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A.

LISTENING SECTION

In this section of the test you will have the chance to show how well you understand spoken English.
There are four parts to this section with special directions for each part.

PART I. PICTURES. Questions 1 to 3.


Directions : There are three items in this part. For each item, you will see a picture on your test
paper and you will hear four short statements. The statements will be spoken TWICE.
They will not be printed on your test paper, so you must listen carefully to understand
what the speakers say. When you hear the four statements, look at the picture on your
test paper and choose the statement that best describes what you see in the picture.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and mark your answer.

Look at the sample below. Now listen to the four statements:


Sample Answer:

A B C D

Statement (D), “The children are participating in the lesson”, best


describes what you see in the picture. Therefore, you should
choose answer (D).

Now let’s begin with the picture marked number one (1) on your test paper.
1. 2.

3.

PART II. QUESTIONS – RESPONSES. Questions 4 to 7.


Directions : There are four items in this part of the test. For each item, you will hear a question or
statement spoken in English followed by three responses, also spoken in English. They
will be spoken TWICE. They will not be printed on your test paper, so you must listen
carefully to understand what the speakers say. You are to choose the best response to
each question or statement and mark it on your answer sheet.

Now listen to a sample question.


You will hear : Sample Answer:
You will also hear :
A B C

The best response to the question, “When should I call back?” is choice (A), “Anytime after lunch is
fine.” Therefore you should choose answer (A).

Now let’s begin with question number four (4) on your test paper.
4. Mark your answer on your answer sheet
5. Mark your answer on your answer sheet
6. Mark your answer on your answer sheet
7. Mark your answer on your answer sheet

PART III. SHORT CONVERSATIONS. Questions 8 to 11.


Directions : There are four items in this part of the test. For each item you will hear a short
conversation between two people. You will hear the conversations TWICE. They will
not be printed on your test paper, so you must listen carefully to understand what the
speakers say. On your test paper, you will read a question about each conversation. The
question will be followed by four answers. You are to choose the best answer to each
question and mark it on your answer sheet.

Now, let’s begin with question number eight (8) on your test paper.
8. What does the man want to do?
A. Learn to make diamonds
B. Buy a gift for his wife
C. Get his money back
D. Choose a necklace

9. What information does the woman offer to give the man?


A. Her salary
B. Interest rates
C. A verification code
D. Her account number

10. Why do the projects run late?


A. Time escapes them.
B. The staffs like to work lazily.
C. There is too much to discuss.
D. Everyone wants to go home late.

11. How does the man feel about today’s topic meeting?
A. He doesn’t like it.
B. He is very excited.
C. He is quite confused.
D. He doesn’t understand it.

PART IV. SHORT TALKS. Questions 12 to 15.


Directions : In this part of the test you will hear two short talks. Each will be spoken TWICE. They
will not be printed on your test paper, so you must listen carefully to understand and
remember what is said. On your test paper, you will read two or more questions about
each short talk. Each question will be followed by four answers. You have to choose the
best answer to each question and mark it on your answer sheet.
Now let’s begin with the following short talk.

12. What did the speaker say about the business hours?
A. December is fully closed.
B. The schedule is renewed.
C. It will be open on weekends.
D. There is no currency transaction.

13. When can stocks and bonds be bought and sold?


A. From 9 a.m. to 3 p.m.
B. From 1 p.m. to 4 p.m.
C. On weekends
D. In January only

14. What is the information about?


A. A rule in entering a building
B. A change in the operation hours
C. Important news for special visitors
D. New problems faced by the hospitals

15. How long will the special situation be in effect?


A. From 8 a.m. to 9 p.m.
B. From 7 a.m. to 7 p.m.
C. For one week.
D. During lobby improvement.

B. READING SECTION
In this part of the test you will have the chance to show how well you understand written English.
There are four parts to this section, with special directions for each part.

PART V. Directions : From questions 16 – 27, four clauses/sentences, marked (A), (B), (C), or (D),
are given beneath each incomplete dialog. Choose the one clause/sentence
that best completes the dialog. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number
of the question and mark your answer.

