Simcat9 PDF

8/25/2019 SIMCAT 9.
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The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to
each question.
Any universal concept of time must ultimately be based on the evolution of the cosmos itself. When
you look up at the universe you’re seeing events that happened in the past – it takes light time to
reach us. In fact, even the simplest observation can help us understand cosmological time: for
example the fact that the night sky is dark. If the universe had an infinite past and was infinite in
extent, the night sky would be completely bright – filled with the light from an infinite number of
stars in a cosmos that had always existed.
For a long time scientists, including Albert Einstein, thought that the universe was static and
infinite. Observations have since shown that it is in fact expanding, and at an accelerating rate.
This means that it must have originated from a more compact state that we call the Big Bang,
implying that time does have a beginning. In fact, if we look for light that is old enough we can even
see the relic radiation from Big Bang – the cosmic microwave background. Realising this was a
first step in determining the age of the universe.
But there is a snag, Einstein’s special theory of relativity, shows that time is … relative: the faster
you move relative to me, the slower time will pass for you relative to my perception of time. So in
our universe of expanding galaxies, spinning stars and swirling planets, experiences of time vary:
everything’s past, present and future is relative.
So is there a universal time that we could all agree on?
It turns out that because the universe is on average the same everywhere, and on average looks
the same in every direction, there does exist a “cosmic time”. To measure it, all we have to do is
measure the properties of the cosmic microwave background. Cosmologists have used this to
determine the age of the universe; its cosmic age. It turns out that the universe is 13.799 billion
years old.
So we know time most likely started during the Big Bang. But there is one nagging question that
remains: what exactly is time?
To unpack this question, we have to look at the basic properties of space and time. In the
dimension of space, you can move forwards and backwards; commuters experience this everyday.
But time is different, it has a direction, you always move forward, never in reverse. So why is the
dimension of time irreversible? This is one of the major unsolved problems in physics.
To explain why time itself is irreversible, we need to find processes in nature that are also
irreversible. One of the few such concepts in physics (and life!) is that things tend to become less
“tidy” as time passes. We describe this using a physical property called entropy that encodes how
ordered something is.
Imagine a box of gas in which all the particles were initially placed in one corner (an ordered state).
Over time they would naturally seek to fill the entire box (a disordered state) – and to put the
particles back into an ordered state would require energy. This is irreversible. It’s like cracking an
egg to make an omelette – once it spreads out and fills the frying pan, it will never go back to being
egg-shaped. It’s the same with the universe: as it evolves, the overall entropy increases.
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It turns out entropy is a pretty good way to explain time’s arrow. And while it may seem like the
universe is becoming more ordered rather than less – going from a wild sea of relatively uniformly
spread out hot gas in its early stages to stars, planets, humans and articles about time – it’s
nevertheless possible that it is increasing in disorder. That’s because the gravity associated with
large masses may be pulling matter into seemingly ordered states – with the increase in disorder
that we think must have taken place being somehow hidden away in the gravitational fields. So
disorder could be increasing even though we don’t see it.
But given nature’s tendency to prefer disorder, why did the universe start off in such an ordered
state in the first place? This is still considered a mystery. Some researchers argue that the Big
Bang may not even have been the beginning, there may in fact be “parallel universes" where time
runs in different directions.
1)
According to the passage, “the fact that the night sky is dark”, indicates …
that Big Bang may not have been the beginning of time.
that there is a beginning of time as we know it.
that light sources are few in our universe.
that the universe itself has always existed.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
This is a difficult question.
The darkness of the night sky is mentioned in order to point to the fact that light sources in the universe are finite as the
universe itself is finite. And this points to the fact that there is a point where the universe and therefore time, as we know
it, began. The first paragraph states: “If the universe had an infinite past and was infinite in extent, the night sky would
be completely bright – filled with the light from an infinite number of stars in a cosmos that had always existed.”
Option 1 is incorrect. The passage explains that ‘time’, as we know it, originated with Big Bang. Option 1 is contrary to
this. Eliminate option 1.
Option 2 is correct. The darkness of the night sky is an indication that there is a beginning for time as we know it. As the
first paragraph states, the universe clearly has a finite past, as can be inferred from the finite stars that light up the night
sky. Also, paragraph 2 states: “This means that it must have originated from a more compact state that we call the Big
Bang, implying that time does have a beginning.” Therefore, retain option 2.
Option 3 is incorrect. ‘Few’ is a relative term. The number of light sources is less important than the fact that light
sources are not infinite. But in an infinite universe the light sources would also be infinite. Reject option 3.
Option 4 is incorrect. The passage goes on to say that the universe had a definite beginning-- that it has not always
existed. Therefore, reject option 4.
Thus the correct answer is option 2.
Correct Answer:
that there is a beginning of time as we know it.
Time taken by you: 341 secs

Avg Time taken by all students: 231 secs
Your Attempt: Correct
% Students got it correct: 69 %
2)
Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
Light in the cosmos comes from stars.

Time has the same dimensions as space.

The Big Bang is not a generally accepted theory.
The universe is growing larger at a consistent rate.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
This is a question of medium difficulty.
Option 1 is correct. Refer to the last line of paragraph 1 – “If the universe had an infinite past and was infinite in extent,
the night sky would be completely bright – filled with the light from an infinite number of stars in a cosmos that had
always existed.” Thus, it is clear that the sources of light in the cosmos are stars. Retain option 1.
Option 2 is incorrect. The 7th paragraph states: “we have to look at the basic properties of space and time. In the
dimension of space, you can move forwards and backwards; commuters experience this everyday. But time is different,
it has a direction, you always move forward, never in reverse.” Thus, time does not have the same dimensions as
space does. Reject option 2.
Option 3 is incorrect. The passage mentions the Big Bang as a point of reference. For example, it states: “This means
that it must have originated from a more compact state that we call the Big Bang, implying that time does have a
beginning.” Though, at no point in the passage does it imply that the Big Bang is not a generally accepted theory.
Therefore, reject option 3.
Option 4 is incorrect. Refer paragraph 2 where it states: “For a long time scientists, including Albert Einstein, thought
that the universe was static and infinite. Observations have since shown that it is in fact expanding, and at an
accelerating rate.” The universe is expanding at an accelerating, and not a consistent rate. Therefore, reject option 4.
Correct Answer:
Light in the cosmos comes from stars.

Your Attempt: Wrong
3)
The passage implies that cosmic microwave background:
while ubiquitous, is a residue of starlight

is a radiation that pervades the cosmos
is proof of the entropy that is the property of all matter
is a measure of the inherent instability of the cosmos
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Option 1 is incorrect. The passage states: “In fact, if we look for light that is old enough we can even see the relic
radiation from Big Bang – the cosmic microwave background.” The cosmic microwave background is, therefore, said to
be a residue of the Big Bang, and not that of starlight. Reject option 1.
Option 2 is correct. The cosmic microwave background is said to be ‘the relic radiation from Big Bang’. The passage
also states: “It turns out that because the universe is on an average the same everywhere, and on average looks the
same in every direction, there does exist a “cosmic time”. To measure it, all we have to do is measure the properties of
the cosmic microwave background.” This implies that the cosmic microwave background is a radiation that can be
detected all through the universe; it is the relic radiation following the Big Bang, lingering in this measure. Retain option
2.
Option 3 is incorrect. Entropy is said to be a physical property that encodes how ordered something is. The cosmic
wave background, on the other hand, is said to be the residual radiation from the Big Bang that can be used to measure
the passage of time by studying the properties of the background radiation. The passage does not imply, therefore, that
this cosmic microwave background is the proof of entropy.
Reject option 3.
Option 4 is incorrect. The ‘inherent instability of the cosmos’ is too vague and unspecific an assessment to derive from
the contents of the passage and what it states about the cosmic microwave background. Reject option 4.
Correct Answer:
is a radiation that pervades the cosmos

4)
The fact that time is relative to position and speed can imply all of the following EXCEPT:
A human on earth can view a star that is yet to form.

The order in the cosmos is deceptive.
A powerful enough device can read the microwaves post the big bang.
The personal experience of time is individual and not uniform.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Option 1 is not implied in the passage and is therefore correct. There is nothing in the passage to imply that the future
can be ‘viewed’. The passage states: “In the dimension of space, you can move forwards and backwards; commuters
experience this every day. But time is different, it has a direction, you always move forward, never in reverse.” So, while
the radiation from the big bang can be read, the time that lies ahead is out of bounds to our understanding. Retain
option 1.
Option 2 is implied in the passage. The penultimate paragraph states: “It turns out entropy is a pretty good way to
explain time’s arrow. And while it may seem like the universe is becoming more ordered rather than less – going from a
wild sea of relatively uniformly spread out hot gas in its early stages to stars, planets, humans and articles about time –
it’s nevertheless possible that it is increasing in disorder.” The implication is that order in the cosmos is deceptive. Reject
option 2.
Option 3 is implied in the passage. Refer to the passage where it states: “It turns out that because the universe is on
average the same everywhere, and on average looks the same in every direction, there does exist a “cosmic time”. To
measure it, all we have to do is measure the properties of the cosmic microwave background.” Thus, option 3 is implied
in the passage. Reject option 3.
Option 4 is implied in the passage. Refer to the third paragraph: “…Einstein’s special theory of relativity, shows that time
is … relative: the faster you move relative to me, the slower time will pass for you relative to my perception of time. So in
our universe of expanding galaxies, spinning stars and swirling planets, experiences of time vary: everything’s past,
present and future is relative.” In other words, the personal experiencing of time is individual and not uniform. Reject
option 4.
Correct Answer:
A human on earth can view a star that is yet to form.

Your Attempt: Wrong
5)
According to the passage, which of the following could possibly give us a clue to explaining the
paradox of order in a universe that clearly prefers disorder?
The measure of time that is reflected in the cosmic waves such as x-rays and microwaves
The radiation measures from gravitational bodies, formed since the big bang
The evaluation of notional entities like relative time and relative space
The information that could be gleaned from gravitational fields
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Option 1 is incorrect. Refer to the passage where it states: “And while it may seem like the universe is becoming more
ordered rather than less – going from a wild sea of relatively uniformly spread out hot gas in its early stages to stars,
planets, humans and articles about time – it’s nevertheless possible that it is increasing in disorder. That’s because the
gravity associated with large masses may be pulling matter into seemingly ordered states – with the increase in disorder
that we think must have taken place being somehow hidden away in the gravitational fields.” The disorder is therefore
possibly hidden in the gravitational fields, according to the passage. There is no mention of x-rays in the passage.
Reject option 1.
Option 2 is incorrect. Radiation measure, from gravitational bodies, is not a concept that is referred to in the passage.
Reject option 2.
Option 3 – Measuring time and space is not connected with Entropy, in the passage. Reject option 3.
Option 4 is correct. The passage states that “…the gravity associated with large masses may be pulling matter into
seemingly ordered states – with the increase in disorder that we think must have taken place being somehow hidden
away in the gravitational fields.” Thus, according to the passage, the information contained in gravitational fields could
possibly give us a clue to understanding the paradox of order, in a world that clearly prefers disorder. Retain option 4.
Correct Answer:
The information that could be gleaned from gravitational fields

6)
According to the passage, which of the following is not true of entropy?
It is a property of all things in the cosmos.

The consequences of entropy cannot be reversed.
Entropy is the property that reveals the state of order of something.
Entropy explains the fact that microwaves are lingering remnants of things.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
This is an easy question.

Option 1 is true of Entropy and follows from what has been said in the passage. The passage states: “To explain why
time itself is irreversible, we need to find processes in nature that are also irreversible. One of the few such concepts in
physics (and life!) is that things tend to become less “tidy” as time passes.” Thus, all things are said to possess Entropy.
Reject option 1.
Option 2 is also true of Entropy and follows from the passage. Entropy defines the “processes in nature that are also
irreversible”. Therefore, it is true to state that the consequences of entropy cannot be reversed. Reject option 2.
Option 3 is the stated definition of Entropy -- that ‘a physical property called entropy encodes how ordered something is.’
Reject option 3.
Option 4 is correct. Microwaves are not defined in the passage and certainly cannot be said to be the “lingering remnants
of things”. Thus option 4 is not true of Entropy. Retain option 4.
Correct Answer:
Entropy explains the fact that microwaves are lingering remnants of things.

