14/04/2017 Code - A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005; Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 720 Test Series : Test – 04 (Objective) Time : 3 Hrs.

(for NEET - 2017 )
Topics Covered :
Physics : Properties of Bulk Matter, Thermal Properties of Matter, Thermodynamics, Behaviour of Perfect Gas and
Kinetic Theory of Gases
Chemistry : Redox Reaction, Hydrogen, s-Block Elements (Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals), Some p-block Elements
(Group 13 & 14).
Botany : Mineral Nutrition; Photosynthesis in Higher Plants
Zoology : Body Fluids and Circulation, Excretory Products and their Elimination; Locomotion and Movement

Instructions :
(i) Use Blue/Black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. A piece of steel has a weight W in air, W1 when
completely immersed in water and W 2 when
completely immersed in an unknown liquid. The
relative density (specific gravity) of liquid is
3. The height of a mercury barometer is 75 cm at sea
level and 50 cm at the top of a hill. Ratio of density
of mercury to that of air is 104. The height of the hill
is

W  W1 W  W2 (1) 250 m
(1) W  W (2) W  W (2) 2.5 km
2 1
(3) 1.25 km
W1  W2 W1  W2
(3) W  W (4) W  W (4) 750 m
1 2
4. Water from a tap emerges vertically downwards with
2. A ball of mass m and density  is immersed in a an initial speed of 1 m/s. The cross-sectional area
liquid of density 3 at a depth h and released. To of tap is 10 –4 m 2. Assume that the pressure is
what height will the ball jump up above the surface constant throughout and that the flow is steady, the
of liquid? (Neglect the resistance of water and air) cross-sectional area of stream 0.15 m below the tap
(1) h is
h (1) 5 ×10–4 m2
(2)
2 (2) 1 ×10–4 m2
(3) 2h (3) 5 ×10–5 m2
(4) 3h (4) 2 ×10–5 m2
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Test-04 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
5. Equal volumes of two immiscible liquids of densities 10. A soap bubble of radius r is placed on another
 and 2 are filled in a vessel as shown in figure. bubble of radius 2r. The radius of the surface
common to both the bubbles is
h 3h
Two small holes are punched at depth and
2 2 2r
from the surface of lighter liquid. If v1 and v2 are the (1) (2) 3r
3
v1 (3) 2r (4) r
velocities of efflux at these two holes, then v is
2 11. A uniform cylinder rod of length L, cross-sectional
area A and Young’s modulus Y is acted upon by the
forces shown in the figure. The elongation of the rod
h  v1 is
L/3
h 2 v2 3F 2F
F

1 1 3FL 2FL
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2 2 2 5 AY 5 AY

1 1 3FL 8FL
(3) (4)
(3)
4
(4)
2 8 AY 3 AY

6. Three capillary tubes of same radius 1 cm each but 12. 1 mole of a gas with diatomic nature is mixed with
of lengths 1 m, 2 m and 3 m are fitted horizontally 1 mole of gas with monatomic nature, then the value
to the bottom of a long cylinder containing a viscous of adiabatic index () for resulting mixture is
liquid at constant pressure and flowing through these
7 2
tubes. What is the length of a single tube of same (1) (2)
radius which can replace the three capillaries? 5 5

6 24 12
(1) m (2) 6 m (3)
16
(4)
11 7
(3) 5 m (4) 2 m 13. The specific heat of substance at temperature t °C is
s = at2 + bt + c. The amount of heat required to
7. Two spheres of volume 250 cc each but of relative
raise the temperature of mass m of the substance
densities 0.8 and 1.2 are connected by a string and
from 0°C to t0°C is
the combination is immersed in a liquid. The tension
in the string is (g = 10 m/s2)
mt03 a bt02 mt03 a mbt02
(1) 5.0 N (2) 0.5 N (1)   ct0 (2)   mct0
3 2 3 2
(3) 1.0 N (4) 2.0 N
8. A vessel of area of cross-section A has liquid to a mt03 a mbt02 mt03 a mbt02
(3)  (4)   mct0
height H. There is a hole at the bottom of vessel 3 2 3 3
having area of cross-section a. The time taken to
14. A thermally insulated piece of metal is heated under
decrease the level from H to H1 will be
atmosphere by an electric current so that it receives
electric energy at a constant pressure P. This leads
(1)
A g
 H  H1  (2)
A 2
a g
 H  H1  to an increase of the absolute temperature T of the
a 2
metal with time t as follows : T = at1/4. Then, the
heat capacity Cp is
(3)
a g
 H  H1  (4)
a 2
A g
 H  H1 
A 2 4PT 3
(1)
9. There is a horizontal film of soap solution. On it a a4
thread is placed in the form of a loop. The film is
pierced inside the loop and the thread becomes a
4PT 2
circular loop of radius R. If the surface tension of the (2)
loop be T, then tension in the thread will be a3
(1) R2T (2) 2RT (3) 4PT 2

R 2 4PT 3
(3) RT (4) (4)
T a
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Test Series for NEET - 2017 Test-04 (Code A)
15. A cyclic process ABCA is shown in a V-T diagram, (1) 15 cal (2) 25 cal
the corresponding P-V diagram is (3) 40 cal (4) 50 cal

V 19. The work of 146 kJ is performed in order to compress

C B one kilo mole of a gas adiabatically and in this
process the temperature of the gas increases by
7°C. The gas is (R = 8.3 J mol–1K–1)
A (1) Diatomic
(2) Triatomic
T
(3) A mixture of monatomic and diatomic
(4) Monatomic
P P
20. End A of a copper rod is maintained in steam
A B A B chamber and other end is maintained at 0°C.
Assume x = 0 at A. The T–x graphs for the rod in
steady state is
(1) (2)
C C
T(°C) T(°C)
V V

(1) (2)
P P
x x
C B
T(°C) T(°C)
(3) (4)
B A A C
V V (3) (4)
x x
16. The highest temperature of the gas, attained if the
pressure of ideal gas varies according to the law, 21. A body initially at 80°C cools to 64°C in 5 minutes
2 and to 52°C in the next 5 minutes. The temperature
P  P0  aV , where P0 and a are constants, is
of the surroundings will be
1/2 1/2 (1) 16°C (2) 8°C
2P0 ⎡ P0 ⎤ 2P0 ⎡ P0 ⎤
(1) Tmax  (2) Tmax 
2nR ⎢⎣ 3a ⎥⎦ 3nR ⎢⎣ 3a ⎥⎦ (3) 4°C (4) 12°C
22. The temperature of blackbody is increased by 50%,
1/2 1/2 then the percentage increase in rate of radiation is
P0 ⎡ P0 ⎤ 2P0 ⎡ P0 ⎤
(3) Tmax  (4) Tmax 
3nR ⎢⎣ 3a ⎥⎦ nR ⎢⎣ 3a ⎥⎦
approximately
(1) 100% (2) 250%
17. He gas at pressure P is allowed to expands, from
volume V to 2V isothermally and then to volume (3) 400% (4) 500%
16 V adiabatically. The final pressure of the gas is 23. If the temperature of the Sun were to increase from
⎛ 5⎞ T to 2T and its radius from R to 2R, then the ratio
⎜  ⎟ of the radiant energy received per unit time, per unit
⎝ 3⎠
area on earth to what it was previously, will be
P P (1) 4 (2) 16
(1) (2)
16 32 (3) 32 (4) 64
24. If in two identical containers, equal quantity of ice
P P
(3) (4) melts completely in 30 and 20 min. respectively,
48 64 then the ratio of the thermal conductivities of the
18. 70 calories of heat is required to raised the material of two containers is
temperature of 2 moles of an ideal gas at constant (1) 1 : 1
pressure from 25°C to 30°C. The amount of heat
required to raised the temperature of the same (2) 1 : 2
sample of the gas through the same range at (3) 4 : 9
constant volume is [Given, R = 2 cal/mol-K] (4) 2 : 3

