5 6075459045257380031 PDF

Test Pattern
(0999DMD310319015) )/999DMD31/319/15)
DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME NEET(UG)
MAJOR TEST # 01
(Academic Session : 2019 - 2020) 29-12-2019
PRE-MEDICAL : LEADER TEST SERIES / JOINT PACKAGE COURSE
12th Undergoing/Pass Students
Test Syllabus : Half Syllabus (11th Class Syllabus)

This Booklet contains 44 pages. bl iqfLrdk esa 44 i`"B gSaA
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
bl ijh{kk iq f Lrdk dks tc rd uk [kks y s a tc rd dgk u tk,A
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
bl ijh{kk iq f Lrdk ds fiNys vkoj.k ij fn, funs Z ' kks a dks /;ku ls i<+s a A
Important Instructions : egRoiw. kZ funs Z 'k :
1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1 1. mÙkj i= ds i` " B-1 ,oa i` " B-2 ij /;kuiwoZd dsoy uhys @ dkys ckWy
and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only. ikWbaV isu ls fooj.k HkjsaA
2. The test is of 3 hours duration and this Test Booklet 2. ijh{kk dh vof/k 3 ?ka Vs gS ,oa ijh{kk iqfLrdk esa 180 iz'u gaA S izR;sd
contains 180 questions. Each question carries 4 marks. iz'u 4 vad dk gAS izR;sd lgh mÙkj ds fy, ijh{kkFkhZ dks 4 vad
For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks.
For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted
fn, tk,axasA izR;sd xyr mÙkj ds fy, dqy ;ksx esa ls ,d vad
from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720. ?kVk;k tk,xkA vf/kdre vad 720 gSA
3. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing 3. bl i`"B ij fooj.k vafdr djus ,oa mÙkj i= ij fu'kku yxkus ds
particulars on this page/marking responses. fy, ds o y uhys @ dkys ckWy ikW ba V is u dk iz;ksx djsaA
4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this 4. jQ dk;Z bl ijh{kk iqfLrdk esa fu/kkZfjr LFkku ij gh djsaA
purpose in the Test Booklet only.
5. On completion of the test, the candidate must 5. ijh{kk lEiék gks u s ij] ijh{kkFkhZ d{k@gkW y Nks M +u s ls iwo Z
hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator mÙkj i= fujh{kd dks vo'; lkSai nsaA ijh{kkFkhZ vius lkFk
before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are ds o y ijh{kk iq f Lrdk dks ys tk ldrs g S a A
allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
6. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is 6. ijh{kkFkhZ lqfuf'pr djsa fd bl mÙkj i= dks eksM+k u tk, ,oa ml
not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer ij dksbZ vU; fu'kku u yxk,aA ijh{kkFkhZ viuk QkWeZ uEcj iz'u
Sheet. Do not write your Form No. anywhere else except iqfLrdk@mÙkj i= esa fu/kkZfjr LFkku ds vfrfjDr vU;= u fy[ksaA
in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
7. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on 7. mÙkj i= ij fdlh izdkj ds la'kks/ku gsrq OgkbV ¶+yqbM ds iz;ksx dh
the Answer Sheet. vuqefr ugha gAS
8. If you want to attempt any question then circle should be 8. ;fn vki fdlh iz' u dks gy djus dk iz ;kl djrs gSa rks mfpr xksys
properly darkened as shown below, otherwise leave blank. dks uhps n'kkZ;s x;s vuqlkj xgjk dkyk djsa vU;Fkk mls [kkyh NksM+ nsaA
Correct Method Wrong Method lgh rjhdk xyr rjhdk
In case of any ambiguity in translation of any question, English version shall be treated as final.
iz' uks a ds vuqo kn es a fdlh vLi"Vrk dh fLFkfr es a ] va xzs th laL dj.k dks gh vaf re ekuk tk,s xkA
Name of the Candidate (in Capitals)
ijh{kkFkhZ dk uke (cM+s v{kjksa esa) :
Form Number : in figures
QkWeZ uEcj : vadksa esa
: in words
: 'kCnksa esa
Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :
ijh{kk dsUæ (cM+s v{kjksa esa) :
Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :
ijh{kkFkhZ ds gLrk{kj : fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj :
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2020

LTS / Page 1/44
ALLEN
TOPIC: Basic Mathematics, Vectors, Units & Dimensions and Measurements, Electrostiatics, Kinematics (Motion
along a straight line and Motion in a plane), Current Electricity and Heating, Effects of current, Law of motion
& Friction, Capacitor, Work, energy & power, Circular motion, Magnetic effect of current and Magnetism, Collision
and centre of mass, Electromagnetic Induction.
1. In the electric field shown in figure, the electric field 1. iznf'kZr fo|qr {ks= esa ck¡;h vksj dh fo|qr cy js[kkvksa ds chp
lines on the left have twice the separation as that dh nwjh nk¡;h vksj ds cy js[kkvksa ds chp dh nwjh dh nqxquh gAS
between those on the right. If the magnitude of the ;fn fcUnq A ij fo|qr {ks= dk ifjek.k 40 NC–1 gks rks B ij
field at point A is 40 NC–1, find the magnitude of fo|qr {ks= dk ifjek.k gksxk :-
electric field at the point B :-
B• •A
B• •A
(1) 15 NC–1 (1) 15 NC–1

(2) 20 NC–1 (2) 20 NC–1
(3) 25 NC–1 (3) 25 NC–1
(4) 30 NC–1 (4) 30 NC–1
2. A ball of mass m is moving with speed v makes 2. v pky ls xfr'khy m nzO;eku okyh xsan] leku nzO;eku okyh
a perfectly elastic head on collision with a ,d fLFkj xsna ls iw.kZr;k izR;kLFk lEeq[k VDdj djrh gAS os vR;Yi
stationary ball of same mass. They are in contact le;karjky Dt ds fy;s lEidZ esa jgrh gaSA muds chp lEidZ
for very small time interval Dt. The contact force cy n'kkZ;s x;s xzkQ ds vuqlkj ifjofrZr gksrk gAS Fmax Dt/mv
between them varies as shown in graph. dk ifjek.k gksxkA
Magnitude of F max Dt/mv will be
Fmax
Fmax
F
F
Dt/3 Dt
Dt/3 Dt t®
t®
(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) 2 (2) 3

(3) 3/2 (4) 2/3 (3) 3/2 (4) 2/3
MAJOR TEST FOR TARGET 2020/NEET-UG/29-12-2019
LTS / Page 2/44 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / jQ dk;Z ds fy, txg 0999DMD310319015
ALLEN
3. An infinitely long conductor PQR is bent to form 3. vuUr yEckbZ ds ,d pkyd PQR dks fp=kkuqlkj ledksf.kd
a right angle as shown. A current I flows through vkd`fr esa eksM+k x;k gAS bl èkkjkokgh pkyd ds dkj.k fcUnq M
PQR. The magnetic field due to this current ij pqEcdh; {ks= H1 gAS vc ,d vU; vuar yEckbZ okyk pkyd
carrying conductor at the point M is H 1. Now, QS, Q ij bl izdkj tksM+k x;k gS fd QR ,oa QS esa /kkjk
another infinitely long straight conductor QS, is 1
1 I g]S PQ esa /kkjk vifjofrZr jgrh gAS vc M ij pqEcdh;
connected at Q so that the current is I in QR as 2
2
well as in QS, the current in PQ remaining H1
{ks= H2 gAS vuqikr dk eku g&S
unchanged. The magnetic field at M is now H2. H2
H
The ratio 1 is given by-
H2 M
M
90°
P S
–¥ +¥
90° I Q
P S 90°
–¥ +¥
I Q
90°
R
R
1 2 1 2
(1) (2) 1 (3) (4) 2 (1) (2) 1 (3) (4) 2
2 3 2 3
4. A force of 40 N is responsible for the motion of 4. 40 N cy ,d oLrq dh xfr ds fy;s ftEesnkj gS ftldh
a body governed by the equation s = 2t + 2t2 where xfr lehdj.k s = 2t + 2t2 }kjk fu/kkZfjr dh tkrh g]S ;gk¡
s in metre and t is in second. Momentum of the s ehVj esa vkjS t lsd.M esa gAS t = 2 lsd.M ij oLrq dk laox
s
body at t = 2 sec is :- gS :-
(1) 10 2 kg m/s (2) 10 kg m/s (1) 10 2 kg m/s (2) 10 kg m/s
(3) 0.01 kg m/s (4) 100 kg m/s (3) 0.01 kg m/s (4) 100 kg m/s
5. Two cylindrical rod of uniform cross-section 5. le:i vuqiLz Fk dkV {ks=Qy okyh nks NM+a]s ftudk vuqiLz Fk dkV
area-A and 2A having free electron per unit {ks=Qy A o 2A gS ,oa izfr bdkbZ vk;ru eqDr bysDVªkWuksa dh
volume 2n and n respectively are joined in series. la[;k Øe'k% n o 2n ga]S Js.kh Øe esa tqM+h gqbZ gaAS buls LFkk;h
A current I flows through them in steady state, voLFkk esa I /kkjk izokfgr gks jgh g]S rks ck;ha NM+ rFkk nk;ha NM+
then the ratio of drift velocities of free electron in
æ ö
esa eqDr bysDVªkWuksa ds viogu osxksa dk vuqikr ç vL ÷ gS :-
æv ö v è ø
left rod and in the right rod is ç L ÷ as :- R
è vR ø
2n n
2n n
I
I
1 1
(1) (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 4 (1) (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 4
2 2
LEADER TEST SERIES/JOINT PACKAGE COURSE/NEET-UG/29-12-2019
0999DMD310319015 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / jQ dk;Z ds fy, txg LTS / Page 3/44
ALLEN
6. Six capacitors each of capacitance of 2 µF are 6. N% la/kkfj= ftudh izR;sd dh /kkfjrk 2 µF g]S dks fp=kuqlkj
connected as shown in the figure. The effective tksM+k x;k gAS A vkjS B ds chp rqY; /kkfjrk gksxh :-
capacitance between A and B is :-
C
C
C C C
C C C A B
A B C
C
C
C
(1) 12 µF (2) 8/3 µF (3) 3 µF (4) 6 µF (1) 12 µF (2) 8/3 µF (3) 3 µF (4) 6 µF
1 1
7. Find ò x + 1 dx 7. Kkr dhft;s ò x + 1 dx
(1) ln (x + 1) + C (2) (x + 1)–2 + C (1) ln (x + 1) + C (2) (x + 1)–2 + C
1 1
(3) x – 1 2 + C (4) ln (x – 1) + C (3) x – 1 2 + C
( ) ( ) (4) ln (x – 1) + C
8. Magnetic susceptibility of the given paramagnetic 8. fn;s x;s vuqpqEcdh; inkFkZ ds fy;s dejs ds rki ij pqEcdh;
substance at room temperature is :- izo`fÙk gS :-
0.4 0.4
x 0.3 x 0.3
0.2 0.2
0.1 0.1
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
1 (in 10–3 K–1) 1 –3 –1
(in 10 K )
T T
(1) 2.8×10–3 (2) 57 (3) 0.19 (4) 0.57 (1) 2.8×10–3 (2) 57 (3) 0.19 (4) 0.57
9. A particle moving on a circular path with 2 rad/s 9. ,d d.k o`Ùkkdkj iFk ij 2 rad/s dks.kh; osx ds lkFk xfr
angular velocity if given an angular acceleration dj jgh gAS ;fn bldksa 1 rad/s2 Roj.k iznku fd;k tk;s rks
of 1 rad/s2 then find its net acceleration after 2 s. 2 s i'pkr~ bldk dqy Roj.k Kkr dhft;s] iFk dh f=T;k 1 m
Radius of path is 1 m :- gS :-
(1) 257 (2) 17 (3) 1 (4) 16 (1) 257 (2) 17 (3) 1 (4) 16
10. In the arrangement shown, by what acceleration the 10. iznf'kZr O;oLFkk esa] yM+dk fdrus Roj.k ds lkFk Åij dh vksj
boy must move up so that 100 kg block remains xfr djs fd 100 kg nzO;eku okyk CykWd] urry ij fLFkj cuk
stationary on the wedge. The wedge is fixed and jgsA urry ,d LFkku ij n`<+ gS vkSj ?k"kZ.k loZ= vuqifLFkr gAS
friction is absent everywhere. (g = 10 ms–2 ) (g = 10 ms–2 )
(1) 2ms–2 (2) 4 ms–2 (3) 6ms–2 (4) 8 ms–2 (1) 2ms–2 (2) 4 ms–2 (3) 6ms–2 (4) 8 ms–2
ALLEN
11. A shell is fired from the ground is able to cross 11. tehu ls nkxk x;k ,d xksyk] 90m nwj fLFkr 45m ÅWph
horizontally the top of a wall 90m away and 45m nhokj dks {ksfrtr% ikj djus esa l{ke gaAS xksys dk iz{ksi.k dks.k
high. The angle of projection of shell is gS &
(1) 30° (2) 60° (3) 45° (4) 75° (1) 30° (2) 60° (3) 45° (4) 75°
12. A tennis ball bounces down a flight of stairs striking 12. Vsful dh xsna lhf<+;ksa ls uhps dh vksj vkrh gqbZ bl izdkj Vdjkrh
each step in turn and rebounding to the height of gS fd Øekxr izR;sd lh<+h ls Vdjkdj Bhd Åij dh lh<+h rd
the step above. The coefficient of resitution is :- mNyrh gAS rks izR;koLFkku xq.kkad dk eku gksxk :-
1 1 1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) 1 (1) (2) (3) (4) 1
2 2 4 2 2 4
13. An electric heating element consumes 300W 13. ,d m"ed dq.Myh 100 oksYV dh ykbu oksYVrk ls tksM+us ij
when connected to a 100V line. If the line voltage 300 okWV Å"ek O;; djrh gAS ;fn ykbu oksYVrk 150 oksYV
becomes 150V, the power consumed will be- gks tk;s] rks O;f;r 'kfDr gksxh&
(1) 1125 W (2) 675 W (1) 1125 okW V (2) 675 okW V
(3) 337.5 W (4) 562.5 W (3) 337.5 okW V (4) 562.5 okW V
14. A circular loop which is in the form of a major arc 14. ,d o`Ùkkdkj ywi tks fd o`Ùk ds o`gn pki ds :i esa g]S dks {kfS rt
of circle is kept in the horizontal plane and a ry esa j[kk x;k gS vkjS ,d fu;r pqEcdh; {ks= B Å/okZ/kj fn'kk
constant magnetic field B is applied in the vertical esa bl rjg dk;Zjr gS fd pqEcdh; cy js[kk,sa i`"B ds vUnj dh
direction such that the magnetic lines of forces go vksj gAS ;fn R, o`Ùk dh f=T;k ,oa izokfgr /kkjk nf{k.kkorZ gks
into the plane. If R is the radius of circle and it rc ywi ij yxus okyk cy gksxk %&
carries a current I in the clockwise direction, then
the force on the loop will be :-
a
a
A B
A B
(1) BIR tan a (2) 2 BIR cos (a/2) (1) BIR tan a (2) 2 BIR cos (a/2)
(3) 2 BIR sin (a/2) (4) None of these (3) 2 BIR sin (a/2) (4) None of these
15. Two vectors are called like vectors if :- 15. nks lfn'k ,d tl
S s dgyk;saxs] ;fn :-
(1) The vectors have same direction but may have (1) lfn'kksa dh fn'kk leku gks fdUrq ifjek.k fHkUu&fHkUu gks ldrs
different magnitude gSa
(2) The vectors have different direction and
(2) lfn'kksa dh fn'kk vyx&vyx gks rFkk ifjek.k fHkUu fHkUu
different magnitude
gks
(3) The vectors have different direction and same
(3) lfn'kksa dh fn'kk fHkUu&fHkUu vkSj ifjek.k leku gksa
magnitude
(4) The vectors are perpendicular to each other (4) lfn'k ijLij yEcor gksa
16. A circular coil of 50 turns and 2 cm radius is rotating 16. 2 lseh f=T;k dh ,d o`Ùkkdkj dq.Myh ftlesa Qsjksa dh la[;k
in a uniform magnetic field of 100 tesla about its 50 gS ,d le:i 100 Vslyk pqEcdh; {ks= esa mlds O;kl ds
diameter with time period 50 ms. Find the maximum ifjr% 50 ms vkorZ dky ls ?kwe jgh gAS rks dq.Myh ls lEc¼
magnetic flux linked through the coil :- vf/kdre pqEcdh; ¶yDl dk eku gksxk&
(1) p Wb (2) 2p Wb (3) 3p Wb (4) 4p Wb (1) p Wb (2) 2p Wb (3) 3p Wb (4) 4p Wb
ALLEN
17. A body of mass 3kg is under a constant force 17. ,d 3kg æO;eku okyh oLrq] ,d fu;r cy ds izHkko esa g]S
which causes a displacement s metres in it given 1
tks bldk s ehVj foLFkkiu djrh g]S ;g s = t 2 }kjk O;Dr
1 2 3
by the relation s = t ,where t is in seconds. fd;k tkrk gAS tgkWa t lsd.M esa gAS cy }kjk 2 lsd.M esa fd;k
3
Work-done by the force in 2 seconds is . x;k dk;Z gAS
19 5 3 8 19 5 3 8
(1) J (2) J (3) J (4) J (1) J (2) J (3) J (4) J
5 19 8 3 5 19 8 3
18. If the resultant of two forces of magnitude of P and 18. ;fn P o 2P ifjek.k okys nks cyksa dk ifj.kkeh P ds yEcor~
2P is perpendicular to P, the angle between the forces:- g]S cyksa ds chp dks.k gS :-
2p 3p 4p 5p 2p 3p 4p 5p
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
3 4 5 6 3 4 5 6
19. A power line lies along the east-west direction and 19. ,d lapj.k ykbu iwoZ&if'pe fn'kk esa g]S rFkk blls 10 ,fEi;j
–4
carries a current of 10 ampere. The force per meter on /kkjk izokfgr gks jgh gAS i`Foh ds pqEcdh; {ks= 10 Vslyk ds
–4
it due to the earth's magnetic field of 10 Tesla, is- dkj.k bldh izfr ehVj yEckbZ ij cy g&S
–5 –4 –3 –2 –5 –4 –3 –2
(1) 10 N (2) 10 N (3) 10 N (4) 10 N (1) 10 N (2) 10 N (3) 10
N (4) 10 N
20. The potential energy of a particle in a space is given 20. vkdk'k esa fdlh d.k dh fLFkfrt ÅtkZ U = x2 + y2.
by U = x2 + y2. Find the force associated with this }kjk O;Dr dh tkrh gAS bl fLFkfrt ÅtkZ ls lEc¼ cy Kkr
potential energy dhft;s
r r r r
(1) F = – 2x î – 2y ĵ (2) F = 2x î +2y ĵ (1) F = – 2x î – 2y ĵ (2) F = 2x î +2y ĵ
r r r r
(3) F = x î +y ĵ (4) F = – x î – y ĵ (3) F = x î +y ĵ (4) F = – x î – y ĵ
21. Three concentric spherical metallic spherical shells 21. rhu ladsUnzh; /kkfRod xksyh; dks'kksa A, B o C ftudh f=T;k;sa
A, B and C of radii a, b and c (a < b < c) have a, b ,oa c (a < b < c) gS] ij i` "B vkos'k ?kuRo Øe'k%
surface charge densities, s, –s and s respectively. s, –s rFkk s gAS ;fn dks'k A o C leku foHko ij gS rks] a,
If the shells A and C are at same potential, obtain b rFkk c esas lEcU/k Kkr dhft;saA
the relation among a, b and c :- (1) a = c – b (2) a = c + b
(1) a = c – b (2) a = c + b
(3) b = c + a (4) a + b + c = o
(3) b = c + a (4) a + b + c = o
22. There are four forces acting at a point P produced 22. Mksjh }kjk pkj cy fp= esa n'kkZ;s vuqlkj fcUnq P ij yx jgs ga]S
by strings as shown in figure, which is at rest. The tks fLFkj gAS cy F1 o F2 gaS :-
forces F 1 and F 2 are :-
2N
2N 1N
1N 45º
45º
45º
45º
P 90º F1
P 90º F1
F2
F2
1 3 3 1
1 3 3 1 (1) N, N (2) N, N
(1) N, N (2) N, N 2 2 2 2
2 2 2 2
1 1 3 3 1 1 3 3
N, N N, N (3) N, N (4) N, N
(3) (4) 2 2 2 2
2 2 2 2
ALLEN
23. Statement-1 23. dFku-1
A small test charge is initially at rest at a point in ,d y?kq ijh{k.k vkos'k fdlh fcUnq ij izkjEHk esa fojkekoLFkk esa
an electrostatic field of an electric dipole. When gAS ;g fcUnq ,d fo|qr f}&/kqzo ds fo|qr {ks= esa gAS tc bl
released, it will move along the line of force vkos'k dks eqDr fd;k tkrk gS rks ;g ml fcUnq ls xqtjus okyh
passing through that point cy js[kkvksa ds vuqfn'k xfr djsxkA
Statements-2
dFku-2
The tangent at a point on a line of force gives the
direction of the electric field at that point :- cy js[kkvksa ds fdlh fcUnq ij [khaph xbZ Li'kZ js[kk ml fcUnq ij
(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is True fo|qr {ks= dh fn'kk iznf'kZr djrh gS :-
Statements-2 is a correct explanation of (1) dFku-1 lR; g_S dFku-2 lR; gS rFkk dFku-2, dFku-1 dh
Statements-1 lgh O;k[;k djrk gS
(2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is True; but (2) dFku-1 lR; g]S dFku-2 lR; gS rFkk dFku-2, dFku-1 dh
Statements-2 is NOT a correct explanation for lgh O;k[;k ugha djrk gAS
Statements-1
(3) dFku-1 lR; g,S dFku-2 xyr gS
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True (4) dFku-1 xyr g,S dFku-2 lR; gS
24. A circular loop placed in uniform B is transformed 24. ,dleku pqEcdh; {ks= B esa j[ks o`Ùkkdkj ywi dks fp=kuqlkj
into elliptical loop as shown in fig. Direction of nh?kZo`Ùkkdkj ywi esa ifjofrZr fd;k tkrk gSA ifjorZu ds nkSjku
induced current if any during transformation will be:- izsfjr /kkjk (;fn dksbZ) dh fn'kk gksxh
B B B B
(1) Clockwise (1) nf{k.kkorZ