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The passage below is accompanied by a set of 4 questions. Choose the best answer to
each question.
Democracy is a powerful way of disrupting status quo, challenging power equations, shaking up
cliques and cartels, pockets of monopoly and exclusivity. The gift of modern democracy is that it
effects the change of power through the ballot box. This is a great achievement that we have found
a means of transferring power without bloodshed, to disrupt power non-violently.
However, once we choose to respect the ballot box, it means that we have tacitly agreed to
subordinate our personal will to the will of the collective. Does this mean that we have lost our right
to protest? Far from it. It is vital to retain our individual freedom of speech and expression, our
capacity to discern and dissent, to dialogue and debate. A democracy is only functional when
these individual freedoms are proudly enshrined and robustly protected.
Before we become vociferous champions of the cause of individual freedom, it is imperative that
we first become individuals. A system that has found ways to manipulate groups to vote en masse
– whether on the basis of caste, religion, gender, or even ideology – is not a true democracy. It is
feudalism in democratic garb.
A thriving democracy, like an authentic spiritual process, is based on the notion of individual
freedom. But only when individuals look beyond the lure of populist political and religious
propaganda can true democracy and true spirituality be born. In both cases, the individual
must emerge from peer pressure and cronyism, narrow group interests and power lobbies.
A true spiritual process is never authoritarian. It is always fluid, open-ended and open to debate.
This has always been the view of spirituality in this subcontinent. This is a culture of quest, not
commandment. Here what we consider to be ‘sacred’ can be debated. It does not have to be
obeyed. Even when beings believed to be divine appeared in this land – from Shiva to Krishna –
we did not simply obey them. We questioned them, debated with them. Likewise, the Indian

Constitution is not a set of commandments. If it were, it would be the political equivalent of religious
authoritarianism.
Once you emerge as an individual, it is important to realise that your freedom has an impact on
others. To live in a democracy means we have agreed to allow everyone the right to the same
freedoms. You may choose to protest a policy, or denounce a film, but if you shut down a city or
state to express your rage, you are muzzling other people’s liberties as well. This is personal whim
masquerading as freedom, irresponsibility masquerading as individual initiative.
The question we must ask ourselves as a nation is this: are we exercising our individual freedom
constructively or destructively? Is our freedom truly empowering or is it sabotaging other citizens’
right to well-being? Before we speak of individual freedom, we have to honestly ask a more
fundamental question: have we truly become responsible individuals yet?
1)
The author claims that democracy is a formidable system to bring about a shift in how power is
exercised, because:
It empowers citizens to make responsible voting decisions based on the competence of the
representatives and not on populist propaganda.
It provides citizens the right to protest.
It has the ability to disrupt the incumbent power structures.
It enables citizens to exercise power by electing representatives from among themselves for a
fixed-term.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Option 1 is incorrect. The passage does not suggest that democracy empowers citizens to make responsible voting
choices. In fact, paragraph 3 states that “A system that has found ways to manipulate groups to vote en masse –
whether on the basis of caste, religion, gender, or even ideology – is not a true democracy.” Thus, the author implies that
a democratic system could be manipulated to prevent responsible voting. Eliminate option 1.
Option 2 does not answer the specific question. Paragraph 2 states that, in a democracy, by submitting to the will of the
collective, we do not lose our right to protest. Also, you will notice in paragraph 1 that the passage does not suggest that
‘right to protest’ is what makes democracy a powerful way of disrupting the status quo or bringing about a shift in how
power is exercised. Eliminate option 2.
Option 3 is incorrect. Refer paragraph 1. The ability to disrupt power structures is not the sole reason as to why
democracy is called a powerful system. Power could also be disrupted by other systems of governance; though this may
be violent and involve bloodshed, which is not desirable. Thus we can eliminate option 3.
Option 4 is correct. Paragraph 1 states that “Democracy is a powerful way of disrupting status quo, challenging power
equations, [and so on]. The gift of modern democracy is that it effects thechange of power through the ballot box. It is
a great achievement that we have found a means of transferring power without bloodshed, to disrupt power non-
violently.”
Thus correct answer is option 4.
Correct Answer:
It enables citizens to exercise power by electing representatives from among themselves for a
fixed-term.


Your Attempt: Wrong
2)
According to the passage all of the following hypothetical events would undermine democracy
EXCEPT:
A political party filed a Public interest litigation to ban a film which is based on true events in
the life of that party’s founder.
In the national elections, voters from a particular state voted en masse for the Left- wing
communist party.
The Indian farmers association has endorsed the Right-wing nationalist party in general
elections, since the party has promised full loan waivers.
Workers of a state-level party ransacked shops that did not have signboards in the state’s
official language.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
This is a medium difficulty question.
Paragraph 3 states that “A system that has found ways to manipulate groups to vote en masse – whether on the basis of
caste, religion, gender, or even ideology – is not a true democracy.” The next paragraph states “… the individual must
emerge from peer pressure and cronyism, narrow group interests and power lobbies.” Also, the second last paragraph
states that “… it is important to realise that your freedom has an impact on others. …if you shut down a city or state to
express your rage, you are muzzling other people’s liberties as well.”
Option 2 is incorrect. “Voters voting en masse on the basis of an ideology” is not true democracy according to the
passage. Thus, voters from a particular state voting for the Left-wing communist party would undermine democracy and,
therefore, is not an exception. Eliminate option 2.
Option 3 is incorrect. Supporting a political party, based on narrow group interests like full loan waivers for farmers,
would undermine democracy. Eliminate option 3.
Option 4 is incorrect. Ransacking shops will amount to impacting other people’s liberties and not allowing the due
process of law to be followed. Thus, it would undermine democracy and is, therefore, not an exception. Eliminate option
4.
Option 1 is correct. Though, trying to stop the release of a film may amount to violating the freedom of speech and
expression, this case is an exception because the political party has followed the legal course of action by filing a PIL in
a court. Now, it is up to the court to decide if the right to privacy of the political party and its founder weighs against the
right to freedom of expression of the filmmakers.
Thus, the correct answer is option 1.
Correct Answer:
A political party filed a Public interest litigation to ban a film which is based on true events in the
life of that party’s founder.

Your Attempt: Wrong


3)
The central idea of the passage is that:
Democracy acts as an equalizer of power.

Democracy is the rule of the majority.
A functional democracy can only be built on a culture of rights and responsibilities.
Cronyism and factionalism can stifle democracy.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

The passage extols democracy as the best form of government that can “disrupt status quo, challenge power equations,
shake up cliques and cartels, pockets of monopoly and exclusivity” nonviolently. The writer, then points out how the
system can be manipulated by vested interests and how individual freedom is closely related to individual responsibility.
In brief, the writer is concerned about describing how a democratic system of governance ought to be functioning.
From this point of view, options 1, 2, and 4 present different aspects of democracy and not the complete gist of the
essay. Option 1 talks only about the disruption of status quo and power equations. Option 2 merely defines democracy,
and option 4 highlights two of the potential risks faced by democracy. They are, thus, inadequate to represent the
central idea of the passage.
Option 3, on the other hand, captures the main argument in the passage. Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
Correct Answer:
A functional democracy can only be built on a culture of rights and responsibilities.

4)
The writer invokes “spirituality’ in the context of Indian Constitution for which of the following
reasons?
Indian Constitution is the political equivalent of the religious texts of the subcontinent.
Indian Constitution is considered sacred.
Indian Constitution allows amendments and discussions of its fundamental laws.
Indian Constitution is akin to religious authoritarianism.
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Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
Time taken by you: xx secs
Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs
Your Attempt: xx secs
% Students got it correct: xx secs
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The passage below is accompanied by a set of 3 questions. Choose the best answer for
each question.
Danino has expressed dissatisfaction that many genetic studies have attributed the ‘spread of
agriculture’ into the subcontinent to migrations. Just to be sure that no one thinks that the practice
of agriculture is in the genes, I would like to point out that the spread of the technology of
agriculture was associated with the movement of people; agriculturists who took the technology to
new regions and taught it to the locals in the new region. Movement of people implies movement of
genes. Some migrants ‘export’ their genes to a new region by taking spouses from the new region
and producing children with them who stay in the new region. We can never be sure that the
attribution of agriculture having been introduced to the Indian subcontinent by migrants is fully true.
However, genetic data do support this model, especially of the spread of modern, organized
agriculture.
Having said this, I must also emphasize, once again, that collection of more extensive data is
always more helpful in understanding our past and of the spread of our inventions and innovations.
A Y-chromosomal signature, haplogroup J, was shown to be associated with the spread of modern
agriculture. This signature has its highest frequency in the Fertile Crescent region – the region
comprising the present-day countries of Syria, Lebanon, Turkey – where the technology of modern
agriculture was invented about 7,000–10,000 years ago. Collection of deeper data showed that this
signature is quite heterogeneous and is composed of at least four sub-signatures, one of which –
haplogroup J2b2 – is confined to the India–Pakistan region.
This sub-signature arose over 13,000 years ago and hence its introduction into India could not
have been by migrants who introduced modern agriculture into India. We showed that the
haplogroup J2b2 possibly arose in India, because the highest frequency of this haplogroup is found
in India. We discovered multiple epicentres of this haplogroup in India and interestingly these
epicentres neatly coincided with the seats of introduction of early forms of agriculture in India (as
evidenced by the study of fossilized pollen grains by Fuller and his team). It is unlikely that
haplogroup J arose independently multiple times in geographically separated places. It probably
arose in an ancient population who had spread themselves in geographically separated regions
and they invented rudimentary forms of agriculture independently in multiple geographical regions.
However, it is notable that these early forms of agriculture remained largely confined to India and
Pakistan region.
1)
Danino believed that genetic studies, which “attributed the ‘spread of agriculture’ into the Indian
subcontinent to migrations,” are:
incorrect because migrants did not introduce agriculture into the subcontinent.
true because it was indeed migrants who introduced agriculture into the subcontinent.
only partially correct as early forms of agriculture were indigenously developed in the
subcontinent.
originally results of expert intuition but later validated by an improved ability to decipher
evidence.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

The passage begins by stating Danino’s dissatisfaction with the presently accepted genetic studies that attribute the
spread of agriculture into the subcontinent to migration. The passage, then, relates the advent and spread of agriculture
to genetic studies. A “Y-chromosomal signature haplogroup J” is believed to be associated with the spread of modern
agriculture, because the gene has its highest frequency in the Fertile Crescent region, where modern agriculture was
invented 7000 to 10000 years ago. However, the haplogroup J has four sub signatures, one of them being haplogroup
j2b2. This group which is specific to the India- Pakistan region arose 13000 years ago. And, the India-Pakistan region
has had early forms of agriculture, unique to this region, much before when modern agriculture originated in the Fertile
Crescent. Modern, organized agriculture then spread to other regions including the India-Pakistan region.
However, in the first paragraph itself, the spread of modern agriculture is attributed to migrants: “However, genetic data
do support this model,(referring to the spread of agriculture in the subcontinent) especially of modern organized
agriculture.” Hence, Danino believed that the studies were only partially correct. Option 3 precisely expresses this idea.
Option 1 is incorrect. The option is tricky. While it is true that migrants did not introduce (in the sense of originate)
agriculture as a practice, this fact is also derived from genetic studies. Hence, the statement that Danino believed
genetic studies to be incorrect is misleading. Eliminate option 1.
Option 2 is factually incorrect – the studies did not show that agriculture was introduced by migrants. The passage says
that rudimentary forms of agriculture were indigenously developed. Reject option 2.
Option 4 is incorrect. The passage does not state anything about expert intuitions and how they were validated later. The
option is unrelated to the passage and irrelevant to the question; it acts as a mere distractor. So, reject option 4.
Correct Answer:
only partially correct as early forms of agriculture were indigenously developed in the
subcontinent.

2)
It can be inferred from the passage that the study of “fossilized pollen grains” …
helps reconstruct the forms of past vegetation.

helps detect the genetic makeup of plants.
helps trace the genetic mutations of cultivated plants.
helps trace the genes of the cultivators.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
This question is of medium difficulty.

The mention of study of “fossilized pollen grains” is made quite briefly in the passage. The third paragraph states, “We
discovered multiple epicentres of this haplogroup in India and interestingly these epicentres neatly coincided with the
seats of introduction of early forms of agriculture in India (as evidenced by the study of fossilized pollen grains by Fuller
and his team).”
The writer takes the technical details for granted, and implies that the study of fossilized pollen is related to the existence
of rudimentary forms of agriculture in that place. A general reader of the article can draw only this inference and nothing
more.
The closest option to this idea is option 1– that the study of fossilized pollen can help archeologists reconstruct the
vegetation of that time. This reconstruction has to precede any conclusion about what type of vegetation it was –
whether agriculture or, simply, natural growth. Option 1, hence, cannot be disputed and is the correct answer to this
question.
Options 2 and 3 are technical statements. They may be correct. But only a technocrat or a biotechnology expert can
make these inferences, based on their technical knowledge. Reject options 2 and 3.

Option 4, which says that the genes of the cultivators can be traced by looking at the fossilized pollen grains, appears
far- fetched even for an ordinary reader. Reject option 4 as well.
Hence the correct answer is option 1.
Correct Answer:
helps reconstruct the forms of past vegetation.

Your Attempt: Wrong
3)
All of the following statements are true according to the passage EXCEPT:
The genetic signature haplogroup J caused the invention of agriculture.

