INTRODUCTION PART 9.

Choose the right definition of “Infectious

1. The primary use of Koch’s post22ulates is to:
a) Clearly identify and characterise a particular
microorganism
b) Isolate microorganisms from diseased animals
c) Demonstrate that disease is caused by a
microorganism
d) Develop vaccines for specific diseases
Diseases”:
a) Pathology of body parts or tissues characterized
by an identifiable group of signs and symptoms
b) Pathology of body parts or tissues caused by
an agent that can be passed on to others
c) Occurs when an infectious agent enters the body
and begins to reproduce; may or may not lead to
disease
d) An organism infected by another organism

2. How does bacteria affect the body: 10. Microbes that inhabit every part of the
a) Impairs motor skills human body are considered as:
b) Impairs vision and hearing a) Infection
c) Absorbs toxins b) Nonpathogenic
d) Release of toxins c) Toxic agents

3. What ways Infectious diseases do not spread? 11. Opportunistic infection it is:
a) Contact with contaminated object a) Severity and harmfulness of disease
b) Washing hands with soap and water b) Process of infecting or state of being infected
c) Physical contact with infected person c) Infection that occur in people with weakened
d) Contact with contaminated environmental immune system
sources d) Infection that occur only among patients with
HIV
4. Another name for infectious diseases
a) Communicable diseases 12. The ability to produce toxins is:
b) Harmless diseases a) Pathogenicity
c) Non-community disease b) Toxigenicity
d) That’s the only name c) Infectivity
d) Virulence
5. Which infectious agent needs an intermediate
host for development? 13. Infectious agent that causes diseases is:
a) Protozoa a) Host
b) Bacteria b) Pathogen
c) Prion c) Reservoir
d) Virus d) Vector

6. An organism that harbours or nourishes 14. Infectious agent that caused disease and
another organism may passed to others is:
a) Pathogen a) Pathogen
b) Host b) Disease
c) Infection c) Infection
d) Reservoir d) Virulence

7. The period of time between exposure and a

first clinical signs is? 15. Organism that is infected by pathogen is:
a) Incubation a) Host
b) Prodromal b) Carrier
c) Clinical c) Reservoir
d) Recovery d) Vector

16. Pathological condition of body parts or

8. Treatment designed to facilitate the process tissues characterized by identifiable group of signs
of recovery from injury, illness or disease to as and symptoms is:
normal condition as possible a) Infection
a) General b) Infectious disease
b) Symptomatic c) Disease
c) Rehabilitation d) Syndrom
17. When an infectious agent enters the body 25. The organism that transmits infectious
and begins to reproduce and may lead to disease is: agent from one individual to another:
a) Infectious disease a) Host
b) Disease b) Pathogen
c) Virulence c) Vector
d) Infection d) Carrier

18. When infection transmitted from one to 26. Development of acute systemic illness
another, it is: due to the virulent microorganism invasion to the
a) Communicable diseases blood stream from foci:
b) Infectious disease a) Septicemia
c) Infection b) Bacteremia
d) Virulence c) Sepsis
d) Viremia

19. Degree of pathogenicity of the infectious 27. Increasing resistance of immune system
agent is: due to injection of killed or live microbe:
a) Virulence a) Immunization
b) Pathogenicity b) Vaccination
c) Toxicity c) Immune sera
d) Infection d) Globulins

20. Ability of microorganism to cause

disease is: SALMONELLOSIS (NON-TYPHOID)
a) Infection
b) Infectious agent 28. The basic value in pathogenesis of
c) Virulence gastroenteritis of Salmonellosis has one of the
d) Pathogenicity follow factors:
a) Infectious
b) Allergic
21. If the pathogen is persistent in the human c) Toxic
and transmitted to another: d) Septic
a) Carrier e) Immune
b) Vector
c) Host 29. The antigenic structure of Salmonella is
d). Parasite represented by:
a) О-, Н-, К -antigens;
22. Time between of the 1st symptoms of b) only О-antigen;
infection and the specific signs is: c) only Н-antigen;
a) Incubation period d) only К-antigen;
b) Prodromal period e) only Vi -antigen.
c) The period of the height of symptoms
d) Recovery phase
30. Gastroenteritis of Salmonellosis spread by
23. Symptoms are disappear, tissues are the follow route of transmission:
healing and body is gaining strength a) Fecal-oral
a) Prodromal period b) Vertical
b) Incubation period c) Transmissible
c) The period of the height of symptoms d) air-droplet
d) Recovery period

24. Section of medicine, studying the origin 31. The bacteriocarrier of Salmonella can be in
of diseases, conditions and causes of their the following forms:
occurrence: a) Acute, chronic, transitory;
a) Pathology b) Acute, subclinical, transitory;
b) Microbiology c) Chronic, subclinical, low-grade;
c) Etiology d) There is not a right answer.
d) Epidemiology
32. The generalized forms of Salmonellosis
(non-typhoid) include:
a) Meningitides 40. The 18 students were admitted to the
b) Dehydration infectious hospital during 1 day. All patients had
c) Typhoid, septicopyemia similar symptoms: nausea, vomiting, pain in
d) Encephalitis. stomach with frequent watery diarrhea. 10 patients
had low BP and convulsions of the legs. All patients
33. Treatment of mild or moderate cases of had curds and sour cream in café for breakfast.
Salmonellosis includes the following: a) Cholera
a) Gastric lavage b) Shigellosis
b) Rehydration c) Salmonellosis
c) Glucoso-saline solution d) Botulism
d) Antibiotic
e) Sorbent 41. A boy of 13 years old is being ill for 3
days, T°38°C. His complains are: abdominal pain,
34. In which of the following objects vomiting 2 times, frequent stool with greenish
Salmonella can live longest? mucus, imperative feeling of defecation.
a) Ice-cream Your diagnosis:
b) Soil irrigated with sewage a) Food poisoning
c) Water b) Salmonellosis
d) Sweets c) Pseudotuberculosis
d) Dysentery
35. In which cases of Salmonellosis the e) Typhoid fever
patients do NOT need to receive antimicrobial
therapy? 42. Which complications do occur in
a) Infants Salmonellosis?
b) Elderly person a) Respiratory failure
c) With gastroenteritis signs b) Reactive arthritis
d) Immunocompromised c) Meningitis
d) Hepatitis
36. To treat Salmonellosis select the first line
antibiotic 43. The most common symptoms of
a) Ciproflaxacin Salmonellosis are:
b) Penicillin a) Joint pains.
c) Amoxicillin b) Diarrhea
d) Gentamycin c) Muscle cramps
d) Rose sports
37. Which of the laboratory tests can confirm
the diagnosis of Salmonellosis? 44. Duration of the incubation period in
a) Microscopy Salmonellosis is:
b) Serological test a) 5-10 days
c) Culture of Stool b) 1-2 months.
d) Allergic test c) 6-72 hours.
d) 1-2 days
38. A man of 24 years old after eating dried
pickle in few hours he had nausea, vomiting, severe 45. Asymptomatic form of Salmonellosis is
abdominal pain with diarrhea and sub febrile diagnosed by detection of the pathogen in:
temperature. By physical examination were noticed a) Stool
the pain around the umbilical. In blood were noticed b) Vomit and wash water
increase neutrophil count and ESR. The stool had c) Blood
greenish color. Primary diagnosis? d) Bile
a) Salmonellosis
b) Typhoid fever
c) Shigella
d) E.coli TYPHOID FEVER
46. The causative agent of typhoid fever is:
39. What the most cases of Salmonellosis? a) Salmonella enteritidis
a) Sepsis b) Salmonella typhi
b) Gastroenteritis c) Salmonella paratyphi A
c) Spleenomegaly d) Salmonella paratyphi B
d) Hepatomegaly e) Salmonella typhimurium
 54. Specific complications of typhoid do not
47. Source of infection at paratyphoid A is: include:
a) a patient with paratyphoid A a) Spleen rupture
b) a healthy transmitter of causative agent b) Intestinal bleeding
c) a cattle c) Infectious-toxic shock
d) poultry d) Perforation of the intestinal wall
e) rodent. e) Recurrence of disease

