ALLEN PAPER CODE : 3002CM300218010

TM

CAREER INSTITUTE FORM NUMBER

Path to Success KOTA (RAJASTHAN)

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

(ACADEMIC SESSION 2018-2019)

PRE-MEDICAL : NURTURE COURSE

PHASE – I & II
TEST # 10 DATE : 16 - 09 - 2018
Test Type : Minor Test Pattern : NEET UG
INSTRUCTIONS
1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only.
If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination and
shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.
3. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.
5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.
6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.
7. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball
Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so

TOPICS

PHYSICS : WORK ENERGY & POWER (COMPLETE), PROJECTILE MOTION (COMPLETE)

CHEMISTRY : IONIC EQUILIBRIUM (UPTO SALT HYDROLYSIS), NOMENCLATURE COMPLETE

BIOLOGY : CIRCULATORY SYSTEM, RESPIRATORY SYSTEM, COMPLETE ANIMAL DIVERSITY

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Near Auda Garden, S.G. Highway, Bodakdev,
+91-744-2436001 +91-744-2435003 info@allen.ac.in Tel. : 079-40030050-51

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Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation

 CBSE & GSEB
MINOR TEST # 11 Topics DATE : 30 - 09 - 2018
NURTURE COURSE : I & II
PHYSICS : Vertical Circular Motion, Centre of Mass, Relative Motion

CHEMISTRY : Ionic Equilibrium, IUPAC Structure, Isomerism, Toutomerism,

Geometrical Isomerism

BIOLOGY : Living World, Digestive System (Structure of Alimentary canal,

Digestive Glance)

NEET-UG PATTERN
 Nurture Course/Phase - I & II/16-09-2018
HAVE CONTROL ¾® HAVE PATIENCE ¾® HAVE CONFIDENCE Þ 100% SUCCESS
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
1. Two bodies with masses M1 and M2 have equal 6. A body is acted upon by a force which is
kinetic energies. If p1 and p2 are their respective
inversely proportional to the distance x. The
momenta, then p1/p2 is equal to :
work done will be proportional to:
2 2
(1) M1 : M2 (2) M : M
1 2
(1) x (2) x2
(3) M2 : M1 (4) M1 : M 2
(3) x3/2 (4) none of these
2. A uniform chain has a mass m and length l. It
is held on a frictionless table with one-sixth of 7. A ball is dropped from a height of 20 cm. Ball
its length hanging over the edge. The work
rebounds to a height of 10 cm. What is the loss
done in just puling the hanging part back on
of energy?
the table is:

l mgl (1) 25% (2) 75% (3) 50% (4) 100%

(1) mg (2)
72 36
8. The power of a water pump is 2 kW. If g = 10
mgl mgl
(3) (4)
12 6 ms –2 , the amount of water it can raise in 1
3. The potential energy of a certain spring when minute to a height of 10 m is:
stretched through a distance s is 10 joule. The
(1) 2000 lit (2) 1000 lit
extra amount of work (in joule) that must be
done on this spring to stretch it through (3) 100 lit (4) 1200 lit
additional distance s, will be:
9. An object of mass 5 kg falls from rest through
(1) 30 (2) 40 (3) 10 (4) 20
a vertical distance of 20 m and reaches ground
4. A body is moved along a straight line by a
with a velocity of 10 m/s. The work done by
machine delivering a constant power. The
air resistance (g = 9.8 ms –2) is:
distance, moved by the body in time t, is
proportional to: (1) +730 J (2) –730 J

(1) t (2) t3/4 (3) t3/2 (4) t2

(3) +980 J (4) –980 J
5. A body is dropped from a height h. If it
10. A particle of mass m is moving in a horizontal
acquires a momentum p, then the mass of the
body is: circle of radius r under centripetal force equal
K
p p2 to - , where K is a constant. The potential
(1) (2) r2
2gh 2gh
energy of the particle is:
2gh 2gh
(3) (4) k K K k
p p (1) (2) (3) - (4) -
r 2r 2r r

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 Target : Pre-Medical 2020/16-09-2018
11. A massless platform is kept on a light elastic 3P 2 m
(1) ( u2 - u12 ) (2) (u2 - u1 )
spring, as shown in the figure. When sand m 3P

particles of 0.5 kg mass are dropped on the pan m 3 m 2

(3) ( u2 - u13 ) (4) (u2 - u12 )
3P 3P
from a height of 0.24 m, the particle strikes the
pan and the spring is compressed by 0.01 m. 15. A stone projected up with a velocity u reaches

What will be value of spring constant in N/m a maximum height h. When it is at a height of

(g = 10 m/s2) 3h/4 from the ground, the ratio of KE and PE

at that point is:

(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 1 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 2

16. The potential energy of a 1 kg particle free to

move along the x-axis is given by:

U(x) = x2 – 8x

The total potential energy of the particle at

(1) 2.5 × 104 (2) 2.4 × 104 equilibrium is

(3) 2.4 × 102 (4) 2.5 × 102 (1) zero (2) –16 J (3) 16 J (4) –8 J

12. A pump is required to lift 1000 kg of water per 17. If the potential energy of a gas molecule is
minute from a well of depth 10 m and eject it M N
U= - , M and N being positive constants,
with a speed of 10 ms –1. The horse power of r 6 r12
the engine needed is: then the potential energy at equilibrium must

(1) 3.33 (2) 4.33 (3) 5.35 (4) 2.35 be :

13. A toy gun uses a spring of force constant K.
(1) zero (2) M2/4N
When charged before being triggered in the
upward direction, the spring is compressed by (3) N2/4M (4) MN2/4
a distance x. If the mass of shot is m, on being 18. The work done by a force acting on a body is
triggered it will go upto a height of: as shwon in the graph. The total work done in
(Height calculated from the point it is fired) covering an initial distance of 20 m is:

Kx 2 x2
(1) (2)
mg Kmg
Kx 2 K 2x2
(3) (4)
2mg mg
14. A constant power P is applied to a particle of
mass m. The distance travelled by the particle
when its velocity increases from u 1 to u 2 is:
(1) 225 J (2) 200 J (3) 400 J (4) 175 J
(neglect friction)

2/19 ADI/3002CM300218010

19. A bucket full of water weighs 5 kg, it is pulled
from a well 20 m deep. There is a small hole
in the bucket through which water leaks at a
constant rate of 0.2 kg/m. The total work done
in pulling the bucket up from the well is:
(g = 10 m/s2)
Nurture Course/Phase - I & II/16-09-2018
23. If we want to triple the amount of water per unit
time ejecting from a pump then power of pump
will be increased by a factor of -
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 27
24. A stone is just released from the window of
a train moving along a horizontal straight track.
The stone will hit the ground following

(1) 600 J (2) 400 J (3) 100 J (4) 500 J (1) Straight path (2) Circular path
(3) Parabolic path (4) Hyperbolic path
20. In the figure shown all the surfaces are
25. An aeroplane is flying horizontally with a
frictionless, and mass of the block, m = 1 kg. velocity of 600 km/h at a height of 1960 m.
The block and wedge are held initially at rest. When it is vertically at a point A on the ground,
a bomb is released from it. The bomb strikes
Now wedge is given a horizontal acceleration the ground at point B. The distance AB is
of 10 m/s2 by applying a force on the wedge, (1) 1200 m (2) 0.33 km
so that the block does not slip on the wedge. (3) 3.33 km (4) 33 km
Then work done by the normal force in ground 26. An aeroplane moving horizontally with a
frame on the block in 3 seconds is: speed of 720 km/h drops a food pocket, while
flying at a height of 396.9 m. the time taken
10 m/s2 by a food pocket to reach the ground and its
m
horizontal range is (Take g = 9.8 m/sec2)

M (1) 3 sec and 2000 m (2) 5 sec and 500 m

q
(3) 8 sec and 1500 m (4) 9 sec and 1800 m
(1) 30 J (2) 60 J (3) 150 J (4) 100 3 J 27. A particle (A) is dropped from a height and
another particle (B) is thrown in horizontal
21. For the given graph which point will be stable direction with speed of 5 m/sec from the same
equilibrium. height. The correct statement is
F (1) Both particles will reach at ground
(N) simultaneously
(2) Both particles will reach at ground with
same speed
(3) Particle (A) will reach at ground first with
C
x (m) respect to particle (B)
A
(4) Particle (B) will reach at ground first with
B
respect to particle (A)
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) None 28. A bomber plane moves horizontally with a
22. A pump ejecting a liquid of density 2 × 103kg/ speed of 500 m/s and a bomb released from it,
m3 with constant speed of 10 m/s from an area strikes the ground in 10 sec. Angle at which it

of cross section 20 cm2. Find out rate of kinetic strikes the ground will be (g = 10 m / s 2 )
energy imparted to liquid? 1 1
-1 æ ö æ ö
(1) tan ç 5 ÷ (2) tan ç 5 ÷
è ø è ø
(1) 200 J/s (2) 100 J/s
(3) tan -1 (1) (4) tan -1 (5)
(3) 50 J/s (4) 400 J/s

ADI/3002CM300218010 3/19
 Target : Pre-Medical 2020/16-09-2018
29. A cart is moving horizontally along a straight (1) y = x – 5x 2 (2) y = 2x – 5x 2
line with constant speed 30 m/s. A projectile is
(3) 4y = 2x – 5x2 (4) 4y = 2x – 25x2
to be fired from the moving cart in such a way
34. A body starts from rest from the origin with an
that it will return to the cart after the cart has
acceleration of 6 m/s2 along the x-axis and 8
moved 80m. At what speed (relative to the cart)
m/s2 along the y-axis. Its distance from the
must the projectile be fired (Take g = 10 m/s2)
origin after 4 seconds will be
(1) 10 m/s (2) 10 8 m/s
(1) 56 m (2) 60 m
40
(3) m/s (4) None of these (3) 80 m (4) 128 m
3
30. A particle is proejcted with velocity V 0 along 35. A particle crossing the origin of co-ordinates
x-axis. The deceleration on the particle is at time t = 0, moves in the xy-plane with a
proportional to the square of the distance from constant acceleration a in the y-direction. If its
the origin i.e. a = ax2, the distance at which the equation of motion is y = bx2 (b is a constant),
particle stops is its velocity component in the x-direction is
1
3V0 æ 3V ö 3 2b a a b
(1) (2) ç 0 ÷ (1) (2) (3) (4)
2a è 2a ø a 2b b a
1 36. Two projectiles A and B thrown with speeds
2V02 æ 3V 2 ö 3
(3) (4) ç 0 ÷ in the ratio 1: 2 acquired the same heights. If
3a è 2a ø
A is thrown at an angle of 45° with the
31. A body is thrown upward from the earth surface horizontal, the angle of projection of B will be
with velocity 5 m/s and from a planet surface
(1) 0° (2) 60° (3) 30° (4) 45°
with velocity 3 m/s. Both follow the same path.
37. For a projectile, the ratio of maximum height
What is the projectile acceleration due to reached to the square of flight time is (g = 10
gravity on the planet ms–2 )
(1) 5 : 4 (2) 5 : 2 (3) 5 : 1 (4) 10 : 1
(1) 2 m/s2 (2) 3.5 m/s 2 38. An object is projected with a velocity of 20 m/
s making an angle of 45o with horizontal. The
(3) 4 m/s2 (4) 5 m/s2 equation for the trajectory is h = Ax – Bx2 where
32. A cricketer hits a ball with a velocity 25 m / s h is height, x is horizontal distance, A and B
at 60 o above the horizontal. How far above are constants. The ratio A : B is (g = 10 ms–2)
the ground it passes over a fielder 50 m from (1) 1 : 5 (2) 5 : 1 (3) 1 : 40 (4) 40 : 1
the bat (assume the ball is struck very close to 39. The equation of motion of a projectile are given
the ground) (g = 9.8 m/s2) by x = 36 t metre and 2y = 96 t – 9.8 t2 metre.
The angle of projection is
(1) 8.2 m (2) 9.0 m
(3) 11.6 m (4) 12.7 m -1 æ4ö 3
-1 æ ö
(1) sin ç 5 ÷ (2) sin ç 5 ÷
è ø è ø
33. A projectile is given an initial velocity of
(iˆ + 2ˆj) m/s, where î is along the ground and ĵ
4
-1 æ ö 3
-1 æ ö
is along the vertical. If g = 10m/s2, the equation (3) sin ç 3 ÷ (4) sin ç 4 ÷
è ø è ø
of its trajectory is

