Booklet Code No.

:- 473118
Question Booklet Series :–
ç'u iqfLrdk fljht %& A iqfLrdk dksM la[;k %& ↑
Candidate must fill the above
number correctly, in the OMR Sheet

Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. Questions: 120

vuqer le; % 90 feuV~l Code- 15MJES&TS02 (P–I) ç'uksa dh dqy la[;k : 120
Roll No. : OMR Answer Sheet No. :
vuqØekad % ________________________ vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk la[;k : _______________________

Name of the Candidate (in capital letters) : _____________________________________________________________

vH;FkÊ dk uke %
Candidate's Signature Invigilator's Signature
vH;FkÊ ds gLrk{kj _____________________ d{k fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj _____________________

IMPORTANT:– Read the following instructions carefully. Do not mark answers on the question
booklet, otherwise you may be debarred from the selection process.
1. Before commencing to answer, check that the Question Booklet has 120 questions. Each Question Booklet will be
in different series (combination of booklet code no. and series). You must write correct Booklet Code No. and
Question Booklet Series on your OMR Answer Sheet. Further check that there is no misprinting, overprinting
and/or any other shortcoming in it. If there is any shortcoming in the question booklet, intimate the same to your
room invigilator and take a fresh question booklet. No complaint in this regard shall be entertained at any later
stage.
IMPORTANT NOTE: The OMR Answer Sheet will be evaluated with a combination of question booklet series
and booklet code no. hence you must write correct question booklet series and booklet code no. Any mistake in
filling any of them will lead to invalidation of your OMR Answer Sheet. Also in case of non filling of question booklet
series and booklet code no. the OMR Answer Sheet will not be evaluated and its sole responsibility lies on the
candidate.
2. There shall be negative marking. 1/3 mark will be deducted for wrong answer. Each question carries equal
mark. Also refer OMR Sheet for detailed instruction.
3. Ask invigilator to sign on your admit card. If the same is not got signed by you, your candidature shall be
liable to be rejected.
4. This is an objective type test in which each objective question is followed by four responses serialled (1) to (4).
Your task is to choose the correct/best response and mark your response in the OMR Answer Sheet only as per
the instructions given and NOT in the Question Booklet.
5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for all your work on the OMR Answer Sheet. The ovals on the OMR Answer Sheet are
to be completely filled by Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only. ANSWERS ONCE GIVEN CAN NOT BE CHANGED.
6. DO NOT scribble or do rough work or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. DO NOT wrinkle or fold
or staple it.
7. Use of Calculators, Slide rules, Mobiles, calculator watches or any such devices and any other study/reference
material is NOT allowed inside the examination hall.
8. Rough Work is to be done in the blank space provided in the Question Booklet, not on the OMR Answer Sheet.
No other paper will be allowed/provided for rough work.
9. Return the complete Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator on completion of the test. Do not
take this Question Booklet or any part thereof or OMR Answer Sheet outside the examination room. Doing so is a
punishable offence.
10. Take care that you mark only one answer for each question. If more than one answer is given by you for any
question, the same will not be evaluated. Cutting/overwriting the answers are not allowed. Further question
paper is bilingual (Hindi/English). In case of any variation in Hindi version, English version will be taken as
final for evaluation purposes.
fgUnh esa vuqns”k vfUre i`’B ¼Back cover½ ij fn;k x;k gSA
 APTITUDE
1. To mark 800th anniversary of Magna Carta (1215), four 1. eSXuk dkVkZ ¼1215½ dh 800oha o’kZxk¡B dks eukus ds fy;s lalnh;
surviving copies of the world most important çtkra= ds bfrgkl esa fo”o ds lcls egRoiw.kZ pkj thfor çys[kksa dks
documents of parliamentary democracy were recently ,d lkFk ykuk vHkh gky esa mRlo dk ,d fgLlk cukA ;g dgk¡
brought together as a part of celebrations in: euk;k x;k%
(1) Washington (2) Delhi (1) okf”kaxVu (2) fnYyh
(3) London (4) Kathmandu (3) yanu (4) dkBekUMw

2. The so called “bad” cholesterol in the serum is: 2. rFkkdfFkr lhje esa [kjkc dksysLVªkWy gksrk gS%
(1) HDL (2) VLDL (1) HDL (2) VLDL
(3) LDL (4) All of these (3) LDL (4) ;s lHkh

3. The foremost cause of blindness in India, according to 3. “kkldh; vk¡dM+ks ds vuqlkj Hkkjr esa va/kkiu dk loZçeq[k dkj.k gS%
official data is: (1) Xywdksek
(1) Glaucoma (2) Mk;csfVd jsVhjksisFkh
(2) Diabetic Retiropathy (3) eksfr;kfcUn
(3) Cataract (4) viorZfud =qfV
(4) Refractive error

4. Recently which ministry has launched two schemes 4. gky gh esa fdl ea=ky; us nks ;kstuk,a vuwlwfpr tkfr ds fy;s
namely–venture capital fund for S.C. and Green lkgfld iw¡th uhf/k ,oa gfjr O;kikj ;kstuk ykxw dh%
business scheme: (1) foÙk ea=ky;
(1) Ministry of Finance (2) lkekftd U;k; ,oa l”kfädj.k ea=ky;
(2) Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment (3) okf.kT; ,oa m|ksx ea=ky;
(3) Ministry of Commerce & Industry (4) vYila[;d ekeyksa dk ea=ky;
(4) Ministry of Minority affairs

5. One of the pioneering robots, that went missing into 5. çFke iFkçn”kZd jkscksV tks fd ,d n”kd iwoZ vUrfj{k esa [kks x;k Fkk]
space almost a decade ago, has been recently found vHkh gky gh esa yky xzg ds lrg ij ik;k x;kA bldk uke crk,a%
on the surface of red planet. Name it: (1) Beagle 2
(1) Beagle 2 (2) Mars–2 Prop–M. Rover
(2) Mars–2 Prop–M. Rover (3) Mars Rover
(3) Mars Rover (4) Spirit (MER–A)
(4) Spirit (MER–A)

6. Who among the following were well known for their 6. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdls Hkkjr esa xjhch ij v/;;u ds fy;s HkyhHkk¡fr
study on poverty in India: tkuk tkrk gS%
(1) V.M. Dandekar (2) Neel Kanth (1) oh-,e- MkaMsdj (2) uhy daB
(3) Raghuram Rajan (4) (1) & (2) Both (3) j?kqjke jktu (4) nksuksa (1) ,o (2)

7. Who was appointed the first chief executive officer of 7. uhfr vk;ksx dk çFke eq[; ç”kklfud vf/kdkjh vHkh fdls fu;qä
National Institution for transforming India: fd;k x;k%
(1) Arvind Panagariya (1) vjfoUn iuxfM+;k
(2) Bibek Debroy (2) fccsd nscjkW;
(3) Ms Sindhushree Khullar (3) lqJh flU/kqJh [kqYyj
(4) Ms Saraswathi Menon (4) lqJh ljLoFkh esuu

8. Panchsheel agreement was signed between: 8. iap”khy vuqcU/k ij gLrk{kj fdu ns”kksa ds e/; gqvk%
(1) India & Bangladesh (1) Hkkjr vkSj ckaXykns”k
(2) India & China (2) Hkkjr vkSj phu
(3) India & Pakistan (3) Hkkjr vkSj ikfdLrku
(4) India & America (4) Hkkjr vkSj vesfjdk

9. International Monetary Fund is headquartered at: 9. vUrZjk’Vªh; eqæk dks’k dk eq[;ky; dgk¡ gS%
(1) Washington (1) okf”kaxVu
(2) New York (2) U;w;kdZ
(3) Geneva (3) tsusok
(4) Paris (4) isfjl

S&T [A–1] SET02P1 [4 7 3 1 1 8 ]

10. Contour lines on a map join places of: 10. ekufp= ij leksPp js[kk,a fdu LFkkuksa dks tksM+rh gSa%
(1) Equal mean atmospheric pressure (1) leku ek/; okrkoj.kh; ncko
(2) Equal average temperature (2) leku vkSlr rkiØe
(3) Equal rainfall (3) leku o’kkZ
(4) Equal height above sea level (4) leqæ Lrj ds Åij leku Å¡pkbZ

11. A writ, which is in the nature of command issued by 11. U;k;ky; }kjk fuxZfer ,d lekns”k tks ,d daekM dh rjg fdlh
the court asking a public authority to perform a public lkoZtfud çkf/kdkjh dks lkoZtfud dk;Z djus tks oks djus dks ck/; gS
duty which it is bound to perform or to refrain from rFkk fdlh dk;Z dks ugha djus dks tks mls ughas djuk pkfg,] dgk
performing a particular act which it should not tkrk gS%
perform, is called: (1) lfVZ;ksjkjh (2) gSfc;l dkiZl
(1) Certiorari (2) Habeas corpus (3) eUMel (4) Doks okjUVks
(3) Mandamus (4) Quo warranto

12. The capillary action phenomenon of water climbing up 12. ty esa Mwch ,d ldjh uyh esa ikuh ds Åij p<+us dh ty dh
a narrow tube dipped in water is due to: dsf”kdk fØ;k lao`fr dk dkj.k gS%
(1) Surface friction (1) i`’Bh; ?k’kZ.k
(2) Surface tension (2) i`’Bh; ruko
(3) Atmospheric pressure (3) okrkoj.kh; ncko
(4) Differential temperature (4) vody rkiØe

13. The Present strength of Rajya Sabha members is ...... 13. orZeku esa jkT;&lHkk lnL;ksa dh la[;k ------ gS ftlesa jkT;ksa ,oa
out of which ...... are representatives of states and fnYyh la?k”kkflr {ks= ,oa iqMqpsjh ds çfrfuf/kRo djus okys lnL;ksa dh
union territories of Delhi and Puducherry and ...... are la[;k ------ gS ,oa ------ lnL; jk’Vªifr }kjk euksfur fd;s x;s gSa%
nominated by president:
(1) 245, 233, 12 (2) 250, 238, 12
(1) 245, 233, 12 (2) 250, 238, 12 (3) 247, 235, 12 (4) 248, 236, 12
(3) 247, 235, 12 (4) 248, 236, 12

