Chemistry - Class XII DPP

DPP # 7
Electrochemistry
Q.1 The following facts are available

2X– + Y2 ¾® 2Y– + X2
2W– +Y2 ¾® No reaction
–
2Z + X2 ¾® 2X– + Z2
Which of the following statements is correct?
º º º º º º º º
(A) E W – / W2 > E Y – / Y2 > E X – / X 2 > E Z – / Z 2 (B) E W – / W2 < E Y – / Y2 < E X – / X 2 < E Z– / Z2
º º º º º º º º
(C) E W – / W2 < E Y – / Y2 > E X – / X 2 > E Z– / Z2 (D) E W – / W2 > E Y – / Y2 < E X – / X 2 < E Z – / Z2
Ans. (B)
Sol. 2X– + Y2 ® 2Y– + X2 Þ E° Y2 / Y – > E° X 2 / X –
2Z– + X2 ® 2X– + Z2 Þ E° X 2 / X – > E° Z2 / Z –
2W– + Y2 ® no reaction Þ E° W2 / W – > E° Y2 / Y –
Q.2 The cell Pt(H2) (1 atm) | H+ (pH = ?), I– (a = 1) | AgI(s), Ag has emf, E298K = 0. The standard electrode potential of the
reaction AgI + e– ® Ag + I– is – 0.151 Volt. Calculate the pH value -
(A) 3.37 (B) 5.26 (C) 2.56 (D) 4.62
Ans. (C)
0.0591
Sol. 0.151 = pH
1
pH = 2.56
Q.3 Using the information in the preceding problem, calculate the solubility products of AgI in water at 25ºC
º
[ E ( Ag + , Ag ) = + 0.799 Volt] -
(A) 1.97 × 10–17 (B) 7.91 × 10–17 (C) 1.79 × 10–17 (D) 9.17 × 10–17
Ans. (B)
Sol. AgI + e ® Ag + I– E° = –0.151
+
Ag ¾® Ag + e E° = –0.799
+ –
AgI ¾® Ag + I
E° = –0.95 + 96500 × 0.95 = – RT × 2.303 log K
K = 8.4 × 10–17
Q.4 Pure water is saturated with pure solid AgCl, a silver electrode is placed in the solution and the potential is measured
against normal calomel electrode at 25ºC. This experiment is then repeated with a saturated solution of AgI. If the
difference in potential in the two cases is 0.177V. What is the ratio of solubilities of AgCl and AgI at the temperature of
the experiment ?
(A) 103 (B) 106 (C) 102 (D) 104
Ans. (A)
k sp1
Sol. (0.177 ´ 96500/2.30 3 ´ 8.31 ´ 298)
k sp 2 = 10
= 988 » 103
Q.5 In an electrolytic cell 1 L of 0.1 M aqueous solution of MnO42– is converted to MnO4– at the cathode. What is correct
about the statement ?
(A) The above process occurs at the anode
(B) Oxidation number of Mn changes from + 6 to + 7
(C) Oxidation number of Mn changes from + 7 to + 6
(D) The entire process requires the passage of 9650 C of electricity.
Ans. (A,B,D)
Sol. This process occurs at the anode
Mn+6 ¾® M+7 + e–
This entire process require the passage of 1 Faraday electricity
Q.6 Choose the correct statement(s) -

(A) At the anode, the species having minimum reduction potential is formed from the oxidation of corresponding
oxidizable species
(B) In highly alkaline medium, the anodic process during the electrolytic process is 4OH– ® O2 + 2H2O + 4e–
(C) The standard potential of Cl– | AgCl | Ag half–cell is related to that of Ag+ | Ag through the expression
RT
º
E ºAg + / Ag = E Cl –
|AgCl |Ag + ln Ksp (AgCl)
F
(D) Compounds of active metals (Zn, Na, Mg) are reducible by H2 whereas those of noble metals (Cu, Ag, Au) are not
reducible.
Ans. (A,B)
Sol. Fact
Comprehension (Q. No. 7 to 9)

The cell potential for the unbalanced chemical reaction :
Hg22+ + NO3– + H3O+ ¾® Hg2+ +HNO2 + H2O
is measured under standard state conditions in the electrochemical cell shown in the accompanying diagram. the cell
voltage is positive : EºCell = 0.02 V
Eº = 0.02 V
Dish A anode Dish B cathode

Given
NO3– + 3H3O + 2e– ¾® HNO2 + 4H2O Eº = 0.94 V
Q.7 Which of the following statements must be true of the solutions in order for the cell to operate with the voltage
indicated?
(A) The solution in Dish A must be acidic
(B) The solution in Dish B must be acidic
(C) The solutions in both Dish A and Dish B must be acidic
(D) No acid may be in either Dish A or Dish B
Ans. (C)
Sol. According to reaction
NO3– + 3H3O + 2e– ® HNO2 + 4H2O
HNO3 is an acid which reduced in HNO2 which is also acid so dish A and B are must be acidic.
Q.8 At what pH will the cell potential be zero if the activity of other components are equal to one ?
0.02 0.02 0.04 0.02 2
(A) (B) – (C) (D) ×
2 ´ 0.059 0.059 0.059 0.059 3
Ans. (D)
0.059
Sol. º
Ecell = E cell + log [H+]
2
Ecell = 0
º
E cell = 0.02
0.059
0 = 0.02 + log [H+]]
2
0.02 ´ 2
= – log [H+]
0.059
0.54
pH =
0.059
Q.9 How many moles of electrons pass through the circuit when 0.6 mole of Hg2+ and 0.30 mole of HNO2 are produced in the
cell that contains 0.5 mole of Hg22+ and 0.40 mole of NO3– at the begining of the reaction ?
(A) 0.6 mole (B) 0.8 mole (C) 0.3 mole (D) 1 mole
Ans. (A)
Sol. Balanced chemical reaction
Hg2+2+NO3–+3H3O++2e–®2Hg+2+HNO2+4H2O
intial mol 0.5 0.4 0 0
at t = time 0.6 0.3
1 mol Hg2+2 produced = 2 mol Hg+2
So 0.5 Hg2+2 produced = 2 × 0.5 × 0.6 = 0.6 mole
= 0.6 mole e– required to produced balanced reaction.
Q.10 Assertion : Salt-bridge is used generally in the electrochemical cells.

Reason : The ions of the electrolyte used in the salt-bridge should have nearly same transport numbers
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is correct explanation of the Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of the Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(D) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Ans. (B)
Sol. Salt bridge keeps the solutions in two half cells electrically neutral. it also prevent transference or diffusion of the
solutions from one half-cell to the other. So correct (B) option.
DPP # 8
Electrochemistry
é d ( DG ) ù æ dE cell ö
Q.1 DG = DH – TDS and DG = DH + T ê ú then ç ÷ is -
ë dT û P è dT ø
DS nE
(A) (B) (C) – nFEcell (D) + nEFcell
nF DS
Ans. (A)
Sol. Fact
Q.2 Three moles of electrons are passed through three solution in succession containing AgNO3, CuSO4 and AuCl3,
respectively. The molar ratio of amounts of cations reduced at cathode will be -
(A) 1 : 2 : 3 (B) 2 : 1 : 3 (C) 3 : 2 : 1 (D) 6 : 3 : 2
Ans. (D)
Sol. For same charge Ag : Cu : Au
1 1
=1: . = 6: 3: 2
2 3
Q.3 In H2 – O2 fuel cell the reaction occuring at cathode is -

(A) 2H2O + O2 + 4e– ® 4OH– (B) 2H2 + O2 ® 2H2O(l)
1
(C) H+ + OH– ® H2O (D) H+ + e– ® H
2 2
Ans. (A)
Sol. Fact
Q.4 MnO4– + 8H+ + 5e– ® Mn2+ + 4H2O

If H+ concentration is decreased from 1 M to 10–4 M at 25ºC,
(A) the potential decreases by 0.38 V with decreases in oxidising power
(B) the potential increases by 0.38 V with increase in oxidising power
(C) the potential decreases by 0.25 V with decreases in oxidising power
(D) the potential decreases by 0.38 V without affecting oxidising power
Ans. (A)
0.0591´ log
Sol. DE = [10–4]8 = –0.378V
5
Q.5 On electrolysis of 10–6 M HCl solution

(A) O2 gas is produced at the anode (B) Cl2 is produced at the anode
(C) O2 gas is produced at the cathode (D) H2 is produced at the cathode.
Ans. (A,D)
Sol. On electrolysis of 10–6 HCl solution
at cathode at anode
2H+ + 2e– ® H2 2Cl– + 2e– ®Cl2
Q.6 The measured reduction potential for the reaction Mg2+ + 2e– ¾® Mg(s) depends upon
(A) Concentration of Mg2+ in solution (B) area of Mg plate
(C) temperature (D) % purity of magnesium plate
Ans. (A,C)
0.0591
Sol. ECell = E 0red + log [Mg2+]
n
depend on
(i) Concentration of Mg+2
(ii) temperature
(iii) Nature of electrode
Comprehension (Q.7 to 9)
If an element can exist in several oxidation states, it is convenient to display the reduction potentials corresponding to the
various half reactions in diagrammatic form, known as Latimer diagram. The Latimer diagram for chlorine in acid solution is –
+1.18 V
ClO4– ¾+¾ ¾® ClO3 ¾¾ ¾ ¾® HClO ¾+¾
– –
1.20 V
¾ 2 ¾¾® HClO ¾1¾
1.60 V
¾® Cl2 ¾1¾
.67 V
¾® Cl
.36 V
In basic solution it is :
0.37 V 0.30 V
ClO4– ¾¾¾® ClO3– ¾¾¾® ClO2– ¾0¾ ¾® ClO ¾0¾
.68 V –
¾® Cl2 ¾1¾
.42 V
¾® Cl
.36 V –
The standard potentials for two nonadjacent species can also be calculated by using the concept that DGº as an additive
property but potential is not an additive property and DGº = – nFxº. If a given oxidation state is a stronger oxidising agent
than in the next higher oxidation state, disproportionation can occur. The reverse of disproportionation is called
comproportionation. The relative stabilities of the oxidation state can also be understood by drawing a graph of DGº/F
against oxidation state, known as Frost diagram, choosing the stability of zero oxidation state arbitrarily as zero. The
most stable oxidation state of a species lies lowest in the diagram. Disproportionation is spontaneous if the species lies
above a straight line joining its two product species.
ClO –
Q.7 What is the potential of couple at pH = 14 ?
Cl –
(A) 1.78 V (B) – 0.94 V (C) 0.89 V (D) – 0.89 V
Ans. (C)
Sol. ClO– ® Cl–
1.36 + 0.42
E° – = 1.78 V 2 = 0.89 V
2
Q.8 Which of the following statement is correct ?
(A) Cl2 undergoes disproportionation into Cl– and ClO– both at pH = 0 and pH = 14
(B) Cl2 undergoes disproportionation into Cl– and ClO– at pH = 14 but not at pH = 0
(C) Cl2 undergoes disproportionation into Cl– and ClO– at pH = 0 but not at pH = 14
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
Sol. From data
Q.9 For a hypothetical element, the Frost diagram is shown in figure ? Which of the following oxidation state is least stable?
D Gº
F
–1 0 +1 2 3
Oxidation No.
(A) – 1 (B) 0 (C) + 2 (D) + 3
Ans. (D)
DG°
Sol. At n = + 3 is maximum
1
Q.10 Assertion : Absolute value of Eºred of an electrode can not be determined.

Reason. Neither oxidation nor reduction can take place alone.

Ans. (A)
Sol. Yes, because oxidation and reduction take place simultaneously.
DPP # 9
Surface Chemistry
Q.1 A colloidal solution is subjected to an electrical field. The particles move towards anode. The coagulation of same sol is
studied using NaCl, BaCl2 and AlCl3 solutions. Their co-agulating power should be–
(A) NaCl > BaCl2 > AlCl3 (B) BaCl2 > AlCl3 > NaCl (C) AlCl3 > BaCl2 > NaCl (D) BaCl2 > NaCl > AlCl3
Sol. (C)
Sol. Higher the valency of the ion greater is the pre cipiting power of the ion. Al+3 > Ba+ > Na+
Q.2 The colloidal sols are purified by –

(A) Peptisation (B) Co-agulation (C) Dialysis (D) Flocculation
Ans. (C)
Sol. Dialysis is a process of removing impurities from colloidal sol.
Q.3 Which of the following will have the highest coagulating power for As2S3 colloid –
(A) PO43– (B) SO42– (C) Al3+ (D) Na+
Ans. (C)
Sol. Higher the coagulating power of ion due to higher valency.
Q.4 Which of the following colloidal solutions contain negatively charged colloidal particles ?
(A) Fe(OH)3sol (B) As2S3 sol (C) Blood (D) Gold. sol.
Ans. (B,C,D)
Sol. As2S3, Blood, Gold sol are negatively charged colloidal particles due to may be partially or completely precipitated.
Q.5 Lyophilic sols among the following are –

(A) Gelatin (B) Gold sol (C) Starch (D) Sulphur
Ans. (A,C)
Sol. Lyophilic sols are gelatin and sulphur because they cannot be easily coagulated.
Q.6 Column-I Column-II

(A) Protective colloids (P) Gold number
(B) Example of lyophilicColloids (Q) Gelatin
(C) Dialysis (R) Purification of sols
(D) As2S3 sol (S) Negativelycharged sols
Sol. (A) ® (P,Q); (B) ® (Q); (C) ® (R); (D) ® (S)
Sol. Factual
In macromolecular type of colloids, the dispersed particles are themselves large molecules (usually polymers). Since
these molecules have dimensions comparable to those of colloidal particles, their dispersions are called
macromolecular colloids. Most lyophilic sols belong to this category.
There are certain colloids which behave as normal strong electrolytes at low concentrations, but exhibit colloidal properties
at higher concentrations due to the formation of aggregated particles. These are known as micelles or associated
colloids. Surface active agents like soaps and synthetic detergents belong to this class.
l Critical micelle concentration (CMC) is the lowest concentration at which micelle formation appears. CMC increases
with the total surfactant concentration. At concentration higher than CMC, they form extended parallel sheets
known as lamellar micelles Which resemble biological membranes. With two molecules thick, the individual
molecule is perpendicular to the sheets such that hydrophilic groups are on the outside in aqueous solution and
on the inside is a non-polar medium.
l In concentrated solution, micelles take the form of long cylinders packed in hexagonal arrays and are called lytotropic
mesomorphs.
l In an aqueous solution (polar medium), the polar groups point towards the periphery and the hydrophobic hydrocarbon
chains point towards the centre forming the core of the micelle.
l Micelles from the ionic surfactants can be formed only above a certain temperature called the kraft temperature.
l They are capable of forming ions.
l Molecules of soaps and detergents consist of lyophilic as well as lyophobic parts which associate together to
form micelles.
l Micelles may contain as many as 100 molecules or more.
Q.7 Select incorrect statements (s) –

(A) Surface active agents like soaps and synthetic detergents are micelles
(B) Soaps are emulsifying agents
(C) C17H35 (hydrocarbon part) and –COO (carboxylate) part of stearate ion (C17H35 COO–) both are hydrophobic
(D) All are incorrect statements
Ans. (C)
Sol. C17H35 (hydrocarbon part is hydrophobic but –COO– carboxylate) part is hydrophilic
Q.8 In multimolecular colloidal sols, atoms or molecules are held together by –

(A) H-bonding (B) van der Waals forces
(C) ionic bonding (D) polar covalent bonding
Ans. (B)
Sol. Only Vander Waals forces.
Q.9 Cleansing action of soap occurs because –

(A) oil and grease can be absorbed into the hydrophobic centres of soap micelles and washed away
(B) oil and grease can be absorbed into hydrophilic centres of soap micelles acid washed away
(C) oil and grease can be absorbed into both hydrophilic and hydrophobic centres but not washed away
(D) cleansing action is not related to micelles
Ans. (A)
Sol. W = 2.56g V = 100 mL
p = 2.463 atm T = 27º + 273 = 300 K
PV = nST
pV = nST
2.463 ´ 0.1
0.0821´ 300 = n Þ 0.01
w
n=
M
w
0.01 =
M
w 2.56
M= = = 256
0.01 0.01
256
n= =8
32
S8 (molecule)
Q.10 Assertion : Milk is an emulsion.

Reason : In milk, fat globules are dispersed in water.
(E) If Assertion & Reason are false.
Ans. (A)
Sol. Assertion and reason both are correct.
In milk, liquid fast is dispersed in water.
DPP # 10
Surface Chemistry
Q.1 On adding few drops of dil HCl to freshly precipitated ferric hydroxide, a red coloured colloidal solution is obtained. This
phenomenon is known is –
(A) Peptisation (B) Dialysis (C) Protective action (D) Dissolution
Ans. (A)
Sol. The dispersion of a freshly precipitated material into colloidal solution is called peptization.
Q.2 In the preparation of AgI sol , the excess of AgNO3, is added to potassium iodide solution. The particles of the sol will
acquire–
(A) Negative charge (B) Positive charge (C) No charge (D) Unpredictable
Ans. (B)
Sol. The sol will acquire due to adsorption of Ag+ ion from dispersion medium
AgI / Ag+ – Positively charged.
Q.3 Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols because –
(A) The colloidal particles have positive charge
(B) The colloidal particles have negative charge
(C) The colloidal particles are solvated
(D) There are strong electrostatic repulsions between the negatively charged colloidal particles
Ans. (C)
Sol. These are highly solvated as the particles have great affinity for solvent.
Q.4 Which of the following statements are true for physiosorption ?

(A) Extent of adsorption increases with increase in pressure.
(B) It needs activation energy
(C) It can be reversed easily
(D) It occurs at high temperature
Ans. (A,C)
Sol. Factual
Q.5 For physical adsorption of a gas on solid adsorbent –

(A) DH is positive (B) DS is negative (C) DG is negative (D) DE is positive
Ans. (B,C)
Sol. Adsorption of a gas on solid adsorbent DS is negative, DG is negative because during process entropy and enthalpy
decrease.
Q.6 Column-I Column-II

(A) Emulsion (P) Milk
(B) Gel (Q) Butter
(C) Negatively charged sols (R) S sol
(D) Lyophobic sols (S) Au sol
Ans. (A) ® (P); (B) ® (Q); (C) ® (R,S); (D) ® (R,S)
Sol. Factual
Lyophilic colloidal sols are much more stable than lyopholic colloidal sols. This is due to the extensirely salvation of lyophic
colloidal sols, which forms a protective layer out side it & thus prevents it from forming associated colloids.
Lyophilic colloidal sols also protect lyophobic colloidal sols from precipitation by the action of electrolytes. This is due to
formation of a protective layer by lyophilic sols out side lyophobic sols. Lyophilic sols are also called as protective sols. Gelatin
(lyophilic) protect gold sol (lyophobic) from coagulation on addition of sodium chloride solution. Protective powers of
different colloidal sols are measured in terms of gold number.
It is defined as the amount of protective sol in milligram that prevent the coagulation of 10 ml of a given gold sol on
adding 1 ml of 10 % solution of sodium chloride. Thus smaller the gold number of a lyophilic sol, the greater is the
protective power.
Q.7 0.025 gm of starch sol is required to prevent coagulation of 10 ml gold sol when 1 ml of 10 % NaCl solution is added. What
is gold number of starch sol –
(A) 0.025 (B) 2.5 × 10–5 (C) 0.25 (D) 25
Ans. (D)
Sol. 10 mL of 10% NaCl solution is added to 100 mL of solution of gold
Thus, 1 mL of 10% NaCl solution has been added to 10 mL solution of gold.
Since, 100 mL gold solution required = 0.25 g starch = 0.25 × 103 mg starch
0.25 ´10 3
So 10 mL gold solution required = × 10 = 25 mg starch
100
So gold number of starch 25.
Q.8 Gold number of haemoglobin is 0.03. Hence 100 ml of gold sol will require haemoglobin so that gold is not coagulated by
1 ml of 10 % NaCl solution –
(A) 0.03 mg (B) 30 mg (C) 0.30 mg (D) 3 mg
Ans. (C)
Sol. Gold number
weight of lyophilic sol in mg
= × 10
Volume of gold sol in ml
weight of lyophilic sol in mg

Þ 0.03 = × 10
100
Þ weight of lyophilic sol in mg = 0.3
\ weight = 0.3 mg
Q.9 [Ag]I– Colloidal sol can be coagulated by addition of a suitable cation. 1 mol of [AgI]I– requires mol of AgNO3, Pb(NO3)2
& Fe(NO3)3 as –
1 1
(A) 1, 1, 1, (B) 1, 2, 3 (C) 1, , (D) 6, 3, 2
2 3
Ans. (C)
Sol. [AgI]I– is a negatively charged soln
1 mole of [AgI]I– requires
I mole of AgNO3 ® 1 mole of AgNO3 provides 1 mole of NO 3– ion
1/2 mole of Pb (NO3)2 ® 1 mole of Pb(NO3)2 provides 2 moles of NO 3– ion
1/3 mole of Fe(NO3)3 ® 1 mole of Fe(NO3)3 provides 3 moles of NO 3– ion
Q.10 Assertion : True solutions do not exhibit Tyndall effect.