48. This infectious disease is contracted 55. Where Salmonella typhi does found in
when people eat or drink water that is contaminated bacteria carrier?
by the feces or urine of an infected person. There is a a) Blood
sudden onset of fever, a severe headache, nausea, b) Urine
anorexia, and a slow heart rate. It may also be c) Bile
accompanied by a hoarse cough and constipation or d) Stool
diarrhea. What is it?
a) Food poisoning 56. A patient during a week had risen
b) Salmonellosis gradually temperature, appeared headache, general
c) Pseudotuberculosis weakness, appetite decreased. He appealed to the
d) Dysentery doctor on the 8th day of disease. Physical
e) Typhoid fever examination: temperature 39,5°С, he gave short
answers to the questions, skin pale, coated tongue
49. The reason for the formation of bacteria and fuliginosus, BP is 100/60 mm Hg, pulse rates 74
carrier in typhoid fever is: in min. Meteorism, there are few rose spots on the
a) Virulence of the pathogen skin of abdomen. Hepatosplenomegaly.
b) Relapses of the disease Constipation. What is it?
c) Reduced immunity response a) Typhoid fever
d) Reduction of the duration of antibiotic therapy b) Salmonellosis
e) Weak reparation processes in the intestine c) E.coli
d) Malaria
50. Sources of infection in typhoid fever:
a) Patient or bacteria carrier person 57. The patient of 32 years appealed to the
b) Fish. district internist on the 5th day of disease with
c) Molluscs. complaints for severe headache, general weakness,
d) Animals absence of appetite, sleeplessness, temperature
increase to 39,0°С in the day of appeal for medical
help. Physical examination: pale of skin. A tongue is
51. What the route of transmission in typhoid coated by a greyish-white raid, imprints of teeth on
fever? sides. Pulse rate 78 min, PB 110/60 mm of Hg.
a) Fecal-oral Meteorism, painless. Liver enlarge on a 1,5-2 cm.
b) Transmissible (through insect bites). Tenderness of muscles in the ileocecal area on
c) Airborne droplets. palpation. Constipation during 2 days. Which tests
d) Parenteral. of laboratory diagnostics do you use for the confirm
Typhoid fever on this day?
52. The rash in typhoid is characterized by: a) Widal test
a) Petechial, general on the upper and lower b) Blood culture
extremities c) Stool culture
b) Vesiculare, diffuse on the face d) Bile culture
c) Small red spots, unit on the abdomen and e) Urine culture
chest
d) Large-sized all over the body 58. A patient 36 years had disease during 3
weeks: gradual increase of temperature, from the 2th
53. When in typhoid fever the rash does week of disease temperature purchased undulating
occur? character, decline of activity, headache and
a) between the first and second week of illness insomnia. He treated at home him-self from "Cold",
b) between the second and fourth week of illness but treatment was ineffective, and he was directed to
c) in incubation period the hospital. Physical examination: skin pale,
d) between the fourth and fifth week of illness adynamic, temperature 400С, fuliginous tongue,
meteorism, tenderness of muscles in the ileocecal
area on palpation. Liver enlarge on 2-3 cm. Spleen
was palpated. In 2 days dizziness, sonitus, melena
appeared after hospitalization. BP 70/40 mm Hg,
pulse rate 120 in min, temperature sudden was d) Chloromphenical
decreased to norm. Which complication of Typhoid e) Ciprofloxacin
fever developed?
a) Spleen rupture 66. The most characteristic symptoms of colitis in
b) Intestinal bleeding acute dysentery
c) Infectious-toxic shock a) Nausea, multiple vomiting
d) Perforation of the intestinal wall b) Abdominal pain, watery diarrhea
e) Recurrence of disease c) Tenesmus, stool with a trace of blood
SHYGELLOSIS d) Dehydration
59. Dysentery belongs to following group of
infection: 67. In persons with healthy immune systems,
a) Food poisoning symptoms of Shigellosis usually last about:
b) Blood infections a) 1 to 2 days
c) Intestinal infection b) 3 to 4 days
d) Viral diarrhoea c) 5 to 7 days
e) Zoonotic d) 9 to 10 days

60. Causative pathogen of Shigellosis belongs 68. What laboratory method is used to confirm the
to a family: diagnosis of "Dysentery"?
a) Spirochaetaceae a) Microscopy
b) Campylobacteraceae b) Culture of stool
c) Neisseriaceae c) Serology
d) Enterobacteriaceae d) Allergic test
e) Vibrionaceae
69. Possible complications
61. Source of infection at Shigellosis: from Shigella infections include:
a) Food a) Post-infectious arthritis
b) Infected person b) Blood stream infections
c) Water c) Hemolytic-uremic syndrome
d) Grazing animals d) Post-infectious meningitis
e) Canned foods e) Relapse
62. Shigella is transmitted through the 70. Which of the following statement is true
following factors: about shigellosis?
a) Foods, articles of way of life a) Hemolytic-uremic syndrome is a complication
b) Poor hygiene b) Greenish watery diarrhea
c) Unwashed fruit
c) Neutrophiles are decreased
d) All mentioned d) ALT and AST increesed
e) Milk products
71. Exclude from the following symptoms
63. Duration of Incubation period of acute not suitable for the “Acute dysentery”:
dysentery is:
a) Acute onset, fever
a) 2 weeks
b) Tenesmus
b) from 1 to 7 days c) Spasm and painfuiness of the sigmoid colon on
c) all answers are correct
palpation
d) 2-3 hours
d) Respiratory-catarrhal syndrome.
e) 6-24 hours, continuation is possible to 10 days
e) Stool as "rectal spitting"
64. In which part of gastrointestinal tract is 72. Choose symptoms of asymptomatic form of
localized the lesions of dysentery:
acute dysentery:
a) Stomach
a) Acute onset with chills and fever.
b) Small intestine b) Abdominal pain without clear localization.
c) Proximal parts of large intestine
c) The stool is porous without pathological
d) Distal parts of small intestine impurities
d) Sigmoid colon is densified and sensitive to
65. The first line antibiotics for the therapy of palpation.
shigellosis include? e) Detection of Shigella in feces
a) Penicillini
b) Gentamуcini
73. Choose a symptom that does not refer to the
c) Tetracyclini
signs of severe Shigellosis:
a) Severe intoxication and fever (more than 38 80. All of the follow eye symptoms are
"C). appear at botulism:
b) Frequent, thin stool with pathological a) Ptosis
impurities. b) Mydriasis, nystagmus
c) Severe dehydration (loss of fluid more than 7- c) Low reaction of pupils to light, disruption of
9%). convergence and accommodation
d) Disorder of hemodynamics, tachycardia and d) Increase of the corneal reflex
decreased blood pressure e) The movement of eyeballs are restrict
e) Neurotoxicosis, headache, delirium,
convulsions 81. For the treatment of botulism should be
administered as soon as possible:
BOTULISM a) Antibiotic
74. Causative pathogen of Botulism belongs b) Globulin
to a family: c) Antitoxin
a) Spirochaetaceae d) Vaccine
b) Campylobacteraceae e) Rehydration
c) Clostridiaceae
d) Neisseriaceae 82. The patient Н. 22 years was delivered to
e) Enterobacteriaceae the hospital by an ambulance. His condition was
severe, adynamic, drooping eyelids. Skin pale with a
75. What toxins are distinguished by the cyanotic tint, tonus of skeletal muscles was
Clostridium botulinum? decreased, sounds hearts were muffled, extrasystolie,
a) Endotoxin pulse rate 130 in min, rate of breath 28 in min,
b) Exotoxin breathing superficial. The day before he eat the
c) Anatoxin; canned cucumbers in food. Other family members
d) Is not distinguished; have clinic of the food poisoning, disorders of sight.
e) Exotoxin + endotoxin. What it is?
a) Salmonellosis
76. Choose the source of infection at b) Dysentery
botulism: c) Botulism
a) Food d) Meningitis
b) People e) Encephalitis
c) Water
d) Grazing animals; 83. The patient К. 38 years, was admitted to
e) Canned foods the hospital with complaints on headache, dizziness,
general weakness, double vision. Later joined
77. Factors of transmission at botulism: difficulty swallowing, dryness in mouth. On the eve
a) Home canning products patient eat the canned fungi in food. By physical
b) Poor quality vegetables examination were found: mydriasis, anisocoria,
c) Unwashed fruit hoarse voice, slurred speech, dyspnoea and cyanosis.
d) All mentioned During breathing, the intercostals muscles were
e) Dairy products retracted. What emergency treatment is required for
the patient?
78. Toxin of Clostridium botulinum has a) Detoxification
selectively affects on: b) Artificial ventilation
a) Sensory neurons c) Antibiotics
b) motor neurons d) Spinal puncture
c) Intercalated neurons e) Blood transfusion
d) Nerve fiber
e) Central nervous system
ESCHERICHIA COLI INFECTION
79. Duration of Incubation period at botulism
is: 84. E. coli and other species of bacteria
a) 2 weeks found in human intestines help him body do what?
b) 1 month a) Break down fats
c) 2-3 hours b) Make vitamin K and B-complex vitamins
d) 6-24 hours, an extension is possible to 10 c) Absorb oxygen
days d) Move waste material through the intestines