14. As per the constitution of India, the state legislature 14. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku ds vuqlkj jkT; fo/kku&lHkk esa “kkfey gksrk gS%
shall consist of: (1) jkT;iky] fo/kku ifj’kn] fo/kku&lHkk
(1) Governor, Legislative Council, Legislative Assembly (2) jkT;iky ,oa fo/kku&lHkk tgk¡ ij dksbZ Hkh fo/kku ifj’kn ugha gS
(2) Governor, Legislative Assembly where there is no (3) eq[;ea=h] jkT;iky] fo/kku ifj’kn] fo/kku&lHkk
legislative council (4) ;k rks (1) ;k (2)
(3) Chief Minister, Governor, Legislative Council,
Legislative assembly
(4) Either (1) or (2)

15. Garuda-V concluded recently, is a joint exercise 15. x:M&V, tks gky gh esa lEiUu gqvk] Hkkjr dh ok;q lsuk ,oa fdl
between the air forces of India and: ns”k ds e/; la;qä vH;kl Fkk%
(1) Japan (2) Canada (1) tkiku (2) dukMk
(3) Russia (4) France (3) :l (4) Ýkal

16. 20 men can finish a work in 30 days. On completion of 16. 20 vkneh fdlh dk;Z dks 30 fnu esa djrs gSA 10 fnu iwjs gksus ds
10 days, 10 men leave work. Remaining men work for ckn] 10 O;fä dk;Z NksM+dj pys tkrs gSA ckdh cps O;fä “ks’k 10
next 10 days. At the end of 20 days it is decided to fnu rd dk;Z djrs gSaA 20 fnu dh lekfIr ij ;g fu.kZ; fy;k tkrk
complete the work in remaining 10 days. How many gS fd ckdh cpk dk;Z ckdh cps 10 fnuksa esa iwjk fd;k tk,A fdrus
extra men are required: vfrfjä O;fä;ksa dh vko”;drk gksxh%
(1) 20 (2) 25 (1) 20 (2) 25
(3) 15 (4) 10 (3) 15 (4) 10

17. A machinist by increasing his normal rate of work by 17. ,d fn, x;s le; esa ,d dkjhxj vius dk;Z dk lkekU; nj
1 1
12 % could produce 15 items more, in a given period 12 % c<+kdj 15 oLrq,a T;knk iSnk dj ldrk gSA ;fn og vius
2 2
of time. How many items can he produce if he works at lkekU; nj ds 80% ij dk;Z djrk gS rks fdruh oLrq,a mRikfnr
80% of his normal rate: djrk gS%
(1) 100 (2) 90 (1) 100 (2) 90
(3) 80 (4) 96 (3) 80 (4) 96

S&T [A–2] SET02P1 [4 7 3 1 1 8 ]

18. The average age of 10 students is 15 years. When 5 18. 10 fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh vkSlr vk;q 15 o’kZ gSA tc 5 u, fo|kFkhZ “kkfey
new students joined, the average age rose by one fd, tkrs gSa rks vkSlr vk;q 1 o’kZ ls c<+ tkrk gSA u;s fo|kfFkZ;ksa dk
year. The average age in years of the new students is: vkSlr vk;q o’kks± esa D;k gksxk%
(1) 18 (2) 16 (1) 18 (2) 16
(3) 15 (4) 17 (3) 15 (4) 17

19. In an examination a student scores 1 mark for each 19. ,d ijh{kk esa ,d fo|kFkhZ lgh mÙkj ds fy, 1 vad ikrk gS vkSj
correct answer and 0.25 marks are deducted for each 0.25 vad dh dVkSrh xyr mÙkj ds fy, dh tkrh gSA ;fn og dqy
wrong answers. If he attempts all 120 questions and 120 ç”u dk mÙkj nsrk gS vkSj 90 vad ikrk gS rks mlus dqy
secures 90 marks, the number of questions he fdrus ç”uksa ds mÙkj lgh fn;s%
attempts correctly is:
(1) 100 (2) 106
(1) 100 (2) 106 (3) 96 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(3) 96 (4) None of these
3 2 3 2
20. The difference between
4
of 64 and
3
of 48 is equal 20. 64 dk 4
vkSj 48 dk 3
ds e/; vUrj gksxk%
to: (1) 24 (2) 20
(1) 24 (2) 20 (3) 32 (4) 16
(3) 32 (4) 16

21. Two students appeared at an examination. One of 21. nks fo|kFkÊ ,d ijh{kk esa lfEefyr gksrs gSaA muesa ls ,d fo|kFkÊ us
them secured 9 marks more than the other and his nwljs fo|kFkÊ ls 9 vad vf/kd çkIr fd, vkSj mldk vad nksuksa ds
marks was 56% of the sum of their marks. The marks vadksa ds dqy ;ksx dk 56% FkkA muds }kjk çkIr fd, x, vad gSa%
obtained by them are:
(1) 39, 30 (2) 41, 32
(1) 39, 30 (2) 41, 32 (3) 32, 33 (4) 43, 34
(3) 32, 33 (4) 43, 34

22. The cost price of 19 mangoes is equal to the selling 22. 19 vkeksa dk ykxr ewY; 16 vkeksa ds fcØh ewY; ds cjkcj gS ykHk
price of 16 mangoes. The gain percent is: çfr”kr gS%
9 9
(1) 3 % (1) 3 %
17 17
15 15
(2) 15 % (2) 15 %
19 19
3 3
(3) 18 % (3) 18 %
4 4
(4) 20% (4) 20%

23. A hemispherical bowl of internal radius 9 cm contains a 23. 9 lseh- vkUrfjd f=T;k okys ,d v/kZ&xksyh; I;kys esa rjy gSA ;g
liquid. This liquid is to be filled into cylindrical shaped rjy csyukdkj vkdkj okys NksVh cksry ftldk O;kl 3 lseh- ,oa
small bottles of a diameter 3 cm and height 4 cm. How Å¡pkbZ 4 lseh- gS] esa Hkjk tkuk gSA I;kys dks [kkyh djus ds fy,
many bottles will be needed to empty the bowl? fdruh cksryksa dh vko”;drk gksxh\
(1) 45 (2) 54 (1) 45 (2) 54
(3) 35 (4) 48 (3) 35 (4) 48
24. Which of the following is the rate percent per annum 24. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk nj çfr”kr çfro’kZ gS tks fd 3 o’kZ esa `
which would give difference in amount of interest 1200 ij ,oa 4 o’kZ esa ` 800 ij ` 20 dh C;kt ds jde dk
equal to ` 20 for ` 1200 in 3 years and for ` 800 in 4 vUrj nsxk\
years?
(1) 2.5 (2) 3
(1) 2.5 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(3) 5 (4) None of these

25. In a class, the ratio of boys to girls is 4:5. Half of the 25. ,d d{kk esa yM+dks ls yM+fd;ksa dk vuqikr 4:5 gSA vk/ks yM+ds ,oa
boys and half of the girls participated in the youth vk/kh yM+fd;ksa us ukStoku mRlo esa Hkkx fy;kA 61 tks fd dqy
1
festival. , ie, 30 of the total student population
6 fo|kFkÊ la[;k dk 30 gS] us NCC dSEi esa fgLlk fy;kA d{kk esa
participated in the NCC camp. What is the number of yM+fd;ksa dh la[;k D;k gS%
girl students in the class? (1) 80 (2) 100
(1) 80 (2) 100 (3) 120 (4) 150
(3) 120 (4) 150

S&T [A–3] SET02P1 [4 7 3 1 1 8 ]

26. Three wheels make 60, 36 and 24 revolutions per 26. rhu ifg;s 60, 36 ,oa 24 pôj çfrfeuV yxkrs gSaA çR;sd ds fje
minute. Each has a red spot on its rim, which is at the ij ,d yky nkx gSA tks fd “kwU; dky ij fuEure fLFkfr ij gSA
lowest position at time zero. The red spot will all be at yky nkx iqu% mlh fLFkfr ij gksxk fdrus le; i”pkr%
this position again after: (1) 2 lsds.M (2) 5 lsds.M
(1) 2 seconds (2) 5 seconds (3) 4 lsds.M (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(3) 4 seconds (4) None of these

27. If 2 logx (x–2) = logx 4, then the value of x is: 27. ;fn 2 logx (x–2) = logx 4, rks X dk eku D;k gS%
(1) 1 (2) 3 (1) 1 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 2 (3) 4 (4) 2

28. Which of the following in the largest number? 28. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh lokZf/kd cM+h la[;k gS\
1/3 1/5 1/3 1/5
(1) 3 (2) 5 (1) 3 (2) 5
1/2 1/7 1/2 1/7
(3) 2 (4) 7 (3) 2 (4) 7

29. In a throw of two dice, the probability of getting a sum 29. nks ik¡lksa dh ,d Qsad esa vadksa dk ;ksx 9 vFkok 11 vkus dh
of 9 or 11 is: çkf;drk gksxh%
(1) 2/9 (2) 7/9 (1) 2/9 (2) 7/9
(3) 5/9 (4) None of these (3) 5/9 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
30. The triangle joining the points (2, 7), (4, –1), (–2, 6) is: 30. fcUnqvksa (2, 7), (4, –1), (–2, 6) dks feykus ls cuk gqvk f=Hkqt
(1) Equilteral gksxk%
(2) Right angled (1) leckgq
(3) Isosceles (2) ledks.k
(4) None of these (3) lef}ckgq
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