(2) Anticlockwise (2) okekorZ
(3) No induced current (3) dksbZ izsfjr /kkjk ugha
(4) First clockwise, then anticlockwise (4) igys nf{k.kkorZ] fQj okekorZ
25. The tension in the string is 16N when the system 25. tc fudk; dks xfr'khy fd;k tkrk g]S Mksjh esa ruko 16N gAS
is set into motion. Find the decrease in gravitational fudk; dks fojkekoLFkk ls NksM+us ds i'pkr izFke lsd.M esa
potential energy during the first second after the xq#Roh; fLFkfrt ÅtkZ esa deh Kkr dhft;s
system is released from rest (g = 9.8 m/s2) : (g = 9.8 m/s2 ) :
2m m 2m m
(1) 9.8 J (2) 19.6 J (1) 9.8 J (2) 19.6 J

(3) 10 J (4) 20 J (3) 10 J (4) 20 J
ALLEN
26. Two particles are shown in figure. At t = 0 a 26. fp= esa nks d.k n'kkZ;s x;s gaAS t = 0 ij fu;r cy F = 6N,
constant force F = 6N starts acting on 3 kg. Find 3 kg okys d.k ij yxuk izkjEHk gksrk gSA t = 5 lsd.M ij bu
the velocity of center of mass of these particles at d.kksa ds nzO;eku dsUnz dh pky Kkr dhft;saA
t = 5 second.
F
2kg 3kg
F
2kg 3kg
(1) 5 m/s (2) 4 m/s
(1) 5 m/s (2) 4 m/s (3) 6 m/s (4) 3 m/s (3) 6 m/s (4) 3 m/s
27. Plane figures made of thin wires of resistance 27. irys rkj ftldk izfrjks/k R = 50 milli ohm/metre gS ls
R = 50 milli ohm/metre are located in a uniform cuh o`Ùkkdkj nks vkd`fr;k¡ pqEcdh; {ks= ds yEcor j[kh tkrh
magnetic field perpendicular into the plane of the gAS ;fn pqEcdh; {ks= 0.1 T/s dh nj ls de gks jgk gS rks vkarfjd
figures and which decrease at the rate dB/dt = 0.1 m rFkk cká ywi esa izsfjr /kkjk gksxhA
T/s. The current in the inner and outer boundary are (vkarfjd f=T;k a = 10 cm & cká f=T;k b = 20 cm)
(Inner radius a = 10 cm and outer radius b = 20 cm)
× × × × × ×
× × × × × ×
× × b × × ×
× × b × × ×
× × ×• a × × ×
× × ×• a × × ×
× × × × × ×
× × × × × × D C
D C × × × × × ×
× × × × × ×
(1) 10–4 A (Clockwise), 2 × 10–4 A (Clockwise)
(1) 10–4 A (Clockwise), 2 × 10–4 A (Clockwise)
(2) 10–4 A (Anticlockwise), 2 × 10–4 A (Clockwise)
(2) 10–4 A (Anticlockwise), 2 × 10–4 A (Clockwise)
(3) 2 × 10–4 A (clockwise), 10–4 A (clockwise) (3) 2 × 10–4 A (clockwise), 10–4 A (clockwise)
(4) 2 × 10–4 A (Anticlockwise), 10–4 A (Anticlockwise) (4) 2 × 10–4 A (Anticlockwise), 10–4 A (Anticlockwise)
28. Eleven resistance each of value 2W are connected 28. X;kjg izfrjks/k] izR;sd 2W, fp= esa n'kkZ;s vuqlkj la;ksftr gAS
as shown in fig. The equivalent resistance between A o B ds chp rqY; izfrjks/k gAS
A and B will be :-
2 3 4 2 3 4
(1) 2W (2) W (3) W (4) W (1) 2W (2) W (3) W (4) W
3 4 3 3 4 3
ALLEN
29. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C is 29. ,d lekukarj IysV la/kkfj= ftldh /kkfjrk C g]S dks cVS jh ls
connected to a battery and is charged to a potential tksMk x;k vkjS foHkokarj V rd vkosf'kr fd;k tkrk gAS bl rjg
difference V. Another capacitor of capacitance 2C vU; la/kkfj= ftldh /kkfjrk 2C gS dks foHkokarj 2V rd
is similarly charged to a potential difference 2V. vkosf'kr fd;k tkrk gAS vkos'ku cSVjh dks gVk fn;k tkrk gS vkSj
The charging battery is now disconnected and the la/kkfj=ksa dks lekukUrj Øe esa bl izdkj tksM+k tkrk gS fd ,d
capacitors are connected in parallel to each other dk /kukRed fljk nwljs ds ½.kkRed fljs ls tksM+k tkrk gAS rks
in such a way that the positive terminal of one is la;kstu dh vfUre ÅtkZ gksxh :-
connected to the negative terminal of the other. The 3
final energy of the configuration is :- (1) 'kw U; (2) CV 2
2
3 25 9 25 9
(1) Zero (2) CV 2 (3) CV 2 (4) CV 2 (3) CV 2 (4) CV 2
2 6 2 6 2
30. Two blocks, having masses m1 and m2 such that 30. nks CykWdks dk æO;eku m1 o m2 bl izdkj gS fd m1 + m2 = fu;rkad
m1 + m2 = constant, are placed on one-another on g]S budks ,d ?k"kZ.k jfgr lrg ij ,d&nqljs ds Åij j[kk x;k gAS uhps
a frictionless surface. The lower block is pulled okys CykWd dks ,d fu;r cy }kjk [khapk tkrk gAS ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad dk
with a constant force. The minimum value of og U;uw re eku ftlds fy;s CykWdks ds chp lkisf{kd fQlyu ugha
coefficient of friciton for which there is no relative gks :-
slipping between blocks :- (1) dsoy m1 ij fuHkZj djrk gS
(1) Depends upon m 1 only
(2) dsoy m2 ij fuHkZj djrk gS
(2) Depends upon m 2 only
(3) Depends upon ratio of m 1 and m2 (3) m1 o m2 ds vuqikr ij fuHkZj djrk gS
(4) Does not depend ratio of m1 and m2 (4) m1 o m2 ds vuqikr ij fuHkZj ugha djrk gS
31. A ball is thrown up from the top of a tower with 31. ehukj ds 'kh"kZ ls ,d xsan dks 10 m/s izkjfEHkd osx ds lkFk
an initial velocity of 10 m/s at an angle of 30° with Åij dh vksj {kSfrt ls 30° dks.k ij QSadk tkrk gAS ;g ehukj
the horizontal. It hits the ground at a distance of ds vkèkkj ls 17.3 m nwj tehu ij Vdjkrh gAS ehukj dh Å¡pkbZ
17.3 m from the base of tower. Calculate the height dh x.kuk dhft;sA (g = 10 m/s2)
of the tower. (g = 10 m/s2) (1) 10m (2) 10cm
(1) 10m (2) 10cm (3) 100m (4) 1m (3) 100m (4) 1m
32. Round off 12.115 to 4 digits 32. 12.115 dks 4 vadks rd iw.kkZafdr dhft;sA
(1) 12.12 (2) 12.11 (3) 12.13 (4) 12.14 (1) 12.12 (2) 12.11 (3) 12.13 (4) 12.14
33. A raindrop of mass 1 g falling from a height of 33. 1 g æO;eku okyh o"kkZ dh cwan ] 1 km ÅWapkbZ ls tehu ij
1 km hits the ground with a speed of 50 ms-1. If 50 ms-1 pky ds lkFk Vdjkrh gAS ;fn izfrjks/kd cy] cwan dh
the resistive force is proportional to the speed of pky ds lekuqikrh g]S rks izfrjks/kd cy }kjk fd;k x;k dk;Z gS
the drop, then the work done by the resistive force (g = 10 ms-2 ):-
is (g = 10 ms-2 ):- (1) 10 J (2) –10 J
(1) 10 J (2) –10 J (3) 8.75 J (4) –8.75 J (3) 8.75 J (4) –8.75 J
34. The same mass of copper is drawn into two wires 34. rka cs ds leku nz O;ekuks a ls 2 feeh rFkk 3 feeh eks V s rkj
2mm and 3mm thick,. The two wires are connected [kha ps x;s g SA bu rkjksa dks Js. khØe esa la ; ks ftr djds èkkjk
in series and current is passed through them. The izokfgr dh xbZ gSA nksuksa rkjksa esa mRiUu Å"ekvksa dk vuqikr
ratio of heats produced in the two wires is- gS&
9 3 2 81 9 3 2 81
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
4 2 3 16 4 2 3 16
ALLEN
35. The x, y coordinates of the centre of mass of a 35. 3 kg nzO;eku okyh L vkd`fr dh le:i ifV~Vdk ds nzO;eku
uniform L-shaped lamina of mass 3kg is :- dsUnz ds x, y funsZ'kkad gS &
y y
1m 1m
c3 1m c3 1m
c1 c2 1m c1 c2 1m
x x
(0,0) 2m (0,0) 2m
æ5 5 ö æ5 5 ö
(1) ç m, m ÷ (2) (1m, 1m) (1) ç m, m ÷ (2) (1m, 1m)
è6 6 ø è6 6 ø
æ6 6 ö æ6 6 ö
(3) ç m, m ÷ (4) (2m, 2m) (3) ç m, m ÷ (4) (2m, 2m)
è5 5 ø è5 5 ø
36. A particle start moving on a square track of side 5m 36. ,d d.k 5m Hkq t k okys oxkZ d kj iFk esa ,d dks u s ls
from one corner with a constant speed 10 m/s. Then 10m/s fu;r pky ds lkFk xfr izkjEHk djrk gAS rks 5s esa blds
in 5s magnitude of it's average velocity is : vkSlr osx dk ifjek.k gS
(1) 2 2m / s (2) 2m / s (1) 2 2m / s (2) 2m / s
(3) 5m / s (4) 2 5m / s (3) 5m / s (4) 2 5m / s
37. As shown in the figure, a closed surface intersects 37. fp=kkuqlkj ,d cUn i`"B pkyd xksys dks izfrPNsn djrh gAS ;fn
a spherical conductor. If a positive charge is ,d /kukRed vkos'k P fcUnq ij j[ksa rks cUn i`"B ls fuxZr fo|qr
placed at point P then the electric flux coming out ¶yDl dk eku gksxk&
of the closed surface will be-
•P
co
•P
su osed
ce
n
r fa
du
co
su osed
cl
ce
cto
n
r fa
du
r
cl
cto
r
(1) 'kw U;
(1) zero (2) /kukRed
(2) positive
(3) ½.kkRed
(3) negative
(4) nothing can be said (4) dqN ugha dgk tk ldrkA

