
section 1 or 3 when is the award put into effect?
a. One month after the date of enforcement

b. On the date of enforcement
c. One week after the day of enforcement
ANSWER: b. On the date of enforcement
5. Which section deals with payment of wages to workman pending proceedings in

higher courts in the act?
a. 17B
b. 17
c. 17A
d. All of the above
ANSWER: a. 17B
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i. Both the parties should agree upon the date of settlements and awards.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
7. The arbitration award shall remain in operation for a period of _____ year as
mentioned in the act.
a. 1 year
b. 6 months
c. 24 months
ANSWER: a. 1 year
8. The Central government has the rights to reduce the operation period if it thinks to
be fit. State True or False.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b. False
Reason: the appropriate government has the authority to do so.
9. As per section ___ a conciliation proceeding shall be deemed to have commenced

on the date on which a strike or lock - out is received by the conciliation officer.
a. 20
b. 18
c. 22
d. 19
ANSWER: c. 22
i. Section 21 deals with commencement and conclusion of proceedings.

a. False
b. True

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ANSWER: a. False
Reason: Section 21 deals with the confidentiality of matters.

Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 - MCQs with answers - Part V
1. No person employed in a public utility service shall go on strike in breach of

contract within ____ of giving such a notice.
a. 14 days
b. 6 weeks
c. 7 days
ANSWER: b. 6 weeks
2. Choose the correct option where no workmen shall go on a strike in breach of

contract and no employer of any such workmen shall declare a lock - out during:
a. The pendency of conciliation proceedings before a board and 7 days after the conclusion
of such proceedings
b. The pendency of proceedings before labour court, tribunal or national tribunal and 2
months, after the conclusion of such proceedings
c. During any period in which a settlement or award is in operation, in respect of any of the
matters covered by the settlement or award
d. All of the above
3. Section ____ covers the definition of continuous service.
a. 25B
b. 25
c. 25A
d. 26
ANSWER: a. 25B
4. How many days of service will be termed as continuous service when working in a
mine industry?
a. 190 days
b. 240 days
c. 365 days
d. 180 days

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ANSWER: a. 190 days
i. If a workmen is laid â€“ off for more than 45 days no compensation shall be payable in
respect of any period of the lay - off after the expiry of 45 days.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
6. A workmen who is employed in an industrial establishment in the place of another

workman whose name is borne on the muster rolls of the establishment is ___
a. Temporary workmen
b. Permanent workmen
c. Badli workmen
ANSWER: c. Badli workmen
7. Will a workman be entitled to compensation if he does not present himself for work
at the establishment at the appointed time during normal working hours at least once
a day?
a. Yes
b. No
ANSWER: b. No
8. How much compensation does the workman deserve at the time of retrenchment?
a. Equivalent to 15 days average pay

b. 6 months
c. Equivalent to 30 days average pay
ANSWER: a. Equivalent to 15 days average pay
9. Which section deals with compensation to workmen in case of transfer of

undertakings?
a. Section 25F
b. Section 25FF
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c. Section 25
d. Section 25E
ANSWER: b. Section 25FF
1. How many days of notice period is mandatory for a workman who has been in
continuous service for more than a year while retrenchment?
a. 1 month
b. 2 months
c. 15 days
d. 45 days
ANSWER: a. 1 month
3. How many does notice is the employer supposed to give before closing down an
establishment as per section 25FFA?
a. 90 days
b. 60 days
c. 30 days
d. 120 days
ANSWER: b. 60 days
4. If an undertaking is closed down on account of unavoidable circumstances, the

compensation to be paid to the workman under clause b of section 25F shall not
exceed his average pay of ____.
a. 1 month
b. 15 days
c. 60 days
d. 3 months
ANSWER: d. 3 months
5. Which section deals with the prohibitions of lay - offs?
a. 25M
b. 25N
c. 25F
d. 25
ANSWER: a. 25M
6. What is the penalty faced by an employer if he lays - off or retrenches an employee

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without prior permission?
a. Imprisonment for upto a month and a fine of upto 1000 rupees

b. Imprisonment for upto a month or;
c. Fine of upto 1000 rupees
d. All of the above
7. The penalty for closing an undertaking without prior notice is _____.
a. Imprisonment for upto 6 months or;

b. Fine upto 5000 rupees
c. Both imprisonment and fine
d. All of the above
8. Match the following sections with their penalties.
1. Penalty for committing unfair labour practices ----- A. 27