85. E.coli and other intestinal bacteria have

what kind of relationship with human?
a) Parasitic d) Paratyphoid fever B
b) Symbiotic
c) Nosotropic 93. Patient A.30 years old came to the
d) Synergistic hospital due to acute illness. His complaints were for
chills, fever to 38.5°C, nausea, vomiting, stinking
86. Where is the strain E. coli 0157 found? stool 7 times, without any impurities, pain in
a) Only in animal waste epigastrium and in the large intestine. For 10 hours
b) Only in contaminated water before the illness he had eaten the duck meat, which
c) Only in moldy or rotten food was stay in 12 hours at room temperature.
d) Everywhere a) Typhoid fever
b) Salmonella infection
87. What does the strain E. coli 0157 do to c) Botulism
the body? d) Cholera
a) It harms the lungs
b) It harms the heart CHOLERA
c) It harms the intestines and in some cases the
kidneys 94. Cholera belongs to following
d) It harms the eyes group of infection:
a) Food poisoning
88. Which infectious agent often associated b) Blood transfusion infection
with chronic pyelonephritis? c) Intestinal infection
a) Proteus vulgaris d) Respiratory viral infection
b) Klebsiella pneumonia
c) Escherichia coli 95. Causative pathogen of Cholera belongs to
d) Staphylococcus aureus a family:
a) Spirochaetaceae
89. The diagnosis of Escherichia coli b) Campylobacteraceae
infection can determined on: c) Clostridiaceae
a) Fever and intoxication d) Vibrionaceae
b) The gastroenteric syndrome e) Enterobacteriaceae
c) Epidemiology history 96. This is an acute intestinal infection
d) Bacteriological investigation caused by a bacterium. Its incubation period is
e) Stool examination typically 1-5 days. Symptoms include an excessive,
painless watery diarrhea and usually vomiting. There
90. Choose the correct statement about may also be leg cramps. Severe dehydration and
Enterotoxigenic E.coli death can occur if not treated promptly. What is it?
a) Is a common cause of traveler’s diarrhea a) Food poisoning
and hemolytic-uremic syndrome b) Shigellosis
b) Do cause the disease like Shigellosis c) Cholera
c) Pathogen spreads from animals d) Salmonella infection
d) Often cause urinary tract infection e) Typhoid fever
e) For development disease requires production
of both toxins and pilin adhesions. 97. Since 1961, the pathogen of the 7th
pandemic of cholera in the world is:
91. E. coli generally is found in: a) Classical biotype
a) Intestine b) El-Tor biotype
b) Respiratory tract c) O139 biotype
c) Blood d) O137 biotype
d) Cerebral spinal fluid e) O157 biotype

92. A woman had eaten the piece of cake, 98. A female, 22 years old, was hospitalized
which stood on a table during few hours. The because violent diarrhea and profuse vomiting, no
common condition became worse in 4 hours. Spastic fever, no abdominal pain, the diarrhea is more than
stomach pain, nausea with a single vomiting 10 times with a large amount of watery stool. The
appeared. Skin is pale, tongue was white covered. diagnosis may be:
Temperature of body did not rise, diarrhea has not a) Bacillary dysentery
been observed. b) Poisoning of food
a) Typhoid fever c) Acute gastroenteritis
b) Salmonella infection d) Cholera
c) Food poisoning
99. In order to make clinical diagnosis of b) El Tor
Cholera, what is the first choice of the test? c) Smellytonis
a) Blood routine d) Blearitis
b) Stool routine
c) Smear of stool 109. Cholera is caused by a:
d) Culture of stool a) Bacterium
e) Culture of blood b) Virus
c) Fungus
100. In which animal does cholera spread? d) Protozoa
a) Rhinos
b) Clams 110. The most characteristic symptom of cholera
c) Handbags is:
d) Toenalis a) High fever
b) Watery diarrhea
101. How does cholera spread? c) Headache
a) Water d) Persistent cough
b) Sneezing
c) Contact 111. Cholera is spread through:
d) Ingesting blood of patient a) Bite of female Anopheles mosquito
b) Bite of female Culex mosquito
102. When did cholera start? c) Through contaminated water
a) 1700 d) Through the cough droplets from an infected
b) 2001 person
c) 1800
d) Beginning of time 112. Treatment may be sufficient to treat a person
103. Where did cholera start? with mild degree of cholera:
a) India a) Salt solutions intravenous
b) Vietnam b) Treatment with sorbents
c) USA c) Oral rehydration solution
d) Afganistan d) 5 % solution of glucose intravenous
104. Which of the below is not a syptom of e) Fresh-frozen plasma intravenous
cholera.
a) Cramps 113. Cholera vaccines provide immunity:
b) Diarrhea a) Life-long
c) Coughing b) Short-term
d) Blue blood c) Medium
d) Don't provide
105. What do you call countries with reported
cholera cases in the last 3-5 years? 114. Signs of dehydration include:
a) Endemic a) Dry skin
b) Pandemic b) High blood pressure
c) Non-Endemic c) Raised fontanelles in children
d) Non-pandemic d) skin rashes

106. What is dehydration? 115. The stool of a cholera patient resembles:

a) Too much water a) Anchovy sauce
b) Too little water b) Rice water
c) Too much blood c) Apple jelly
d) Person with cholera d) greenesh color of stool