The haplogroup J2b2 probably arose in India.
The spread of the technology of agriculture was associated with the movement of people.
The haplogroup J has more sub-signatures than just J2b2.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

The third paragraph states thus: ‘We showed that the haplogroup J2b2 possibly arose in India, because the highest
frequency of this haplogroup is found in India.’ From this, it is clear that option 2 is true.
Similarly, the author, in the first paragraph states, ‘I would like to point out that the spread of the technology of agriculture
was associated with the movement of people; agriculturists who took the technology to new regions and taught it to the
locals in the new region’. Thus, option 3 is true as well.
The second paragraph mentions, ‘Collection of deeper data showed that this signature is quite heterogeneous and is
composed of at least four sub-signatures, one of which – haplogroup J2b2 – is confined to the India–Pakistan region’.
Hence, option 4 is also true.
However, the second paragraph also states that ‘haplogroup J was shown to be associated with the spread of modern
agriculture. This signature has its highest frequency in the Fertile Crescent region where the technology of modern
agriculture was invented’. We can thus conclude that there is a correlation between haplogroup J and agriculture.
However, the passage presents no data that can conclude that haplogroup J caused the invention of agriculture. Hence,
the presence of haplogroup J and agriculture in a particular region can be said to be just a case of correlation, and not
that of causation. In the first paragraph, the author cautions against such a mistaken belief. “Just to be sure that no one
thinks that the practice of agriculture is in the genes, I would like to point out that the spread of the technology of
agriculture was associated with the movement of people” Hence, option 1 cannot be said to be true.
Correct Answer:
The genetic signature haplogroup J caused the invention of agriculture.

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Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
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The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer for
each question.
A lack of restraint is perhaps the best response to Ishiguro’s novel, The Remains of the Day, which
is the tale of a man so burdened by propriety that he lets the love of his life slip through his fingers.
Mr Stevens is chief of staff at an English stately home; as the novel opens, in the summer of 1956,
he is set to undertake a motoring trip to visit Miss Kenton, a housekeeper who left 20 years earlier
to get married. The butler says he wants to ask her if she’d consider returning to work: “Miss
Kenton, with her great affection for this house, with her exemplary professionalism, was just the
factor needed to enable me to complete a fully satisfactory staff plan for Darlington Hall.” But
Stevens isn’t fooling anyone, especially when he lets slip that a letter (“her first in seven years,
discounting Christmas cards”) contains hints her marriage is falling apart.
Unreliable narrators – those mysterious figures the reader must try to work out – are ten a penny in
fiction. Ishiguro, instead, likes to give us unwitting narrators: speakers who remain trapped in self-
preserving fictions, mysteries even to themselves. Bit by bit, you learn to look for the real emotions
running beneath the buffed surface of the prose. Stevens reminisces grandly about his former
employer, Lord Darlington, an aristocrat who aligned himself with the Nazis and eventually died in
disgrace. He sifts through memories of his father – a butler himself, who was aloof to the point of
abuse – and holds forth about “dignity”, a concocted ideal that has to do “with a butler’s ability not
to abandon the professional being he inhabits”.
Each journal entry becomes a mannered exercise in avoidance and projection. When Stevens
reaches a sensitive subject – such as whether Miss Kenton was driven away by his refusal to
admit his feelings for her – he veers off into self-protective prattling, carrying on for pages before
he feels able to continue. “All in all,” he writes tellingly, “I cannot see why the option of her returning
to Darlington Hall and seeing out her working years there should not offer a very genuine
consolation to a life that has come to be so dominated by a sense of waste.”
We get a picture of a man trying desperately to keep a lid on his emotions – and what a complete
picture it is. The Remains of the Day does that most wonderful thing a work of literature can do: it
makes you feel you hold a human life in your hands. When you reach the end, it really does seem
as if you’ve lost a friend – a laughably pompous, party-hat-refusing, stick-in-the-mud friend, but a
good friend nonetheless. You want to give him a hug, except he’d be outraged.
The Remains of the Day is a book about a thwarted life. It’s about how class conditioning can turn
you into your own worst enemy, making you complicit in your own subservience. It’s probably quite
an English book – I can’t imagine readers in more gregarious nations will have much patience with
a protagonist who takes four decades to fail to declare his feelings. “Hanging on in quiet
desperation is the English way,” as Pink Floyd sang. It’s a book for anyone who feels they’ve ever
held themselves back when something that truly mattered was within their grasp.
Most of all, though, it’s a book about love. Stevens is forced to let go of his illusions about Lord
Darlington, his filial pride, his cherished “dignity”, until all that remains is Miss Kenton and what
might have been. The story reaches its low-key climax in the quiet surroundings of a Cornish tea-
room.
I once heard that, to make the reader cry, a writer should try to keep the characters dry-eyed.
There are some tears in this novel – yet perhaps not enough, because the tale of the steadfast,
hopelessly mistaken Stevens gets me every time. If you haven’t read The Remains of the Day, I
hope you’ll let me park my professional dignity and beg you to get hold of a copy pronto. And if
you’ve read it and loved it, then – whatever you do – don’t keep your feelings to yourself.
1)
The main conclusion of the review is that Stevens has:
Been an unusual fictional character in his inability to view himself sensibly and express
himself clearly.
Suffered the consequences of a concocted ideal when he could have focused on what
matters the most – love.
Effectively shown the reader the need to express emotions without repression.
Been instrumental in the writer’s own understanding of himself as an emotional person first
and a professional later.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Option 1 is incorrect. The review neither states nor implies that Stevens was “an unusual fictional character.” Neither
does the reviewer suggest that Stevens was unable to view himself sensibly. Reject option 1.
Option 2 is incorrect. Option 2 states, “suffered the consequences of a concocted ideal.” While the review portrays
Stevens as being “burdened by propriety” and as a man “desperately trying to keep a lid on his emotions”, it does not
suggest that what Stevens displayed was a “concocted ideal”. Reject option 2.
Option 4 is incorrect. While the reviewer strongly recommends the book and “beg you to get hold of a copy” for its literary
value, he does not say that the book has been instrumental in his understanding of himself, emotionally or professionally.
So reject option 4.
Option 3 is correct. The passage starts with the opinion, “A lack of restraint is perhaps the best response to Ishiguro’s
novel” and ends with the advice - “whatever you do – don’t keep your feelings to yourself”. In the review, the writer
stresses on the sense of loss caused by Stevens’ inability to express himself. And, therefore, he ends the review by
urging us to express our emotions. Thus, the main conclusion of the review is that the character of Stevens has
effectively shown the reader, the need to express emotions without repressing them.
Correct Answer:
Effectively shown the reader the need to express emotions without repression.

Your Attempt: Wrong
2)
The reviewer believes that at the root of Stevens’ mistaken view of himself was:
His sense of loyalty to his own father who had been a rather unsentimental person.
His sense of belonging to a certain position in society.
His belief in the importance of his job as Lord Darlington’s butler.
The notion that Darlington Hall was more important than his emotional life.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Option 1 is incorrect. The author mentions class conditioning as the fundamental reason for why Stevens prioritized his
duty to the point where he stifled his own needs. Therefore, it is incorrect to say that loyalty to his father was the reason
behind his mistaken view of himself. Reject option 1.
Option 3 is incorrect. The job itself was not the cause of his mistaken view of himself. Rather, it was his status in the
society, and the consequences of social hierarchy and class consciousness that had led to this mistaken view of himself.
Reject option 3.
Option 4 is incorrect. Similar to option 3, option 4 attributes Steven’s mistaken view of himself to the particulars of his
job. It misses the broader social and personal traits that Ishiguro wants to highlight through his work of literature. Reject
option 4.
Option 2 is correct. Refer to paragraph 5. “The Remains of the Day is a book about a thwarted life. It’s about how class
conditioning can turn you into your own worst enemy, making you complicit in your own subservience.” Thus, Stevens’
view of himself is basically a product of his class conditioning, of seeing himself as a butler. He does not feel the need
to serve his country because he believes that his duty lies in serving the men who live in its grand houses.
Correct Answer:
His sense of belonging to a certain position in society.

Your Attempt: Wrong
3)
In the last paragraph the reviewer states that “perhaps there are not enough tears” in the novel,
because:
The reviewer was strongly moved by the character of Stevens who himself remains
oblivious to his own tragedy.
The reviewer feels like removing his own restraints every time he reads about the restrained
impulses of Stevens.
He finds the quiet desperation of Stevens’ to be typically English nature, and feels it could be
more expressive.
He believes that it is important to express emotions instead of keeping them bottled.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Option 1 is correct. Refer the last paragraph. “I once heard that, to make the reader cry, a writer should try to keep the
characters dry-eyed. There are some tears in this novel – yet perhaps not enough, because the tale of the steadfast,
hopelessly mistaken Stevens gets me every time.” There are not enough tears in the book, yet the book is able to
evoke a greater sense of tragedy in its readers, including the reviewer. So the reviewer comments that the emotions in
the novel were far less than what the reader was made to feel. Thus option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is incorrect. It is incorrect to say that the writer “feels like removing his own restraints”, as there is no
information in the passage to this effect. He merely states that the story gets him every time. Reject option 2.
Option 3 is incorrect. The reviewer’s statement does not relate to Stevens’ character being portrayed as typically
English. Reject option3.
Option 4 is incorrect. He states the need for more tears, because the book gets to him every time. He would have
reacted less emotionally if the story had more tears. Reject option 4.
Correct Answer:
The reviewer was strongly moved by the character of Stevens who himself remains oblivious to
his own tragedy.

4)
The narrator in Ishiguro’s Remains of the Day is all of the following EXCEPT:
Someone who denies his feelings in order to live by an ideal he believes in.
Someone who goes to great lengths to avoid admitting to his own emotions.
Someone who is difficult to understand and to predict.
Someone with a strong sense of duty and an inability to enjoy himself.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Option 1 is incorrect because it is not an exception. Stevens is the narrator in the novel. Paragraph 5 talks about the
“protagonist – Stevens himself – who takes four decades to fail to declare his feelings.” Paragraph 3 states how “each
journal entry becomes a mannered exercise in avoidance and projection.” The reviewer portrays Stevens as “wasted
life.” So, reject option 1.
Option 2 is incorrect as it is not an exception. Paragraph 3 reads: “Each journal entry becomes a mannered exercise in
avoidance and projection. When Stevens reaches a sensitive subject… he veers off into self-protective prattling, carrying
on for pages before he feels able to continue. … (his) life has come to be so dominated by a sense of waste.” Eliminate
option 2.
Option 4 is incorrect. In Paragraph 1, Stevens is described as “a man so burdened by propriety that he lets the love of
his life slip through his fingers.” Paragraph 4 describes Stevens as “a laughably pompous, party-hat-refusing, stick-in-
the-mud friend.” Hence, option 4 is not an exception. Reject option 4.
Option 3 is correct. Refer paragraph 2 – “Unreliable narrators – those mysterious figures the reader must try to work out
– are ten a penny in fiction. Ishiguro, instead, likes to give us unwitting narrators: speakers who remain trapped in self-
preserving fictions, mysteries even to themselves.” Thus, Stevens is not an unreliable narrator (someone who is difficult
to understand), but an unwitting one. One who is a mystery to himself, but reveals himself to the reader through his
avoidances and projections. In paragraph one, the writer states: “But Stevens isn’t fooling anyone…”
Correct Answer:
Someone who is difficult to understand and to predict.

5)
In the fifth paragraph, the reviewer calls Ishiguro’s Remains of the Day as “quite an English book”
because:
The English are the kind of people to find something meaningful in a thwarted life.
Living on in quiet desperation is familiar to the English sensibility.
The English way of life would find Stevens’ choices to be idealistic.
The English are unique in their understanding of what honour and idealism mean.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Refer the fifth paragraph. “The Remains of the Day is a book about a thwarted life. It’s about how class conditioning can
turn you into your own worst enemy, making you complicit in your own subservience. It’s probably quite an English book
– I can’t imagine readers in more gregarious nations will have much patience with a protagonist who takes four
decades to fail to declare his feelings. “Hanging on in quiet desperation is the English way,” as Pink Floyd sang. It’s a
book for anyone who feels they’ve ever held themselves back when something that truly mattered was within their
grasp.” The reviewer, thus, calls it quite an English book, as the protagonist’s behavior appears to be something the
British would identify themselves with.
Option 1 is incorrect. The English are said to be different from gregarious people in their instinctive understanding of
quiet desperation. That does not mean that they find a thwarted or repressed life ‘meaningful’ or appreciable. Reject
option 1.
Option 3 is incorrect. The option says that they find Stevens idealistic. The reviewer does not comment on what the
English society would find idealistic or what they idealize. So, the option goes beyond the scope of the passage. Reject
option 3.
Option 4 is incorrect. Similar to option 3, option 4 talks about the uniqueness of the English concepts about idealism and
honor, whereas the reviewer does not even remotely make any such suggestion. Reject option 4.
Option 2 is correct. As the passage says in paragraph 5, “Hanging on in quiet desperation is the English way,” as Pink
Floyd sang. Thus, the reference to Remains of the Day as “quite an English book” is meant to point out that it resonates
with the English sensibility.
Correct Answer:
Living on in quiet desperation is familiar to the English sensibility.