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Test-04 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
25. A metallic sphere having inner and outer radii a and 33. Four molecules of a gas are having speeds 1, 4, 8
k0 and 16 m/s. The root mean square velocity of the
b respectively has thermal conductivity : K  gas molecules is
r2
(1) 7.25 m/s (2) 52.56 m/s
(a  r  b ) , where k 0 is constant. The thermal
(3) 84.25 m/s (4) 9.2 m/s
resistance between inner surface and outer surface is
34. The mean kinetic energy per mole of an ideal gas at
(b  a ) (b2  a2 ) 0°C is approximately
(1) 4k (2)
0 4k0 ab (1) 3.4 J (2) 3.4 × 102 J
(3) 3.4 × 103 J (4) 207 J
2 2
4k0 b a 35. The molecular weight of gas is 44. The volume
(3) (4)
(b  a ) 4 k 0 occupied by 2.2 g of this gas at 0°C and 2 atm
pressure, will be
26. A sphere, a cube and a thin circular plate all of
same material having same mass are initially heated (1) 0.56 L (2) 1.2 L
to 200°C. Which of these will cool faster? (3) 2.4 L (4) 5.6 L
(1) Circular plate (2) Sphere 36. At constant temperature on increasing the pressure
(3) Cube (4) All of these of a gas by 5%, the gas decrease in its volume by
27. A body at a temperature of 727°C and has surface (1) 5% (2) 5.26%
area 5 cm2, radiates 300 J of energy per minute. The (3) 4.26% (4) 4.76%
emissivity is [Given: Stefan’s constant = 5.67×10–8
W/m2K4] 37. In an adiabatic change, the pressure P and
temperature T of a diatomic gas are related by the
(1) e = 0.18 (2) e = 0.02
relation P  T c , where c equals
(3) e = 0.2 (4) e = 0.15
28. The inside and outside temperatures of a refrigerator 5 2
(1) (2)
are 273 K and 303 K respectively. Assuming that 3 5
refrigerator cycle is reversible for every joule of work
done, the heat delivered to the surrounding will be 3 7
(3) (4)
(1) 10 J (2) 20 J 5 2
(3) 30 J (4) 50 J 38. Hail-stone at 0°C falls from a height of 1 km on an
29. A Carnot engine takes 3 × 106
cal of heat per cycle insulating surface converting whole of its kinetic
from a reservoir at 627°C. The temperature of sink is energy into heat. What fraction of it will melt?
27°C. The work done by the engine per cycle is (g = 10 m/s2)  L  3.3  105 J/kg
(1) 4.2 × 106 J (2) 8.4 × 106 J
1 1
(3) 16.8 × 106 J (4) Zero (1) (2)
33 8
30. If a gas is heated at constant pressure then what
percentage of total heat supplied is used up for 1
external work? (Given,  for gas = 4/3) (3)  10 4 (4) All of it will melt
33
(1) 50% (2) 25%
39. What is the change in temperature on Fahrenheit
(3) 75% (4) 80% scale and on Kelvin scale, if an iron piece is heated
31. In an adiabatic expansion, a gas does 25 J of work from 30°C to 90°C?
while in adiabatic compression 100 J of work is done (1) 108°F, 60 K (2) 100°F, 55 K
on the gas. The change in internal energy in two
processes respectively are (3) 100°F, 65 K (4) 60°F, 108 K
(1) 25 J and –100 J (2) –100 J and –25 J 40. A second’s pendulum clock having steel wire is
calibrated at 20°C. When temperature is increased
(3) –25 J and 100 J (4) 25 J and 100 J to 30°C, then how much time does the clock lose
32. What is the molar heat capacity for the process or gain in one week? [steel = 1.2×10–5 °C–1]
when 10 J of heat added to a monatomic ideal gas
(1) 0.3628 s
in a process in which the gas performs a work of
5 J on its surrounding? (2) 3.626 s
(1) 2R (2) 3R (3) 362.8 s
(3) 4R (4) 5R (4) 36.28 s
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Test Series for NEET - 2017
41. Three rods of same dimensions have thermal
conductivities 3K, 2K and K. They are arranged as
shown, with their ends at 100°C, 50°C and 0°C. The
temperature of their junction is
Test-04 (Code A)
44. A vertical glass capillary tube, open at both ends,
contains some water. Which of the following shapes
may be taken by the water in the tube?

50°C
2K (1) (2)

3K
100°C
K
0°C (3) (4)

200
(1) 75°C (2) C 45. A sealed tank containing a liquid of density  moves
3
with a horizontal acceleration a, as shown in the
100 figure. The difference in pressure between the points
(3) 40°C (4) C A and B is
3
42. The dimensional formula for thermal resistance is l
(1) [M–1L–2T3K1] (2) [M1L2T1K1]
(3) [M–1L2T3K1] (4) [M1L1T1K1]
C A
43. If water at 0°C, kept in a container with an open top, h a
is placed in a large evacuated chamber,
B
(1) All the water will vaporise
(2) All the water will freeze
(1) hg
(3) Part of the water will vaporise and the rest will
(2) la
freeze
(3) hg – la
(4) Ice, water and water vapour will be formed and
reach equilibrium at the triple point (4) hg + la

CHEMISTRY
46. Number of electrons involved in the reduction of 50. For the electrochemical cell M|M+||X–|X
1 mole Cr2O72– in acidic solution to Cr3+ is E°(M+|M) = 0.44 V and E°(X|X–) = 0.33 V
(1) 3 mole (2) 4 mole from this data, one can deduce that
(3) 2 mole (4) 6 mole (1) M + X  M+ + X– is a spontaneous reaction
(2) M+ + X–  M + X is a spontaneous reaction
47. The oxidation number of phosphorus in its
(3) E°cell = 0.77 V
compounds vary from
(4) E°cell = – 0.77 V
(1) –3 to +5 (2) –1 to +1
51. Which of the following ions will undergo
(3) –3 to –5 (4) –5 to +1 disproportionation reaction?
48. In the reaction (1) CIO– (2) CIO–3
(3) CIO–2 (4) All of these
xFeCl3 + yH2S  FeCl2 + S + HCl
52. In the reaction
(1) x = 2, y = 1 (2) x = 3, y = 2 Na2S2O3+4Cl2+5H2O  Na2SO4 + H2SO4 + 8HCl
(3) x = 4, y = 3 (4) x = 2, y = 2 the equivalent weight of Na2S2O3 will be
49. How many millilitre of 0.5 N SnCl2 solution will M M
reduce 600 mL of 0.1 N HgCl2 to Hg2Cl2? (1) (2)
4 8
(1) 120 mL (2) 60 mL
M M
(3) (4)
(3) 30 mL (4) 240 mL 1 2
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Test-04 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
53. If a salt bridge is removed from a feasible 62. Which of the following will not give H 2 O 2 on
electrochemical cell, then voltage hydrolysis?
(1) Drops to zero (2) Does not change (1) H2SO5 (2) HNO4
(3) Increases gradually (4) Increases rapidly (3) HClO4 (4) H2S2O8
54. Which statement is true about a spontaneous cell 63. The volume of 20 vol H2O2 required to get 5 litres of
reaction in galvanic cell? O2 at STP is
(1) E°cell > 0, G° < 0, Q < Kc (1) 125 mL (2) 100 mL
(2) E°cell > 0, G° > 0, Q < Kc (3) 50 mL (4) 250 mL
(3) E°cell > 0, G° > 0, Q > Kc 64. Which of the following statements is true for saline
(4) E°cell < 0, G° < 0, Q < Kc hydrides?
55. In an aqueous solution, hydrogen (H 2) will not (1) They are bad conductors of electricity in solid as
reduce. well as fused state
(1) Fe3+ (2) Cu2+ (2) They react with water to liberate H2 gas
(3) Zn2+ (4) Ag+ (3) They are covalent in nature
56. Heavy water is (4) They are good oxidising agents
(1) H2O17 (2) H2O18 65. Acidified solution of chromic acid on treatment with
(3) D2O (4) H2O H2O2 yields deep blue colour solution due to the
57. The dissociation constant of H2O is 1.0 × 10–14 and formation of
that of D 2O is 3.0 ×10 –15 . This is because the (1) CrO5 + H2O (2) H2Cr2O7 + H2O + O2
extent of dissociation of H2O is about
(3) CrO3 + H2O + O2 (4) Cr2O2 + H2O + O2
(1) 3 times that of D2O 66. KMnO4 oxidises NO–2
to NO3– in acidic medium. How
–
many moles of NO 2 are oxidised by 1 mol of
(2) 30 times that of D2O
KMnO4?
(3) 0.3 times that of D2O
(1) 3 mol (2) 2 mol
(4) 300 times that of D2O
58. Which of the following is a true peroxide? 3 5
(3) mol (4) mol
(1) MnO2 (2) PbO2 2 2

(3) SnO2 (4) BaO2 67. Which gas is evolved on heating sodium carbonate?
59. The reducing nature of H2O2 in alkaline medium is (1) CO2 (2) CO
represented by (3) H2O (4) No gas is evolved
O
− 68. The order of solubility of lithium halides in non-polar
→ 2H2O + O2 + 2e−
(1) H2O2 + 2OH ⎯⎯ solvents follow the order?