Reason : In true solution size of solute particles is small.
Ans. (A)
Sol. Assertion and reason both are correct.
Due so small size of solute particles. Tyndall effect does not take place.
DPP # 11
Nuclear Chemistry
Q.1 1 mole of an a-emitting nuclide zXA(t1/2 = 10 hours) was placed in a sealed container. The time required for the accumulation
of 4.52 × 1023 helium atoms in the container is–
(A) 4.52 hrs. (B) 9.40 hrs. (C) 10.0 hrs. (D) 20.0 hrs.
Ans. (D)
Nt 6.023 ´10 23 - 4.52 ´10 23

Sol. = = 0.25
N0 6.023 ´10 23
t = 2 t/2 = 20 hrs.
Q.2 In the radioactive change

PA ® A ® A–4 ® A–4
Z Z+1 Q Z –1 R Z –1 S
the radiations emitted in sequence are
(A) a , b, g (B) b , a, g (C) g , a, b (D) b , g, a
Ans. (B)
b A a A-4 g A -4
Sol. PA ¾
Z ¾® z +1 Q ¾¾® z -1 R ¾
¾® z -1 S
Q.3 A stable nuclide, in general, may have–

(A) Even number of protons and even number of neutrons
(B) Odd number of protons and odd number of neutrons
(C) Odd number of protons and even number of neutrons
(D) Equal numbers of protons and neutrons.
Ans. (A,D)
n
Sol. For stable nuclei = 1 also proton & neutron should have net zero spin so even numbered
P
Q.4 Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(A) Positron has same mass as that of electron
(B) Positron has same charge as that of proton
(C) Positron has same e/m ratio as a-particles
(D) Emission of a positron results in increase in number of protons in the daughter nuclide.
Ans. (C,D)
e
Sol. Wrong because position have very high ratio & positive charge is decreased on emission
m
Q.5 232 decays to 208 through a number of a and b emissions. Which of the following is true ?
90 Th 82 Pb
(A) Number of a-particles emitted is 8 (B) Number of b-particles emitted is 6
(C) Number of b-particles emitted is 8 (D) Number of a-particles emitted is 6.
Ans. (B,D)
Sol. 232
90 Th ¾® 208
82 Pb
232 - 208 24
l= = =6
4 4
r = 82 – (90 – 6 × 2) = 82 – 78 = 4
Q.6 Match the items of column I to those of column II :
column I column II
(A) Nuclear fusion (P) 4n series
(B) Carbon dating (Q) (4n + 3) series
(C) Thorium series (R) Age of dead
(D) Actinium series (S) Hydrogen bomb
Ans. (A ® S; B ® R; C ® P; D ® Q)
Sol. Factual
Comprehension (Q. 7 to 9)
Radioactivity was discovered by Henri Becquerel in 1896, while investigating any possible relation between fluorescence
and X-rays. A crystal of potassium uranyl sulphate was used as a source of fluorescence material. On exposure to
sunlight, it emitted radiations which could penetrate paper, glass and aluminium sheets and ionise gases. These types of
radiations were also observed in darkness. Nature and origin of these radiations were investigated by Becquerel,
Rutherford, Pierre Curie and Marie Curie. Uranium changed to thorium during the emission of these radiations.
Q.7 Consider following radioactive transformation:
A : 238 ¾® 234
92 U 90 Th
B : 234 ¾® 234
90 Th 91 Pa
C : 230 ¾® 230
90 Th 90 Th
Types of particles emitted are–
(A) a, a, b (B) a, b, b (C) a, b, g (D) a, a, g
Ans. (C)
a 234
Sol. 238
92 U
¾–¾® 90 Th
234 –b 234
90 Th ¾¾® 91 Pa
230 –g 230
90 Th ¾¾® 90 Th
Q.8 How many a-and b-particles are emitted during following disintegration ?
124 ¾® 206
90 Th 82 Pb
(A) 7a, 6b (B) 6a, 6b (C) 6a, 7b (D) 4a, 4b
Ans. (A)
M1 – M 2 234 – 206 28
a(particle) = = = K
4 4 4
b(particle) = Z2 + 2a – Z1
= Z2 + 2a – Z1
= 82 + 2 × 7 – 90
= 96 – 90
6b
Q.9 Which is not the radioactive change in the following ?

(A) 14 ¾® 14 0 27 + 42 He ¾® 30 + 10 n
6 C 7 N + –1 e (B) 13 Al 15 P
27 + 12 H ¾® 11
24
(C) 13 Al + 3 11 H ¾® AlH3 (D) 23
11 Na Na + 11 H
Ans. (C)
Sol. 27
13 Al + 3 11 H ¾® AlH3
it is not the radioactive change.
Q.10 Assertion : The reaction 85 B ¾® 84 Be takes place due to positron decay..
Reason : n/p ratio increases in the above change.
Ans. (B)
Sol. Fact
DPP # 12
Chemical Kinetics
Q.1 What is the order of a chemical reaction A + 2B ¾¾®

K C, if the rate of formation of ‘C’ increases by a factor of 2.82 on
doubling the concentration of ‘A’ and increases by a factor of 9 on tripling the concentration of ‘B’–
(A) 7/2 (B) 7/4 (C) 5/2 (D) 5/4
Ans. (A)
Sol. For A + 2B ¾ k
¾® C
Let the rate law be r = k[A]x[B]y … (i)
Ist case ® 2.82 r = k(2[A])x.[B]y … (ii)
Ind case ® 9 r = k[A]x.(3[B])y … (iii)
y
1 æ1ö
(i) ÷ (iii) Þ =ç ÷ Þ y=2
9 è 3ø
x 3 2x
1 æ1ö æ 1 ö æ 1 ö
(i) ÷ (ii) Þ = ç ÷ Þ çç ÷÷ = çç ÷÷ Þ 3 = 2x
2.82 è 2 ø è 2ø è 2ø
Þ x = 3/2
\ Rate expression = r = k[A]3/2[B]2
\ Order of reaction = 3/2 + 2 = 7/2.
[2 - 2 ]
Q.2 For a certain reaction of order n, the time for half change, t 1/2, is given by t1/2= × C10/ 2 where k is the rate
k
constant and C0 is the initial concentration what is n –
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) 0.5
Ans. (D)
21- n - 1
Sol. For nth order reaction t1/2 = … (i)
K C n0 -1 (n - 1)
2- 2 (21 / 2 - 1)
Given t1/2 = . C10/ 2 = … (ii)
k
-1
2 K.C 0-1/ 2
On comparing (i) & (ii) 1 – n = 1/2
\ n = 1/2 = 0.5
Q.3 According to the reaction

Cr2O72– + 5H+ + 3HNO2 ¾® 2Cr3+ + 3NO3– + 4H2O
The rate of disappearance of Cr 2O72– is found to be 2.4 × 10–4 mole L–1s–1. Find the rate of appearance of Cr 3+ during
given time interval.
(A) 2.8 × 10–4 mole L–1s–1 (B) 3.2 × 10–4 mole L–1s–1 (C) 4.8 × 10–4 mole L–1s–1 (D) 5.8 × 10–4 mole L–1s–1
Ans. (C)
Sol. rate expression
d [Cr2O 7 2 – ] 1 d [Cr 3 + ]
– =
dt 2 dt
it is given that
d [Cr2O 7 2 – ]
= 2.4 × 10–4 mole L–1s–1
dt
d [Cr 3+ ]
so = 2 × 2.4 × 10–4 mole L–1s–1 = 4.8 × 10–4 mole L–1s–1
dt
Q.4 Activation energy of a reaction depends on
(A) Nature of reactants (B) Temperature (C) Conc. of reactants (D) Presence of catalyst
Ans. (A,D)
Sol. Ea a Bond strength (Nature of reactants)
Ea ¯ when +ve catalyst is used,
While Ea when –ve catalyst is used.
Q.5 Which of the following are not the permitted values of molecularity ?
(A) 3 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) 4
Ans. (B,D)
Sol. Factual (according to collision theory).
Q.6
Column-A Column-B
Negative s ign us ed
in expres s ing t he
(A) (i) Mol L–1 s – 1
rate of reaction
indicates that
T he units of rate of Increas es with increase
(B) (ii)
reaction is in temperature
Independent of
(C) Rate of a reaction (iii)
Pres sure
Equilibrium const
The concentration of
K p for an
(D) (iv) the reactant is
exothermic
decreas ing with time
reactions
Ans/Sol.(A) ® (iv) fact

(B) ® (i) fact
(C) ® (ii) rate depends on K which is T dependent
(D) ® (iii) fact

If the rates of forward and backward reaction in a chemical reaction become equal, the reaction is said to be in equilibrium
state. At this state, reactants react to form products and products are converted into the same amount of reactants. Thus,
it seems that the reaction has stopped, but the reaction keeps on going in both the directions at equal rates.
So, at Equilibrium rf = rb
where rf = Rate of forward reaction
and rb = Rate of backward reaction
Equilibrium constant is the ratio of the rate constant of forward reaction to rate constant of back ward reaction Kc
Kf
=K
b
For the reaction A ® B + C, the following data were obtained at 300º C.

Experiment [A], mol L–1 Rate, mol–1 h–1
1 0.170 0.05
2 0.340 0.10
3 0.680 0.20
The equilibrium constant for the reaction is 0.50 mol L–1 Assuming that the reaction proceeds by a one step mechanism.
Q.7 What is order of reaction for forward reaction–
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 1.5
Ans. (B)
Sol. Let the rate law for the reaction
A ® B + C be
r = k [A]n
n
r1 ì [A1 ] ü
then =í ý
r2 î [A 2 ] þ
n
æ 0.17 ö æ 0.05 ö
Þ ç ÷ =ç ÷
è 0.34 ø è 0.10 ø
n
æ1ö 1
Þ ç ÷ =
è2ø 2
Þ n=1
Q.8 What is rate constant for backward reaction –

(A) 0.294 L mol–1 hr–1 (B) 0.588 L mol–1 hr–1 (C) 0.50 L mol–1 hr–1 (D) 0.125 L mol–1 hr–1
Ans. (A)
Sol. From 1st experiment
0.05 = k [0.170]1
Þ k = 0.294 L mol–1 hr–1
Q.9 Activation energy for backward reaction is –

(A) More than forward (B) Lesser than forward (C) Equal to forward (D) any of these
Ans. (B)
Sol. KC < 1
\ Kb < Kf \ Eb < Ef
Q.10 Assertion : With increase in temperature activation energy of the reaction decreases.
Reason : For every 10º rise in the temperature, the rate of the reaction doubles for most of the reactions.
Ans. (D)
Sol. Correct assertion :- Ea does not depend on temperature.
Reason is correct.
k T+10
= 2 or 3
k
DPP # 13
Chemical Kinetics
Q.1 For the chemical reaction A ® products, the rate of disappearance of A is given by -
dC A
– rA = – = k1 CA/(1 + k2CA).
dt
At low CA the reaction is of the first-order with rate constant –
(A) k1/k2 (B) k1 (C) k1/k2 (D) k1/(k1 + k2)
Ans. (B)
Sol. For A ® Products
dC A
Given – rA = – = k1 CA/(1 + k2CA)
dt
k1
æ 1 ö
= ç
ç C + k 2 ÷÷
è A ø
k1
\ lim (- rA ) = = k1CA
C A ®0 1 / CA
\ Rate constant = k1.
Q.2 The rate constant of a second order reaction is 10–2 lit mole–1 sec–1. The rate constant when expressed as c.c. molecule–
1
min–1 is –
(A) 9.96 × 10–22 (B) 9.96 × 10–23 (C) 9.96 × 10–21 (D) 9.96 × 1024
Ans. (A)
Sol. K = 10–2 lit mole–1 sec–1
æ 1 ö æ 1 ö
= 10–2 ×(103 c.c.)× ç 23
÷×ç ÷
è 6.023 ´ 10 mole. ø è 1 / 60 min . ø
= 9.96 × 10–22 c.c. molecule–1 min–1.
Q.3 The hydrolysis of an ester was carried out separately with 0.05M HCl and 0.05M H2SO4. Which of the following will be
true –
(A) KHCl > KH SO (B) KHCl < KH SO (C) KHCl = KH SO (D) KH SO = 2KHCl
2 4 2 4 2 4 2 4
Ans. (A)
K H 2SO 4
Sol. Relative strength of H2SO4 = .
K HCl
Q.4 For a reaction activation energy for the forward reaction is 50 kJ and for backward reaction is 30 kJ. Which of the
following are true for the reaction ?
(A) Reaction is endothermic (B) Reaction is exothermic
(C) Threshold energy is 80 kJ (D) DE = 20 kJ
Ans. (A,D)
Sol. When Ea(f) > Ea(b)
Then reaction is endothermic
Now DE = Ef – Eb = 50 – 30 = 20 kJ.
Q.5 Which of the following are experimentally determined ?
(A) Rate constant (B) Rate law (C) Order (D) Molecularity
Ans. (A,B,C)
Sol. Factual.
Column-A Column-B
For an elementary
Pseudo unimolecular
(A) reaction A+2B® product, (i)
reaction
the molecularity is
Certain biomolecular
reactions which follow the
(B) (ii) Positive
kinetics of first order are
called
Q.6
Energy of activation of an
(C) (iii) 3
exothermic reaction is
Inversion of cane sugar gives glucose &
(D) (iv)
with excess of water fructose
Ans/Sol.(A) ® (iii) [2 + 1]
(B) ® (i) with high con. of one regent
(C) ® (ii) Ea is always positive
(D) ® (iv), (i) with high conc. of H2O
Passage - (Q.7 to 9)
Dinitrogen pentoxide decomposes to NO2 and O2 following first order kinetics
N2O5(g) ® 2NO2 + O2 (g)
0.2 mole of N2O5 was taken in 2 L vessel and heated at 200 K. The concentration of N2O5 is measured at different intervals.
Following graphs A and B were obtained from the data.
log(N 2O5 )
log k
Time . 1/T
(A) (B)
Q.7 Slope of straight line in graph (B) is –6670. Calculate the activation energy for the reaction.
(A) 12.77 kJ (B) 127.71049 kJ (C) 127.70149 J (D) 1.27 kJ
Ans. (B)
kt
Sol. log [N2O5] = – + log a
2.303
k
= 6670
2.303
\ K = 6670 × 2.303 = 15361
Applying K = A0 e–Ea/RT
A0 = 2.36 × 1037 data
\ Ea = 127.7 KJ
Q. 8 Slope of straight line in graph ‘A’ is –1.2 × 102 sec–1 what is half life of the reaction –
(A) 2.5 × 10–2 s (B) 2.5 × 10–3 s (C) 12.5 × 10–4 (D) 2.5 × 10–3 m
Ans. (B)
0.693 0.693
Sol. t1/2 = = × 2.303
K 1.2 ´ 10 2
= 2.5 × 10–3 sec
Q.9 Calculate the rate of reaction after 5 × 10–3 s :

(A) 6.84 mol L–1 s–1 (B) 3.42 mol L–1 s–1 (C) 6.84 mol L–1 (D) 6.84 mol s–1
Ans. (A)
Sol. After 5 × 10–3 sec.
0.2
[N2O5] = -1.2´10 2 ´2.303´5´10 -3 = 0.025 M
2 e
\ rate = 0.025 × 1.2 × 102 × 2.303
\ 6.94 mol/lt. sec.
Q.10 Assertion : For a first order reaction t1/2 is independent of the initial concentration of reactants.
Reason : For a first order reaction t1/2 is twice the t3/4.
Ans. (C)
Sol. Assertion is correct.
Correct reason – t3/4 = 3/2 t1/2 = 1.5 t1/2
DPP # 14
p-block (Halogen family)
Q.1 Pick out the incorrect statement regarding halogens –

(A) Aq. solutions of Cl2, Br2 or I2 oxidize H2S to S
(B) Chlorine displaces bromine and iodine from aqueous solution of bromides and iodides
(C) Cl2, Br2 and I2 all oxidize sodium thiosulphate to sodium sulphate
(D) Iodine is converted into silver iodide which is used in the manufacture of photographic films.
Ans. (C)
Sol. Cl2, Br2 or I2 is more oxidising agent than H2S, thus it can accept easily electron from H2S and oxidize H2S to S.
Þ I–
Cl–
Br–
OH–
NO3–
SO42–
PO43–
CO32–
F–
According to series lower element displaces to Upper element because lower element is more oxidising agent than Upper
element thus it can accept electron from upper elements and oxidize to upper elements.
Þ Na2S2O3 + H2O + Cl2 ® Na2SO4 + S + 2HCl
Na2S2O3 + H2O + Br2 ® Na2SO4 + S + 2HBr
2Na2S2O3 + I2 ® 2NaI + Na2S4O6
sodium
tetrathionate
AgI it is used in photographic film.
Q.2 Which nonmetal does not combine directly with Cl2, Br2 and I2–
(A) Carbon (B) Nitrogen (C) Oxygen (D) All of these
Ans. (D)
Sol. Because halogen and non metal both behave as same oxidising agent
Q.3 Fluorination of organic compound is possible with fluorine –

(A) Concentrated with nitrogen in the presence of a reducing agent
(B) Diluted with nitrogen in the presence of a reducing agent
(C) Diluted with nitrogen in the presence of a catalyst
(D) Diluted with oxygen in the presence of a catalyst
Ans. (C)
Sol. N2 have more bond dissociation energy (225 kcal/mole) than O2 (118.3 kcal/mole)
Thus in case of N2 more amount of heat is release . Thus in case of diluted this reaction is possible.
Q.4 KF combines with HF to form KHF2. The compound contains the species –
(A) K+, H+, and F– (B) K+, F– and HF– (C) K+ and [HF2]– (D) [KHF]+, and F–
Ans. (C)
Sol. KF + HF ¾® KHF2 ® K+ + [HF2]–
Q.5 Select the correct statement(s) from the following–

(A) UF6 is more stable than UCl6
(B) NF3 is violently explosive while NCl3 is non-explosive
(C) UCl6 is more stable than UF6
(D) NF3 is non-explosive while NCl3 is violently explosive
Ans. (A,D)
Sol. F2 is strong oxidising agent than Cl2.
Due to high reactivity of F and high oxidising power it is violently non explosive. it have less bond dissociation Energy
although Cl have high bond dissociation and release more amount of energy. Thus it is explosive.
Q.6 Which of the following have same hybridisation but different geometry–
(A) SF4 (B) PCl5 (C) ICl3 (D) BCl3
Ans. (A,B,C)
Valence shell e – + Attached mono

Sol. Hybridisation = atomic atom
2
SF4 PCl5 ICl3 BCl3
6+4 5+5 7+3 3+3
= =5 =5 =5 =3
2 2 2 2
= sp3 d sp3 d sp3 d sp 3
lone pair = 1 0 2 0
Geometry =
p shape T shape
When these vapour are passed through NaOH solution, the solution becomes yellow due to formation of sodium
chromate.
CrO2Cl2 + 4NaOH ® Na2CrO4 + 2NaCl + H2O
yellow
colour
The yellow solution is neutralised with acetic acid and on addition of lead acetate gives a yellow precipitate of lead
chromate
Na2CrO4 + Pb(CH3COO)2 ® PbCrO4 + 2CH3COONa
yellow ppt
Q.7 Pseudohalide ions are -

(A) I3– (B) CN– (C) OCN– (D) HCO3–
Ans. (B,C)
Sol. A few ions are known, consisting of two or more electronegative atoms of which at least one is nitrogen, that have
properties similar to those of halide ions. These ions are called pseudo halide ions.
Ex.
(CN–) Cyanide ion (NC–) Isocyanide ion
(OCN–) Cyanate ions (ONC–) Fulminate ion
–
(SCN ) Thiocyanate ion (SCSN3–) Azido carbon disulphide ion
(SeCN–) Selenocyanate ion (N3–) Azide ions.
Q.8 Which of the following is/are correct–

(A) The decreasing order of the vanderwaals force among halogens is F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
(B) The decreasing order of the vanderwaals force among halogens is I2 >Br 2> Cl2>F2
(C) The decreasing order of bond energy of C–X bond isC–I > C–Br > C–Cl > C–F
(D) The decreasing order of bond energy of C–X bond is C–F > C–Cl > C–Br > C–I
Ans. (B,D)
Sol. (i) Molecular weight µ vander wall force (Halogen and inert gas)
(ii) Bond energy µ electro negativity difference.
Q.9 Cl2(g) can be prepared by heating of –
(A) NaCl (B) NaClO4 (C) PtCl4 (D) PbCl4
Ans. (C,D)
Sol. D
PtCl4 ¾¾® PtCl2 + Cl2
D
PbCl4 ¾¾® PbCl2 + Cl2 gas
Q.10 Which of the following oxides are nonionic–

(A) I4O9 (B) I2O5 (C) BrO2 (D) ClO3
Ans. (B,C,D)
Sol. due to less ionic character.
DPP # 15
p-block (Nitrogen Family)
Q.1 Nitrogen is inert because of–

(A) Low atomic size (B) Presence in gaseous state
(C) More electronegativity (D) Presence of triple bond
Ans. (D)
Sol. Nitrogen is inert because it’s p-subshell is half filled due to it has maximum exchange energy. Thus it is exists in stable
form as like inert gas and it form triple bond (NºN). N2 molecules is very stable and its dissociation energy is 225 k cal/
mol.
Q.2 Pure nitrogen is obtained from–
(A) NH3 + NaNO3 (B) NH4Cl + NaNO2 (C) N2O + Cu (D) (NH4)2Cr2O7
Ans. (D)
Sol. Pure nitrogen is obtain from
(NH4)2Cr2O7 ¾® N2 + Cr2O3 + 4H2O
Q.3 Large-scale manufacture of nitric acid by Ostwald process utilizes the reaction–
(A) 2NaNO3 + H2SO4 ® Na2SO4 + 2HNO3 (B) 4NH3 + 5O2 ® 4NO + 6H2O
(C) NO2 + NO3 + H2O ® 2HNO3
+ – (D) 2NO + O2 + H2O ® HNO3 + HNO2
Ans. (B)
Sol. The restricted oxidation of NH3 can be done with air, when the mixture is passed over heated platinum gauze at 700º to
800ºC.
4NH3 + 5O2 ® 4NO + 6H2O + 21,600
Calories
2NO + O2 ¾® 2NO2
3NO2 + H2O ¾® 2HNO3 + NO
This is the Ostwald’s process used for manufacture of HNO3
Q.4 Which reaction can be used to prepare phosphorus acid–
(A) P2O3 + H2O ¾20
¾¾ ºC
® (B) P2O3 + H2O ¾80
¾¾ ºC
®
(C) P2O3 + H2O ¾25 ºC
¾¾® (D) P + conc. HNO3 ®
Ans. (A)
Sol. Phosphorus acid is obtained dissolving phosphorus trioxide in water (at low temperature)
2P2O3 + 6H2O ¾20
¾¾ ºC
® 4H3PO3
Q.5 PCl5 reacts with compounds containing .... group–
(A) –SO3 (B) –OH (C) –NO3 (D) –NO
Ans. (B)
Sol. C2H5OH + PCl5 ¾® C2H5Cl + POCl3 + HCl
Q.6 On rubbing I2 flackes with liquor NH3 dark brown residue (X) is obtained. (X) on heating gives.
(A) NH4I (B) N2 (C) I2 (D) NI2–NH3
Ans. (A,B,C)
Sol. Iodine flaskes when rubbed with liquor ammonia form a dark brown precipitate of ammoniated nitrogen iodide which
explodes readily on drying
2NH3 + 3I2 ¾® 8NH3.NI3 + 3HI
(X)
dark brown ppt
¯D
5N2 + 9I2 + 6NH4I
Q.7 N2 can be obtained from by heating–
(A) NH4I (B) NH4NO3 (C) (NH4)2Cr2O7 (D) NH4Cl + NaNO2
Ans. (C,D)
Sol. D
(NH4)2Cr2O7 ¾¾® N2 + Cr2O3 + 4H2O
D
NaNO2 + NH4Cl ¾¾® NaCl + N2 + 2H2O
Q.8 Which of the following oxyacids of phosphorus disproportionate to PH3 on heating ?