4/19 ADI/3002CM300218010
 Nurture Course/Phase - I & II/16-09-2018
40. Which of the following is the graph between
the height (h) of a projectile and time (t), when
it is projected from the ground
h h
(1)

(1) (2)
O t O t

h h

(3) (4) (2)

O t O t

41. Which of the following is the altitude-time

graph for a projectile thrown horizontally from
the top of the tower
h

(3)
(1)
O t

(2)
(4)
O t

h
43. At what point of a projectile motion
acceleration and velocity are perpendicular to
(3)
each other
O t (1) At the point of projection
h (2) At the point of drop
(3) At the topmost point
(4) (4) Any where in between the point of
O t
projection and topmost point
44. An object is projected at an angle of 45° with
42. A batsman hits a sixer and the ball touches the the horizontal. The horizontal range and the
ground outside the cricket ground. Which of maximum height reached will be in the ratio.
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1
the following graph describes the variation of 45. The maximum horizontal range of a projectile
the cricket ball's vertical velocity v with time is 400 m. The maximum value of height
attained by it will be
between the time t1 as it hits the bat and time (1) 100 m (2) 200 m
t2 when it touches the ground (3) 400 m (4) 800 m

ADI/3002CM300218010 5/19
 Target : Pre-Medical 2020/16-09-2018
46. How many p and s bond are present in 51. The higher homologue of dimethylamine
ehthylene : (CH3–NH–CH3) has the structure :

(1) 5 s, 1 p (2) 3 s, 3 p (1) CH 3 - N - CH 3

|
(3) 2 s, 4 p (4) 4 s, 2 p CH3
47. The number of s and p bonds in the following (2) CH3–CH2–CH2–NH2
molecule is respectively :
(3) CH3–NH–CH 2–CH3
O
(4) CH 3 - N - CH 3
|
NH 3

O 52. IUPAC name of (CH3)2CHCH(CH3)2 is :

(1) 19 s bonds, 6p bonds (1) 2,2–Dimethylbutane

(2) 20 s bonds, 5p bonds (2) 2,3–Dimethylbutane

(3) 2,4–Dimethylbutane
(3) 19 s bonds, 5p bonds
(4) 1–Methylpentane
(4) 20 s bonds, 6p bonds 53. The correct structure of 6-Ethyl-2,3,5-
trimethylnonane is :
48. The number of primary, secondary and tertiary
carbons in the following structure are
respectively :
(1) (2)
CH2–CH3

CH2– CH – CH3
CH3 (3) (4)

(1) 6, 3, 3 (2) 3, 6, 3 (3) 3, 6, 2 (4) 3, 2, 1

54. The correct IUPAC name of the following
49. Which of the following compound has sp, sp2 compound is :
and sp3 hybrid carbon atoms ?
F I
H2C CH3
(1) C=C=C C
H H

(2) CH3–CH=CH–CH=CH2 Cl C CH2

CH2 CH 2 Br
(3) CH3 – C º C – C º CH
(1) 4 – B r o m o – 1 – c h l o r o – 2 – f l u o r o i o d o -
(4) CH2 = CH – C º CH methylbutene
50. The number of sp 2–sp2 hybrid s bonds in the (2) 4-Bromo–2–chloromethyl–1–fluoro–1–
following compound is : iodobut–1-ene
(3) 2–(2 Bromoethyl)–3–chloro–1–fluoro–1–
iodoprop–1–ene
(4) 1–Bromo–3–Chloromethyl–4–fluoro–4–
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6 iodobut–1–ene

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 Nurture Course/Phase - I & II/16-09-2018
55. In which of the following side chain (acyclic 58. The correct structure of 6-Amino-4-
chain) is the main chain ? hydroxycyclohex-2-ene-1-sulphonic acid is :

SO 3H SO3H
NH2
(1)
(1) (2)
HO HO NH 2

SO3H SO3H
NH 2
(2) (3) (4)
NH 2
OH HO

59. Which of the following represents neopentyl

alcohol ?
(3) (1) CH3CH(CH3)CH2CH2OH
(2) (CH3)3C.CH2OH
(3) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
(4) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH2
60. IUPAC name of the following molecule is :
CH2OH
(4)