2. Penalty for other offences ------------------------- B. 25U
3. Penalty for breach of settlement or award----------- C. 31
4. Penalty for instigation ---------------------------- D. 29
5. Penalty for aiding illegal strikes /lockout -------- E. 28
a. 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A, 5-E

b. 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-E, 5-A
c. 1-E, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D, 5-B
d. 1-A, 2-E, 3-D, 4-B, 5-C
e. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C, 5-E
ANSWER: a. 1â€“B 2-C 3-D 4-A 5-E
i. A proceeding under section 33 and section 33A is pending before a Tribunal or National
Tribunal can be transferred to a Labour Court.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
i. No employer shall during the pendency of any such proceeding in respect to an industrial
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dispute, take any action against any protected workmen concerned in such a dispute.
a. False
b. True
ANSWER: b. True
1. What should be the percentage of "protected workmen" of the total number of

workmen employed in any establishment?
a. 1%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 15%
ANSWER: a. 1%
2. The ____________ can make rules for the distribution of protected workman among
various trade unions.
a. Central government
b. State authority
c. Appropriate government
d. Conciliation officer
ANSWER: c. Appropriate government
3. A workmen who is a member of the executive or other office bearer of a registered

trade union connected with the establishment is _________
a. Badli workmen
b. Conciliation officer
c. Skilled labour
d. Protected workmen
ANSWER: d. Protected workmen
4. Which section in the act deals with recovery of money due from an employer?
a. 33C
b. 33
c. 33A
d. 33B
ANSWER: a. 33C
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i. Section 38 deals with the delegation of powers.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b. False
Reason: Section 39 deals with the delegation of powers.
6. Choose the correct option that declares the industry to be public utility services
under sub - clause VI of clause N of section 2
A. India Security Press

B. Banking Company
C. Defence establishment
D. Insurance Company
a. A, B & C
b. B & C
c. A & D
d. B & D
ANSWER: a. A, B & C
7. Which of the option is a matter mentioned in the jurisdiction of labour courts?
a. Withdrawal of any customary concession or privilege
b. Application and interpretation of standing orders

c. Illegality or otherwise of a strike or lock out
d. All of the above

7. Which of the option is a matter mentioned in the jurisdiction of labour courts?
a. Withdrawal of any customary concession or privilege
b. Application and interpretation of standing orders

c. Illegality or otherwise of a strike or lock out
d. All of the above
8. Which of the options is a mBanning Beef â€“ Is it justified?atter mentioned in the

jurisdiction of labour courts?
a. The propriety or legality of an order passed by an employer under the standing orders
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b. Discharge or dismissal of workmen including reinstatement of, or grant of relief to,
workmen wrongfully dismissed
c. All matters other than those specified in the Third Schedule
d. Leave with wages and holidays
ANSWER: d. Leave with wages and holidays
9. Condition of service for change of which notice is to be given; is mention in which

section of the act?
a. Section 9A
b. Section 7A
c. Section 7
d. Section 2a
ANSWER: a. Section 9A
10. Which of these is an unfair labour practice on part of the workmen?
a. To recruit workman during a strike which is not illegal
b. To discharge or dismiss workmen
c. Indulging in coercive activities against certification of a bargaining representative
d. To indulge in acts of force or violence
ANSWER: c. Indulging in coercive activities against certification of a bargaining

representative
11. Which of these is an unfair labour practice on part of the employer?
a. To incite or indulge in wilful damage to employerâ€™s property connected with the

industry
b. To advise or actively support or instigate any strike deemed to be illegal
c. For a recognised union to refuse to bargain collectively in good faith with the employer
ANSWER: d. None of the above
Reason: All the alternatives are unfair labour practices on part of the workmen.
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Settlement Machinery - Conciliation, Mediation, Arbitration and Adjudication - MCQs with
asnwers -Part 1
1. __________ and __________ are regarded as equivalent terms referring to

essentially the same kind of third â€“ party intervention in promoting voluntary
settlement of disputes.
a. Mediation and Conciliation

b. Conciliation and Arbitration
c. Mediation and Court of Enquiry
ANSWER: a. Mediation and Conciliation
2. As per which professor the distinction between mediation and conciliation is hair -
splitting?
a. Prof. Foxwell
b. Prof. Pigou
c. Prof. Davey
d. All of the above
ANSWER: c. Prof. Davey
3. Which of the settlement machinery implies a stronger form of intervention and a

mediator may be permitted to offer to the parties proposals for settlement?
a. Conciliation
b. Adjudication
c. Arbitration
d. Mediation
e. Court of enquiry
ANSWER: d. Mediation
4. The mediator has been described as a confidential _________ and an industrial

diplomat.
a. Peace - maker
b. Messenger
c. Adviser
ANSWER: c. Adviser

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i. The mediator imposes his will and judgement on both the disputing parties.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b. False
6. _________ can be described as - the practice by which the services of a neutral

third - party are used in a dispute as a means of helping the disputing parties to
reduce the extent of their differences and to arrive at an amicable settlement.
a. Arbitration
b. Mediation
c. Adjudication
d. Conciliation
ANSWER: d. Conciliation
7. Which are the three kinds of mediators according to professor Pigou?
A. The eminent outsider