O
−
(1) LiF > LiCl > LiBr > LiI
(2) H2O2 + 2e− ⎯⎯
→ 2OH
(2) LiI > LiBr > LiCl > LiF

(3) H2O2 + 2OH  2H2O + 2O + 2e

2– – (3) LiCl > LiF > LiBr > LiI

(4) All of these (4) LiBr > LiI > LiCl > LiF
60. De-ionized water is produced by 69. Which one of the following electrolytes is used in
Down’s process?
(1) Permutit process
(1) NaCl + KCl+ KF (2) NaCl
(2) Calgon process
(3) NaOH + KCl + KF (4) NaCl + NaOH
(3) Synthetic resin process
(4) Clark process 70. The magnetic moment of KO2 at room temperature is

61. Which of the following reaction is incorrect? (1) 1.41 BM (2) 1.73 BM

(1) SO3 + D2O  D2SO4 (3) 2.23 BM (4) 2.64 BM

(2) PH3 + D2O  PD3 + H2O 71. Which disproportionates on heating with NaOH?

(3) Al4C3 + D2O  CD4 + Al(OD)3 (1) P4 (2) S

(4) CaC2 + D2O  C2D2 + Ca(OD)2 (3) Cl2 (4) All of these

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Test Series for NEET - 2017 Test-04 (Code A)
200 °C 120 °C 80. In the borax-bead test for transition metal
72. B CaSO4  2H2O 
A
Gypsum compounds, the unique colour of fused bead is due
Strong
heating
to the formation of
(1) Glass like metal metaborate bead
C
A, B and C are respectively (2) Opaque metal hexaborate bead

(1) Plaster of Paris, dead burnt plaster and calcium (3) B2O3
sulphide (4) Glass like metal orthoborate bead
(2) Dead burnt plaster, plaster of Paris and calcium 81. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
sulphite (1) Fluorosilicic acid or H 2SiF 6 , known only in
(3) Plaster of Paris, dead burnt plaster and calcium solution, is a strong acid
oxide (2) The formula of tetramethyl silane is (CH3)4 SiH4
(4) Plaster of Paris, dead burnt plaster and calcium (3) Silicon halides do hydrolyze since it has
sulphate unoccupied 3d orbitals
73. Which of the following is the strongest base? (4) The octahedral SiF62– ion is the only halogen
complex of silicon in which sp3d2 hybridisation
(1) Ca(OH)2 (2) Sr(OH)2 is involved in bonding
(3) Ba(OH)2 (4) Mg(OH)2 82. The pair of compounds which cannot exist together
74. Which of the following gives propyne on hydrolysis? in aqueous solution are
(1) Al4C3 (2) Mg2C3 (1) Na2CO3 and NaHCO3

(3) B4C (4) La4C3 (2) NaHCO3 and NaOH

(3) NaH2PO4 and NaHCO3
75. Be and Al exhibit diagonal relationship. Which of the
following statements about them is/are not true? (4) CaCO3 and Na2CO3
(1) Both react with HCl to liberate H2 83. Which is the correct order of ionic character?

(2) They are made passive by HNO3 (1) PbF2 < PbI2 < PbBr2 < PbCl2
(2) PbF2 < PbCl2 < PbBr2 < PbI2
(3) Their carbides give acetylene on treatment with
water (3) PbF2 > PbCl2 > PbBr2 > PbI2
(4) Their oxides are amphoteric (4) PbF2 > PbBr2 > PbCl2 > PbI2
84. Which is not correct?
76. Which of the following is the most abundant metal
in the earth’s crust? (1) GeO2 is weakly acidic
(1) Fe (2) Al (2) [SiF6]2–, [GeCl6]2–, [Sn(OH)6]2– exist where the
central atom is sp3d2 hybridized
(3) Ca (4) Mg
(3) SnO2 is amphoteric
77. Borax is used as a cleasing agent because on
(4) GeCl2 is more stable than GeCl4
dissolving in water, it gives
85. The hybridisation of C and Si in CO2 and SiO 2
(1) Alkaline solution (2) Acidic solution
respectively are
(3) Bleaching solution (4) Neutral solution (1) sp & sp3 (2) sp2 & sp3 d
78. How many tetrahedra and triangular units are present (3) sp3 & sp (4) sp & sp
in borax?
86. p – d bonding exists in
(1) 3 tetrahedra and 1 triangular
(1) Graphite (2) Diamond
(2) 1 tetrahedra and 3 triangular (3) Trisilylamines (4) All of these
(3) 4 tetrahedra and no triangular 87. Water gas is a mixture of
(4) 2 tetrahedra and 2 triangular (1) CO2 and O2 (2) N2, O2 and H2O
79. For the properties mentioned, the correct trend for (3) CO, H2 and CO2 (4) CO and H2
the different species is in 88. In LiAlH4, metal Al is present in
(1) Strength as Lewis acid – BCl3 > AlCl3 > GaCl3 (1) Cationic part
(2) Inert pair effect – Al > Ga > In (2) Anionic part
(3) Oxidising property – Al3+ > Ga3+ > Tl3+ (3) Both Cationic and Anionic part
(4) All of these (4) Neither in Cationic nor in Anionic part

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Test-04 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017

89. On heating a mixture containing 1 mol each of 90. Which of the following in incorrect?
Li2CO3 and K2CO3 (1) Hydrogen > Deuterium > Tritium (relative
abundance)
(1) 2 moles of CO2 are formed (2) Hydrogen > Deuterium > Tritium
(Melting point)
(2) 1 mol of CO2
(3) Hydrogen < Deuterium < Tritium
(3) 1.5 mol of CO2 (Boiling point)
(4) Hydrogen < Deuterium < Tritium
(4) No carbon dioxide (Density)

BOTANY
91. The plants could be grown to maturity in a defined 96. Essential element that activates the enzymes of
nutrient solution without soil respiration, photosynthesis and is involved in
synthesis of DNA and RNA is
(1) Was first demonstrated by Arnon and Hoagland
(1) Mg (2) Fe
(2) Is useful to identify the role of elements in plant
growth and development (3) N (4) K
(3) Has no role in overcoming the problem of 97. Choose correct options for potassium.
weeding
(a) Often depleted in soil and hence regarded as
(4) Is called hydroponics that does not need purified critical element.
mineral salts
(b) Involved in protein synthesis.
92. An element regarded as essential for plants should
(c) Not required in abundance in buds, leaves and
be
root tips.
(1) Directly involved in metabolism supporting
(d) Maintains anion-cation balance in cell.
normal growth and reproduction
(e) Always bound to cell membrane.
(2) Irreplaceable by another element
(1) a, b, d (2) b, c, e
(3) Cause deficiency disorder in its absence or
reduced availability (3) b, c, d (4) a, b, e
(4) All are correct 98. What is incorrect for molybdenum?
93. Non-essential but functional elements are (1) Absorbed from soil as MoO2
(1) Silicon, Sodium, Molybdenum (2) Component of nitrogenase
(2) Cobalt, Sodium, Selenium (3) Its deficiency symptom is loss of chlorophyll
(3) Gold, Nickel, Chlorine (4) Required in all parts of plants and commonly in
(4) Strontium, Selenium, Iron roots
94. What is incorrect for micronutrients? 99. Find incorrect statement for deficiency symptoms of
essential elements.
(1) All micro elements in plants are needed in less
than 10 mmole kg–1 of dry matter (1) Vary from element to element
(2) They are required generally in the functioning of (2) Depends upon mobility of the element in the
enzymes plant
(3) In excess, the micronutrients become toxic (3) Deficiency symptom of mobile elements first
appear in young leaves
(4) All microelements are immobile.
(4) Two or more deficient elements may produce
95. Essential elements categorised as structural same deficiency symptom
elements are
100. Which of the given element group when present
(1) C, H, N, P, K below their critical concentration cause chlorosis,
(2) Mg, O, H, N, S inhibition of cell division and delay in flowering?
(3) C, H, O, N (1) N, K, Mo (2) N, S, Mo
(4) Zn, H, C, N, P (3) Mg, S, K (4) N, S, Zn