Your Attempt: Wrong
6)
According to the reviewer, which of the following is the greatest achievement of Ishiguro in The
Remains of the Day?
Delineation of the typical English culture and ethos.

The technique of narration through journal entries.
The true to life portrayal of the character of Stevens.
Representing the pitfalls of exemplary professionalism.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

The fourth paragraph states: “The Remains of the Day does that most wonderful thing a work of literature can do: it
makes you feel you hold a human life in your hands. When you reach the end, it really does seem as if you’ve lost a
friend …You want to give him a hug, except he’d be outraged.” Thus, the reviewer, notwithstanding other aspects of the
novel, finds the portrayal of Stevens’ character the most wonderful thing about the novel. Hence, option 3 is correct.
Options 1, 2 and 4 are, either directly or indirectly, said to be contributing to the beauty of the novel. However, since the
reviewer has explicitly stated what he found most wonderful about the novel, option 1 is the correct answer.
Correct Answer:
The true to life portrayal of the character of Stevens.

Your Attempt: Wrong
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Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
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The passage below is accompanied by a set of 5 questions. Choose the best answer for
each question.
Lifelong learning will help you be happier, earn more, and even stay healthier, experts say. Plus,
plenty of some of the smartest names in business insist that the best way to get smarter is to read.
So what do you do? You go out and buy books, lots of them. But life is busy and intentions are one
thing, actions another. Soon you find your shelves (or e-reader) overflowing with titles you intend to
read one day, or books you flipped through once but then abandoned. Is this a disaster for your
project to become a smarter, wiser person?
If you never actually get around to reading any books, then yes. You might want to read up on
tricks to squeeze more reading into your hectic life and why it pays to commit a few hours every
week to learning. But if it's simply that your book reading in no way keeps pace with your book
buying, I have good news for you (and for me, I definitely fall into this category)your overstuffed
library isn't a sign of failure or ignorance, it's a badge of honor.
That's the argument author and statistician Nassim Nicholas Taleb makes in his bestseller The
Black Swan. He kicks off his musings with an anecdote about the legendary library of Italian writer
Umberto Eco, which contained a jaw-dropping 30,000 volumes. Did Eco actually read all those
books? Of course not, but that wasn't the point of surrounding himself with so much potential but
as-yet-unrealized knowledge. By providing a constant reminder of all the things he didn't know,
Eco's library kept him intellectually hungry and perpetually curious. An ever growing collection of
books you haven't yet read can do the same for you.
A private library is not an ego-boosting appendage but a research tool. Read books are far less
valuable than unread ones. The library should contain as much of what you do not know as your
financial means, mortgage rates, and the tight real-estate market allows you to put there. You will
accumulate more knowledge and more books as you grow older, and the growing number of
unread books on the shelves will look at you menacingly. Indeed, the more you know, the larger
the rows of unread books. Let us call this collection of unread books an anti-library.
An anti-library is a powerful reminder of your limitations - the vast quantity of things you don't know,
half know, or will one day realize you're wrong about. By living with that reminder daily you can
nudge yourself towards the kind of intellectual humility that improves decision-making and drives
learning.
"People don't walk around with anti-résumés telling you what they have not studied or experienced
(it's the job of their competitors to do that), but it would be nice if they did," Taleb claims. Why?
Perhaps because it is a well-known psychological fact that it is the most incompetent who are the
most confident of their abilities and the most intelligent who are full of doubt. (Really, it's called the
Dunning-Kruger effect). It's equally well established that the more readily you admit you don't know
things, the faster you learn.
So stop beating yourself up for buying too many books or for having a to-read list that you could
never get through in three lifetimes. All those books you haven't read are indeed a sign of your
ignorance. But if you know how ignorant you are, you're way ahead of the vast majority of other
people.
1)
Having a library of many unread books promotes intellectual humility because:
As the Dunning Kruger effect shows, it is the ignorant that are the most confident.
The number of unread books is a reminder of one’s own ignorance.
Anti-libraries are known to contribute to a sense of one’s own inadequacy.
It stimulates one’s desire to acquire more knowledge.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Option 1 is incorrect. It is irrelevant to the question asked. Dunning-Kruger effect refers to the psychological fact that “the
most incompetent who are the most confident of their abilities and the most intelligent who are full of doubt”. The
incompetent cannot be equated with a person who has many unread books in his library. He may be a well-read person
aware of his limitations. Hence, reject option 1.
Option 3 is incorrect. Ignorance is not the same as inadequacy. The latter is a very broad term and is not specific to
knowledge. Reject option 3.
Option 4 is incorrect. Intellectual humility is said to be arrived at, from the awareness of one’s ignorance and not from the
desire to acquire more knowledge, which is another offshoot of having a library. Reject option 4.
Option 2 is correct. Refer paragraphs 4 and 5. “Read books are far less valuable than unread ones. The library should
contain as much of what you do not know …………..Indeed, the more you know, the larger the rows of unread books. Let
us call this collection of unread books an anti-library……..By living with that reminder daily you can nudge yourself
towards the kind of intellectual humility that improves decision-making and drives learning.” Thus, option 2 correctly

points out that the unread books remind us of our own ignorance and, thus, lead to intellectual humility.
Correct Answer:
The number of unread books is a reminder of one’s own ignorance.

Your Attempt: Wrong
2)
The author mentions the Dunning-Kruger effect in order to:
Explain the effect of cognitive bias on one’s self-perception.

Make his argument technically authentic.
Bring to focus the academic background of his argument.
Compare his own conclusions with already established ones.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Option 1 is incorrect. Dunning Kruger effect is mentioned in the penultimate paragraph. Cognitive bias is neither
mentioned nor invoked in this context. A cognitive bias is a mistake in reasoning, evaluating, remembering, or other
similar cognitive processes, often occurring as a result of holding onto one's preferences and beliefs, regardless of
contrary information. There are several types of cognitive bias – an example is the bandwagon effect, in which one does
something only because many others do it. So, option 1 is irrelevant. Reject option 1.
Option 3 is incorrect. The writer does not go into psychology, which is the academic background of the argument that he
has used. So, reject option 3.
Option 4 is incorrect. The writer does not compare his conclusion with anything else; the term is mentioned in
parenthesis, only as a passing reference, to impart authenticity to his own observation. Reject option 4.
Option 2 is correct. The relevant part of the passage reads: "……… it is a well-known psychological fact that it is the
most incompetent who are the most confident of their abilities and the most intelligent who are full of doubt. (Really, it's
called the Dunning-Kruger effect). It's equally well established that the more readily you admit you don't know things, the
faster you learn.” The author mentions the Dunning-Kruger effect in parentheses, after referring to a ‘well-known
psychological effect’ and, adds that it ‘is equally well established’. Thus, he resorts to technical jargon in order to bring
out the authenticity or ‘well-established’ nature of his argument.
Correct Answer:
Make his argument technically authentic.

3)
Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage?
Why the books you have read are less important than the books you will never read.
Why you should surround yourself with books that you will never read.
Why you should surround yourself with more books than you will ever have time to read.
The Library and the Anti-Library – A Reader’s Dilemma.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

The passage can be summarized briefly as following: lifelong learning or reading is important; however, unread books in
one’s library (which the writer calls anti-library) should not worry a good reader – they help him to realize the limit of his
knowledge, cultivate humility and learn more.
Option 1 is not an appropriate title – it erroneously states that the books one has read are less important than the books
one will never read. The passage does not suggest this – on the contrary, it is said that an anti-library is important for an
avid reader.
Option 2 is inappropriate. There is no point in surrounding oneself with books that one will never read, unless one is a
good reader. The word ‘never’ is also problematic because an unread collection will only inspire a good reader to read
more. Eliminate option 2 as well.
Option 4 is incorrect. The passage does not explain or suggest any dilemma on the part of the reader.
Option 3 is the best title. It briefly captures the message of the article. ‘Why you should surround yourself with more
books than you will ever have time to read’ presumes that one is in the habit of reading and that there will be books that
one may never find time to read – yet, it is necessary to surround oneself with books because an anti-library, as the
writer calls these books, helps one acquire humility and the desire to learn more.
Correct Answer:
Why you should surround yourself with more books than you will ever have time to read.

4)
It can be inferred from the passage that Umberto Eco …
was one of the best read people in history.

was a character in the Italian mythology.
read most of the 30,000 books in his private library.
had the largest rows of unread books in his private library.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

In the third paragraph, the writer brings up the book The Black Swan by Nassim Nicholas Taleb and remarks that Taleb
“kicks off his musings with an anecdote about the legendary library of Italian writer Umberto Eco, which contained a jaw-
dropping 30,000 volumes. Did Eco actually read all those books? Of course not, but that wasn't the point …” The writer,
then explains why it is important to have unread books in one’s collection if one is a good reader. In the fourth paragraph,
the writer mentions the point of the anecdote (not a myth) about the library of Umberto Eco. He says, “Indeed, the more
you know, the larger the rows of unread books.” – from this reasoning, it can be inferred that (whether from the number
of books he read, or from the number of books he did not read) he was one of the best-read people in the world.
So option 1 is the correct answer.
Option 2 is contrary to the fact, as Umberto Eco – who owned the legendary library-- is not a fictional character. He was
an Italian novelist, literary critic, philosopher, and a university professor; he was born on 5th January 1932 and died on 19
February 2016.
Options 3 and 4 contradict each other. Neither of them can be chosen without assuming the other to be false. And,

according to the passage, the implications in both the options make option 1 true.
Correct Answer:
was one of the best read people in history.

Your Attempt: Wrong
5)
According to the passage, a good reader must accumulate a large anti-library for all the following
reasons EXCEPT:
It makes him/her a smarter, wiser person.

For a habitual reader, it is a badge of honor.
An anti-library is a research tool.
It can help one get rid of mistaken beliefs.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Option 1 is the correct answer. The first paragraph raises the question as to whether the titles one hasn’t read (or the
anti-library) indicate the end of one’s project to become a smarter, wiser person. The direct implication is that it is not the
anti-library, but the library or the books that one reads that make one a wiser and smarter person. Anti-library is useful in
many other ways though, some of which are explained in the passage. So, option 1 is the correct answer.
Options 2, 3 and 4 are not exceptions, but are mentioned or implied in the passage at various places. Option 2 can be
found at the end of the second paragraph: “the overstuffed library … is a badge of honor.” The fourth paragraph begins
thus: “A private library is not an ego-boosting appendage but a research tool.” So, option 3 is also not an exception.
Option 4 is implied in the fifth paragraph: “An anti-library is a powerful reminder of your limitations - the vast quantity of
things you don't know, half know, or will one day realize you're wrong about.” This justifies option 4.
Hence the correct answer to this question is option 1.
Correct Answer:
It makes him/her a smarter, wiser person.

Your Attempt: Wrong
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Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:

undefined
A passage is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the
author’s position.
If you ask most people how tattoos work, they’re likely to get it wrong. The most pervasive
oversimplification is that tattoo needles inject ink into the skin, deep enough that it stays put. In
fact, tattoo needles are more like the nib of a fountain pen than a syringe; the ink isn’t shot down
through the needle, but suspended at the end of it when an artist dips the tool into a well. Then,
when the tip of the needle pierces a hole in the recipient’s skin, capillary action draws the ink down
into the dermis. That’s how the ink gets into your skin. But why does it stay there? Scientists
recently discovered that tattoos are made possible not by ink-saturated skin cells, but by immune
cells called macrophages.
Most people wrongly believe that in tattoos, ink is injected deep into the skin permanently. In
truth, the ink suspended at the tip of the needle is drawn into the dermis by capillary action,
when shot into skin. Scientists recently discovered that it’s immune cells and not skin cells
that preserve this ink.
The most popular misconception about tattoos is that the ink injected deep into the skin remains there forever. In
truth, ink, suspended at the tip of the needle, is shot into skin and sucked by the dermis. Scientists recently
discovered that it’s not the cells, but macrophages that make tattooing possible.
The most popular misconception about tattoos is that ink is injected into the skin permanently.
In truth, ink is suspended at the tip of the needle, which is then sucked by the dermis through
capillary action, when shot into skin. It has long been known that it’s not skin cells, but
macrophages (immune cells) that preserve this ink.
The most popular misconception about tattoos is that ink is injected into the skin
permanently. In truth, ink is suspended at the tip of the needle, which is then injected into
the dermis through capillary action. Scientists have discovered that it’s not skin cells, but
macrophages (immune cells) that preserve this ink.
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
The main points are:

? The most popular misconception about tattoos is that ink is injected into the skin, deep enough to preserve it forever.
? In truth, ink is suspended at the tip of the needle.Capillary action draws the ink down into the dermis.
? Scientists have discovered that it’s not skin cells, but immune cells that preserve this ink.
Option 1 is correct. All the major points in the paragraph are captured effectively in option 1. Retain option 1.
Option 2 is incorrect. It appears to suggest that the ink injected deep into the skin (during the process of tattooing)
remaining there forever is itself a misconception. The phrase, ‘Sucked by the dermis’ is also a problematic representation
of the passage. Also, the option states, “not the cells, but the macrophages”, and this gives incomplete information.
Eliminate option 2.
Option 3 is incorrect. The summary contains factual errors; that it’s not skin cells, but macrophages (immune cells) that
preserve tattoos is a long-established and, therefore, popular knowledge, as per the summary. In contrary to this, the
passage says that the discovery was made by scientists quite recently. Eliminate Option 3.
Option 4 is incorrect. The summary contains factual errors. The ink that is suspended at the tip of the needle is not
injected into dermis, but sucked in by the dermis through capillary action. In fact, this is a significant point that
distinguishes truth from popular belief.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
Correct Answer:
Most people wrongly believe that in tattoos, ink is injected deep into the skin permanently. In truth,
the ink suspended at the tip of the needle is drawn into the dermis by capillary action, when shot
into skin. Scientists recently discovered that it’s immune cells and not skin cells that preserve this
ink.

