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G-8 Science
S.Y. 2017-2018
Score
GENERAL DIRECTION: This is a 60 – item test. Read each direction written in every type of
test. Answer this test in one hour.
I. Multiple Choice: Choose the letter of the correct answer and write it on a separate sheet.
____ 3. What organ in the digestive tract grinds and churns food and store it temporarily?
a. Anus c. Mouth
b. Esophagus d. Stomach
____ 5. What method of digestion starts in the mouth where food is chewed and being broken down
to smaller pieces for easier digestion?
a. Chemical digestion c. Mechanical digestion
b. Cortical digestion d. Physical digestion
____ 7. What digestive disease develops sores in the lining of stomach, lower esophagus or small
intestine?
a. Hemophilia c. Celiac disease
b. Peptic Ulcer d. Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease
____ 9. What digestive disease is due to the lack of proper diet like not having enough fiber and
milk?
a. Heart burn c. Celiac disease
b. Peptic Ulcer d. Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease
____ 10. Which is used to treat diarrhea?
a. Analgesic c. Erythromycin
b. Ibuprofen d. Oral rehydration salt
____ 11. What digestive problem is characterized by a painful burning feeling in the chest or throat?
a. Heart burn c. Celiac disease
b. Peptic Ulcer d. Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease
____ 13. Which is NOT a healthful practice that affects the digestive system?
a. Eat on schedule c. Take excessive caffeine
b. Eat a high-fiber diet d. Limit foods that are high in fat
____ 16. Which disease is marked by soft and weak bones that can lead to skeletal deformities such
as bowed legs?
a. Constipation c. Rickets
b. Hypoglycemia d. Scurvy
____ 19. Which of the following refers to the identical copies formed by the replication of a
chromosome?
a. Twin chromatid c. Parent Chromatid
b. Sister chromatid d. Daughter Chromatid
____ 20. How many chromosomes does a normal human body has?
a. 22 c. 23
b. 46 d. 47
____ 21. What chromosomes attached to the spindle fiber at metaphase of the first meiotic division?
a. Double chromatids c. A tetrad of chromatids
b. Non-homologous pair d. Single chromatid strand
____ 22. How many daughter cells are produced by mitosis and meiosis respectively?
a. mitosis-1; meiosis-2 c. mitosis-2; meiosis-4
b. mitosis-2; meiosis-2 d. mitosis-1; meiosis-4
____ 23. The two identical chromosomes that result from DNA replication are referred to as sister
chromatids. At what region of the chromosome are they held together?
a. Centromere c. Centriole
b. Centrosome d. Cell plate
____ 24. What will happen to a person who receives three copies of chromosome 21?
a. They will have red eyes. c. They will exhibit polygenic traits.
b. They will have Down Syndrome d. They will display heightened intelligence.
____ 30. Down syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of all or part of a third copy of
chromosome 21. What type of chromosomal abnormality is Down syndrome?
a. autonomy c. Monosomy
b. Disomy d. Trisomy
____ 31. What chromosomal abnormality was derived from the French words means "cry of the cat,"
that refers to the distinctive cry of children with this disorder?
a. Down syndrome c. Klinefelter’s syndrome
b. Turner’s syndrome d. Cri-du-chat Syndrome
____ 32. What is the type of inheritance pattern where more than 2 varieties exist in a trait?
a. CoDominance c. Law of Dominance
b. Incomplete Dominance d. Multiple Alleles
____ 33. Which is the blending phenotype of an incomplete dominance when you cross red and a
white flower?
a. Red flower c. Yellow flower
b. Pink flower d. Orange flower
____ 37. Curly hair is a dominant trait. A woman who is homozygous for curly hair marries a
homozygous straight-haired man. What percent (%) of their children will have curly hair?
a. 10% curly hair c. 75% curly hair
b. 25% curly hair d. 100% curly hair
_____ 38. If the mother’s blood type is B and the child’s blood type is AB. What do you think is the
probable blood type of the father?
a. Type A c. Type C
b. Type B d. Type O
_____ 39. Assuming that both parent plants in the diagram below are homozygous, why would all of
the f1 generation have yellow phenotypes?
II. True or False: Write T if the statement is true, F if the statement is False.
____ 43. Genetic diversity is the total number of genetic characteristics in the genetic makeup of a
species.
____ 44. Species diversity is the variation in the ecosystems found in a region or the variation in
ecosystems over the whole planet.
____ 45. Food, health and shelter are the basic human needs that biodiversity could support.
____ 46. Combination of tropical rainforest, grasslands, tundra and desert is an example of an
ecosystem diversity found in a geographical location.
____ 47. There are 10 hierarchical levels in naming and classifying organisms.
____ 48. The six-kingdom classification are namely: Archaebacteria, Eubacteria, Protist, Fungi,
Plant, and Animal kingdoms.
____ 49. Every scientist and other people from different places would use the same name for the
same organism by scientific names.
____ 50. All fungal species are not harmful to other organisms and humans.
____ 51. Biodiversity boosts ecosystem productivity where each species, no matter how small, all
have an important role to play.
____ 52.High biodiversity means that a region supports a wide variety of species, while low
biodiversity implies that an area supports only a few.
____ 53. In a food chain, monkey-eating eagle is the primary producer.
____ 54. When the water moves out through the leaf pores and adds water vapor to the atmosphere
it is called transpiration.
III. Essay
55-56. Give two (2) healthful practices that could affect the digestive system.
57-58. Describe the chromosomal abnormality shown in the karyotype below. (Rubrics: 1 sentence
= 1 point, 2 sentences = 2 points)
59-60. Suggest two (2) ways to lessen environmental damage brought by human activities.
End of Examination
“It is true that experience is one of life’s best teachers. But if you don’t study you will probably never
get any experience in the first place”