SAIMEDHA MOCK TEST – 14 (100 Marks, Duration 2Hrs)

1. A small 3-phase induction motor has a short-circuit current 5 times of full-load current and
full-load slip 6%. If starting resistance starter is used to reduce the impressed voltage to 60%
of normal voltage, the starting torque obtained in terms of full load torque would be
a) 30% b) 45% c) 54% d) 80%

2. If a 400v, 50HZ, star connected, 3-phase squirrel cage induction motor is operated from a
400v, 75HZ supply, the torque that the motor can now provide while drawing rated current
from the supply?
a) decreases b) increases c) remains same
d) increases or decreases depending on rotor resistance.

3. Which one of the following statement is correct? A smaller air gap in a poly phase induction
motor helps to
a) reduce the chances of crawling b) increase the starting torque
c) reduce the chances of cogging d) reduces the magnetizing current

4. Based on revolving field theory, the forward and backward frequencies of the rotor emf of a
4-pole, 50HZ, single phase induction motor when running at 1300rpm in the same direction
of the forward field are respectively
a) 93.33HZ, 6.67HZ b) 7.69HZ, 107.69HZ
c) 6.67HZ, 93.33HZ d) 107.69HZ, 7.69HZ

5. The internal characteristic of a dc shunt generator is a plot between

a) Induced emf and armature current
b) Terminal voltage and load current
c) Induced emf and field current d) Terminal voltage and field current

6. If the armature current is increased to 3times in previous value, and the time of
communication is halved, how will the reactance voltage vary?
a) It will be 1/6 b) It will remain the same c) It will be 6times
d) It will become four times

7. A 4-pole lap wound dc generator has a developed power of P watt and voltage of E volt Two
adjacent brushes of the machine are removed as they are worn out. If the machine operates
with the remaining brushes, the developed voltage and power that can be obtained from the
machine are a) E and P b) E/2 and P/2 c) E and P/4 d) E and P/2

8. “A time-varying flux causes an electromotive force”. What law does this statement
represent? a) Ampere’s law b) Faraday’s law c) Lenz’s law d) both b&c

9. On which of the following factors does hysteresis loss depend?

1. flux density; 2.time; 3.thickness of lamination; 4.frequency.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 2&3 b)1&2 c) 3&4 d) 1&4

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 SAIMEDHA MOCK TEST – 14 (100 Marks, Duration 2Hrs)

10. A 10kVA, 400V/20V, single-phase transformer with a percentage resistance of 5% and

percentage reactance of 6% is supplying a current of 50A to a resistance load. The value of
the load voltage is a) 194v b) 190v c) 192v d) 196v

11. In case of power transformer, the no load current in terms of full load primary current is
a) 40 to 50% b) 15to 30% c) 30 to 40% d) 3 to5%

12. A single-phase two winding transformer is designed to operate at 400/200V, 50H Z. If the h.v.
side is now energized from a 400V, 40HZ source, the no-load l.v. side voltage would be
a) 300v b) 250v c)200v d)150v

13. A pony motor is used for the starting of which of the following motor
a) Squirrel cage induction motor b) Schrage motor
c) Synchronous motor d) Hysteresis motor

14. The per phase induced emf of an alternator has an expression 𝑒 = 10 sin 𝜔𝑡 + 4 cos(3𝜔𝑡 +
90°). The peak value of induced emf is a) 10v b) 11.5v c)12.0v d)14v

15. V-curves for a synchronous motor represent the relation between

a) Armature current and field current b) Field current and speed
c) Field current and power factor d) Power factor and speed

16. The effect of armature reaction in a synchronous machine under motoring mode working at
ZPF lag is
a) purely magnetization b) purely demagnetization
c) Purely cross magnetization d) none

17. In multiple pulse equal pulse width modulation with carrier frequency 10kHZ and required
frequency 500HZ, the number of pulses per half cycle in inverter output is
a) 5 b) 10 c) 12 d) 15

18. Consider the following statements:

a) Step up cyclo-converters require forced commutation
b) Step down cyclo-converters operate on line commutation.
c) Step up or step down cyclo-converter can be load commutated for any type of load
The correct statements are a) only a b) a, c c) a, b d) only c

19. In a dual converter the circulating current

a) allow smooth reversal of load current but increases the response time
b) does not allow smooth reversal of load current, but reduces the response time
c) allows smooth reversal of load current with improved speed of response
d) flows only if there is no interconnecting inductor

20. The ripple factor of a full-wave rectifier circuit compared to that of a half wave rectifier
circuit without filter is a) half of that for a half wave rectifier
b) less than half that for a half-wave rectifier c) equal to that of a half wave rectifier
d) more than half that for a half-wave rectifier circuit

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 SAIMEDHA MOCK TEST – 14 (100 Marks, Duration 2Hrs)

21. A single phase full converter feeds power to RLE load with R= 10Ω, L=10mH and E=50v,
the ac source voltage is 230v, 50HZ. For continuous conduction, what is the average value of
load current for firing angle delay of 600? a) 4.63A b) 6A c) 6.5A d) 5.35A