107. What is the name of the bacteria which 116. People at risk of developing cholera include:
causes cholera? a) People with low immunity
a) Pasteur b) People with blood group A
b) Vibrio c) Young adults
c) Yersina Pestis d) students
d) Pacini
117. Duration of the Incubation period at
108. Challenge: What is the current sub-type cholera:
of cholera bacteria called? a) 2 weeks
a) Non, it doesn't have a name. b) 1 month
c) 2-3 hours - 5 days; e) Canned foods.
d) 6-24 hours, continuation is possible to 10
days. 125. Route of transmission at Amebiasis:
a) Faecal-oral
118. What research is basic for diagnostics of b) Aerosol
Cholera: c) Blood transfusion
a) Blood analysis for the exposure of toxin d) Transmits by the vectors
b) Urine for the exposure of toxin
c) Foods for the exposure of vibrio 126. Duration of the Incubation period of
d) Stool culture Amebiasis:
a) from 1-2 weeks to 3 months
119. What antibiotic is used for Cholera b) from 1 to 7 days
therapy? c) 2-3 hours
a) Penicillin d) 6-24 hours, continuation is possible to 10 days
b) Gentamicin
c) Doxycycline 127. Amebiasis infection is caused by the
d) Chloramphenicol microorganism Entamoeba histolytica, an amoeboid-
e) Rovamicini protist. Upon ingestion, E.histolytica multiplies in
what part of the body?
120. What does severity of cholera depends a) Lungs
on? b) Heart
a) Degree of dehydration c) Gastrointestinal tract
b) Dose of toxin d) Liver
c) Condition of the nervous system
d) All mentioned 128. Amebiasis, or Amebic Dysentery, is
caused by exposure to which of the following?
121. Sick P., 25 years old, presents with a) Feces infected by E. histolytica
frequent vomitting. Objectively: dryness of skin and b) Radiation
mucous membranes, brief cramps in gastrocnemius c) H. pylori
muscles, the temperature of body is normal, voice is d) Chemical toxins
hoarsed, moderate tachycardia and hypotension. The
compensated metabolic acidosis is marked. About 129. Student, 22 years old fell ill within a
what degree of dehydration is it possible to think? month after return from Ethiopia.Dull stomach-ache
a) IV appeared and liquid emptying. Emptying is abundant
b) II up to 10 times a day, as “raspberry jelly” excrement,
c) III stomach-ache that increase during defecation. In
d) I times of illness lost 6 kg of body weight. Your
e) There is no dehydration diagnosis will be?
a) Intestinal аmoebiosis
AMEBIASIS b) Shigellosis
c) Salmonellosis
122. Amebiasis belongs to following group d) Tumor of intestine
infection: e) Intestinal echeriosis
a) Bacterial diarrheal disease
b) Viral diarrheal disease 130. A 24 years old engineer from Bishkek,
c) Food poisoning has spent one month in India where he drunk
d) Nonspecific ulcerative colitis unboiled water. After arriving home he has become
e) Protozoan infection ill. He appeared to the doctor with complaints of
123. Causative agent of Amebiasis is: fever, weakness, pain in stomach, diarrhea - 12-15
a) Pale treponema times a day with mucous and blood (like raspberry
b) Fusiform stick jelly stool). Physical examination: the state is
c) Sh. dysentery relatively satisfactory, appetite became worse,
d) Entamoeba histolytica tongue is coated with white patches. On deep
e) Clostridium botulinum. palpation of abdomen patient complaints of pain
especially in his right half and hypochodrium area.
124. Source of infection at Amebiasis: Liver and spleen are not changed. No change was
a) Food found in blood analysis. On rectoscopy clear mucous
b) Sick man, cystocarrier; and hyperemia of mucous membrane in rectum with
c) Water; ulceration in sigmoid colon were found. The stool
d) Greeze animals test gave the growth of pathogenic flora. What most
probable pathology which predetermines such a) Penicillin
picture? b) Amoxicillin
a) Strongyloidosis c) Ribavirin
b) Amebiasis d) Acyclovir
c) Ulcerative colitis 139. A patient 14 years old, hospitalized in the
d) Balantidiasis infectious department in severe condition with
e) Food poisoning considerable headache mainly in frontal and
temporal area, pain in eyeballs, in muscles and
joints. Objectively: patient is excited, temperature of
VIRAL INFECTIONS OF THE RESPIRATORY the body is 39оC. Bradycardia changed by
SYSTEM tachycardia. Muscles tonic and clonic cramps.
Positive meningeal signs. It is found in epidemic
131. The most common etiological agent for anamnesis, his brother is also sick. What is your
acute bronchilitis is: diagnosis?
a) Influenza virus a) Flu with pneumonia and edema of brain
b) Parainfluenza b) Flu, typical course
c) Rhino c) Parainfluenza, false croupe
d) RSV d) Respiratory-sencytial infection
e) Adenoviral infection, pneumonia
132. Human RSV virus belongs to which of 140. A patient A., 30 years old, on the 4th day
the following genera of family paramoxyoviridae: of illness a district doctor marked such subjective
a) Respirovirus and objective data: insignificant indisposition, mild
b) Rubulavirus headache, hoarseness of voice, itching in
c) Pneumo throat, breakingdry cough, temperature of the body
d) Metapneumo 37,4°C. Pulse 86/min., difficult nasal breathing,
133. What is the route of administration of insignificant serous excretions from nose. Which
MMR vaccine: acute respiratory infection does the patient carry?
a) Intra muscular a) Influenza
b) Oral b) РC-viral infection
c) Sub cutaneous c) Parainfluenza
d) Intravenous d) Adenoviral infection
e) Enteroviral infection
134. Envelope of which virus lack both 141. How many serotypes of Influenza virus?
haemagglutinin and neuraminidase but contains a a) 2
fusion protein: b) 3
a) Measles c) 4
b) Mumps virus d) 5
c) RSV
d) Newcastle disease virus 142. In which of the following viruses, there
are segmentation of genome:
135. A11 month old child present with a) Influenza
complaints of respiratory distress on examination b) Parainfluenza
there is abilateral crepitation and wheezing which of c) Mumps
the following is most likely caused: d) Measles
a) Pneumonia
b) Adenovirus 143. To common airborne epidemic disease
c) RSV belong to:
d) Rhino a) Typhoid
136. Following are Arboviral disease: b) Influenza
a) KFD c) Encephalitis
b) West Nile fever d) Malaria
c) RSV
d) None one of the listed 144. Influenza virus is identified by using:
a) Haemagglutinin inhibition test
137. Incubation period of RSV: b) Tissue culture method
a) 8 to 10 days c) Embryonated eggs
b) 4 to 6 days d) Plaque formation
c) 7 to 9 days
d) 4 to 6 weeks 145. Secular trend in influenza is due to:
a) Antigenic shift
138. Medication for treatment of RSV:
b) Antigenic drift a) Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase
c) Endemicity b) Neuraminidase and hemolysin
d) Virulence c) Properdin and hemagglutinin
d) Hemolysin and precipitin
146. H5N1Influenza virus may be best
describes as a: 155. The mechanism of transmission of
a) Bird flu virus Influenza virus:
b) Vaccine for HIV a) Airborne
c) Agent for Japanese encephalitis b) Contact
d) New strain of plasmodium c) Fecal-oral
d) Water
147. Which of the following statement is NOT
correct regarding antigenic drift in influenza virus? 156. A patient H., 22 years old, with flu was
a) Abrupt drastic discontinuous variation in hospitalized into infectious department with the
antigenic structure acute worsening of the common state. Consiousness
b) Gradual sequential change in antigenic structure is stored. The patient strangles. Pallor of skin with
c) due to mutation and selection cynosis. Respiratory rate 50 per min, BP 80/55
d) Account for peripheral epidemics of influenza mmHg, pulse 110 per a min, temperature 39.8оC.
During percussion of lungs tympanic sound with
148. In which orthomyxoviruses annual dullness in lower quadrant was found. Crackles in
vaccination is necessary because of antigenic drift the lower-back parts of lungs. What complication of
and shift: influenza has developed in that patient?
a) Measles a) Pneumonia
b) RSV b) Edema of lungs
c) Influenza c) Edema of brain
d) Parainfluenza d) Infectious-toxic shock
e) Meningoencephalitis
149. Influenza pandemic is due to:
a) Antigenic drift 157. A sick woman, 42 years old, complaints
b) Antigenic shift about temperature 39.3°C, headache in the frontal
c) Different strains area, pain in the eyeballs, photophobia, pain in
d) H1N1serotypes muscles, dry cough. Became ill suddenly one day
before. Objectively: state is severe. Hyperemia of the
150. Influenza virus is cultured on: face, eyes shinny, injection of scleras. Pulse 96/min.,
a) CAM rhythmic. Tones of heart are hypotonic. Both lungs
b) Amniotic cavity are dissipated. Dry wheezes. Mucosa of epiglottis is
c) Yolk sac hyperemic, grainy, vessels are extended. Meningeal
d) Nutrient agar symptoms are not present. Analysis of blood: leuk –
3x109/l, еos – 1%, band – 6%, seg – 51%, lymp –
151. The duration of incubation period of 35%, mono – 7%. What is the most possible
influenza is: diagnosis?
a) From 10-12 hours to 3 days a) Flu
b) From 5 to 7 days b) Measles
c) From 7 to 10 days c) Meningococcal infection
d) From 10 to 14 days d) Pneumonia
e) Epidemic typhus
152. Shift and drift phenomena are present in:
a) Rabies 158. Duration of isolation of patient with
b) Measles influenza complications?
c) Influenza a) 4 days
d) rubella b) 7 days
c) 10 days
153. Influenza virus belongs to family: d) 17 days
a) Reoviridae e) 20 days
b) Paramyxoviridae
c) Parvoviridae 159. Patient B., 20 years old, complains about
d) Orthomyxoviridae severe headache in temples and orbits, dull ache in
the trunk, dry cough. Temperature of the body
154. Influenza A virus contains the following 39.6°C. Inflammatory changes of mucous membrane
antigens: of oropharynx. Normal breathing in the lungs. What
is the most credible diagnosis?
a) Pneumonia a) Herpes virus
b) Parainfluenza b) Coronavirus
c) Respiratory micoplasma c) Adenovirus
d) Flu d) Parvovirus
e) Meningococcal infection
169. Which of the following regarding about
adenovirus is false?
160. The natural host of adenovirus is: a) Viral nucleic acid is DNA
a) Man b) Non enveloped
b) Rabbit c) Infects only dividing cell
c) Mouse d) Causes conjunctivitis
d) Dog

161. Basophilic inclusion bodies are seen in: 170. Patient L., 18 years old is sick with fever
a) Adeno virus till 38 °C which proceeds 5 days. He has moderate
b) Polio virus dry cough, common cold, badly opens eyes. On
c) Measels virus examination: edema on face, expressed
d) Herpes virus conjunctivitis with film raids. Mucous of pharynx is
hyperemic, posterior wall of pharynx is grainy.
162. Which serotype of adenovirus is causing Internal organs are without pathology. What form of
gastroentereitis? disease does the described picture correspond to?
a) 40, 41 a) Viral conjunctivitis
b) 1,2,3,4 b) Allergic dermatitis
c) 20, 11 c) Adenoviral infection
d) 11, 21 d) Influenza
e) Rhinoviral infection
163. Adenovirus has:
a) Double stranded DNA
b) Enveloped 171. Patient P., 14 years old, is hospitalized in
c) Complex symmetry the infectious department in the severe condition.
d) None one of all Complains on expressed headache, mainly in frontal
and temporal regions, supercilliary arcs, origin of
164. Which one of the following virus cause vomiting appear in condition of severe pain, pains
hemorrhagic cystitis, diarrhea and conjunctivitis: by moving the eyeballs, in muscles and joints.
a) Adenovirus Objectively: patient is excited, body temperature –
b) Rotavirus 39ºC, BP-100/60 mmHg. Bradycardia was replaced
c) RSV by tachycardia. Appeared tonic cramps. Doubtful
d) Rhinovirus meningeal signs. From anamnesis it is clear that his
brother has flu at home. What will be your
165. Which is not teratogenic virus? diagnosis?
a) Adenovirus a) Influenza, typical flow
b) Herpes virus b) Influenza with the phenomena of edema of
c) Rubella virus brain
d) CMV c) Respiratory-syncytial infection
d) Parainfluenza
166. Which virus cause hemorrhagic cystitis, e) Adenoviral infection
diarrhea, conjunctivitis:
a) Rotavirus 172. A 23 years old person, became ill
b) Herpes virus sharply: fever 38.2 °C, moderate diffuse
c) Adenovirus pharyngalgia at swallowing, pain and itching in the
d) HIV right eye. Objectively: tonsillitis, pharyngitis,
conjunctivitis. What is previous diagnosis?
167. The patient with keratoconjunctivitis is a) Adenoviral infection
likely to have the following viral infection: b) Enteroviral infection
a) Parvovirus c) Parainfluenza
b) Adenovirus d) Flu
c) Epstien-Barr virus e) Acute respiratory infection
d) Respiratory syncytial virus
173. A patient 17 years, were a lot of cases of
168. Which virus can cause hemorrhage? acute respiratory infection have happened, appealed
to a doctor in clinic at 3rd day of disease with b) Pneumonia, TB
complaints of chills, general weakness, a moderate c) Bronchiolitis, back pain
sore throat, running nose, swelling of face, watering d) Asthma and pneumonia
from eyes Objective examination: minor palatal
hyperemia brackets and tonsillitis, on a background
of moderate edema of tissues. Conjunctivitis. During 181. Which of the following is the late toxic
palpation not painful enlarged inframaxillary lymph manifestation of diphtheria in child?
nodes, and enlarged neck lymph nodes were found.
Crepitation can’t be find. Liver and spleen A. Renal failure
moderately increased. What is the most likely B. Myocarditis
diagnosis? C. Tonsillitis
a) Diphtheria D.Septicemia
b) Adenoviral infection
c) Meningococcal nasopharyngitis 182. Cell lyses occurs at:
d) Influenza a) Lower respiratory epithelium
e) Infectious mononucleosis b) Upper respiratory epithelium
c) None of these
174. How many types of human Rhinovirus
differ according to their surface proteins serotypes? 183. What forms a basis for the creation of
a) 99 drugs to combat the human Rhinovirus:
b) 88 a) Lambda carrageenan
c) 98 b) Kappa carrageenan
d) 89 c) Iota carrageenan