16. Waiter : Please have a seat. ...?


Guest : A lemonade, please.
A. What would you like to have
B. How do you like a lemonade
C. Do you drink a lemonade
D. What would you like to eat

17. Iqbal : Do you work around here?


Haura : Yes, I am a nurse at General Hospital. …
A. I prepare food.
B. I clean bedrooms.
C. I take care patients.
D. I write prescriptions.

18. Adelina : I don’t feel well today. I have problems with my stomach.
Devi : ….
Adelina : Thanks. I’ll do later after work.
A. Do you want to lie down?
B. Why don’t you see the doctor?
C. How about going to the movie?
D. What about something to drink?
19. Ardi : How about going camping next weekend?
Sabri : … We should prepare ourselves for the test.
A. I don’t think so
B. That’s a good idea
C. I couldn’t agree more
D. It’s better for us to go

20. Maudy : Do you think this room is suitable for you?


Thara : Sure … .
A. It is smaller than that one.
B. It is really cozy and pleasant.
C. I need a room with twin beds.
D. It is far from the swimming pool.

21. Secretary : Is this photocopy machine out of order? We have a lot of work to copy.
Manager : Yes. … immediately.
A. It has to be captured
B. It needs to be fixed
C. We need to buy it
D. We don’t need it

22. Satria : I need your help. I have to go to the central office. … ?


Syahril : My pleasure. Please wait a moment.
A. Can you call me a taxi
B. Would you type this letter
C. Will you turn on the computer
D. Could you help me with this report

23. Deneisya : How are you going to spend this new year’s eve?
Ghufron : … .
A. I’m going to take my annual leave
B. I plan to have my vacation in Bali
C. I love celebrating my anniversary
D. I have to spend my holiday soon

24. Nabil : I haven’t seen the manager. Where is he now?


Vikrie : I think … .
A. He was preparing new programs
B. He went out of town with his staffs
C. He has been here since this morning
D. He is having a meeting with some clients

25. Indah : It was a nice party. … Thank you.


Rina : You’re welcome. I’m glad you could come.
A. I don’t think it was interesting.
B. I was sorry for the invitation.
C. I enjoyed it very much.
D. I’m really happy too.

26. Rezha : What indoor sports do you like?


Saffa :….
A. I like riding horse.
B. I like playing soccer.
C. I love playing bowling.
D. I love watching badminton.
27. Sabila : How do you like your soup, sir?
Raka : Well, … .
A. I need some fresh mushroom
B. I’d rather have it a bit salty
C. I prefer steak to soup
D. I’m not fond of soup

PART VI. Directions : Questions 28 – 30 are based on short dialogs of certain situation, such as
invitation, daily activity, opinion, etc. Choose the one best answer, (A),
(B), (C), or (D), to each question. Answer all the questions following
each short dialog on the basis of what is stated or implied in the dialog.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and mark
your answer.

Question 28 is based on the following short dialog.

Samuel : Hello, this is Sheila. May I speak to Vina?


Vina : This is Vina speaking.
Samuel : Oh, hi Vina. I wonder if you’d like to come to my house tonight. We’re having a great
party.
Vina : I don’t think I can. I’m doing my assignment. I’m afraid I couldn’t finish it.
Samuel : That’s alright.

28. Why can’t Vina come to the party?


A. She has to do her homework.
B. She is afraid of going to a party.
C. She can’t do her homework well.
D. She is having another great party.
Question 29 is based on the following short dialog.

Armand : What is that woman’s job?


Bonita : She’s a construction worker.
Armand : What is your opinion about the job?
Bonita : I’d like working outside. I wouldn’t like carrying heavy things.
Armand : Do you know anyone with this job?
Bonita : My uncle is a construction worker. He’s built many houses.

29. What does Bonita feel about the job of a construction worker?
A. She is interested in some parts of it.
B. She doesn’t like it very much.
C. She thinks it is quite heavy.
D. She is afraid of carrying it.
Question 30 is based on the following short dialog.

Rice : Do you like reading?