COOH
(1) 4-Hydroxy methyl-1-carboxy cyclohex-3-
56. IUPAC name of the compound
CH = CH–CHCH2CH3
ene
(2) 4-Hydroxy methyl cyclohex-3-ene
CH3 is
carboxylic acid
(1) 1–Cyclohexyl–3-methylpent-1-ene (3) 1-Hydroxy methyl cyclohexene–
4-carboxylic acid
(2) 3–Methyl-5-cyclohexylpent-1-ene (4) 4-(Hydroxy methyl cyclohex-3-enyl)
(3) 1–Cyclohexyl–3–ethylbut–1–ene ethanioic acid
61. Which one of the following is the heterocyclic
(4) 1–Cyclohexyl–3,4–dimethylbut–1–ene
compound ?
57. The correct IUPAC name of the compound (1) Benzene (2) Thiophene
(3) Phenol (4) Aniline
62. Which one is the wrong statement ?
is (1) Saturated hydrocarbons are called alkenes
(2) Open - chain compounds are called
aliphatic
(1) 4–Ethyl–3–methylnonane–2,8–diol
(3) Unsaturated hydrocarbons contain double
(2) 6–Ethyl–7–methylnonane–2,8–diol or triple bond (bonds) between carbon
atoms
(3) 5–Ethyl–1,6,7–trimethyleptane–1,7–diol
(4) Aromatic compounds possess a
(4) 4–Ethyl–2-methylnonane–2,7–diol characteristic aroma

ADI/3002CM300218010 7/19
 Target : Pre-Medical 2020/16-09-2018
63. For the reaction, N 2 O4 (g) ƒ 2NO 2 (g) ; if (1) high pressure, high temperature and low
percentage dissociation of N2O4 are 25%, 50%, pressure, low temperature
75% and 100%, then the sequence of observed
(2) low pressure, low temperature and high
vapour densities will be :-
pressure, low temperature
(1) d1 > d2 > d3 > d4
(3) high pressure, low temperature and low
(2) d4 > d3 > d2 > d1 pressure, high temperature
(3) d1 = d2 = d3 = d4 (4) low pressure, high temperature and high
(4) (d1 = d2) > (d 3 = d4) pressure, high temperature

64. On heating a mixture of SO2Cl2 and CO, two
equilibria are simultaneously established :
SO2Cl2(g) ƒ SO2(g) + Cl2(g)
CO(g) + Cl2(g) ƒ COCl 2(g)
On adding more SO2 at equilibrium what will
happen ?
(1) Amount of CO will decrease
(2) Amount of SO2Cl2 and COCl2 will increase
67. Which of the following conditions will shift the
equilibrium position to the forward direction ?
4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) ƒ 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g) + heat
(1) increasing the temperature
(2) increasing the pressure
(3) adding a catalyst
(4) none of these

(3) Amount of CO will remain unaffected 68. The number of OH– ion in 1 mL of solution
having pH = 4 is :-
(4)Amount of SO2Cl2 and CO will increase
(1) 10–4 (2) 10–10
65. Consider the reactions,
(i) PCl5 (g) ƒ PCl3 (g) + Cl2(g) (3) 6.02 × 10 10 (4) 6.02 × 10 13

(ii) N2O4 (g) ƒ 2NO2(g) 69. If the concentration of [H+] ion in a solution
is 3.5 × 10–4 N, then determine the pOH of the
The addition of an inert gas at constant volume: solution :-
(1) will increase the dissociation of PCl5 as well (1) 3.46 (2) 10.54 (3) 14 (4) 7
as N2O4 70. The hydrogen ion concentration in a solution
of weak acid of dissociation constant K a and
(2) will reduce the dissociation of PCl5 and as
concentration c is nearly equal to :-
well as N2O4
Ka c
(3) will increase the dissociation of PCl 5 and (1) (2) K (3) Kac (4) Kac
step up the formation of NO2 C a

(4) will not disturb the equilibrium of the 71. For a given solution pH = 6.9 at 90°C, where.
The solution is :-
reactions
(1) acidic (2) basic
66. In a two step exothermic reaction, (3) neutral (4) unpredictable

A2(g) + B2(g) ƒ 3C(g) ƒ D(g)

I II 72. Ostwald's dilution law is applicable in the case
of the solution of :
Step (I) and step (II) are favoured in forward (1) CH3COOH (2) NaCl
reaction respectively by :- (3) NaOH (4) H2SO4