(A) H3PO3 (B) H3PO2 (C) H3PO4 (D) HPO3
Ans. (A,B)
2H3PO2 ¾® H3 PO 4 + PH3 200 ºC

H3PO3 ¾¾¾® 3H3PO4 + PH3
oxidation
Sol. +1 +5 –3 +3 oxidation +5
Reductio n Reduction
–3
* 2H3PO4 ¾250
¾¾ ºC
® H4P2O7 + H2O
Q.9 Which of the following is /are correct for NH3 and PH3 ?
(A) Both are reducing agent. (B) Both form complex compound
(C) PH3 is weaker base than NH3 (D) PH3 is softer lewis base than NH3
Ans. (A,B,C,D)
Sol. (i) Both behave as reducing agent because both are present in its middle oxidation (+3) state thus it can further oxidises
(ii) Both form complex compounds
2NH3 + H2PtCl6 ¾® (NH4)2PtCl6
Ammonium
chloroplatinate
(yellow)
AlCl3 + 2PH3 ¾® AlCl3 . 2PH3
(iii) NH3 more lewis base than PH3
(iv) Due to large size of P it is soft lewis base.
Q.10 Which of following are not known–

(A) PH5 (B) PI5 (C) NCl5 (D) NF5
Ans. (A,B,C,D)
Sol. In Nitrogen (d) subshell is absent thus it can’t form NCl5, NF5 . PH5 and PI5 doesn’t possible.
DPP # 16
p-block (Inert gases)
Q.1 The solubility of noble gases in water increases with the increase in–
(A) Ionization potential of noble gas (B) Thermal conductivity of noble gas
(C) Atomic volume of noble gas (D) Electron affinity of noble gas
Ans. (C)
Sol. Up to down size and polarisability increases and it’s atomic volume also increases thus its hydration energy is dominant
over lattice energy so, it’s solubility increases.
Q.2 Which noble gas is the least polarisable–

(A) He (B) Ne (C) Kr (D) Rn
Ans. (A)
Sol. Polarisability µ size
He Ne Ar Kr Xe
Polarisability increases
Q.3 The solubility of noble gases in water shows the order –

(A) He > Ar > Kr > Ne > Xe (B) He > Ne > Ar > Kr > Xe
(C) Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He (D) None
Ans. (C)
Sol. Solubility µ size of noble gases µ polarisability
He < Ne < Ar < Kr < Xe solubility
Q.4 The forces of cohesion in liquid helium are–

(A) Covalent (B) Ionic (C) Vander waal’s (D) Metallic
Ans. (C)
Sol. Between all inert gases (noble gases) Wander wall’ s force exists.
Q.5 Noble gases are –

(A) Colourless (B) Odourless
(C) Tasteless and non inflammable (D) All
Ans. (D)
Sol. Noble gases –
(i) colourless
(ii) odourless
(iii) tasteless and non inflammable
Q.6 XeF6 on reaction with H2 gives–

(A) Xe (B) HF (C) XeF2 (D) XeF4
Ans. (A,B)
Sol. XeF6 + 3H2 ¾® Xe + 3H2F2
Q.7 Which of the following noble gases do not form any compound–
(A) He (B) Kr (C) Ne (D) Xe
Ans. (A,C)
Sol. Due to small size and high ionisation energy it doesn’t form any compounds.
Q.8 Which among the following statements is/are correct –

(A) XeF4 and SbF5 combine to form salt (B) He and Ne donot form clathrates
(C) He has lowest b.pt. in its groups (D) Its diffuses throunsn rubber and polyvinyl chloride
Ans. (A,B,C,D)
Sol. XeF4 + SbF5 ¾® [XeF3]+ [SbF6]
lewis base lewis acid salt
(b) Due to small size and high ionisation energy it doesn’t form clathrates.
(c) Size µ melting point, boiling point
(d) Due to inert nature
Q.9 The first IE of Na, NO, Xe and O2 follows the order Na < NO < Xe ~ _ O . O reacts with powerful oxidising agent,
2 2
PtF6, to yield
O2+[PtF6]. If PtF6 is allowed to react with other mentioned species, then product is/are–
(A) Na+[PtF6]– (B) NO+ [PtF6]– (C) Xe+ [PtF6] (D) [PtF6]O2
Ans. (A,B,C)
Sol. Na + PtF6 ¾® Na+ [Pt F6]–
No + PtF6 ¾® NO+ [PtF6]–
Xe + PtF6 ¾® Xe+ [PtF6]–
O2 + PtF6 ¾® O2+ [PtF6]–
Q.10 Column A Column B

(A) Xe + F2 at 1 : 2 (i) [Xe F5]+ [AsF6]–
mole ratio at 400ºC
(B) Xe + F2 at 1 : 10 (ii) XeF6
(C) Xe + F2 at 1 : 20 (iii) XeF4
(D) XeF6 + AsF5 (iv) XeF2
Ans. (A) ® (iv) ; (B) ® (iii) ; (C) ® (ii) ; (D) ® (i)
400 º C
Sol. (A) Xe + F2 ¾¾Ni¾® XeF2
400 º C
(B) Xe + 2F2 ¾¾Ni¾® XeF4
300 º C
(C) Xe + 3F2 ¾50
¾¾® XeF
atm 6
(D) XeF6 + AsF5 ¾® [XeF5]+ . [AsF6]–

DPP # 17
p-block (Oxygen Family)
Q.1 The product A in the following equation.
2KMnO4 ¾® A + MnO2 + O2, is –
(A) K2Mn2O7 (B) K2MnO4 (C) K2O (D) KO2
Ans. (B)
Sol. 2KMnO4 ¾® K2MnO4 + MnO2 + O2
Q.2 Oxygen is denser than air so it is collected over–

(A) H2O (B) Spirit (C) Mercury (D) Kerosene oil
Ans. (A)
Sol. Oxygen is denser than air so it is collected over H2O.
Q.3 Sulphur is readily soluble in–

(A) Alcohol (B)Carbon disulphide (C) Ether (D) Water
Ans. (B)
Sol. Sulphur is readily soluble in carbon disulphide. Because inorganic compounds are soluble in non polar protic solvent.
Q.4 Which of the following is not the application of sulphur–

(A) in the vulcanisation of rubber (B) as a antiseptic
(C) in match industry (D) alloying agent
Ans. (D)
Sol. Sulphur doesn’t participate in alloy formation.
Q.5 Conc. H2SO4 displaces hydrogen chloride from chlorides because–

(A) it is stronger than hydrochloric acid (B) HCl is a gas while H2SO4 is a liquid
(C) sulphates are more soluble than chlorides (D) sulphates are less soluble than chlorides
Ans. (B)
Sol. Sulphates are more soluble than chlorides because sulphates is more reactive than chlorides.
Q.6 H2SO4 has very high corrosive action on skin because–

(A) it reacts with proteins
(B) It acts as an oxidising agent
(C) it acts as a dehydrating agent
(D) it acts as dehydrating agent and absorption of water is highly exothermic
Ans. (D)
Sol. It acts as dehydrating agent and absorption of water is highly exothermic.
Q.7 H2S cannot be dried by–

(A) CaCl2 (B) P2O5 (C) H2SO4 (D) CaO
Ans. (C, D)
Sol. CaO + H2S ® CaS + H2O
H2SO4 + H2S ® 2H2O + SO2 + S
Q.8 Ozone is more reactive than oxygen because–

(A) ozone is formed endothermically from oxygen. (B) ozone possess higher energy.
(C) ozone on decomposition yields atomic oxygen (D) ozone is triatomic
Ans. (A,B,C)
Sol. 2O3 ¾heat

¾¾® 3O2 + 68 k cal
300 º C
¯
O2 + O
Þ O2 + O2 ® O3
Ozone is formed endothermically.
Q.9 Which of the following compound on heating produces O2(g)–
(A) KClO4 (B) NaNO3 (C) KMnO4 (D) NH4NO2
Ans. (A,B,C)
Sol. D
KClO4 ¾¾® KCl + 2O2
D
2NaNO3 ¾¾® Na2NO3 + NO2 + 1/2O2
D
KMnO4 ¾¾® K2MnO4 + MnO2 + O2
NH4NO2 ¾® N2 + 2H2O
Q.10 The peroxy linkage present in–

(A) H2SO5 (B) H2S2O7 (C) H2S2O8 (D) H2S2O3
Ans. (A, C)
Sol. H2SO5 (Peroxomono sulphuric acid)
O
||
H–O–S–O–OH (O.S = (+ 6)
||
O Peroxy linkage
H2S2O8 :- (Peroxodisulphuric acid)
O O
|| ||
H–O–S–O–O–S–OH
|| ||
O O
Peroxy linkage [O.S = (+ 6)]
H2S2O7 :- (Pyrosulphuric acid)
O O
|| ||
H–O–S–O–S–OH [O.S = (+ 6)]
|| |
O O
No Peroxy linkage
H2S2O3 (Thio sulphuric acid)
S'
||
H–O–S–OH'' [S' = + 6, S'' = –2]
||
O
DPP # 18
d and f block Element
Q.1 Which of the following is/are colourless ?

(I) SrCl3 (II) TiCl4 (III) Cu2Cl2 (IV) ZnCl2
(A) I and II (B) I, II and III (C) II, III and IV (D) all of these
Ans. (D)
Sol. In Sr+3, Ti+4, Cu+ and Zn+2 all electrons are paired.
Q.2 Which of the following is responsible for complex formation by the elements of d-block ?
(A) Vacant d-orbitals (B) High nuclear charge
(C) Small size (D) all of these
Ans. (D)
Q.3 Which lanthanoid had electronic configuration [Xe] 4f7 6s2 ?

(A) Sm (Z = 62) (B) Eu (Z = 63) (C) Gd (Z = 64) (D) Tb (Z = 65)
Ans. (B)
Sol. Eu = [Xe] 4f76s2
Q.4 Which of the following is correct order of size of M+3 ions of La(57), Sm(62), Dy(66) and Lu(71) ?
(A) La > Sm > Dy > Lu (B) Lu > Dy > Sm > La (C) La > Dy > Sm > Lu (D) La > Dy = Sm > Lu
Ans. (A)
Sol. As atomic no increases ionic radius decreases in lanthanoids.
pH = x
Q.5 Cr2 O 7–2 CrO4–2
pH = y
x and y are respectively -
(A) 2 and 10 (B) 8, 4 (C) 4, 8 (D) 8 , 10
Ans. (B)
basic
Cr2 O 7–2 CrO4–2
acidic
Q.6 In the structure of dichromate ion, the number of Cr–O bonds equal in length are -
(A) 2 and 6 (B) 3 and 5 (C) 2 and 4 (D) 3 and 3
Ans (A)
–2
O O O
Sol. O Cr Cr O
O O
Q.7 KMnO4 is heated with HCl, the greenish yellow gas evolved is -
(A) MnO2 (B) MnSO4 (C) Cl2 (D) HClO4
Ans. (C)
Sol. KMnO4 + HCl ® MnCl2 + KCl + H2O + Cl2
Q.8 To an acid solution of an anion a few drops of KMnO4 solution are added. Which of the following, if present will not
decolourise the KMnO4 solution
(A) CO 3–2 (B) NO 2– (C) S–2 (D) Cl–
Ans. (A)
Sol. CO 3–2 is not a reducing agent
Q.9 CrO dissolves in aqueous NaOH to give -
3
(B) (D) Cr(OH)
(A) CrO4–2 Cr(OH)3 (C) Cr2 O 7–2
2
Ans. (A)
Sol. CrO3 + NaOH ® Na2CrO4
Q.10 In which of the following compounds cause of colour is charge transfer -

(A) K CrO (B) KMnO (C) K Cr O (D) all of these
2 4 2 2 2 7
Ans. (D)
DPP # 19
Coordination compounds
Q.1 The term cryptands refers to :

(A) Macrocyclic ligands with nitrogen donor
(B) Macrocyclic ligands with nitrogen and sulphur donors
(C) Macrocyclic ligands with nitrogen and oxygen donors
(D) Aliphatic ligands with nitrogen, sulphur and oxygen donors
Ans. (C)
Sol. Term cryptands refers to macro ligands with nitrogen and oxygen donors.
Q.2 One mol of potassium chlorate is thermally decomposed and excess of aluminium is burnt in the gaseous product. How
many mol of aluminium oxide are formed ?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 1.5 (D) 3
Ans. (A)
Sol. 1 KClO3 + ex. 2Al ¾® Al2O3 + KCl
1 mole
Q.3 In the complex ion ML6n+ , Mn+ has four d-electrons and L is a strong field ligand. According to crystal field theory, the
magnetic properties of the complex ion correspond to how many unpaired electrons?
(A) 4 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
Ans. (C)
Sol. Crystal field splitting in octahedral complex
2 2 2
dx –y dz (Higher energy)
eg
Energy
t2g
dxy dyz dxz
(lower energy)
ML6n+ Mn+ = n = 4 strong ligand
dxy, dyz, dxz have same energy Thus, before singly occupied electron after pairing occurs. Thus it have two unpaired
electron.
Q.4 What is the oxidation number of chromium in the dimeric hydroxo bridged species ?
H
O 4+
(H2 O)4 Cr Cr(H2O)4
O
H
(A) + 6 (B) + 4 (C) + 3 (D) + 2
Ans. (B)
4+
O
Sol. (H 2O)4 Cr Cr(H2O)4
O
¯
(0) × 4 + x + (–2) + (–2) + x + (0) × 4 = 4
2x + (–4) = +4
2x = +8
(Cr) x = +4
Q.5 Cis-trans isomerism is found in square planar complexes of molecular formula: (a and b are monodentate ligands)
(A) Ma4 (B) Ma3b (C) Ma2b2 (D) Mab3
Ans. (C)
Sol. Cis trans isomerism in square planar
complex. [Ma2b2] [MabCd] only show
a b a b
M M
b a a b
trans Cis
Q.6 Which one of the following is an example of Co-ordination isomerism ?

(A) [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br
(B) [Co(NH3)5NO2]Cl2 and [Co(NH3)5 ONO]Cl2
(C) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 and [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2H2O
(D) [Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6]
Ans. (D)
Sol. This isomerism is caused by the inter change of ligands between the two complex ion of the same complex
[Co(NH3)6] . [Cr(CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)6] . [Co(CN)6]
Q.7 Which of the following statements are correct about stability of chelates–
(A) As the number of rings in complex increases, stability of chelate also increases
(B) A chelate having five membered ring is more stable if it contains double bonds.
(C) A chelate having six membered ring is more stable than if it does not contain double bonds.
(D) Chelating ligands are atleast bidentate ligands.
Ans. (A,D)
Sol. For chelation at least one bidentate ligands or more than one ring must be present. Chelation increases stability
increases.
Q.8 Which of the following do not refer to chelation–

(A) Increase in reactivity of complex because of chelation.
(B) Increaes in stability of complex due to chelation.
(C) increase in conductivity of complex due to chelation
(D) decrease in stability of complex due to chelation
Ans. (A,C,D)
1 1
Sol. Chelation a stability µ µ
Re activity Conductivity

(A) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 (i) dsp2
(B) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (ii) octahedral
(C) K4[Fe(CN)6] (iii) sp3d2
(D) [Fe(H2O)6]Cl3 (iv) square planar
Ans. (A) – (i), (iv) ; (B) – (i), (iv) ; (C) – (ii) ; (D) – (ii), (iii)
Sol. (A) [Cu(NH3)4]. SO4 Cu2+ = 3d9, (NH3) strong ligand
3d 4s 4p 5s
d s p2
Excited state
3d 4s 4p 5s
d s p2
Excited state
d sp2 (square planar)
(B) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2], Pt2+ = 5d8
5d 6s 6p
dsp2 (square planar)

(C) K4[Fe(CN)6] Fe2+
3d 4s 4P
2 3
d sp (octahedral)
(D) [Fe(H2O)6] Cl3 Fe3+ = 3d5

(H2O) weak ligand doesn’t pairing occurs, Thus outer orbital complex.
3d 4s 4p 4d
3
s P d2
sp3d2 octahedral

(A) [CoCl3(NH3)3] (i) show facial form
(B) [Cr(Ox)3]3– (ii) cis form is optically active
(C) [CrCl2(Ox)2] (iii) Trans form is optically inactive
(D) RhCl3(Py)3] (iv) show meridian Form
Ans. (A) – (i), (iv) ; (B) – (ii) ; (C) – (ii), (iii) ; (D) – (i), (iv)
Sol. (A) [COCl3(NH3)3]
NH3 Cl
H3N H3N
Cl Cl
Co Co
Cl H3N NH3
H3N
Cl Cl
Front view (Facial form Meridional or mer isomeror fac)

(B) [Cr(OX)3]3– there Bidentate ligand show optically isomers
ox ox
Cr ox ox Cr
B
ox ox
Show optical Activity
ox Cr ox ox
Meso – optically inactive form

(C) [CrCl2 (OX)2]
ox ox
Cl Cl
Cr Cr
Cl Cl
ox ox
Cis isomer (optically active)
Cl Cl
ox Cr ox ox Cr ox
Cl Cl
Tran’s isomer optically inactive
Py Cl
py Cl py Cl
Rh Rh
(D) py py py
Cl
Cl Cl
Facial/fac isomer meridional isomer or mer isomer

DPP # 20
Coordination compounds
Q.1 Which of the following system has maximum number of unpaired electrons ?
(A) d5 (octahedral) (B) d9 (octahedral) (C) d7 (octahedral) (D) d6 (octahedral)
Ans. (D)
Sol. Crystal field splitting in octahedral Complex
2 2 2 (High energy)
dz dx –y
eg
3/5 D o = 6Dq
Energy 10 Dq
2/5 D o = 4.Dq
t2g
dxy dyz dxz
low enegry
(strong field low spin)
eg
d5 n =1
t 2g
n=1
eg
d9
eg t2g
d7 n=1
t2g
eg
d6 n=0
t2g
Q.2 Which ion produces a small crystal field splitting (a weak ligand field) :
(A) I¯ (B) Cl¯ (C) F¯ (D) All
Ans. (D)
Sol. Strong ligand produces more crystal field splitting. weak ligand produces small crystal field splitting increasing strength
of ligands
I– < Br– < S2– < SCN– < Cl– < N3– < F–
weak Field ligand
< OH– < C2O4–2 < H2O < NCS–
~ H– < NH3 < en 2– – – –

–~ CO3 < NO2 < CN <CO
increasing order of strong field ligands
Q.3 An octahedral complex is formed when hybrid orbitals of the following type are involved
(A) sp3 (B) dsp2 (C) sp3d2 (D) sp3d
Ans. (C)
Sol. When one (s) three (P) and two (d) hybrid orbitals are involve then it form octahedral complex.
S + 3P + 2d = SP3d2
L L
90º
M
L L
Q.4 A sample of copper sulphate pentahydrate, CuSO4.5H2O contains 3.782 g of Cu. How many grams of oxygen are in this
sample ?
(A) 0.952g (B) 3.809g (C) 4.761g (D) 8.570g
Ans. (D)
Sol. Sample CuSO4. 5H2O
[Cu(H2O)5SO4]
63 gm of Cu = 144 gm (Oxygen )
3.782 gm Cu = ?
144 ´ 3.782
= = 8.570 gm (Oxygen)
63
Q.5 Match List I with List II and Select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List 1 List 2
Complex Ions Magnetic Moment µm
Bohr Magnetons
a. [Fe(CN)6]-4 1. 1.73
b. [Ti(H2O)6]3+ 2. 5.93
c. [Cr(H2O)6]3+ 3. 0.00
d. Ni(H2O)6]2+ 4. 2.83
e. [FeF6] –3 5. 3.88
Codes :
a b c d e
(A) 1 2 3 4 5
(B) 3 1 5 4 2
(C) 2 3 4 5 1
(D) 4 5 1 2 3
Ans. (B)
Sol. (a)[Fe(CN)6]–4 Fe2+ = 3d6 = n = 4
(b) [Ti (H2O)6]3+ Ti3+ = 3d1 n = 1
(c) [Cr (H2O)6 ]3+ Cr3+ = 3d3 n = 3
(d) [Ni (H2O)6]2+ Ni2+ = 3d8 n = 2
(e) [Fe F6]3– Fe3+ = n = 5
magnetic moment µ = n ( n + 2) B.M.
maximum number of unpaired e– maximum magnetic moment.
Q.6 Cortisone is a molecular substance containing 21 atoms of carbon per molecule. The weight percentage of carbon in
cortisone is 69.98%. What is the molecular weight of cortisone ?
(A) 176.5 (B) 252.2 (C) 287.6 (D) 360.4
Ans. (D)
Sol. Cortisone contain 21 atoms of carbon per molecules
1C (carbon atom) = 12 gm
21 (carbon atom) = 252 gm
69.98% C contain = 100 gm cortisone
252 gm =…….?
100 ´ 252
= = 360.4 gm
69.98
moleculer weight of
Cortisone = 360.4 gm
Q.7 For complex ion, Cu(NH3)42+?