Your Attempt: Wrong
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Writing involves not only the hand and wrist but also the arm, the shoulder and often the whole
body. Quill-users were well aware of this, and would choose from the right wing or the left—ideally
the third or fourth feather of a goose-wing, but possibly the finest feathers of swans, or ravens, or
crows—to make the quill curve towards the hand or away from it, whichever felt more natural.
Children forming letters sit hunched with concentration, small fingers clenched round crayons, little
pink tongues darting out of mouths. After a page or three of writing against the clock, the ablest
college student flaps his wrist to ease the ache in it. In like manner, each and every instance of
writing is a physical act involving varying degrees of exertion.
Writing is a physical act involving the whole body. The 3rd of 4th feather from either side of a goose-wing or the
finest feathers of other birds were considered the best by quill users. From a child sitting hunched while learning to
write to a student flapping his wrist after writing long passages, every act of writing is quite physical.
Writing is a physical act involving employment of the whole body. Quill users were aware of
this. From a child sitting hunched while learning to write to a student flapping his wrist after
writing a test, every act of writing is quite physical.
Writing is a physical act involving the whole body. Knowing this, quill users chose only the
best quills, in order to write naturally. A child’s posture while learning to write or a college
student flapping his wrist after writing against time reveals the physical exertion in writing.
Writing is a physical act involving employment of different body parts. Quill users, being aware
of this, were particular about using only the best quills. The physical exertion is evident in
every act of writing.
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
The main points are:
Writing is a physical act involving the whole body. Quill users, who knew this, chose only the best quills, in order to write
naturally.
From a child sitting hunched while learning to write to a student flapping his wrist after writing fast for long, every
act of writing is quite physical.
Option 1 is incorrect. It fails to establish a proper cause-effect link between ‘writing being a physical act’ and ‘quill users
using only the best quills to write’. By mentioning the features that made the best quills, a lot of unnecessary details are
included. Also, ‘long passages” is an extrapolation that may not be correct. So, eliminate option 1.
Option 2 is incorrect. Similar to option 1, this summary fails to mention the relation between the awareness of quill users
and their choice of the best quills. Also, ‘writing a test’ is also not as per the paragraph. Eliminate option 2.
Option 3 is correct. All the major points in the paragraph are captured effectively in option 3. Retain option 3.
Option 4 is incorrect. The phrase ‘different body parts’ is a misrepresentation of the passage.
‘The physical exertion is evident in every act of writing’ is rather too terse. In the absence of any details regarding the
physical action, the option fails to convey the essence.
Correct Answer:
Writing is a physical act involving the whole body. Knowing this, quill users chose only the best
quills, in order to write naturally. A child’s posture while learning to write or a college student
flapping his wrist after writing against time reveals the physical exertion in writing.


undefined
Pastafarianism began with a satiric open letter written by then-25-year-old Bobby Henderson in
response to the Kansas Board of Education’s decision to teach the theory of intelligent design
alongside evolution in public schools. Henderson argued that schools ought also to devote class
time to teaching the theory that a flying spaghetti monster had created the universe. This, he
reasoned, was as probable a version of intelligent design as any other. The letter inspired a biblical
flood’s worth of memes and launched a religious group that now claims a global membership. As
this so-called Pastafarianism has grown, some branches of this movement have started
demanding the rights and privileges enjoyed by more established religious organizations. What
started as a fake religion is now angling to be an authentic one.
Bobby Henderson introduced pastafarianism as part of his protest against teaching theory of
intelligent design in public schools. He introduced the theory that a flying spaghetti monster
had created the universe, reasoning it to be as valid as the other. His theory is now popular
enough to claim a globally accepted religious identity.
Pastafarianism began in Kansas with Bobby Henderson’s satirical response to the idea of
teaching theory of intelligent design in public schools, arguing that the theory that a flying
spaghetti monster had created the universe is as valid as the other. The idea is now popular
enough to claim a globally accepted religious identity.
Pastafarianism puts forward the theory that a flying spaghetti monster had created the
universe. It began with Bobby Henderson’s disagreement about teaching theory of intelligent
design in public schools. The movement has now become a globally accepted religious
identity.
Pastafarianism puts forward the theory that a flying spaghetti monster created the universe. It
began with Bobby Henderson’s opposition to teaching theory of intelligent design in public
schools in Kansas. Now, the religion not only claims global membership but also demands an
authentic identity.
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
The major points are:
Pastafarianism started in Kansas with Bobby Henderson’s satirical response to the idea of teaching theory of
intelligent design in public schools.
He argued that the theory that a flying spaghetti monster had created the universe is as valid as the other. The
idea is now popular enough to claim a globally accepted religious identity.

Option 1 is incorrect. In option 1, the focus has been shifted from pastafarianism to the movement’s founder, Bobby
Henderson. Though it includes the essential points, their representation is distorted because the satirical intent of the
founder of Pastafarianism is not mentioned in the précis. Hence option 1 presents the précis in an altogether different
perspective. Eliminate option 1.
Option 2 is correct. All the major points in the paragraph are captured briefly in option 2. Retain option 2.
Option 3 is incorrect. Similar to option 1, Option 3 also misses the satire behind Henderson’s theory. The theory was
introduced as a satirical response, which is not included in the précis, thus making it appear as a serious theory. The
option also states that this event gained enough ground to become a new religious identity, while the passage states that
there is only a claim. Rejection option 3.
Option 4 is incorrect. The summary is inconsistent in saying, ‘Now, the religion not only claims global membership...’,
because the text does not say anything about pastafarianism already being an established religion. Eliminate option 4.
Correct Answer:
Pastafarianism began in Kansas with Bobby Henderson’s satirical response to the idea of teaching
theory of intelligent design in public schools, arguing that the theory that a flying spaghetti monster
had created the universe is as valid as the other. The idea is now popular enough to claim a
globally accepted religious identity.

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The sentences given in the following question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent
paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a number. Choose the most logical order of
sentences, to construct a coherent paragraph and type in the sequence of the numbers in
the space provided.
1. Corporates, with a significant exposure to imports or exports, use derivative contracts to hedge
against their exposure to a certain currency.
2. One can use a currency future contract to exchange one currency for another at a future date at
a price decided on the day of the purchase of the contract.
3. In India, one can use derivative contracts to hedge against dollar, euro, U.K. pound and yen.
4. While all such currency contracts are cash-settled in rupees, the Securities and Exchange Board
of India, now allows cross currency contracts on euro-dollar, pound-dollar and dollar-yen.
5. Currency derivatives are exchange-based futures and options contracts that allow one to hedge
against currency movements.
Section
Video Explanation:

Explanation:

In this question, it is not very easy to quickly find a mandatory pair and build the paragraph around it. Only sentence 4 is a
dangler with ‘such currency contracts’ –all the other sentences seem to refer to the same contract; hence, it is not
possible to find a mandatory pair with sentence 4.
So, we need to build the paragraph from starter up. Sentence 4 is not fit to be a starter.
In itself, and in comparison with the other sentences, sentence 5 is the best starter. It defines and describes what
Currency Derivative contracts are. Sentence 5 also states these futures and options contracts allow one to ‘to hedge
against currency movements.’ This idea is continued in sentence 2 as follows: “One can use a currency future contract to
exchange one currency for another at a future date…” etc. So 5-2 is a mandatory pair.
At first glance, both, sentences 1 and 3 can follow the 5-2 pair. However, on scrutiny, 1-3 is the logical order after 52,
because the mention of “certain currency” in sentence 1 has to be placed before “dollar, euro, U.K. pound and yen… etc.,”
in sentence 3. So, we get the sequence 5213.
With only sentence 4 left to place, we need to merely check whether it is the concluding sentence. The mention of
additional currencies, other than the ones mentioned in sentence 4 and the expression, “now allows”, makes sentence 4
the concluding sentence of the paragraph.
Hence the correct sequence is 52134.
Correct Answer:
52134

Your Attempt: Wrong
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the space provided.
1. More importantly, while existing large urban agglomerations have remained mostly constant in
number since 2005, smaller clusters have risen significantly.
2. With an increase in urban population will come rising demands for basic services such as clean
water, public transportation, sewage treatment and housing.
3. Over 34% of India’s current population lives in urban areas, rising by 3% since 2011.
4. And yet, cities look and feel downtrodden, riven with poverty and poor infrastructure, with little
semblance of urban planning.
5. By some estimates, India’s urban population could increase to 814 million by 2050.

Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

We can build the paragraph from the starter up. “More importantly” in 1 and “And yet” in 4 make them unfit to be starters.
Comparing sentences 3, 5 and 2, we can see that sentences 5 and 2 can be placed only after the broad topic i.e., the size
of “India’s current urban population”, when the pace of urbanization in India is introduced. So, we can be sure that
sentence 3 starts the paragraph.
The next sentence can be placed only after careful analysis and deliberation. All the remaining sentences seem to fit
logically after sentence 3. Comparing these four sentences, we see that sentence 2 looks the least likely to follow
sentence 3, not because 3-2 does not make sense, but because the other combinations are better, and sentence 2 can
follow any of the other possible combinations. (We have to compare 3-1 vs. 3-4 vs. 3-5). Sentence 1, which begins with
“more importantly” states that new smaller “urban clusters are coming up.” So 3-1 is a mandatory pair conveying “34 %
percent of India’s population lives in urban areas” and “new smaller clusters” have also come up. In other words 3-1, put
together, state the point the writer is making – the current size of India’s urban population and the pace of India’s
urbanization.
After deciding on 3-1 as the best pair at the beginning of the paragraph, we see that sentence 5 is the most logical one to
follow this pair. Sentence 5 reinforces the pace – that by 2050 ‘urban population could increase to 814 million…” So, we
get the 3-1-5 sequence.
So, sentences 4 and 2 have to be placed after 315. The order 4-2 and 2-4 both appear good. Sentence 2 is a prediction
about the future demands for basic services, infrastructure etc., Sentence 4 that begins with “and yet…” talks about the
lack of urban planning, and how cities look and feel today.
“And yet, cities look and feel downtrodden…” is writer’s direct reaction to the estimate of projected increase in the future
… and still there is no “semblance of planning”. So, the order of 4-2 is more logical than 2-4. In addition, sentence 2 as
the concluding sentence is much better than sentence 4 as the concluding sentence. Thus, 4-2 is a better sequence that
2-4.
Hence the correct sequence is 31542.
Correct Answer:
31542

Your Attempt: Wrong
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the space provided.
1. There are moments in the text where he reveals his own sense of alarm at what he is
discovering about human origins and development, especially the perverse nature of the human
animal, the being he calls ‘the sick animal’.
2. It clearly merits, though, the level of attention it receives and can justifiably be regarded as one
of the key texts of European intellectual modernity.
3. Although it has come to be prized by commentators as his most important and systematic work,
Nietzsche conceived On the Genealogy of Morality as a ‘small polemical pamphlet’ that might help
him sell more copies of his earlier writings.
4. It is a deeply disturbing book that retains its capacity to shock and disconcert the modern reader.
5. Nietzsche himself was well aware of the character of the book.
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Sentence 3 can be easily identified as the starter sentence. The other sentences are not stand-alone sentences. They
derive their sense from other sentences. Sentence 3 introduces the subject of the paragraph – Nietzsche’s bookOn the
Genealogy of Morals and the esteem in which commentators hold the book in spite of Nietzsche’s intention of publishing it
only to publicise and increase the sales of his earlier works.
Sentence 2 follows sentence 3. The mention of “the level of attention the book receives…” in sentence 2 is a reference to
the attention the book received from the commentators mentioned in sentence 3. So, 3-2 is a mandatory pair.
Sentence 4 follows the 3-2 pair. Other sentences don’t logically follow this pair. Sentence 4 describes Nietzsche’s book
further and states the reason as to why it became “one of the key tests of modernity”. Thus, it continues from sentence 2.
So we get the sequence 3-2-4
It is now easy to place sentences 5 and 1 in that order, after the 324 sequence, because the pronoun “he” used several
times in sentence 1 has its antecedent in sentence 5, and it is Nietzsche himself.
Hence the correct answer is 32451.
Correct Answer:
32451