DIRECTIONS: For answering question, study diagram which is funsZ”k% fuEufyf[kr ç”ua ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, js[kkfp= dk v/;;u djus ds
represented as follows and select the appropriate choice. i”pkr mfpr fodYi dk pquko djsaA
ABDE represents Artists ABDE iznf”kZr djrk gS dykdkjksa dks
FGHI represents Scientists FGHI çnf”kZr djrk gS oSKkfudksa dks
JKLM represents Administrators JKLM çnf”kZr djrk gS ç”kkldksa dks
OPQN represents healthy people OPQN çnf”kZr djrk gS LoLFk O;fä dks

31. Scientists who are also artists but in not good state of 31. oSKkfud tks dykdkj Hkh gSa ysfdu LoLFk ugha gSa] fdl {ks= ls
health belong to the area: lEcfU/kr gSa%
(1) 4 (2) 5 (1) 4 (2) 5
(3) 9 (4) 10 (3) 9 (4) 10

DIRECTION: Select the suitable alternative to satisfy the funsZ”k% fuEufyf[kr ç”u ls muds lEcU/kksa dks lUrq’V djus okys lgh fodYi
relationship in the following question. dks pqfu,A
32. Buffalo : Leather : : Sheep: 32. HkSal % peM+k % % HksM+%
(1) Wool (2) Cotton (1) Åu (2) dikl
(3) Fur (4) Silk (3) Qj (4) js”ke

S&T [A–4] SET02P1 [4 7 3 1 1 8 ]

DIRECTION: Select the choice out of the given choices which funsZ”k% fuEufyf[kr fn;s gq, “kCnksa dks fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls vaxzsth o.kZekyk
gives the given words in the correct alphabetical order. ds vuqlkj lgh Øe esa vkus okys fodYi dk pquko djsaA
33. Nasal, New, Nine, Noble: 33. Nasal, New, Nine, Noble%
(1) Noble, New, Nasal, Nine (1) Noble, New, Nasal, Nine
(2) Nine, Noble, New, Nasal (2) Nine, Noble, New, Nasal
(3) Nasal, New, Nine, Noble (3) Nasal, New, Nine, Noble
(4) New, Nasal, Nine, Noble (4) New, Nasal, Nine, Noble

34. Five students participated in an examination and each 34. ik¡p fo|kfFkZ;ksa us ,d ijh{kk esa Hkkx fy;k vkSj çR;sd us fHké vad
scored different marks. Naina scored higher than vftZr fd;kA uSuk us ehuk ls T;knk vad vftZr fd;kA deyk us
Meena. Kamla scored lower than praveen but higher çohu ls de ijUrq uSuk ls T;knk vad vftZr fd;kA vuqt dk vad
than Naina. Anuj’s score was between Meena and ehuk vkSj uSuk ds chp esa FkkA fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk tksM+k
Naina. Which of the following pairs represents the Øe”k% mPpre ,oa fuEure vad n”kkZrk gS%
highest and the lowest scores respectively?
(1) çohu] uSuk
(1) Praveen, Naina (2) uSuk] çohu
(2) Naina, Praveen (3) çohu] vuqt
(3) Praveen, Anuj (4) çohu] ehuk
(4) Praveen, Meena

INSTRUCTIONS: In this question a piece of paper is folded and then cut as shown below. The dotted lines shown are the portion which
have been folded. The curve arrow shows the directions of folding. And the number of scissors beneath the figure show the number of
portions cut. From the given responses, indicate how it will appear when opened. The opening is in the same order as folding.

funsZ”k% fuEufyf[kr ç”u esa dkxt ds VqdM+s dks eksM+dj dkVk x;k gS] tSlk fd uhps n”kkZ;k x;k gSA fcUnq js[kk,a eksM+s gq, Hkkx dks çnf”kZr djrh gSaA oØkRed
rhj eqM+s Hkkx dh fn”kk dks n”kkZrk gSA fp= ds uhps nh xbZ dSafp;k¡ dVs gq, Hkkx dh la[;kvks dks n”kkZrh gSaA mÙkj fodYiksa esa ls ;s crk,a fd bl çfØ;k ds
vuqlkj bls [kksyus ij ;g dSlk fn[ksxkA eksM+us ds Øekuqlkj gh [kksyus dk Øe gksxkA
35. Question figure ¼ç”u vkÑfr½ Answer figure ¼mÙkj vkÑfr½

35.  (1) (2) (3) (4)

DIRECTIONS: At a public meeting there were 8 speakers A, B, funsZ”k% ,d lkoZtfud lHkk esa A, B, C, D, E, F, G, ,oa H 8 oäk FksA
C, D, E, F, G and H. Each spoke for some time according to the fuEufyf[kr ;kstuk ds vuqlkj çR;sd us dqN le; cksyk&
following scheme– I. ^A* ^F* ds ckn cksyk vkSj ^B* ls T;knk le; fy;k
I. ‘A’ spoke after ‘F’ and took more time than ‘B’ II. ^C* ^G* ls igys cksyk ysfdu ^B* ds ckn vkSj ^E* ls de
II. ‘C’ spoke before ‘G’ and after ‘B’ and took less time le; fy;k
than E. III. ^D* ^H* ds ckn cksyk vkSj ^B* ls igys ,oa ^H* ls de le;
III. ‘D’ spoke after ‘H’ and before ‘B’ and took less time fy;k ysfdu ^E* ls T;knk
than ‘H’, but more time than ‘E’. IV. ^H* ^A* ds ckn cksyk vkSj ^B* ls de le; fy;k
IV. ‘H’ spoke after ‘A’ and took less time than ‘B’
36. dkSu lcls T;knk le; cksyk%
36. Who spoke for the longest time?
(1) A (2) B
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(3) C (4) D

DIRECTION: Some words have been coded but no specific funsZ”k% dqN “kCnksa dks dwV Hkk’kk esa fy[kk x;k gS ysfdu mlds fy;s dksbZ
code is indicated. Use your judgement to pick the coded word fuf”pr dwV fufnZ’V ugh gSA vki vius fu.kZ; {kerk dk ç;ksx djrs gq,
which represents the given word the best. dwV esa fy[ks gq, la[;k dks crk, tks ç”u esa fn;s gq, “kCn dks lokZf/kd
vPNh rjg ls iznf”kZr djrk gS%
37. RECOMMEND:
(1) 154595247 37. RECOMMEND%
(2) 156722543 (1) 154595247
(3) 227919281 (2) 156722543
(4) 566671281 (3) 227919281
(4) 566671281

S&T [A–5] SET02P1 [4 7 3 1 1 8 ]

38. If BAT = 69 and BOOK = 172, then PEN = ? 38. ;fn BAT = 69 vkSj BOOK = 172, rks PEN = \
(1) 66 (2) 105 (1) 66 (2) 105
(3) 144 (4) 183 (3) 144 (4) 183

39. In a certain code language ‘bring the white board’ is 39. fdlh fuf”pr dksM Hkk’kk esa ^bring the white board* dks ^ka na
written as ‘ka na di pa’ and ‘White and black board’ is di pa* ,oa ^white and black board* dks ^na di sa ra* fy[kk
written as ‘na di sa ra’. How is ‘the’ written in that tkrk gS rks ^the* dks ml dksM esa dSls fy[kk tk;sxk\
code?
(1) ka (2) pa
(1) ka (2) pa (3) ka or pa (4) ra
(3) ka or pa (4) ra

40. If M+N means M is brother of N, M/N means M is father 40. vxj M+N ek;us M HkkbZ gS N dk] M/N ek;us M firk gS N dk
of N and M×N means M is sister of N. Which of the rFkk MxN ek;us M cgu gS N dkA fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdldk ek;us
following means A is uncle of B? B dk pkpk A gS\
(1) A/CxB (1) A/CxB
(2) CxB/A (2) CxB/A
(3) A+D/E/B (3) A+D/E/B
(4) A+G/HxB (4) A+G/HxB

41. JE, LH, OL, SQ, ____ 41. JE, LH, OL, SQ, -----
(1) WV (1) WV
(2) WX (2) WX
(3) VW (3) VW
(4) XW (4) XW

42. ‘B’, the son of ‘A’ was wedded to ‘C’ where as ‘D’ was 42. ^B*] ^A* dk iq= gS ftldk ^C* ls fookg gqvk gS tcfd ^D* dk
married to ‘E’. If E is the brother of ‘B’, how is ‘D’ fookg ^E* ls gqvk FkkA ;fn ^E* ^B* dk HkkbZ gS rks ^D* dk ^A* ls
related to ‘A’? D;k laca/k gS\
(1) Daughter-in-law (1) cgw
(2) Daughter (2) iq=h
(3) Sister (3) cgu
(4) Cousin (4) ppsjh cgu@HkkbZ

43. Sonu starts from his home towards the South. After 43. lksuw vius ?kj ls nf{k.k dh vksj pyuk çkjEHk djrk gSA 60 eh-
walking for 60 m, he turns right and goes for 40 m. He pyus ds ckn og nk,¡ eqM+dj 40 eh- pyrk gSA og iqu% nk,¡ eqM+rk
turns right again and walks for 80 m before turning gS ,oa ck,¡ eqM+us ls igys 80 eh- pyrk gSA fQj og 30 eh- pydj
left. He then walks for 30 m and reaches his school. vius fo|ky; igq¡prk gSA mldk fo|ky; mlds ?kj ls fdruh nwjh
How far is his school from his home and in which ij ,oa fdl fn”kk esa gS\
direction?
(1) 10√43 eh-] mÙkj&iwoZ
(1) 10√43 m, North East (2) 10√13 eh-] mÙkj&if”pe
(2) 10√13 m, North West (3) 10√53 eh-] mÙkj&if”pe
(3) 10√53 m, North West (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(4) None of these