(A) stability constant is [Cu(NH3)42+ ] / [Cu2+ ] [NH3]4
(B) stability constant is the inverse of instability constant.
(C) Stability constant is greater than instability constant.
(D) the given complex is only produced when excess of NH3 solution is added to Cu2+ solution.
Ans. (A,B,C,D)
Sol. (Cu2+) + (NH3)+4 ¾® [Cu(NH3)4]2+
[Cu ( NH 3 ) 4 ] 2 +
Stability constant K =
(Cu 2+ ).(NH 3 ) + 4
1
stability constant µ Instability cons tant .
Q.8 Atomic numbers of Cr and Fe are 24 and 26 respectively, which of the following is diamagnetic ?
(A) Cr(CO)6 (B) Fe(CO)5 (C) Fe(CN)64– (D) Cr(NH3)63+
Ans. (A,B,C)
Sol. (i) Cr(CO)6 , Cr = (0) oxidation state CO-strong ligand . so, pairing occurs
3d54s1 =
Diamagnetic
(ii) Fe(Co)5 , Fe = (0) oxidation state
2
3d
6 4s
Diamagnetic
(iii) [Fe(CN)6]4– Fe2+ = 3d6 4sº strong ligand pairing
Diamagnetic
3+ 3+ 3
(iv) [Cr(NH3)6] Cr = 3d strong ligand pairing
Paramagnetic
(A) Ferrocene (i) Iron present
(B) Mn2(CO)10 (ii) cobalt
(C) vitamin B12 (iii) Metal-metal bonding
(D) Heme (iv) sandwich Structure
Ans. (A) – (i) , (iv) ; (B) – (iii) ; (C) – (ii) ; (D) – (i)
Sol. Fe- Complex is called heme iron in the hame group has oxidation number +2. It is coordinated to the four nitrogen donor
atoms in the porphyrine group.
N N
Fe
N N [Fe2+ perphyrin]
Vitamin B 12 :- It is complex of cobalt. Vitamin B12 is active only when cobalt is present in +1 oxidation state.
Ferrocene :- Fe
[Fe(n5 –C5H 5)2]

(A) d2sp3 (i) outer orbital octahedral
(B) sp3d2 (ii) High spin complex
(C) K3[Fe(CN)6] (iii) Lowspin complex
(D) [Fe(H2O)6]Cl3 (iv) octahedral
Ans. (A) – (iii) ; (B) – (i), (ii) ; (C) – (iii) ; (D) – (i), (ii)
Sol. Strong ligand – low spin complex (inner orbital complex)
Weak ligand – High spin complex (outer orbital complex)
DPP # 21
Metallurgy
Q.1 Bessemer converter is used for

(A) Pig Iron production (B) Cast iron production
(C) Wrought iron production (D) Steel production
Ans. (D)
Sol. Bessemer converter is used for steel production
Q.2 Purpose of coke in the blast furnace is

(A) Fuel (B) Alloying element (C) Reducing agent (D) A & C
Ans. (D)
Sol. In blast furnace is used as fuel as will as reducing agent
Q.3 Conversion on coal into coke is called

(A) Gasification (B) Briquetting
(C) Destructive distillation (D) Agglomeration
Ans. (C)
Sol. Coal is converted into the coke is called Destructive distillation
Q.4 Duralumin is an alloy of aluminium and 4% Cu, which is used aeroplane body building. It is having less corrosive
resistance than aluminium. How to protect this alloy to use for this purpose.
Ans./Sol Duralumin, an alloy of Al, Cu, Mg and Mn is light, strong and durable but having lesser corrosive resistance than
aluminium. Duralumin can be used in the aircraft industry with good results, it the speed of the aircraft does not exceed
2.4 times to the speed of sound.
Coke Sand
Chalcop yrities® Crushing ® roasting ® roasted ore ® blast furnace

&
Grinding
air sand
¯ ¯
Electro refining¬blister copper¬Bassemer Convertor¬Matte
¯ ¯
Pure Cu Slag
Extraction of Ag & Au
Extraction of Ag
Argentite are ¾® Crushing & Grinding ¾® agitated with air & 1% NaCN solution
Pure Ag ¬¾ Electro refining ¬¾ impure Ag ¬¾¾Zn Cyanide complex of Ag
Extraction of Au
Gold bearing substance ¾® crushing & Grinding ¾® agitated with air & very dilute
Electro refining ¬¾ impure Au ¬¾¾
Zn Complex of Au ¬¾ solution of NaCN ¾® Pure Au
Q.5 What is the molecular formula of chalcopyrities -

(A) Cu2S (B) Cu2O (C) CuCO3,Cu(OH)2 (D) CuFeS2
Ans. (D)
Sol. CuFeS2
Q.6 Auto reduction is most important step in the Cu metallurgy. In autoreduction Cu2O is reduced by the Cu2S. Among the
following correct statement is/are –
(A) autoreduction occur in blast furnace
(B) autoreduction occur in bassemer converter in the supply of air
(C) autoreduction occur in blast furnace in absence of air
(D)autoreduction occur in bassemer converter when supply of air is cut off
Ans. (D)
Sol. autoreduction occur in bassemer converter when supply of air is cut off
Q.7 The roasting reaction in the Cu metallurgy is–

(A) CuFeS2 ¾O
¾2 ® Cu2O+Fe2O3 + SO2 (B) CuFeS2 ¾O
¾2 ® CuO + Fe2O3 + SO2
(C) CuFeS2 ¾O
¾2 ® Cu2S+ Fe2O3 + SO2 (D) None of these
Ans. (C)
Sol. CuFeS2 ¾O
¾2 ® Cu2S+ Fe2O3 + SO2
Q.8 Why argentite ore (Ag2S) is agitated with air & 1% NaCN solution –
(A) To oxidize NaCN to NaCNO
(B) To oxidize Ag2S to Ag2O
(C) To oxidize Ag2S to Ag2SO4
(D) Ag2S + 4NaCN ¬ ® 2Na [Ag(CN) ] + Na S is a reversible reaction. To increase the yield Na [Ag (CN) ], Na S is
2 2 2 2
oxidised by air to Na2SO4
Ans. (D)
Sol. Ag2S + 4NaCN ¬ ® 2Na [Ag(CN) ] + Na S is a reversible reaction. To increase the yield Na [Ag (CN) ], Na S is oxidised
2 2 2 2
by air to Na2SO4
Q.9 What is the molecular formula of the cyano complex of Au –

(A) Na [Au (CN)4] (B) Na [Au (CN)2] (C) Na3[Au(CN)4] (D) Na2[Au(CN)4]
Ans. (B)
Sol. Na [Au (CN)2]
Q.10 Assertion : All minerals are ores–

Reason : ores are minerals from which metal can be extracted conveniently and economically
Ans. (D)
Sol. All minerals are not the ores
DPP # 22
Metallurgy
Q.1 Galvanised iron is protected from rusting because it has a coating of–
(A) Ag (B) Sn (C) Cr (D) Zn
Ans. (D)
Sol. Zn form a coating on iron and prevent it rusting
Q.2 Which of the following metals is protected by a layer of its own oxide–
(A) Aluminium (B) Silver (C) Gold (D) Iron
Ans. (A)
Sol. Aluminium metal form a layer of Al2O3 on its surface which reduces the chance of corrosion
Q.3 Ca3(PO4)2 is –
(A) Thomas slog (B) used in cement manufacturing
(C) used in manufacture of phosphorus fertiliser (D) used as refractory material
Ans. (ABC)
Sol. Ca3(PO4)2 is thomas slag, used in manufacturing of phosphorus fertilizer and as refractory material
Q.4 Why Aluminium vessels should not be cleaned with cleansing agent containing washing soda.
Ans./Sol. Na2CO3 + H2O ¾® 2 NaOH + CO2
2 Al + 2 NaOH + 2 H2O ¾® 2 NaAlO2 + 3 H2
An alloy (X) containing three metals, viz, M1, M2 and M3 was analysed as:
Alloy ® Powdered ® Powdered alloy
Digested with dil. H2SO4
Filter
(Y1 )
Filtrate Resid ue dissolved in
divided into Conc. HNO 3
two parts divided into
two parts
to one part to the other
dil HNO 2 part KSCN–
3– to one part
boiled & Fe(CN)6
then cooled solution Excess NH3
solution deep blue solution
No blood to the
excess of NH3 complex red colouration deep blue other
solution (R) complex (T) part
filter
K 4[Fe(CN) 6]
solution
(P) residue filtrate
Chocolate
acidification & H2S is passed bro wn
dissolve in white ppt (Q) substance (U)
dill HCl
K4[Fe(CN)6] the ppt is dried and
solution heated in air
Blue complex
(R)
white substance (S)
heating
Yellow
colouration
Cooling
White Substance (S)
Q.5 In the given alloy the M1, M2 & M3 are –
(A) M1 = Cu, M2 = Sn, M3 = Zn (B) M1 = Cu, M2 = Zn, M3 = Al
(C) M1 = Cu, M2 = Zn, M3 = Fe (D) M1 = Cu, M2 = Ag, M3 = Au
Ans. (C)
Q.6 The complex (T) is –
(A) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (B) [Cu (NH3)4] (NO3)2
(C) KFe [Fe (CN)6] (D) Fe [Fe(CN)6]
Ans. (B)
Q.7 (P) and (S) are –

(A) (P) º Fe(OH)3 , (S) º ZnO (B) (P) º Fe (OH)3 , (S) º ZnS
(C) (P) º Fe(OH)3 , (S) º SnO2. 5H2O (D) (P) Fe(OH)2+Fe(OH)3 , (S) ZnO
Ans. (A)
Q.8 When 1 gm of alloy is treated as per the given way amount of Y1 produced is 0.1 gm. There fore percentage Cu in the alloy
is -
(A) 10% (B) 90% (C) 80% (D) can’t be determined
Ans. (A)
Q.9 The deep blue complex (R) is–

(A) Fe4 [Fe(CN)6]3 (B) Fe[Fe(CN)6] (C) K Fe [Fe(CN)6] (D) both (A) & (C)
Ans. (D)
Q.10 Assertion : Metals of high purity are obtained by zone refining.

Reason : Impurities are more soluble in the melt than in pure metal.
Ans. (B)
Sol. Metals of high purity are obtained by zone refining is a true statement
Impurities are more soluble in the melt than in pure metal is not the correct explanation of statement one
DPP # 23
Qualitative Analysis
Q.1 On being heated, a salt gives a gas which turns lime water milky and an acidified dichromate solution green. The salt may
be a
(A) carbonate (B) sulphide (C) sulphate (D) Sulphite
Ans. (D)
Sol. Na2SO3 + H2SO4 = Na2SO4 + SO2 + H2O
K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4 + 3SO2 = K2SO4 + Cr2(SO4)3 + H2O
green
Q.2 In an alkaline solution, sodium nitroprusside gives a violet colour with :

(A) S–2 (B) SO3–2 (C) SO4–2 (D) NO2–
Ans. (A)
Sol. Na2S + Na2[Fe(CN)5NO] = Na4[Fe(CN)5NO5]
pink
Q.3 For identifying which of the following anions is a soda extract not used ?
(A) Cl– (B) NO3– (C) SO4–2 (D) CO3–2
Ans. (D)
Sol. In soda extract Na2CO3 is used. So we cannot do test of CO3–2.
Q.4 Which of the following reagents can be used to distinguish between a sulphite and a sulphate in solution ?
(A) (i) FeSO4 (ii) conc. HCl (B) (i) Na2 [Fe(CN)5NO], (ii) HCl
(C) (i) BaCl2 (ii) HCl (D) (i) Na3[CO(NO2)]6] (ii) HCl
Ans. (C)
Sol. Na2SO4 + BaCl2 = BaSO4 + 2NaCl [BaSO4 insoluble in HCl]
Na2SO3 + BaCl2 = BaSO3 + 2NaCl [BaSO3 insoluble in HCl]
BaSO3 + 2HCl = BaCl2 + H2SO3
Q.5 Which of the following ions is responsible for the brown colour in ring test of a nitrate ?
(A) [Fe(H2O)5NO]2+ (B) [Fe(CN)5NO]2– (C) [Fe(NO2)6]4– (D) [Fe(H2O)5NO2]+
Ans. (A)
Sol. NaNO3 + H2SO4 = NaHSO4 + HNO3
2HNO3 + 6FeSO4 + 3H2SO4 = 3Fe2(SO4)3 + 2NO + 2H2O
FeSO4 + 5H2O + NO ¾® [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4
Q.6 A salt, when warmed with 2n-powder and an NaOH solution, gives a gas that turns a filter paper so a red with an alkaline
solution of K2[HgI4] into brown. The anion present in the salt is :
(A) NO3– (B) NO2– (C) Br– (D) Cl–
Ans. (A)
Sol. Zn + 2NaOH ¾® Na2ZnO2 + 2[H]
NaNO3 + 8[H] ¾® NaOH + 2H2O + NH3
3NaOH + NH3 + 2K2[HgI4] ¾® H2N–HgO–OHg–I + HKI + 3NaI + 2H2O
(brown)
Q.7 Which of the following reagents can be used to identify bromide and iodide ions in the presence of each other ?
(A) chlorine water (B) AgNO3 solution (C) Strech solution (D) H2SO4 (concentrated)
Ans. (A)
Sol. 2Br– + Cl2 ¾® 2Cl– + Br2
(brown chloroform layer)
Q.8 (A) + tap water ¾® White turbidity soluble in aq NH3
D
(A) ¾¾ ® residue (B) + (C) + O2
Aqueous solution of (A) gives brown ring on adding FeSO4 and conc. H2SO4. (C) is paramagnetic and forms dimmer
of V.D. 46
Identity (A), (B) and (C)
Sol. Tap water has Cl– and turbidity of AgCl, Which is soluble in NH3 due to complex formation [Ag(NH3)4]Cl
(A) give ring test i.e. it has NO32-
D
2AgNO3 ¾¾ ® 2Ag + 2NO 2 + O 2
(A) (B) (C)
Q.9 Identify (A), (B), (C) and (D) based on following observations.
D
(i) (A) ¾¾ ® glassy transparent bead (B) on platinum wire.
(ii) (B) + CuSO4 ¾® Coloured bead (C)
(iii) (A) + conc. H2SO4 + CH3CH2OH ¾¾¾ ignite
® greem flame (D)
(iv) Aqueous solution of (A) is alkaline.
D
Sol. Na 2 B 4 O7 .10H 2 O ¾¾ ® NaBO 2 + B 2 O3 + 10H 2 O
(A) (B)
D
B2 O3 + CuSO 4 ¾¾ ® Cu(BO 2 ) 2 + SO 3
(C)
Na2B4O7 + H2SO4 + 5H2O ¾® Na2SO4 + 4H3BO3 + 3H2O

H3BO3 + 3C2H5OH ¾® (C2H5)B + 3H2O
Green flame on igintion
Q.10 An aqueous solution of a gas X undergoes the following reactions

(i) It turns an acidified dichromate solution green.
(ii) On boiling it with H2O2 , coaling and then adding an aqueous solution of BaCl2, a white precipitate insoluble in
dilute HCl, is obtained.
(iii) On passing H2S through the solution, a white turbidity is observed. Identify X and give the reactions in steps (i),
(ii), and (iii)
Sol. The reactions in steps (i) and (ii) suggest that the gas is SO2
-2
® 2Cr +3 + 3SO 4-2 + H 2 O
(i) Cr2 O7 + 2H + SO 2 ¾¾ green
+2
® SO 4-2 + 2H + ¾¾¾
(ii) SO 2 + H 2 O2 ¾¾ Ba
® BaSO 4 (white ppt)
(iii) SO2 + 2H2S ¾® 3S + 2H2O
DPP # 24
Qualitative Analysis
Q.1 Which of the following anions is not easily removed from aqueous solutions by precipitation :
(A) Cl– (B) SO4–2 (C) NO3– (D) CO3–2
Ans. (C)
Sol. All salts of NO3– soluble in water.
Q.2 Two colourless gases on mixing formed dense white fumes. These are :
(A) NH3 and SO2 (B) SO2 and steam (C) NH3 and HCl (D) NH3 and HNO2
Ans. (C)
Sol. HCl + NH3 ¾® NH4Cl (white)
Q.3 Few drops of a salt solution are shaken with CHCl3, chlorine-water. CHCl3 layers becomes violet. Solution contains :
(A) NO2– (B) NO3– (C) Br– (D) I–
Ans. (D)
Sol. 2NaI + Cl2 ¾® 2NaCl + I2 (Voilet)
Q.4 Fe2(SO4)3 on heating gives :

(A) SO2 and SO3 (B) SO2 only (C) SO3 only (D) S only
Ans. (C)
Sol. Fe2(SO4)3 ¾® 3SO3 + Fe2O3
Q.5 Some salts which give brown vapours with conc. H2SO4, may be :
(A) NO3– (B) Cl– (C) Br– (D) I–
Ans. (A,C)
Sol. NaNO3 + H2SO4 ¾® NaHSO4 + HNO3
4HNO3 ¾® 2H2O + 4NO2 + O2
Brown
NaBr + H2SO4 ¾® NaHSO4 + HBr
2HBr + H2SO4 ¾® 2H2O + SO2 + Br 2
brown
Q.6 An inorganic salt is strongly heated. The residue is yellow while hot and white when cold. The salt contains.
(A) Pb+2 (B) Zn+2 (C) Ag+2 (D) NH4+
Ans. (B)
Sol. ZnO becomes yellow when hot due to Frenxel difect.
Q.7 On being strongly heated, a blue salt leaves a black reduce. Which of the following cations can be present in the salt ?
(A) Fe+2 (B) Fe+3 (C) Cu+2 (D) Zn+2
Ans. (C)
Sol. D
CuSO4 . 5H2O ¾¾ CuO
®
blue black
Q.8 An aqueous solution of a gas X undergoes the following reactions.