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 Nurture Course/Phase - I & II/16-09-2018
73. The pH of a 0.005 M aqueous solution of 82. An acid solution of pH 6 is diluted 100 times.
sulphuric acid is approximately : The pH of the solution becomes :-
(1) 0.005 (2) 2 (3) 2.3 (4) 0.01 (1) 6 (2) 6.95 (3) 4 (4) 8
74. The pH of the solution obtained by mixing 10
83. The ionization constant of CH 3COOH is
mL of 10–1 N HCl and 10 mL of 10–1 N NaOH
is : 1.8 × 10–5. The concentration at which it will
be dissociated to 2% is :-
(1) 8 (2) 2
(3) 7 (4) none of these (1) 1 M (2) 0.045 M
–8
75. When 10 mole of HCl is dissolved in one litre (3) 0.018 M (4) 0.45 M
of water, the pH of the solution will be :
84. The pH of 0.5 M aqueous solution of
(1) 8 (2) almost 7
HF (Ka = 2 × 10–4) is :-
(3) above 8 (4) below 6
76. At 60ºC, p Kw
may be :- (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 10
(1) 10–14 M2 (2) 10–13 M2 85. The number of H+ ions in 1 cm3 of a solution
(3) 10–16 M2 (4) 10–15 M2 of pH = 13 is :-
77. If pH = 3.7, then [H+] is equal to :- (1) 6.023 × 107 (2) 1 × 10–13
–3 –4
(1) 2 × 10 M (2) 4 × 10 M
–7 –4
(3) 6.023 × 1013 (4) 1016
(3) 3 × 10 M (4) 2 × 10 M
78. What is the pH of an aqueous solution of 0.1 86. pH of 0.1M solution of a monoacidic weak
M HCN at 25ºC ? base is 10.5 calculate PKb :-
(1) < 1 (2) > 1 (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7
(3) =1 (4) unpredictable 87. The solution having pH 11 is :-
79. x X (g) ƒ y Y(g) + zZ(g)
(1) 10–11 M NaOH (2) 10–3 M HCl
The given equilibrium shifts to the right side
(3) 10–3 M NaOH (4) 103 M NaOH
on increasing pressure if :-
88. The pH of a solution is 2. Its pH is to be
(1) x < (y + z) (2) x = (y + z)
changed to 4. Then the [H +] of the original
(3) x £ (y + z) (4) x > (y + z) solution has to be :-
80. A(g) ƒ B(g) + 2C(g) (1) halved (2) doubled
If vapour density of A is D initially, then
1
vapour density after complete dissociation d (3) 100 times (4) times
100
is :-
89. The pH of the solution obtained by mixing
D D equal volumes of solutions of pH = 5 and
(1) d = (2) d =
2 3 pH =3 of the same electrolyte is of :-
(1) 3.3 (2) 4.0 (3) 4.5 (4) 2.0
2D 3D
(3) d = (4) d = 90. How much water should be added to 10g
3 2
CH 3 COOH to give a hydrogen ion
81. The pH value of a decimolar solution of concentration equal to 1.0 × 10 –3 M
NH4OH which is 20% ionized, is :-
(given Ka = 1.8 × 10–5 M) :-
(1) 1.7 (2) 3.8 (3) 12.30 (4) 12.95
(1) 4L (2) 6L (3) 5L (4) 3L

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 Target : Pre-Medical 2020/16-09-2018
91. The Innermost layer of the heart is a thin 97. Select odd with respect to the Purkinje’s fibre :
endothelial layer resting on a layer of
(1) The electrical resistance is 1/400 than the
(1) epithelial tissue normal cell.
(2) connective tissue (2) It is self excitatory.
(3) muscular tissue (3) It can generate action potential for cardiac
(4) nervous tissue systole.
92. The blood pressure in pulmonary aorta is (4) It is distributed in pareital & visceral
pericardium.
(1) similar to the systemic aorta
(2) half of the systemic aorta 98. Select the correct statements w.r.t. SA node :
(1) S.A. node is pace setter.
1
(3) to the systemic aorta
6 (2) It is present in left margin of right atrium.
(4) higher than the systemic aorta (3) It is made up of specialised myocardial cell.
93. Select the incorrect for the human heart ? (4) It is the part of sympathetic nervous system.
(1) It is situated between the two lung. 99. Select the incorrect statements w.r.t. heart ?
(2) It is made up of cardiac muscles and
1
pericardium only. (1) Rate of heart beat µ of animal
size
(3) Heart is slightly larger than your fist.
(2) Blood pressure µ size of animal
(4) Heart is made up of straited muscles but not
connected to bone. 1
(3) Rate of heart beat µ
Blood pressure
94. Endocardiatis refers to
1
(1) deflammed endocardium (4) Size of heart µ
Size of animal
(2) inflammed endocardium 100. Select the correctly matched :
(3) damage to endocardium
(1) Heart of Human – Sinus venous present at
(4) damage to trabeculae carnae dorsal side of atrium.
95. Which of the following is made up of (2) Pulmonary vein – Opening regulated by
myocardium ? valves
(1) Sino Atrial Node (3) Post caval opening – guarded by valve
(2) Atrioventricular Node (4) Opening of pulmonary artery – Flap shaped
(3) Purkinje’s cell valve present
(4) Both (1) and (2) 101. Which of the following valve merge into the
96. Which of the following is not the part of self musculature of their respective veins after
excitatory neuromuscular pathway ? birth ?