DIRECTIONS: In the following number series only one number funsZ”k% fuEufyf[kr la[;k Ja`[kyk esa ,d la[;k xyr gSA xyr la[;k dks
is wrong. Find out the wrong number. Kkr djsaA
44. 4, 9, 21, 49, 101 44. 4, 9, 21, 49, 101
(1) 21 (1) 21
(2) 49 (2) 49
(3) 101 (3) 101
(4) None of these (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
45. Pick the odd one out. 45. fuEufyf[kr esa ls vlaxr dks pqfu,%
(1) Copper (1) rk¡ck
(2) Tin (2) Vhu
(3) Zinc (3) tLrk
(4) Brass (4) ihry

S&T [A–6] SET02P1 [4 7 3 1 1 8 ]

 TECHNICAL APTITUDE
46. A voltmeter is used: 46. oksYVehVj ç;qä gksrk gS%
(1) To measure current (1) /kkjk ekiu ds fy,
(2) In series with the circuit (2) ifjiFk lfgr J`¡[kyk esa
(3) In parallel with the circuit (3) ifjiFk lfgr lekukUrj esa
(4) To measure coulombs (4) dksyEc ekius gsrq

47. What is the color code for a 220Ω 5% resistor? 47. 220Ω 5% çfrjks/k gsrq dyj dksM D;k gS%
(1) Red, Red, Brown, Gold (1) yky] yky] Hkwjk] Lo.kZ
(2) Orange, Orange, Black, Gold (2) ukjaxh] ukjaxh] dkyk] Lo.kZ
(3) Red, Red, Black, Gold (3) yky] yky] dkyk] Lo.kZ
(4) Red, Red, Brown, Silver (4) yky] yky] Hkwjk] jtr
48. LCD stands for: 48. LCD dk rkRi;Z gS%
(1) Liquid crystal device (1) fyfDoM fØLVy fMokbZl
(2) Liquid crystal display (2) fyfDoM fØLVy fMLiys
(3) Logic crystal display (3) ykWftd fØLVy fMLiys
(4) Logic crystal device (4) ykWftd fØLVy fMokbZl
49. Universal gates are: 49. ;wfuolZy }kj gSa%
(1) AND, OR (1) AND, OR
(2) AND, NOT (2) AND, NOT
(3) OR, NOT (3) OR, NOT
(4) NAND, NOR (4) NAND, NOR

50. AND act as a: 50. AND fdldh rjg dk;Z djrk gS%
(1) Parallel circuit (1) lekukUrj ifjiFk
(2) Series circuit (2) J`¡[kyk ifjiFk
(3) Series- Parallel circuit (3) J`¡[kyk&lekukUrj ifjiFk
(4) None of above (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
51. The phase shift occur in: 51. dyk foLFkkiu ?kfVr gksrk gS%
(1) CE amplifier (1) CE ,EiyhQk;j esa
(2) CB amplifier (2) CB ,EiyhQk;j esa
(3) CC amplifier (3) CC ,EiyhQk;j esa
(4) None of above (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

52. If two resistance of 660Ω are connected in parallel, the 52. ;fn 660Ω ds nks izfrjks/kd lekukarj :i ls tksM+ fn, tkrs gSa dqy
total (or equivalent) resistance is: ¼vFkok lerqY;½ izfrjks/k gS%
(1) 330Ω (1) 330Ω
(2) 1320Ω (2) 1320Ω
(3) 66Ω (3) 66Ω
(4) None of these (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
53. The capacitive reactance of a 0.01µF capacitor to a 53. 100Khz dh vko`fRr ds izfr ,d 0.01µF la/kkfj= dk /kkfjrk
frequency of 100Khz will be: izfr?kkr gksxk%
(1) 0.006Ω (1) 0.006Ω
(2) 15Ω (2) 15Ω
(3) 115Ω (3) 115Ω
(4) 159Ω (4) 159Ω

54. A super hetrodyne radio receiver with an IF of 455 KHz 54. 455KHz dh IF ls ;qDr ,d lqij gSVªksMkbu jsfM;ks fjlohj
is tuned to a signal at 1205 KHz, the image frequency is: 1205KHz ds flXuy ij V~;wu fd;k tkrk gSA izfrfcEc vko`fRr gS%
(1) 910 KHz (1) 910 KHz
(2) 1660 KHz (2) 1660 KHz
(3) 2865 KHz (3) 2865 KHz
(4) None of these (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

S&T [A–7] SET02P1 [4 7 3 1 1 8 ]

55. The number of bits in a Byte is: 55. ,d ckbV esa fcVksa dh la[;k gksrh gS%
(1) 2 (1) 2
(2) 8 (2) 8
(3) 4 (3) 4
(4) 16 (4) 16

56. The output of a two input NAND gate is low: 56. nks bUiqV NAND xsV dk vkmViqV fuEu gksrk gS tc%
(1) Only if both the inputs are high (1) dsoy rHkh tc nksuksa bUiqV mPp gksa
(2) Only if both the inputs are low (2) dsoy rHkh tc nksuksa bUiqV U;wu gksa
(3) Only if one input is high and the other is low (3) dsoy rHkh tc ,d bUiqV mPp vkSj nwljk fuEu gks
(4) Only if at least one of the input is low (4) dsoy rHkh tc de ls de ,d bUiqV fuEu gks

57. In Radar display system PPI stands for: 57. jkMkj fun”kZu iz.kkyh esa PPI dk foLrkfjr :i gS%
(1) Pulse position indicator (1) Pulse position indicator
(2) Phase position indicator (2) Phase position indicator
(3) Plan position indicator (3) Plan position indicator
(4) Point position indicator (4) Point position indicator

58. A differentiator circuit acts like a: 58. ,d vodyd ifjiFk fuEu :i esa dke djrk gS%
(1) Band pass filter (1) cSaM ikjd fQYVj
(2) Band stop filter (2) cSaM otZd fQYVj
(3) Low pass filter (3) U;wu ikjd fQYVj
(4) High pass filter (4) mPp ikjd fQYVj

59. A squelch circuit in a TV receiver is used to: 59. Vhoh fjlhoj esa pqidkjh ifjiFk dk iz;ksx fuEu ds fy, fd;k tkrk gS%
(1) Cut off IF when AGC is maximum (1) tc AGC vf/kdre gS rks IF dk fØ;kar dj nsuk
(2) Cut off audio amplifier when carrier is absent (2) okgd ds vuqifLFkr jgus ij J`O; ,sEIyhQk;j dk fØ;kar dj nsuk
(3) Cut off IF when AGC is inoperative (3) tc AGC fuf’Ø; gks rks IF dk fØ;kar dj nsuk
(4) Cut off brightness circuit when AGC is inoperative (4) tc AGC fuf’Ø; gks rks |qfr ifjiFk dk fØ;kar dj nsuk

60. The internal impedance of a source is 3 + j 4Ω, it is 60. ,d lzksr dh vkarfjr izfrck/kk 3 + j 4Ω gSA blls ,d izfrjks/kh yksM
desired to supply maximum power to a resistive load. dks vf/kdre fo|qr lIykbZ djus dh vis{kk dh tkrh gSA yksM
The load resistance should be: izfrck/kk gksuh pkfg,%
(1) 3Ω (2) 4Ω (1) 3Ω (2) 4Ω
(3) 7Ω (4) None of these (3) 7Ω (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
61. In which amplifier the output current flows even there 61. dkSu&ls ,sEIyhQk;j esa fdlh Hkh bUiqV flXuy ds u jgrs gq, vkmViqV
is no input signal: /kkjk izokfgr gksrh gS\
(1) Class–A (1) Js.kh&A
(2) Class–B (2) Js.kh&B
(3) Class–C (3) Js.kh&C
(4) Class–AB (4) Js.kh&AB

62. ‘Heat Sink’ is generally attached with: 62. ^Å’ek flad* vkerkSj ij fuEu ds lkFk layXu fd;k tkrk gS%
(1) Base of transistor (1) VªkaftLVj dk csl
(2) Emitter of transistor (2) VªkaftLVj dk mRltZd
(3) Collector of transistor (3) VªkaftLVj dk laxzkgh
(4) None of these (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

63. Number of ‘side bands’ produced during A.M.: 63. A.M. ds nkSjku mRikfnr ik”oZ cSaMksa dh la[;k gS%
(1) One (2) Two (1) ,d (2) nks
(3) Four (4) Unlimited (3) pkj (4) vlhfer

64. Minimum Number of Flip-Flops required to construct a 64. ,d ‘Decade Counter’ fufeZr djus ds fy, visf{kr f¶yi&¶ykiksa
‘DECADE COUNTER’: dh U;wure la[;k gs%
(1) 2 (2) 4 (1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 8 (3) 6 (4) 8

S&T [A–8] SET02P1 [4 7 3 1 1 8 ]

65. The operation of Q meter is based on: 65. D;w ¼Q½ ehVj dk çpkyu fdl ij fuHkZj gksrk gS%
(1) Hysteresis current (1) fgLVsjsfll /kkjk
(2) Eddy current (2) ,sìh /kkjk
(3) Series resonance (3) Js.kh vuqukn
(4) Mutual induction (4) ikjLifjd çsj.k

66. Modems are used for data transmission telephone 66. MkVk laØe.k VsyhQksu ykbuksa esas ekWMeksa dk iz;ksx fuEu ds fy, fd;k
lines to: tkrk gS%
(1) Increase the transmission capacity (1) laØe.k {kerk c<+kuk
(2) Improve noise performance (2) jo fu’iknu csgrj cukuk
(3) Incorporate error control coding (3) =qfV fu;a=.k dksfMax “kkfey djuk
(4) Eliminate dc components in the transmitted signal (4) laØef.kr flXuy esa dc ?kVdksa dk foyksiu