(i) It turns red litums blue
(ii) When an excess of the solution is added to a CuSO4 solution, a deep blue solution is obtained.
(iii) On addition of an FeCl3 solution to a solution of X a brown precitate, soluble in dilute HNO3, is obtained.
Identify x and give the equations for the reaction in steps (ii) and (iii)
Sol. X should be NH3
NH 4+ + OH 2-
(i) NH3 + H 2 O
(ii) Cu +2 + NH3 ¾¾
® [Cu(NH3 ) 4 ]2 +
+3
® Fe +3 + 2NO 3- + 3H 2 O
HNO3
(iii) Fe + 3H 2 O ¾¾
® Fe(OH) 3 ¾¾¾
Brown
Q.9 (1) A compound (X) in used in the laboratory for analytical purpose. Its aqueous solution undergoes the
following reactions.
(2) On adding copper sulphate solution, a brown mixture is obtained, which turns white on treatment with an
excess of an Na2S2O3 solution.
(3) On adding Ag+ ions, a yellow precipitate in soluble in NH4OH, is obtained.
Identify X and give equations equations fro the reactions in steps (1) and (ii)
Sol. X is KI
Ag+ + I– ¾® AgI ¯
yellow in soluble in NH4OH
Cu+2 + 2I– ¾® Cu2I2 + I2
I2 + S2 O32 - ¾¾
® SO62 - + I -
colourlesss
Q.10 To a solution containing Cu+2, Ag+, Cu+ and K+ 2M HCl is added when a white precipitate (A) is obtained. After filtration
H2S is passed through the filtrate, a black ppt (B) is formed on removing (B) by filtration, white ppt of (C) is obtained with
addition of Na2CO3 into the filtrate. Identity (A), (B) and (C)
Sol. (i) Ag+ ions with HCl with from white ppt of AgCl (A)
(ii) Cu+2 + H2S ¾® CuS (B)
Black ppt.
(iii) Ca+2 + Na2CO3 ¾® CaCO3¯
White ppt
DPP # 25
Isomerism
Q.1 & are -

(A) Tautomers (B) functional (C) position (D) all
Ans. (B)
2 4 2 4
Sol. &
1 3 1 5
5 3
¯ ¯ (Functional isomer)
(º) (=)
alkyne alkene
Q.2 CH3CONH2 & HCONHCH3 are called -

(A) Position (B) Chain (C) Tautomers (D) Functional
Ans. (A)
O OH
Sol.
CH3–C–NH2 H–C–N–CH3
Amide Aldehyde 2ºAmine
Parent carbon chain different. So chain isomer.
Q.3 & show isomerism -

(A) chain (B) position (C) functional (D) none of these
Ans. (C)
Sol. &
All ring chain isomer are functional isomer also.
Q.4 Which one of the following pairs are called position isomers -
(A) CH2(OH)CH2COOH and CH3–CH(OH)COOH (B) C2H5OH & CH3OH
(C) (C2H5)2CO & CH3COOCH2CH2CH3 (D) All are
Ans. (A,C)
Sol. For isomerism molecular formula must be same
CH2–CH2–COOH CH3–CH2–COOH
OH OH
for position isomerism substituents position must be different.
Q.5 Which will show optical activity -
SO3 H Br I R R
R
(A) (B) (C) O (D)

O
SO3 H SO3H NO2 O
Ans. (A,B,D)
H SO3 H
Ortho substituted
SO3H H
Biphenyl show
Br I Optical isomerism
Sol.
SO3H N O
O
R R R
* chiral centre
Q.6 Correct structure of meso isomer of C6H12(OH)2

C2 H5 CH3 CH3 CH3
H OH H CH2OH H OH H OH
(CH2 )2 H CH3
(A) H OH (B)H CH2OH (C) H OH (D) H OH
C2 H5 CH 3 CH 3 CH 3
Ans. (A,B,C,D)
C2H5 +Q
H OH due to plane of symmatary
it is optically inactive
H OH
Sol. is called meso-compounds.
C2H5
–Q
QT = + Q – (– Q) meso-compound is
QT = zero. optically inactive due
to internal compensation.
CH3
H OH Psuedo centre
H * CH3 so, it is optically inactive
H OH due to plane of symmatery
CH 3
Migration of acidic hydrogen from a-carbon to electronegative atom which is bonded with multiple bond is the cause of
tautomers
H O O H
R C C R¢¢ R C C R¢¢
R¢ R¢
The conversion of keto form in to an enol form is called enolisation which depends on various factors like structural factor,
temperature and nature of solvent.
In general cases the equilibrium lies well to the left. In certain cases, however, a larger amount of the enol form is present.
Enolic form predominates in b-diketones, in molecules in which the enolic double bond is m-conjugation with another
double bond, in molecules that contain two or three bulky aryl groups and highly fluroinated enols.
Q.7 Which one of the following has max enol content -
(A) 2,3-heptanedione (B) 2,4-heptanedione (C) 2,5-heptane dione (D) 2,6-heptanedione
Ans. (B)
H
Å
H3C CH2 CH2 C C C CH3
Sol. (1)
O H O
Q
H
CH 3 CH2 CH2 C C C CH3 (2)
OH O
due to conjugation, it is max stable have max enol content.
Q.8 Correct order of ease of enolisation is -

O O O O O O
(A) < < (B) < <
O O O O O O
(C) < < (D) < <
Ans. (A)
Sol. Conjugation a enolisation.
Q.9 Which of the following shows maximum enol content -

O O O O
(A) (B) (C) (D)
CH3 C CH 3 Cl2 CH C CH3 CF3 C CHF2 CH3 C H
Ans. (C)
Q Å
H O H easily eliminate H Å
Sol. F F due to strong (–I) effect
C C C
F Å F of F.
b
OH
H
F
F C C C
F
F
Q.10 Following compounds show tautomerism except -

CH3 O
O O O O
CH3 C C CH 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
CH3 C CH 3 CH 3 CH3 C OH CH3 C CH2 C OC 2H5
CH3
Ans. (C)
Q
O
Sol. CH3 C OH doesn't sho w tautomerism
Å
Q
H O OH
H C C OH « CH2 C OH
Å unstable
H
so, doesn't evidence
DPP # 26
Isomerism
Q.1 Choose the homologues -
CH3 OH
CH 2OH
(A) & (B) &
(C) CH3NH2 & (CH3)2NH (D) All the above

Ans. (A)
CH 3
Sol. and
® same general formula

® same chemical properties
Q.2 How many isomers are possible for alkyl group C 4H9 -
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
Ans. (D)
Sol. C4H9 -isomer
C–C–C–
(1) C–C–C–C– (2) |
C
|
C–C–C–C C–C–C
(3) | (d+l) (4) |
C
1-2
3-4 chain
1-3 positio n isomer
1-4
Q.3 Given compound shows which type of isomerism
O
S O and
O
O
S O
O
(A) Chain isomerism (B) Positional isomerism
(C) Metamerism (D) Functional group isomerism
Ans. (C)
Sol. Esters are metamers
Q.4 Which of the following is not the correct relationship
Me Me Me
Me Me
Me Me O–Et
OH O–Me OH
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(A) II and IV are metamer (B) I and II are functional isomer
(C) I and III are chain isomer (D) I and IV are positional isomer
Ans. (D)
Sol. I & IV are not isomer
Q.5 Which has a plane of symmetry -
a a
b a b d
(A) (B) (C) (D)
CH3 CH 3 CH3 d c
Ans. (A,B,C)
Sol.
CH3 CH 3 CH3
a
b a
Plane of symmetry..
d
Q.6 Which is not optically active -

a
a b H
(A) (B) (C) C (D)
a C C C b
H
a
Ans. (A,B,C)
Sol. Allenes, spiranes
¯ ¯
a a a a
b C C C b b b
¯ ¯
Both group must be Both group must be
different for optically different.
active.
Both show O.I. but optically inactive
Optical purity (O.P.) of a mixture is defined as the ratio of its rotation to the rotation of a pure enantiomer.
observed rotation
OP = rotation of pure enantiomer × 100%
The enatiomeric excess (e.e) is a similar method for expressing the relative amount of enantiomers in mixture. The enantiomeric
excess is defined as follows :
mole of one enantiomer - mole of other enantiomer
%e.e. = Total moles of both enantiomers
×100%
d -l
Or O.P. = e.e. =
× 100
d+l
These formulas can be used whether the amount of the enantiomers are expressed in concentration, grams or percentage.
Pure (+)–2–butanol shows a specific rotation of + 13.5º.
Q.7 A mixture contains 6g of (+)–2–butanol and 4g of (–)- 2-butanol. What will be the enantiomeric excess (e.e)
(A) 20% (B) 40% (C) 60% (D) 80%
Ans. (A)
Sol. Enantiomeric axis
mole of one enantiomer - mole of other enantiomer
= Total moles of both enantiomers
6-4
= × 100
10
2
= × 100
10
= 20%
Q.8 A mixture contains twice as much (S)-2-butanol than (R)-2-butanol. What is the e.e.?
(A) 3.4% (B) 50% (C) 33.3% (D) 75%
Ans. (C)
12 - 4 8
Sol. e.e. = = × 100 = 50%
16 16
Q.9 The specific rotation of (S)–2–iodobutane is + 15.90º, predict the specific rotation of (R)–2–iodobutane -
(A) + 7.95º (B) – 7.95º (C) – 15.90º (D) – 31.80º
Ans. (C)
Sol. (+) s – 2 iodobutane = (–) s–2 iodobutane equal in rotation.

OH
H CH3
(A) (i) R-Configuration
C2H5
CH 3
(B) CH CHD (ii) Show geometrical isomerism
CH 3
H OH
(C) H OH (iii) Mesoform
CH 3
CH3
Cl H
(D) (iv) optically active

Cl H
CH3
Ans. (A) ® (i),(iv) (B) ®(ii), (C) ®(iii), (D) ®(iv)
OH 1
S®R
4 H CH3 3 4th group present at
Sol. (A) horizontal line
C2H5
2
H H
* *
CH3 — C — C — CH3
(D)
Cl Cl
Two chiral carbon optically active.
DPP # 27
Hydrocarbons
Q.1 During electrolysis which anion migrates towards anode so as to produce 2,3-dimethyl butane -
COO– CHCOO –
(A) CH3–CH2–COO¯ (B) CH3 — CH –
(C) CH3 – (D) CH3COO–
COO CH3
Ans. (C)
Sol. At anode (oxidation)
CH CH O
2CH3– –COO– ® 2CH3– – –O + 2e–
CH3 CH3 C
CH O CH
2CH3– – –O ® 2CH3– + 2CO2
CH3 C CH3
CH CH CH
2CH3– ® CH3– – – CH3
CH3 CH3 CH3
2,3-dimethyl butane
So option (C) is correct.
Q.2 Anti-Markownikoff’s addition of HBr is not observed in -

(A) Propene (B) But-2-ene (C) Butene (D) Pent-2-ene
Ans. (B)
Sol. Anti-Markownikoff’s and markounikoff’s both are not applicable in symmetrical alkene.
So option (B) is correct.
Q.3 Reactivity of alkenes towards HX decreases in the order -

(A) Butene > Propene > Ethene (B) Butene > Ethene > Propene
(C) Ethene > Propene > Butene (D) None of these
Ans. (A)
Sol. Reaction intermediate of electrophilic addition is carbocation. Therefore, reactivity of alkene will depends on the stability
of carbocation
CH 3 CH3
C= C CH3–CH=CH2 CH2=CH2
H H
Å
Corresponding CH3– C H –CH–CH3
Å Å
CH3– C H –CH3 CH3– C H 2
carbocation ¬¾ ¾¾ ¾¾ ¾¾ ¾¾ ¾¾¾¾
stability of carbocatio n in increasin g order
So option (A) is correct.
Q.4 B ¬¾ Na / liq.NH 3
¾ ¾ R–CºC–R ¾¾ ¾ ¾ ¾
Lindlar
¾® A.
A and B are geometrical isomers (R–CH=CH–R) -
(A) A is trans, B is cis (B) A and B both are cis
(C) A and B both are trans (D) A is cis, B is trans
Ans. (A)
Sol. In the presence of lindlar’s catalyst addition up to alkyne takes place in cis manner but in the presence of Na + NH3 (liq.)
addition up to alkyne in trans manner.
R R R H
C=C ¬¾ ¾ ¾ R–Cº–R ¾¾ ¾¾®
Lindlar 3 Na / NH C=C
H H H R
Q.5 Which is expected to react most readily with bromine -
(A) CH3CH2CH3 (B) CH2 = CH2 (C) CH º CH (D) CH3–CH = CH2
Ans. (D)
Sol. Halogen addition is electrophilic addition and increasing order of reactivity towards halogen addition.
Alkane < Alkyne < Alkene
Alkynes are less reactive than alkene towards addition of halogen b/c the intermediate formed in case of alkyne is less
stable :
CH = CH CH 2 = CH2
Å Å
Br Br
less stable more stable
In alkenes in more substituted alkene reactive towards Br 2/Cl2
So the option (D) is correct.
C º CH
Q.6 Hydration of in presence of H2SO4 / HgSO4 gives (as a major product) -
OH
CH= CH COCH3 CH 2CHO
(A) C = CH2 (B) (C) (D)
OH
Ans. (C)
C º CH +2 + C=CH2
Sol. ¾Hg
¾ ¾/ H¾®
HOH
OH
¯ Hg+2/H+
C–CH3 C CH 3
¬¾ ¾¾
-H O 2
O OH OH
Q.7 A compound (C5H8) reacts with ammonical AgNO3 to give a white precipitate and reacts with excess of KMnO4 solution
to give (CH3)2CH–COOH. The compound is -
(A) CH2=CH–CH=CH–CH3 (B) (CH3)2CH–CºCH
(B) CH3(CH2)2CºCH (D) (CH3)2C=C=CH2
Ans. (B)
AgNO 3 Q
+
Sol. (CH3) 2–CH–CºCH (CH3) 2–CH–CºAg
White
precipitate
Excess KMnO 4
(CH3 )2–CH–C–CH+HCOOH
O
Q.8 A mixture of CH4, C2H4 and C2H2 gases are passed through a Wolf bottle containing ammonical cuprous chloride. The
gas coming out is -
(A) Methane (B) Acetylene
(C) Mixture of methane and ethylene (D) Original mixture
Ans. (C)
Sol. C2H2 react with ammonical cuprous chloride due to acidic nature of acetylene.
So the gas coming out is mixture of methane and ethylene.
Option (C) is correct.
Q.9 What are the products obtained upon the ozonolysis of 2-pentene ?
(A) CH3CH2CHO (B) CH3CHO (C) CH3COCH3 (D) CH3COCH2CH3
Ans. (A,B)
Sol.
CH3–CH2–CH = CH–CH3 ¾O¾3 , Zn
¾® CH .CH .CHO + CH .CHO
O O H 2O 3 2 3
Q.10 Which of the following are correct :

1.O3
OHC–CH2CH2CH2 –CHO
(A) 2.Zn,H2O
H H
O
||
C 6H5C–O OH
(B) H H
CH2 Cl2
H H O
KM nO4 H H
(C) Cold dilute solution
H H
OH OH
O O
|| ||
KM nO4 –
(D) O–CCH2 CH2 CH2 C–O –
OH–, heat
H H
Ans. (A,B,C,D)
DPP # 28
Hydrocarbons
A
Q.1 CH3–CH2–CºCH B
CH3CºC–CH3
A and B are -
(A) alcoholic KOH and NaNH2 (B) NaNH2 and alcoholic KOH
(C) NaNH2 and Lindlar (D) Lindlar and NaNH2
Ans. (A)
Sol. NaNH2 ® is use to formation of terminal alkyne.
BD
Q.2 CH3CH = CH2 ¾¾¾ 3
® product X
H O / OH – 2 2
X is -
CH CH
(A) CH3 – – CH2D (B) CH3 – – CH2OH
OH D
CH
(C) CH3– – CH3 (D) None is correct
OD
Ans. (B)
CH
Sol. CH3CH=CH2 (CH3 –CH2)3B
BD3
¾¾
¾®
D
CH
CH3CHDCH2 HO OH
CH3CHDCH2 B + H – O OH OH -
¾¾¾® 3CH3–D –CH2–OH + H3BO3
CH3CHDCH2 H–O OH
Q.3 + Br2 ¾¾® A; A will have configuration -
Br Br
(A) (B) (C) both true (D) none is true

Br Br
Ans. (B)
d+ d–
+ Br – Br ® Br
Å
Sol. Br ¬ BrQ + Br
Å
Br
Q.4 ¾OsO
¾¾4 ® A, A is -
NaHSO 3
(A) meso diol (B) racemic diol (C) both correct (D) none is correct
Ans. (A)
Sol. ¾OsO
¾¾4 ®
cis-3-hexene
H H
O O H H
OS ®
O O OH OH
Intermediate
cis-3,4-hexadiol
(meso compound)
CH3
OOCCH 3
Q.5 D Product. Which of the following is the product -
H ¾¾®
CH3
CH 2
CH 3 CH 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
CH 3 CH3 CH 3 CH 3
Ans. (A,B,C)
CH 3
OOCCH3 D
Sol. ¾¾® product, this reaction is thermal elimination in this reaction product formation takes place by
CH 3
Hofmann rule.
b b¢ CH3
b b¢ CH3
CH 3 Å
a D (A) CH3
OOCCH3 ¾¾®
CH3
b¢¢ CH 3 CH2
(B) CH3
So option (A) and (B) are correct.
Q.6 Which of the following will react with sodium metal :

(A) Ethyne (B) 1-Butyne (C) 2-Butyne (D) Ethane
Ans. (A,B)
– +
1
Sol. CH º CH ¾¾®
Na CH º C +
Na 2 H2
– +
1
CH3–CH2–CºCH ¾¾®
Na CH3.CH2.Cº C Na + 2 H2
Q.7 Which of the following can be uses for the preparation of propane ?
1.B H 6 1.Mg/ether
(A) CH3CH = CH2 ¾ ¾ 2¾¾®
2.CH COOH
(B) CH3CH2CH2Cl ¾¾2.H
¾¾
O
¾®
3 2
RedP/HI/15 0º C NaOH/CaO
(C) CH3CH2CH2I ¾¾ ¾ ¾ ¾¾® (D) CH3CH2CH2COONa ¾¾ ¾D
¾¾®
Ans. (A,B,C,D)
( i ) BH 3
Sol. CH3–CH=CH2 (¾ ¾¾ ¾® CH –CH –CH
ii ) CH 3.COOH 3 2 3
It is example of hydroboration reduction reaction

CH3–CH2.CH2.Cl ¾(¾
i ) Mg / ether
¾¾ ¾® CH3.CH2.CH2.MgCl
¾H¾
¾2O
® CH3CH2CH3
HI / Re d P
CH3.CH2.CH2.I ¾¾ ¾¾® CH .CH .CH
150 ° C 3 2 3
–
CH3.CH2.CH2. CO O ¾¾®
Na+ D CH3.CH2.CH3

Consider the following reaction:
R–CH–CH3
R–CH=CH2 + H–Nu ®
Nu
C C
The region above and below a double bond is electron-rich because of the p bond.
Consequently double bonds have a tendency to act as nucleophile and react with electrophilic reagents. In the first
Å
step the double bond reacts with an electrophile (in most of the cases electrophile is H ) to give a carbocation
intermediate. In the second step this carbocation, which is electrophilic in character, combines with nucleophile of the
reagent to give the product.
Step : 1
+
R–CH–CH3
2º-Carbocation (more stabl e)
+
R–CH=CH2 ¾H¾® +
slow
R–CH2–CH2
1º-Carbocat ion (less stable)
Step : 2
Nu
+ Nu
••
R–CH–CH3 fast
R–CH–CH 3
Addition of electrophile is involved in the slow step and forms more stable carbocation. Rearrangement takes place to
give more stable corbocation if possible. So the product formation takes place by the formation of most stable carbocation
as RI.
Q.8 What will be the product in the following reaction :
¾® ?
HCl
CH 3–CH–CH=CH2 ¾¾
CH3
(A) CH3–CH—CH–CH3 (B) CH 3–CH–CH 2–CH 2–Cl
CH3 Cl CH3
CH3
(C) CH 3–C—CH2 –CH 3 (D) none of these
Cl
Ans. (C)
Å
CH 3–CH–CH =CH2 CH 3–CH–CH–CH3
Sol. H+
¾¾®
CH3 CH3
2ºcarbocation
(unstable)
H shift
Cl Å
CH 3–C–CH2 –CH3 CH 3–C–CH2 –CH3
Cl Q
¬¾ ¾¾
CH3 CH3
(3º carbocation more stable)
Q.9 What will be the most stable intermediate in the following reaction :
CH3
CH 2=CH–C–CH3
¾® ?
¾HBr
¾
CH3
CH 3 CH3 CH3
Å Å Å Å
CH3–CH2–C–CH3
(A) CH3–CH–C–CH 3 (B) CH2–CH2–C–CH3 (C) (D) CH3–CH–C–CH 3
CH 3 CH3 CH3 CH3
Ans. (D)
CH3 CH3
+
Sol. CH2=CH–C–CH3 H+ CH3–CH–C–CH3
¾¾®
CH3 CH3
b methyl shift
CH3 CH3
CH3–CH–C–CH3
+
(3º carbocation stable)
So option (D) is correct.
Q.10 In the given reaction