(1) Inter nodal pathway (1) Thebesian valve and Eustechian valve

(2) Atrioventricular bundle (2) Thebesian and semilunar valve

(3) Intervertebral septum (3) Semilunar and Mittral valve

(4) A.V. Node (4) Tricuspid and Haversian valve

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102. Haemoglobin protein in aquous solution :
(1) perform the same function as in RBC
(2) Toxic to kidneys
(3) Toxic to liver
(4) remains insoluble
103. Which of the following can be used as oxygen
carrying blood substitute ?
(1) Aquous solution of haemoglobin
(2) CFC solution
(3) Perfluro carbons
(4) All of these
104. A : Activation or deactivation of the
parasympathetic nervous system has little effect
on overall blood vessel diameters.
R : Most of blood vessels do not have
parasympathetic nerves.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.
105. Nodal tissue is made up of
(1) specialised epithelial tissue
(2) specialised connective tissue
(3) specialised muscular tissue
(4) specialised nervous tissue
106. The medulla oblongata of brain has CAC and
CIC which can
(1) switch off and switch on the SAN and AVN
(2) moderate the cardiac diastole
(3) moderate the cardiac systole
(4) All of these
107. S.A. node and A.V. node is made up special
tissue present in the form of
(1) Node of cells
(2) Patches of cells
(3) equally distributed mass of cell
(4) All of these
ADI/3002CM300218010
Nurture Course/Phase - I & II/16-09-2018
108. Which of the following heart sound can be
easily heard by use of stethoscope ?
(1) S1, S2, S3 & S4 (2) S1, S2 & S3
(3) S1 & S2 (4) S3 & S4
109. During joint diastole the cardiac impulse passes
from :
(1) SAN ® AVN
(2) AVN ® SAN
(3) Purkinje’s fibre ® AVN
(4) None
110. Blood pressure in the mammalian aorta is
maximum during :
(1) diastole of the right atrium
(2) systole of the left atrium
(3) diastole of the right ventricle
(4) systole of the left ventricle
111. In foetus, ductus arteriosus connects :
(1) aorta and pulmonary artery
(2) aorta and pumonary vein
(3) hepatic and pancreatic duct
(4) pulmonary artery and vein
112. Myocardial infarction is caused by
(1) hardening of arteries
(2) lumpy thickness develop in the inner walls
of arteries
(3) clot may occur in the lumen of a coronary
artery.
(4) sudden interruption in blood flow towards
a portion of heart.
113. There is no DNA in :
(1) hair root
(2) an enucleated ovum
(3) mature RBCs
(4) a mature spermatozoan
114. Compared to blood our lymph has :
(1) more RBCs and less WBCs
(2) no plasma
(3) plasma without proteins
(4) more WBCs and no RBCs
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 Target : Pre-Medical 2020/16-09-2018
115. Match the column-I with Column-II and select 118. Which is correctly matched in the given table ?
the correct option from the codes given ahead :
Group No. of Type of Blood is
chambers circulation oxygenated
Column - I Column - II in heart by
1 Fish 1 Single Gills
Carries deoxygenated Incomplete
(A) Superior vena cava 1 Skin/Lungs/
blood to lungs 2 Amphibia 3 double
Gills
circulation
Carries oxygenated Double
(B) Inferior vena cava 2 3 Reptiles 3 Lungs
blood from lungs circulation
Double
Brings deoxygenated 4 Birds 4 Cloaca/Lungs
circulation
blood from lower part
(C) Pulmonary artery 3
of body to right 119. Figure shows blood circulation in humans with
artium labels A to D. Select the option which gives
correct identification of lable and functions of
Brings deoxygenated the part :
blood from upper part
(D) Pulmonary vein 4
of body to right
artium

A B C D
(1) 2 4 3 1
(2) 4 1 2 3
(3) 4 3 1 2
(4) 4 1 3 2
116. Match the column-I with column-II :
Column - I Column - II
(A) Open system 1 Scoliodon
(B) Double circulation 2 Cockroach (1) B-Capillary-thin, without muscle layers and
(C) Close system 3 Frog wall two cell thick
(2) C-Vein-thin walled and blood flows in
Incomplete double
(D) 4 Rabbit jerks/spurts.
circulation
(3) D-Pulmonary vein-takes oxygenated blood
(E) Single circulation 5 Earthworm
to heart PO2 = 95 mm Hg
(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4, E-5
(2) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1, E-5 (4) A – Artery-thick walled and blood flows
slowly
(3) A-2, B-4, C-5, D-3, E-1
(4) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4, E-5 120. In which septum it is normal to find opening
117. In human, blood passes from the post caval to in the adult ?
the diastolic right atrium of heart due to : (1) Interatrial septum
(1) stimulation of the sino auricular node (2) Interventricular septum
(2) pressure difference between the post caval
(3) Artioventricular spetum
and atrium
(3) pushing open of the venous valves (4) All of the above
(4) suction pull

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 Nurture Course/Phase - I & II/16-09-2018
121. Which of the following lists the valves in the 126. When compared to normal subject, trained
order through which the blood flows from the athletes have a :
vena cava through the heart ? (1) smaller stroke volume
(1) Tricuspid, pulmonary semilunar, bicuspid, (2) slower resting heart rate
aortic semilunar
(3) smaller heart
(2) Mitral, pulmonary semilunar, bicuspid,
(4) decrease in the number of mitochondria in
aortic semilunar
skeletal muscle fibres
(3) Aortic semilunar, pulmonary semilunar,
tricuspid, bicuspid 127. Propagation of the action potential through the
heart is fastest in the :
(4) Bicuspid, aortic semilunar, tricuspid,
pulmonary semilunar (1) SA node (2) atrial muscle
122. Which of the following best describes veins ? (3) AV node (4) Purkinje fibres
(1) Thick walled, small lumens, low pressure, 128. The frequency of heartbeat in our body is
lack valves maintained by :
(2) Thin walled, large lumens, low pressure, (1) AV node (2) SA node
lack valves (3) bundle of His (4) chordae tendineae
(3) Thin walled, small lumens, high pressure, 129. In the given figure the durations of the events
have valves of the cardiac cycle are given. Identify these
(4) Thin walled, large lumens, low pressure, events and select the correct option :
have valves
123. In the uncomplicated patent ducts arteriosus, B
as might be seen in an infant 6 months of age,
A
blood flows from the aorta to the : C
(1) pulmonary vein (2) pulmonary aorta
(3) right ventricle (4) right atrium
A B C
124. The artio ventricular valves :
Auricular Ventriculr
(1) have three cusps for each valve 1 Joint diastole
systole systole
(2) their closure is initiated when the ventricular Ventriculr Auricular
2 Joint diastole
pressure exceds atrial pressure systole systole
(3) open by contraction of papillary muscles Ventriculr Auricular
3 Joint diastole
systole systole
(4) are prevented from prolapse by musculi
Joint Auricular Ventriculr
pectinati 4
diastole systole systole
125. How does the impulse to contract slow down
130. In a human cardiac cycle which of the
slightly before it is transferred into the
following statement is true ?
ventricles ?
(1) It makes a detour and travels to the brain (1) The time taken for one cardiac cycle
and back. increases in tachycardial