B. The non - governmental board
C. The board connected with some part of the governmental system of the country
D. Voluntary conciliation
E. Compulsory conciliation
a. A, B and C
b. C, D and E
c. A, C and D
d. B, C and E
ANSWER: a. A, B and C
Reason: Options "D" and "E" are not included in the types of mediation according to
Pigou.
8. Which are the two methods on which a conciliator relies on to resolve the disputes
between two parties?
a. Cognition and Influence

b. Reasoning and Persuasion
c. Rationale and Coaxing
d. Motivation and Leadership
ANSWER: b. Reasoning and Persuasion
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9. Which are the unique and essential characteristics of the conciliation process?
a. Flexibility, informality and simplicity

b. Blase, clumsy and decisive
c. Candid, conceited and dismayed
d. Fierce, intrepid and meticulous
ANSWER: a. Flexibility, informality and simplicity
i. Under section 4 of the Industrial Disputes Act, it is the government in India who appoints a
conciliation officer for a specific area or even for a specific industry.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
11. __________ and ____________ are the two attributes which every conciliator
should possess.
a. Independence and impartiality

b. Technicality and suspicion
c. Persuasion and perceiving
d. Conviction and arduous
ANSWER: a. Independence and impartiality
12. Choose the odd man out.
a. Safety valve
b. Adviser
c. Face saver
d. Friendly personality
ANSWER: d. Friendly personality
Reason: Friendly personality is considered as the quality of the conciliator whereas

the rest are the roles of a conciliator.
13. Which of these is one of the phases in the sequence of the conciliation process
A. Emergency of appropriate mood for settlement of compromise

B. The hard posture phase
C. Outlet for feelings
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a. Only A & C
b. Only B
c. Only A & B
d. Only B & C
ANSWER: c. Only A & B
14. Which amongst these is a technique used by the conciliator?
a. Searching for accommodation

b. Being adamant
c. Listening attentively
d. Unbiased
ANSWER: c. Listening attentively
15. What kind of pressures do the disputing parties face from the conciliator?
a. Personal
b. Social
c. Political
d. Economic
e. All of the above
ANSWER: e. All of the above
1. ____________ is a process in which a dispute is submitted to an impartial outsider

who makes a decision which is usually binding on both the parties.
a. Arbitration
b. Adjudication
c. Court of enquiry
ANSWER: a. Arbitration
2. What is the main objective of arbitration as per the Industrial Disputes Act?
a. Securing an award
b. Dominance
c. Adjudication
d. Binding of the award on the parties
ANSWER: c. Adjudication
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3. Arbitration is a _____ process, while mediation has a ____ tinge.
a. Legal and statutory

b. Lawful and constitutional
c. Legitimate and compromising
d. Judicial and legislative
ANSWER: d. Judicial and legislative
4. Which are the two traits on which the award of an arbitrator rests on?
a. Compromise and liberty

b. Fair play and impartiality
c. Equity and Justice
d. All of the above
ANSWER: c. Equity and Justice
5. The decision of the arbitrator should be based on which approach?
a. Quasi - judicial
b. Split the difference
c. Judicial
d. Non â€“ judicial
ANSWER: b. Split the difference
6. In which of these countries has arbitration been a popular way to resolve conflicts?
A. USA
B. New Zealand
C. India
D. UK
a. A & B
b. C & D
c. None of the above
d. All of the above
ANSWER: a. A & B
7. The procedure is relatively _____ when compared to that in ordinary courts or

labour tribunals.
a. Expeditious
b. Compromising
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c. Binding
d. Delayed
ANSWER: a. Expeditious
i. Arbitration is formal in character and is an expensive form of settlement.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b. False
Reason: Arbitration is informal and is inexpensive and hence is the most popular
form of settlement.
9. Choose the odd man out.
a. Judgement is often arbitrary and ill - advised as the arbitrators are not well - versed in the
economic and technical aspects of industry.
b. Arbitration deprives labour of its right to go on strike because of the provision in the
agreement
c. Delay often occurs in arriving at the award and settlement of disputes leading to a morale
breakdown of the employees
d. Arbitration is based on the consent of both parties
ANSWER: d. Arbitration is based on the consent of both parties
10. When the two contending parties are unable to compose their differences by
themselves or with the help of the mediator or conciliator, agree to submit the dispute
to impartial authority whose decision they are ready to accept is called _________
a. Voluntary arbitration
b. Voluntary Mediation
c. Compulsory arbitration
d. Compulsory Mediation
ANSWER: a. Voluntary arbitration
1. Which of the following is an essential element in voluntary arbitration?
a. Subsequent attendance of witnesses and investigations

b. Industries of strategic importance are involved
c. Country is passing through grave economic crisis
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d. All of the above
ANSWER: a. Subsequent attendance of witnesses and investigations
Reason: Except for option "a" all are the situations when compulsory arbitration is
imposed on the disputing parties.
2. What is the main drawback of compulsory arbitration?
a. Compulsory implication of award
b. Non - compromising
c. It deprives both the parties of their very important and fundamental rights
ANSWER: c. It deprives both the parties of their very important and fundamental
rights
3. Which of these is a condition for which compulsory arbitration is imposed on the

disputing parties?
a. When an industrial dispute is apprehended
b. Disputing parties fail to arrive at a settlement by a voluntary method
c. The issue of the dispute should be mentioned in the arbitration agreement
d. All of the above
ANSWER: b. Disputing parties fail to arrive at a settlement by a voluntary method
Reason: The option a, c and d are the conditions under which a dispute is referred to
arbitration under the industrial disputes act, 1947.
4. Which of the following is a quality which should be present in a successful

arbitrator?
a. High integrity
b. Knowledge of collective bargaining
c. Understanding of complexities of labour â€“ management relationship
d. All of the above
5. Which are the departments from where a qualified arbitrator be hired?