C6H5–CH=CH–CH3 + HCl ® [X], [X] will be-
Cl Cl
(A) C6H5–CH–CH2–CH3 (B) C6H5–CH2–CH–CH3
(C) Cl–C6H5–CH=CH–CH3 (D) C6H5–CH=CH–CH2Cl
Ans. (A)
Å
Sol. CH=CH–CH 3 ¾¾
H+
® CH–CH2–CH3
Carbocation is stable
due to resonance
Å
Cl
Cl Q
CH–CH2–CH3 CH–CH2–CH3

DPP # 29
Alkyl Halides
Q.1 The nucleophilicity of halogens in polar protic solvent follows the order :
(A) I– > Cl– > Br – > F– (B) I– > Br – > Cl– > F– (C) I– < Br – < Cl– < F– (D) Br– > I– > Cl– < F–
Ans. (B)
Sol. Electronegativity of halides vary in the following order F > Cl > Br > I.
\ I– has highest nucleophilicity and F– has lowest nucleophilicity.
Q.2 Inversion of configuration is observed when the reaction proceeds through :

(A) SN1 mechanism (B) E2 mechanism (C) SN2 mechanism (D) Rearrangement
Ans. (C)
Sol. Walder inversion is observed in SN2 of backside attack.
Q.3 Racemization in SN1 reactions is mainly due to :

(A) Solvent effects (B) Nucleophile
(C) Carbocation formation (D) Carbanions
Ans. (C)
Sol. A carbocation can be attached by incoming nucleophile from both the sides equally thereby leading to Racemisation.
Q.4 CH3COO– is a bad leaving group because it is a :

(A) Strong base (B) Weak base (C) Conjugate base (D) Solvent
Ans. (A)
Sol. CH3COOÈ is a congrate base of a weak acid & hence it is a good base & thus a poor leaving group.
Q.5 If an alkyl halide CH2CH2CH2X goes for dehydrohalogenation followed by addition of HX will lead to formation of
(A) Same alkyl halide (B) Different (C) An isomer (D) An hydrocarbon
Ans. (C)
Markownikoff's
Sol. dehydrohalogenation
CH3–CH2–CH2–X ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾ addition
® CH3–CH=CH2 ¾¾¾¾¾¾® H3C CH CH2
HX
X
Isomer
Q.6 Which one of the following compounds most readily undergoes substitution by SN2 mechanism ?
CH3 CH3
(A) CH3 CH CH2Cl (B) CH3CH2Cl (C) CH3 CH Cl (D) CH3 C Cl
C3H7 CH3
Ans. (B)
Sol. CH3CH2Cl being 1° halide undergoes SN2 mechanism readily.
Q.7 Being a primary alcohol, neopentyl alcohol, doesn’t undergo substitution thro’ SN2 mechanism, due to :
(A) steric hindrance (B) solvent effects (C) poor leaving group (D) High molecular weight
Ans. (A)
Sol. of steric hinderance backside attack is not viable.
Q.8 The nature of nucleophile doesn’t alter the rate of SN1 reaction because :
(A) Nucleophiles are not used
(B) Concentration of nucleophile is less
(C) Nucleophiles are not involved in rate determining step
(D) All the above
Ans. (C)
Sol. Reactant not involved in r.d.s. doesn’t affect the rate of a reaction
Q.9 SN1 mechanism will be readily shown by :
Cl
(A) CH3—CH2Cl (B) CH3 CH CH3
(C) CH3 CH CH CH3 (D) CH3Cl

CH3 Cl
Ans. (C)
Sol. In molecule (C) more stable.
Q.10 The carbon in the reactive intermediate of SN1 is in the hybridization :

(A) sp3 (B) sp2 (C) sp (D) Depends upon the nucleophile
Ans. (B)
DPP # 30
Alcohol, Ether & Phenol
OH
Br2 CH3 Br
Q.1 ‘A’ ¬H¾2 O¾ ¾¾®
¾2 ‘B’, ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively are -
CS2
OH OH
CH3 Br CH 3
(A) Both are (B) Both are
Br Br
OH OH OH OH
Br CH 3 CH3 CH3 Br CH 3
(C) & (D) and
Br Br Br Br
Ans. (C)
Sol. In H2O (polar solvent) dibromophenol derivative and in CS2 (non-polar) solvent momeobromo phenol derivative is
obtained.
Q.2 Alcohols may act as -

(A) Oxidising agent (B) Reducing agent (C) Lewis base (D) Bronsted acid
Ans. (A,B,C)
••
Sol. R–O–H alcohol donates it’s lonepair of electron.
••
So alcohol act as lewise base and reducing agent.
Alcohol is bronsted acids i.e. it can donate aproton to a strong base.
••–
•• B – H + R – O
••
– ••
R–O–H + B ®
••
•• Conjugate
Base
acid
So option (A), (B) and (C) is correct.
Q.3 Hydration of 3-phenyl-1-butene in dilute H2SO4 is not a satisfactory method for preparing 3-phenyl-2-butanol, because
2-phenyl-2-butanol is obtained instead. Explain.
OH
+ + +
Sol. H2C = CH–CH–CH3 H
¾¾®
¾ H3C–CH–CH–CH 3 ¾ H3C–CH2–C–CH 3 ¾H
¾-H
¾® O
¾2¾® CH3CH2–C–CH 3
+
–H
Ph Ph Ph Ph
(Hydration gives an intermediate 2ºC+, which undergoes a hydride shift. Although phenyl is a better migrator than H,
migration of H occurs leading to a more stable 3º benzylic carbocation.)
Q.4 The mechanism of the Claisen rearrangement of other allylic ethers of phenol is analogous to that of allyl phenyl ether.
What is the product of the Claisen rearrangement of
C6H5OCH2CH = CHCH3
Sol. O–CH2–CH=CH–CH3 O
H
CH–CH=CH2
|
CH 3
Tautomerisation
OH
CH–CH=CH 2
|
CH3
Q.5 Diethyl ether behaves as base. Why ?
Sol. Oxygen atom in diethyl ether molecule has two lone pair of electrons available for co-ordination. Therefore ethers behave
as Lewis base forming oxonium salts.
R
O: + HCl ® R OH+Cl– (dialkyl oxonium chloride)
2
R
Q.6 Sodium metal can be used for drying diethyl ether but not for ethanol. Why ?
Sol. Sodium metal reacts with ethanol to form sodium ethoxide ion because, of active H atom in ethanol. Ether do not have
such active H and thus can be dried by sodium
C2H5OH + Na ® C2H5ONa + 1/2H2

Symmetrically substituted epoxides give the same products in both the acid catalysed and base catalyzed ring opening.
An unsymmetrical epoxide gives different products under acid catalysed and base catalysed conditions. Under basic
conditions, the alkoxide ion simply attacks the less hindered carbon atom in an SN2 displacement. Under acidic conditions,
the alcohol. Attacks the protonated epoxide.
H H H
Å
O O O
Å Å
CH2—C—CH 3 « CH2 —C— CH3 « CH2—C—CH 3
CH3 CH3 CH 3
I II III
Structure II and III show that the oxirane carbon share part of positive charge. The tertiary carbon bear a larger part of
positive charge and it is more strongly electrophilic. The bond between tertiary carbon and oxygen is weaker implying a
lower transition state energy for attack at the tertiary carbon. Attack by the weak nucleophilic is sensitive to the strength
of electrophilic. Centre attack takes place at more electrophilic carbon which is usually the more substituted carbon
because it can better support the positive charge.
O
Q.7 What will be the products in following reactions: X
CH3
OH H OH
OCH 2–CH3 OH OH H OH
(A) (B) (C) (D)
CH3 OCH2 –CH 3 CH3 H CH3 OCH2 –CH 3 CH3 OCH2–CH3
Ans. (A)
Sol. ¾® OH H
O
+ CH3 CH2O– –
O H H+
¾¾®
¾ CH3 OCH2CH3
CH3
CH3 OCH2CH3
This Reaction is base catalyzed ring opening: in this reaction attack by the substituted carbon atom.
O H SO
Q.8 ¾¾2 ¾ ¾4 ® Q
CH 3 - OH
OCH 3
OH OCH3
(A) OCH3 (B) (C) (D) None of these
OH OH
Ans. (B)
O + O
H
Protonated
Expoxide
Sol. So option (B) is correct.
OH OH
–
OCH3 OCH3 Å
18
O
CH2—CH H O / H+
Q.9 ¾¾2 ¾¾® Z
CH 3
18 18 18
OH OH OH OH
18
(A) CH2–CH–OH (B) CH 2–CH–OH (C) CH2 –CH (D) None of these
CH3 CH3 CH3
Ans. (B)
H
18
18 18
O
H–O 18 OH
O +S
CH2—CH
Å –
CH2—CH
¾® CH2–CH + OH ¾® CH 2–CH – OH
–
Sol.
CH 3 H+ CH 3 CH3
¾¾®
¾ Protonated CH3
epoxide
This reaction is acid catalyzed ring opening reaction: In this reaction nucleophite attack at the more substituted atom.
Q.10 Assertion : Solubility on n-alcohols in water decreases with increase in molecular weight.
Reason : The relative proportion of the hydrocarbon part in alcohols increases with increasing molecular weight which
permits enhanced hydrogen bond with water.
Ans. (C)
Sol. The solubility decreases with increase in molecular mass of the alcohol. The molecular mass increases, the hydrocarbon
part (i.e. alkyl group) become larger which resists the formation of hydrogen bonds with water molecules and hence the
solubility goes on decreasing.
This assertion is true but the reason is false.
Option (C) is correct.
DPP # 31
Alcohol, Ether & Phenol
-
Q.1 (CH3)2C = C (CH3)2 Cl / H O ¾¾® B
A ¾OH
¾¾2¾¾
¾®
2
(CH3) 2C – C(CH 3)2 (CH3) 2C – C(CH 3)2 (CH3) 2C – C(CH 3)2

(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
O OH Cl OH OH
Ans. (A)
CH3 CH 3 ¾Cl / H2O

¾2 ¾¾ ®
C= C or
Sol. ( HOCl ) t
CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3
C— C
CH3 CH 3
OH Cl
OH–
CH3 CH3
C— C
CH3 CH 3 + HCl
O
Q.2 Isobutyl alcohol as prepared from the reaction of -

(A) CH3CH2MgBr and CH3CHO (B) CH3MgBr and CH3CH2CHO
(C) (CH3)2 CHMgBr and HCHO (D) CH3MgBr and CH3COCH3
Ans. (C)
CH3
– +
(CH3) 2CHMgBr + H–C–H
Sol. ® CH3–CH–CH2
O OMgBr
+
¯ H /HOH
CH3
Br
Mg + CH3–CH–CH2–OH
OH Isobutyl alcohol
Q.3 The compound (D) reacts with BH3–Tetrahydrofuran and then alkaline H2O2 to give chiral (E). Oxidation of (E) with
KMnO4 (acidified) gives a chiral carboxylic acid (F). Ozonolysis of ‘D’ gives after reduction with Zn the same compound
(G), which is obtained by oxidation of 2-methyl-3-pentanol with acidified KMnO4. Identify (D), (E), (F) and (G).
Sol. H
|
CH3–CH—C=CH2 ( i) BH3 /THF – *
( ii) H2O2/OH CH3–CH—C–CH2–OH
| | | |
CH 3 C2H 5 CH3 C2 H5
(B) chiral co mpound
(E)
(i) O3
(ii) Zn/H 2O KMn O4 /H +
O
|| *
CH 3–CH–C–C 2H 5 CH3–CH—CH–COOH
| | |
CH3 CH3 C2H 5
(G) (F)
KMnO 4/H+
OH
|
CH3– CH– CH–C 2H5
|
CH3
Q.4 A compound (A) C4 H10O4 yields on acetylation (B) of formula C12H18O8. How many hydroxyl groups are present in
compound ? Also write structures of (A) and (B).
Sol. C4H10O4 ¾® C12H18O8
(A) (B)
If one acetyl group reacts with one –OH group 2 C-atoms in alcohol because total 8C atom are increased from A to B,
So there are 4 –OH groups in A. So A and B are
CH2 –OH CH2 –OCOCH 3

| |
CH–OH CHOCOCH3
| |
CH–OH CHOCOCH3
| |
CH2OH CH2OCOCH3
(A) (B)
Q.5 An optically active alcohol (A) (C6H10O) absorbs two moles of hydrogen per mole of (A) upon catalytic hydrogenation
and gives a product (B). The compound (B) is resistant to oxidation by CrO3 and does not show any optical activity.
Deduce the structures of (A) and (B).
C 2H5 C 2H5
H3C–C–CºCH CH3–C–CH 2–CH 3

Sol.
OH OH
(A) (B)
Q.6 An organic compound (A) gives hydrogen on reacting with sodium. It also gives iodoform test and forms an aldehyde
of molecular formula (B) (C2H4O) on oxidation. Name the compound (A) and (B).
Sol. CH –CH –O–H ¾® It can iodoform test :
3 2
(A)
[O]
CH3CHO
(B)
Thionyl chloride is the best reagent for converting an alcohol to an alkylchloride. The by-products are gaseous SO2 and
HCl, leave the reaction mixture and ensure there can be no reverse reaction. Thionyl chloride reacts by the interesting
mechanism. If a base like amine is used as solvent, then there is inversion of configuration. If solvent is ether then
optically active alcohol gives optically active chloride with retention in configuration.
Mechanism - step (1) :
CH3 O CH3 ••
O CH3 O CH3 O
•• + + ••
CH3–CH2–C–OH + S–Cl ¾® CH3–CH2–C–O – S ¾® CH3–CH2–C—O – S–Cl+Cl ¾-HCl
¾¾® CH3–CH2–C—O –S–Cl
••
H Cl H H Cl H H H
Alkyl chlorosulphite
HCl gas formed escapes to due to insolubility in ether. Now alkyl chlorosulphite dissociates on heating to give an ion pair
and the sulphur atom quickly delivers chloride ion to the carbocation giving the retention of configuration.
Step II
CH3 ••
O CH3 O CH3
CH3–CH2–C •• S=O Å
D
¾¾® CH3–CH2–C — S = O ¾ ¾® CH3–CH2–C – Cl + SO 2
H Cl
H Cl H
Q.7 What will be the product of the following reaction:
H OH SOCl
C
2 Product
CH –(CH ) –CH CH O
3 2 4 2 3
(R)–2-octanol
O
(A) (S)–2-chlorooctane (B) (R)–2-chlorooctane
(C) Mixture of both 1and 2 (D) 2–octane
Ans. (B)
Sol. This reaction is a nucleophilic substitution reaction which occurs through SN1 mechanism so retention of configuration
is observed.
so product is (R) –2-chlorooctane
CH3 OH SOCl2/R 3N
A
Q.8 C – CH3
SOCl2/ (C 2H5)2O
H B
A & B are respectively -

CH3 Cl CH3 H CH3 H CH3 Cl
(A) C – CH3 & C – CH3 (B) C – CH3 & C – CH3

H Cl Cl H
CH3 CH3
(C) CH = CH3 & CH2 – CH3 (D) None of these

Ans. (B)
Sol. In presence of 3° amine inversion of configuration is observed and in presence of ether retention of configuration is
observed due to SN1 mechanism.
OH
SOCl
Q.9 ¾¾¾2 ® P, P is -
R - O- R
CH3
Cl Cl
CH3 Cl CH3
(A) (B) (C) (D) Cl
CH3 CH3
Ans. (A)
Sol. Retention of configuration is observed in this reaction due to SN1 mechanism
Q.10 Assertion : Phenol is more reactive than benzene towards electrophilic substitution
Reason : In the case of phenol, the intermediate carbocation is more resonance stabilized.
Ans. (A)
Sol. Phenol is more reactive than benzene towards electrophilic substitution because the intermediate of carbocation (Arinium
ion) is more stable.
So there for assertion and reasoning are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
DPP # 32
Oxidation and Reduction
Na/NH3
Q.1 Q P
P and Q are :
(A) in both cases (B) in both cases
(C) P is I, Q is II (D*) P is II, Q is I
Ans. (D)
Sol. cis-alkene formed by lindlar catalyst and trans - alkene formed by Na/NH3
Q.2 Which of the following Reaction is not possible ?
(A) ¾¾ ¾ ¾
¾®
alk . KMnO 4
D (B) ¾¾ ¾D
¾
¾®
alk . KMnO 4
CH3
NO 2 NH2
CH3–C–CH3
(C*) ¾¾ ¾ ¾
¾®
alk . KMnO 4
D (D) ¾¾ ¾D
¾
¾®
alk . KMnO 4
Ans. (C)
COOH
Sol. (A) ¾¾ ¾ ¾
¾®
alk . KMnO 4
D
COOH
HOOC COOH
(B) ¾¾ ¾D
¾
¾®
alk . KMnO 4
CH 3
CH3 –C–CH3
(C) ¾¾ ¾D
¾
¾® no reaction
alk . KMnO 4
NO2 NH2 NO2

COOH
(D) ¾¾ ¾D
¾
¾®
alk . KMnO 4
COOH
Q.3 Hydrolysis of a compound C9H10ClBr (P) yields C9H10O(Q)
(Q) gives positive haloform test ?
Strong oxidation of (Q) yields a dibasic acid which gives two mono-nitro derivative.
What is the structure of (P) ?
CH 3
Br Cl
Cl Br Br Cl CH 2 – Cl
CH2 – Br
(A) (B*) (C) (D)
CH 3
Ans. (B)
Cl Br O CH3 COOH
CH 3 COOH
Sol.
H3 O Å oxidation
Q.4 Which of the following will give syn addition ?
(i) KMnO (i) OsO

¾¾ ¾¾¾
¾4®
¾¾ ¾ ¾
¾4
®
(A*) (ii)H2O / OH – (B*) (ii)Na 2SO3
OsO 25 ºC (i) RCOOOH

¾¾ ¾ ¾
4 ¾¾® ¾¾ ¾¾ ¾ ¾
¾®
(C*) (D)
Na2 SO 3 (ii) H3O +
Ans. (ABC)
Sol. Self explanatory.
Q.5 Periodic acid is generally used for the oxidation of vicinal diols or a-hydroxycarboxyl compounds. Which of the following
statements are correct for this reaction
(A*) oxidative cleavage takes place in the above reactions.
(B*) final products are generally carbonyl compounds or carboxylic acids.
(C*) HIO4 reduced into HIO3
(D*) Intermediate of this reaction for a vicinal diol is
Ans. (ABCD)
Sol. HIO4 is a mild oxidising agent.
Cyclic intermediate is formed with vicinal diols.
Q.6 How many Stereoisomers are formed in following reaction ?
CH2
Pd
+ H2
CH3
Ans. 2
CH3 CH3
CH2
Pd
Sol. + H2 +
CH3 CH3 CH3

(Trans) (cis)
Q.7
Na / NH ( l )
(P) ¾¾¾¾3¾¾® Product(s)
The product(s) has/have X = degree of unsaturation and Y = number of isomeric product(s) formed.
Then X + Y = ?
Ans. 5
Na / NH ( l )
Sol. (P) ¾¾¾¾3¾¾® D.u. = X = 4 ; Y = 1
Q.8 How many para substituted benzenoid isomers of C8H8O2 gives 1, 4-dihydroxy benzene on hydrolysis ?
Ans. 1
Sol. H O+ +
¾¾3 ¾®
Comprehension (9 to 10)
Generally, during the clemmenson reduction >C=O group converts into >CH2 after reacting with (conc. HCl + Zn–Hg). But
in case of b-diketo compounds, its give unexpected products.
O O O
(conc. HCl+ Zn–Hg)
Ex: ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾ ®
D
H3 C CH3
Mechanism : Zn ¾® Zn2+ + 2e–
O O O¯ O H3C CH3
2e Q
H3 C CH3 H3C Q CH3 QO OQ
HCl
CH3 H 3C CH3
2e Q, HCl HO OH
O O
O
(conc. HCl+Zn–Hg)
Q.9 ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾ ® Product (X), (X) will be :
D
O
O O
O
(A) (B) (C) (D*)
OH
Zn–Hg + conc.HCl
Q.10 CH3 —CH—C—CH2 —C—CH2 —CH3 ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾ D
¾® Product (X), (X) will be :
CH 3 O O
(A) C—CH2 —CH—CH2 —CH3 (B) CH3 —CH—CH 2—CH2—CH2—CH2—CH3

O OH CH 3
(C) CH3 —CH—CH—CH2 —CH—CH 2—CH 3 (D*) CH3 —CH—C—CH—CH2 —CH 3

CH 3 Cl Cl CH 3 O CH3
Ans. 9. (D); 10. (D)
O OQ OQ OH
HCl O 2eQ O
Sol.9 2eQ ¾® HCl
¾¾¾ ® ¾¾¾ ® ¾¾¾ ®
¾¾¾
® D HCl
O OQ OQ OH
2e Q
Sol. 10 CH3 —CH—C—CH2—C—CH2 —CH3 CH3 —CH—C ——C—CH2 —CH3
CH3 O O CH3 O O
Q Q
HCl
HCl
CH3 —CH—C—C—CH2—CH3 CH3—CH—C——C—CH 2—CH 3
D
CH3 O CH2 CH3 OH OH
2eQ, HCl
CH3 —CH—C—CH—CH2 —CH3
CH3 O CH3
DPP # 33
Carbonyl Compounds
Q.1 In a Cannizzaro reaction the intermediate which is the best hydride donor is –
H H H
| H
|
C– – C– – O – O–
(A) C6H5– | O (B) C6H5– | O (C) (D)
O– O–
OH O– O2 N CH3O
Ans. (D)
·· ··
Sol. –OCH
·· 3 is an electron releasing group this group (–·OCH
· 3 ) facilitates the release of hydride ion. Therefore option (D) is
correct.
Pd - BaSO 4 Ca - Salt
Q.2 C6H5COCl ¾¾ ¾
H2
¾¾® Intermediate Oxidation Intermediate ¾¾ ¾ ¾® A
¾¾ ¾¾® Dry Distillati on
Compound (A) in above reaction sequence is–

(A) Benzophenone (B) Benzaldehyde (C) Acetophenone (D) Benzoquinone
Ans. (A)
Pb - BaSO 4 C
Sol. C6H5COCl ¾¾ ¾H¾2¾® C6H5– || –H ¾¾® ¾
[O]
O
C6H5 – C –OH
||
O
Ca-salt
C6H 5– C –C6H5
|| Dry Distillation
O
[A] Benzophenone
Therefore (A) is correct.
Q.3 Aldehydes and ketones give addition reactions with –

(A) HCN (B) NaHSO3 (C) RMgX (D) ROH
Ans. (A,B,C,D)
Sol. Aldehydes and ketones give addition Reaction with HCN, NaHSO3
RMgx and R–OH
OH
C = O + HCN ® C
CN
OH
C = O + NaHSO3 ® C
NaSO3
R
C
= O + RMga ® C
OMga
R
C = 0 + R–OH ® C
OR
Therefore option (A), (B), (C) and (D) are correct.
Q.4 Which of the following reaction are used for detection presence of carbonyl group?
(A) Reaction with hydroxylamine (B) Reaction with hydrazine
(C) Reaction with phenylhydrazine (D) Reaction with semicarbazide hydrochloride
Ans. (A,B,C,D)
Sol. Main reaction of carbonyl compounds is Nucleophilic addition.
Reaction with ammonia derivatives are nucleophile addition Reaction.
C = O + HO – NH2 ® C =N – OH
Hydroxylamine Oxime
C = O + NH2 – NH2 ® C = N – NH2
Hydrazine Hydrozone
C = O + NH2–NH– ® C = N–NH–
Phenyldrazine Phenylhydrazone
C C
C = O + NH2–NH– || –NH2® C =N–NH– || –NH2
O O
Semicarbazide Semicarbazone
Therefore option (A), (B), (C) and (D) are correct.
Q.5 Pure HCN fails to react with aldehydes and ketones.