(8)
Test Series for NEET - 2017
101. Micronutrient in slight excess produce toxicity and
reduces dry weight of tissue by about 10 percent. All
the given statements are related to Mn toxicity,
except
(1) Inhibition of calcium translocation in shoot apex
(2) Inhibition of uptake of Mg from soil
(3) Appearance of chlorotic spots surrounded by
brown veins
(4) Inhibition of uptake of Fe from soil
102. Process of mineral absorption from the soil in first
phase is
(1) Rapid, passive and involves apoplast
(2) Slow, active and involves symplast
(3) Through ion channels that needs energy
(4) Through transmembrane proteins and is slow
process
103. Choose incorrect option for active ion absorption
according to cytochrome pump theory.
(1) Separate carriers for absorption of anion and
cation
(2) Increases the rate of cell respiration
(3) Anions are absorbed passively
(4) Cytochrome acts as carrier of anions
104. The essential element required for membrane
functioning, pollen germination and carbohydrate
translocation is
(1) Magnesium (2) Boron
(3) Molybdenum (4) Manganese
105. Find out correct match.
(1) Deficiency of potassium : Whip tail of cauliflower
(2) Deficiency of molybdenum : Necrosis
(3) Deficiency of zinc : Khaira of rice
(4) Deficiency of calcium : Brown heart of turnip
106. Free-living anaerobic bacteria that can fix
atmospheric nitrogen and increase soil fertility are
(1) Azotobacter, Rhodospirillum
(2) Beijerinckia, Clostridium
(3) Clostridium, Rhodospirillum
(4) Azotobacter, Beijerinckia
107. Which of these represents ammonification?
(1) NO3  NO2  NH3
(2) Proteins  amino acids  NH3
(3) N2  NH3
(4) NH3  NO2  NO3
(9)
Test-04 (Code A)
108. Nitrifying bacteria in soil are regarded as
chemoautotrophs because
(1) They increase soil fertility by oxidation of
ammonia to nitrates
(2) They are free living in soil
(3) They synthesise organic substances from CO2
and a hydrogen donor without light energy
(4) They oxidise NH3 into nitrates in two steps
109. NO3 absorbed by the plants are finally reduced to
ammonia in two steps during nitrate assimilation.
The second step occurs specifically in leaves
because
(1) A direct source of electron for reduction of NO2
is ferredoxin
(2) The enzyme nitrite reductase is present in soil
only
(3) Nitrite reductase contain copper and boron
(4) NH3 is stored in leaves
110. For fixation of 2 molecules of dinitrogen into
ammonia by Rhizobium leguminosarum, ATP
required is
(1) 16
(2) 32
(3) 8
(4) 24
111. Select odd one out w.r.t. symbiotic N2-fixation by
Rhizobium in leguminous plants.
(1) Energy using reductive process
(2) Leghaemoglobin is produced by bacteria only
(3) Nitrogenase is contributed by bacteria alone
(4) The nodule establishes direct vascular
connection with the host for nutrient exchange
112. Bacteria in root nodules of leguminous plants
(1) Chemoautotroph and live as symbiont
(2) Become wall less bacterial
(3) Release auxins and synthesises heme part of
globin
(4) Synthesises enzyme nitrogenase and ATP
113. Glutamic acid is the key amino acid in plants
because
(1) It is easily formed by reductive amination of
-KGA and pyruvic acid
(2) It can synthesise other 17 amino acids by
transamination in presence of transaminase
(3) It has high N to C ratio
(4) More than one options are correct
Test-04 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
114. Who among the following stated that sunlight is 121. Primary e– acceptor in non-cyclic
essential to restore the pure air that has been made photophosphorylation is
impure by animal respiration and burning of candle? (1) Mn-Protein towards inner side of thylakoid
(1) Joseph Priestley (2) J.V. Sachs membrane
(3) Jan Ingenhousz (4) Engelmann (2) Phaeophytin, a special chlorophyll ‘a’ molecule
115. First action spectrum of photosynthesis given by without Mg
T.W. Engelmann was based on (3) Plastoquinone (PQ)
(1) Use of monochromatic light wavelength (4) Fe-S protein
(2) Rate of O2 evolution when unicellular green alga 122. Select incorrect w.r.t. cyclic photophosphorylation.
Cladophora was illuminated
(1) Operate at low light intensity
(3) Accumulation of anaerobic bacteria around alga
(2) Predominantly found in photosynthetic bacteria
(4) More than one options are correct
(3) Synthesises only ATP
116. R. Hill when illuminated isolated chloroplasts, in
presence of a suitable H-acceptor and water, did not (4) External electron donor is required
detect the presence of sugar because 123. Role of carotenoids pigments in photosynthesis is all
(1) The medium was without CO2 except
(2) Isolated chloroplasts do not perceive light (1) Shield pigments (2) Antenna molecules
(3) Suitable H-acceptor taken was DCPIP (3) LHC (4) Reaction centre
(4) Assimilatory power ATP could not be generated 124. ATP synthesis in chloroplast is driven due to
in light reaction (1) Accumulation of H+ within the lumen due to
117. Chlorophyll ‘a’ differs from chlorophyll ‘b’ in splitting of water
(1) Presence of a tetrapyrrole ring in porphyrin head (2) Continuous H+ pumping from stroma to thylakoid
(2) Absence of –CHO at 3rd outer carbon of 2nd lumen while transporting electrons finally to
pyrrole NADP+
(3) Being synthesised from precursor protochlorophyll (3) Development of H + gradient on both sides of
thylakoid membrane
(4) Absorbs light in both blue and red wavelengths
of visible spectrum (4) All are correct
118. Choose incorrect statement for quantasome. 125. Light driven ATP synthesis through F0 – F1 complex
occurs
(1) Group of pigments required for carrying out
photochemical reaction (1) When H+ gradient is broken down and it brings
(2) The term was coined by Park and Biggins a conformational change in F1 particle of ATPase

(3) These are the functional unit of chloroplast (2) When H+ passes through F0 piece by facilitated
diffusion
(4) It contains 330 pigment molecules i.e., 280
chlorophyll molecules and 50 carotenoid (3) pH of lumen is increased than the stroma side
molecules of thylakoid membrane
119. During photosynthesis of higher plants the oxygen (4) More than one options are correct
evolves from water, was proved by 126. Most crucial phase of CO2 reduction into sugar in
(1) Van Niel’s experiment using purple and green dark phase is
sulphur bacteria (1) Carboxylation
(2) Ruben and Kamen using H2O18 and Chlorella (2) Reduction
(3) Exposing Chlorella alternately to light and dark (3) Regeneration of RUBP
periods
14CO
(4) Glycolytic reversal
(4) Exposing sugarcane to 2
127. For fixation of 12 molecules of CO2 into sugar by rice
120. Which of the following is not related to PS I? plant, the assimilatory power ATP and NADPH
(1) NADP+ reduction required respectively is
(2) Involved in cyclic and non-cyclic (1) 36, 24
photophosphorylation
(2) 18, 12
(3) Found in both grana and stroma lamellae
(3) 3, 2
(4) Associated with release of O2
(4) 60, 24
(10)
Test Series for NEET - 2017 Test-04 (Code A)
128. Choose incorrect option w.r.t. photorespiration. 132. Find odd one out w.r.t. double carboxylation.
(1) It leads to approximately 20-25% loss of the (1) Pineapple
fixed sugar
(2) Maize
(2) It is the process to protect plant from
photo-oxidation (3) Bryophyllum
(3) O 2 is used in chloroplasts as well as in (4) Wheat
peroxisome 133. Optimum CO2 concentration for tomato and bell
(4) It is favoured by high light intensity, high pepper is
temperature and high CO2 concentration
(1) Beyond 450 l/L
129. In photorespiration, formation of glycine, release of
ammonia and oxygenation of RUBP occur (2) 360 l/L
respectively in (3) 0-10 l/L
(1) Peroxisome, mitochondria, chloroplast (4) 25-50 l/L
(2) Chloroplast, peroxisome, mitochondria
134. Photosynthetic productivity decreases more in C4
(3) Chloroplast, mitochondria, peroxisome plants as compared to C3 plants when the plants are
(4) Peroxisome, peroxisome, mitochondria subjected to low temperature. This is because
130. In plants showing C4 cycle photorespiration does not (1) C4 plants have agranal chloroplast in bundle
occur because sheath cells
(1) These plants have a CO2 concentrating phase at (2) Regeneration of primary CO2 acceptor decreases
the site of enzyme as the enzyme pyruvate phosphate dikinase is
(2) First stable product is 4 C compound OAA sensitive to low temperature
(3) Mesophyll cells have agranal chloroplasts (3) Activity of RuBisCO is inhibited
(4) Primary CO 2 fixation occurs in mesophyll (4) Slow transportation of malic acid to bundle
chloroplasts sheath cells
131. What is incorrect for CAM cycle or plants? 135. Which of these does not affect the rate of
(1) All CAM plants are succulent and drought photosynthesis?
resistant (1) Light quality
(2) CO2 fixation is separated by time
(2) Duration of light
(3) All CAM plants have scotoactive stomata
(3) Photosynthetic product accumulation
(4) Water loss does not occur at all when the
stomata are open at night (4) Age of leaf

ZOOLOGY
136. Identify the blood cell, the count of which suddenly 139. All of the following can increase the rate of heart
increases due to allergic reaction beat, the strength of ventricular contraction and
(1) Eosinophil (2) Basophil thereby the cardiac output, except

(3) Macrophage (4) Neutrophil (1) Sympathetic nerves (2) Adrenaline

137. Which one of the following circulating cells of blood (3) Vagus nerve (4) Nor-adrenaline
vascular system secretes histamine? 140. Which one of the components of blood plasma helps
(1) Mast cell (2) Thrombocyte in the maintenance of osmotic balance?