Your Attempt: Skipped

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Four out of five sentences in the options, when correctly sequenced, form a coherent
paragraph. Which of the following sentences does not fit into the context? Key in the
number of the out-of-context in the space provided.
1. These remain the largest skill category by hours worked in many countries.
2. Jobs requiring basic cognitive skills face the biggest challenge from automation.
3. This highlights the potential for automation and AI to displace even white-collar office workers.
4. Physical and manual skills will be surpassed by higher cognitive skills in terms of hours worked.
5. The same is true of physical and manual skills, such as gross motor skills.
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
This is an easy question
In out-of-context-sentence questions, the first task is to discover the theme of the paragraph. One way you can do this is
by constructing the paragraph from start to end, and then identifying the theme. Another way is to find a mandatory pair
and relate the other sentences to the mandatory pair.
In this question, both methods will work well. Sentence 2 begins the paragraph, explicitly stating the theme– that of job
loss due to automation.
But in case you are trying to find a mandatory pair, you could begin with sentence 1 and look for what “these jobs” in
sentence 1 refers to. Then, you find that 2-1 is a mandatory pair.
Jobs requiring the basic cognitive skills face the biggest challenge from automation, and these jobs make up the majority
of jobs in the world.
Sentence 5 extends the same risk to jobs requiring physical and manual skills. So, sentences 2-1-5 make a logical
sequence in that order. Sentence 4 continues with the same theme of jobs that are at risk because jobs requiring physical
and manual skills will be replaced by jobs that require higher cognitive skills. But, sentence 3 talks about the potential risk
faced by white-collar workers from automation and Artificial intelligence. White-collar workers do not belong to the classes
of jobs mentioned in the other four sentences. In other words, they are not jobs requiring the basic cognitive skills, nor are
they jobs requiring manual or physical skills. Besides, “this highlights the potential” in sentence 3 - is not related to
anything that is said in the other sentences. So, sentence 3 is out-of-context.
Correct Answer:


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Four out of five sentences in the options, when correctly sequenced, form a coherent
paragraph. Which of the following sentences does not fit into the context? Key in the
number of the out-of-context in the space provided.
1. Few scientists dispute that we live in a deterministic universe in which all effects have causes
thus limiting us.
2. At least to a small degree, according to our current best scientific understanding, our universe is
indeed indeterminate.
3. Either we are all delusional, or else the problem is framed to be conceptually impenetrable.
4. Thus we believe that we are active agents within the universe, both determined by it and helping
to determine it through our choices.
5. And yet we all act as if we have free will—that we make choices among options and retain
certain degrees of freedom within constraining systems.
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
In the set of five sentences, we see that only sentence 1 is stand-alone; the others contain fragments that make them
dependent statements: ‘this’ (2), ‘the problem’ (3), ‘thus’ (4), ‘and yet’ (5). So, we can look for the sentence that comes
after 1. This will give us a mandatory pair and help us identify the theme.
Still another way to solve this question is by trying to discover a mandatory pair and then, identifying the theme. The best
sentence to begin with is sentence 5 because, “and yet we all act as if we have free will…” gives us a very clear clue
about the sentence before it – something that contrasts our belief in free will. Sentence 1, which talks about ‘a
deterministic universe’ provides the contrast that we are looking for – so, 1-5 is a mandatory pair. It is generally accepted
by scientists that we live in a deterministic universe … and yet, we act as if we have free will.
So, the theme is related to the determinism of the universe and our apparent behaviour as if we are free.
Now, if we relate the remaining three sentences to this theme, sentence 4 immediately follows the 1-2 as “thus we believe
that we are active agents …” is a continuation of sentence 5.

Between sentences 2 and 3, sentence 3 still discusses about our false belief or delusion that we have a free will.
Sentence 2 is about the universe being indeterminate. Indeterminate means not fixed or something that is vague. This is a
new idea. Hence the odd sentence is 2.
Correct Answer:

Your Attempt: Wrong
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In the following question there are four sentences. Each sentence has a pair of words that
are highlighted and numbered 1 and 2. Only one of the words fits correctly in the sentence.
Choose the word that forms the correct sentence in each sentence and enter the sequence
of four numbers as your answer. (For example if the word numbered 1 is correct in each of
the four sentences, the answer sequence will be 1111)
A. Disinterested (1)/ Uninterested (2) researchers say that there is no convincing evidence for
this convoluted theory.
B. At the beginning of each week, I am reminded of how much I loathe (1)/ loath (2) Monday
mornings.
C. The company’s liquid assets are all together (1) / altogether (2) worth over 15 billion dollars.
D. In order to titivate (1) titillate (2) consumer interest, the company is offering free shipping on all
purchases.
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
"Disinterested" and "uninterested" have different meanings. A disinterested person is impartial,

unbiased, or has no stake in the outcome; an uninterested person is bored, unconcerned, or
indifferent. The researchers in the context of the first sentence are not uninterested or bored and
unconcerned people; they are objectively looking at the theory i.e., without biases. Hence,
‘disinterested’ is correct in the context. Similarly, loath vs. loathe have different meanings and
different uses within a sentence. Loathe is a verb which means to detest or dislike. Loath is an
adjective which means reluctant or unwilling. The adjective ends with a hard th and rhymes
with growth or both. The verb, loathe ends with a soft th like the sound in smooth or breathe. The
context of the second sentence requires a verb. Hence, we get 11 in these two sentences. In
sentence 3, we need the second choice or “altogether”. “Altogether” is an adverb meaning
“completely,” or “entirely”. For example: “When he first saw the examination questions, he was
altogether (or completely) baffled.” “All together,” in contrast, is a phrase meaning, “in a group.” It is
never used as a phrasal adverb. Hence, the correct choice here is option 2 meaning ‘totally or
wholly” as an adverb modifying “worth”. In sentence 4, the verbs “titillate” and “titivate” sound alike
but do not have the same meaning. Titillate, a more common word, means 'stimulate or excite', as
in ‘the press are paid to titillate the public’. Titivate, on the other hand, means 'adorn or smarten
up', as in ‘she titivated her hair’. The context in sentence 4 takes the second word or option 2.
Hence the correct answer is 1122.
Correct Answer:
1122

Your Attempt: Wrong
undefined
In the following question there are four sentences. Each sentence has a pair of words that
are highlighted and numbered 1 and 2. Only one of the words fits correctly in the sentence.
Choose the word that forms the correct sentence in each sentence and enter the sequence
of four numbers as your answer. (For example if the word numbered 1 is correct in each of
the four sentences, the answer sequence will be 1111)
A. The prolonged medication did not effect (1) / affect (2) any change in the severity of his
condition.
B. After the long journey we wanted to rest a while (1) / awhile (2) before moving on.
C. The flyover was built and made operational in less (1) fewer (2) than three weeks.
D. The city has taken measures to reduce the incidents (1) /incidence (2) of vandalism.
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Affect and Effect – very often confused words - can be used both as a noun and a verb. Effect as a verb means ‘to bring
about’ and affect as a verb means ‘to influence’. In sentence A, ‘effect’ is the correct choice because it means the
medications did not bring about any change in the condition of the disease. Hence, (1) is the answer. In sentence B, the
two-word expression a while is a noun phrase, consisting of the article a and the noun while (time). The one-word awhile
is an adverb that means “for a short time or period.” (we say, “stay awhile” meaning ‘stay for some time’, or ‘stay for a
while’). In the current context the single word a while gives a meaningful sentence. So, we get 12 for the first two
sentences. In sentence C, we have another confusing pair less/ and fewer. The basic rule about the precise uses of “less”
and “fewer” is simple. Use “fewer” with countable, individual things, and “less” with uncountable amounts, volumes, etc.
So: “I should drink less coffee,” but “I should eat fewer doughnuts.” However, use less with a number that describes a
quantity considered as a single bulk amount:
“The police recovered less than Rs. 1000/-“ ; or “It happened less than five years ago”; “The recipe calls for less than two
cups of sugar” etc. Since sentence C refers to a time span, we have to use less than three weeks. So, we get 121 in the
first three sentences. In sentence D, incidence is correct. The singular noun incidence usually refers to the rate at which
something happens, as in ‘The city has taken measures to reduce the incidence of vandalism’. Incidence is sometimes
confused with the similar-sounding words incidents. Incident is an event or happening. Incidence means occurrence. In
the context, we need to say ‘the occurrence of vandalism’. Hence, 2.
The correct answer is 1212.
Correct Answer:
1212

Your Attempt: Wrong
undefined
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Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Bruce, Natasha, Peter, Steve, Tony and Wanda are students of Marvel International School.
Their final exam marks in the various subjects are given below with a few values missing. It is also
known that the maximum marks in any subject is 100.

Fill in the missing values and solve the questions given below.
1)
What is the average total score of all the six students?
443
449
451
453
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Correct Answer:
453

2)
Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
The values of,
Natasha’s score in English = 96
Wanda’s score in Science = 92
Total marks scored by Steve = 470
Total marks scored by Tony = 471

Total marks scored in Maths = 558
Total marks scored in English = 556, therefore
A = 96 + 92 = 188
B = |C – D| = |971 – 1114| = |–173| = 173
C = 470 + 471 = 941
D = 558 + 556 = 1114
Therefore, the required answer is 5.
Correct Answer:

3)
If the condition for assigning grades to the students are slightly changed; the grades are assigned
on the basis of the total score only, irrespective of the individual scores, then the grades of how
many students will be changed?
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

While assigning grades, if we take only the total score into consideration, irrespective of the
individual scores, the grades for Bruce and Natasha will be upgraded.
Hence, 2 is the answer.
Correct Answer:

4)
Due to a calculation error, all the students were allotted 5 extra marks in Maths. The error was
corrected later on. According to the updated results, how many students got the B grade?
2
1
3
None of these
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
The updated result sheet is as follows.

According to this table, the grades for all others remain the same except Wanda.
The total marks scored by Wanda drop from 453 to 448.
She misses the total score criteria by 2 marks and hence her grade is changed from B to C.
There is no one who gets the B grade.
Hence, [4].
Correct Answer:
None of these

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Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
undefined
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In a town there are 1000 people. Those with age less than 21 years are classified as boys or girls
on the basis of their gender and those with age 21 or more are classified as men or women on the
basis of their gender. Males consist of boys and men, while females consist of girls and women.
The following bar–charts provide information about the illiterate and literate people in that town.

1)
If the total number of males in the town is more than the total number of literates, then what could
be the maximum possible number of literate girls in the town?
232
233
234
None of these
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
232

2)
If the total number of literates is more than the total number of men and women in the town put
together, then what is the maximum possible number of men in the town?

Video Explanation:
Explanation:
The maximum value of number of men in town is obtained when A = 235.
Number of men in town = 358 – A + 60 = 418 – A = 418 – 235 = 183
Correct Answer:
183

Your Attempt: Wrong
3)
If the total number of females in the town is 400, then how many illiterate men are there in the
town?
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Given that 400 = A + 124 + 48 + 182 or A = 46
Number of illiterate men = 358 – 46 = 312.
Correct Answer:
312

4)
If the difference between the total number of illiterate and the number of females in the town is 82,
then which of the following can be the total number of men and women in the town put together?
453
454
455
456
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
456


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Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
undefined
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Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
In 2016, a survey of 128 investors was conducted. These investors invested in one or more of the
following three, ‘investment vehicles’.
A: Fixed Deposits (FDs)
B: Equities
C: Mutual Funds (MFs)
It was found that 57 investors invested in FDs, 72 investors invested in Equities and 63 investors
invested in MFs.
The total amount invested by these investors in the given three investment vehicles was
Rs.5,63,000. The following was the break-up of the percent investment in FDs, MFs and Equities.