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a. Legal profession
b. Government servants
c. Psychologists
d. All of the above
6. Match the following procedure of investigation with the correct step no. in the
sequence of events.
A. 1 ------- 1. Collecting facts and supporting materials

B. 2 ------- 2. Hearing out to both the parties along with mastery of the facts of dispute
C. 3 ------- 3. Investigation of the facts and circumstances
a. A-1, B-2, C-3

b. A-2,B-1,C-3
c. A-2,B-3,C-1
ANSWER: a. A-1, B-2, C-3
7. Choose the correct option that states the principle followed by an arbitrator.
A. High integrity
B. Fair hearing
C. Natural justice
D. Maintain harmonious labour - management relations
a. A & D
b. B & D
c. B & C
d. A & C
ANSWER: c. B & C
8. With the advocacy of __________ voluntary arbitration came into prominence for
resolving industrial disputes.
a. Bombay Industrial Disputes Act

b. Mahatma Gandhi
c. V. V. Giri
ANSWER: b. Mahatma Gandhi
9. __________ reiterated the faith of the parties in voluntary arbitration.
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a. The code of discipline (1958)
b. Indian Labour Conference (1962)
c. ILO
d. Industrial Disputes Act
ANSWER: a. The code of discipline (1958)
10. The need for a wide acceptance of voluntary arbitration was reiterated by _____.
a. National Tribunal
b. Court of Enquiry
c. Indian Labour Conference (1962)
d. ILO
ANSWER: c. Indian Labour Conference (1962)
1. In which year did the government appoint National Arbitration Promotion Board
along with a tripartite composition to make voluntary arbitration more acceptable?
a. July 1965
b. July 1968
c. July 1966
d. July 1967
ANSWER: d. July 1967
2. Which of the following option is a factor which has contributed to the slow
progress of arbitration?
a. Absence of recognised unions which could bind the workers to a common agreement
b. To advise parties in important cases to accept arbitration
c. To review the position periodically
d. To evolve principles, norms and procedures for the guidance
ANSWER: a. Absence of recognised unions which could bind the workers to a

common agreement
Reason: Except option "a" all are the functions of the national arbitration promotion
board.
3. In which year was V.V. Giri appointed as the Labour Minister?
a. 1953
b. 1962
c. 1947
23 | P a g e
ANSWER: a. 1953
4. __________ has criticised compulsory arbitration on four main grounds.
a. Alexander Frey
b. V.V. Giri
c. Mahatma Gandhi
d. American Labour Movement
ANSWER: a. Alexander Frey
i. Royal Commission on Labour was against voluntary arbitration.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b. False
Reason: Royal Commission on Labour was against Compulsory arbitration.
6. Which is the ultimate legal remedy for the settlement of an unresolved dispute?
a. Court of enquiry
b. Adjudication
c. Arbitration
d. National Tribunal
ANSWER: b. Adjudication
7. Who is the deciding authority to put the resolving matter into adjudication?
a. Disputing parties
b. Conciliator
c. Trade Union
d. Government
ANSWER: d. Government
8. __________ involves intervention in the dispute by a third party appointed by the

government for the purpose of deciding the nature of final settlement.
24 | P a g e
a. Adjudication
b. National Tribunal
c. Arbitration
ANSWER: a. Adjudication
9. The importance of adjudication has been emphasised by the ________.
a. Government
b. Civil Court
c. Supreme Court
ANSWER: c. Supreme Court
10. The adjudication machinery has to consider not only the demands of _______
justice but also the claims of national economy.
a. Economic
b. Social
c. Freedom of contract
ANSWER: b. Social
1. Who was the chairman of the Committee on Unfair Labour Practices?
a. Justice V.A. Naik

b. Chagla C. J
c. Justice Bavdekar
ANSWER: a. Justice V.A. Naik
i. Compulsory adjudication is when the parties refer the dispute to adjudication.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b. False
25 | P a g e
Reason: When parties refer the dispute to adjudication it is called voluntary
adjudication.
3. Which of these is a three tier system of adjudication?
A. National Tribunal
B. Labour Court
C. Court of Enquiry
a. A & C
b. B & C
c. A & B
d. A, B and C
ANSWER: c. A & B
4. Match the following adjuducation system with the disputes listed in the schedule.
1. Labour Court ------------- A. Disputes listed in Schedule II of the act
2. Industrial Tribunal ------ B. Disputes which are of national importance
3. National Tribunal -------- C. Disputes listed in Schedule II or III of the act
a. 1-A, 2-c, 3-b

b. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a
c. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
d. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c
ANSWER: a. 1-A,2-c,3-b
5. A labour court shall consist of one person who has been a District Judge for a
period of not less than ___ years.
a. 3 years
b. 7 years
c. 5 years
d. 10 years
ANSWER: a. 3 years
i. Submitting the award to the appropriate government as soon as practicable on the

conclusion of the proceedings is a duty of the labour court.
a. True
b. False
26 | P a g e
ANSWER: a. True
7. Which of these matters are specified in the third schedule of the industrial disputes
act?
A. Classification of grades
B. Rationalisation
C. Application and interpretation of standing orders
D. Withdrawal of any customary concession or privilege
a. A & B
b. A, B & D
c. B, C & D
d. A, B, C & D
ANSWER: a. A & B
8. How many central government industrial tribunals cum labour courts in India?
a. 10
b. 9
c. 15
d. 12
ANSWER: d. 12
9. In the year 1959, in which place was the Indian Labour Conference held?
a. Coimbatore
b. Madras
c. Mumbai
d. Delhi
ANSWER: b. Madras
10. In which year was the central Industrial Relations Machinery set up?
a. 1945
b. 1956
c. 1965
d. 1972
ANSWER: a. 1945
27 | P a g e
Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 - MCQs with answers - Part 1
i. Bonus is an ex - gratia payment.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b. False
Reason: Bonus is not an ex - gratia payment but the statutory right of the employee.
2. Which formula was given by labour appellate tribunal for the calculation of bonus?
a. Full bench formula

b. Accrual formula
c. Rounding formula
ANSWER: a. Full bench formula
3. In which year did the government set up the tripartite commission?
a. 1951
b. 1972
c. 1961
d. 1965
ANSWER: c. 1961
4. The bonus act is the outcome of the recommendation made by the _________.
a. State government
b. Central government
c. Labour Court
d. Tripartite commission
ANSWER: d. Tripartite commission
5. On which date was the bonus act implemented by the government?
a. 2nd September, 1980

b. 2nd September, 1965
c. 1st September, 1965
d. 3rd September, 1965
28 | P a g e
ANSWER: b. 2nd September, 1965
6. The act is not applicable to _______ except those operating in competition with
similar other private undertakings.
a. Public enterprises
b. Private enterprises
c. Factories
d. Banks except RBI and LIC
ANSWER: a. Public enterprises
7. Which section in the act deals with the computation of available surplus?
a. Section 3
b. Section 3A
c. Section 5
d. Section 1
ANSWER: c. Section 5
i. Under section 32 of income tax act, any amount by way of depreciation admissible in
accordance is deductible from the gross profit calculation.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
9. Complete the formula used for calculating bonus for basic salary which is more
than 3500.
Bonus = _______ * (Bonus Months)* 20%
a. Basic salary
b. Ex gratia
c. 3500
d. 8400
ANSWER: a. Basic salary
10. As per the act what is the minimum number of days an employee must have
29 | P a g e
worked in an establishment to be eligible for bonus?
a. 240 working days

b. 30 working days
c. 120 working days
d. 365 working days
ANSWER: b. 30 working days
1. On what grounds an employee will be disqualified from getting bonus?
a. Fraud
b. Riotous or violent behaviour while on the premises
c. Theft, misappropriation or sabotage of any property of the establishment
d. All of the above
2. What is the minimum amount of bonus paid to an employee?
a. 8.33%
b. 8.5%
c. 8%
d. 8.3%
ANSWER: a. 8.33%
3. The maximum amount of bonus to be paid in an accounting year as per section 10

of this act is ____.
a. 8.33%
b. 10%
c. 20%
d. 15%
ANSWER: c. 20%
i. Where the salary or wages of an employee exceeds 2500 rupees per month the bonus
payable as per section 10 of the act shall be calculated on 2500 rupees per month only.
a. True
b. False
30 | P a g e
ANSWER: a. True
5. Which section deals with the computation of number of working days?
a. Section 10
b. Section 11
c. Section 13
d. Section 14
ANSWER: d. Section 14
i. If any employee is found guilty of misconduct causing financial loss to the employer, then it
is lawful for the employer to deduct the amount of loss from the amount of bonus payable by
him to the employee.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
7. What is the mode of paying bonus to the employeeâ€™s as specified in the act?
a. Cash
b. Cheque
c. Account transfer
d. In kind
ANSWER: a. Cash
8. The payment of bonus shall be made within ______ from the date on which the
award becomes enforceable or the settlement comes into operation where there is
dispute regarding payment of bonus.
a. 15 days
b. On the day of settlement
c. 1 month
ANSWER: c. 1 month
9. Match the following particulars with their respective sections in the Act.
31 | P a g e
1. Cognizance of offences ---- a. Section 28
2. Inspectors ---------------- b. Section 2
3. Penalty ------------------- c. section 30
4. Definitions -------------- d. section 27
a. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b