Dino : Yes. I enjoy reading. I read widely.
Riko : What book do you read?
Dino : I read novels and history books whenever I have time.
Riko : What kind of novel do you like most?
Dino : I like the Chinese fiction “Dream of Red Mansions”.

30. What does Dino do in his free time?


A. He likes dreaming.
B. He writes novels.
C. He retells fiction.
D. He reads books.
PART VI. Directions : Questions 31 – 41 are based on a selection of reading materials, such as
notices, letters, forms, articles, advertisements, etc. Choose the one best
answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D), to each question. Answer all the questions
following each reading selection on the basis of what is stated or implied
in the selection. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
question and mark your answer.

Questions 31 – 32 refer to the following description.


Set up in the year 1959, the National Zoological Park, is spread across 176 acres of land. It was
built after the Indian Board for Wildlife felt the need of having a Zoo in the capital as recreational
facility for the people. The park was formally inaugurated by Mr. Punjab Rao, Honorable Minister of
the Government of India and was initially called the Delhi Zoo. It was in 1982 that the park was given
National status and came to be known as The National Zoological Park. Many of the state governments
and individuals expressed their delight by sending gifts of animals for the park.
The Zoo now provides shelter to almost 1,350 animals and birds of 130 species from around the
world. It has a plethora of reptiles, mammal and birds belonging to countries like Africa, Australia,
America, apart from India. The place also houses a green island and a 16th Century citadel. The
National Zoological Park is a place of heaven for the nature as well as animal lovers. On a stroll around
the park one can see squirrels hopping around up and down the trees, the white-tiger roaring with
authority, black-bucks hiding behind the trees, birds perching on the backs of the rhinos and several
such amusing sights.

31. The first paragraph is mainly about ... .


A. the various tourism objects in the capital of India
B. the best places to visit in the capital of India
C. the brief reasons in founding the Delhi Zoo
D. the gifts given by others for the Delhi Zoo

32. What is TRUE about the park?


A. There aren’t animals nor birds belonging to Asian countries.
B. Visitors can only see and enjoy mammals and birds in there.
C. It is a very good place for people who like nature and animals.
D. It has a collection of more than 130 bird species from around the world.

Questions 33 – 34 refer to the following procedure.

With a risograph, you can create professional designs and artworks with minimum costs. It was the
first type of printer to handle A2-size documents, which is the most common print format in the
printing industry. The best part is that no special technical skills are required to operate the machine.
This device is easy to use and offers outstanding results. Risographs can print up to 11 x 17 inches
with a minimum of 1/8 inch margin, so it's important to keep the process in mind when using the
machine.

The first step to using a risograph machine is to create the image. For best results, the graphics should
be in JPEG format. Convert the image to PDF and include between 1/8-inch to 1/4-inch bleed. Each
color layer requires a separate file. When you print books, allow for crop and registration marks.
Consider pagination too. Keep in mind that risographs cannot print full-bleed artwork.

Decide whether you want to use one-sided or double-sided prints. In general, a single-sided print takes
up to 48 hours. Change the ink in the machine by twisting the ink tube and adding a new cartridge.
Replace the master roll before you start printing. Turn on the machine to set the number of copies, and
press enter. Later on, you can add finishing options like foil clocking, lamination, and embossing.

33. What is the one kind of prints that the risograph has?
A. Double-sided
B. Full-bleed
C. 1/8 inch
D. A2-size

34. From the text, what is special about the risograph?


A. It needs a skillful operator to use it.
B. It produces works with low prices.
C. It converts all images to PDF.
D. It offers outstanding models.

Questions 35 – 37 refer to the following description.

The Public Bank Group, established by its Founder and Chairman, Tan Sri Dato' Sri Dr. Teh Hong
Piow, is the third largest banking group in Malaysia with an asset size of RM345.72 billion as at the
end of 2014. Public Bank is the third largest company listed on the Main Market of Bursa Malaysia
Securities with a market capitalization of RM71.04 billion as at the end of 2014. Since its humble
beginning in 1966, the Group has grown from strength to strength to its current premier banking group
status with staff strength of over 18,000 across the region.