ALLEN
38. V B = 4KV VB= 3KV VB= 3KV 38. V B = 4KV VB= 3KV VB= 3KV
A B C A B C
2mF 6mF 3mF 2mF 6mF 3mF
E=? E=?
VB ® Breaking voltage VB ® Hkatu oksYVrk
What should be the value of applied voltage (E) vkjks f ir oks Y Vrk E dk eku D;k gks u k pkfg, rkfd
so all the capacitors can work properly. Also find lHkh la/kkfj= Bhd ls dke djsa\ lkFk gh vkjksfir oksYVrk
out the value of applied voltage if only Capacitor dk eku Kkr djsa tc la/kkfj= B dks ,d la/kkfj= ftlds
B is replaced by a capacitor having VB = 1.5 kV fy, V B = 1.5 kV vk S j /kkfjrk 6 mF ls cny fn;k
and Capacitance 6 mF :- tk,A
(1) 8 kV, 8 kV (2) 6 kV , 8 kV (1) 8 kV, 8 kV (2) 6 kV , 8 kV
(3) 8 kV, 6 kV (4) 6 kV , 6 kV (3) 8 kV, 6 kV (4) 6 kV , 6 kV
39. A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The 39. ,d dkj R f=T;k okyh oØkdkj lM+ d ij ?kwe rh g SA
road is banked at an angle q. The coefficient of lM+d q dks.k ls cafdr gAS lM+d ,oa Vk;jksa ds chp ?k"kZ.k
friction between road and tyres is m s . The xq.kkad ms gAS bl lM+d ij vf/kdre lqjf{kr pky gS :-
maximum safe velocity on this road is :-
gR(ms cos q + sin q) gR 2 (ms cos q + sin q)
2
gR(ms cos q + sin q) gR (ms cos q + sin q) (1) (2)
(1) (2) (cos q - ms sin q) (cos q - ms sin q)
(cos q - ms sin q) (cos q - ms sin q)
g (ms cos q + sin q) g (ms cos q + sin q) g (ms cos q + sin q) g (ms cos q + sin q)
(3) (4) (3) (4) 2
R (cos q - ms sin q)
2
R (cos q - ms sin q) R (cos q - ms sin q) R (cos q - ms sin q)
40. A conducting stick of length 2L of mass m is moving 40. 2L yEckbZ o m nzO;eku dh pkyd NM+ 60º >qdko okys fpdus
down a smooth inclined plane of inclination 60º with urry ij uhps dh vksj fu;r pky 5m/s ls py jgh gAS pkyd
constant speed 5m/s. A current 2A is flowing in the esa izokfgr /kkjk 2A dh i`"B ds ry ds yEcor~ vUnj dh vksj
conductor perpendicular to the paper inwards. A gAS vkdk'k esa pqEcdh; {ks= B Å/okZ/kj Åij dh vksj gAS rc
vertically upward magnetic field B exists in space pqEcdh; {ks= B dk ifjek.k gksxk &
there. The magnitude of magnetic field B is :-
B P
B P
v
v
60º
60º Q
Q
mg mg 3mg 3mg mg mg 3mg 3mg

(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
4L L 4L 2L 4L L 4L 2L
ALLEN
41. At the magnetic north pole of the earth, the value 41. i`Foh ds pqEcdh; mÙkjh /kqzo ij i`Foh ds pqEcdh; {ks= dk {kfS rt
of horizontal component of earth's magnetic field ?kVd ,oa ueu dks.k ds eku gksaxs \
and angle of dip are, respectively
(1) 'kwU ;] vf/kdre
(1) Zero, maximum
(2) vf/kdre] U;wure
(2) Maximum, minimum
(3) vf/kdre] vf/kdre
(3) Maximum, maximum
(4) Minimum, minimum (4) U;wure] U;wure
42. Which of the following quantities can have SI unit 42. fuEufyf[kr jkf'k;ksa esa ls fdldh bdkbZ kg m2A–2s–3 gks
kg m2 A –2 s –3 . ldrh gS %
(1) Inductance (2) Capacitance (1) izsjdRo (2) /kkfjrk
(3) Resistance (4) Magnetic flux (3) izfrjks/k (4) pqEcdh; ¶yDl
43. A ball strikes a smooth horizontal ground at an 43. ,d xsan fpduh ,oa {kfS rt tehu ls] tehu ds lkFk 53° dks.k
angle of 53° with the ground. What is the final ij Vdjkrh gAS VDdj ds rqjUr i'pkr~ bldh m/oZ ds lkFk dks.k
angle of its velocity with the vertical just after the
9
fdruk gAS æç e = ö÷
æ 9ö 16
è ø
collision ç e = ÷
è 16 ø
(1) 53° (2) 37°
(1) 53° (2) 37°
æ 9ö
æ 9ö (3) sin –1 ç ÷ (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(3) sin –1 ç ÷ (4) None è 16 ø
è 16 ø
44. Three ships A, B & C are in motion. The motion 44. rhu tgkt A, B o C xfr'khy gaSA B }kjk A dh xfr v pky
of A as seen by B is with speed v towards ds lkFk mÙkj&iwoZ dh vksj ns[kh tkrh gSA C }kjk B dh xfr v
north-east. The motion of B as seen by C is with pky ds lkFk mÙkj&if'pe dh vksj ns[kh tkrh gAS rks A }kjk C
speed v towards the north-west. Then as seen by dh xfr fdl vksj ns[kh tk jgh gS :-
A, C will be moving towards :-
(1) mÙkj (2) nf{k.k
(1) north (2) south
(3) iwoZ (4) if'pe
(3) east (4) west
45.
45.
In given circuit what will be potential difference fn;s x;s ifjiFk esa foHkokUrj VA–VB fdruk gS :
VA–VB :
(1) 3.6 V (2) 6.0 V
(1) 3.6 V (2) 6.0 V
(3) 3.0 V (4) 7.2 V (3) 3.0 V (4) 7.2 V

ALLEN
TOPIC : Solid State, Structure of atom, Solutions, Classification of elements and periodicity in properties,
Electrochemistry, Chemical bonding and molecular structure, Chemical kinetics, Equilibrium, Ionic equilibrium,
Surface Chemistry : Adsorption, Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Thermodynamics.
46. Select correct order :- 46. lgh Øe igpkfu, :-
(1) H2 < H (I.P. order) (1) H2 < H (vk;uu mtkZ dk Øe)
(2) N2 > N2– > N2+ (Stability) (2) N2 > N2– > N2+ (LFkkf;Rork dk Øe)
(3) O2 > O (I.P. order) (3) O2 > O (vk;uu mtkZ dk Øe)
(4) O2+ > O2 > O2– (Stability) (4) O2+ > O2 > O2– (LFkkf;Rork dk Øe)
47. Which of the following is incorrect order of 47. fuEu esa ls X–P–X ca/k dks.k gsrq D;k xyr gksxk\
X–P–X bond angle ?
(1) PBr3 > PCl3 > PF3
(1) PBr3 > PCl3 > PF3
(2) OPBr3 > OPCl3 > OPF3 (X– P̂ –X)
(2) OPBr3 > OPCl3 > OPF3 (X– P̂ –X)
(3) PBr4+ > PCl4+ > PF4Å (3) PBr4+ > PCl4+ > PF4Å
(4) PCl4Å > PCl3 (4) PCl4Å > PCl3
48. Which of the species has co-ordinate bond :- 48. dkSulh iztkfr milgla;kstd ca/k j[krk gS :-
(1) NO–2 (1) NO–2
(2) NO–3 (2) NO–3
(3) NH4Å (3) NH4Å
(4) Both 2 and 3 (4) 2 o 3 nksuksa
49. Incorrect order of solubility is : 49. foys;rk dk xyr Øe gS &
(1) AgF > AgCl > AgBr > AgI (1) AgF > AgCl > AgBr > AgI
(2) BeF2 > BaF2 > SrF2 > CaF2 > MgF2 (2) BeF2 > BaF2 > SrF2 > CaF2 > MgF2
(3) CsOH > RbOH > KOH > NaOH > LiOH (3) CsOH > RbOH > KOH > NaOH > LiOH
(4) Cs2CO3 < Rb2CO3 < K2CO3 < Na2CO3 < Li2CO3 (4) Cs2CO3 < Rb2CO3 < K2CO3 < Na2CO3 < Li2CO3
50. Which of following species show strongest 50. dkS ulh iz tkfr izc yre vkd"kZ . k cy n'kkZ rh gS :-
attraction force :-
(1) H2 + N2 (2) NH3 + CO2
(1) H2 + N2 (2) NH3 + CO2
(3) SO2 + CO2 (4) SO2 + SO2 (3) SO2 + CO2 (4) SO2 + SO2
51. Which order for dipole moment is correct ? 51. f}/kqo vk?kq.kZ dk dkuS lk Øe lgh g\
S
(1) PCl3F2 > PCl2F3 (2) BF3 = PF3 (1) PCl3F2 > PCl2F3 (2) BF3 = PF3
(3) NH3 < NF 3 (4) CH3F < CH3Cl (3) NH3 < NF 3 (4) CH3F < CH3Cl
52. Which of the following have same shape ? 52. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fduds vkdkj leku gS ?
(i) ICl–2 (ii) SO2 (i) ICl–2 (ii) SO2
(iii) SnCl2 (iv) XeF 2 (iii) SnCl2 (iv) XeF 2
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iv) (1) (i) rFkk (ii) (2) (ii) rFkk (iv)
(3) (i) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iii) (3) (i) rFkk (iv) (4) (i) rFkk (iii)
ALLEN
53. What is difference between bond angles in 53. PCl5 rFkk PBr5 dh Bksl voLFkk esa mudh /kuk;uhd Lis'kht
cationic species of PCl5 and PBr5 in solid state :- ds e/; ca/k dks.k dk varj gS :-
(1) 60° (2) 109°28' (1) 60° (2) 109°28'
(3) 0° (4) 90° (3) 0° (4) 90°
54. In configuration of x+2 and y +3 are respectively 54. ;fn x+2 o y+3 dk foU;kl Øe'k% [Ar]3d8 o [Ar]3d3 gks
[Ar]3d8 and [Ar]3d3 then Atomic number of x & rks x o y ds ijek.kq Øekad Øe'k% gksx:s -
y will be respectively:- (1) 28, 24 (2) 28, 25
(1) 28, 24 (2) 28, 25 (3) 28, 26 (4) 28, 27 (3) 28, 26 (4) 28, 27
55. Which of the following order is incorrect :- 55. dkSulk Øe xyr g&S
(1) Zn > Ga I.P. order (2) P > S I.P. order (1) Zn > Ga I.P. Øe (2) P > S I.P. Øe
(3) B < Tl I.P. order (4) Ti < Zr < Hf I.P. order (3) B < Tl I.P. Øe (4) Ti < Zr < Hf I.P. Øe
56. The correct order of size is :- 56. vkdkj dk lgh Øe gS %&
(1) Be < Li < K < Ba (1) Be < Li < K < Ba
(2) Mg < Na < K < Ca (2) Mg < Na < K < Ca
(3) Be < Mg < Ba < K (3) Be < Mg < Ba < K
(4) Li < Na < K < Ba (4) Li < Na < K < Ba
57. Which of the following would not proceed in the 57. fuEu esa ls dkuS vxz fn'kk esa Lor% ugha gksxh&
forward direction spontaneously ?
(1) F + IΘ ¾¾® F + I
Θ
Θ Θ
(1) F + I ¾¾® F + I
(2) Xe + He+ ¾¾® Xe+ + He
(2) Xe + He+ ¾¾® Xe+ + He
(3) Si+ + Cl ¾¾® Si + Cl+
(3) Si+ + Cl ¾¾® Si + Cl+
(4) BeΘ + B ¾¾® BΘ + Be (4) BeΘ + B ¾¾® BΘ + Be
58. Which of the following oxide is different from 58. dkSulk vkWDlkbM vyx g&S
other three oxide. (1) MgO (2) SnO
(1) MgO (2) SnO (3) ZnO (4) PbO (3) ZnO (4) PbO
59. Which of the following order is correct for the 59. dks"Bd (Bracket) esa fn, x, xq.k/keZ ds fy, dkuS lk Øe lgh
property mentioned in brackets ? gS &
(1) S2– > Cl– > K+ > Ca2+ (Ionisation energy) (1) S2– > Cl– > K+ > Ca2+ (vk;uu ÅtkZ)
(2) C < N < F < O (2nd Ionisation energy) (2) C < N < F < O (2nd vk;uu ÅtkZ)
(3) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl(electronegativity)
(3) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl(fo|qr ½.kkRedrk )
(4) Na+ > Mg2+ > Be2+ > Al3+ (Ionic radius) (4) Na+ > Mg2+ > Be2+ > Al3+ (vk;fud f=T;k)
60. If each orbital contain 3e 1 then how many 60. ;fn d{kd es a 3e1 la H ko gS rks f}rh; nh?kZ vkorZ es a
p-block element present in second long period:- p-block ds rRo dh la[;k gksxh&
(1) 6 (2) 18 (3) 9 (4) 2 (1) 6 (2) 18 (3) 9 (4) 2

ALLEN
61. Which of the following has minimum protecting 61. fuEu esa ls fdldh j{k.k {kerk lcls fuEu gksxh ?
power ? (1) ftysfVu (Lo.kZ la [;k = 0.1)
(1) Gelatin (Gold no. = 0.1)
(2) MsDlfVªu (Lo.kZ la [;k = 10)
(2) Dextrin (Gold no. = 10)
(3) Potato starch (Gold no. = 30) (3) vkyw dk LVkpZ (Lo.kZ la[;k = 30)
(4) Albumin (Gold no. = 2.5) (4) v.Ms dh tnhZ (,YC;wfeu) (Lo.kZ la [;k = 2.5)
62. Pt(s) | H 2 ( g ) | H + (pH = 2) || H + (pH = 3) | H 2 ( g ) | Pt(s) 62. Pt(s) | H 2 ( g ) | H + (pH = 2) || H + (pH = 3) | H 2 ( g ) | Pt(s)
1atm 1atm 1atm 1atm
cell reaction will be :- ly

S vfHkfØ;k gksxh :-
(1) spontaneous (2) nonspontaneous (1) Lor% (2) vLor%
(3) equilibrium (4) None of these (3) lkE; ij (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
63. 63.
Mn O + 8H + 5e ® Mn
-1
4
+
( aq )
- +2
( aq ) + 4H2O(l); E = 1.51V
0
1 Mn O 4-1 + 8H + + 5e - ® Mn +2 ( aq ) + 4H2O(l); E10 = 1.51V
( aq )
( aq ) ( aq )
MnO2 ( s ) + 4H + ( aq ) + 2e - ® Mn +2 ( aq ) + 2H 2 O ( l ) ; E 02 = 1.21V MnO2 ( s ) + 4H + ( aq ) + 2e - ® Mn +2 ( aq ) + 2H 2 O ( l ) ; E 02 = 1.21V
MnO-4 1 ( aq ) + 4H + ( aq ) + 3e - ® MnO2 ( s ) + 2H2 O ( l ) ; E03 ? MnO-4 1 ( aq ) + 4H + ( aq ) + 3e - ® MnO2 ( s ) + 2H2 O ( l ) ; E30 ?
Value of E 03 will be :- E 03 dk eku gksxk :-

(1) 1V (2) 2.42V (3) 2.61V (4) 1.71V (1) 1V (2) 2.42V (3) 2.61V (4) 1.71V
64. For pure water degree of dissociation of water 64. 'kq ¼ ty dh fo;ks tu dh ek=k dk eku 1.9 × 10–9
is 1.9 × 10 –9 gSA
L¥m (H+) = 350 S cm2 mol–1 L¥m (H+) = 350 S cm2 mol–1
L¥m (OH–) = 200 S cm2 mol–1 L¥m (OH–) = 200 S cm2 mol–1
Hence molar conductance of water is :- ty dh eksyj pkydrk dk eku :-
(1) 1.045 × 10–6 S cm2 mol–1 (1) 1.045 × 10–6 S cm2 mol–1
(2) 1.045 × 10–9 S cm2 mol–1 (2) 1.045 × 10–9 S cm2 mol–1
(3) 1.045 × 10–10 S cm2 mol–1 (3) 1.045 × 10–10 S cm2 mol–1
(4) 1.04 × 10–14 S cm2 mol–1 (4) 1.04 × 10–14 S cm2 mol–1
65. The sum of number of first and second nearest 65. FCC ldaqy lajpuk esa izFke o f}fr; fudVre iM+ksfl;ksa dh
neighbours in FCC closed packing will be :- la[;k dk ;ksx gksxk :-
(1) 12 (2) 6 (3) 18 (4) 24 (1) 12 (2) 6 (3) 18 (4) 24
66. Which of the following is incorrect :- 66. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk dFku lgh ugha gS :-
(1) In ZnS co-ordination number is (4,4) (1) ZnS Bksl dh leUo; la[;k (4,4) gksrh gAS
(2) In NaCl solid , Radius ratio is (2) NaCl Bksl esa f=T;k vuqikr
rNa+ rNa+
0.414 £ < 0.732 0.414 £ < 0.732
rCl - rCl-
(3) CsCl is crystallises in body centered cubic unit (3) CsCl Bksl dk; dsfUnzr ,dd dks"Bhdk esa fØLVyhd`r gksrk
lattice gSA
(4) In one unit cell of diamond there are 8 carbon (4) ghjs dh ,dd dksf"Bdk esa 8 dkcZu ijek.kq mifLFkr gksrs
present gSaA