(2) There is a parasympathetic brake on the AV
node.
(3) Junction fibres leading into the AV node
have very small dameters.
(4) The skeleton of the heart prevents the
impulse from being transmitted rapidly.
(2) The time interval for joint diastole in heart
is about 0.1 seconds
(3) The time interval for joint systole in heart
is about 0.4 seconds
(4) Left ventricle takes 0.5 seconds to complete
one diastole

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 Target : Pre-Medical 2020/16-09-2018
131. In given ECG, end of T-wave marks : 136. How many animals are marine from given
below :
Aurelia, Sycon, Planaria, Limulus, Octopus,
Ophiura, Myxine, Pristis, Exocoetus
(1) Eight (2) Seven
(1) End of ventricular diastole
(3) Five (4) Four
(2) End of ventricular systole
137. Which of the following is known as typical
(3) Contraction of both atria
chordate ?
(4) Pulse
(1) Ascidia (2) Amphioxus
132. A normal electrocardiogram is composed of P-
wave a QRS complex and T-wave. Selct one (3) Lamprey (4) Trygon
correct option of these waves : 138. Which animals has similar larva to bipinnaria
of echinodermates ?
P-wave QRS-wave T-wave (1) Branchiostoma (2) Doliolum
Repolarisation Repolarisation Repolarisation (3) Saccoglossus (4) Pila
1
of atria of ventricles of ventricles
139. Which of the following function is not
Depolarisation Depolarisation Repolarisation performed by water vascular system ?
2
of atria of ventricles of atria
(1) Transport of food (2) Locomotion
(3) Reproduction (4) Respiration
By counting the
number of QRS 140. In which of the following notochord is absent ?
Depolarisationof waves in a given Repolarisation (1) larva of Branchiostoma
3
both artia time one of ventricles
can determine (2) larva of Ascidia
the heart rate (3) Adult Salpa
(4) Adult Amphioxus
Repolarisation Depolarisation Repolarisation
4 141. Animal has true calcareous endoskeleton
of atria of ventricles of ventricles
(1) Sea lily (2) Balanoglossus
133. Which of the following is called graveyard of (3) Ascidia (4) Lancelet
RBC ? 142. Which of the following is present in all
(1) Liver (2) Kidney molluscans without any exception ?
(3) Spleen (4) Intestine (1) Radula
134. Artificial blood vessel can be formed from :
(2) Visceral hump
(1) Silicon (2) Decron
(3) Unsegmented body
(3) Nylon (4) All of these
(4) Shell
135. The most common cause of myocardial
infarcation is 143. Choose correctly matched option :

(1) blockage in LADA (1) Neries – Jointed appendages

(2) failure of S.A.N. (2) Loligo – Radula for feeding
(3) Hypertension (3) Ancyclostoma – flame cells of excretion
(4) blockage in circumflex branch (4) Pleurobranchia – comb plates of locomotion

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 Nurture Course/Phase - I & II/16-09-2018
144. (a) Cnidoblasts are present for anchorage and 151. Which of the following is not true about
defence. Balanoglossus ?
(b) Exhibit two body form polyp and medusa. (1) Circulatory system is of open type.

(c) Show metagenesis. (2) Excretory organ is proboscis gland.

(3) Sexes are not separate.
(d) Skeleton composed of calcium carbonate.
(4) Respiration takes place through gills.
How many statements are true for Adamsia ?
152. Notochord absent in
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
(1) Larva of Ascidia
145. Which of the following is not true for (2) Larva of Balanoglossus
Euspongia ?
(3) Adult Ascidia
(1) Water vascular system helpful in food (4) Both (2) and (3)
gathering, respiratory exchange and
153. Choose an incorrect statement about the
removal of waste.
phylum of given animals :
(2) Sexes are not separate.
(3) Choanocytes line the spongocoel and the
canals.
(4) Multicellular animals with cellular level of
body organisation.
146. Which has a sucking circular mouth without
jaw ? (1) Body is covered by a calcareous shell.
(2) The mouth contains a file like rasping organ
(1) Trygon (2) Myxine
of feeding, called radula.
(3) Clarias (4) Ichthyophis
(3) The gills have respiratory and excretory
147. Which of the following is not belongs to functions.
vertebrates ? (4) They are usually monoecious and
(1) Bufo (2) Hippocampus oviparous.
(3) Lamprey (4) Branchiostoma 154. In given fi gure Animal-A differs from

148. How many vertebrates found in marine water ? Animal-B in lacking of

Ctenoplana, Amphioxus, Trygon, Carcharodon,

Exocoetus, Echinus, Octopus, Aplysia
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Six
149. Which animal has incomplete digestive tract ?
(1) Ancyclostoma (2) Neries
(3) Taenia (4) Planaria
150. Which of the following is not a dioecious ?
(1) Neries (2) Wuchereria
(3) Culex (4) Hirudinaria Animal - A Animal - B

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 Target : Pre-Medical 2020/16-09-2018
(a) Two chambered heart 158. Select correct statements about given diagram.
(b) Air bladder
(c) Operculum
(d) Notochord Persistent
(e) Placoid scale
(f) Ctenoid Scale
(g) Copulatory organ in male (a) One pair antennaes are present

(1) (b), (c) and (f) (2) (d), (e) and (g) (b) Excretion take place by malpighian tubules.