175. Outside of a host, virus can live up to:

a) 7hrs
b) 5hrs 184. Most common complication of pertussisis
c) 24hrs :
d) 3hrs
A.Encephalopathy
176. Which of the following antiviral effective B.Seizures
at Rhinovirus infections intranasally: C.Epistaxis
a) Pleconaril D.Bronchopneumonia
b) Interferon – alpha
c) Desloratadine
185. To the district doctor a patient,
complaints on abundant excretions from a nose,
d) Ioratadine
moderate headache, hearing loss, perversion of taste.
On examination – dry of skin, nose excoriation, in a
177. Primary infection of Rhinovirus occurs
pharynx – mild hyperemia. Temperature of body is
in:
subfebrile. Pathological changes of internal organs
a) Conjunctiva
are absent. Which acute respiratory viral infection
b) Nasopharynx
carries the patient?
c) Nasal mucosa
a) Adenoviral infection
d) Mouth
b) Parainfluenza
c) Rhinoviral infection
178. Rhinovirus belongs to the family: d) РC-infection
a) Rabdoviridae e) Influenza
b) Picornaviridae
c) Asfarviridae
186. To the district doctor a patient,
d) Arteriviridae
complaints on abundant excretions from a
nose, moderate headache, hearing loss, perversion of
179. Where did the drug binds in VP1 for
taste. On examination – dry of skin, nose
stabilizing protein capsid:
excoriation, in a pharynx – mild hyperemia.
a) Amphipathic compound
Temperature of body is subfebrile. Pathological
b) Hydrophilic pocket changes of internal organs are absent. Which acute
c) Hydrophobic pocket
respiratory viral infection carries the patient?
d) Lipophilic
a) Adenoviral infection
b) Parainfluenza
180. Severe lower respiratory tract illness is c) Rhinoviral infection
seen in Rhinovirus as: d) РC-infection
a) Bronchiolitis, pneumonia e) Influenza
 195. If during Parainfluenza season a patient
187. Clinical signs of rhinovirus infection: starts to get better after 3 or 4days of flu like
a) Fever symptoms and then on the day 5 or 6 starts to feel
b) Rhinitis worse, the most likely diagnosis is:
c) Exanthema a) Viral influenza pneumonia
d) Angina b) Bacterial pneumonia
c) Relapsing parainfluenza
188. Typical sings of Parainfluenza is: d) Reinfection of parainfluenza
a) Nasopharyngitis
b) Acute tonsillitis 196. Which radiographic sign is seen in
c) Pneumonia Parainfluenza:
d) Bronchiolitis a) Air resent sign
b) Halo sign
189. The important symptoms that does NOT c) Silhouette sign
include in croup: d) Steeple sign
a) Dry cough
b) Expiratory tachypnea 197. Complications of Parainfluenza virus
c) Inspiratory tachypnea include:
d) Change of voice a) Bacterial tracheitis
b) Brochilitis
190. Atypical sings of Parainfluenza: c) Pneumonia
a) Subclinal d) Laryngitis
b) Clinical
c) Hypertoxic 198. Which condition does not include in
d) Obliterate surgical infections:
a) Long prolonged surgical procedure
191. A 27 years old women at 19 weeks b) Anemia
gestation developed fever to 38°C, headache, c) Hypoxia
nausea, abdominal pain one week after a camping d) Local tissue necrosis
trip with her husband, she developed erythematous
macular rash on wrists ankles progressing to trunk 199. Which does not include in prevention of
and face become petechial. Lab test CBS and CSF hospital infections?
normal. Which of the following is more appropriate a) Proper ventilation of wards
treatment: b) Use of disinfectants
a) Chloramphenicol c) Proper disposal of urine feces sputum
b) Ciprofloxacin d) Proper diet
c) Doxycycline
d) Tazobactam MENINGOCOCCAL INFECTION

192. Most common organism which can 200. Meningococcemia is caused by:
contaminate crowded army camps: a) Neisseria flave
a) Kleibsella b) Neisseria bacilliformis
b) E.coli c) Neisseria meningitidis
c) Neisseria meningitides d) Neisseria gonorrhea
d) Staphylococcus
201. Meningococcemia is spread from:
193. Which antibody is most common a) Person to person
produced in secondary immune response: b) Fecal-oral
a) Ig G c) Animals
b) IgA d) Contact to contaminated skin
c) Ig D
d) IgM 202. Hemorrhagic rash at meningococcemia
is:
194. H1N1 virus is a type of: a) Typical
a) SARS virus b) Atypical
b) Influenza type 1 c) Normal
c) Influenza type 2 d) None of these
d) Influenza type 3
203. Meningococcemia is usually diagnosed
by:
a) Urine test b) Corticosteroids
b) Biopsy c) Diuretics
c) Stool test d) Bronchodilatitis
d) Blood test
212. Antibiotics for treatment of
204. Place of attach Meningococci is: meningococcemia:
a) Lower respiratory tract a) Cefotaxime
b) Upper respiratory tract b) Azythromycin
c) Bronchi c) Clindamycin
d) Bronchioles d) Doxycycline

205. In which season Meningococcemia 213. Patients with meningococcal who are
occurs: allergic to beta-lactam antibiotics, a choice can be
a) Summer the following drug:
b) Rainy a) Metronidazole
c) Winter b) Clindamycin
d) Winter and early spring c) Chloramphenicol
d) Trimethoprim
206. Meningococcemia is treated with:
a) Intravenous antibiotics 214. Complication seen in meningococcemia:
b) Topical antibiotics a) Hypertension
c) Oral antibiotics b) Hypotension
d) None of these c) Multiple organs failure
d) Mental illness

207. The main characteristic manifestation 215. Vaccine for meningococcal is

essential for recognizing Meningococcemia is: recommended at the age of:
a) Lethargy a) 12 years
b) Vomiting b) 11 years
c) Skin rash c) 10 years
d) Neck stiffness d) 13 years

208. Which of the following is true related to 216. Meningococcal infection is caused by
endotoxins: main four serogroups:
a) Endotoxins are secreted from cells a) A, B, C, Y
b) Can be linked to meningococcemia b) B, C, X, W 135
c) Produced by gram +ve organism c) A, C, X, W 137
d) Can’t cause fever d) A, C, Y, W 135

209. A 30years old man bought to emergency 217. For prevention of meningococcemia
room with a 10hr history of a fever headache and booster dose of vaccination is given at the age of:
lethargy. Physical examination reveals very sick a) 13 years
man, temp 39.5°C and petechial rash. The most b) 15 years
likely diagnosis is: c) 16 years
a) Urinary tract infection d) 18 years
b) Upper respiratory tract infection
c) Meningococcemia 218. The prophylactic antibiotic treatment
d) Pneumonia should be started immediately within:
e) Migraine a) Two weeks of exposure
b) Two days of exposure
210. Incubation period of Meningococcal c) Two months of exposure
infection is: d) Two hours after exposure
a) 10-15 days
b) 3-4 days 219. Meningococcal infection is transmitted
c) 1-2 days from person to person by:
d) 1 week a) Respiratory secretions
b) Faecal-oral route
211. Patients with a rash consistent with c) Blood transfusion
Meningococcemia should immediately take: d) sexual
a) Intravenosis antibiotics
220. To which of the following antibiotic
Meningococci is resistant: 229. Causative agent of Meningoencephalitis
a) Vancomycin is:
b) Cefixime a) E. coli
c) Penicillin b) Neisseria meningitides
d) Fluoroquinolone c) Salmonella
d) Shigella
221. Duration of antibiotic for the patient with
meningococcemia is: 230. Meningoencephalitis often cause by:
a) 8 – 12 days a) Measles
b) 9 – 12 days b) HIV
c) 7 – 10 days c) Cholera
d) 8 – 10 days d) Dysentery

222. Meningococcemia disease outbreaks 231. Neurological findings in

commonly occur in the world as: meningoencephalitis:
a) Epidemic a) Cerebellar ataxia and dementia
b) Endemic b) Cranial nerve abnormalities and Myorhythmia
c) Pandemic c) a and b
d) Sporadic d) none of above

223. The characteristic petechial skin rash of 232. Instrumental diagnostic methods of
meningococcemia is usually located on: Meningoencephalitis are:
a) Arms and chest a) Magnetic resonance imaging and CT scan
b) Trunk and legs b) X-RAY
c) Back and feet c) Fluorography
d) Neck and palms d) microscopy

224. In case of fulminant meningococcal 233. The gold standard of

infection is develops: Meningoencephalitis diagnostics:
a) Brown–Sequard syndrome a) CSF culture
b) Wolf–Parkinson White syndrome b) Sputum microscopy
c) Waterhouse–Friderichsen syndrome c) Nasopharyngeal and throat swab
d) Lambert–Eaton syndrome d) ELIZA