b. 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
c. 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
d. 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c
ANSWER: a. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
10. The payment of bonus should be made within a period of _____ months from the
close of the accounting year.
a. 2 months
b. 6 months
c. 8 months
ANSWER: c. 8 months
Payment of Wages Act, 1936 - MCQs with answers
1. In which year was the first suggestion for the legislation in the act made?
a. 1934
b. 1925
c. 1936
d. 1937
ANSWER: b. 1925
2. The first suggestion for legislation in the act was made by a private member's bill
called __________.
a. Legislative Bill
b. Wages Bill
c. Weekly Payment Bill
ANSWER: c. Weekly Payment Bill
3. Choose the correct date and year on which payment of wages act was passed?
a. 23rd April, 1936

b. 28th March, 1937
32 | P a g e
c. 25th April, 1937
d. 27th April, 1936
ANSWER: a. 23rd April, 1936
4. In which year did the payment of wages act come into force?
a. 23rd April, 1925

b. 28th March, 1940
c. 23rd April, 1936
d. 28th March, 1937
ANSWER: d. 28th March, 1937
5. The power is vested in the ____________ to make the act applicable to payment of
wages to any class of persons employed in any establishment or class of
establishments specified in section 2(h) by giving 3 month's notice to that effect.
a. Central Government
b. Acting Government
c. State Government
d. Judicial Court
ANSWER: c. State Government
i. In a factory if a person has been named as manager of the factory under the clause (f) of
sub section 1 of section 7 of the factories act, he is responsible to make the payments of the
employees.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
7. What is the maximum wage period for the payment of wages?
a. 1 month
b. 40 days
c. 45 days
d. 60 days
ANSWER: a. 1 month
33 | P a g e
8. In any factory or industrial establishment where less than 1000 employees are
employed the wages shall be paid before the expiry of the ____ day.
a. 10th day
b. 2nd day
c. 7th day
ANSWER: c. 7th day
9. Which of these deductions under section 7 of payment of wages act is not

authorised?
a. Deduction for Fines

b. Deduction for payment of Income tax
c. Deduction for Payment of insurance
d. Deduction for payment of uniform and property
ANSWER: d. Deduction for payment of uniform and property
10. What is the maximum limit of fine to be imposed on an employee?
a. Should not exceed an amount equal to 5% of the wages payable

b. Should not exceed an amount equal to 1% of the wages payable
c. Should not exceed an amount equal to 3% of the wages payable
d. Should not exceed an amount equal to 10% of the wages payable
ANSWER: c. Should not exceed an amount equal to 3% of the wages payable
11. Which section of the act covers deduction for damage or loss?
a. Section 10
b. Section 9
c. Section 12
d. Section 7
ANSWER: a. Section 10
12. Match the following deductions with their respective sections
1. Deduction for recovery of loans --------- A. Section 12 A

2. Deduction from wages ----------------- B. Section 9
3. Deduction for services rendered --------- C. Section 7
4. Deductions from absence of duty --------- D. Section 11
a. 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b

b. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d
34 | P a g e
c. 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a
d. 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c
ANSWER: a. 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b
13. A single application may be presented under section ___ on behalf or in respect of
any number of employed persons.
a. Sub section 3 of section 15

b. Section 15
c. Section 14
d. Section 10
ANSWER: b. Section 15
14. What is the penalty for those who contravene the provision of section 4 sub
section (4) of section 5 or 10 or 25?
a. 500 Rupees
b. 5000 Rupees
c. Upto 500 Rupees
ANSWER: c. Upto 500 Rupees
15. Which section takes care of payment of undisbursed wages in case of death of
employed person?
a. Section 25A
b. Section 25
c. Section 26
d. Section 22A
ANSWER: a. Section 25A
The Trade Unions Act, 1926 - MCQs with answers
1. The Trade Unions Act came into operation from ____.
a. 1st June, 1927

b. 1st May, 1926
c. 1st June, 1926
ANSWER: a. 1st June, 1927
35 | P a g e
2. In which year's amendment of the act was the word â€˜Indianâ€• removed?
a. 1947
b. 1960
c. 1964
d. 1962
ANSWER: c. 1964
3. The act came into force from ______.
a. 1st June, 1927

b. 1st April, 1965
c. 1st May, 1960
d. 1st April, 1962
ANSWER: b. 1st April, 1965
i. The act was enacted with the objective of providing for the registration of trade unions and
verification of the membership of trade unions registered so that they may acquire a legal
and corporate status.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
5. What is the minimum number of trade union members requires in registering

themselves as a union?
a. 7
b. 10
c. 5
d. 15
ANSWER: a. 7
6. Which act in Industrial Relations defines the term trade union?
a. Industrial Trade Resolution, 1962