Today, the Public Bank Group offers a comprehensive range of financial products and services which
include personal banking, commercial banking, Islamic banking, investment banking, share broking,
trustee services, nominee services, sale and management of unit trust funds, banc assurance and
general insurance products. The Group's strategy remains focused on organic growth in the retail
banking business particularly on the retail consumers and small and medium enterprises ("SMEs").
The Group is committed to sustain its strong business performance and leading market shares to
maintain its premier status in the Malaysian banking industry.

Public Bank reaches out to its customers via a network of 259 well-distributed branches and 1,801
self-service terminals in Malaysia. The Group has presence in the region with a network of 83
branches in Hong Kong, 3 branches in China, 27 branches in Cambodia, 7 branches in Vietnam, 4
branches in Laos and 3 branches in Sri Lanka. Collectively, the Group serves more than 9 million
customers in countries where it operates.

With consistent financial performance and prudent management, the Public Bank Group continues to
be accorded with strong credit and financial ratings from local and foreign rating agencies. Standard &
Poor's reaffirmed Public Bank's A- long-term rating and A-2 short-term counterparty credit rating with
stable outlook. Moody's Investors Service also reaffirmed Public Bank's foreign currency long-term
deposit rating of A3 and short-term deposit rating of P-2 with a positive outlook. Rating Agency
Malaysia reaffirmed the Bank's long-term rating of AAA, the highest rating accorded by Rating
Agency Malaysia, and its short-term rating of P1.

35. What is the Group committed to do?


A. Keeping its status as the top-rank banking industries
B. Being the self-service terminal banking in Malaysia
C. Reaching out to its customers by free credit
D. Establishing more branches in Asia

36. Which is one of the financial products the Public Bank Group offer?
A. Premier creditors
B. Prudent outlook
C. Organic growth
D. Share broking

37. What can be inferred about the condition of the Public Bank Group?
A. It is solid and strong
B. It is very vulnarable
C. It is usuall at risk
D. It is quite unsafe
Questions 38 – 39 refer to the following description.

Tony Tan Caktiong was born on October 07, 1960, to a working-class family from Fujian, China,
who migrated to the Philippines during the post World War II era. Tony’s father found work as a
cook at a Buddhist temple in downtown Manila and accordingly scrimped and saved so he could
open his own Chinese restaurant in order to provide for his family. His father’s hard work and
perseverance made it possible for Tony Tan Caktiong to earn a BS in Chemical Engineering at the
University of Sto. Tomas, the Philippine’s oldest university.

In 1975, Tony ventured into the food business by buying an ice cream parlor franchise from the once
famous Magnolia Ice Cream House. The parlor was small and nondescript, which catered mostly to
the well-heeled shoppers of Cubao. They were customers who could afford to buy cleverly
concocted but rather expensive cobblers, floats, milkshakes, banana splits, sundaes and parfaits.

However, most of Tony’s regulars wished that the parlor had something else to offer, other than ice-
cream concoctions. Hence, the small nondescript store started offering sandwiches, fries and fried
chicken, which started to attract the attention of other tired and hungry shoppers, movie-theater goers
and passers-by. The word fast food was still unheard of at that time, but it was what the small store
had to offer at affordable prices.

38. What is the main idea of the first paragraph?


A. Tony’s father financed him in studying at university.
B. Tony had a hard working father who supported the family.
C. Tony’s father worked as a cook at a temple in downtown Manila.
D. Tony and his family moved to the Philippines before the World War II.

39. From the text, what can be inferred about Tony’s business?
A. It was a large food retailer in Cubao.
B. It was not a big one but quite successful.
C. It provided things of rather expensive prices.
D. It only dealt with different kinds of ice-cream.

Questions 40 – 41 refer to the following information.

We are pleased to announce that the winner of our fall sales contest is Jane Doe. Congratulations,
Jane!

Jane was successful in securing 50 new clients in the month of November, which breaks the record
held by John Doe since last January. Her achievement is particularly impressive since it happened in
a month that is generally considered slow, showing once again that it can be done.