(3) (e) and (g) (4) (d), (f) and (g) (c) Body covered by chitinous exoskeleton.
155. Choose a mismatched option : (d) Respiration take place by gills.
(1) Balanoglossus – Excretion by proboscis (1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) One
glands 159. Choose an incorrectly matched option :
(2) Echinus – Excretion by water canal system
(1) Aplysia – Spirally coiled shell
(3) Doliolum – Notochord absent in adult
(2) Antedon – Water vascular system
(4) Pterophyllum – Oviparous and direct
(3) Wuchereria – vivparous round worm
development
(4) Ascidia – sexes are separate
156. Which of the following not true about
chordates ? 160. How many statements are true about given
animal ?
(1) Central nervous system is dorsal, hollow
and single.
(2) Pharyx perforated by gill slits.
(3) Myogenic pulsatine dorsal heart.
(4) Solid, rod like notochord present ventral to
nerve cord.
157. Match the column - I and column - II and (a) They have a water transport system.
choose a correct option : (b) Their skeleton formed by spongin fibre.
Column - I Column - II (c) Choanocytes lines the spongocoel and the
Radial symmetry with canals.
(i) Doliolum (a)
three germ layers
(d) Sexes are separate.
Notochord present in
(ii) Lamprey (b) (1) Two (2) Three (3) One (4) Four
tail of larva
Ventral ganglionated 161. Metameric segmentation absent in
(iii) Ophiura (c)
nerve cord
(1) Laccifer (2) Ascidia
Anadromous migration
(iv) Pheretima (d) (3) Petromyzon (4) Balanoglossus
for spawing
(1) i - b, ii - a, iii - d, iv - c 162. All animals have closed blood circulatory
(2) i - b, ii - a, iii - c, iv - d system, except
(3) i - d, ii - b, iii - a, iv - c (1) Neries (2) Branchiostoma
(4) i - b, ii - d, iii - a, iv - c (3) Octopus (4) Saccoglossus

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 Nurture Course/Phase - I & II/16-09-2018
163. Which is not true about the given animal ? 167. Choose an incorrectly matched option :
(1) Sycon – Sexes are not separate.
(2) Meandrina – Their spongocoel lined by
choanocytes
(3) Ctenoplana – Eight combplates for
(1) They have unpaired fin for swimming
locomotion
(2) After spawing, within a few days, they die.
(4) Bombyx – metameric segmentation
(3) Close blood circulation with two chambered
168. In given figure Animal-B differs from
heart.
Animal -A in lacking of :
(4) Their larvae, after metamorphosis, return
to ocean for spawing.
164. Which animals has paired jointed appendages ?
(1) Salamandra (2) Pristis
(3) Culex (4) Neries
165. What is not true about given animals ?

Animal - A Animal - B
(a) Close blood circulatory system
(b) Radula
(c) Jointed appendages
(d) Visceral hump

(1) Body covered by placoid scales. (e) Metamerism

(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b) and (d)
(2) Four pairs gill slits covered by operculum.
(3) (c) and (e) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) Air bladder present which regulates
buoyancy. 169. Select an incorrect statement about given
animals :
(4) Found in marine water.
166. Choose an odd one about given diagram :

(1) 6-7 pair gill slits without operculum.

(2) They are cold blooded animals with
two chambered heart.
(3) The skin tough, containing minute placoid
scales.
(1) Aedes (2) Octopus (4) Fertilization usually external, mostly
(3) Ancyclostoma (4) Pheretima oviparous

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170. Choose correct statements about given 174. All of these has close blood circulatory system,
diagram : except one

(1) Myxine

(2) Carcharodon

(3) Branchiostoma

(4) Salpa

175. A : The arthropodes are considered first

(a) The heart is three chambered with two successful terrestrial invertebrate.
auricles and one ventricle.
R : Arthropods has chitinous exoskeleton,
(b) Skin is dry and cornified, covered by
jointed appendages and wings.
epidermal scales.
(c) They belong to class, which is consider first (1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the

true terrestrial vertebrates. Reason is a correct explanation of the

(d) They are poikilotherms. Assertion.
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a), (b), and (c) (2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
(3) (a) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d) Reason is not a correct explanation of the
171. What is not true about comb jellies ?
Assertion.
(1) Cnidoblast absent on tantacle’s.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(2) Digestion is both extracellular and
intracellular. (4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.
(3) Sexes are not separate. 176. The given figure represents :
(4) Reproduction usually take place by external
budding during unfavourable condition.
172. Match the Column - I with Column - II :
Column - I Co lumn - II
(i) Fasciola (a) Sexe s are sepa rates
(ii) Phy salia (b) Biolum inescence
(iii) Wuchereria (c) Sexe s are no t separates
(iv) Pleurob ranchia (d) Gastro-vascular cavity
(1) i - c, ii - a, iii - b, iv - d (1) An organism with blind sac body plan
(2) i - c, ii - d, iii - a, iv - b (2) A rare marine organism with some chordate
(3) i - b, ii - d, iii - a, iv - c
characters.
(4) i - c, ii - d, iii - b, iv - a
(3) A characteristic cell found in a certain group
173. Which of the following not belongs to phylum
chordata ? of organisms only.

(1) Ascidia (2) Balanoglossus (4) A characteristic cell found in a phylum

(3) Amphioxus (4) Trygon which is exclusively marine.

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177. The organisms shown in the diagram show 179. Cyclostomes differ from True fishes in :
difference in : (1) having cartilaginous exoskeleton
(2) Lacking paired fins
(3) Lacking scales and jaws
(4) Both (2) and (3)
180. The type of scales ocurring in chondrichthyes
is
(1) Ctenoid
(2) Conoid
(3) Placoid
(1) Habitat (4) None, they are scaleless
(2) Symmetry
(3) Types of Reproduction
(4) Cnidoblast
178. The organisms shown in the figure exhibit :

(i) Closed blood vascular system

(ii) Dorsal double nerve cord
(iii)Pseudocoelome
(iv)Segmental Nephridia
(v) Haemoglobin in blood
(vi)Pseudometamerism
(1) All except (ii) and (vi)
(2) All except (iii) and (vi)
(3) Only (i), (iv) and (v)
(4) Only (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)

ADI/3002CM300218010 19/19