225. Meningococcemia is caused by Neisseria 234. Menigoencephalitis has following CSF

meningitides, which is: findings:
a) Gram +ve bacteria a) Pleocytosis, elevated protein
b) Gram –ve bacteria b) Low glucose, elevated pressure
c) Gram +ve diplococci bacteria c) a and b
d) Gram –ve diplococci bacteria d) Low protein, low glucose

226. What the deferens between Neisseria 235. Which main complication does not occur
gonococcus and Neisseria meningitides: in Meningoencephalitis:
a) Lactose fermentation a) Hearing loss
b) Maltose fermentation b) Epilepsy
c) Mennitol fermentation c) Loss of limbs amputation&vision loss
d) Sucrose fermentation d) Left heart failure

227. Meningoencephalitis develops in: 236. Which general physical findings does not
a) Brain parenchyma occur in Meningoencephalitis:
b) Meninges a) Exanthemas
c) Liver and pancreas b) Enanthemas
d) a and b c) Symptoms of pericarditis, myocarditis or
conjunctivitis
228. In physical examination does not reveal: d) Symptoms of pleurodynia, herpangina, hand-food
a) Motor and sensory deficits –mouth disease
b) Nuchal rigidity and hemiparesis
c) Abdominal tenderness 237. They are present in chronic
d) Cranial nerve palsy Meningoencephalitis:
a) Lymphadenopathy, papill edema b) After 10 days from the beginning antibiotic
b) Skin rash therapy
c) Dryness of mouth c) After 7 days from the beginning antibiotic
d) vomiting therapy
d) At a cytosis 100 and less, neutrophil prevail
238. In meningococcal encephalitis does not e) From 6 days from the beginning antibiotic
used next treatment:
a) Antibacterial 246. A 17 years old boy, got ill suddenly: the
b) Antiviral temperature rose up-to 40,3°С, extremely sharp
c) Steroids headache, makes him to yell. The patient is agitated
d) Antihistamins and vomits frequently. Tremor of fingers of
extremities is observed. The star like hemorrhagic
239. Bacterial meningitis does not develop in: rash of different form and sizes appeared, mainly on
a) Pneumococcal meningoencephalitis buttocks, thighs, shins, and trunk. Meningeal signs
b) Haemophilus influenza meningoencephalitis are positive. What is the most credible diagnosis?
c) Tuberculous meningoencephalitis a) Encephalitis
d) Adenoviral meningoencephalitis b) Flu with a hemorrhagic syndrome
c) Meningococcal infection
240. Pathways that does not include in d) Measles
Meningoencephalitis: e) Leptospirosis
a) Invasion of blood stream
b) A retrograde neuronal pathway 247. A patient became ill sharply. Severe pain
c) Indirect contiguous spread of head, frequent vomits appeared in the morning.
d) Direct contiguous spread Temperature of body rose to 39,9°C. Adopted
febrifuge, however much the state got worse. Till the
241. Meningitis with increased intracranial evening patient lost consciousness. Excited, sharply
pressure does not include this complication: expressed meningeal signs. What is most reliable
a) Cytotoxic edema diagnosis?
b) Peripheral edema a) Status typhosus in typhoid fever
c) Interstial edema b) Viral meningoencephalitis
d) Vasogenic edema c) Sepsis, infectious-toxic shock
d) Meningococcal infection, meningitis
242. Meningoencephalitis with secondary e) Status typhosus in epidemic typhus
infection leads to:
a) Meningitis 248. A patient C., 25 years old, fell suddenly
b) Meningococcemia ill. Every morning severe headache, frequent
c) Meningocele vomiting, temperature of the body is 39,9°C.
d) Meningeal cyst Adopted fatigue, then state got much worse. In the
evening lost of consciousness. Expressed muscles
243. How was the consistency in pains of back and head. Positive Кеrning’s
meningomyelocele: symptom. Leukocytes – 18,0x109/l. What is the most
a) Soft to cystic reliable diagnosis?
b) Soft to firm a) Flu
c) Soft only b) Epidemic typhus, typhus state
d) Partially soft c) Viral menigoencephalitis
d) Sepsis, infectious-toxic shock
244. Differential diagnosis of meningitis with e) Bacterial menigoencephalitis
neck stiffness:
a) Epilepsy 249. A patient sharply had a chill, head pain,
b) Tonsillitis vomits, temperature of body rose up to 38,5 °C. Till
c) Tetanus evening rigidity of muscles, Kernig symptom
d) Alveolar abscess appeared. Herpetic blisters are marked on mucouse
of lips and nose. Neurological symptoms is not
245. A patient is sick with meningococcal found out expressed. What disease will you
meningitis. He takes a massive dose of penicillin. 4 suspect?
days temperature of body 36,6-36,8°C. Meningeal a) Subarachnoiditis hemorrhage
signs are negative. When is it possible to stop the b) Herpetic encephalitis
antibiotic therapy? c) Abscess of brain
a) At a cytosis in a CSF 100 and less, d) Hemorrhage in a brain
lymphocytes prevail e) Meningococcal meningitis
250. A patient, 20 years old, during few days
complains about pharyngalgias. After supercooling 256. Which symptom is not typical for acute
the state became worse: sudden chills, increase of liver failure?
temperature to 40,6 °C, headache. On skin of lower a) Increasing the size of the liver
extremities trunk and buttocks there are a lot of b) Tachycardia
different sizes of hemorragic spots, acrocyanosis. c) Reducing the size of the liver
Consiouness is preserved. Meningeal signs are d) Encephalopathy
absent. What is the previous diagnosis? e) Hemorrhage
a) Meningococcal infection
b) Flu 257. Specify the typical changes in bilirubin and its
c) Epidemic typhus fractions in viral hepatitis:
d) Hemorrhagic fever a) Direct bilirubin increase
e) Leptospirosis b) Direct and indirect bilirubin increase
c) Indirect bilirubin increase
251. Among the students of PTU 2 cases of d) Direct bilirubin increase at moderately
generalized form of meningococcal infection are elevated indirect bilirubin
registered. What preparation does it follow to enter
to the contact persons with the purpose of urgent 258. Specify the biochemical test for early diagnosis
prophylaxis? of viral hepatitis:
a) Normal immunoglobulin a) Blood protein fraction
b) Leukocytic interferon b) Prothrombin index
c) Meningococcal vaccine c) ALT
d) Meningococcal anatoxin d) Cholesterol
e) Bacteriophage
VIRAL HEPATITIS 259. Which viral hepatitis is often accompanied by
chronicity with the outcome of cirrhosis due to the
252. Cytolysis of liver cells reflects the high incidence of asymptomatic forms?
following biochemical tests for viral hepatitis: a) Viral hepatitis A
a) Cholesterol b) Viral hepatitis B
b) The level of total protein and protein fractions c) Viral hepatitis C
of blood d) Viral hepatitis E
c) The level of alanine aminotransferase and
asparaginaminotransferazy 260. The most frequent outcome of hepatitis A:
d) Thymol test a) Lethal
b) Recovery
c) Acute liver failure
253. What are enzymes reflect cholestasis in d) Liver cirrhosis
viral hepatitis?
a) AlT 261. The cases when a person can get infected
b) AsT with viral hepatitis A:
c) Cyclic amine phosphates a) Contact with a sick person
d) Alkaline phosphatase b) With blood transfusion
c) When biting insects
d) During medical procedures
254. What are serological markers e) During hemodialysis
characteristic of hepatitis A in the acute period of the
disease? 262. What is the duration of the incubation
a) HbsAg; period for viral hepatitis A:
b) anti-HB cor IgM; a) 2-7 days
c) anti-HAV IgM b) 7 -17 days
d) anti-HCV IgM. c) 14 - 60 days
d) 1 - 21 days
e) 2-6 months
255. Which of the serological markers is not
typical for hepatitis B? 263. Which of the listed variants of the pre-
a) HbsAg icteric period is not characteristic for viral hepatitis
b) anti-HBcor IgM A:
c) anti-HAV IgM a) Arthralgic
d) anti-HBe IgM b) Dyspeptic
c) Catarrhal
d) Asthenic-vegetative a) Parenteral
e) Mixed b) Alimentary
c) Water
264. Which of the following markers confirm d) Home contact
viral hepatitis A: e) Transmissible
a) anti-HAV IgM
b) anti-HBsAg IgM
c) anti-HCV IgM 272. Which of the listed variants of the
d) anti-HDV IgM preicteric period is not characteristic for hepatitis B?
e) anti-HBeAg IgM a) Catarrhal
b) Arthralgic
265. What changes in biochemical parameters c) Dyspeptic
are most characteristic for the anicteric form of viral d) Asthenic-vegetative
hepatitis A: e) Mixed
a) Hyperbilirubinemia
b) Increased transaminase levels 273. The main type of treatment for mild and
c) Increase in alkaline phosphatase moderate forms of hepatitis B is:
d) Increased cholesterol a) Compliance with regime and diet
b) Infusion therapy
266. The duration of the preicteric period with c) Glucocorticoids
a typical form of viral hepatitis A is: d) Antiviral drugs
a) 1-3 days e) Hepatoprotectors
b) 4-7 days
c) 8-14 days 274. Indicate the level of bilirubin for mild
d) 15-20 days forms of viral hepatitis B:
e) More than 20 days a) Up to 20.5 mmol / l
b) Up to 85 mmol / l
267. In what age group viral hepatitis A is the c) From 85 to 200 mmol / l
most common: d) More than 200 mmol / l
a) 0 to 1 year MEASLES, MUMPS, RUBELLA
b) From 1 to 3 years
c) From 3 to 5 275. Which of the following symptoms
d) From 5 to 14 years characterize of mumps?
e) Older than 14 years a) Punctuate rash (sporting rash)
b) Maculopapular rash
268. The main type of treatment for mild c) Vesicular rash
forms of viral hepatitis A is: d) Swelling of parotid glands
a) Compliance with regime and diet
b) The use of hepatoprotectors 276. Which of the following symptoms
c) Infusion therapy characterize of mumps?
d) Enzyme preparations a) Strawberry tongue
e) Glucocorticoid therapy b) Swelling of testis
c) Diarrhea
269. Which of the biochemical indicators is d) Vesicular rash
the most important for assessing the severity of the
course of viral hepatitis?
a) Increased bilirubin 277. Which of the following symptoms
b) Increased transaminases characterize of mumps?
c) Increased of timol test a) Swelling of parotid glands
d) Increased cholesterol b) Strawberry tongue
c) Symptom Filatov-Koplik
270. What are the outcomes of viral hepatitis d) Angina
A?
a) Recovering 278. Which of the following symptoms
b) Chronic viral hepatitis characterize of mumps?
c) Cirrhosis of the liver a) Maculopapular rash
d) Acute liver failure b) Strawberry tongue
c) Symptom Filatov-Koplik
271. What are the ways of transmission of d) Swelling of parotid glands
viral hepatitis B?
279. Which of the following symptoms b) Intramuscular
characterize of mumps? c) Fecal-oral way
a) punctuate rash (sporting rash) d) Transplacentary
b) swelling of testis
c) there is no acute tonsillitis 289. In what season there is the measles?
d) symptom Filatov-Koplik a) Spring and summer
b) Winter-spring
280. What is the cause of the measles? c) Autumn and winter
a) Varicella-zoster virus d) All year
b) Herpes simplex virus
c) Morbilli virus 290. What immunity is developed at measles?
d) Riccettsia
a) The life time
b) 1-2 years
281. What is the cause of the measles? c) 6 months
a) group A (beta-hemolytic) streptococcus d) 10 years
b) Morbilli virus
c) Riccettsia
291. What organs are not damaged at measles?
d) Rubivirus in the family Togaviridae
a) Conjunctivae
b) Respiratory tract
282. What is the cause of the measles? c) Liver and spleen
a) Yersinia d) Skin
b) Varicella-zoster virus
c) Morbilli virus 292. What condition develops after measles?
d) Rotavirus a) Allergy
b) Atrophy
283. What is the cause of the measles? c) Anergy
a) Morbilli virus d) Areflexia
b) Rubivirus in the family Togaviridae
c) Rotavirus
293. Choose atypical forms of measles:
d) Staphylococcus aureus
a) hypertoxic form
b) mitigatory form
284. What is the cause of the measles? c) cataral form
a) Escherichia coli d) theris no atypical form
b) Rubivirus in the family Togaviridae
c) Morbilli virus 294. What clinical periods are in measles?
d) Poliovirus hominis a) Catarrh period, rash period, pigmentation
period
285. What is the cause of the measles? b) Catarrh period, convulsive period, coma
a) Varicella-zoster virus c) Rash period, catarrh period, coma
b) Morbilli virus d) Catarrh period, rash period, coma
c) Neisseria meningitides
d) Corynebacterium diphtheriae 295. How many days is catarrh period in the
measles?
286. Maximum incubation period of measles a) 3–5 days
is: b) 1-2 days
a) 7 days c) 10 days
b) 10 days d) 14 days
c) 14 days
d) 21 days 296. How many days is rash period in the
measles?
287. Who is source of the measles? a) 1-2 days
a) Birds b) 3–5 days
b) Human c) 10 days
c) Animals d) 14 days
d) Insects
297. Choose specific symptoms of the
288. What transmission way is characteristic
measles?
for the measles?
a) Fever
a) Aierogenic way
b) Abdominal pain
c) Koplik’s spots a. vomiting;
d) Hepatosplenomegali b. abdominal pain;
c.loose stools;
298. Describe rash at measles: d.hepatosplenomegaly.
a) Punctuate rash (sporting rash)
b) Vesicular rash 306.Indicate the cause of intestinal bleeding in
c) Maculopapular rash typhoid fever:
d) Pustular rash
a. intoxication;
299. With what diseases it is necessary to b. bacteremia;
differentiate a measles? c. ulcerative lesion of the lymphoids of ileum;
a) Parotitis
d. peptic ulcer of the duodenum.
b) Flu
c) Rubella 307. The following biochemical tests reflect the
d) Whooping cough
cytolysis of liver cells in viral hepatitis:
300. Choose a sign distinguishing a measles a. cholesterol level;
from a rubella:
b. the level of total protein and protein fractions of
a) Koplik’s spots
b) Cataral syndrome the blood;
c) Rash c. level of alanine aminotransferase and aspartic
d) Intoxication aminotransferase;
d. thymol test.
301. What treatment is used at measles?
a) The surgical 308.What enzymes reflect cholestasis in viral
b) The symptomatic hepatitis?
c) It is not used
d) Hemodialysis a. AlAt;
b. Asat;
302. How many days the infectious period at c. cyclic aminophosphate;
measles? d. alkaline phosphatase.
a) 7 days
b) 10 days 309. Which serological marker is not characteristic
c) 5 days after the onset of the rash (if the patient of hepatitis B?
doesn’t have complications), and 10 days if the
patient has complications a. HbsAg;
d) 28 days after the onset of the rash b.anti-HBcorIgM;
c anti-HAV IgM;
303. What vaccine protects from the measles? d. anti-HBeIgM.
a) MMR
b) DTP
c) there is no vaccine 310.Indicate the characteristic changes in peripheral
d) D. OPV blood in typhoid fever:

a. neutrophilic leukocytosis;
b. leukopenia with relative lymphocytosis;
304.Which combination of symptoms is
c. leukocytosis with lymphocytosis;
characteristic of cholera:
d. leukocytosis with eosinophilia.
a. watery stools, absence of abdominal pains,
nausea;
311 .Indicate the pathogenesis link that distinguishes
b. nausea, vomiting;
the generalized form of salmonellosis from
c. watery fetid stool;
gastrointestinal form:
d. greenish stool, diffuse abdominal pain.
a.penetration of salmonella into the mucous
305. The generalized form of salmonellosis from the
membrane of the small intestine;
localized one is distinguished by symptoms:
b. intoxication;
c.bacteremia;
d.parenchymal diffusion of the pathogen.
312.In which biological substrate can a cholera
pathogen be found from a patient?
a. blood;
b. urine;
c. feces;
d. saliva.
313.Indicate the pathogenetic mechanism of the
development of diarrhea in case of cholera:
a.penetration of vibrio into enterocytes;
b.desquamation of the epithelium of the small
intestine;
c.damage to the autonomic innervation of the small
intestine;
d. The effect of toxic substances on the enzyme
systems of enterocytes.
314.Specify the nature of the stool in the colitic
variant of dysentery:
a. profuse watery;
b. copious type of "meat slops";
c. type of "raspberry jelly";
d.lean with mucus and streaks of blood.
315. Indicate which parts of the nervous system are
affected by botulism:
a. cerebral cortex;
b. motor nuclei of the medulla oblongata;
c. peripheral nerves;
d. ganglia.
316.What clinical symptoms are characteristic of a
gastrointestinal form of salmonellosis?
a. nausea, vomiting, loose watery stools of a
greenish color, diffuse abdominal pain, high
fever; b. vomiting without nausea,
without abdominal pain, normal temperature;
c. cramping abdominal pains, scanty stools, high
temperature;
d. abundant watery stools such as “rice broth”,
without abdominal pain, normal temperature.
317.Specify typical changes in the level of bilirubin
and its fractions with viral hepatitis:
a. increase in the bound fraction;
b. an increase in the bound and free fractions to the
same extent;
c. increase in free fraction;
d. an increase in the bound fraction with a
moderate increase in free bilirubin.
318.Indicate one of the mechanisms of diarrheal
syndrome characteristic of all acute intestinal
diarrheal diseases:
a. invasion of the pathogen into enterocytes;
b. the introduction of the pathogen into the blood;
c. the effect of toxins on the adenylatecyclase
system;
d. the introduction of the pathogen into the
submucosal layer of the intestine.
319.What symptom of typhoid fever is absent in the
first week of illness?
a. high temperature;
b. headache;
c. roseola rash;
d. weakness.
320.What changes in peripheral blood are
characteristic of infectious mononucleosis?
a. neutrophilic leukocytosis;
b. leukopenia with relative lymphocytosis;
c. leukocytosis, lymphocytosis, monocytosis,
atypical mononuclear cells;
d. leukopenia, lymphocytosis, monocytosis.
321.A reliable criterion for meningococcal
meningitis are changes in cerebrospinal fluid:
a. pleocytosis;
b. sugar reduction;
c. lymphocytic pleocytosis;
d. detection of the pathogen
322.What viral hepatitis is more often accompanied
by a chronic pathological process with an outcome
in cirrhosis?
a. viral hepatitis A;
b. viral hepatitis B;
c. viral hepatitis C;
d. viral hepatitis E.
323.What combination of symptoms is characteristic
for the onset of meningococcal meningitis?
a. gradual onset, headache, vomiting, loose stools;
b. rapid fever, headache, vomiting without
abdominal pain;
c. high fever, vomiting, abdominal pain;
d high fever, headache, visual impairment.
324.Specify a characteristic rash with The liver is palpated 1 cm below the costal arch.
meningococcemia: Pulse 64 in 1 min., BP - 100/60 mm Hg He lives in a
student dormitory, in a room of 4 people. Specify the
a. spotty; most probable diagnosis:
b. nodose; A. infectious mononucleosis
c. papular; B. adenovirus infection
d. hemorrhagic with necrosis C. viral hepatitis
325. The kindergarten teacher, 22 years old, has high D. toxic hepatitis
fever, enlarged painful occipital lymph nodes, a E. toxoplasmosis
small spotty pink rash on the skin, plentiful, without Influenza and SARS
a tendency to thicken, evenly covers all areas of the
skin, joint pain. Sick 2nd day. The condition is 329. The most likely source of influenza infection is
satisfactory. Specify the most probable diagnosis:
A. measles A. A person in the incubation period
B. rubella B. patient in the midst
C. infectious mononucleosis B. convalescence
D. pseudotuberculosis G. virus carrier
D. typhus D. animals