67. In radar systems, the term ‘rat-race’ is used in 67. jkMkj iz.kkfy;ksa esa ^jSVjsl* “kCn dk iz;ksx fuEu ds laca/k esa fd;k
connection with: tkrk gS%
(1) Modulator (1) ekM~;wysVj
(2) Pulse characteristics (2) iYl fo”ks’krk,a
(3) Receiver bandwidth (3) izkid cSaMfoM~Fk
(4) Duplexer (4) M~;wIySDlj

68. Which one of the following is capable of giving the 68. fuEu esa ls loksZPp MkVk xfr nsus esa l{ke gS%
highest data speed? (1) lek{k dscy fyad
(1) Coaxial cable link (2) lw{erjax LOS fyad
(2) Microwave LOS link (3) lw{erjax mixzg iz.kkyh
(3) Microwave satellite system (4) izdk”kh; Qkbcj iz.kkyh
(4) Optical fibre system

69. The primary advantage of a crystal oscillator is that 69. fØLVy nksfy= dk eq[; ykHk gS%
(1) It can oscillate at any frequency (1) ;g fdlh Hkh vko`fRr ij nksyu dj ldrk gS
(2) It givens a high output voltage (2) ;g ,d mPp fuxZe oksYVrk iznku djrk gS
(3) Its frequency of oscillation remains almost constant (3) bldh nksyu dh vko`fRr yxHkx fLFkj jgrh gS
(4) It operates on a very low dc supply voltage (4) ;g vR;ar u;wu dc vkiwfrZ oksYVrk ij dke djrk gS

70. A transistor is operated as a non saturated switch to 70. ,d VªkaftLVj fuEu dk foyksiu djus ds fy, ,d vlar`Ir fLop ij
eliminate: dke djrk gS%
(1) Storage time (2) Turn-off time (1) HkaMkj.k le; (2) VuZ vkQ le;
(3) Turn-on time (4) Delay time (3) VuZ vku le; (4) foyac le;

71. Which one of the following types of noise gains 71. fuEu esa ls jo dh dkSulh dksfV dks mPp vko`fRr ij egRo izkIr gksrk
importance at high frequency? gS\
(1) Shot noise (1) iViV jo
(2) Random noise (2) ;kn`fPNd jo
(3) Impulse noise (3) vkosx jo
(4) Transit-time noise (4) laØe.k jo

72. Equalising pulses in TV are sent during: 72. TV esa ledkjh iYlsa fuEu ds nkSjku Hksth tkrh gS%
(1) Horizontal blanking (1) vuqizLFk CySafdax
(2) Vertical blanking (2) Å/okZ/kj CySafdax
(3) Serrations (slots) (3) flVs”ku ¼LykV½
(4) The horizontal retrace (4) vuqizLFk fjVªsl
73. Top loading is used with an antenna in order to 73. fuEukafdr esa ls D;k c<+kus ds fy, fdlh ,UVsuk esa “kh’kZ Hkkj dk
increase its:
ç;ksx fd;k tkrk gS%
(1) Effective height
(1) çHkkoh Å¡pkbZ
(2) Bandwidth
(2) cSUMfoFk
(3) Beamwidth
(3) che dh pkSM+kbZ
(4) Radiated power
(4) fofdfjr “kfä

S&T [A–9] SET02P1 [4 7 3 1 1 8 ]

74. The main disadvantage of PCM is: 74. PCM dh çeq[k vlqfo/kk ;g gS fd%
(1) That it requires large bandwidths (1) blesa o`gn cSUMfoFk dh vko”;drk gksrh gS
(2) Its inability to handle low frequency signals (2) fuEu vko`fÙk ladsrksa dks laHkkyus essa bldh v{kerk
(3) Its incompatibilities with TDM (3) TDM ds lkFk bldh vfu’ksP;rk
(4) The high error rate due to quantizing noise (4) DokUVhdj.k jo ds dkj.k bldh mPp =qfV nj
75. FM broadcast lies in: 75. FM çlkj.k fdl cSaM esa gksrk gS%
(1) HF band (2) VHF band (1) HF cSaM (2) VHF cSaM
(3) UHF band (4) SHF band (3) UHF cSaM (4) SHF cSaM
76. A 4 KHz signal is to be sent on the line using 10-bit 76. 10 fcV PCM dk ç;ksx djrs gq, ykbu ij ,d 4 KHz ladsr
PCM. The bit rate on the line is:
Hkstuk gSA ykbu ij fcV nj buesa ls D;k gksxh%
(1) 8 kbps (2) 40 kbps
(1) 8 kb çfr lsds.M (2) 40 kb çfr lsds.M
(3) 80 kbps (4) None of these
(3) 80 kb çfr lsds.M (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

77. The Ripple counters suffer from: 77. mfeZdk xf.k= dks buesa ls fdlls {kfr igqaprh gS%
(1) Propagation delays (1) lapj.k foyEc
(2) Voltage spikes (2) oksYVrk Likbd
(3) Both the above (3) mijksä nksuksa
(4) None of these (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

78. Which of the following systems is digital? 78. fuEukafdr esa ls dkSu&lk ra= fMftVy gS%
(1) Pulse-position modulation (1) Lian fLFkfr ekMqyu
(2) Pulse-code modulation (2) Lian&dksM ekMqyu
(3) Pulse-width modulation (3) Lian&foLrkj ekMqyu
(4) Pulse-frequency modulation (4) Lian&vko`fÙk ekMqyu

79. Delta modulation is equivalent to: 79. MsYVk ekM~;wyhdj.k fuEu ds lerqY; gS%
(1) PWM (2) DPCM (1) PWM (2) DPCM
(3) PCM (4) PAM (3) PCM (4) PAM

80. FSK is used mostly in: 80. FSK dk iz;ksx vf/kdka”kr% fuEu esa fd;k tkrk gS%
(1) Radio transmission (1) jsfM;ks lapj.k
(2) Telegraphy (2) rkjlapkj
(3) Telephony (3) VsyhQksu lapkj
(4) None of these (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
81. In a series RLC High Q circuit, the current peaks at a 81. ,d Js.kh RLC mPp Q ifjiFk esa] /kkjk fuEu vko`fRr ij f”k[kj ij
frequency: gksrh gS%
(1) Equal to the resonant frequency. (1) vuquknh vko`fRr ds lerqY;
(2) Greater than the resonant frequency. (2) vuquknh vko`fRr ls vf/kd
(3) Less than the resonant frequency. (3) vuquknh vko`fRr ls de
(4) None of these. (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

82. Testing a good diode with an ohmmeter should indicate:
(1) High resistance when forward or reverse biased
(2) Low resistance when forward or reverse biased
(3) High resistance when reverse biased and low
resistance when forward biased
(4) High resistance when forward biased and low
resistance when reverse biased
83. The arrow in the schematic symbol of a diode points to:
(1) The n-type material, which is called the anode
(2) The n-type material, which is called the cathode
(3) The p-type material, which is called the anode
(4) The p-type material, which is called the cathode
82. vksºeehVj ls ,d vPNs Mk;ksM dks ijh{k.k ij ;g bafxr gksuk pkfg,%
(1) mPp çfrjks/k tc vxz vFkok O;qRØe vfHkufr gks
(2) fuEu çfrjks/k tc vxz vFkok O;qRØe vfHkufr gks
(3) mPp çfrjks/k tc O;qRØe vfHkufr gks ,oa fuEu çfrjks/k tc vxz
vfHkufr gks
(4) mPp çfrjks/k tc vxz vfHkufr gks ,oa fuEu çfrjks/k tc O;qRØe
vfHkufr gks
83. Mk;ksM fcUnq ds ;kstukRed ladsr esa rhj bafxr djrk gS%
(1) n&çdkj dk inkFkZ tksfd ,uksM dgykrk gS
(2) n&çdkj dk inkFkZ tksfd dSFkksM dgykrk gS
(3) p&çdkj dk inkFkZ tksfd ,uksM dgykrk gS
(4) p&çdkj dk inkFkZ tksfd dSFkksM dgykrk gS

S&T [A–10] SET02P1 [4 7 3 1 1 8 ]

84. Which is the DIAC? 84. dkSu&lk DIAC gS

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

85. Which of the following antenna is best excited from a 85. fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk ,saVhuk rjax iFkd ls lokZf/kd mRizsfjr gksrk gS\
waveguide? (1) ck;dksfudy (2) gkuZ
(1) Biconical (2) Horn (3) gSyhdy (4) fMLdksu
(3) Helical (4) Discone

86. The fastest logic family used in high speed 86. mPp xfr vuqiz;ksxksa esa iz;qDr lcls Rofjr ykftd QSfeyh gS%
applications is: (1) DTL (2) TTL
(1) DTL (2) TTL (3) ECL (4) RTL
(3) ECL (4) RTL

87. Which is the volatile memory: 87. dkSu&lk ,d vfLFkj Le`fr gS%
(1) RAM (2) FLOPPY (1) RAM (2) FLOPPY
(3) HARD DISK (4) CD (3) HARD DISK (4) CD

88. What does the CRT oscilloscope display? 88. CRT vkWflyksLdksi D;k çnf”kZr djrk gS%
(1) Voltage and period (1) oksYVrk ,oa dky
(2) Current and frequency (2) /kkjk ,oa vko`fÙk
(3) RMS voltage and current (3) RMS oksYVrk ,oa /kkjk
(4) Frequency and voltage (4) vko`fÙk ,oa oksYVrk

89. The β in a transistor configuration is current gain of: 89. VªkaftLVj lajpuk esa β fdldh /kkjk yfC/k gS%
(1) CB configuration (2) CC configuration (1) CB lajpuk (2) CC lajpuk
(3) CD configuration (4) CE configuration (3) CD lajpuk (4) CE lajpuk

90. What type of switch is this? 90. ;g fdl çdkj dk fLop gS%

(1) Push button (2) SPST (1) iq”k cVu (2) SPST
(3) DPDT (4) SPDT (3) DPDT (4) SPDT