ALLEN
67. Following are some of the facts about dry cell:- 67. 'kq"d lsy ds fy, rF; gS :-
I : It is also called Leclanche cell I : bls ysDyka'ks lsy Hkh dgk tkrk gS A
II : It does not give constant voltage. II : ;g fu;r foHko ugh nsrk gS A
III : Electrolyte is a moist paste of NH 4Cl and III : fo|qr vi?kV~; ds :i esa NH4Cl rFkk ZnCl2 dk LVkpZ
ZnCl 2 in starch ;qDr ue ysi ç;qDr fd;k tkrk gAS
IV : Cathodic reaction is IV : dSFkksM dh vfHkfØ;k gAS
2MnO2(s) + 2NH4+ (aq) + 2e– ¾¾

® 2MnO2(s) + 2NH4+ (aq) + 2e– ¾¾
®
Mn2O3(s) + 2NH3(g) + H2O(l) Mn2O3(s) + 2NH3(g) + H2O(l)

Select the correct facts :- lR; rF; gS :-
(1) I, II, III (2) I, IV (1) I, II, III (2) I, IV
(3) I, II, III, IV (4) II, III, IV (3) I, II, III, IV (4) II, III, IV
68. Each edge of a cubic unit cell is 400 pm long. If 68. ?kuh; ,dd dksf"Bdk dh yEckbZ 400 pm gAS rRo dk ijek.kq
atomic weight of the element is 120 and its density Hkkj 120 gS rFkk ?kuRo 6.25 g/cm3 gAS fØLVy tkyd g&S
is 6.25 g/cm3. The crystal lattice is :
(NA = 6 × 1023 )
(use NA = 6 × 1023 )
(1) Primitive (2) Body centered (1) ljy (vk|) (2) dk; dsafær
(3) Face centered (4) End centered (3) Qyd dsafær (4) vardsafær
69. Some of the physical properties of crystalline 69. fØLVyh; Bksl ds dqN HkkSfrd xq.k (tl S s&viorZukad) mlh
solids like refractive index show different values fØLVy ij fHkUu n'kkvksa esa fd, x, ekiu ij fHkUu&fHkUu eku
on measuring along different directions in the n'kkZrs gaAS ;s xq.k dgykrs gaS %&
same crystals. This property is called
(1) lenfS 'kd
(1) isotropy
(2) fonyu xq.k (cleavage property)
(2) cleavage property
(3) fo"kenSf'kd (anisotropy)
(3) anisotropy
(4) None of the above (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
70. Micelles can be formed by :- 70. felsy fdlls cu ldrk g\
S
COONa COONa
(1) (1)
NaOOC NaOOC
COCl COCl
(2) (2)
NH3Cl NH3Cl
(3) (3)
ClH3N ClH3N
NH3Cl NH3Cl
(4) (4)

ALLEN
71. At a constant temperature vapour pressure of pure 71. ,d fuf'pr rki ij 'kq¼ csUthu rFkk VkWywbZu ds ok"inkc Øe'k%
benzene and toluene are 160 and 60 mm 160 rFkk 60 feeh- gAS ;fn foy;u esa VkWywbZu rFkk csUthu ds
respectively. If toluene and benzene are present
eksy 3 : 2 esa mifLFkr gksa rks ok"i izkoLFkk esa csUthu dh eksy
in solution in 3 : 2 mole ratio then what will be
the mole fraction of benzene in vapour phase ? fHkUu D;k gksxh\
(1) 0.64 (2) 0.36 (1) 0.64 (2) 0.36
(3) 0.8 (4) 0.2 (3) 0.8 (4) 0.2
72. The Van't Hoff factor for 0.1 M Ba(NO3)2 solution 72. 0.1 M Ba(NO3)2 ds foy;u ds fy, okWUV gkWQ xq.kkad 2.74
is 2.74. The degree of dissociation is :- gAS fo;kstu dh ek=k gS :-
(1) 91.3% (2) 87% (3) 100% (4) 74% (1) 91.3% (2) 87% (3) 100% (4) 74%
73. Which represents correct difference when 73. dkSu&lk fp= ,d vkn'kZ foy;u esa mifLFkr vok"i'khy foys;
non-volatile solute is present in an ideal solution? dh mifLFkfr esa gksus okys vUrj dks iznf'kZ r djrk gS ?
Vapour ok"i
(DS)Solution (DS)foy;u
(DS)Solvent (DS)foyk;d
(I) (I)
Solution foy;u
Solvent foyk;d
Vapour ok"i
(DH)Solution =(DH)Solvent (DH)foy;u =(DH)foyk;d

(II) (II)
Solvent or Solution foyk;d ;k foy;u
Solution foy;u
(III) B.P.
(III) DoFkukad
Solvent foyk;d
(1) I,II,III (2) I,III (3) II,III (4) I,II (1) I,II,III (2) I,III (3) II,III (4) I,II
74. At 0°C, ice and water are in equilibrium and 74. 0°C ij] cQZ o ty lkE; esa jgrs gaS rFkk
DH = 6 kJ mol–1. DH = 6 kJ mol–1 gSA
H2O(S) H2O(l) H2O(S) H2O(l)
The values of DS and DG for conversion of ice into 0°C ij cQZ ls nzo ty esa :ikarj.k ds fy, DS o DG dk
liquid water at 0°C are :- eku gS :-
(1) – 21.9 J K–1 mol–1 and 0 (1) – 21.9 J K–1 mol–1 rFkk 0
(2) 0.219 J K–1 mol–1 and 0 (2) 0.219 J K–1 mol–1 rFkk 0
ALLEN
75. Which among the following represents the 75. fuEu esa ls dkSu mRikn ds fuekZ.k dh vfHkfØ;k izn£'kr djrk
reaction of formation of the product ? gS ?
(1) C(diamond) + O2(g) ® CO2(g) (1) C(diamond) + O2(g) ® CO2(g)
(2) S(monoclinic) + O2(g) ® SO2(g) (2) S(monoclinic) + O2(g) ® SO2(g)
(3) 2N2(g) + O2(g) ® 2N2O(g) (3) 2N2(g) + O2(g) ® 2N2O(g)
(4) None of the above (4) mijksä esa ls dksbZ ugha
76. Which of the following statement is correct :- 76. fuEu esa ls lR; dFku gS :-
(1) In isobaric process heat absorbed by the system (1) lenkch; izØe esa fudk; }kjk vo'kksf"kr Å"ek] fudk; dh
is equal to decrease in enthalpy of system. ,UFkYS ih esa deh ds cjkcj gksrh gAS
(2) In isochoric process heat released by the (2) levk;rfud izØe esa fudk; }kjk mRlftZr Å"ek] fudk;
system is equal to increase in internal energy
dh vkUrfjd ÅtkZ esa o`f¼ ds leku gksrh gAS
of the system.
(3) :¼ks"e izØe esa fudk; }kjk fd;k x;k dk;Z] fudk; dh
(3) In adiabatic process work done by the system is
vkUrfjd ÅtkZ esa deh ds leku gksrk gAS
equal to decrease in internal energy of system.
(4) In cyclic process work done on the system is (4) pØh; izØe esa fudk; ij fd;k x;k dk;Z] fudk; }kjk
equal to the heat absorbed by system. vo'kksf"kr Å"ek ds leku gksrk gAS
77. 36 mL of pure water takes 100 sec to evaporate 77. Å"ek mRiUu djus dk ,d o|S qr L=ksr 806 okV eqDr djrk gAS
from a vessel and heater connected to an electric blls 36 feyh ty ds ok"ihdj.k esa 100 ld S .M yxrs gAS
source which delivers 806 watt. The DHvaporization
H2O ds fy, DHok"ihdj.k dk eku gS :-
of H2O is :-
(1) 40.3 kJ/mol (2) 43.2 kJ/mol (1) 40.3 fdykstwy/eksy (2) 43.2 fdykstwy/eksy
(3) 4.03 kJ/mol (4) None of these (3) 4.03 fdykstwy/eksy (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
78. The following mechanism has been proposed for the 78. NO o Br 2 ds e/; vfHkfØ;k ls NOBr cuus dh
reaction of NO with Br2 to form NOBr ; fØ;kfof/k fuEu izdkj gS :-

fast
NO(g) + Br2(g )
NOBr2(g )
fast
NO(g) + Br2(g )
NOBr2(g )
NOBr2(g) + NO(g) ¾¾¾

slow
® 2NOBr(g) NOBr2(g) + NO(g) ¾¾¾
slow
® 2NOBr(g)
If the second step is the rate determining step, the ;fn f}rh; in nj fu/kkZjd in gks rks NO(g) ds lanHkZ esa vfHkfØ;k
order of the reaction with respect to NO(g) is :- dh dksfV gksxh :-
(1) 1 (2) 0 (3) 3 (4) 2 (1) 1 (2) 0 (3) 3 (4) 2
79. Half life of a reaction is found to be inversely 79. fdlh vfHkfØ;k dk v¼Z&vk;qdky] vfHkfØ;k dh izkjafHkd
proportional to the cube of its initial lkanzrk ds ?ku ds O;qRØekuqikrh ik;k tkrk g]S rks vfHkfØ;k dh
concentration. The order of reaction is : dksfV gksxh :
(1) 2 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 2 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 4
ALLEN
80. For the reaction, 80. vfHkfØ;k
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O(l), CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O(l),
DH = –170.8 kJ mol–1 ds fy, DH = –170.8 fdykstwy eksy –1 gS A
Which of the following statement is not true? fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkuS lk dFku lR; ugha gS ?
(1) Addition of CH4(g) or O2(g) at equilibrium will (1) lkE; ij CH4(g) ;k O2(g) feykus ij lkE; nkWa;h vkjS
cause a shift to the right. LFkkukUrfjr gks tkrk gAS
(2) The reaction is exothermic. (2) vfHkfØ;k Å"ek{ksih gAS
(3) At equilibrium the concentrations of CO2(g) and
(3) lkE; ij CO2(g) rFkk H2O(l) dh lkUærk,Wa leku ugha
H2O(l) are not equal.
gS
(4) The equilibrium constant for the reaction is
[CO2 ] [CO2 ]
(4) vfHkfØ;k ds fy, lkE; fLFkjkad Kp =
given by Kp =
[CH 4 ][O 2 ] . [CH 4 ][O 2 ] gAS
1 1
81. If for H2(g) + S2(s) H 2S(g) and 81. ;fn H2(g) + S2(s) H 2S(g) rFkk
2 2
H2(g) + Br2(g) 2HBr(g) H2(g) + Br2(g) 2HBr(g)
The equilibrium constants are K 1 and K 2 ds fy, lkE; fu;rakd dk eku K1 rFkk K2 gS rks vfHkfØ;k
respectively, the reaction
1
1 Br2(g) + H2S(g) 2HBr(g) + S dk lkE; fu;rakd
Br 2(g) + H 2S (g) 2HBr (g) + S 2(g) would have 2 2(g)
2 dk eku gksxk:-
equilibrium constant :-
(1) K1 × K2 (2) K1/K2 (1) K1 × K2 (2) K1/K2
(3) K2/K1 (4) K22/K1 (3) K2/K1 (4) K22/K1

82. For a reversible reaction value of KC at 355°C is 82. fdlh mRØe.kh; vfHkfØ;k ds fy, 355°C ij KC = 57 rFkk
57 and at 450°C is 69, then 450°C ij KC = 69 gS, rks :-
(1) DH < 0 (2) DH > 0 (1) DH < 0 (2) DH > 0
(3) DH = 0 (4) can't say (3) DH = 0 (4) can't say
83. For which of the following solutions must we 83. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl foy;u ds fy, pH ;k pOH dks
consider the ionisation of water when calculating Kkr djus ds fy, ikuh ds vk;uu dks vko';d :i ls ysuk gh
the pH or pOH :- iM+sxk :-
(1) 0.10g HCl in 1.0 L of solution (1) 1.0 L foy;u esa 0.10g HCl
(2) 0.080g of NaOH in 0.5L of solution (2) 0.5 L foy;u esa 0.080g NaOH
(3) 3 × 10–8 M HNO3 (3) 3 × 10–8 M HNO3
(4) 1 × 10–5 M Ca(OH)2 (4) 1 × 10–5 M Ca(OH)2
84. The pK a of HNO2 is 3.37. The pH of HNO2 in 84. HNO2 dk pKa = 3.37 gS HNO2 ds 0.01 eksy/yh tyh;
its 0.01 mol L–1 aqueous solution will be :- foy;u dh pH crkvks %&
(1) 5.37 (2) 2.69 (3) 1.69 (4) 0.69 (1) 5.37 (2) 2.69 (3) 1.69 (4) 0.69
ALLEN
85. A 100 mL portion of water is added to each of the 85. 100 mL ty fuEu nks foy;uksa (izR;sd esa) feyk;k tkrk gS :-
following two solutions :- (i) 100 mL of 0.02 M NH4Cl foy;u
(i) 100 mL of 0.02 M NH4 Cl
(ii) 100 mL of 0.02 M AgCN foy;u
(ii) 100 mL of 0.02 M AgCN
fuEu esa ls dkuS lk dFku lgh gS ?
Which of the following statements is correct ?
(1) foy;u (i) rFkk (ii) dh pH esa dksbZ ifjorZu ugha gksxkA
(1) There will be no change in pH of solution
(i) and (ii) (2) foy;u (i) dh pH vifjofrZr jgsxh rFkk foy;u (ii)
(2) The pH of solution (i) will remain the same dh pH c<+sxhA
but pH of solution (ii) will increase
(3) foy;u (i) dh pH c<+sxh rFkk foy;u (ii) dh pH
(3) The pH of solution (i) will increase but
vifjofrZr jgsxhA
of solution (ii) will remain same
(4) The pH of solution (ii) will remain same but (4) foy;u (ii) dh pH vifjofrZr jgsxh rFkk foy;u (i)
of solution (i) will decrease dh pH ?kVsxhA
st
86. If velocity of an electron in I orbit of H-atom is V, what 86. H ijek.kq dh çFke cksj d{kk esa bysDVªkWu dk osx V gS rks Li+2
will be the velocity of electron in third orbit of Li+2 :- dh r`rh; cksj d{kk esa bysDVªkWu dk osx gksxk :-
(1) V (2) V/3 (1) V (2) V/3
(3) 3V (4) 9V (3) 3V (4) 9V
87. Uncertainity in position is twice the uncertainity 87. ;fn fLFkfr esa vfuf'prrk dk eku laoxs esa vfuf'prrk ds eku
in momentum then uncertainity in velocity is :- dk nqxquk gS rks osx esa vfuf'prrk dk eku D;k gksxk\
h 1 h h 1 h
(1) (2) (1) (2)
p 2m p p 2m p
1 h h 1 h h
(3) (4) (3) (4)
2m 2p 4p 2m 2p 4p
88. In which transition minimum energy is emitted :- 88. fdl laØe.k es U;wure ÅtkZ mRlftZr gksxh :-
(1) ¥ ® 1 (2) 2 ® 1 (1) ¥ ® 1 (2) 2 ® 1
(3) 3 ® 2 (4) n ® (n – 1) (n > 4) (3) 3 ® 2 (4) n ® (n – 1) (n > 4)
89. What will be volume of the mixture after the reaction 89. vfHkfØ;k ds i'pkr~ feJ.k dk vk;ru D;k gksxk ?
NH3 (g) + HCl(g) ® NH 4 Cl(s) NH3 (g) + HCl(g) ® NH 4 Cl(s)
1L 1.5L 1L 1.5L
(1) 1.5 L (2) 0.5 L (3)1 L (4) 0 L (1) 1.5 L (2) 0.5 L (3)1 L (4) 0 L
90. Which of have greatest number of atoms :- 90. fuEu esa ls fdles vf/kdre ijek.kq gS :-
(1) 1 g of butane (C4H10) (1) 1 g C;wVus (C4H10)
(2) 1 g of Nitrogen (N2) (2) 1 g ukbVªkts u (N2)
(3) 1 g of Silver (Ag) (3) 1 g pkanh (Ag)
(4) 1 g of H2O (4) 1 g H2O