Ans./Sol. HCN is weak acid and have low degree of dissociation but in presence of a base (even H2O), the dissociation
increases appreciably to provide appreciable CN¯ to attack >C=O bond.
Q.6 Ketones are less reactive than aldehydes.

Ans./Sol.The positive I.E. of two alkyl groups in ketones makes the carbon atoms less positive and makes it less reactive in
comparison to aldehydes.
R R +
C= O« C – O–
H H
R R +
C= O« C – O–
R R
Less positive charge and thus less reactive nature.
Q.7 Oximes are more acidic than hydroxyl amine.

Ans./Sol. NH2OH ® NH2O¯
Acid Base
. . ..
- ¬¾® > .. - – .. = ..
.. :
>C=N-OH®>C= N - O C N O
..
Acid Base
In oxime base, delocalization of p electron (i.e. resonance) stabilize it and thus conjugate acid i.e. oximes are more acidic.
No such resonance exists in hydroxyl amine base (NH2O–)
Q.8 Identify the reagents appropriate for each step in the following syntheses -
OH O
O ||
O CH
(a) H || CH2CH2CH2CH2 || H ¾®
C C
OH
CH3
O
O ||
O || CCH 3
(CH3) 2CH
(b) CH3 || CH2CH2 CHCH 2 CH ¾®
C |
CH(CH 3 ) 2
CH(CH3 )2
Ans./Sol. (a)
OH O O
HIO4 || ||
H– C –CH2 –CH 2–CH 2– C –H
OH NaOH/D
O
||
CH
CH3
O O
(b) O3 || ||
CH3– C –CH2–CH2– CH - CH 2 -C –H
H2 O/Zn |
CH( CH 3 ) 2
CH(CH3 )2
Aldol
NaOH/D
Condensation
O
(CH3 )2CH ||
C –CH3
Q.9 Assertion : p-Methoxybenzaldehyde is less reactive than benzaldehyde towards cyanohydrin towards cyanohydrin
formation.
Reason : + R-effect of the methoxy group increases the electron deficiency of the carbonyl carbon.
Ans. (C)
··
S( +) S (+)
CH3 O
··
C –H C –H
Sol. || ||
+meffe. C3 O C3 OQ
Due to +m effect on the methoxy group increases the electron deficiency of the carbonyl carbon.
Therefore option (C) is correct.
Q.10 Assertion : CH3– adds to >C=O group irrevesibly but CN– ion adds reversibly.
Reason : CH3– ion is much stronger nucleophile than CN– ion.
Ans. (A)
Sol. CH3– ion is much stronger nucleophile than CN– ion CH3– add to >C = O group irreversible.
CH 3
(+) (–) |
Or – C – + CH3 ¾® – C –
|| |
O O
·
CN
– |
– C – + CH 3 – C–
|| |
O O-
Therefore option (A) is correct.
DPP # 34
Carbonyl Compounds
Q.1 In the reaction series –

KMnO SOCl
¾. H¾SO¾® P ¾¾¾® Q ¾¾3¾¾
CH COONa
CH3CHO ¾dil ¾® R. The product R is –
4 2
2 4 Heat
(A) (CH3CO) 2O (B) Cl. CH2COOCOCH3

(C) CH3COCH2COOH (D) Cl2. CHCOOCOCH3
Ans. (A)
KMnO 4
Sol. CH3CHO + ¾dil¾ ¾¾® CH 3 - C - OH SOCl 2 CH 3 - C - Cl
. H 2SO 4 || ¾¾¾¾®
O ||
[ P] O
D
[Q ]
O
|| CH 3COONa
CH3 C
O +NaCl
CH3– C
||
O
(R)
Therefore optioin (A) is correct.
CHO COOH
Q.2 forms on reaction with –

OH OH
(A) K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4 (B) Ag2O/OH– (C) KMnO4 (D) All of these
Ans. (B)
CHO COOH
Sol. Ag O +2Ag¯ ppt

¾¾¾2 ®
OH OH
Therefore option (B) is correct.
Q.3 Which of the following are examples of aldol condensation ?
(A) 2CH3CHO ¾dil. NaOH

¾ ¾ ¾¾® CH3CHOHCH2CHO
(B) 2CH3COCH3 dil. NaOH CH3COH(CH3)CH2COCH3

¾¾ ¾ ¾¾®
(C) 2HCHO ¾dil. NaOH
¾ ¾ ¾¾® CH3OH+ HCOOH
(D) C6H5CHO + HCHO ¾dil . NaOH

¾ ¾ ¾¾® C6H5CH2OH
Ans. (A,B)
Sol. Those compound gives Aldol condensation which contain at least one a-H.
Therefore option (A) and (B) are correct.
Q.4 Benzophenone (C6H5COC6H5) does not react with –

(A) NaHSO3 (B) CH3OH (C) HCN (D) NH2OH
Ans. (A,B,C)
Sol. Benzophenon can not be react with NaHSO3, CH3OH, and HCN, There option (A), (B) and (C) are correct.
Q.5 In the laboratory preparation of acetaldehyde by oxidation of ethanol, acetaldehyde is distilled out continuously.
Ans./Sol. During oxidation of ethanol, acetaldehyde is formed in I step which should be distilled out, otherwise further
oxidation of acetaldehyde will lead the formation of acetic acid.
Q.6 Although both >C = O and >C = C< groupings have double bond they exhibit different types of addition reactions.
Ans./Sol.The >C = C< grouping undergoes electophilic addition while > C = O undergoes nucleophilic addition reactions. The
difference is because of the fact that C of >C = O is more electrophilic than carbon of > C = C < due to more electronegative
nature of O then C. Hence of > C = O reacts with nucleophiles. The >C = C < grouping is nucleophilic and hence adds
mainly electrophiles.
Q.7 What happens when 2, 2-Dichloropropane is treated with aqueous NaOH and the product treated with amalgamated zinc
in presence of conc. HCl.
Cl CH 3 Zn (Hg ) CH 3
H3C aq NaOH C=O ¾¾ ¾¾® CH2
Ans./Sol. C ¾¾ ¾¾® Conc HCl
H3C Cl CH 3 CH 3
Q.8 Suggest reasonable structure for compounds A and B.

O
CH3 O KOH
+ CH2=CH– || –CH3 ¾¾ ¾¾® A
C Methanol
O
O
CH3 O
| Al[ OC ( CH 3 ) 3 ]3
CH2 CH2 C CH3 ¾¾Benzene
¾¾ ¾¾® B
D
O
O O
CH3
CH3
Ans./Sol. (A) CH2CH2 (CO)CH3 (B)
O O
Q.9 Column A(Compound) Column B(Enol %)

O
(a) (i) 99.9

O
(b) CHCl2CHO (ii) 90
C C
(c) CH3– || –CH2– || –CH3 (iii) 2.5
O O
C
(d) CH3 – || – H (iv) 1
O
Ans. (a)-i, (b)-iii, (c)-ii, (d)-iv
Sol. Factual
Q.10 Assertion : Chloral forms a stable hydrate.
Reason : On treatment with an aqueous solution of NaOH, chloral undergoes hydrolysis to give chloroform and sodium
formate.
Ans. (B)
Sol. Hydrate of Chloral is more stable due to Intra-molecular H-bonding.
C
CCl3CHO ¾NaOH CHCl + H || –ONa–
¾¾ ¾® 3
O
Chloroform Sodium Formate
Therefore option (B) is correct.
DPP # 35
Aromatic Compounds and Aryl Halides (Haloarenes)
Q.1 The correct order of reactivity towards electrophilic substitution is :

(A) Benzoic acid > chlorobenzene > benzene > phenol
(B) Benzoic acid > phenol > benzene > chlorobenzene
(C) Phenol > benzene > chlorobenzene > benzoic acid
(D) Phenol > chlorobenzene > benzene > benzoic acid
Ans. (C)
OH Cl COOH
Sol. > > >
Q.2 In the reaction sequence

CH 3 – Cl KMnO 4
C6H6 ¾ ¾¾ ¾® (X) ¾¾ ¾¾
AlCl ( anhy .)
® (Y) the product (Y) is :
3
(A) chlorobenzene (B) benzaldehyde (C) benzoic acid (D) benzene

Ans. (C)
Sol. Benzoic acid
Q.3 Which one of the following compounds undergo nucleophilic substitution faster ?
Br
Br O2N NO2
Br
(A) (B) (C) Cl (D)
NO2
Ans. (D)
Br
NO2 NO2
Sol.
NO2
is more reactive towards mecleophilic substitution reaction due to formation of stable anion
Q.4 Among the diazonium cations given below, the correct order of decreasing reactivity towards azocoupling is
CH3 Å Å
(I) N NºN (II) OHC NºN
CH3
Å Å
(III) CH3O NºN (IV) NO2 NºN
(A) I > II > III > IV (B) I > III > II > IV (C) IV > II > III > I (D) IV > II > I > III
Ans. (C)
Sol. It is example of electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction and rate of electrophilicity of electrophile is
Å Å Å CH3 Å
NO2 N º N > OHC N º N > CH3O N ºN> N NºN
CH3
Q.5 Which of the following is/are used in Friedel-Crafts acylation reaction ?
(A) (CH3CO)2 O (B) CH3CH2COCl (C) CH3COOCH3 (D) CH3Cl
Ans. (A, B)
Sol. Acid chloride or acid Anhydride is used in friedel – craft acylation Reaction.
Therefore, option (A) and (B) are correct.
Q. 6 Write the structures of all the products of ozonolysis of 1,2-dimethylbenzene.

Ans./Sol. CH3–C–C–CH3 , CH3–C–C–H and H–C–C–H
|| || || || || ||
O O O O O O
Q.7 State the conditions under which chlorination of toluene occurs in benzene ring and in the side chain.
Ans./Sol. In the presence of lewis acids such as FeCl3 toluene undergoes nuclear halogenation and in the presence of sunlight
toluene undergoes side chain halogenation.

An activating group activates all positions of the benzene ring; even the positions meta to it are more reactive than any
single position in benzene itself. It directs ortho and para simply because it activates the ortho and para positions much
more than it does the meta.
A deactivating group deactivates all positions in the ring, even the positions meta to it. It directs meta simply because it
deactivates the ortho and para positions even more than it does the meta. Thus, both ortho and para orientation and meta
orientation arise in the same way : The effect of any group whether activating or deactivating is strongest at the ortho
and para positions.
But certain groups (– NH2 and – OH, and their derivatives) act as powerful activators towards electrophilic aromatic
substitution, even though they contain electronegative atoms and can be shown in other ways to have electron-
withdrawing inductive effects.
Halogens are unusual in their effect on electrophilic aromatic substitution; they are deactivating yet ortho, para-directing.
Deactivation is characteristic of electron withdrawal, whereas ortho-para orientation is characteristic of electron release.
Q.8 Product [P] in the following reaction is
O
C
Br2/Fe
N ( 1 eq.) [P]
O O
C
C
(A) (B) N
N Br
Br
O O
Br
C C
N N
(C) (D)
Br Br
O O
•• HNO3 ••
Sol. O C ¾¾ ¾
¾® O2N O C
•• H 2SO 4 ••
Q.9 Which of the following is the strongest acid ?
OH OH
OH
OH
(A) (B) (C) (D)
NO2
NO 2
Cl NO2
Ans. (C)
H O –H
O O
Sol.
N=O
NO2
®m ®m
®I ®I
but due to intramo l.
H bonding it's acidic
stren gth is less than
Para isomer
Q.10 Reactivity of o-cresol is controlled by -

(A) hyperconjugation (B) inductive effect
(C) inductive effect dominates resonance effect (D) resonance effect dominates inductive effect
Ans. (C)
Sol. Reactivity is decided by inductive effect dominate resonance effect.
DPP # 36
Aromatic Compounds and Aryl Halides (Haloarenes)
Q.1 Which of the following is Wurtz – Fittig reaction–

(A) C6H5I + 2Na + ICH3 ® C6H5 –CH3+2NaI (B) C6H5I + Cu + IC6H5 ® C6H5 – C6H5+CuI2
(C) CH3I + 2Na + ICH3 ® CH3 – CH3 + 2NaI (D) None of the above
Ans. (A)
Sol. C6H5I + 2Na + ICH3 C 6H5 – CH3
This reaction is a wurtz-fitting reaction. Therefore, option (A) is correct.
+ CH2 CH2 CH2 Cl AlCl

Q.2 ¾¾ ¾¾3 ® (X) hydrocarbon (X) major product X is -
CH3
CH3
CH2CH–CH3 C–CH3
(A) (B)
CH3 CH3
CH3
(C) CH2CH2CH2CH3 (D) CH–CH2.CH3
Ans. (D)
Sol. + CH3 –CH2.CH2 .CH2.Cl AlCl3
CH3
CH
CH3.CH3
Q.3 In a reaction of C6H5Y, the major product (> 60%) is m-isomer, so the group Y is -
(A) –COOH (B) –Cl (C) –OH (D) –NH2
Ans. (A)
Sol. –COOH group is a meta directing (electron-withdrawing ) group. Thus major product is M - isomer Option (A) correct
Q.4 Benzene on ozonolysis followed by hydrolysis gives -

(A) 3 Moles of CH2 = CH2 (B) 3 Moles of C2H2
(C) 3 Moles of CHO – CHO (D) None of these
Ans. (C)
O O
O
O
O H– C=O
+ 3O3 ¾® ¾¾ ¾¾ ¾¾ ¾¾® 3 |
Sol. HOH / Zn Hydrolysis
O
H – C=O
O
O O
Therefore, option (C) is correct.
Q.5 Toluene when treated with Br 2/Fe, gives p-bromotoluene as the major product because the CH3 group.
(A) is p- directing (B) is m - directing
(C) activates the ring by hyperconjugation (D) deactivates the ring
Ans. (A, C)
Sol. Toluene when treated with Br2/Fe, gives p-bromotoluene as the major product because – CH3 group activates the
benzene ring by hyper conjugation and – CH3 group is o and p directing.
Therefore option (A) and (C) is correct.
Q.6 Predict the products in the reaction :

CH3 CH3
a nh.AlCl3
+ H3C
Br
H
CH3 CH3 CH3
CH3
Anhy C CH3
Ans./Sol. + CH3–CH–CH2Br
AlCl3 CH3
CH3
CH3–C–CH3
CH3
CH3 CH3
Å
CH3 –C–CH2 CH3 –C–CH3
H shift Å
H
Alkylation of aromatic compounds with aliphatic compounds like halides, alcohols,ethers, alkenes, aldehydes etc. in
presence of Lewis acids or proton acids as catalyst is known as Friedel craft alkylation. This reaction is an example of
electrophilic substitution reaction. Aromatic compounds whose reactivity is comparable with or greater when that of
benzene give this reaction. Compound having strongly deactivating or strongly deactivating groups do not give this
reaction.
Q.7 What will be product of following reaction :
CH3–CH–CH2–OH
+ | H+
CH3 ¾ X
¾¾®
CH3 CH3
| |
CH2–CH–CH3 CH3–CH–CH2–CH3
| CH3–CH–CH–OH CH3–C–CH 3
CH3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Ans. (C)
Sol. Step -I
H+ Å ¯ H- Shift
CH3–CH–CH2–OH ¾¾®
¾ CH3–CH–CH2+H2O
| |
CH3 CH3
(unstable)
Å
CH3–C–CH3
|
CH3
Step - II
CH3
|
(CHJ3) 3C H CH3–C–CH3
Å Å
+ CH3 –C–CH3 —® ¾® + H+
|
CH3
Therefore option (C)is correct.
Q.8 – CCl3 shows –M effect. What will be product of following reaction -

CCl3
Anhydrous
+ CH3–CH2–CH2–Cl ¾¾AlCl
¾ ¾¾® ?
3
CCl3
CCl3
(A) (B) CH3

CH
CH2–CH2–CH3 CH3
CCl 3
(C) (D) None of these
CH3–CH–CH3
Ans. (D)
Sol. –CCl3 is a strongly deactivating group and strongly deactivating group do not given this Reaction. Therefore option (D)
is correct
CH3
Q.9 CH3 – Cl / AlCl 3

¾¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾® X. Major product will be -
C(CH3 )3
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
CH3
(A) (B) (C) (D)

CH3 C(CH3)3
C(CH3 )3 C(CH3 )3 CH3 CH3
Ans. (A)
CH3 No. of a =3
methyl group is activalting
group due to the hyper
conjugation.
Sol.
C(CH3) 3 in this group no. of a H = 0.
So. The hyperconjugation.

Can not be occurred
Therefore, product is formed According to methyl group.
CH 3 CH3
CH 3
CH3Cl/AlCl3
C(CH 3)3 C(CH3 )3
There fore option (A) is correct.