(3) Macrophages (4) Basophil (1) Fibrinogen (2) Albumin

138. What would happen if the chordae tendinae of mitral (3) Lipids (4) Globulin
valve is cut? 141. Artificial pacemaker is required in
(1) Valves remain open (1) Angina pectoris
(2) Decrease in the flow of blood in pulmonary artery (2) Atherosclerosis
(3) Decrease in the flow of blood to aorta (3) Irregularity in heart rhythm
(4) Increase inflow of blood in pulmonary veins (4) Heart attack
(11)
Test-04 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
142. At the end of joint diastole, which condition can be 149. The urea-synthesizing, Ornithine cycle occurs in
observed in heart?
(1) Kidney (2) Lungs
(1) P wave will appear in the ECG
(3) Liver (4) Lymph nodes
(2) Ventricles are about to show systole
150. Identify the incorrect match w.r.t. organism and their
(3) Ventricles are about three quarters full i.e., 70 excretory organs.
percent filling of the ventricles has taken place
(1) Green glands – Arachnids like scorpion
(4) Both (1) & (3)
(2) Amphioxus – Protonephridia with flame cells
143. Identify the tissue that connects the AV valves to the
(3) Cockroach – Malpighian corpuscle
inner wall of heart.
(4) Both (1) & (3)
(1) Purkinje fibres (2) Chordae tendineae
151. Which one of the following is a specialized,
(3) Bundle of His (4) Fossa ovalis
characteristic non-toxic excretory product of
144. Find out the incorrect option w.r.t. the first heart mammals?
sound.
(1) Uric acid
(1) It is lubb, a low pitch sound
(2) Hippuric acid
(2) It marks the onset of ventricular systole
(3) Trimethyl amine oxide
(3) Associated with the closure of the trucuspid and
bicuspid valves (4) Guanines

(4) It is a short duration sound and can be properly 152. Identify the outermost protective layer of the human
heard by a stethoscope. kidney from the given options

145. False statement about cardiac output (1) Renal capsule (2) Renal calyx

(1) It is the amount of blood pumped during a (3) Renal fascia (4) Adipose capsule
cardiac cycle 153. The solute concentration of the interstitial fluid
(2) Stroke volume multiplied by heart rate is cardiac increases in osmolarity from about 300 to
output 1200 mos mL–1 and is highest in which zone of
kidney in human?
(3) It is 70 ml × number of beats per minute
(1) Renal cortex (2) Outer medulla
(4) It is the volume of blood pumped by each
ventricle per minute and average 5000 ml or (3) Renal capsule (4) Inner medulla
5 litre in a healthy individual 154. A fall in glomerular blood flow / glomerular blood
146. If a person goes into cardiac arrest, his ECG shows, pressure / GFR can activate the release of all the
following, except
(1) Flattened P-wave
(1) Renin
(2) Flattened QRS complex wave
(2) Aldosterone
(3) Flattened T-wave
(3) ADH
(4) All of these
(4) Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF)
147. Identify the correct option w.r.t. lymphatic system.
155. Identify the muscles associated with the middle
(1) Lymphatic capillaries are open ended vessels muscular layer of urinary bladder of human.
and lymph cannot coagulate
(1) Dartos muscle
(2) The lymph nodes produce lymph which has more
proteins as compared to blood (2) External sphincter muscle

(3) The lymphatic ducts drains the lymph into (3) Detrusor muscle
subclavian veins of systemic circulatory system (4) Cremaster muscle
(4) The lymph carries nutrients, hormones, metabolic 156. If we remove all the stretch receptors from the wall
wastes but not the respiratory oxygen or carbon of bladder, then
dioxide.
(1) Micturition will continue
148. Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric
acid crystals is (2) Micturition will stop

(1) Osteoporosis (2) Gout (3) More urine will be excreted

(3) Tetany (4) Tetanus (4) Incomplete filling of the bladder will occur
(12)
Test Series for NEET - 2017
157. False statement is
(1) GFR in a healthy individuals is 180 litre per day
(2) 99 percent of the filtrate is reabsorbed by renal
tubules
(3) Selective secretion of H + and K + ions in
maintenance of ionic and acidic base balance of
body fluids occurs in PCT, DCT and collecting
duct
(4) Presence of glucose and ketonuria are indicative
of diabetes insipidus
158. Which one of the following is an abnormal
constituent of urine?
(1) Urea (2) Hippuric acid
(3) Ketone bodies (4) Water
159. Find out the incorrect option.
(1) Vasa recta is absent or highly reduced in cortical
nephrons
(2) Ascending limb of loop of Henle is diluting
segment impermeable to water but allows
transport of electrolytes actively or passively
(3) Collecting duct of nephron allows passage of
small amount of urea into medullary interstitium
to keep up the osmolarity
(4) Macula lutea cells are found in the distal
convoluted tubules of juxtaglomerular apparatus
160. The site of ADH activity on a nephron is
(1) Proximal convoluted tubule
(2) Loop of Henle
(3) Distal convoluted tubule, collecting duct and
collecting tubule
(4) Only DCT
Test-04 (Code A)
164. The blood of sharks and rays can be explained as
(1) Hyperosmotic and hyperionic to sea water
(2) Hypoosmotic and hypoionic to sea water
(3) Hyperosmotic and hypoionic to sea water
(4) Hypoosmotic and hyperionic to sea water
165. Identify the correct pathway through which the urine
passes out of kidney.
(1) Collecting tubule  Duct of Bellini  Renal
papilla  Minor calyx  Major calyx  Renal
pelvis  Ureter
(2) Collecting tubule  Duct of Bellini  Renal
papilla  Major calyx  Minor calyx  Renal
pelvis  Urethra
(3) Collecting tubule  Renal papilla  Duct of
Bellini  Minor calyx  Major calyx  Renal
pelvis  Ureter
(4) Collecting tubule  Duct of Bellini  Major
calyx  Minor calyx  Renal papilla  Renal
pelvis Ureter
166. Identify the bone that is not a part of appendicular
skeleton
(1) Frontal (2) Bones of pelvic girdle
(3) Bones of limbs (4) Fibula
167. How many of the following are investing bones?
Parietal, Patella, Scapula, Axis, Tarsal, Sternum,
Metacarpal, Femur, Ulna, Calcaneum.
(1) Five (2) Three
(3) Four (4) One

161. Which one of the following is actively secreted by 168. Ball and socket type of synovial joint is present
distal convoluted tubule of nephron? between
(1) H2O (2) Na+ (1) Between carpals
(3) K+ (4) HCO3– (2) Humerus and pectoral girdle
162. If a person drinks excess amount of water which (3) Atlas and axis
decreases osmolarity of blood, then which one of the
following would be released into the blood? (4) Carpal and metacarpal of thumb
(1) Antidiuretic hormone 169. Which of the muscles have striation and intercalated
(2) Renin discs within it?
(3) Atrial natriuretic factor (1) Myometrium
(4) Both (1) & (2) (2) Biceps
163. Which of the following options is incorrect? (3) Circular muscles of gut
(1) Liver is an accessory excretory organ of human (4) Myocardium
helping in the elimination of excretory wastes
170. Which portion of the pelvic girdle is involved in the
(2) Renal calculi/kidney stones are insoluble mass
formation of acetabulum?
of calcium oxalates formed within the kidney
(3) The chemical composition of haemodialysing (1) Ilium
fluid is similar to blood plasma, except the (2) Ischium
nitrogenous wastes
(3) Pubis
(4) Alcohol is an antidiuretic substance which
inhibits the secretion of ADH (4) All of these
(13)
Test-04 (Code A)
171. Which one of the following is not a part of myosin
molecule?
(1) Light meromyosin
(2) Tropomyosin
(3) Heavy meromyosin
(4) Myosin head with actin binding sites
172. When a person completes a rigorous phase of
physical exercise, he starts panting as the body
consumes extra oxygen. What was the physiological
need, that is solved by this overconsumption of
oxygen?
(1) To replenish ATP and phosphocreatine store
(2) To oxidise accumulated lactic acid done in liver
formed due to anaerobic breakdown of glycogen
causing fatigue
(3) To replenish the oxygen store in myoglobin
(4) All of these
173. Which joint is present between the adjacent
vertebrae in the vertebral column?
(1) Hinge joint (2) Gliding joint
(3) Pivot joint (4) Cartilaginous joint
174. During the contraction of biceps muscles, in its
sarcomere, which one of the following does not
occur?
(1) The length of anisotropic band shortens
(2) The length of Hensens zone (H zone) shortens
(3) The length of Isotropic band shortens
(4) The distance between two successive
Zwischenscheibe lines decreases
175. Identify the correct option from the given information:
A. Red muscle fibres have high content of
myoglobin.
B. The white muscle fibres do not get fatigued.
C. Cardiac muscles has long refractory period.
D. Mg2+ dependent ATPase activity is present in
the myosin head.
E. The sarcoplasmic reticulum releases the stored
Ca2+, which binds with calcium binding site of
tropomyosin on actin filaments.
  