b. Industrial Policy, 1991
c. The trade union and labour relations (consolidation) Act, 1992
d. The industrial Employment Act, 1946
36 | P a g e
ANSWER: c. The trade union and labour relations (consolidation) Act, 1992
7. Which section of the act deals with the registration of the trade unions?
a. Section 8
b. Section 7
c. Section 9
d. Section 10
ANSWER: a. Section 8
i. The registrar has the right to cancel the registration of the union if he is satisfied that the
certificate has been obtained by fraud or mistake.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
9. Which of the following acts do not apply to the registered trade unions?
a. The Co-operative Societies Act, 1912

b. The Societies Registration Act, 1860
c. The Companies Act, 1956
d. All of the above
10. Which of the following is an object on which general funds could be spent as per
section 15 of the act?
a. Payment to buy goods required for the enterprise
b. Payment of employees in the factory establishment
c. The payment of expenses for the administration of trade union or any member thereof
d. All of the above
ANSWER: c. The payment of expenses for the administration of trade union or any
member thereof
37 | P a g e
i. A person who has attained the age of 10 years can be a member of a registered trade
union subject to any rules of the trade union.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b. False
Reason: The minimum age to be registered as a member of the trade union is of 15

years.
12. On which of the following grounds an office bearer or executive of the trade union
be disqualified?
A. Has been convicted by the court of any offence involving moral turpitude
B. Has not attained the age of 18 years
C. Is not working with any establishment
a. A & B
b. A & C
c. B & C
d. A, B and C
ANSWER: a. A & B
13. How many member's consent is required to change the name of the registered
trade union?
a. 1/4th of the total members

b. 3/4th of the total members
c. Half of the total members
d. 2/3rd of the total member
ANSWER: d. 2/3rd of the total member
14. How many percentage of votes should be recorded when amalgamating 2 or more
registered trade unions?
a. 60%
b. 50%
c. 20%
d. 75%
ANSWER: a. 60%
38 | P a g e
15. How many members should sign the notice of dissolution?
a. 5 members and the secretary of the trade union

b. 10 members and the secretary of the trade union
c. 20 members and the secretary of the trade union
d. 7 members and the secretary of the trade union
ANSWER: d. 7 members and the secretary of the trade union
16. On what grounds can a union refuse to admit a person or expel a member?
a. Because of goodwill
b. Because of misconduct
c. Because of change in job
ANSWER: b. Because of misconduct
Reason: Section 174 of the Trade union 7 Labour Relation Act 1992 lists the
situations.
The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 - MCQs with answers - Part I
1. Industrial employment standing orders act is applicable in every industrial

establishment where ____ workmen are employed.
a. 200
b. 150
c. 100
d. 50
ANSWER: c. 100
2. An authority who is appointed by the appropriate government by notification in the

official Gazette to exercise in such area as may be specified?
a. Appellate Authority
b. Certifying officer
c. Acting officer
ANSWER: a. Appellate Authority
3. Section 2 of payment of wages act, 1936 defines ______
a. Industrial establishment
b. Wages
c. Workman
39 | P a g e
d. Amendments
ANSWER: a. Industrial establishment
4. What is the time frame in which the employer shall submit 5 copies of the draft
standing orders proposed by him for adoption in his industrial establishment?
a. 1 month from the date on which standing orders act becomes applicable
b. 12 months from the date on which standing orders act becomes applicable
c. 18 months from the date on which standing orders act becomes applicable
d. 6 months from the date on which standing orders act becomes applicable
ANSWER: d. 6 months from the date on which standing orders act becomes
applicable
5. Which of the following is an additional matter to be provided as per the act relating
to all industrial establishments in coal mines?
A. Transfers
B. Service certificate
C. Exhibition and supply of standing orders
D. Railway travel facilities
a. Only A
b. B & C
c. A & C
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
6. Section 10B in the act deals with ______
a. Additional matters to be provided in the standing orders relating to all industrial

establishments
b. Additional matters to be provided in the standing orders relating to all industrial

establishments in coal mines
c. Prescribed particulars of workmen
ANSWER: a. Additional matters to be provided in the standing orders relating to all

industrial establishments
40 | P a g e
7. As per sub - section 3 of section 5 the standing orders shall come into operation on
the expiry of ______ days from the date on which authenticated copies are sent.
a. 30 days
b. 7 days
c. 15 days
d. 5 days
ANSWER: a. 30 days
8. In which language is the text of the standing orders posted on the notice boards?
a. English or that is understood by majority of the workmen

b. Only English
c. Language as understood by the workmen
ANSWER: a. English or that is understood by majority of the workmen
9. How many copies have to be submitted to the certifying officer while making any
modifications in the standing orders?
a. 10
b. 4
c. 5
d. 2
ANSWER: c. 5
10. Which section takes care of payment of subsistence allowance in standing orders
act?
a. Section 10
b. Section 1
c. Sub section 1
d. Section 10A
ANSWER: d. Section 10A