Q.10 Assertion : Friedel-Crafts reaction between benzene and acetic anhydride in the presence of anhydrous AlCl 3 yields
acetophenone and not poly substituted products.
Reason : Acetophenone formed poisons the catalyst preventing further reaction.
(E) If Assertion and Reason are false.
Ans. (C)
Sol. Frieded crafts Reaction between benzene and acetic anhydride in the presence of anhydrous AlCl 3 yields acetophenone.
Polyacylation in Friedel craft reaction is not possible because acyl group is a deactivating group and only monosubstitute
product is formed therefore, Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
Option C is correct.
DPP # 37
Carboxylic acids and its Derivatives Amines
Q.1 Where would you expect to find the labeled oxygen if you carried out an acid catalyzed reaction of the following
O O
18 18
C6H5 C OH CH3 OH ¾¾® C2H5 C OCH3 H2 O ¾¾®
(A) Methyl benzoate & propanoic acid (B) methyl benzoate & methanol
(C) water & methanol (D) water & ethanoic acid
Ans. (A)
Sol. During ester formation –OH from –COOH & H from alcohol are removed.
Q.2 Predict the product formed

O
II 18
CH3CH 2¾C¾O¾CH2CH3+OH- ¾¾
H2 O
¾®
O O
II 18
(A) CH3CH2¾C¾O¾H
18 II
(B) CH3 CH2¾C¾OH+CH 3 CH2 OH
O
|| 18
(C) CH 3CH 2 – C – OH + CH3 CH 2 O (D) No reaction
Ans. (B)
Sol. During hydrolysis of an ester R–O group is being replaced by –OH group.
Q.3 Acetic acid is obtained when

(A) glycerol is heated with sulphuric acid
(B) methyl alcohol is oxidized with potassium permanganate
(C) acetaldehyde is oxidized with potassium dichromate & sulphuric acid
(D) calcium acetate is distilled in presence of calcium formate.
Ans. (C)
Sol. Acetaldehyde is oxidised by the K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4 (Oxidising agent) to Acetic acid.
Q.4 Formic acid is obtained when

(A) calcium acetate is heated with conc. H2SO4 (B) calcium formate is heated with calcium acetate
(C) glycerol is heated with oxalic acid 100 – 110° (D) acetaldehyde is oxidized with K2Cr2O7 & H2SO4
Ans. (C)
Sol. Glycerol is ultimately changed to glycerol + formic acid when heated with
COOH
at 100 – 110°C.
COOH
CH2 OH O O
100 – 110°C –CO 2
CH OH + HOOC COOH ¾¾¾¾® CH2 O C COOH ¾¾® CH2 O C H
–H2O
CH2OH CH OH CH OH
CH2OH CH2OH
¾¾®
H2C CH2 CH2 + HCOOH

(formic acid)
OH OH OH
Q.5 Main product of the reaction
CH3CONH2 + HNO2 ¾® , is
(A) CH3COOH (B) CH3CH2NH2 (C) CH3NH2 (D) CH3COO NH4
Ans. (A)
Sol. CH3CONH2 is hydrolysed to CH3COOH with nitrous acid.
Q.6 The –COOH group in a carboxylic acid can be replaced by ‘H’ by heating the acid with
(A) bromine & conc. aq. alkali (B) soda lime
(C) H2in presence of Nickel (D) Zn with HCl
Ans. (B)
Sol. In soda lime decarboxylation method –COOH group is replaced by ‘H’.
Q.7 Which one of the following would be expected to be highly ionized in water
(A) CH2ClCH2CH2COOH (B) CH3CHClCH2COOH (C) CH3CH2CHClCOOH (D) CH3CH2CCl2COOH
Ans. (D)
Sol. Two –Cl groups are attatched at a-carbon which stabilise the carboxylate ion formed after ionisation & hence lead to
easy formation of this product.
Q.8 Which of the following carboxylic acids undergoes decarboxylation easily

(A) C6H5¾CO¾CH2COOH (B) C6H5¾CO¾COOH
(C) C6H5¾CH¾COOH (D) C6H5¾CH¾COOH
I I
OH NH2
Ans. (A)
O
Sol. Due to stabilisation of the carbanion by the adjacent C group the given acid can be easily decarboxylated.
Q.9 Compare the acidic character of the following :

(i) CH3COOH (ii) H3COCH2COOH (iii) CH3CH2COOH (iv) O2NCH2COOH
Sol. (iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii)
Q.10 There are two ways to prepare carboxylic acids

Mg CO2 H +
(i) Rx ¾¾¾ ® ¾¾¾ ® ¾¾¾®
CN -
H +
(ii) Rx ¾¾¾ ® ¾¾¾
D®
Identify the better method to prepare each of the following carboxylic acids
(a) Bromobenzene ¾® benzoic acid
(b) 2-chloroethanol ¾® 3-hydroxypropanoic acid
(c) tert-butyl chloride ¾® 2,2-dimethylpropanoic acid
Sol. (a) (i) Aryl halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution. But Grignard reagents can be prepared from arylhalides.
(b) (ii) Presence of acid hydrogen makes the first method difficult. This problem does not arise in the second method
because CN– is not basic enough to react with alcoholic functional group.
(c) (i) 3° alkyl halides are highly prone to elimination reactions.
DPP # 38
Carboxylic acids and its Derivatives Amines
Q.1 ether
Consider the following reaction CH3Br + Mg ¾¾ HCHO HOH
¾® A ¾¾ ¾® B ¾¾
¾ ¾® C, compound C is
(A) acetic acid (B) acetaldehyde (C) ethyl alcohol (D) formic acid
Ans. (C)
OMgBr
HOH
Sol. CH3Br + Mg ¾¾¾
Ether
® CH3MgBr ¾¾¾®
HCHO H C H ¾¾¾¾¾
–Mg(OH)Br
® CH3CH 2 OH
(Ethyl Alcohol)
CH3
Q.2 Preparation of b -hydroxy ester is favoured by

(A) Cannizzaro’s reaction (B) Reformatskyreaction (C) Claisen condensation (D) Wittig reaction
Ans. (B)
Sol. In Reformatsky reaction an a-Haloester reacts with an aldehyde to give us b-hydroxy ester.
Q.3 What is the end product of the following sequence of operation Acetamide ¾¾ ¾® A ¾¾
P2 O5
¾® B
4H
(A) CH3NH2 (B) C2H5NH2 (C) CH3CN (D) CH3COONH4

Ans. (B)
O
Sol. P2O5 4H
H3C C NH2 ¾¾¾® CH3CN ¾¾® CH3CH2NH2
–H2O
Q.4 The reaction of acetamide with bromine and caustic potash or NaOBr gives
(A) ethyl amine (B) methyl amine (C) ethane (D) ethyl alcohol
Ans. (B)
Sol. This is Hofmann Bromamide degradation which leads to the formation of an amine containing one carbon less than the
original Amide.
Q.5 The weakest acid among the following is

(A) CH3COOH (B) ClCH2COOH (C) Cl2CHCOOH (D) Cl3CCOOH
Ans. (A)
Sol. In all other acids –I groups are increasing the acidic character.
Q.6 a-chloropropionic acid on treatment with alcoholic KOH following by acidification gives
(A) CH3 ¾CH¾COOH (B) CH2 =CH¾COOH

I
OH
(C) OH¾CH2¾CH2¾COOH (D) none of the above
Ans. (B)
Cl
Sol. H3C CH
Alc. KOH
COOH ¾¾¾® CH2 CH COOH
–HCl
Q.7 The conversion of CH3OH to CH3COOH can be brought in by

(A) K2Cr2O7/H+ (B) CO+Rh (C) KMnO4 (D) H3PO4
Ans. (B)
Sol. CO is inserted in CH3OH in presence of Rh catalyst to give CH3COOH.
Q.8 Mercuric chloride is reduced to mercurous chloride by
(A) acetic acid (B) ammonia (C) carbon tetrachloride (D) formic acid
Ans. (D)
Sol. HgCl2 is reduced to Hg2Cl2 by easily oxidisable formic acid.
O O
1.NaBH
CH3C CH2CH2CH2COH ¾¾¾¾¾ ® 4
Q.9 (a) 2.H 2O,H +
OH O
(b) H+ /H2O
CH3 CH2–CH2–C–OH ¾¾¾¾¾ ®
150° C
(c) HOOCCH2 COOH ¾¾¾ ®
O
(d) 200° C
CH3–CH = CH–CH2–C–OH ¾¾¾ ®
OH O
Sol. (a) through CH3CHCH2CH2CH2–COH

O O
(b) CH3CH=CH–COH
a and b hydroxy carboxylic acids do not undergo intramolecular esterification.
(c) CH3 COOH + CO2
(d) CH3–CH2–CH = CH2 + CO2
O
O
H
Q.10 How butanoic acid is prepared from the following ?

(a) 1-Butanol (b) 2-propanol (c) 1-Butene (d) CH3CH2CH(COOH)2
Sol. (a) 1-Butanol ¾¾¾¾
®KMnO4
+ – +
H /D HBr CN H /D
(b) 1-Propanol ¾¾¾ ® ¾¾¾¾
Peroxide
® ¾¾¾ ® ¾¾¾ ®
1.B2 H6 , THF KMnO4

(c) 1-Butene ¾¾¾¾¾¾ ® ¾¾¾¾ ®
2.H2 O2 ,OH-
D
(d) CH3CH2CH(COOH)2 ¾¾ ®
DPP # 39
Biomolecules & Polymer, Environ Chemistry
Q.1 The structural feature which distinguishes proline from other natural a-amino acids ?
(A) It is optically inactive (B) It contains aromatic group
(C) It is a dicarboxylic acid (D) It is a secondary amine
Ans. (D)
Sol. It is secondary amine
Q.2 Violet colour is obtained when dilute CuSO4 is added in alkaline solution of protein. This test is known as -
(A) Biuret Test (B) Xanthoproteic Test (C) Hopkins-cole Test (D) Millon’s Test
Ans. (A)
Sol. Biuret Test
NH COOH
Q.3 The prosthetic group in glycoprotein is -

(A) Carbohydrate (B) Fat (C) Vitamin (D) Nucleic acid
Ans. (A)
Sol. Carbohydrate
Q.4 Which of the following is not a function of proteins ?

(A) nail formation (B) skin formation
(C) muscle formation (D) providing energy for metabolism
Ans. (D)
Sol. Proteins do not provide energy
Q.5 Which is correct statement ?

(A) Starch is a polymer of a-glucose
(B) Amylose is a component of cellulose
(C) Proteins are compounds of only one type of amino acid
(D) In cyclic structure of fructose, there are three carbons and one oxygen atom
Ans. (A)
Sol. Starch is a polymer ofa-D-glucose
Q.6 Enzymes are made up of -

(A) edible proteins (B) proteins with specific structure
(C) nitrogen containing carbohydrates (D) carbohydrates
Ans. (B)
Sol. Enzymes are proteins with specific structures
Q.7 The number of amino acids found in proteins that a human body can synthesize is –
(A) 20 (B) 10 (C) 5 (D) 14
Ans. (B)
Sol. Human body can synthesize 10 out of the 20 amino acids obtained by hydrolysis of various proteins.
Q.8 The number of chiral carbons in b-D(+) –glucose is-

(A) five (B) six (C) three (D) four
Ans. (A)
O
* * * * *
Sol. CHOH–CHOHCHOHCHOH–CH–CH2OH
1 2 3 4 5 6
Due to ring formation C and C are also chiral. Therefore, there as five chiral atoms.
1 5
Q.9 An alteration in the base sequence of nucleic acid molecule is -

(A) replication (B) mutation (C) duplication (D) dislocation
Ans. (B)
Sol. Mutation
Q.10 Which of the following biomolecules is insoluble in water ?

(A) a-keratin (B) haemoglobin (C) ribonuclease (D) adenine
Ans. (A)
Sol. a-Keratin is insoluble in H O while all others are.
2
DPP # 40
Practical Organic Chemistry
Q.1 If a compound on analysis was found to contain C = 18.5 %, H = 1.55%, Cl = 55.04% and O = 24.81%, then its empirical
formula is-
(A) CHClO (B) CH2CIO (C) C2H2OCl (D) CICH2O
Sol.(A) Element % at.wt. relative

simple amount number ration
18.5
C = 18.5% 12 = 1.54 1
12
1.55
H = 1.55% 1 = 1.55 1
1
24.81
O = 24.81% 6 = 1.55 1
16
55.04
Cl = 55.04% 35.5 = 1.55 1
35.5
Empirical formula is = CHClO
Q.2 Kjeldahl’s method cannot be used the estimation of nitrogen in -

(A) C6H5NO2 (B) Pyridine (C) C6H5 – N = N – C6H5 (D) C6H5NHCOCH3
Ans. (A,B,C)
Sol. Kjeldahl’s method is suitable for estimating nitrogen in those organic compounds in which nitrogen is linked to carbon
and hydrogen.
The method is not used in the case of nitro, azo and azoxy compounds.
So option (A), (B) and (C) are correct.
Q.3 The weights of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen in an organic compound are in the ratio 6 : 1 : 8 respectively. The molecular
formula of the compound may be -
(A) CH2O (B) C2H4O2 (C) CH2O2 (D) C3H6O3
Ans. (A,B,D)
Element Relative number Simplest
of atom ratio
6 .5
C = .5 =1
12 .5
1 1
H =1 =2
1 .5
8 .5
O = .5 =1
16 .5
Therefore the empirical formula of molecule is CH2O and
molecular formula = n(CH2O) n = 1, 2, 3, . . . . .
So option (A), (B) and (D) are correct.
Q.4 Benzene and aniline are both liquids. Their mixture can be separated by -
(a) Distillation (b) Steam distillation (c) Dil. HCl (d) Dil. NaOH
Ans. (A,C)
Sol. Benzene and aniline are both liquids have their boiling points wide apart(about 40º).
So it may be separated by using distillation.
The mixture also speparated by dil HCl by dil HCl
Therefore option (A) and (C) are correct.
Q.5 A ketone (A), gives haloform reaction and forms a compound (B) on reduction. The compound (B) on heating with
concentrated sulphuric acid gives a compound (C) which on ozonolysis, gives acetaldehyde and acetone. Identify A, B
and C.
H H
Reduction
Sol. CH3CCH CH3 CH3CH CH CH3
[H]
O [A] O [B]
Con .H2 SO4
CH 3
Ozonolysis
CH –CH= | + H2O
¬¾¾¾ ¾ 3 C - CH 3
[C]
CH 3
CH3–CHO+CH3– |
C=O
acetaldehyde
Q.6 An aromatic hydrocarbon (A) C10H16 shows following reactions.

(i) It decolorizes both Br2 in CCl4 and aq. KMnO4.
(ii) It adds an equimolar amount of hydrogen.
(iii) Oxidation with hot KMnO4 gives a dicarboxylic acid, C6H4(COOH)2, having only one monobromo substitution product.
Deduce the structure of (A) and predict about the possibility of stereoisomerism in it, if any.
Sol. CH 3 CH = CH – CH3
Q.7 A hydrocarbon of the molecular formula C8H12 adds 2 moles of H2 per mole of the hydrocarbon. It undergoes reductive
ozonolysis to give 2 moles of butan-1, 4-dial. Deduce the structure of the hydrocarbon.
Sol. The compound C8H12 lacks six hydrogen atoms from the alkane having 8 C atoms (C8H18). Thus the compound has
three degree of unsaturation two of which are indicated in the form of multiple bonds shown by uptake of two moles of
H2. Thus the third degree of unsaturation must be in the form of cyclic compound. The compound on ozonlysis gives 2
moles of 1, 4-butandial (four-carbon dicarbonyl compound) indicating the presence of two olefinic linkages on C1 and C4
in the 8-membered cylic compound (1, 4 Cyclooctadiene)
Q.8 How will you distinguish in between the following -

(a) Butane and butene - 1 (b) Alkene-1 and alkene -2
(c) Alkyne-1 and alkyne -2 (d) CH4 and C2H2
(e) C2H4 and C2H2 (f) CH4 and C2H4
(g) C2H4 and C6H6 (h) Cyclohexane and cyclohexene
(i) Butyne-1 and Butene-1 (j) Benzene and Cyclohexane
Sol. (a) By Baeyer’s reagent : Butene -1 dicolorizes colour of baeyer’s reagent
Butane + Baeyer’s reagent ® No change in colour
Baeyer 's
CH - CH2
CH3CH2CH = CH2 + H2O + O ¾¾ ¾ ¾® CH CH |
reagent 3 2 |
OH OH
(b) By ozonolysis : The products formed during ozonolysis decide the nature of alkene.
CH3 – CH2 – CH = CH2 alkene-1
¾ozonolysis
¾ ¾¾®
CH3CH2CHO + HCHO
CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 ¾ozonolysis

¾ ¾¾® 2CH3CHO
alkene-2
(c) By Amm. AgNO3 or By Acidic – H tests : Terminal alkynes give white precipitate with amm. AgNO3 or red ppt.
with Amm. Cu2Cl2. (H atom attached on sp hybridized carbon is acidic).
2CH3CH2C º CH + Ag2O ® 2CH3CH2C º C Ag + H2O
CH3 – C º C – CH3 + Ag2O ® No reaction
(d) By bromine water or test of unsaturation : Acetylene decolourizes 5 % Br2 solution in CCl4.
CH º CH + Br2 in CCl4 ® CHBr2 – CHBr2
CH4 + Br2 in CCl4 ® No reaction
(e) By Amm. AgNO3 or Acidic–H test : Acetylene gives white ppt. with Amm. AgNO3 whereas ethylene does not
so. (give reaction)
(f) By 5% Bromine in CCl4 or Baeyers reagent or test of unsaturation:
C2H4, an unsaturation molecule give test of unsaturation. (give reaction)
(g) By 5% Bromine in CCl4 : Benzene being unsaturated but reaonance stabilized molecule does not decoloizes
bromine solution. C2H4 however decolorizes bromine solution.
(h) By Br2 in CCl4 or Baeyers reagent or test of unsaturation : Cyclohexene being unsaturated and thus shows
test of unsaturation.
(i) By Acidic –H test : Butyne-1 has acidic H and thus gives white precipitate with amm. AgNO3
(j) By ozonolysis : Benzene undergoes ozonolysis to give glyoxal whereas cyclohexane does not.
Q.9 How will you distinguish in between the following-

(a) C2H5OH and CHCl3
(b) 1, 1- dibromoethane and
1, 2- dibromoethane
(c) geminal and vicinal dihalides
(d) CH3CH2CHCl2 and CH3CCl2CH3
(e) CHCl3 and CCl4
Sol. (a) By carbylamine reaction : Only chloroform on heating with primary amine and alc. KOH gives unpleasant odour of
isocyanide.
CHCl3 + RNH2 + 3KOH ® RNC + 3KCl + 3KCl + 3H2O
(b) By KOHaq., 1,1-dibromoethane forms acetaldehyde whereas 1,2-dibromoethane forms Glycol.
(c) By KOHaq. : Geminal di halide give aldehydes or ketones whereas vicinal dihalide gives glycols.
(d) By KOHaq. : Terminal gem dihalides give aldehydes with KOHaq. and non terminal gem dihalides give ketones.
(e) By carbylamine reaction : Only CHCl3 undergoes carbylamine reaction.
Q.10 Assertion : Dumas method is more applicable to nitrogen containing organic compounds than Kjeldahl’s method.
Reason : Kjeldahl’s method does not give satisfactory results for compounds in which nitrogen is linked to oxygen.
Ans. (B)
Sol. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of the assertion.
Therefore, option (B) is correct.

Chemistry - Class XII DPP

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DPP # 7

Q.1 The following facts are available

2Z– + X2 ® 2X– + Z2 Þ E° X 2 / X – > E° Z2 / Z –

2W– + Y2 ® no reaction Þ E° W2 / W – > E° Y2 / Y –

Q.6 Choose the correct statement(s) -

Comprehension (Q. No. 7 to 9)

Dish A anode Dish B cathode

Q.10 Assertion : Salt-bridge is used generally in the electrochemical cells.

Q.3 In H2 – O2 fuel cell the reaction occuring at cathode is -

Q.4 MnO4– + 8H+ + 5e– ® Mn2+ + 4H2O

Q.5 On electrolysis of 10–6 M HCl solution

Q.10 Assertion : Absolute value of Eºred of an electrode can not be determined.

(D) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.

Q.2 The colloidal sols are purified by –

Q.5 Lyophilic sols among the following are –

Q.6 Column-I Column-II

Q.7 Select incorrect statements (s) –

Q.8 In multimolecular colloidal sols, atoms or molecules are held together by –

Q.9 Cleansing action of soap occurs because –

Q.10 Assertion : Milk is an emulsion.

Q.4 Which of the following statements are true for physiosorption ?

Q.5 For physical adsorption of a gas on solid adsorbent –

Q.6 Column-I Column-II

weight of lyophilic sol in mg

1/2 mole of Pb (NO3)2 ® 1 mole of Pb(NO3)2 provides 2 moles of NO 3– ion

1/3 mole of Fe(NO3)3 ® 1 mole of Fe(NO3)3 provides 3 moles of NO 3– ion

Q.10 Assertion : True solutions do not exhibit Tyndall effect.

Nt 6.023 ´10 23 - 4.52 ´10 23

Q.2 In the radioactive change

Q.3 A stable nuclide, in general, may have–

Q.4 Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

Q.9 Which is not the radioactive change in the following ?

Q.1 What is the order of a chemical reaction A + 2B ¾¾®

Q.3 According to the reaction

Ans/Sol.(A) ® (iv) fact

Comprehension (Q. No. 7 to 9)

For the reaction A ® B + C, the following data were obtained at 300º C.

Q.8 What is rate constant for backward reaction –

Q.9 Activation energy for backward reaction is –

Q.9 Calculate the rate of reaction after 5 × 10–3 s :

Q.1 Pick out the incorrect statement regarding halogens –

Q.3 Fluorination of organic compound is possible with fluorine –

Q.5 Select the correct statement(s) from the following–

Valence shell e – + Attached mono

Q.7 Pseudohalide ions are -

Q.8 Which of the following is/are correct–

Q.10 Which of the following oxides are nonionic–

Q.1 Nitrogen is inert because of–

Q.8 Which of the following oxyacids of phosphorus disproportionate to PH3 on heating ?

2H3PO2 ¾® H3 PO 4 + PH3 200 ºC

Q.10 Which of following are not known–

Q.2 Which noble gas is the least polarisable–

Q.3 The solubility of noble gases in water shows the order –

Q.4 The forces of cohesion in liquid helium are–

Q.5 Noble gases are –

Q.6 XeF6 on reaction with H2 gives–

Q.8 Which among the following statements is/are correct –

Q.10 Column A Column B

(D) XeF6 + AsF5 ¾® [XeF5]+ . [AsF6]–

Q.2 Oxygen is denser than air so it is collected over–

Q.3 Sulphur is readily soluble in–

Q.4 Which of the following is not the application of sulphur–

Q.5 Conc. H2SO4 displaces hydrogen chloride from chlorides because–