1)
If the number of people who invested in all the three investment vehicles in 2016 was 18. The sum
of the number of people who invested in both Equity and MFs (but not in FDs) and both in MFs and
FDs (but not in Equity) in 2016 was 20. What percentage of investors have invested in both FDs
and Equity (but not in MFs) in 2016?
4.25%
6.25%
8.25%
9.25%
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
6.25%

2)
It is known that total 7 investors invested in both FDs and MFs (but not in Equity). Approximately,
what percentage of investors invested in only one of the three investment vehicles? (Use the data
from the previous question)
57%
60%
64%
70%
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
64%

3)
What was the difference in the average amount per investor invested in Equity and MFs (in Rs.)?
1799
994
1304
Cannot be determined.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Correct Answer:
994

Your Attempt: Wrong
4)
In 2017, total amount invested by these 128 investors in the given three investment vehicles
increased to Rs. 6,00,000. However, the total investment in Equity remained same as that in 2016.
The ratio of the investments in FDs and MFs in 2017 was 6 : 5.
Suppose
x = Percent increase in the amount invested in MFs in 2017 over the amount invested in FDs in
2016
y = Percent increase in the amount invested in FDs in 2017 over the amount invested in MFs in
2016
What is the approximate difference between x and y?
6.4
9.4
11.8
14.8
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Correct Answer:
6.4

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Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
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At this year’s Mileon Games, the top 3 winners in each event receive medals (Gold, Silver and
Bronze for the 1st, 2nd and 3rd place respectively). Every single medal at the long distance running
events was won by athletes from just 5 countries, P, Q, R, S and T. Ten athletes (A, B, C, D, E, F,
G, H, I and J) from these 5 countries participated. None of the 5 countries had more than 3 athletes
representing it. Table 1 below gives the number of medals in long-distance running won by each
country, while Table 2 gives the number of medals won by 9 of the athletes. There was no tie for
any of the positions in the events under consideration.
1)
The five countries are ranked according to descending order of total points according to the
following system: a Gold Medal is worth 3 points, a Silver is worth 2, and a Bronze is worth 1.
Which country will be ranked 3rd?
P
Q
R
S
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Since the total number of Bronze medals is 15, the number of Silver and Gold medals must also
be 15. Thus we can see than x must be 7 and y must be 2. Also, since the 9 athletes mentioned
have won, between them, 14 Gold, 13 Silver and 13 Bronze, we can conclude that the
10th athlete, J must have won 1 Gold, 2 Silver and 2 Bronze medals.

We can now use these completed tables to answer the questions:
The scores for the individual countries, according to the given system, will be P – 9, Q – 13, R –
14, S – 34 and T – 20. Hence the ranking will be S, T, R, Q, P and hence R will be ranked 3rd.
Hence, [3].
Correct Answer:

Your Attempt: Wrong
2)
The countries are now ranked in descending order of Gold medals won. If the number of Gold
medals is the same, then the country with a higher number of Silver medals will be ranked higher.
Under this system, how many countries will not change their ranking from that in the previous
question?
2
3
4
none
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

According to the new system, the ranking will be S, Q, T, R, P. As can be seen, only S and P
retain their rankings from the previous question. Hence, [1].
Correct Answer:

3)
How many athletes represent country T?
3
2
1
Either 1 or 2
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Country T has a total of 2G + 6S + 2B medals. The two G could be won by two different athletes
or by a single athlete.
Case 1: Two athletes have won 1 G each. But all such combinations give at least 3 B, so this is
impossible.
Case 2: One athlete has won 2 G. In this case by trial and error we find that this athlete can only
be A, and to complete the medals tally we need two other athletes F and H. Hence, [1].
Correct Answer:

4)
A country M is said to be crushed by a country N if N wins more medals than M in each category
(Gold, Silver and Bronze). Which of the following is true about the 5 given countries?
There is exactly one country which is not crushed by any other

No country is crushed by more than one other country
There exists one country which is crushed by exactly two others

There are exactly two countries which crush at least one other country
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
S and T are not crushed by any country. So option (1) is false. P, Q and R are all crushed by S
(but by no other country) so option (3) is false. S is the only country which crushes any other
country. Hence option (4) is false. Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:
No country is crushed by more than one other country

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Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
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Four friends, named Aanvi, Saanvi, Pinti and Sonti are playing a game of housie. Each of them has
one ticket with total nine numbers printed on it. Ishan is hosting the game. He announces one
number at a time. If the number announced by Ishan is same as one of the numbers on the ticket
with a player, the player cuts that number on the ticket. Prizes are as follows :
First four : The player who cuts first 4 numbers on her ticket first.
First eight : The player who cuts first 8 numbers on her ticket first.
Full house : The player who cuts all the numbers on her ticket first.
The game ends when one of the players cuts all the numbers in her ticket. Till then all the players
continue playing the game.
Further information :
1. Pinti won the prize for 'Full house'.

2. All three prizes won by three different players. Saanvi, who had maximum number of perfect
squares in her ticket, did not win any prize.
3. Ishan did not announce two even or two odd numbers consecutively.
4. The first four numbers announced were the multiples of 5.
5. Ishan did not announce 17 and 36 till the end.
6. Sonti had more odd numbers in her tickets than Aanvi had in her ticket.
7. ‘First four’ was achieved once Ishan announced fourth number.
8. ‘First eight’ was achieved once Ishan announced 12th number.
9. ‘Full house’ was achieved once Ishan announced 14th number.
10. Ishan did not announce any number, which was not present on the ticket with at least one of
the four friends.
Following was the pictorial representation of the tickets with the four friends.
Ticket 1 - Ticket 2 –
Ticket 3 Ticket 4

1)
Who won the prize for 'First eight' cut?
Sonti
Aanvi
Pinti
Cannot be determined
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Using Point 2, ticket 1 has three perfect square numbers (1, 25 and 36), while tickets 2, 3 and 4 have two perfect
squares (tickets 2 & 4: 4 and 49, while ticket 3: 9 and 25). Therefore Saanvi has ticket 1.
Using point 1 and 5, Pinti had ticket 4 because that was the only ticket that did not have 17 or 36.
Using point 6, Sonti had ticket 2 while Aanvi had ticket 3.
Using points 4 and 7, the ticket with 4 multiples of 5 won ‘First Four’ when Ishan had finished announcing four numbers.
Ticket 3 was the only ticket (other than ticket 1) with 4 multiples of 5. Therefore Aanvi with Ticket 3 won ‘First Four’ and
the first four numbers announced were 25, 30, 45 and 60 in some order such that even and odd numbers were not
announced consecutively.
By the time Ishan announced first four numbers, Saanvi had cut one number (25), Sonti did not cut any number, Aanvi
had cut four numbers (25, 30, 45, 60), while Pinti had cut two numbers (30, 45).
Using point 2, as Saanvi did not win any prize, Pinti won ‘Full House’ and Aanvi won ‘First Four’, Sonti must have won
‘First Eight’. Also, using point 8, the ‘First Eight’ was completed when Ishan announced next 8 numbers. We have seen
earlier that Sonti did not cut any number in first four. Therefore the next 8 numbers announced by Ishan were all the
numbers on the ticket with Sonti, except 17 (in some order such that odd and even numbers were not announced
consecutively).
By the time Ishan announced 12 numbers, Saanvi had cut additional 2 numbers (22 & 51), Aanvi had cut additional one
number (54), while Pinti had cut 5 additional numbers (4, 22, 31, 49 & 51).
Using point 9, Pinti completed ‘Full House’ when Ishan announced two more numbers. Those two numbers must be 5
and 12. When Ishan announced these two numbers, both Saanvi and Aanvi cut one more number (5 and 12
respectively).
We can summarize as follows:

Sonti won the prize for ‘First eight’ cut. Hence, [1].
Correct Answer:
Sonti

2)
When Ishan announced the last number, Saanvi also cut one number on the ticket with her. What
was the 13th number announced by Ishan? (Write 0 if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’)
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

consecutively).
respectively).
The last number (14th) announced must be 5. As the last two numbers announced were 5 and 12, the 13th number must
be 12.
Correct Answer:
12

3)
Starting from the beginning of the game, what was the number of numbers cut by Aanvi by the time
one friend completed the ‘First Eight’?
4
6

7
8
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
consecutively).
respectively).

The required answer = 4 + 2 = 6.

Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:

4)
What was the sum of the total number of numbers cut by the four friends on their cards till the end
of the game? (Write 0 if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’)
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

consecutively).
respectively).
The required sum = 4 + 8 + 7 + 9 = 28.

Correct Answer:
28

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Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
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P, Q, R, S, T and U are six persons, three from India and three from Pakistan. They are standing at
a point X, which lies exactly on India-Pakistan border, on a line joining Amritsar in India and Lahore
in Pakistan. Each one of them starts walking at the same time on hearing the sound of a gunshot
during the evening flag lowering ceremony. Those from India start walking towards Amritsar and
those from Pakistan start walking towards Lahore.
Following points are known exactly half an hour after they start walking:
I. The six persons had covered different distances out of 1 km, 2 km, 3 km, 4 km, 5 km and 6
km.
II. The sum of the distances travelled by P and T is 8 km.
III. R and S are 7 km away from each other.
IV. The sum of the distances travelled by Q and U is 6 km.
V. The sum of the distances travelled by T and U is 3 km.
VI. R is closer to Amritsar as compared to P.
VII. T is closer to Lahore as compared to S.
VIII. U is closer to Amritsar as compared to T.
1)
Who among the given persons has covered 4 km?
Q
R
S
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Maximum distance travelled by a person is 6 km. So, from III, exactly one among R and S is an Indian.
Now the distances covered by (P, T) can be (5 km, 3 km) or (2 km, 6 km) in any order.
Distances covered by T and U can be 1 km and 2 km in any order.
Therefore, it can be concluded that T covers 2 km, U covers 1 km and P covers 6 km.
Therefore, from IV, distance covered by Q is 5 km.
Now from III, distances covered by (R, S) can be (4 km, 3 km) in any order.
As P covers 6 km, it can be concluded that he must be from Pakistan (from VI).
As U covers 1 km and T covers 2 km, it can be concluded from VII that U is an Indian and T is a Pakistani.
So, Q is an Indian.
Therefore from VII, it can be concluded that S is an Indian.
Thus,
Indians: Q(5 km), U(1 km) and S(4 km or 3 km)

Pakistanis: P(6km), T(2 km) and R(3 km or 4 km)
Either R or S has covered 4 km. Hence, [4].
Correct Answer:

Your Attempt: Wrong
2)
After half an hour has passed since the gunshot was fired, who among the given persons was
closest to the point X?
S
T
U or S
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
So, Q is an Indian.

Thus,
U has covered 1 km. Hence, U was closest to the point X. Hence, [1].
Correct Answer:
U

3)
Who among the following is from Pakistan?
Q
R
S
None of these
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
So, Q is an Indian.
Thus,

R is from Pakistan. Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:

4)
Who among the following is from India?
P
T
U
None of these
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
So, Q is an Indian.
Thus,
U is from India. Hence, [3].
Correct Answer:
U

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Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
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Total 12 individuals—A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L—are sitting in concentric circular

arrangement such that six of them form the inner circle and the remaining six form the outer circle.
Those who form the inner circle face outwards (away from the center) while those who form the
outer circle face inwards (towards the center). The seats are arranged on the two circles in such a
way that the angle subtended by the adjacent seats at the center is equal. Further, there are three
different diameters of the circles such that four persons (two on outer circle and two on inner circle)
sit along each of the three diameters.
The following information is known.

– B is facing both H and F.
– A is facing only J.
– C, D, G and K form a straight line (in no particular order).
– C is to the immediate left of E.
– G is two places to the left of B.
– H, E, F and B form a straight line (in no particular order).
– K is facing only D.
– L is facing both I and J.
1)
Who is to the immediate right of K?
F
H
Either F or H
Neither F nor H
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
The 12 persons are sitting in the following arrangement:

A person can face two persons only if he is in the outer circle
From statement 1, we can conclude that B is in the outer circle and either H is directly and F’s
indirectly facing B or visa versa.
Also, using statement 6, we can determine the circular arrangement to be as follows:
Using statement 3, 4, 5 and 7 we can add more details to our arrangement.
Using statements 2 and 8 we can complete our arrangement as follows:
Using this, we can answer all the questions
Hence, [3].
Correct Answer:
Either F or H


2)
Which of the following could be the ones that form the outer circle (not in any particular order)?
G-J-K-E-B-C
G-H-J-L-B-D
G-F-C-H-L-B
G-L-J-F-E-D
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:
G-H-J-L-B-D

3)
If F is facing only one person, who is facing H?
F
Both E and B
Neither E nor B
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:
Both E and B

4)
Which of the following pairs is not facing each other? (Use information from the previous question)
I-L
C-K
G-D
F-B
Video Explanation:

Explanation:
Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:

C-K

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Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
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Four persons, named K, L, M and N are playing a game with a standard pack of cards. All the
cards are of the following four suits: Clubs, Diamonds, Hearts or Spades.
The following points are known about the cards the four persons initially had before the game
began:
A. Each person had two cards of different suits.
B. In all the possible pairs that can be made from these four persons, the two persons in each pair
had at most one suit in common.
C. No person had the following combination of the two suits: (Spades and Clubs) and (Diamonds
and Hearts).
D. L had one card of suit Hearts and the other card of suit Spades.
E. M did not have a card of suit Spades.
The game progressed in two rounds. The following points are known about the two rounds of the
game:
I. In the first round, K and M exchanged exactly one card with each other. Similarly, in the first
round, L and N exchanged exactly one card with each other. Before the first round began, K and M
did not have any suit in common. Similarly before the first round began, L and N did not have any
suit in common.
II. At the end of the first round, N had cards of the suits Clubs and Spades.
III. After the first round was over, the four persons then continued to play the second round using
the same cards each of them had with them at the end of the first round.
IV. In the second round, K and L exchanged exactly one card with each other. Similarly, in the
second round, M and N exchanged exactly one card with each other. Before the second round
began, K and L did not have any suit in common. Similarly before the second round began, M and
N did not have any suit in common.
1)
Which of the following is definitely correct about the cards the four persons initially had before the
first round began?
K had card of suit Spades.