91. The op-amp circuit shown in figure, is that of a: 91. fp= esa n”kkZ;k x;k op–amp ifjiFk buesa ls D;k gS%

(1) Low-pass filter (2) High-pass filter (1) fuEu ikjd fQYVj (2) mPp ikjd fQYVj
(3) Band-pass filter (4) Band-stop filter (3) cSaM ikjd fQYVj (4) cSaM DtZd fQYVj
92. With appropriate biasing, the transistor connection 92. mi;qä vfHkufr ds lkFk fp= esa n”kkZ;k x;k Vªk¡ftLVj dusD”ku buesa
shown in figure can be used as: ls fdl :i esa ç;ksx fd;k tk ldrk gS%

(1) An amplifier (2) A diode (1) ço/kZd ds :i esa (2) Mk;ksM ds :i esa
(3) A resistor (4) A capacitor (3) çfrjks/kd ds :i esa (4) la/kkfj= ds :i esa

S&T [A–11] SET02P1 [4 7 3 1 1 8 ]

93. The wave form 93. rjax :i
6 3 6 6 3 6
100 cos (2π×10 t) + 20 cos (2 π×10 t) cos (2 π×10 t) 100 cos (2π×10 t) + 20 cos (2 π×10 t) cos (2 π×10 t) buesa
represents: ls fdldk çfrfuf/kRo djrk gS%
(1) AM with modulation index 5.0 (1) ekMqyu lwpdkad 5.0 lfgr AM
(2) AM with modulation index 0.2 (2) ekMqyu lwpdkad 0.2 lfgr AM
(3) FM with modulation index 5.0 (3) ekMqyu lwpdkad 5.0 lfgr FM
(4) FM with modulation index 0.2 (4) ekMqyu lwpdkad 0.2 lfgr FM

94. A quarter wave loss less line is terminated in a 94. fdlh la/kkfj= esa ,d prqFkk±”k rjax {kfr jfgr ykbu lekIr gksrh gSA
capacitor. The input impedance will be: rks fuos”k çfrck/kk gksxh%
(1) Resistive (2) Capacitive (1) çfrjks/kd (2) /kkfjrk
(3) Inductive (4) Infinite (3) çsjf.kd (4) vuUr

95. The output of the logic circuit shown in figure is: 95. fp= esa n”kkZ, x, rdZ ifjiFk dk fuxZe gS%

(1) Y=A (2) Y=B (1) Y=A (2) Y=B

(3) Y=AB (4) Y=0 (3) Y=AB (4) Y=0

96. The circuit shown in figure is that of a logic gate of the 96. fp= esa n”kkZ;k x;k ifjiFk fuEukafdr çdkjksa esa ls fdldk rdZ xsV gS%
following type:

(1) OR (2) EXOR

(1) OR (2) EXOR (3) NOR (4) NAND
(3) NOR (4) NAND

97. The truth table given below 97. lR;eku lkfj.kh uhps nh xbZ gS
Inputs Outputs fuos”k fuxZe
A B Y A B Y
0 0 1 0 0 1
0 1 0 0 1 0
1 0 0 1 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1
Is that of the following gate: D;k ;g fuEukafdr xsV dh gS%
(1) EXOR (2) EXNOR (1) EXOR (2) EXNOR
(3) NAND (4) NOR (3) NAND (4) NOR
98. Microwave signals may follow the Earth’s curvature 98. buesa ls fdl dkj.k ls lw{e rjax ladsr Hkw&oØrk dk vuqlj.k dj
due to: ldrk gS%
(1) Troposcatter (2) Ducting (1) VªksiksLDsVj (2) MfDaVx
(3) Ionospheric reflection (4) Faraday rotation (3) vk;ueaMyh ijkorZu (4) QSjkMs ?kw.kZu

99. For direct reception of TV signals from a communication 99. fdlh lapkj mixzg ls Vh-oh- ladsrksa dks lh/kk çkIr djus ds fy,
satellite, the type of antenna required is: buesa ls fdl çdkj ds ,UVhuk dh vko”;drk gksxh%
(1) Horn (2) Parabolic (1) gkuZ (2) ijoyf;d
(3) Chicken mesh (4) Loop (3) fpfdu es”k (4) ywi

100. A J–K flip-flop can be converted to a D flip-flop by 100. buesa ls fdls cukdj fdlh J–K f¶Yi&¶ykWi dks ,d D f¶yi&¶ykWi
making: esa :ikUrfjr fd;k tk ldrk gS%
(1) J = K (2) J = K (1) J = K (2) J = K
(3) J = K =1 only (4) J = K = 0 only (3) J = K =1 dsoy (4) J = K = 0 dsoy

S&T [A–12] SET02P1 [4 7 3 1 1 8 ]

101. A practical transformer at no load behaves as a: 101. fcuk fdlh yksM okyk O;ogkfjd Vªk¡lQkeZj%
(1) Resistance (1) çfrjks/kd ds :i esa dk;Z djrk gS
(2) Lossy inductor (2) {k;dkjh çsjd ds :i esa dk;Z djrk gS
(3) Open circuit (3) eqä ifjiFk ds :i esa dk;Z djrk gS
(4) Short circuit (4) y?kq ifjiFk ds :i esa dk;Z djrk gS

102. Zener diode is used for: 102. thuj Mk;ksM fuEu esa ls fdlds fy, ç;qä gksrk gS\
(1) Rectification (2) Amplification (1) fn"Vdj.k (2) ço/kZu
(3) Stabilization (4) None of the above (3) LFkk;hdj.k (4) mi;qZä dksbZ ugha

103. For a transistor to act as current amplifier: 103. /kkjk ço/kZd ds :i esa fØ;k djus gsrq VªkaftLVj ds fy,%
(1) Both its emitter–base junction and collector–base (1) bldh mRltZd vk/kkj laf/k vkSj laxzkgh vk/kkj laf/k] nksuksa
junction are forward biased. vxzfnf'kd vfHkufr ds gksrs gSa
(2) Both its emitter–base junction and collector–base thin (2) bldh mRltZd vk/kkj laf/k vkSj laxzkgh vk/kkj ruq laf/k] nksuksa
junction are reverse biased. i'pfnf'kd vfHkufr ds gksrs gSa
(3) Its emitter base junction is forward biased while (3) bldh mRltZd vk/kkj laf/k vxzfnf'kd vfHkufr ¼ck;l½ dh]
collector–base junction is reverse biased tcfd laxzkgh vk/kkj laf/k i'pfnf'kd vfHkufr dh gksrh gS
(4) Its emitter–base junction is reverse biased while (4) bldh mRltZd vk/kkj laf/k i'p fnf'kd vfHkufr dh tcfd
collector–base junction is forward biased. laxzkgh vk/kkj laf/k vxzsfnf'kd vfHkufr dh gksrh gSa
104. A MOSFET can be used as: 104. MOSFET ¼eksLQsV½ dks fuEu esa ls fdldh rjg ç;ksx fd;k tk
(1) Resistor (2) Capacitor ldrk gS\
(3) Switch (4) All the above (1) çfrjks/kd ¼jsflLVj½ (2) la/kkfj= ¼dSisflVj½
(3) fLop (4) mi;qZä lHkh

105. For operation of Depletion type MOSFET the gate 105. vo{k; fdLe ds eksLQsV ds çpkyu ¼lafØ;k½ ds fy, xsV oksYVrk dks
voltage is kept: dSls j[kk tkrk gS\
(1) Positive (2) Highly positive (1) /kukRed (2) vfr /kukRed
(3) Zero (4) Negative (3) 'kwU; (4) _.kkRed

106. The input impedance of transistor is: 106. VªkaftLVj dh fuos'k çfrck/kk gksrh gS%
(1) High (2) Low
(1) mPp (2) fuEu
(3) Very high (4) Almost zero
(3) vfr mPp (4) djhc&djhc 'kwU;

107. A common collector amplifier has:
(1) High voltage gain but low current gain
(2) Low voltage gain and low current gain
(3) High output impedance but low input impedance
(4) Low output impedance but high input impedance
107. lk/kkj.k laxzgh ço/kZd esa gksrh gS%
(1) mPp oksYVrk yfC/k fdUrq fuEu /kkjk yfC/k
(2) fuEu oksYVrk yfC/k fdUrq fuEu /kkjk yfC/k
(3) mPp vkmViqV çfrck/kk fdUrq fuEu buiqV çfrck/kk
(4) fuEu vkmViqV çfrck/kk fdUrq mPp buiqV çfrck/kk

108. The purpose of capacitor in a transistor amplifier is to: 108. VªkaftLVj ço/kZd esa la/kkfj= ¼dSisflVj½ dk ç;kstu%
(1) To protect the transistor (1) VªkaftLVj dh j{kk djuk gS
(2) Cool the transistor (2) VªkaftLVj dks BaMk djuk gS
(3) Couple or bypass a.c component (3) a.c. vo;o ¼daiksusUV½ dks ;qfXer djuk vFkok miekxZ.k djuk gS
(4) Provide biasing (4) vfHkufr ¼ckbflax½ çnku djrh gS

109. In DSB–SC transmission, the frequency which is not 109. DSB–SC lapkj.k esa ftl vko`fÙk dks lapkfjr ugha fd;k tkrk gS]
transmitted is: mls dgrs gSa%
(1) The upper side frequency (1) Åijh fn'kk dh vko`fÙk
(2) The lower side frequency (2) fupyh fn'kk dh vko`fÙk
(3) Audio frequency (3) JO; vko`fÙk
(4) Carrier frequency (4) okgd vko`fÙk

110. Indicate error detector out of the following: 110. fuEufyf[kr esa ls v'kqf) lalwpd crkb,%
(1) Amplidyne (2) Field controlled d.c. motor (1) ,sEIyhMkbu (2) {ks= fu;af=r d.c. eksVj
(3) Two phase motor (4) Potentiometer (3) f} çkoLFkk eksVj (4) foHkoekih