(14)
Test Series for NEET - 2017
(1) A, B, C, D are correct but E is incorrect
(2) B & E are incorrect while A, C & D are correct
(3) A & C are correct statements where as B, D &
E are incorrect
(4) D is the only incorrect statement while A, B, C
& E are the correct statements
176. Which one of the following is not an example of
smooth muscle?
(1) Arrector pili associated with hair follicles
(2) Circular muscle in the wall of intestine
(3) Located in the wall of blood vessels i.e. arteries
help in vasoconstriction and vasodilation
(4) Muscles of heart. They are involuntary,
innervated by autonomic nervous system
177. Which one of the following is an autoimmune
disorder?
(1) Osteoporosis (2) Myasthenia gravis
(3) Muscular dystrophy (4) Tetany
178. How many total vertebrochondral i.e., false ribs are
present in human body?
(1) One (2) Three
(3) Four (4) Six
179. The plasma membrane of the skeletal muscle fibre
is known as
(1) Sarcoplasm
(2) Syncytium
(3) Sarcolemma
(4) Sacroplasmic reticulum
180. Which one of the following activities does not require
skeletal function for locomotion?
(1) Finding reproductive mate
(2) Searching and building of shelter
(3) Movement of food through intestine
(4) Procurement of edibles
 14/04/2017 Code - A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005; Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 720 Test Series : Test – 04 (Objective) Time : 3 Hrs.

(for NEET - 2017 )

Answers and Hints

PHYSICS
1. Answer (2) 4. Answer (3)
(W  W1 )  v W g ... (i) A1

(W  W2 )  v L g ... (ii) v1
h
Dividing eq. (ii) by (i) we have
L W  W2 A2
  Relative density
W W  W1 v2
2. Answer (3) A1v1
A2 
v12  2gh
m
Volume of ball, V 
 (10 4 )(1.0)
  5.0  10 5 m2
2
Acceleration of ball inside the liquid, 1  2  10  0.15
5. Answer (4)
Fnet upthrust  weight
a 
m m ⎛h⎞
V1  2g ⎜ ⎟  gh
⎛m⎞ ⎝2⎠
⎜  ⎟ (3)(g )  mg
or a⎝ ⎠ ⇒ a  2g upwards From Bernoulli’s theorem,
m
⎛h⎞ 1
gh  2g ⎜ ⎟  (2)(v 2 )2
 Velocity of ball while reaching at surface, ⎝2⎠ 2
v  2 ah  4 gh v 2  2gh
 The ball will jump to a height, V1 1

V2 2
v 2 4gh
H   2h 6. Answer (1)
2g 2g
3. Answer (2) Pr 4 Pr 4 Pr 4 Pr 4
Let h be the height of the hill. V1  , V2  , V3  and V 
8l1 8l 2 8l3 8l
The pressure difference = pressure due to h metre
of air. Now, V  V1  V2  V3
 (75  50)(10 2 )Hg g  hair g l1l 2 l3
we get, l 
l1l 2  l1l3  l 2 l 3
Hg
 h  (25  102 )  = (25 × 10–2) (104) m 1 2  3 6
air   m
1 2  1 3  2  3 11
= 2.5 km
(1)
Answers & Hints of Test-04 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
7. Answer (2) 14. Answer (1)
The tension on heavier sphere is upwards and on dH = Pdt
lighter sphere is downwards.
dH Pdt P
6
 800g ]  T  250  10 6  liquid g ... (i)  Cp   
 [250  10 dT dT dT / dt
and Here, T = at1/4

[250  106  1200g ]  T  250  106  liquidg ... (ii) T

or  t 1/ 4
a
From eq. (i) and (ii), T = 0.5 N
T4
8. Answer (2)  t
a4
9. Answer (3)
3/ 4 3
T dT a ⎡T 4 ⎤ a ⎡T ⎤ a4
  ⎢ 4⎥  
  dt 4 ⎣a ⎦ 4 ⎢⎣ a ⎥⎦ 4T 3
A B P 4PT 3
F  Cp  
F   dT / dt a4
15. Answer (1)
F = Tension in the thread
16. Answer (2)
2F sin = T(AB)
We know for ideal gas,
2F  = T(2R)
PV = nRT
F = RT
10. Answer (3) (P0  aV 2 )V  nRT

4T 4T 4T (P0  3aV 2 ) 
nRdT
 
R r1 r2 dV

4T 4T 4T dT
⇒   For maxima and minima condition, 0
R r 2r dV
1/2
4T 4T ⎛P ⎞
⇒  P0  3aV 2 ,V  ⎜ 0 ⎟
R 2r ⎝ 3a ⎠
⇒ R  2r For maximum temperature,
11. Answer (4) 1/2
⎡ aP0 ⎤ ⎡ P0 ⎤
3F 3F ⎢⎣P0  3a ⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ 3a ⎥⎦ 2P0 ⎡ P0 ⎤
1/2
Tmax  
2F L/3 2F nR 3nR ⎢⎣ 3a ⎥⎦
2L/3
17. Answer (4)
⎛ 2L ⎞ ⎛L⎞
3F ⎜ ⎟ 2F ⎜ ⎟ For isothermal expansion,
l ⎝ 3 ⎠ ⎝ 3 ⎠ ⇒ l  8FL
Ay Ay 3 AY PV = P2V
12. Answer (3) P
P 
n1  n2 n n 2
 1  2
max  1 1  1  2  1 For adiabatic expansion,

1 1 1 1 24 P
  ⇒ (2V )5/3  P   (16V )5/3
 max  1 ⎛ 5 ⎞ ⎛ 7 ⎞ 16 2
⎜  1⎟ ⎜  1⎟
⎝3 ⎠ ⎝5 ⎠ P ⎛ 16V ⎞
5/3
⎜ ⎟
13. Answer (2) 2P  ⎝ 2V ⎠
t0 c
H  ∫ msdt  m ∫ (at 2  bt  c )dt P 5
0   2
2P 
⎡ at 3 bt 2 ⎤ P
 m ⎢ 0  0  ct0 ⎥ P 
⎣ 3 2 ⎦ 64
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Test Series for NEET - 2017 Answers & Hints of Test-04 (Code A)
18. Answer (4) 23. Answer (4)
Q = nCPT E  AT 4
70 = 2CP × 5
 E  r 2T 4 ∵ A  4r 2 
CP = 7 cal mol–1 K–1
CP – CV = R E1 r12T14
 
CV = CP – R = 7 – 2 = 5 cal mol–1 K–1 E2 r22T24
Q = nCV T = 2 × 5 × 5 = 50 cal E1 R 2T 4
 