ALLEN
TOPIC : Reproduction : Reproduction in organisms Sexual reproduction in flowering plants, Structural
Organisation in Plants, Anatomy, Human Reproduction, Reproductive health, Diversity in Living world, Plant
Diversity , Animal Kingdom : Structural Organisation in Animals : Animal tissues, Genetics-I : Principles of
Inheritance and variation, Biology in Human Welfare : Microbes in human welfare, Biotechnology, Biotechnology
and Its Applications, Genetics-II, Biomolecule, Molecular basis of Inheritance, Biology and Human Welfare
(Domestication of Plants), Cell Structure and Function, Cell Division.
91. A type of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual 91. vyaSfxd iztuu dk ,d izdkj tks ySafxd iztuu dk vuqgkjd
reproduction is called :- g]S dgykrk g%S &
(1) Polyembryony (2) Apomixis (1) cgqHkzw.krk (2) vlaxtuu
(3) Dichogamy (4) Amphimixis (3) fHkUu dky iDork (4) ,EQhfefDll
92. Tegmen in seed is derived from :- 92. cht esa vkarfjd pksy@vkoj.k O;qRiUu gksrk gS :-
(1) Inner integument (2) Outer integument (1) vkUrfjd v/;koj.k ls (2) ckg~; v/;koj.k ls
(3) Endosperm (4) Nucellus (3) Hkwz.kiks"k ls (4) chtk.Mdk; ls
93. Endothecium helps in :- 93. vUrLFkhfl;e fdlesa lgk;d gS :-
(1) Formation of tegmen (2) Formation of testa (1) vUrpksy fuekZ.k esa (2) ckºpksy fuekZ.k esa
(3) Mega spore dispersal (4) Dehiscence of anther (3) xq: chtk.kq izdh.kZu esa (4) ijkxdks"k LQqVu esa
94. Following figure represents :- 94. fuEu fp= iznf'kZr djrk gS :-
Seed coat chtkoj.k
Cotyledon Shoot apical chti= izjksg 'kh"kZ

meristem foHkT;ksÙkd
Hypocotyl Root tip chti=k/kkj ewy 'kh"kZ
root axis ewy v{k
(1) Endospermic seed of bean (1) lse dk Hkzw.kiks"kh cht
(2) Endospermic seed of castor (2) vjaM dk Hkzw.kiks"kh cht
(3) Non-endospermic seed of bean (3) lse dk vHkzw.kiks"kh cht
(4) Non-endospermic seed of castor (4) vjaM dk vHkzw.kiks"kh cht
95. The aleurone layer in maize grain is specially rich 95. eDds ds nkus esa ik;s tkus okys ,Y;wjkWu ijr esa fdldh izpqjrk
in and its ploidy is respectively :- gksrh gS vkSj bldk xqf.krk Lrj gS :-
(1) Protein, 3n (2) Protein, 2n (1) izksVhu, 3n (2) izksVhu, 2n
(3) Starch, 3n (4) Lipid, 3n (3) LVkpZ, 3n (4) olk, 3n
96. Which of following statement is wrong with the 96. uj ;qXedksn~fHkn ds ifjo/kZu ds lUnHkZ esa dkSulk dFku vlR;
reference of development of male gametophyte of gS ?
mature pollengrain from microspore ? (1) tufud dksf'kdk cM+h gksrh gS
(1) Generative cell is large
(2) dkf;d dksf'kdk dk dsUæd vfu;fer vkÏfr dk gksrk gS
(2) The nucleus of vegetative cell is irregular in shape
(3) Generative cell floats in the cytoplasm of (3) tufud dksf'kdk dkf;d dksf'kdk ds dksf'kdk æO; esa rjS rh
vegetative cell jgrh gAS
(4) In the vegetative cell vacuole is present (4) dkf;d dksf'kdk esa fjfDrdk ikbZ tkrh gS

ALLEN
97. Microspore A Microspore B Microspore 97. y?kqchtk.kq A y?kqchtk.kq B eqDr y?kq
mother cell tetrad (free) ekr` dksf'kdk prq"d chtk.kq
C C
Bicelled f}dksf'kdh;
stage voLFkk
D D
Vegetative
E
dkf;d E
cell 2-male dksf'kdk 2 uj
gametes ;qXed
3-celled 3-dksf'kdh;
stage voLFkk
A B C D E
A B C D E
v } Zl w= h le l w= h v} Zl w= h le lw= h v} Zl w= h
(1)
(1) Meiosis Mitosis Meiosis Mitosis Meiosis foHkkt u foHkkt u foHkkt u foHkkt u foHkkt u
Pollen Generative v } Zl w= h t u fu d
(2) Meiosis IAA Callase (2) IA A d sy st ijkxd . k
Grain Cell foHkkt u d ksf'kd k
le lw= h le lw= h v} Zl w= h
(3) Mitosis Topetum Callase Mitosis Meiosis (3) V fs iV e dy
s t
s
foHkkt u foHkkt u foHkkt u
Generative v } Zl w= h le lw= h le lw= h
(4) Meiosis Callase Mitosis Mitosis (4) dy
s t
s t u fu d
cell foHkkt u foHkkt u foHkkt u
98. How many statements are correct ? 98. fuEu esa ls fdrus dFku lgh g\
S
(A) Viola, oxalis, commelina produce two types of (A) ok;syk] vkWDlsfyl] dksefs yuk nks izdkj ds iq"i mRiUu djrs
flowers. gSA
(B) Cleistogamous flowers are invariably
(B) vuqUehY; ijkx.kh iq"i lnSo Lo;qXed gksrs gAS
autogamous.
(C) Fertilisation in angiosperm is called double (C) vko`Ùkchth esa fu"kspu f}fu"kspu dgykrk gS D;ksfa d ijkxuyh
fertilisation because pollen tube releases the nks uj ;qXedksa dks lgk;d dksf'kdk ds dksf'kdk æO; esa eqDr
two male gametes into the cytoplasm of the djrh gAS
synergid.
(D) izrhi chtk.M vko`Ùkchth esa izk:fid izdkj dk chtk.M
(D) Anatropous ovule is typical type of ovule in
angiosperm. gksrk gAS
(1) Four (2) Three (3) one (4) Two (1) pkj (2) rhu (3) ,d (4) nks
99. The filiform apparatus is a structure in the 99. fQfyQkWeZ midj.k uked lajpuk iq"ih; ik/S kksa esa fdlls lEcUèk
flowering plants associated with :- j[krh gS ?
(1) Fertilisation (1) fu"kspu
(2) Pollination (2) ijkx.k
(3) Seed dispersal (3) chtksa dk izdh.kZu
(4) Endosperm development
(4) Hkzw.kiks"k dk ifjo/kZu
ALLEN
100. In the given diagramatic structure, which one is 100. nh x;h vkjs [ kh ; la j pukvks a esa dk S ulh va r jkZ s f ir gks rh
implanted ? gS\
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
101. Due to inability of the male partner to inseminate 101. ,sl s ekeyks a ] ftues a iq : "k L=h dks oh;Z ls f pr dj ldus
the female, which ART method could be used? ds ;ksX; u gks] dkSulh ,-vkj-Vh- mi;ksx dh tkrh g\S
(1) ICSI (2) AI (1) vkbZ-lh-,l-vkbZ- (2) ,-vkbZ-
(3) GIFT (4) ZIFT (3) th-vkbZ-,Q-Vh- (4) tsM-vkbZ-,Q-Vh-
102. Choose the incorrect match pair :- 102. vlR; feyki dh tksM+h pquks%&
eYVhyksM 'kqØk.kqvksa dh xfr'khyrk de djrh

(1) Multiload 375 Suppress sperm motility (1) 375 gAS
Make uterus unsuitable xHkkZ'k; dks jksi.k ds fy;s vuqi;qDr
(2) Progestasert (2) izkstsLVklVZ
for implanatation. cukrh gAS
Make cervix hostile to

fyIisl xHkkZ'k;&xzhok dks 'kqØk.kq ds fy;s
(3) Lippes loop (3)
the sperm ywi fojks/kh (izfrdwy) cukrh gAS
'kqØk.kqvksa dh xfr'khyrk de djrh
(4) CuT Suppress sperm motility (4) CuT
gAS
103. Read the following statements very corefully:- 103. fuEufyf[kr rF;ksa dks /;kuiwoZd if<+, :-
(a) Outer layer of blastocyst is made up of
(a) dksjdiqVh dh ckâ; ijr VªkQ
s ksCykLV dksf'kdk dh gksrh gAS
trophoblast
(b) Inner cell mass is attached to endometrium (b) vUr% dksf'kdh; xqPNk ,.MksesfVª;e ls tqM+rh gAS
(c) Trophoblast layer get differentiated in to (c) VªksQksCykLV dh ijr Hkwz.k esa foHksfnr gks tkrh gAS
embryo
(d) fodkl'khy Hkwz.k dk jksi.k ew=okfguh esa gksrk gSA
(d) Developing embryo is implanted in ureter
(e) Sex of the baby is determined by father (e) f'k'kq dk fyax firk ds }kjk fu/kkZfjr gksrk gSA
Select the option which includes correct
lgh rF;ks okys fodYi dk pquko dhft,
statements
(1) c & e (2) b & e (1) c & e (2) b & e
(3) a & e (4) d & e (3) a & e (4) d & e
ALLEN
104. Which of the following route of sperms is correct 104. fuEu esa ls 'kqØk.kqvksa dk dkSulk ekxZ 'kqØtuu ufydkvksa ls ckgj
from seminiferous tubules to outside ? rd tkus ds fy, lgh g\ S
(1) Rete testis ® Vas deferens ® Epididymis ® (1) o` " k.k tkfydk,¡ ® 'kq Ø okgd ® vf/ko` " k.k
Ejaculatory duct ® L[kyu ufydk
(2) Vasa efferentia ® Vas deferens ® Rete testis (2) 'kq Øokfgdk,¡ ® 'kq Øokgd ® o` "k.k tkfydk,¡ ®
® Epididymis vfèko`"k.k
(3) Epididymis ® Rete testis ® Vasa efferentia ® (3) vf/ko`"k.k ® o`"k.k tkfydk,¡ ® 'kq Øokfgdk,¡ ®
Vas deferens 'kqØokgd
(4) Rete testis ® Vasa efferentia ® Epidiymis ® (4) o`" k.k tkfydk,¡ ® 'kq Ø okfgdk,¡ ® vf/ko` "k.k ®
Vas deferens 'kqØokgd
105. If female under going tubectomy, which one of 105. ;fn L=h esa V~;wcDs Vkseh dj fn;k tk;s rks fuEu esa ls dkuS lh ,d
the following event will not occur ? ?kVuk ugha gksxh ?
(1) Menstruation cycle
(1) ekfld pØ
(2) Ovulation
(2) v.MksRlxZ
(3) Fusion of sperm and ovum
(3) 'kqØk.kq rFkk v.Mk.kq dk la;kstu
(4) Formation of graafian follicle
(4) xzkQhiqVd dk fuekZ.k
Hypothalamus Hypothalamus
GnRH GnRH
(+) (–) (+) (–)
106. Positive A Negative 106. Positive A Negative
feed back feed back feed back feed back
LH/FSH LH/FSH
B B
Estrogen and Estrogen and

Progesterone Progesterone
C C
Øe'k% 'A' 'B' rFkk 'C' dk irk yxk;s :-
Find out 'A' 'B' and 'C' respectively :-
(1) i'p ih;w"k xzfUFk] xHkkZ'k;] v.Mk'k;
(1) Posterior pituitary, uterus, ovary
(2) vxz ih;w"k xzfUFk] xHkkZ'k;] v.Mk'k;
(2) Anterior pituitary, uterus, ovary
(3) Anterior pituitary, ovary, uterus (3) vxz ih;w"k xzfUFk] v.Mk'k;] xHkkZ'k;
(4) Posterior pituitary, oviduct, uterus (4) i'p ih;w"k xzfUFk] v.Mokfguh] xHkkZ'k;
107. A female of 24 years age attained puberty at the 107. ,d L=h dh vk;q 24 o"kZ gS mlesa ;kSou voLFkk 14 o"kZ dh vk;q
age of 14 years. She has two children born by esa izkjaHk gqbZ] L=h ds lkekU; izlo ds nks cPps g]S vHkh rd mlds
normal delivery. How many polar body are formed 'kjhj esa fdruh /kzqodk; fufeZr gqbZ (izR;sd ekfld pØ 30 fnu
in her body till date (each M.C. is of 30 days) :- dk g)S :-
(1) 90 (2) 96 (3) 92 (4) 88 (1) 90 (2) 96 (3) 92 (4) 88
ALLEN
108. Clevage are repeated mitotic division which start 108. fonyu tkbxksV esa ckj&ckj gksus okys lelw=h foHkktu gS tks izkjaHk
in zygote at :- gksrs gS :-
(1) Uterus (2) Fimbrial (1) xHkkZ'k; esa (2) fQEczh esa
(3) Infundibulum (4) Isthmus (3) buQaMhcqye (dhi) esa (4) bLFkel esa
109. Arrange the following taxa in ascending order :- 109. fuEu VSDlk dks vkjksgh Øe esa O;ofLFkr dfj, :-
(A) Angiospermae (A) ,aft;ksLiehZ
(B) Anacardiaceae (B) ,ukdkjfM,lh
(C) Mangifera (C) eaSftQsjk
(D) Dicotyledonae (D) MkbdksfVfyMuh
(1) A®D®B®C (2) C®D®B®A (1) A®D®B®C (2) C®D®B®A
(3) A®B®D®C (4) C®B®D®A (3) A®B®D®C (4) C®B®D®A
110. Metabolic diversity is present in :- 110. mikip;h fofo/krk fdlesa ikbZ tkrh gS ?
(1) Plantae (2) Fungi (1) IykaVh esa (2) QatkbZ esa
(3) Animalia (4) Monera (3) ,fuesfy;k esa (4) eksujs k esa
111. Choose the incorrect statement for keys:- 111. dqaft;ks ds fy, xyr dFku pqfu, :-
(1) A pair of contrasting characters is called (1) foiz;kZlh y{k.kksa dk ,d ;qXe ;qfXer (couplet) dgykrk
couplet gSA
(2) They are analytical in nature (2) ;s izÏfÙk esa fo'ys"k.kkRed gksrh gAS
(3) Family, genus and species can be identified
(3) dqy] oa'k vkjS tkfr dks ,d dat
q h ls igpkuk tk ldrk gAS
with a single key
(4) Each statement in the key is called lead (4) daqth esa izR;sd dFku yhM+ (lead) dgykrk gAS
112. The system of classification, which employs 112. oxhZdj.k dh og i¼fr ftlesa tkfr;ksa ds chp lekurkvksa rFkk
numerical method to evaluate the similarities and fofHkUurkvksa dks irk djus ds fy, la[;kRed fo/kh dk mi;ksx
differences among the species is known as:- fd;k tkrk g]S dgykrh gS %&
(1) Old systematics (1) izkphu flLVsesfVDl
(2) Cytotaxonomy (2) lkbVksVDs lksukseh
(3) Chemotaxonomy (3) dheksVDs lksukseh vFkok jlk;u VsDlksukseh
(4) Adansonian (4) ,Mulksfuvu
113. Which of the following is not a character related 113. fuEufyf[kr es ls dkSulk vfHky{k.k yky 'ko
S ky ls lEcaf/kr
to Red Algae ? ugha gS ?
(1) Sexual reproduction is oogamous. (1) ysaxhd tuu vMa;qXedh izdkj dk gksrk gSA
(2) They occur in both well lighted areas and great (2) ;g leqnz es gYds rFkk vR;f/kd xgjkbZ es mifLFkr gksrs gAS
depths of oceans. (3) buesa Hkkstu dk lxz ag lkbuksQkbZ lh;u LVkpZ ds :i es
(3) The food stored in them is cyanophycean starch, gksrk gS tks ,ekbZyksfifDVu vkSj Xykbdkstu ds leku gksrk
very similar to amylopectin and glycogen. gS
(4) They reproduce asexually by non motile spores. (4) buesa vysaxhd tuu vpy chtk.kvksa }kjk gksrk gSA
ALLEN
114. For lichens, which statement is not correct :- 114. ykbdsu ds fy, dkSulk dFku lgh ugha g\
S
(1) Do not grow in polluted areas (1) iznwf"kr {ks=ksa esa ugha mxrs gS
(2) Symbiotic associations betweem algae and (2) 'ko
S ky ,oa dod dk lgthoh lEca/k
fungi (3) Qkbdksck;ksUV vkokl vkjS ty ,oa ekbdksck;ksUV Hkkstu fufeZr
(3) Phycobiont provide shelter and water and djrk gAS
mycobiont prepare food (4) ;s ØLVks t] QkW y hvks t vk S j Ýw f Vdks t iz dkj ds gks
(4) They can be crustose, foliose and fruticose ldrs gAS
115. Select the mismatch among followings :- 115. fuEu es ls vlqefs yr igpkfu, :-
(1) Psilopsida - Lycopodium (1) lk;yksfIlMk - yk;dksiksfM;e
(2) Sphenopsida - Equisetum (2) fLQuksfIlMk - bfDoflVe
(3) Lycopsida - Selaginella (3) yk;dksfIlMk - flysftusyk
(4) Pteropsida - Dryopteris (4) VsjksfIlMk - Mªk;ksIVsfjl
116. Which is a correct statement ? 116. dkSulk ,d lgh dFku gS ?
(1) Perithecium is a closed fruiting body. (1) isfjfFkfl;e ,d cUn Qyudk; gAS
(2) Sexual reproduction in Albugo is oogamous.
(2) ,Ycwxks es yaSfxd tuu v.M;qXedh gAS
(3) Ascomycetes is known as club fungi.
(4) Sexual reproduction in Helminthosporium is (3) ,Ldks e kbflfVt dks eq X nj (club) dod dgrs gS A
oogamous. (4)gsfYeUFkksLiksfj;e esa yaSfxd tuu v.M;qXedh gAS
117. The life cycle in Bryophyta is haplo-diplontic type, 117. czk;ksQkbVk esa thoupØ gsIyksfMIyksfUVd izdkj dk gksrk g]S bldk
it means that :- vFkZ gS fd&
(1) Haploid generation is multicellular and diploid (1) vxqf.kr ih <+h cgqdksf'kdh ; rFkk f}xq f.kr ih <+ h ,d
generation is single celled dksf'kdh; gksrh gAS
(2) Haploid generation is dominant & Multicellular,
(2) vxq f.kr ih<+ h izHkkoh rFkk cgqdksf'kdh; gksrh g]S f}xqf .kr
dipolid generation is also multicellular but
ih<+h Hkh cgqd ksf'kdh; gksrh gS ysfdu rqyukRed :i ls
comparatively less developed
(3) Haploid & diploid generations are equally
de fodflr gksrh gSA
developed (3) vxqf.kr rFkk f}xqf.kr ih<+h;k¡ cjkcj fodflr gksrh gAS
(4) Haploid generation is highly reduced (4) vxqf.kr ih<+h vR;f/kd gkflr gksrh gAS
118. Select the incorrect statements in the following:- 118. fuEufyf[kr esa xyr dFku dks pqfu, :-
(1) Biological names are generally in Latin. (1) tfS od uke çk;% ysfVu Hkk"kk esa gksrs gAS
(2) Second component of biological name (2) tfS od uke dk nwljk 'kCn tkfr ladrs in dks çnf'kZr djrk
represent specific epithet. gSA
(3) Biological names are printed in italics to (3) tfS od uke NikbZ esa frjNs fy[ks tkrs gS tks buds yfS Vu mn~Hko
indicate their latin origin. dks fn[kkrk gAS
(4) In biological name first word denoting the (4) tfS od uke dk igyk 'kCn tks oa'kuke dks crkrk gS NksVs v{kj
genus start with small letter. ls 'kq: gksuk pkfg,
ALLEN
119. 119.
(A) (A)
Spirilla Spirilla
(C)
(C)
(B) (B) (D)
(D)
foHkkftr gks jgh ,d