S&T [A–13] SET02P1 [4 7 3 1 1 8 ]

111. An ideal Op–Amp draws: 111. ,d vkn'kZ OP&Amp. fdruh /kkjk df"kZr ¼draw½ djrk gS\
(1) Zero current (1) 'kwU; /kkjk
(2) Sum of the two input currents (2) nks buiqV /kkjkvksa ds ;ksx ds cjkcj
(3) Difference of the two input currents (3) nks buiqV /kkjkvksa ds vUrj ds cjkcj
(4) Infinite current (4) vuUr /kkjk

112. The disadvantage of FM over AM is: 112. AM ds Åij FM dh D;k gkfu;k¡ gksrh gS%
(1) High modulating power is required (1) mPp çek=dh ¼Modulating½ 'kfä dh vko';drk gksrh gS
(2) High transmitter power is required (2) mPp çf"k= ¼Transmitter½ 'kfä dh vko';drk gksrh gS
(3) Large bandwidth is needed (3) cM+s cSaM foLrkj dh vko';drk gksrh gS
(4) Noise is high for high frequency signals. (4) mPp vko`fÙk ladsrksa ds fy, jo Å¡pk gksrk gS
113. The device used for providing rate feedback voltage in 113. fLFkfr fu;a=.k ra= esa nj iqufuosZ'k ¼QhMcSd½ oksYVrk çnku djus ds
positional control system is known as: fy, ç;qä fd, tkus okys midj.k dks D;k dgrs gSa\
(1) Tachogenerator (2) Potentiometer (1) VsDukstsujsVj (2) foHkoekih
(3) Synchro transmitter (4) Synchro transformer (3) rqY;d çsf"k= (4) rqY;d ifj.kkfe=

114. For servo application, the a.c. motor used is a: 114. loksZ ç;ksx ds fy, ç;qä dh xbZ ,-lh- eksVj D;k dgykrh gS\
(1) Synchronous motor (1) rqY;dkfyd eksVj
(2) Single phase induction motor (2) ,dy çkoLFkk çsj.k eksVj
(3) Three phase induction motor (3) f=&çkoLFkk çsj.k eksVj
(4) Two–phase induction motor (4) f}&çkoLFkk çsj.k eksVj

115. Which of the following flip–flop is used as latch? 115. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl f}ekfu= ¼f¶yi&¶yki½ flVduh ¼ySp½ ds :i
(1) JK–FF (2) D–FF esa ç;ksx fd;k tkrk gS%
(3) RS–FF (4) T–FF (1) JK–FF (2) D–FF
(3) RS–FF (4) T–FF

116. A 7477 decoder drives: 116. 7477 fodksMd Mªkbo

(1) Seven segment display (2) Nixie tube (1) lkr [kaMh; çn'kZ (2) fufDl ¼Nixie½ V;wc
(3) Relays (4) Diode matrix (3) fjys (4) Mk;ksM eSfVªDl ¼vkO;wg½
117. Fundamental mode is another name for: 117. ewy fo/kk fdldk nwljk uke gS\
(1) Level operation (2) Pulse operation (1) ysoy lafØ;k (2) Lian lafØ;k
(3) Clock operation (4) None of these (3) dkyn ¼DykWd½ lafØ;k (4) mi;qZä dksbZ ugha
118. What is the peak-to-peak voltage of the waveform in 118. fn;s ifjiFk esa rjax Lo:i dh pje ls pje oksYVrk D;k gS%
the given circuit?

(1) 2 V (2) 4 V (3) 6 V (4) 8 V

(1) 2 V (2) 4 V (3) 6 V (4) 8 V

119. The main reason for the presence of crossover 119. ,d ço/kZd esa fofue; foÑfr dh ekStwnxh dk eq[; dkj.k gS%
distortion in an amplifier is the: (1) laxzkgh /kkjk dh lar`fIr
(1) Saturation of collector current (2) Dykl B fLFkfr esa ck;flax
(2) Biasing in class-B condition (3) Dykl C çpkyu esa leLofjr Hkkj dh mifLFkfr
(3) Presence of tuned load in class-C operation (4) ç;ksx esa vk jgs VªkfUtLVjksa ds LFkSfrd vfHkyk{kf.kd oØksa esa
(4) Non-linearity in the static characteristics curves of the vjSf[kdrk
transistors used

120. If one of the inputs of an XOR gate is high, the gate 120. ;fn XOR xsV dk ,d Hkh fuos'k Å¡pk gS rks xsV fuxZe gksxk%
output will be: (1) fuEu
(1) Low (2) mPp
(2) High (3) vU; fuos'k dh rjg gh
(3) Same as the other input (4) vU; fuos'k dk iwjd
(4) Complement of the other input

S&T [A–14] SET02P1 [4 7 3 1 1 8 ]

 Booklet Code No. : 808594
Question Booklet Series :–
A ↑
Candidate must fill the above number
correctly, in the OMR Sheet

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO

Time Allowed : 45 Minutes Code- 15MGEJES02 (P–II) Total No. Questions: 60

Roll No. : _______________________________ OMR Answer Sheet No.: _______________________________

Name of the Candidate (in capital letters): ______________________________________________________________

Candidate's Signature : __________________________ Invigilator's Signature : __________________________

IMPORTANT: Read the following instructions carefully. Do not mark answers on the question
booklet, otherwise you may be debarred from the selection process.
1. Before commencing to answer, check that the Question Booklet has 60 questions. Each Question Booklet will
be in different series (combination of booklet code no. and series). You must write correct Booklet Code
No. and Question Booklet Series on your OMR Answer Sheet. Further check that there is no
misprinting, overprinting and/or any other shortcoming in it. If there is any shortcoming in the question
booklet, intimate the same to your room invigilator and take a fresh question booklet. No complaint in this
regard shall be entertained at any later stage.
IMPORTANT NOTE: The OMR Answer Sheet will be evaluated with a combination of question booklet
series and booklet code no. hence you must write correct question booklet series and booklet code no. Any
mistake in filling any of them will lead to invalidation of your OMR Answer Sheet. Also in case of non filling of
question booklet series and booklet code no. the OMR Answer Sheet will not be evaluated and its sole
responsibility lies on the candidate.

2. There shall be negative marking. 1/3 mark will be deducted for wrong answer. Each question carries
equal mark. Also refer OMR Sheet for detailed instruction.

3. This is an objective type test in which each objective question is followed by four responses serialled (1) to
(4). Your task is to choose the correct/best response and mark your response in the OMR Answer Sheet
only as per the instructions given and NOT in the Question Booklet.

4. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for all your work on the OMR Answer Sheet. The ovals on the OMR Answer
Sheet are to be completely filled by Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only. ANSWERS ONCE GIVEN CAN NOT BE
CHANGED.

5. DO NOT scribble or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. DO NOT wrinkle or fold or staple it.

6. Use of Calculators, Slide rules, Mobiles, calculator watches or any such devices and any other
study/reference material is NOT allowed inside the examination hall.

7. Return the complete Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator on completion of the test. Do
not take this Question Booklet or any part thereof or OMR Answer Sheet outside the examination room.
Doing so is a punishable offence.

8. Take care that you mark only one answer for each question. If more than one answer is given by you for any
question, the same will not be evaluated. Cutting/overwriting the answers are not allowed.
 GENERAL ENGLISH
1. Against each key word are given four suggested meanings. Choose the word or phrase which is nearest in meaning
to the key word.
ANTAGONIST:
(1) Hostile (2) Pluralistic
(3) Mockery (4) Aghast

2. Against each key word are given four suggested meanings. Choose the word or phrase which is nearest in meaning
to the key word.
APPERTAIN:
(1) Give up (2) Offence
(3) To be Appropriate (4) Thankful

3. Read the sentence and choose the antonyms of the Underlined Word among the alternative words or phrases as (1),
(2), (3) and (4).
Ram is showing signs of senility.
(1) Virility (2) Laziness
(3) Maturity (4) Exhaustion

4. Read the sentence and choose the antonyms of the Underlined Word among the alternative words or phrases as (1),
(2), (3) and (4).
The superintendent looked very grumpy.
(1) Surly (2) Pleasant
(3) Efficient (4) Honest

5. Against each key word are given four suggested meanings. Choose the word or phrase which is opposite in meaning
to the key word.
LURID:
(1) Murky (2) Dismal
(3) Ignorant (4) Mild

6. Against each key word are given four suggested meanings. Choose the word or phrase which is opposite in meaning
to the key word.
MANIFEST:
(1) Unmistakable (2) Apparent
(3) Obscure (4) Irrelavant

7. Choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the capitalised word.

ABASE:
(1) Humiliate or degrade oneslef (2) Uncouth
(3) Baseless (4) Forceful

8. Choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the capitalised word.

SHAM:
(1) Rubbish (2) Lovable
(3) Pretence (4) Guilty

9. In the following question pick the wrong spelt word.

(1) Autopsy (2) Autocratic
(3) Akward (4) Asylum

10. In the following question pick the wrong spelt word.

(1) Abnormity
(2) Aberration
(3) Abstinant
(4) Abstention

GE02 [A–1] SET02P-II [8 0 8 5 9 4 ]

DIRECTIONS: (Question No. 11 to 15) Read the passage and give your response based on the passage.
PASSAGE
Drug addicts in some countries form small groups, the customs of which may be unknown to outsiders. They often speak a
language that is so full of expressions and words created by themselves that their speech has become unintelligible to those that
are not living, or in some way associated, with them. It is amazing to find that, to understand some of today's so-called pop music,
one requires some acquaintance with the peculiar language of those enslaved to drugs. A great part of the vocabulary is
international with a preponderance of American terms or corruptions of these. This makes it easy for those in search of drug in a
country not their own to communicate with those that have some to dispose of.