For her outstanding work she will receive a trip for two to Honolulu, Hawaii. We wish her and her
husband bon voyage.

Our next contest begins in January. Get ready, the next winner may be you.

40. What has Jane achieved for the sales contest?


A. She has been successful in securing 50 new clients.
B. She has received two tickets for a trip to Honolulu.
C. She has broken the world records with John Doe.
D. She is generally considered slow but impressive.

41. What would probably Jane do after winning the contest?


A. Joining other sales contests personally
B. Resigning from her current occupation
C. Going for a vacation with her husband
D. Applying for a new job in January
Part VIII. Directions : From questions 42 – 50, four words/phrases, marked (A), (B), (C),
or (D), are given beneath each text. Choose the one word/phrase that
best completes the text. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number
of the question and mark your answer.

Questions 42 – 44 refer to the following letter.

Dear Sir / Madam,

Re: Administrative Assistant Position

I am applying for the Administrative Assistant position as advertised in the Mercury on 24


January 2014.
My name is Lucy and I am a former refugee from the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC),
arriving in Australia in 2007. In DRC, in the city of Lubumbashi which has a population of 1.4 million
people, I worked as a personal assistant and (42) … secretary performing many roles from accounts to
marketing. My employment included working for Tenue Mining as a Secretary/Personal Assistant and
at the Bureau Technique and Skie Air as Secretary and in Marketing. I (43) … this type of work and
believe that my achievements were well regarded. I have good skills in Word, Excel, Database and
email & internet applications. I am very friendly, well presented, possess excellent oral communication
skills and time management skills.
Since arriving in Tasmania I have been (44) … involved in community activities, with both the
Tasmanian Congolese community and also the wider community. I have been updating my skills to
match the needs of the Australian workplace and am now
very keen to find employment.
I am available to be interviewed at any time. My resume, giving more details about
my experience is attached.

42.
A. instructive
B. superlative
C. imaginative
D. administrative
43.
A. enjoy
B. afford
C. dislike
D. collide
44.
A. suddenly
B. directly
C. heavily
D. falsely
Questions 45 – 47 refer to the following information.

In the event that our area experiences severe weather or other emergency conditions, your immediate
supervisor will (45) … you by telephone if you are not to report for work. If you receive no call, and
are still concerned, listen to radio ABCD, 1170 AM for information every thirty minutes on the hour
and half hour.

If the highway patrol considers conditions too hazardous for (46) … travel, we will close the office.
However, if the office is open, we expect employees to make every effort to be (47) …. We consider
time missed when the office is officially open as employee's personal time off. If you have questions
regarding this policy, please speak to your immediate supervisor.
45.
A. write
B. leave
C. notify
D. assign

46.
A. fast
B. safe
C. long
D. wide

47.
A. at work
B. on the road
C. in the house
D. around there

Questions 48 – 50 refer to the following advertisement.

Welcome to Thailand, a place that combines the best of nature, adventure, shopping and food. Go
for a swim in azure and emerald waters, pamper (48) … with a traditional massage, and shop till
you drop. Thailand is one of those destinations that offer a wide variety of things to do and places
to see. Be it the stunning coastline or magnificent hills and mountains, Thailand will charm you
with its beauty and magnificent scenery. With Buddhism at the centre of all religious activity, you
will come across plenty of glittering temples or Wats in Thailand. Besides beautiful attractions,
Thailand is (49) … for food and shopping. It is a real paradise for shoppers, especially Bangkok,
which is filled with shopping malls, street markets and night bazaars. When you step into (50) …
like Chatuchak in Bangkok, make sure to bargain! Do try a plate of delicious Pad Thai or dishes
from other cuisines at one of the stalls. Both Pattaya and Bangkok are known for their vivid
nightlife.

48.
A. themselves
B. yourself
C. himself
D. herself

49.
A. famous
B. wealthy
C. unknown
D. expensive

50.
A. schools
B. markets
C. hospitals
D. restaurants