A dividing bacterial cell thokf.od dksf'kdk
Nostoc ukWLVkWd
Identify A, B, C & D from the given diagram:- fn;s x;s fp=ksa esa A, B, C o D dks igpkfu, :-
A B C D
A B C D
(1) jksekHk@ dksf'kdk fHkfÙk dksf'kdk fHkfÙk
dksf'kdk
(1) Pili Cell wall Cell wall Cell
membrane jkse f>Yyh
(2) d'kkHk 'ys"eh vkPNn dksf'kdk f>Yyh Mh-,u-,-
(2) Flagellum Mucilagenous cell DNA
sheath membrane
(3) d'kkHk voiad ijr Mh-,u-,- vkj-,u-,-
(3) Flagellum Slime layer DNA RNA
(4) jksekHk@ dksf'kdk vkj-,u-,- dsUæd
(4) Pili Cell RNA Nuclear jkse f>Yyh f>Yyh
membrane membrane
120. Consider the following statements about 120. ekbdks I ykTek ds la n HkZ es a fuEufyf[kr dFkuks dks
mycoplasma : if<+, :
(I) It is pleomorphic organism which lack cell (I) ekbdksIykTek cgq:ih tho gS ftlesa dksf'kdk fHkÙkh dk
wall vHkko gksrk gAS
(II) Mycoplasma is the smallest living organism
(II) ekbdksIykTek lcls NksVk thfor tho gksrk gAS
(III) They can not survive without oxygen
(III) vkWDlhtu ds vHkko es o`f¼ ugh dj ldrs gAS
(IV) Many mycoplasma are pathogenic in animals
(IV) dbZ ekbdksIykTek tarqvksa ,oa ikniksa esa jksxdkjh gksrs gAS
and plants.
Which of the statements given above are correct? mijksDr esa ls dkuS ls dFku lgh gS ?
(1) I, II and III (2) II, III and IV (1) I, II rFkk III (2) II, III rFkk IV
(3) I II and IV (4) Only III and IV (3) I II rFkk IV (4) dsoy III rFkk IV
ALLEN
121. Compare with the gametophytes of pteridophytes, 121. VsfjMksQkbVk ds xSehVksQbV dh rqyuk esa ekWl ds xsehVksQbV gksrs
the gametophytes of mosses tend to be :- gS :-
(1) Large and to have large sex organs (1) vkdkj esa cM+s rFkk cM+s ySafxd vaxksa lfgr
(2) Smaller and to have smaller sex organs (2) vkdkj esa NksVs rFkk NksVs ySafxd vaxksa lfgr
(3) Larger but to have smaller sex organ (3) vkdkj esa cM+s rFkk NksVs ySafxd vaxksa lfgr
(4) Smaller but to have larger sex organ (4) vkdkj esa NksVs rFkk cM+s ySfxd vaxksa lfgr
122. Identify A, B and C. 122. A, B ,oa C dh igpku fdft, :-
All lHkh thok.kq
Bacteria + Crystal violet + (A) Bacteria thok.kq + fØLVy ok;ysV + (A)
vfHkjaftr
Stained gks tkrs gS
Wash (B)
Wash (B)
with
with
Violet or Decolourise csxa uh jaxghu

Purple Bacteria
thok.kq thok.kq
Bacteria
(C) Stained (C) vfHkjaftr
Pink colour xqykch jax
Option :- fodYi%&
(1) (A) KI solution (B) Ethylalcohol (C) Acetone (1) (A) KI solution (B) Ethylalcohol (C) Acetone
(2) (A) Acetone (B) Saffranine (C) KI solution (2) (A) Acetone (B) Saffranine (C) KI solution
(3) (A) KI solution (B) Acetone (C) Saffranine (3) (A) KI solution (B) Acetone (C) Saffranine
(4) (A) Ethyl alcohol (B) KI solution (C) Cotton blue (4) (A) Ethyl alcohol (B) KI solution (C) Cotton blue
123. Which of the following are correctly matched 123. fuEu esa ls dkuS ls ftEuksLieZ ds lUnHkZ esa lgh lq esfyr gS ?
regarding Gymnosperm ? (A) xq:chtk.kq/kkuh – chtk.M
(A) Megasporangium – Ovule (B) eknk ;qXedksn~fHkn – Hkwz.kiks"k
(B) Female gametophyte – Endosperm
(C) uj ;qXed – ijkxd.k
(C) Male gamete – Pollen grain
(1) Only (A) (2) (A) & (C) (1) dsoy (A) (2) (A) rFkk (C)
(3) (A) and (B) (4) (A), (B) and (C) (3) (A) rFkk (B) (4) (A), (B) rFkk (C)
124. In which of the following system of classification 124. fuEu esa ls fdl oxhZdj.k iz.kkyh esa izR;sd y{k.k (dkf;d vkSj
each character (vegetative and sexual) given equal yaSfxd) dks leku egRo fn;k tkrk g\S
importance ? (a) Ïf=e iz.kkyh (b) la[;kRed iz.kkyh
(a) Artificial system (b) Numerical system
(c) izkÏfrd iz.kkyh (d) tkfro`Ùkh; iz.kkyh
(c) Natural system (d) Phylogenetic system
(1) a, d (2) ds oy b
(1) a, d (2) only b
(3) a, b and c (4) a and b (3) a, b vkjS c (4) a vkSj b
125. At which taxonomic category, the maximum 125. fdl oxhZd h laoxZ esa ] lcls T;knk leku xq . k ik;s tkrs
number of common characters are present ? ga\
S
(1) Kingdom (2) Class (1) txr (2) oxZ
(3) Phylum (4) Family (3) la?k (Qkbye) (4) dq y
ALLEN
126. Blue green algae often from bloom in :- 126. uhy gfjr 'ko
S ky vDlj ty izLQwVu djrh gAS
(1) Fresh water (2) Damp soil (1) LoPN ty (2) ue e`nk
(3) Polluted water (4) All of the above (3) iznwf"kr ty (4) mijksDr lHkh
127. See the diagram carefully and select the correct 127. fp= dks /;ku ls nsf[k;s o lgh feyku dks pqfu;s &
match :
A
A
B
B
C
C
(1) (A) Anterior Aorta Help in excretion (1) (A) vxzegk/keuh mRltZu esa enn djrh gSA
(2) (B) i{kkdkj is'kh jDr lajpj.k esa enn djrh gSA
(2) (B) Alary muscles Help in blood circulation
(3) (C) i{kkdkj is'kh mRltZu esa enn djrh gSA
(3) (C) Alary muscles Help in excretion
Pulsatile jDr ds fuekZ.k esa enn djrh gSA
(4) (B)
(4) (B) Pulsatile Ampulla Help in blood formation Ampulla
128. Given below the diagram of alimentary canal of 128. uhps fn;k x;k fp= dkWdjksp dh vkgkjuky dk gS a ls e dks
Cockroach. identify a to e :- igpkfu;s \
(a)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(e)
(e)
(d)
(d)
(1) (a) Pharynx, (b) Oesophagus, (c) Crop,
(d) Rectum, (e) Colon (1) (a) xzluh, (b) xzfldk, (c) ØkWi, (d) eyk'k;, (e) o`gnka=
(2) (a) Pharynx, (b) Oesophagus, (c) Mid-gut (2) (a) xzluh, (b) xzfldk, (c) e/;ka= (d) o`gnka=, (e) eyk'k;
(d) Colon, (e) Rectum (3) (a) eq[k xq gk , (b) xzf ldk , (c) e/;ka=, (d) o`gnka=,
(3) (a) Buccal cavity, (b) Oesophagus, (e) eyk'k;
(c) Mid-gut, (d) Colon , (e) Rectum
(4) (a) xz l uh , (b) xz f ldk , (c) is " k.kh , (d) o` g nka = ,
(4) (a) Pharynx, (b) Oesophagus, (c) Gizzard,
(d) Colon, (e) Rectum (e) eyk'k;
ALLEN
129. Consider the following four statements (A-D) with 129. fuEu pkj dFkuksa (A-D) ij fopkj dhft;s tks dkWdjksp ds lUnHkZ
regards to cockroach and select the option which esa fn;s x;s gS rFkk fodYi dk p;u dhft;s ftlesa lHkh lgh
includes all the correct ones only. dFku lfEefyr gS \
(A) Single spermatheca is found which is opened (A) ,d 'kqØxzkfgdk ik;h tkrh gS tks tuud{k esa [kqyrh
into genital chamber. gSA
(B) Female forms average 9-10 ootheca and
(B) eknk vkl S ru 9-10 ÅFkhdk cukrh gS rFkk çR;sd ÅFkhdk
14-16 eggs contain in each ootheca.
esa 14-16 v.Ms gksrs gAS
(C) Ootheca is a capsule formed around the
(C) ÅFkhdk vfu"ksfpr v.Mksa ds pkjksa vksj cuus okyk lEiqV gksrk
unfertilized egg.
gSA
(D) Nymph undergoes metamorphosis and
(D) fuEQ dk;kUrj.k }kjk o;Ld esa cnyrk gAS
changed into adult
Option : fodYi :
(1) Statements A & B (2) Statements B & C (1) dFku A o B (2) dFku B o C
(3) Statements B & D (4) Statements A & C (3) dFku B o D (4) dFku A o C
130. Polyp and medusa both forms are represented by:- 130. ikWfyi o esMl q k nksuksa :i fdlds }kjk iznf'kZr fd, tkrs ga\
S
(1) Pennatula (2) Aurelia (1) isuVs qyk (2) vkWjsfy;k
(3) Obelia (4) Meandrina (3) vkWcsfy;k (4) esUMfjuk
131. Choose correct answer :- 131. lgh mÙkj dk p;u dhft, :-
Radial Bilateral vleferh vjh; leferh f}ik'oZ leferh

Asymmetry
symmetry symmetry
(1) iksjhQsjk ,susfyMk eksyLdk
(1) Porifera Annelida Mollusca
(2) iksjhQsjk fVuksQksjk vkWFkksZiksMk
(2) Porifera Ctenophora Arthropoda
(3) Platyhelminthes Porifera Chordata (3) IysVhgfS YeFkht iksjhQsjk dkWMsZVk
(4) Coelenterata Mollusca Hemichordata (4) flysUVªsVk eksyLdk geS hdkWMsZVk
132. Mark the correct answer :- 132. lgh mÙkj dks fpfUgr dhft, :-
Common tUrq lkekU; uke y{k.k

Animal Character
Name
High power of iqu:n~Hkou dh mPp
1. Euplectella Devil fish 1. ;wIysDVsyk nSR; eNyh
Regeneration {kerk
Boring 2. fDy;ksuk Hksnd Liat flfMfiM ykokZ
2. Cliona Cydippid larva
sponge
3. czsu dksjy esaMfjuk dsoy esMwlk :i
3. Brain coral Meandrina Only Medusa form
Body covered by leqæh 'kjhj dSYdsfj;l
4. Aplysia Sea-hare 4. ,fIyfl;k
calcareous shell [kjxks'k dop }kjk vkofjr

ALLEN
133. Animals of phylum platyhelminthes are called flat 133. la ? k Iys V hg S f Yea F kht ds tUrq piVs d` f e dgykrs g S
worm because :- D;ksafd :-
(1) Circular in cross section (1) ØkWl dkV esa xksy gksrs gaAS
(2) These are laterally flat (2) ik'ohZ; piVs gksrs gaSA
(3) These are antero-posterior flat (3) vxz&i'p piVs gksrs gaSA
(4) These have dorso-ventrally flattened body (4) i`"B&v/kjh; 'kjhj piVk gksrk gAS
134. How many characters are true for given animal? 134. fn, x, tUrq ds fy, fdrus y{k.k lR; gaS\
i. It is a insect. i. ;g ,d dhV gAS