M had card of suit Diamonds.
N had card of suit Clubs.
More than one of the above.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
We denote the cards belonging to suits Club, Diamond, Heart and Spade as C, D, H and S respectively. All possible
combinations of two cards of different suits: CD, CH, CS, DH, DS and HS
From condition C, K, L, M and N had CD, CH, HS and DS in some order. From condition D, L had HS. Now from I, N
cannot have cards from suits H and S. So, N had CD. Therefore, it can be concluded that M had CH (from E) and hence,
K had DS.
Statements [1] and [3] are correct.
Hence, [4].
Correct Answer:
More than one of the above.

2)
After Round 1, how many different possibilities with respect to the combination of cards with the
four persons exist?

Video Explanation:
Explanation:
From condition C, K, L, M and N had CD, CH, HS and DS in some order. From condition D, L had HS. Now from I N
K had DS.
At the end of the first round, as N had CS (from II), L had HD. From IV, L exchanged exactly one card with K and the two
did not have any suit in common. So, at the end of the first round, K had CS. Similarly, at the end of the first round as N
had CS, M had HD.
Thus,
It can be seen that only one possibility exists.
Correct Answer:

3)
After Round 2, how many different possibilities with respect to the combination of cards with the
four persons exist?
Video Explanation:

Explanation:
K had DS.
had CS, M had HD.
Thus,
After Round 2:
It can be seen that there are 4 possibilities each for (K&L) and (M&N).
Correct Answer:
16

4)
If K had cards of suits Diamond and Spade at the end of Round 2 how many different possibilities
exist with respect to the cards with the four persons at the end of Round 2?

Video Explanation:
Explanation:
K had DS.
had CS, M had HD.
Thus,
After Round 2:
If K had Diamond & Spade at the end of Round 2, L had Clubs & Hearts.
There are 4 possibilities for the cards with (M & N).
Correct Answer:

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Section

Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
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Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:


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The length of arc AC of a circle is one-sixth of the circumference of the circle. B is the midpoint of
the arc AC. If the radius of the circle is 2 cm, then what is the length of the line segment AB?
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Correct Answer:

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A tank has an inlet pipe attached to it. The inlet pipe can fill the tank such that the tank could be
completely filled at 10 AM if it is opened in the morning of the same day. However the pipe had a
leak, which was not noticed. As a result of the leak, the tank was only 60% full at 10 AM. What was
the ratio of the rate at which the inlet pipe fills the tank to that at which the leak empties the tank?
2:1
5:2
9:5
9:4
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
In the absence of leak, the tank would have been 100% full at 10 AM.
That means the leak empties 40% of the tank till 10 AM.
? The ratio of the rate at which the pipe fills the tank to the rate at which the leak empties the tank = 100 : 40 or 5 : 2
Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:
5:2

Your Attempt: Wrong
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Given that two roots of 2x3+ ax + b = 0 are 5 and −4. What is the value of (a + b)?
–42
–82
–32
–41
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
2(5)3 + a(5) + b = 2(–4)3 + a(–4) + b

250 + 5a + b = –128 – 4a + b

Solving this, we get a = –42
2x3 + ax + b = 0
Substituting value of a = -42 and x = -5, we get
250 – 210 + b = 0
b = –40
? a + b = (–42) + (–40) = –82
Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:
–82

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If the roots of the equation (x – a)(x – 2b) = 6 are 0 and –1, then what is the sum of the roots of the
equation (x + 2a)(x + 4b) = 0?
–2
1
2
–1
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Correct Answer:

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Two identical circles are as shown below. Find the area of the shaded region.
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Correct Answer:

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The nth term of an AP is 48 and the (n + 10)th term of the same AP is 88. Find the sum of all the
terms of the AP from 48 to 88 (both included).
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Correct Answer:
748

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If the length of one of the sides of a right-angled triangle is ‘sin θ’ and the length of the hypotenuse
is 1, then what will be the length of the perpendicular drawn on the hypotenuse from the opposite
vertex?
2sinθ
sin2θ
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Correct Answer:

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Akash can complete a piece of work alone in 85 days. Brijesh alone can complete the same work
in 51 days. Akash completes one-fifth of the work, after which Brijesh joins him and they complete
the work together. If the payment for the work is Rs. 85000, how much amount (in Rs.) will Akash
be paid?
Section
Video Explanation:

Explanation:
Correct Answer:
42500

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Two identical unbiased dice are thrown at random. What is the probability that the product of the
numbers on the two dice is even?

Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:

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How many three-digit odd numbers can be formed using the digits 0, 1, 2, 6 and 8 if repetition of
the digits is not permitted?

Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
1 has to be the units digit of the number. Out of the four remaining numbers, hundreds place can be filled in 3 ways and
the tenth place can be filled in 3 ways by the remaining three numbers.
Therefore, the required answer = 3 × 3 = 9.
Correct Answer:

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In a rectangle of sides 5 cm and 4 cm, the largest possible circle C1 is drawn (touching 3 sides of
the rectangle). In the remaining part of the rectangle, the largest possible circle C2 is drawn. Find
the radius of C2 (in cm).
Section
Video Explanation:

Explanation:
Correct Answer:

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Election was held to select the chairman of the governing council of ICC. The result of the election
indicated that 25% of the people voted for Ravi and the rest voted for Sunil. Later it was discovered
that the voting machine was faulty and 20% of the people whose votes were recorded in favour of
Ravi had actually voted for Sunil and 50% of the people whose votes were recorded in favour of
Sunil had actually voted for Ravi. If the difference between the people who actually voted for Ravi
and those who actually voted for Sunil was 3,00,000, how many people actually voted for Ravi?
6,50,000
7,00,000

10,80,000
11,50,000
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Let the total number of people who voted be x.

Votes recorded for Ravi = 0.25x and votes recorded for Sunil = 0.75x
People who actually voted for Ravi = 0.25x – 0.2(0.25x) + 0.5(0.75x) = 0.575x
People who actually voted for Sunil = 0.75x – 0.5(0.75x) + 0.2(0.25x) = 0.425x
Difference = 0.575x – 0.425x = 0.15x = 300000

? x = 20,00,000
Number of people who actually voted for Ravi = 0.575(2000000) = 11,50,000
Hence, [4].
Correct Answer:
11,50,000

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There are three 1 litre bottles of alcohol. Bottle A consists of ethyl alcohol and water in the ratio 4 :
1. Bottles B and C consists of water and methyl alcohol in the ratio 1 : 2 and 7 : 1 respectively.
Solutions from bottles A, B and C are mixed in the volume ratio M : 3 : 4. If the percentage
composition of ethyl alcohol and water are equal in the resultant solution, then the value of M is:
7.5
8
8.5

Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
7.5

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The ratio of volumes and curved surface areas of two cylinders is 1 : 3 and 1 : 2 respectively. Find
the ratio of radii of the two cylinders.
1:2
2:3
3:4
1:4

Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
2:3

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105 oranges were distributed among four children – A, B, C and D. A gets twice as many oranges
as B and 15 less than the combined oranges received by C and D. If D received twice the number
of oranges as C, then how many more oranges were received by B as compared to C?
Section
Video Explanation:

Explanation:
Let the number of oranges received by A and B be 2x andx respectively.

Let the number of oranges received by C and D be y and 2y respectively.
Therefore, 2x = y + 2y – 15 = 3y – 15 ? 3y – 2x = 15
Also, 2x + x + 2y + y = 105 ? x + y = 35
Solving we get 5y = 85 or y = 17 and x = 18

Therefore, x – y = 18 – 17 = 1
Correct Answer:

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Section
Video Explanation:

Explanation:
Correct Answer:

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The power consumed by an air conditioner is partly fixed and partly varies with the number of
hours for which the air conditioner is switched on. The ratio of the power consumed when the air
conditioner is switched on for 4 hours and 16 hours is 1 : 3. What will be the ratio of power
consumed when the air conditioner is switched on for 6 hours and 10 hours?
1:2
2:3
3:4
4:5
Section
Video Explanation:

Explanation:
Let the power consumed, fixed component and variable component be P, x and y respectively.
Correct Answer:
2:3

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Ram has a total of 126 cats and dogs. The number of dogs with Ram is more than twice the
number of cats with him. What can be the minimum possible difference between the number of
dogs and cats with him?
41
42
43
44
Section
Video Explanation:

Explanation:
Correct Answer:
44

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A two-digit number in base 5 gets reversed when expressed in base 7. What will be the same
number in base 6?
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Correct Answer:
25

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If SQ measures 5 cm, then what is the value of x (in cm)? (All the lengths given are in cm)
Section
Video Explanation:

Explanation:
Correct Answer:

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If the average of ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’ is equal to the average of ‘2a’ and ‘d’ and also equal to thrice the
average of ‘b’ and ‘d’, then which of the following is the average of ‘5b’, ‘2c‘ and ‘a’?
3d
2d

2a
3a
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
3a

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Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:


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‘41a11b’ is a six-digit number that is divisible by both 3 and 11. The sum of its digits is less than 20.
How many such numbers are possible?
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:

Your Attempt: Wrong
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In how many different ways 5 identical apples, 5 identical cherries and 10 identical oranges can be
arranged such that no two oranges are adjacent to each other?
11! × 10!
252
2772
(10!)2
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
2772

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What is the number of positive integer solutions of the equation 5x – 8y = 11 such that y < 14?
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:

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If f(x + 2) = 2x2 – 4x, then find f(x – 2).
2x2 – 20x – 48
2x2 – 20x + 48
2x2 + 20x + 48
2x2 + 20x – 48
Section
Video Explanation:

Explanation:
Given that f(x + 2) = 2x2 – 4x = 2(x + 2)2 – 12x – 8 = 2(x + 2)2 – 12(x + 2) + 16
Therefore, f(x – 2) = 2(x – 2)2 – 12(x – 2) + 16 = 2x2 – 20x + 48
Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:
2x2 – 20x + 48

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In a polynomial P = x3 + ax2 + bx + c, c is the only coefficient which is zero. If the roots of P are all
distinct and are in AP, which of the following is true?
Section
Video Explanation:

Explanation:
Correct Answer:

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A real number x > 1 satisfies log2(log4x) + log4(log16x) = 0. Find the value of log2(log16x) +
log4(log2x).
–1
1
None of these
Section
Video Explanation:

Explanation:
Correct Answer:
0

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Ramesh borrowed a sum of Rs 2 lakhs from a bank at 10% interest per annum for a period of two
years. He needed to repay the loan in two equal yearly installments to be paid at the end of the first
and the second years. If interest was calculated at the end of the year on the principal outstanding
during the year, what is the value of each installment?
Rs. 1,20,300
Rs. 1,15,238
Rs. 1,18,372
Rs. 1,10,000
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Correct Answer:
Rs. 1,15,238

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One of the root of y2 + By + C = 0 is 6 and that of Cy2 + By + 1 = 0 is (–0.25). What is the value of
B?
–1
–4
–2
None of these
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
–2

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How many non-null subsets does the set of odd composite numbers between 1 and 100 have?
(225 – 1)
(224 – 1)
225
224
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
There are 50 odd numbers between 1 and 100. Out of which 1 is neither prime nor composite. Similarly out of 25 prime
numbers between 1 and 100, one prime number (2) is even and remaining 24 are odd. Therefore the number of odd
composite numbers between 1 and 100 is : 50 – 1 – 24 = 25
Number of non-zero subsets of a set with ‘n’ elements = 2n – 1
Therefore, required answer is (225 – 1).
Hence, [1].
Correct Answer:
(225 – 1)

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If f(y) = max(5y2, 3y + 8) for all real values of y, then what is the minimum value of f(y)?
22.8
12.8
6
5
Section

Video Explanation:
Explanation:
There are 50 odd numbers between 1 and 100. Out of which 1 is neither prime nor composite. Similarly out of 25 prime
numbers between 1 and 100, one prime number (2) is even and remaining 24 are odd. Therefore the number of odd
composite numbers between 1 and 100 is : 50 – 1 – 24 = 25
Number of non-zero subsets of a set with ‘n’ elements = 2n – 1
Therefore, required answer is (225 – 1).
Hence, [1].
Correct Answer:
(225 – 1)

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Summer vacations in a school started from a particular Monday in the month of April. The last day
in the month of May of the same year was Wednesday. If the summer vacations started from the
third Monday of April, then on which date did the summer vacations start?
15th April
16th April
17th April
19th April
Section
Video Explanation:

Explanation:
May has 31 days. If the last day of May was Wednesday, then 3rd May was also Wednesday.
This implies that 30th April was Sunday. Therefore, 24th April was Monday and 17th April was a Monday.
Since, the vacations started from the third Monday of April, we can conclude that the summer vacations started on 17th
April.
Hence, [3].
Correct Answer:
17th April


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8/25/2019 SIMCAT 9.

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