1. What is the rate of wage (in percentage) that an employee gets during the
subsistence period in case of delay in the completion of disciplinary proceedings?
a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 25%
d. 80%
41 | P a g e
ANSWER: b. 75%
Reason: 50% wages are given immediately after the date of suspension for the first 90
days of suspension
2. In case of a dispute regarding the suspense allowances, to whom does the

employer or the workman refer?
a. Adjudicator
b. Court of enquiry
c. Conciliation
d. Labour Court
ANSWER: d. Labour Court
3. What is the amount of fine paid by the employer wherein he fails to submit the draft
standing orders as per section 3?
a. 5000 Rupees
b. 200 Rupees
c. 1000 Rupees
d. 10000 Rupees
ANSWER: a. 5000 Rupees
4. As per section 13, if the employer continues with the offences of non - submission
of the draft model standing orders, he pays a fine of ____________ Rupees per day.
a. 5000 + 200 Rupees daily

b. 200 Rupees
c. 5000 Rupees
d. 100 Rupees
ANSWER: b. 200 Rupees
5. Which section deals with sections in which standing orders act is not applicable in
certain industrial establishments?
A. 13
B. 13B
C. 13C
D. 13A
ANSWER: B. 13B
42 | P a g e
6. Which amongst the following is/ are the matter to be provided in the standing
orders?
A. Attendance and late coming

B. Shift working
C. Adequate working conditions
D. Water facility
a. Only A
b. Only D
c. Both A & B
d. Both A & D
ANSWER: c. Both A & B
7. Which sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure takes care of the powers of
certifying officers and appellate authorities?
a. 345 & 346

b. 321 & 322
c. 350 & 351
ANSWER: a. 345 & 346
Maternity Act, 1961 - MCQs with answers - Part II
1. State true or false:
i. Section 10 discusses about the leave for illness arising out of pregnancy.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
2. State the objectives of the act?
a. To regulate the employment of women workers in such establishments for certain period
before and after child birth.
b. Application of act in every establishment being a factory, mine or plantation
c. To provide satisfactory conditions to expectant women
d. All of the above
43 | P a g e
ANSWER: a. To regulate the employment of women workers in such establishments
for certain period before and after child birth.
3. As per section 18, if an employer discharges or dismisses a woman during or on

account of her absence from work during the maternity leave, then what is the
punishment faced by an employer?
a. 3 months or more and will extend to 1 year

b. 6 months or more and will extend to 2 years
c. 3 months or more and will extend to 2 years
ANSWER: a. 3 months or more and will extend to 1 year
4. As per section 9, for how many weeks a woman is entitled for leave in case of a
miscarriage?
a. 3 weeks
b. 9 weeks
c. 1 week
d. 6 weeks
ANSWER: d. 6 weeks
5. State true or false:

i. Section 17 describes the obligations of the employer under the maternity benefit act.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b. False
Reason: Section 19 states the obligations of the employer under the maternity benefit
act.
44
44 | P a g e

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Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 - MCQs with answers - Part I

1. In which year did the act come into operation?

ANSWER: a. Trade Disputes Act, 1929

ANSWER: a. Industrial Tribunal

6. The industrial peace is secured through voluntary _______ and compulsory

ANSWER: d. Negotiation and Adjudication

7. Choose the correct objective of the Industrial Disputes Act.

ANSWER: d. All of the above

8. State true or false

9. The act was first amended in the year ______

10. Power has been given to _______________ to require Works Committee to be

ANSWER: a. Appropriate Government

2. State true of false.

ANSWER: d. 11th March, 1947

5. ________ means an interim or a final determination of any industrial dispute or of

6. State True or False

7. Clause (d) of section 2 of ______________ act defines Khadi.

ANSWER: c. Khadi and Village Industries commission Act, 1956

ANSWER: a. Chairman and 2 or 4 other members

ANSWER: c. Central Government; Appropriate Government

4. State true or false

6. State true or false

7. Which of the below mentioned is the duty of a conciliation officer?

d. All of the above

View Answer / Hide Answer

ANSWER: c. Where any industrial dispute exists or is apprehended, the conciliation

ANSWER: a. Appropriate government

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2. State true or false.

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a. One month after the date of enforcement

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ANSWER: b. On the date of enforcement

5. Which section deals with payment of wages to workman pending proceedings in

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Reason: the appropriate government has the authority to do so.

9. As per section ___ a conciliation proceeding shall be deemed to have commenced

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10. State true or false

i. Section 21 deals with commencement and conclusion of proceedings.

View Answer / Hide Answer

Reason: Section 21 deals with the confidentiality of matters.

1. No person employed in a public utility service shall go on strike in breach of

View Answer / Hide Answer

2. Choose the correct option where no workmen shall go on a strike in breach of

d. All of the above

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ANSWER: d. All of the above

3. Section ____ covers the definition of continuous service.

View Answer / Hide Answer

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5. State true or false.

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6. A workmen who is employed in an industrial establishment in the place of another

View Answer / Hide Answer

ANSWER: c. Badli workmen

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a. Equivalent to 15 days average pay

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1. and are regarded as equivalent terms referring to