ii. Respire by book lungs. ii. iqLrd&QsQM+ksa }kjk 'olu djrk gS
iii. Body divided into cephalothorax and abdomen. iii. 'kjhj flQsyksFkksjDs l o mnj esa foHkkftr gksrk gS
iv. It is a oviparous. iv. ;g ,d v.Mt gS
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 4 (4) 3 (1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 4 (4) 3
135. A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce 135. yo.kh; ty esa ik;h tkus okyh mikfLFky eNyh tks fo|qr djaV
electric current is
mRiUu dj ldrh gS %&
(1) Pristis (2) Torpedo (1) fizfLVl (2) VksjihMks
(3) Trygon (4) Scoliodon (3) Vªkbxksu (4) LdksfyvksMkWu
136. Which of the following is true for all amphibians? 136. lHkh mHk;pj ds fy, dkSu&lk y{k.k lgh g\ S
(1) All have tail (1) lHkh thoksa esa iw¡N gksrh gS
(2) Excretion by Kidneys (2) o`Dd ds }kjk mRltZu gksrk gS
(3) Alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive tracts (3) vkgkjuky] ew=k'k; o tuu Hkkx vyx&vyx os'e }kjk cgkj
open into different chambers to the exterior [kqyrs gAS
(4) Heart is three-chambered with two ventricles (4) ân; esa rhu os'e gksrs gaS nks fuy; gksrs gaS
137. Dorsal sclerite in cockroach is known as :- 137. dkdjksp esa ik;h tkus okyh i`"B dBd (sclerite) dks dgrs gS &
(1) Sternum (2) Pleurite (1) LVZue (2) IY;wjkbV
(3) Tergum (4) Both (1) and (3) (3) VxZe (4) (1) o (3) nksuksa
138. Out of the following organisms, identify the chordate 138. fuEufyf[kr tUrq vksa esa ls] mu jTtqdh dks igpkfu;s ftlesa
in which flame cells are excretory organs? TOkkyk dksf'kdk,¡ mRlthZ vax gksrh gS ?
Planaria, Ascaris, Amphioxus, Tape worm, Nereis, Planaria, Ascaris, Amphioxus, Tape worm, Nereis,
Scoliodon Scoliodon
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) 3 (4) 4
ALLEN
139. Which of the following character is not correct 139. fp= esa fn;s x;s tUrq ds oxZ ds lanHkZ esa fuEu esa ls dkuS lk y{k.k
with respect to the class of the animal given in the lgh ugha gAS
figure.
(1) Mammary glands are the most unique feature (1) Lru xzafFk;ka lcls fof'k"V y{k.k gAS
(2) Possessing hair is the most unique feature (2) jkse dk ik;k tkuk lcls fof'k"V y{k.k gAS
(3) Heterodont dentition (3) fo"kenarh narfoU;kl
(4) Homeothermic (4) lerkih;
140. In sponges which cells lined the spongocoel of 140. Liatks esa dkSulh dksf'kdk;sa ] Y;wdkslksysfu;k dh Liatkslhy
Leucosolenia ? vkLrfjr djrh gS ?
(1) Porocytes (2) Pinacocytes (1) iksjkslkbV~l (2) fiusdkslkbV~l
(3) Choanocytes (4) Archeocytes (3) dks,sukslkbV~l (4) vkfdZ;kslkbV~l
141. Which of the following statements is/are not 141. la;ksth Årdksa ds fy;s fuEu esa ls dkSu lk@ls dFku lgh ugha
correct regarding connective tissues? gS@ g Sa \
(i) Connective tissues are most abundant and widely (i) la;ksth Ård tfVy tUrqvksa ds 'kjhj esa cgqrk;r esa ik, tkrs
distributed in the body of complex animals.
gaS rFkk vf/kd QSys gksrs gAS
(ii) They connect and support other tissues.
(iii)They include such diverse tissues as bone, (ii) ;g nwljs Årdksa dks tksM+rs gaS o vk/kkj iznku djrs gAS
cartilage, tendons, adipose and loose (iii) buesa vfLFk] mikfLFk] daMjk] olk vkjS yphys la;ksth Ård
connective tissues. tl S s fofHkUu Ård 'kkfey gaAS
(iv) They form the internal and external lining of (iv) ;g cgqr ls vaxksa ds vkarfjd o ckg~; vkLrj cukrs gaSA
many organs. (v) lHkh la;ksth Årdksa esa (jDr dks NksM+ dj) dksf'kdk,a
(v) In all connective tissues except blood, the
lajpukRed izksVhu ds rarqvksa dk lzko.k djrh gS ] ftUgsa
cells secrete fibres of structural proteins called
dksyt s u ;k bykfLVu dgrs gaAS
collagen or elastin.
(1) (iv) only (2) (v) only (1) dsoy (iv) (2) dsoy (v)
(3) (i) and (ii) (4) (iii) and (v) (3) (i) o (ii) (4) (iii) o (v)
142. Which of the following is a transparent tissue? 142. fuEu esa ls dkuS ,d ikjn'khZ Ård gaS?
(1) Tendon (2) Fibrous cartilage (1) daMjk (2) rarq;h mikfLFk
(3) Hyaline cartilage (4) All of these (3) dkpkHk mikfLFk (4) mijksDr lHkh
143. Which of the following cells can release heparin 143. fuEu esa ls dkSu lh dksf'kdk,sa fgisfju rFkk fgLVkehu dks eqDr
and histamine ? dj ldrh gS ?
(1) Mast cell (1) ekLV dksf'kdk
(2) Eosinophils (2) bvksfluksfQYl
(3) Mast cell and basophils (3) ekLV dksf'kdk o cslksfQYl
(4) Eosinophils and mast cells (4) bvksfluksfQYl o ekLV dksf'kdk
ALLEN
144. Which of the following is not a part of connective tissue? 144. la;ksth Ård dk Hkkx ugh gS :-
(1) Fibroblast (2) Adipocytes (1) QkbczksCykLV (2) olk dksf'kdk,sa
(3) Elastin fibers (4) Glands (3) bykfLVu rarq (4) xzafFk;ka
145. In salamandra DNA, which is double stranded, 145. lsykesUMj dk DNA tks fd f}yMh; gS esa 12% lkbVkslhu dks
12% of the bases were shown to be cytosine. The ns[kk x;k gAS bl DNA esa vU; rhu ukbVªkts u {kkjksa dh izfr'krrk
expected percentages of the other three bases D;k gksxhA
present in the DNA are :- (1) G 6%, A 19%, T 19%
(1) G 6%, A 19%, T 19%
(2) G 12%, A 36%, T 36%
(2) G 12%, A 36%, T 36%
(3) G 12%, A 38%, T 38% (3) G 12%, A 38%, T 38%
(4) G 24%, A 34%, T 34% (4) G 24%, A 34%, T 34%
146. Which of the following enzyme does not used to 146. izksVksIykLV izkIr djus gsrq fuEu esa ls dkSulk ,atkbe mi;ksx esa
obtain protoplast : ugh fy, tkrs gS &
(1) Only cellulose (1) dsoy lsyqykst
(2) Only pectinase (2) dsoy isDVhust
(3) Both lipase and proteases (3) nksuksa ykbist rFkk izkfs V,st
(4) Both cellulose and pectinase (4) nksuksa lsyqykst rFkk isfDVust
147. Fluidity of membrane is measured by :- 147. f>Yyh dh rjyrk dk ekiu fd;k tkrk gS :-
(1) Lateral movement of lipid (1) fyfiM dh ik'Zoh; xfr ls
(2) Lateral movement of protein (2) izkVs hu dh ik'Zoh ; xfr ls
(3) Flip-flop movement of lipid (3) yhihM dh f¶yi&¶yksi xfr ls
(4) Flip-flop movement of protein (4) izkVs hu dh f¶yi&¶yksi xfr ls
148. Which one is not common in between 148. xkWYthdk; vkjS var%izæO;h tkfydk esa dkSulk fodYi dkWeu
endoplasmic reticulum and golgibody? ugha g\
S
(1) Protein synthesis (2) Vesicle formation (1) izkVs hu fuekZ.k (2) iqfVdk fuekZ.k
(3) Secretion (4) Cisternae (3) L=ko.k (4) lhLVª uh
149. Which one is not characteristic of anaphase II? 149. fuEu esas ls dkSulk y{k.k ,ukQst II dk ugha g\ S
(1) Smallest stage of division (1) foHkktu dh NksVh voLFkk
(2) Centromere get split (2) lsUVªkseh;j VwV tkrk gS
(3) Chromosome move to opposite pole (3) xq.klw= foijhr /kqzoksa dh rjQ lgh djrs gaS
(4) Double chromatid chromosome (4) nks ØksesfVM okys xq.klw=
150. In a given diagram of cell membrane which letter 150. fups fn, x, IykTek f>Yyh ds fp = esa dk S u ls 'kCn
represents a molecule of integral protein, vxaHkqr izksVhu] dksysLVsjkWy o 'kdZjk dks Øe'k% iznf'kZr djrs g:S -
cholesterol and sugar respectively :-
Q R Q
R
T T
S S
P P
IykTek f>Yyh dk rjy ekstsd izk:i
Fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane
(1) S, P, T (2) T, P, S (3) Q, R, P (4) S, P, R (1) S, P, T (2) T, P, S (3) Q, R, P (4) S, P, R
ALLEN
151. Which one of the following structural formulae of 151. uhps fn;s tk jgs nks dkcZfud ;kSfxdksa ds lajpukRed lw=ksa esa ls
two organic compounds is correctly identified dkSulk ,d vius lacaf /kr izdk;Z ds lkFk lgh igpkuk x;k
along with its related function ? gS ?
O NH2 O NH2
O CH2–O–C–R N O CH2–O–C–R N
R2–C–O–CH O N R2–C–O–CH O N
CH2–O–P–O–CH2–CH2 CH2–O–P–O–CH2–CH2
OH N OH N
CH3 CH3 N NH CH3 CH3 N NH
CH3 CH3
A B A B
(1) B : adenine - a nucleotide that makes up nucleic (1) B : ,sMsuhu & ,d U;wfDyvksVkbM tks U;wfDybd vEyksa
acids dks cukrk gAS
(2) A : Triglyceride - major source of energy (2) A : VªkbXyhlsjkbM&ÅtkZ dk izeq[k L=ksr
(3) B : Uracil - a component of DNA (3) B : ;wjfS ly- DNA dk ,d ?kVd
(4) A : Lecithin - a component of cell membrane (4) A : ysflfFku - dksf'kdk f>Yyh dk ,d ?kVd
152. Which one out of A - D given below correctly 152. uhps A ls D esa fn;s tk jgs lajpukRed lw=ksa esa ls og dkuS lk
represents the structural formula of the basic amino ,d lw= gS ftlesa {kkjh; ,sehuks vEy dks lgh izfrnf'kZr fd;k
acid ? x;k gS ?
A B C D A B C D
NH2 NH2 CH2OH NH2 NH2 NH2 CH2OH NH2
H–C–COOH H–C–COOH CH2 H–C–COOH H–C–COOH H–C–COOH CH2 H–C–COOH
CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2
CH2 OH NH2 CH2 CH2 OH NH2 CH2
C CH2 C CH2
OH OH
O CH2 O CH2
NH2 NH2
Options fodYi
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
153. A mung bean variety which is resistance to yellow 153. ew¡x (chu) esa ihr ekstsd ok;jl ds izfr izfrjks/kd {kerk fdl
mosaic virus is developed by which method :- fof/k }kjk fodflr dh x;h Fkh :-
(1) Plant introduction (2) Hybridisation (1) ikni iqu%LFkkiu (2) ladj.k
(3) Mutational breeding (4) Domestication (3) mRifjorZu iztuu (4) ?kjsywdj.k
154. Which of the following is significans of meristem 154. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk foHkT;ksrd lao/kZu (esjs hLVse dYpj) dk egRo
culture? gS\
(1) Detection of mutation (1) mRifjorZu dh igpku
(2) Developement of pure lines (2) 'kq¼ oa'k Øe dk mRiknu
(3) Transfer of male sterility gene (3) uj ca/;rk dh thu dk LFkkukUrj.k
(4) Production of virus free plants (4) okbjl eqä ikni dk mRiknu
ALLEN
155. In the given diagram identify A, B and C 155. fuEu fp= esa A, B, C dks ifgpkfu;s &
Generation I Generation II ih<+h I ih<+h II
15
N-DNA 14N-DNA 14 N-DNA
15N-Mh,u, 14N-Mh,u,
14 N-Mh,u,
15 N-DNA 15 N-Mh,u,
15 N-DNA 15 N-Mh,u,
20 min 40 min 14 N-DNA 20 feuV 40 feuV 14 N-Mh,u,
Gravitational force 14 vidsUnzcy
N-DNA 14
N-Mh,u,
A B C A B C
A B C A B C
(1) 15
N 15N N 15N
14 14
N 14N (1) 15
N 15N 14
N 15N 14
N 14N
(2) 15
N 15N N 14N
14 14
N 14N (2) 15
N 15N 14
N 14N 14
N 14N
(3) 15
N 15N N 15N
14 14
N 15N (3) 15
N 15N 14
N 15N 14
N 15N
(4) 14
N 15N N 15N
15 14
N 14N (4) 14
N 15N 15
N 15N 14
N 14N
156. Select the correct statement regarding prokaryotes:- 156. izksdsfj;ksV~l ds lUnHkZ esa lgh dFku dk p;u djsa %&
(1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase form all (1) DNA vk/kkfjr RNA ikWfyejst lHkh izdkj ds RNA dk
types of RNA fuekZ.k djrk gAS
(2) Different RNA polymerase form different types (2) fofHkék izdkj ds RNA ikWfyejst fofHkék izdkj ds RNA
of RNA dk fuekZ.k djrs gaAS
(3) Single DNA dependent DNA polymerase form (3) ,d DNA vk/kkfjr DNA ikWfyejst ,d gh izdkj ds
one type of RNA RNA dk fuekZ.k djrk gAS
(4) Different DNA dependent DNA polymerase (4) fofHkék DNA vk/kkfjr DNA ikWfyejst ,d gh izdkj ds
form one type of RNA RNA dk fuekZ.k djrs gaAS
157. Which of the following is incorrect for satellite DNA? 157. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkuS lk vuq"kaxh DNA ds lUnHkZ esa vlR; g\
S
(1) High degree of polymorphism (1) cgq:irk dk mPp Lrj
(2) It is not inherited from parent to children (2) ;g tudksa ls cPpksa esa oa'kkxr ugha gksrk gAS
(3) It is used in DNA fingerprinting for genetic (3) bldk mi;ksx DNA vaxqyhNki esa vkuqokaf'kd fofoèkrk
diversity ds fy;s fd;k tkrk gSA
(4) Does not code for any protein (4) fdlh Hkh izksVhu dks dwVysf[kr ugha djrk gSA
158. RNA dependent DNA polymerase is also referred as:- 158. vkj,u,&fuHkZj Mh,u, ikWyhejst gS :-
(1) DNA polymerase-I (1) Mh,u, ikWyhejst -I Hkh dgykrk gAS
(2) Reverse transcriptase (2) fjolZ VªkalfØiVst Hkh dgykrk gAS
(3) Topoisomerase-I (3) Vksiksvkblksejst-I Hkh dgykrk gAS
(4) DNA polymerase-d (4) Mh,u, ikWyhejst -d Hkh dgykrk gAS
159. Which of the following codon does not code for 159. fuEu esa ls dkSulk ,d izdwV (dksMksu) fdlh Hkh vehuks vEy
any amino acid? ds fy, dwV ugha djrk g\ S
(1) UUU (2) AUG (3) AUA (4) UGA (1) UUU (2) AUG (3) AUA (4) UGA
160. Shine Delgarno sequence is present in :- 160. Shine Delgarno vuqØe dgk¡ mifLFkr gksrk g\
S
(1) Smaller sub-unit of ribosome. (1) jkbckslkse dh NksVh mi -bdkbZ esa
(2) DHU-loop of t-RNA. (2) t-RNA ds DHU-loop esa
(3) 5'-UTR of m-RNA. (3) m-RNA ds 5'-UTR esa
(4) Larger sub-unit of ribosome. (4) jkbckslkse dh cM+h mi-bdkbZ esa
ALLEN
161. If both strands of DNA in a given segment of DNA 161. Mh,u, ds ,d [kaM esa ;fn nksuks Mh,u, jTtqdksa dk vuqys[ku
are transcribed then the two RNA molecules gks tk, rks blls cuus okys vkj,u, :-
formed must be :- (1) lekukarj o leku gksaxAs
(1) Parallel and identical.
(2) izfr - lekukarj o iwjd gksaxsA
(2) Anti-parallel and complementary.
(3) lekukarj o iwjd gksaxAs
(3) Parallel and complementary.
(4) Anti-parallel and identical. (4) izfr - lekukarj o leku gksxAs
162. Which of the following is not a common feature 162. fuEu esa ls dkSulk Mh,u, o vkj,u, dk leku xq .k ugha
of DNA and RNA? gS\
(1) Ability to act as genetic material. vkuqokaf'kd inkFkZ dh rjg dk;Z djus dh {kerkA
(1)
(2) Possibility of mutation. mRifjorZu dh laHkkokukA
(2)
(3) Ability to replicate itself. Lo;a dh izfrÏfr dh {kerkA
(3)
(4) Ability to act as enzyme. ,atkbe dh rjg dk;Z djus dh {kerkA
(4)
163. In monohybrid cross what is the ratio of 163. ,d ladj ØkWl dh F2 ih<+h esa le;qXeth rFkk fo"ke;qXeth
homozygous dominant and homozygous lnL;ksa dk vuqikr gksxk %&
recessive individuals in F 2–generation :-
(1) 1 : 2 : 1
(1) 1:2:1
(2) 2:1 / 1:2 (2) 2 : 1/1 : 2
(3) 3:1 / 1:3 (3) 3 : 1/ 1: 3
(4) 1:1 (4) 1 : 1
164. Who rediscovered the results of Mendel's 164. es.My ds iz;ksxksa ds ifj.kkeksa dk iqu % izdk'ku djus okys
experiments ? oSKkfud Fks :-
(1) DeVries, Tschemark, Correns (1) fMfozt] 'ksekZd] dksjUs l
(2) DeVries, Tschemark, Morgan (2) fMfozt] 'ksekZd] eksxZu
(3) Tschemark, Morgan, Correns (3) 'ksekZd] eksxZu] dksjUs l
(4) Tschemark, Bateson, Punnet, (4) 'ksekZd] csVlu] iqUusV
165. Two allelic genes are located on : 165. nks ,yhfyd thu fLFkr gksrh gS %&
(1) The same chromosome (1) ,d gh xq.klw= ij
(2) Two homologous chromosomes (2) nks letkr xq.klw=ksa ij
(3) Two non-homologous chromosomes (3) nks vletkr xq.klw=ksa ij
(4) Any two chromosomes (4) fdUgha Hkh nks xq.klw=ksa ij
166. Given pedigree chart represent which type of 166. fn;k x;k oa ' kkoyh vkjs [ k fdldh oa ' kkxfr n'kkZ r k
inheritance:- gS % &
(1) Autosomal (1) vkWVkslksey