11. We learn from the passage that:

(1) All pop singers like drugs
(2) Many pop musicians often use the code language of drug addicts
(3) Pop music is understood by drug users only
(4) All drug users compose music

12. The drug users' speech is unintelligible to other because:

(1) It is incoherent (2) The use of drugs has affected their pronunciation
(3) Their language has peculiar words and expressions (4) They communicate only among themselves

13. Drug addicts:

(1) Get easily assimilated in the society in which they live
(2) Have their own culture
(3) Imitate American culture
(4) Are cultural American culture

14. The international nature of their vocabulary helps drug addicts to:
(1) Buy drugs from one another with ease (2) Get to know one another better
(3) Pass for Americans (4) Conceal their nationalities

15. According to the passage, it is wrong to conclude that:

(1) Drug users have evolved a language
(2) Drug users form small groups
(3) Some drug users travel outside their own countries
(4) All drug addicts are Americans

DIRECTIONS: (Question No. 16 & 17) In the following sentences one or two words are missing. From the four choices select the
choice that fits in best with the rest of the sentence.

16. Mr. Nehru's speeches always brought out his ....... for India and the well being of its ...........:
(1) Sadness, forests (2) Greatness, residents
(3) Joy, land (4) Love, people

17. Men with great ........ and knowledge are usually very polite and ........:
(1) Wisdom, humble (2) Ambition, obsure
(3) Wealth, cruel (4) Foresight, sad

DIRECTIONS: (Question No. 18 to 20) In the following questions, fill in the blanks by selecting a choice which is in keeping with
good English usage.

18. The friend writes faster ..........:

(1) Than me (2) Than myself
(3) Than I (4) Than self

19. ......... the grace of God we all reach safe and sound:
(1) By (2) Due
(3) On (4) From

20. The courier company luckily delivered the letter ........:

(1) Rightly on time (2) Right on time
(3) On right time (4) Right by time

GE02 [A–2] SET02P-II [8 0 8 5 9 4 ]

DIRECTIONS: (Question no. 21 to 24) In the questions choose the correct alternative answer to complete the sentence.

21. He requested her ........ five rupees:

(1) To lend her (2) To borrow her
(3) To lend him (4) To borrow him

22. I first ........ him in 1966:

(1) Meet
(2) Have met
(3) Met
(4) Had met

23. Some friends ........ to meet me tomorrow:

(1) Come
(2) Have come
(3) Came
(4) Are coming

24. She was ........ that she could not sleep:

(1) Very excited
(2) Much excited
(3) Too excited
(4) So excited

25. The doctor soon diagnosed the patient's illness. In this sentence 'diagnosed' means:
(1) Cured
(2) Provided the medicine for
(3) Treated
(4) Decided on the nature of

DIRECTIONS: (Question No. 26 to 28) In each of these questions, four words numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4) have been given of
which one may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is your answer.

26.
(1) Marshalling (2) Nemesis
(3) Pedestrian (4) Sheckle

27.
(1) Sorority
(2) Terrestrial
(3) Magnification
(4) Habbitation

28.
(1) Gynacology
(2) Habitual
(3) Inheritance
(4) Manipulative

29. Given below are the four spellings of the same word. Choose the correct one.
(1) Anoynymous
(2) Anonemous
(3) Anonymous
(4) Annonymous

30. In the following question select the appropriate word that best represents the given set of words.
A person whose thoughts are turned inwards:
(1) Extrovert
(2) Invertebrate
(3) Intelligent
(4) Introvert

GE02 [A–3] SET02P-II [8 0 8 5 9 4 ]

DIRECTIONS: (Question No. 31 to 33) Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the
sentence meaningfully complete.

31. He gave me a ......... by appearing suddenly in the dark:

(1) Scare (2) Dash
(3) Jolt (4) Curse

32. He was punished for the ......... of his duty:

(1) Criticism (2) Dereliction
(3) Immaturity (4) Percolation

33. The old lady ......... her son when he returned triumphantly from the war:
(1) Hugged
(2) Proclaimed
(3) Pronounced
(4) Banged

34. Fill in the blanks.

In a classroom students are to be trained to love ......:
(1) Each other
(2) All others
(3) One another
(4) Altogether

35. Fill in the blanks.

Walk properly ....... you should fall:
(1) Just
(2) Lest
(3) Must
(4) Otherwise

DIRECTIONS: (Question No. 36 to 39) The words of proverbs and sentences are given in a jumbled manner. If the words are
arranged properly, they make a readable sentence. Pick a choice which gives the correct sequence of words.

36. Death, before, times, their, cowards, many, die

1 2 3 4 5 6 7
(1) 2431756 (2) 4657123
(3) 5763241 (4) 6375124

37. Memory, liar, a, a, good, needs:

1 2 3 4 5 6
(1) 326451 (2) 464251
(3) 524461 (4) 165234

38. Burnt, fire, a, child, dreads, the:

1 2 3 4 5 6
(1) 314562 (2) 314265
(3) 624135 (4) 246531

39. Of, mind, face, is, index, the:

1 2 3 4 5 6
(1) 132456 (2) 634215
(3) 345162 (4) 534216

40. Given below are the four spellings of the same word. Choose the correct one.
(1) Mistery
(2) Mistrey
(3) Mystery
(4) Mistry

GE02 [A–4] SET02P-II [8 0 8 5 9 4 ]

DIRECTIONS: (Question No. 41 to 43) Each of the following idioms is followed by alternative meanings of which one is correct.
Write the correct option.

41. Put a person through his paces:

(1) Put him on the right track
(2) Make him quicken steps
(3) Test his abilities
(4) Inspire him to work hard

42. A storm in a tea cup:

(1) Great noise
(2) A danger signal
(3) Unexpected event
(4) Much excitement over something trivial

43. A square peg in a round hole:

(1) A person unsuited to the position he fills
(2) A scheme that never works
(3) An impossible task
(4) A Herculean task

DIRECTIONS: (Question No. 44 & 45) In this section each sentence has three parts indicated by (1), (2) and (3). Read each
sentence to find out whether there is an error. If you find an error in any one of the parts (1), (2) and (3) indicate your response by
blackening the letter related to that part in the OMR sheet provided. If sentence has no error, indicate this by blackening (4) which
stands for no error. Errors may belong to grammar, usage etc.

44. I dare (1)/ not to (2)/ go to my father (3)/ No error (4).

45. I get up at five (1)/ and studied for two hours. (2)/ After taking a bath, I took breakfast. Then, I went to school on my
bike (3)/ No error (4).

46. Which of the following will sting?

(1) Dog
(2) Scorpion
(3) Cat
(4) Lizard

47. Fill in the blank with correct preposition.

Shivansh is good …….. studies:
(1) At (2) In
(3) Towards (4) By

48. Given below is the sentence in active voice. Choose the correct sentence in passive voice among the alternatives:
Could they not have helped the needy?
(1) Could the needy not have been helped by them?
(2) Had the needy been not helped by them?
(3) Could the needy had not been helped by them?
(4) Would the needy not have been helped by them?

49. What shall be correct combination of two simple sentence into a complex sentence by using an adverb clause.
The chief guest entered the hall. The audience clapped.
(1) The audience clapped as the chief guest entered the hall
(2) The audience clapped upon the chief guest entering the hall
(3) The audience was clapping when the chief guest entered the hall
(4) The audience had to clap when the chief guest entered the hall

50. Fill in the gap with suitable preposition:

Sita is indifferent ____ her health.
(1) To (2) Of
(3) From (4) By

GE02 [A–5] SET02P-II [8 0 8 5 9 4 ]

51. Identify the correct tense which has been used in this sentence.
By the end of this year he will have saved a lot of money.
(1) Future continuous tense
(2) Future perfect tense
(3) Future perfect continuous tense
(4) Simple future tense

52. Fill in the blank using correct article.

Kalidas is ____ Shakespeare of India.
(1) A
(2) An
(3) The
(4) Any one of the above can be used

53. Identify plural word among the following alternatives:

(1) Syllabus (2) Curriculum
(3) Agenda (4) Radius

54. Given are four sentences. Choose the sentence which belongs to the class “Adverb of manner”
(1) She sings delightfully (2) The Weather is delightfully cool
(3) He is far better now (4) I have told you twice

55. Identify the sentence with no adverb:

(1) He behaves best (2) She sings well enough
(3) He is the best boy in the class (4) The patient is much better.

56. Change the following sentence given in indirect speech into direct speech and mark correct answer choosing from
options given.
“Would you mind passing the salt?” I said to him:
(1) I asked to him if he would mind passing the salt
(2) I ordered him if he will mind passing the salt
(3) I asked him if he will mind passing the salt
(4) I asked him if he would mind passing the salt

57. In the following question four sentences have been given. Out of the four options given one is grammatically
incorrect. Identify the one and mark your answer.
(1) She seems sad (2) He has a cellular phone
(3) These grapes are tasting sour (4) I think you are wrong

58. Change the following sentence into Indirect speech:

He said, “Be quiet and listen to my word”.
(1) He requested them that they keep quiet and listen to his word.
(2) He requested them to maintain quiet and listen to his word.
(3) He urged them to be quiet and listen to his word.
(4) He said to them to keep quiet and listen to his word.

59. Change the sentence into indirect speech.

Ram said to the boy, “why will you not play with me?”
(1) Ram said the boy why he will not play with me?
(2) Ram asked the boy why he would not play with him.
(3) Ram told the boy to play with him.
(4) Ram asked the boy why will hot play with me.

60. Change the following sentence into reported speech and mark the correct option among the choices given:
The girl said, “ I must go to Delhi tomorrow”.
(1) The girl said that she would go to Delhi tomorrow.
(2) The girl said that she had to go to Delhi the next day.
(3) The girl said that she will go to Delhi the next day.
(4) The girl said that she must have gone to Delhi that day.

GE02 [A–6] SET02P-II [8 0 8 5 9 4 ]

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