19. Answer (1) E2 (2R )2 (2T )4
For adiabatic process, dQ = 0 E1 1
 
So, dU = –dW E2 64
nCvdT = +146 × 103 J E2
  64
f 3
E1
 n RdT  146  10
2 24. Answer (4)
103  f  8.3  7 K1A[  0]t1 K A[  0]t2
  146  103  mL  2
2 d d
 f = 5.02 K1 t2 20 2
K1t1  K 2t2 ⇒   
 f=5 K 2 t1 30 3
So, it is a diatomic gas. 25. Answer (1)
20. Answer (1) We consider a spherical element of radius r and
thickness dr. The resistance of considered element
dQ kA(100  T ) is
 dr
dt x dr
dR 
100  T dQ KA
  constant  k
x dtkA dr
dR  r
100  T k 4r 2
 k0
x dR 
dr
100  T  k0 x K0
2
4r 2
r
T  100  k0 x
dr
T  k0 x  100 ∵ dR 
4K 0
21. Answer (1) 1 b 1
∫ dR  4K0 ∫a dr ⇒ R  4K0 (b  a)
80  64 ⎡ 80  64 ⎤
 ⎢  T0 ⎥ ... (i)
5 ⎣ 2 ⎦ 26. Answer (1)
More area causes more radiation, making a body
64  52 ⎡ 64  52 ⎤ cooling fast. For a given mass, area of circular plate
 ⎢  T0 ⎥ ... (ii)
5 ⎣ 2 ⎦ is maximum.
Divide eq. (i) by (ii) we get, 27. Answer (1)

16 ⎡ 72  T0 ⎤ Q  EAt  e(T 4  T04 )At , when T  T0

 ⇒ T0  16C
12 ⎢⎣ 58  T0 ⎥⎦
Q  eT 4 At
22. Answer (3)
 300  e  (5.67  108 )  (1000)4  (5.00  104 )  (60)
4 4
E1 ⎡ T ⎤ ⎡ T ⎤ 16 e = 0.18
 ⎢ 
E2 ⎢ T⎥ ⎣ 3T / 2 ⎥⎦ 81
⎢T  ⎥ 28. Answer (1)
⎣ 2⎦
% increase in Q2 TL 273  1 273
  Q   9J
81 W TH  TL  2 303  273 30
E1  E1
E2  E1
E  100  16  100  400% Heat delivered to the surrounding,
E1 E1
Q1  Q2  W  9  1  10

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Answers & Hints of Test-04 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
29. Answer (2) 34. Answer (3)
T1 = 627 + 273 = 900 K 3
Mean kinetic energy per mol = RT
Q1 = 3 × 106 cal 2
T2 = 27 + 273 = 300 K 3
=  8.3  273  3.4  103 J
Q1 Q2 2
 
T1 T2 35. Answer (1)

T2 300 2.2 1
⇒ Q2   Q1   3  106  1 106 cal Number of moles of gas =  mol
T1 900 44 20
PV = nRT
Work done = Q1 – Q2
= 3 × 106 – 1 × 106  PV  n
= 2 × 106 cal n2 P1 1 1
 V2   V1    22.4  0.56 L
= 2 × 4.2 × 106 J n1 P2 20 2
= 8.4 × 106 J 36. Answer (4)
30. Answer (2) nRT
V 
4 P
1
dW   1 3 1 nRT
   V 
dQ  4 4 1.05P
3
V  V ⎛V  ⎞
dW 1   100  ⎜  1⎟  100
  100   100  25% V ⎝V ⎠
dQ 4
31. Answer (3) ⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎡ 1  1.05 ⎤
⎜  1⎟  100  ⎢  100
In adiabatic process, Q = 0 ⎝ 1.05 ⎠ ⎣ 1.05 ⎦⎥
 For expansion, Q = U + W 0.05 500
 100   4.76%
0 = U + 25 1.05 105
U = –25 J 37. Answer (4)
For adiabatic compression, PV   K

Q = U  + W  ⎡ nRT ⎤
P⎢ K
0 = U  – 100 ⎣ P ⎥⎦
U  = 100 J P 1T 
 Constant
32. Answer (2) P
Q = U + W
P 1T   Constant
U = Q – W = 10 – 5 = 5 J 

5 PT 1  Constant
nCv T = 5  T 
nCv Constant
P 
Q Q C Q
and C    v T 1
nT 5 5
n 
nCv
P  T 1
10 2R 7/5
 Cv   2Cv  (7/5) 1
5  1 For monatomic, P  T ⇒ P  T 7/2
5 38. Answer (1)
For monatomic gas,  
3 gh 10  1000 1
mgh = kmL  k   5

2R 2R L 3.36  10 33
 C   3R
5 2/3 39. Answer (1)
1
3 Tc  90C  30C  60C
33. Answer (4)
9 9
2 4 2 2
TF  TC  (60)  108F
1  4  8  16 5 5
C  9.178  9.2 m/s2
4 T  TC  60 K
(4)
Test Series for NEET - 2017 Answers & Hints of Test-04 (Code A)
40. Answer (4) 42. Answer (1)
Time period of second’s pendulum = 2 s 43. Answer (3)
Change in time period, Let LS = Latent heat of vaporization
1
T  T LF = Latent heat of freezing
2
Given, Ls = LF
1
T   2  1.2  105  (30  20) Let m = Initial mass of water,
2
F = Fraction of water frozen
 1.2  104 s
New time period, T= T + T = 2.0012 s Mass of vapour formed = m[1 – F],
Time lost in a week, Mass of ice formed = mF

T 1.2  104  m(1 – F)LS = mFLF

t  t   (7  24  3600)  36.28 s
T 2.00012
1  F LF 1 
41. Answer (2) or   or   F  F or F 
F LS   1
3KA(100  ) 2KA(50  ) KA(0  )
  0 44. Answer (4)
l l l
 3(100 –  ) + 2(50 –  ) + (0 –  ) = 0 The two free liquid surfaces must provide a net
upward force due to surface tension to balance the
 300 – 3  + 100 – 2  –  = 0
weight of the liquid column.
 400 – 6  = 0
45. Answer (4)
 400 = 6 
PB  PC  gh and PC  PA  al
200
 
3  PB  PA  gh  al

CHEMISTRY
46. Answer (4) Applying chemical equivalence
+6 SnCl2 N1 × V1 = N2 × V2 HgCl2
Cr2O7  Cr
2– 3+

 6e– transferred 0.5 × V1 = 0.1 × 600

3×2
60
47. Answer (1) V1 =  10 = 120 mL
5
Valence electrons in P = 5
50. Answer (2)
So can loose 5e– or gain 3e– to complete octet.
Hence. O.S. varies from –3 to +5 E°(X|X –) = 0.33 V E°(M+|M) = 0.44 V
48. Answer (1) ⇓ ⇓
Anode Cathode
xFeCl3 + yH2S  FeCl2 + S + HCl So spontaneous reaction will be
by 1
X + M  X + M


Fe + S  Fe + S°
3+ 2– 2+
51. Answer (4)
by 2 Oxidation state of Cl  –1 to +7
2Fe3++  1S2– +S 2Fe2+ As Cl is present in intermediate O.S., so all ions
or 2FeCl3 + 1 H2S  2FeCl2 + S + 2HCl can disproportionate.
 x = 2, y = 1 52. Answer (2)
49. Answer (1) +2 +6
M
+2 +2 +1 E= n Na2S2O3 ⎯→ Na2SO4
HgCl2 + SnCl2   Hg2Cl2 + SnCl4 f
4×2
by 2 M
+1 E=
2+
Hg + Sn
2+
  Hg2 + Sn
4+ 8
53. Answer (1)
by 1
Circuit is incomplete.
(5)
Answers & Hints of Test-04 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
54. Answer (1) 69. Answer (1)
55. Answer (3) Down’s process is used for extraction of Na using
Because Zn2+ is a better reducing agent than H2 motion NaCl. KCl and KF are added to lower the
according to electrochemical series. melting point.
56. Answer (3) 70. Answer (2)
Heavy water contains heavy hydrogen i.e., deuterium. KO2 contains O2– i.e. one unpaired electron.
57. Answer (1) 4= n(n  2)  1(1  2)  3  1.73 BM


 71. Answer (4)
H2O   H + OH
 K1 = 1.0 × 10–14 = C12
P 4, S and Cl 2 all disproportionate as they are

D2O  
 D + OD
 K2 = 3.0 × 10–15 = C22 present in intermediate oxidation state.
72. Answer (3)
α1 K1 10
= =  3
α2 K2 3 200° C
CaSO4 CaSO4  2H2O
58. Answer (4) 120° C
Dead burnt plaster
BaO2 contains peroxide ion O22–. strong
CaO(s) + SO2 + 1/2 O2 CaSO4  1 H2O
heating 2
Rest all are simple oxides Plaster of Paris
59. Answer (1)
73. Answer (3)
60. Answer (3)
Down the group, basic character increases.
In ion exchange process, the ions are replaced.
74. Answer (2)
61. Answer (2)
 Mg2C3 + H2O  Mg(OH)2 + HC C – CH3