326. Patient B. 21 years 3 days ago, the temperature 330. The duration of flu fever is most often
rose to 39.8 ° C, a headache appeared. On A. 1-3 days
examination: serious condition, tachycardia, B. 2-4 days
tachypne; the mucosa of the oropharynx is sharply
C. 3-5 days
hyperemic; tonsils hyperemic, swollen; on the inner D.4-7 days
surface of both tonsils in the gaps of a yellowish E. up to 10 days
color plaque, easily removed with a spatula. The
liver and spleen are not enlarged. Specify the most 331. Typical symptoms for influenza are:
probable diagnosis:
A. adenovirus infection A. influenza begins with symptoms of general
B. infectious mononucleosis intoxication
C. oropharyngeal diphtheria B. febrile period with influenza does not exceed 2
D. lacunar angina days
D. tonsillitis Simanovsky-Vincent C. with a duration of fever of more than 5 days
D. influenza often begins with catarrhal
327. Patient K., 39 years old, went to the clinic with symptoms
complaints of a constant headache, high body E. two-wave fever with influenza
temperature, abdominal pain; cough infrequent and
unproductive. Enlarged liver and spleen. Sick for 6 332. The presence of this symptom eliminates the
days. Specify the probable diagnosis: diagnosis of influenza.
A. typhus
A. headache
B. influenza
B. headache with vomiting
C. typhoid fever
C. meningeal syndrome
G. salmonellosis
D. respiratory failure
D. pneumonia
E. anuria
328. Patient E., 20 years old, went to the doctor on
333. In case of flu:
the 5th day of illness. Concerned about fever from
the 1st day of illness, weakness, fatigue, sore throat, A. treatment is preferable to be carried out in a
coughing. I took aspirin and sulfadimezin on my hospital
own. Against this background, on the 4th day of the B. in severe cases, broad-spectrum antibiotics should
disease appeared epigastric severity, nausea, a sharp be prescribed
decrease in appetite, dark urine. Objectively: the C. In all cases, a decrease in temperature is indicated
patient is lethargic, pale, moderate yellowness of the D. antimicrobial therapy is indicated only in
sclera and mucous membranes of the oral cavity.
complicated cases D. meningoencephalitis
E. for the prevention of bacterial complications, the E. * false croup
use of anti-influenza is indicated
340. For adenovirus infection, a characteristic
334. The etiotropic treatment for influenza A is syndrome is:

A. Arbidol A. pneumonia
B. interferon B. bronchitis
C. vaccigripp C. conjunctivitis
D. acyclovir D. laryngitis
E. ascorbic acid E. tracheitis

335. Etiotropic therapy of severe forms of influenza: 341. In what year was the flu virus discovered:

A. antigrippin A. 1933
B. influenza vaccine B.1931
C. remantadine C. 1947
D. penicillin D. 1918
E. oseltamivir
342. Lymphadenopathy is characteristic of:
336. The correct statement:
A. flu
A. pneumonia - a frequent manifestation of B. parainfluenza
mycoplasma infection C. adenovirus infection
B. parainfluenza infection is characterized by D. RS infection
pronounced intoxication E. rhinovirus infection
C. Adenovirus infection is characterized by severe
laryngotracheitis 343. In the treatment of mycoplasma infection use
D. adenovirus infection characterized by short-term
A. penicillins
subfebrile condition B. Macrolides
E. rhinovirus infection differs from other acute C. sulfonamides
respiratory viral infections by intense paroxysmal D. cephalosporins
cough E. aminoglycosides
337. The clinic of laryngitis is characteristic mainly 344. The etiotropic treatment for influenza is:
for:
A. penicillin
A. adenovirus infection B. antigrippin
B. flu C. cycloferon
C. rhinovirus infection
D. arbidol
D. rubella E. fluoroquinolones
E. Parainfluenza
345. The main preventive measures for influenza:
338. The leading lesion syndrome in parainfluenza
is: A. treatment of patients
B. isolation of patients
A. pharyngitis
C. immunization in the pre-epidemic period
B. rhinitis D. focal disinfection
C. laryngitis
D. tracheobronchitis 346. Rhinovirus infection is characterized by:
E. pneumonia
A. fever
339. Complications of parainfluenza are: B. lymphadenopathy
C. hepatosplenomegaly
A. pneumonia
D. copious discharge from the nose
B. otitis E. conjunctivitis
C. sinusitis
Meningococcal infection C. Metronidazole
D. Penicillin

353.Period between infected host to appearance of

347. The leading link in the pathogenesis of symptoms
meningococcemia:
A. Generation time
A. dehydration B. Serial interval
B. cerebral edema C. Communicable period
C. bacteremia D. Latent period
D. kidney damage
E. myocardial damage 354.Period of disease initiation to disease detection
is known as:
348. The most serious complication of
meningococcemia is: A. Window period
B. Generation time
A. endocarditis C. Lead time
B. the formation of multiple pemic foci D. Latent period
C. myocarditis
D. acute adrenal insufficiency (Friedericksen- 355.Live attenuated vaccine can be given to
Waterhouse syndrome)
A. Children under 8 years
349. The main signs of a common form of B. HIV patients
diphtheria: C. Patients of steroids
D. Patients of radiation
A. swelling of the mucous membrane of the
oropharynx 356.Which of the following disease are notifiable to
B. edema of the subcutaneous tissue of the neck in WHO in Geneva under the International Health
the submandibular region Regulations:
C. the location of fibrinous deposits on the tonsils
and on the mucous membrane of the oropharynx A. Plague, polio and malaria
D. the location of fibrinous deposits on the tonsils B. Cholera, influenza and yellow fever
only C. Cholera, plague and polio
E. bright hyperemia of the mucous membrane of the D. Cholera, plague and yellow fever
oropharynx 357.A village affected with epidemic of cholera,
350. The main clinical sign of toxic diphtheria is: what is the 1st step which should be taken in the
village to decreasethe chances of death from cholera:
A. Tumor spread
B. an increase in regional lymph nodes A. Safe water supply and sanitation
C. edema of the subcutaneous tissue of the neck B. Cholera vaccination to all individuals
D. damage to other parts of the upper respiratory C. Primary Chemoprophylaxis
tract D. Treat everyone in the village with tetracycline
E. hyperthermia 358. The criteria for severity in oropharyngeal
diphtheria are:
351. Food poisoning is an example of:
A. severity of intoxication syndrome
A. Point source epidemic
B. Consciousness disorder
B. Propagated source epidemic
C. prevalence of soft tissue edema
C. Common source epidemic
D. severity of hemodynamic disturbances
D. Pandemic
E. the presence and severity of hemorrhagic
352.Neonatal tetanus prevention is best done by : syndrome

A. Tetanus toxoid 359.To confirm the diagnosis of meningococcal

B. Tetanus immunoglobulin meningitis, use:
A. general cerebrospinal fluid analysis and
cerebrospinal fluid culture in meningococcus
B. blood test for protein and protein fractions
C. determination of the level of bilirubin and the
activity of transaminases in the blood.
D. urine culture on microflora

360. The main clinical sign of toxic diphtheria is:

A. Tumor spread
B. an increase in regional lymph nodes
C. edema of the subcutaneous tissue of the neck
D. damage to other parts of the upper respiratory
tract
E. hyperthermia