(2) X-linked recessive (2) X-lgyXu vizHkkoh
(3) Y-linked (3) Y-lgyXu
(4) Cytoplasmic inheritance (4) dksf'kdk æO; oa'kkxfr
ALLEN
167. Which of the following match is correct ? 167. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk feyku lgh gS ?
(1) Sickle cell anaemia : Point mutation. (1) nk= dksf'kdh jDr vYirk : fcUnq mRifjorZu
(2) Down Syndrome : trisomy of 5th chromosome.
(2) MkÅu flUMªkse : ikaposa xq.klw= dh f=vf/klw=rk
(3) Cry-du-chat syndrome : Duplication of
(3) ØkbZ-Mw-psV flUMªke
s : x-xq.klw= dk MwIyhds'ku
x-chromosome.
(4) Polyploidy : increase in one or two chromosomes. (4) cgqxqf.krk : ,d ;k nks xq.klw=ksa dh vf/kdrk
168. A woman with albinic father marries an albinic 168. ,d jatdghu firk okyh efgyk dk fookg jatdghu O;fDr ls
man. The proportion of her progeny will be :- gksrk gS rks mudh larfr;ksa dk vuqikr gksxk :-
(1) 2 normal : 1 albinic (1) 2 lkekU; : 1 jtadghu
(2) All normal (2) lHkh lkekU;
(3) All albinic (3) lHkh jtadghu
(4) 1 normal : 1 albinic (4) 1 lkekU; : 1 jtadghu
169. Morgan's experiment the F 2 ratio deviated very 169. eksxZu ds ç;ksx esa F2 vuqikr 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ls fopyu çnf'kZr
significantly from 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 this is due to :- djrk gSA ;g fdl dkj.k ls gqvk :-
(1) Independent assortment (1) Lora= viO;wgu
(2) Segregation (2) i`FkDdj.k ;k fola;kstu
(3) Linkage (3) lgyXurk
(4) Dominance (4) çHkkfodrk
170. If a colourblind male marriage with a carrier 170. vxj ,d o.kkZU/k iq:"k dh 'kknh ,d okgd gheksfQfyd efgyk
haemophilic female then what is the percentage ls gksrk gS rks crkb;s fdrus çfr'kr larkus nksuksa chekfj;ksa ls xzflr
of progeny which are suffering from both gksxh\
disorder? (1) 0%
(1) 0%
(2) 25%
(2) 25%
(3) 50%
(3) 50%
(4) 100% (4) 100%
171. In E.CoRI, E is stand for :- 171. E.CoRI esa E n'kkZrk g%S &
(1) Strain (1) izHksn dks
(2) Species (2) tkfr dks
(3) Genus (3) oa'k dks
(4) Order (4) Øe dks
172. Golgi complex does not participates in : 172. xkWYth lfEeJ fdlesa Hkkx ugh ysrk gS &
(1) Formation of secretory vesicle (1) L=koh iqfVdkvksa ds cukus esa
(2) Formation of lysosome (2) ykblkslkse ds cukus esa
(3) Formation of acrosome (3) ,Økslkse ds cukus esa
(4) Detoxification (4) vkfo"khdj.k
173. Which one of the following technique is used to 173. fuEu es dkuS lh rduhd dk bLrseky GM Qlyksa ds mRiknu
produce the GM crops ? esa fd;k tkrk g\S
(1) Micropropagation (1) ekbØksizksixs'ku
(2) Somatic hybridization (2) dkf;d ladj.k
(3) r-DNA technology (3) r-DNA rduhd
(4) Cross breeding (4) ØkWl czhafMx

ALLEN
174. Identify the following diagram : 174. fuEufyf[kr fp= dks igpkfu;s &
(1) Prophase (1) iwokZoLFkk

(2) Interphase (2) vUrjkoLFkk
(3) Metaphase (3) e/;koLFkk
(4) Anaphase (4) i'pkoLFkk
175. Identify the correct match from Column-I, II 175. dkWye-I, II rFkk III es ls lgh esy dks igpkfu;s :-
and III :-
Column-I Column-II Colum n-III

Column-I Column-II Column-III oj.k ;ksX ; :ikar fjrksa dks
1 Amp R thu
Selectable R identification of fpUgd igpkuuk
1 Amp gene
marker transformants jsfLVªD 'ku DNA dks csrjrhc
Restriction random cutting 2 ,Utkbe
2 enzyme ,aMksU;wfDy,t d kVuk
endonuclease of DNA
3 pBR322 Dyksfuax lao kgd js[ kh; DNA
3 pBR322 Cloning vector Linear DNA
Isolation of DNA dk
4 BAC Host cell 4 BAC iks"kd dksf'kdk
DNA i FkDdj.k
176. Biolistics is a method of ? 176. Biolistics fdldh ,d fof/k gS ?
(1) Artificial gene synthesis (1) d`f=e thu la'ys"k.k dh
(2) Identification of recombinant host (2) iqu;kZsth iks"kd dh igpku dh
(3) Making recombinant DNA (3) iqu;kZt

s h DNA dk fuekZ.k dh
(4) Direct gene transfer in host cell (4) iks"kd dksf'kdk esa thu dks lh/ks LFkkukarfjr djus dh
177. What is the function of methylase enzyme found 177. bZ-dksyh esa mifLFkr feFkkbyst fodj dk D;k dk;Z gS :-
in E.coli :-
(1) thok.kqHkksth ds DNA esa feFkkbZy xzqi dks tksM+uk
(1) Added methyl group to bacteriophage DNA
(2) thok.kq ds DNA esa feFkkby lewg dks tksM+uk
(2) Added methyl group to bacterial DNA
(3) thok.kq ds DNA esa bZFkkby lewg dks tksM+uk
(3) Added ethyl group to bacterial DNA
(4) Cutting of bacterial DNA (4) thok.kq ds DNA dks dkVuk

ALLEN
178. In genetic engineering Agrobacterium and 178. vkuqoaf'kd vfHk;kfU=dh esa ikni rFkk tUrqvksa esa thu Dyksfuax
Retrovirus are used as a vector for cloning gene ds fy, ,xzkcs DS Vhfj;e rFkk fjVªkos kbjl dk mi;ksx okgd dh rjg
in plant and animal because :- fd;k tkrk g]S D;ksafd :-
(1) They are easily available (1) ;s vklkuh ls miyC/k gksrs gAS
(2) they are pathogen (2) ;s jksxk.kq gksrs gAS
(3) They have ability to transform normal cell in (3) buesa lkekU; dksf'kdk dks V~;wej ;k dsalj dksf'kdkvksa eas
to a tumour and cancerous cell :ikfUrjr djus dh {kerk gksrh gAS
(4) They infect all plant and animal cell (4) buesa lHkh ikni o tUrqdksf'kdkvksa dks laØfer djus dh
179. Choose the incorrect statement :- {kerk gksrh gAS
(1) Cyclosporin-A drug is obtained from 179. xyr dFku dk pquko dhft, :-
Trichoderma fungi (1) lkbDyksLiksjhu-A VªkbdksMekZ dod }kjk mRiUu dh tkrh
(2) Ladybird beetle is used as Bio-control agent gSA
against Jassids. (2) Hka`x chVy tsflM~l ds fo:¼ to S fu;a =.k dkjd gAS
(3) Bacillus thuringenesis is used as Bio-control (3) cfS lyl Fkqfjutsufs ll eksFk] eD[kh o ePNjksa ds fo:¼ to S
agent against Moths, Flies and Mosquitoes. fu;a=.k dkjd gAS
(4) Euphorbia lathyrus is a petroleum plant (4) ;wQksfcZ;k ysFkkbjl ,d isVªksfy;e ikni gAS
180. Interphase does not include : 180. vUrjkoLFkk esa lfEefyr ugh gS &
(1) G0 phase (2) G2 phase (1) G0 Qst (2) G2 Qst
(3) S phase (4) M phase (3) S Qst (4) M Qst
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2020
Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in within 2 days along with Paper code and Your Form No.
uksV% ;fn bl iz'u i= esa dksbZ Correction gks rks Ïi;k Paper code ,oa vkids Form No. ds lkFk 2 fnu ds vUnj dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in ij mail djsaA
ALLEN
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / jQ dk;Z ds fy, txg

ALLEN
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / jQ dk;Z ds fy, txg

Distance Learning Programmes
(Session-2019-20)
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
ABOUT FEEDBACK SYSTEM

Dear Student,
We request you to provide feedback for the test series till you have appeared. Kindly answer the questions
provided on the reverse of paper with honesty and sincerely.
Although our test series questions are extremely well designed and are able to improve speed, accuracy &
developing examination temperament, yet we are always open to improvements.
If you have not prepared well for today's test and if you are not feeling good today, then do not blame test
series for it.
We strive to prepare you for all kinds of situations and facing variations in paper, as this can also happen in
Main exam. It is important for you to concentrate on your rank.
Go through the feedback form thoroughly and answer with complete loyalty. Darken your response (2, 1, 0) in
OMR sheet corresponding to :
Questions
1. How convenient it was for you to enroll in our Distance Learning Course through online mode?
[2] Very Convenient [1] Average [0] Difficult
2. How do you find Location of test center?
[2] Good and approachable [1] Average in terms of approach [0] difficult to reach
3. The level of test paper [meet all the requirement of competitive examination]
[2] Good standard [1] Average [0] Below average
4. Do you feel our test series is able to improve speed, accuracy & developing examination temperament?
[2] Yes [1] partly [0] Not at all
5. Number of mistakes in test papers.
[2] Negligible [1] Are very less [0] Too High
6. Announcement of result is on Time.
[2] Yes always [1] Some time delayed [0] Always delay
7. Are you satisfied with result analysis on D-SAT?
[2] Yes [1] Partly [0] Not at all
8. Are you satisfied with overall facilities provided at test center
[2] Satisfactory [1] Partly Satisfactory [0] Not good
9. Response Form ALLEN on email/telephonically.
[2] Always good and prompt [1] some time delay [0] Not satisfactory
10. Do you think your purpose (Overall) of SELF EVALUTION is fulfilled?
[2] Yes [1] partly [0] Not at all

ALLEN
Read carefully the following instructions : fuEufyf[kr funs Z 'k /;ku ls i<+ s a :
1. Each candidate must show on demand his/her 1. iwNs tkus ij izR;sd ijh{kkFkhZ] fujh{kd dks viuk ,yu igpku
Allen ID Card to the Invigilator. i= fn[kk,A
2. No candidate, without special permission of 2. fujh{kd dh fo'ks"k vuqefr ds fcuk dksbZ ijh{kkFkhZ viuk
the Invigilator, would leave his/her seat. LFkku u NksM+As
3. The candidates should not leave the 3. dk;Zjr fujh{kd dks viuk mÙkj&i= fn, fcuk dksbZ ijh{kkFkhZ
Examination Hall without handing over their ijh{kk gkWy ugha NksM+sA
Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty.
4. Use of Electronic/Manual Ca lculator is 4. bys D Vª k W f ud@gLrpfyr ifjdyd dk mi;ks x oftZ r
prohibited. gSA
5. The candidates are governed by all Rules and 5. ijh{kk gkWy esa vkpj.k ds fy, ijh{kkFkhZ ijh{kk ds lHkh
Regulations of the examination with regard to fu;eksa ,oa fofu;eksa }kjk fu;fer gAS vuqfpr lk/ku ds lHkh
their conduct in the Examination Hall. All
cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per
ekeyksa dk Ql S yk ijh{kk ds fu;eksa ,oa fofu;eksa ds vuqlkj
Rules and Regulations of this examination. gksxkA
6. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet 6. fdlh gkyr esa ijh{kk iqfLrdk vkjS mÙkj&i= dk dksbZ Hkkx
shall be detached under any circumstances. vyx u djs aA
7. The candidates will write the Correct Name 7. ijh{kk iqfLrdk@mÙkj&i= esa ijh{kkFkhZ viuk lgh uke o QkWeZ
and Form No. in the Test Booklet/Answer uEcj fy[ksaA
Sheet.
Corporate Office : ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-2757575 dlp@allen.ac.in www.dlp.allen.ac.in, dsat.allen.ac.in


5 6075459045257380031 PDF

Hochgeladen von

Dokumentinformationen

Originaltitel

Copyright

Verfügbare Formate

Dieses Dokument teilen

Dokument teilen oder einbetten

Freigabeoptionen

Stufen Sie dieses Dokument als nützlich ein?

Sind diese Inhalte unangemessen?

Copyright:

Verfügbare Formate

5 6075459045257380031 PDF

Hochgeladen von

Copyright:

Verfügbare Formate

Test Pattern

Test Syllabus : Half Syllabus (11th Class Syllabus)

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2020

(1) 15 NC–1 (1) 15 NC–1

(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) 2 (2) 3

(1) Clockwise (1) nf{k.kkorZ

(1) 9.8 J (2) 19.6 J (1) 9.8 J (2) 19.6 J

MAJOR TEST FOR TARGET 2020/NEET-UG/29-12-2019

mg mg 3mg 3mg mg mg 3mg 3mg

MAJOR TEST FOR TARGET 2020/NEET-UG/29-12-2019

(1) 6 (2) 18 (3) 9 (4) 2 (1) 6 (2) 18 (3) 9 (4) 2

MAJOR TEST FOR TARGET 2020/NEET-UG/29-12-2019

cell reaction will be :- ly

MnO2 ( s ) + 4H + ( aq ) + 2e - ® Mn +2 ( aq ) + 2H 2 O ( l ) ; E 02 = 1.21V MnO2 ( s ) + 4H + ( aq ) + 2e - ® Mn +2 ( aq ) + 2H 2 O ( l ) ; E 02 = 1.21V

MnO-4 1 ( aq ) + 4H + ( aq ) + 3e - ® MnO2 ( s ) + 2H2 O ( l ) ; E03 ? MnO-4 1 ( aq ) + 4H + ( aq ) + 3e - ® MnO2 ( s ) + 2H2 O ( l ) ; E30 ?

Value of E 03 will be :- E 03 dk eku gksxk :-

LEADER TEST SERIES/JOINT PACKAGE COURSE/NEET-UG/29-12-2019

2MnO2(s) + 2NH4+ (aq) + 2e– ¾¾

Mn2O3(s) + 2NH3(g) + H2O(l) Mn2O3(s) + 2NH3(g) + H2O(l)

MAJOR TEST FOR TARGET 2020/NEET-UG/29-12-2019

(DH)Solution =(DH)Solvent (DH)foy;u =(DH)foyk;d

NOBr2(g) + NO(g) ¾¾¾

(3) K2/K1 (4) K22/K1 (3) K2/K1 (4) K22/K1

(4) 1 g of H2O (4) 1 g H2O

MAJOR TEST FOR TARGET 2020/NEET-UG/29-12-2019

Seed coat chtkoj.k

Cotyledon Shoot apical chti= izjksg 'kh"kZ

LEADER TEST SERIES/JOINT PACKAGE COURSE/NEET-UG/29-12-2019

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

eYVhyksM 'kqØk.kqvksa dh xfr'khyrk de djrh

Make cervix hostile to

Estrogen and Estrogen and

foHkkftr gks jgh ,d

Violet or Decolourise csxa uh jaxghu

Radial Bilateral vleferh vjh; leferh f}ik'oZ leferh

(4) Coelenterata Mollusca Hemichordata (4) flysUVªsVk eksyLdk geS hdkWMsZVk

Common tUrq lkekU; uke y{k.k

MAJOR TEST FOR TARGET 2020/NEET-UG/29-12-2019

i. It is a insect. i. ;g ,d dhV gAS

(1) Autosomal (1) vkWVkslksey

LEADER TEST SERIES/JOINT PACKAGE COURSE/NEET-UG/29-12-2019

(1) Prophase (1) iwokZoLFkk

Column-I Column-II Colum n-III

176. Biolistics is a method of ? 176. Biolistics fdldh ,d fof/k gS ?

(1) Artificial gene synthesis (1) d`f=e thu la'ys"k.k dh

(2) Identification of recombinant host (2) iqu;kZsth iks"kd dh igpku dh

(3) Making recombinant DNA (3) iqu;kZt

MAJOR TEST FOR TARGET 2020/NEET-UG/29-12-2019

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2020

MAJOR TEST FOR TARGET 2020/NEET-UG/29-12-2019

LEADER TEST SERIES/JOINT PACKAGE COURSE/NEET-UG/29-12-2019

ABOUT FEEDBACK SYSTEM

LEADER TEST SERIES/JOINT PACKAGE COURSE/NEET-UG/29-12-2019

MAJOR TEST FOR TARGET 2020/NEET-UG/29-12-2019

Das könnte Ihnen auch gefallen