PH3 + D2O  
 PH3D + OD
 75. Answer (3)
Base Acid
BeC2 + H2O  Be(OH)2 + C2H2 (Acetylene)
62. Answer (3)
Al4C2 + H2O  Al(OH)3 + CH4 (Methane)
HClO4 does not contain peroxide
76. Answer (2)
So cannot give H2O2 on hydrolysis
63. Answer (4) Fact

H2O2  H2O + O2 77. Answer (1)

20 vol means 1 L H2O2 produces 20 L O2 Na2B4O7 + H2O  NaOH + B(OH)3
Strong base Weak acid
1
 (250 mL) will produce 5 L O2. 78. Answer (4)
4
64. Answer (2) Two B  sp3 hybridised
65. Answer (1) & two B  sp2 hybridised
CrO3 + H2O2  CrO5 + H2O 79. Answer (1)
66. Answer (4) Inert pair effect is shown predominantly by the
by 2 elements lying low in the group – In > Ga > Al and
+7 +3  +5
similarly oxidising tendency
H  
KMnO4 + NO2  NO3 + Mn2+ 80. Answer (1)
by 5
81. Answer (2)
 
2KMnO4 + 5NO2  5NO3+ 2Mn2+ Si(CH3)4 – tetramethyl silane
2  5
82. Answer (2)
1  5/2
67. Answer (4) NaHCO3 + NaOH react

Na2CO3 on heat does not decompose. NaOH + H2CO3  NaHCO3

68. Answer (2) 83. Answer (3)

Like dissolves like. Larger is the anion, more is the covalent character.
LiI being least ionic is maximum soluble in non-polar 84. Answer (4)
solvents. Ge4+ is more stable than Ge2+.
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Test Series for NEET - 2017 Answers & Hints of Test-04 (Code A)
85. Answer (1) 87. Answer (4)
Semi water gas is CO + H2 + N2
O=C=O –Si – O – Si – O –
sp 88. Answer (2)
O O
LiAlH4  Li[AIH4]–
–Si – O – Si – 89. Answer (2)
sp3

86. Answer (3) Li2CO 3  Li2O + CO 2
p-orbital 1 mol 1 mol
empty K2CO3 does not decompose.
N(SiH3)3 contains H3Si d orbital
90. Answer (2)
p – d bonding N SiH3
H3Si Order of melting point T > D > H

BOTANY
91. Answer (2) 104. Answer (2)
Hydroponics need purified mineral salts and was first 105. Answer (3)
demonstrated by J.V. Sachs.
Khaira disease of rice is due to deficiency of Zn.
92. Answer (4)
106. Answer (3)
Essential elements are irreplaceable.
Azotobacter and Beijerinckia are free living aerobic
93. Answer (2) N2-fixing bacteria.
Silicon, sodium, cobalt are functional elements. 107. Answer (2)
94. Answer (4)
NH3  NO2  NO3 is nitrification.
Chlorine is mobile micronutrient.
95. Answer (3) 108. Answer (3)
C, H, O, N are structural elements. Nitrifying bacteria use energy released by oxidation
96. Answer (1) of NH3 to NO3 , in synthesis of organic compound
Mg from CO2 and hydrogen donor.
97. Answer (1) 109. Answer (1)
K+is most free ion the cell and not bound to
For reduction of NO2 into ammonia, electrons are
membrane.
provided by Fd, a component of PSI in leaf.
98. Answer (1)
110. Answer (2)
Molybdenum is absorbed as MoO22 Nitrogenase
N2  8H  8e  16ATP 

99. Answer (3)
2NH3 + 16ADP + Pi
Deficiency symptom of mobile elements first appear
in old leaves. 111. Answer (2)

100. Answer (2) Leghemoglobin is formed by both bacteria and the

plant root. ATP is provided by host cell.
N, S, Mo are if deficient in plant matter cause
chlorosis, inhibition of cell division and delay in 112. Answer (2)
flowering. In nodules, the bacteria become anaerobic.
101. Answer (3) 113. Answer (2)
Mn toxicity produces the symptom brown spots Amides have high N to C ratio, not the amino acid.
surrounded by chlorotic veins.
114. Answer (3)
102. Answer (1)
Jan Ingenhousz reported O2 is evolved by plants in
Transmembrane proteins provide symplast pathway.
sunlight.
103. Answer (3)
115. Answer (1)
Cytochrome pumps anion actively whereas cations
are absorbed passively. Cladophora is multicellular and the bacteria taken
was aerobic.
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Answers & Hints of Test-04 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
116. Answer (1) 127. Answer (1)
Medium was CO2 free hence no reduction and sugar Rice is C3 plant.
formation.
128. Answer (4)
117. Answer (2)
Photorespiration is favoured by low CO 2
Chlorophyll a has —CH3 at C3 of 2nd pyrrole. concentration.
118. Answer (4) 129. Answer (1)
119. Answer (2) 130. Answer (1)
120. Answer (4) Primary CO2 fixation occurs in mesophyll cytoplasm.
Release of O2 is concerned with PSII. 131. Answer (4)
121. Answer (2) Water loss is minimised at night due to low
122. Answer (4) temperature at night.
External e– donor is not required. 132. Answer (4)
123. Answer (4) Bamboo –C 3 , Maize –C 4 , Pineapple and
Carotenoids have no role in reaction centre. Bryophyllum –CAM
124. Answer (4) 133. Answer (1)
125. Answer (4) 134. Answer (2)
pH in lumen is lower than the pH in stroma. 135. Answer (2)
126. Answer (1) Duration of light has no effect on rate of
Carboxylation is most crucial as it forms 1st stable photosynthesis, however it affects the overall–
product 3-PGA. photosynthesis.

ZOOLOGY
136. Answer (1) 147. Answer (3)
137. Answer (4) Lymph capillaries are closed ended microscopic
tubules. The lymph nodes filters the lymph.
138. Answer (3)
Lymph has more CO2 and less O2.
139. Answer (3)
148. Answer (2)
140. Answer (2)
149. Answer (3)
141. Answer (3)
Liver
142. Answer (4)
150. Answer (4)
During joint diastole the cardiac chambers are filled.
As the AV-valve opens the ventricular slow filling Cockroaches have malpighian tubules.
starts resulting in its filling upto three quarters. This 151. Answer (2)
diastole is followed by another cardiac cycle the
It is a specialized excretory product, characteristic
onset of which is marked as P wave appearance in
to mammals. It is produced from benzoic acid.
ECG.
152. Answer (3)
143. Answer (2)
Renal fascia is the outermost fibrous protective cover
Chordae tendineae connects the AV-valves to linking the kidney with the abdominal wall.
papillary muscles of heart.
153. Answer (4)
144. Answer (4)
Inner medulla the concentration interstitial fluid fluid
Lubb is a long duration sound. is 1200 mosmL–1.
145. Answer (1) 154. Answer (4)
Each ventricle pumps out about 70 ml of blood, per 155. Answer (3)
cardiac cycle.
Detrussor muscles are present in the middle
146. Answer (4) muscularis coat of urinary bladder wall helps in
During cardiac arrest, no electro-myocardial activity micturition, due to its contraction.
is observed. No waves ECG heart stops beathing. 156. Answer (2)
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Test Series for NEET - 2017 Answers & Hints of Test-04 (Code A)
157. Answer (4) 168. Answer (2)
158. Answer (3) 169. Answer (4)
Presence of ketone bodies in urine causes Ketonuria
Myocardium/heart muscles are striated muscles with
159. Answer (4) intercalated discs.
Macula densa cells are modified columnar epithelial 170. Answer (4)
DCT of Juxta glomerular apparatus, touching the JG
cells. 171. Answer (2)
160. Answer (3) 172. Answer (4)
161. Answer (3) 173. Answer (4)
Selective secretion of K+ occurs in PCT, DCT and
174. Answer (1)
collecting duct.
162. Answer (3) A-band does not change dimension during muscle
contraction.
ANF promotes diuresis if a person intakes excess
amount of water in order to maintain osmotic 175. Answer (2)
balance.
176. Answer (4)
163. Answer (4)
177. Answer (2)
Alcohol is a diuretic substance.
164. Answer (3) 178. Answer (4)

Sharks and rays are osmoconformers but not strict The VIIIth, IXth and Xth pairs of ribs (3×2 = 6) are
osmoconformers. called vertebrochondral ribs.
165. Answer (1) 179. Answer (3)
166. Answer (1) Lemma means membrane, here Sarcolemma is the
167. Answer (4) muscle cell membrane.
Parietal bone of cranium is investing bone. 180. Answer (3)

  

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