22. The frequency of ripple in the output voltage of a three phase controlled bridge rectifier
depends on
a) Firing angle b) load inductance c) load resistance d) supply frequency

23. In a 3- semi-converter, if firing angle is less than or equal to 60 0, then the duration of
conduction of each thyristor and diode would be respectively
a) 600 to 600 b) 900 to 300 c) 1200 to 1200 d) 1800to 1800

24. In forward-bias portion of the thyristors I-V characteristics, the number of stable operating
regions is a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) none

25. Match List I (Device) with List-II (Switching Time) and select the correct answer using the
code given below the lists:
List-I (Device) List-II (Switching Time)
a. TRIAC 1. 5-10s
b. SCR 2.100-400s
c. MOSFET 3. 50-100s
d. IGBT 4.200-400s
a) a(4),b(3),c(2),d(1) b) a(1),b(2),c(3),d(4)
c) a(4),b(2),c(3),d(1) d) a(1),b(3),c(2),d(4)

26. The material to be used for the heating element should be of low temperature coefficient so
as to a) Avoid initial rush of current b) Avoid change in kW rating with temperature
c) reduce the effect of oxidation d) both a and b

27. Thermal conductivity is measured in

a) MJ/m2/m/0C/hr b) MJ/m/0C/hr c) MJ/m2/0C/hr d) MJ/m2/0C

28. The heat element to be used in a furnace employed for heating around 1600 0c should be of
the a) Nichrome b) Silicon carbide c) Copper d) Nickel-Cr-Fe alloy

29. Resistance ovens are used for: a) Domestic and commercial heating
b) The vulcanizing and hardening of synthetic materials
c) The drying of varnish coatings, drying and baking of potteries d) all of the above

30. A perfect black body is one which a) Absorb all incident radiations
b) Reflects all incident radiations c) Transmits all in incident radiations d) All

31. Which of the following is correct?

a) Load factor=capacity factorutilization factor
b) Utilisation factor=capacity factorload factor
c) Capacity factor=load factorutilisation factor
d) Load factor has no relation with capacity factor and utilization factor

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 SAIMEDHA MOCK TEST – 14 (100 Marks, Duration 2Hrs)

32. The diagonal elements of a nodal admittance matrix are strengthened by adding:
a) shunt capacitors b) shunt inductances c) Generators d) Resistive loads

33. Which of the following is true for a bus impedance matrix?

a) It is sparse b) It has diagonally dominant elements
c) It is the inverse of the bus admittance matrix
d) Each element of it is the reciprocal of the corresponding element in admittance matrix

34. Equal area criterion gives the information regarding

a) Stability region b) absolute stability c) relative stability d) swing curves

35. An OCB is rated 1500A, 2000MVA, 33kv. Its making current in kA is

a) 51.51 b) 35 c) 89.25 d) 154.54

36. An over current relay having a current setting of 125% is connected to a supply circuit
through a current transformer of ratio 400/5. The pick-up value will be
a) 6.25A b) 500A c) 100A d) 80A

37. The most efficient torque producting actuating structure in an induction relay is
a) shaded pole structure b) watt-hour meter structure
c) single induction loop structure d) induction cup structure

38. The rating of lightning arrester used for 220kv, 3phase system is
a) 220kV, 10kA b) 220kV, 5kA c) 198kV, 10kA d) 198kV, 2kA

39. Two generating stations connected to a load centre having capacity of 50MVA
and 75MVA deliver 100MW to the load. The incremental cost of plant 1 is
15+0.15P1 and that of the plant 2 is 18+0.15P2. What are the values of P1 and
P2, respectively? a) 60MW and 40MW b) 50MW each
c) 72MW and 28MW d) 30MW and 70MW

40. A hydraulic turbine having rated speed of 300 rpm is connected to a

synchronous generator. In order to produce power at 50HZ, the number of poles
required in the generator are a) 6 b) 12 c) 20 d) 24

41. The overall efficiency of a thermal power station is equal to

a) that of Rankine cycle
b) that of regenerative cycle
c) that of Binary vapour cycle
d) product of boiler efficiency, turbine efficiency and generator efficiency

42. In hydroelectric power plants

a) operating cost is low and initial cost is high.
b) operating cost is high and initial cost is low.
c) both operating cost as well initial cost are high
d) both operating cost as well as initial cost are low

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 SAIMEDHA MOCK TEST – 14 (100 Marks, Duration 2Hrs)

43. Complete combustion of pulverized coal in a steam raising thermal power plant is ensured by
what type of an analysis of flue gas going out by the chimney?
a) O2 content for given air intake b) CO2 content for given fuel rate feed
c) CO content d) all of these

44. For high head and low discharge the water turbine used is
a) Pelton wheel b) Kaplan turbine c) Francis turbine d) Propeller turbine

45. Distributors are designed from the point of view of

a) its current carrying capacity b) operating voltage
c) voltage drop in it d) operating frequency

46. ACSR is used in place of copper in overhead lines because of

a) higher current carrying capacity b) being lighter in weight
c) economy d) higher tensile strength.

47. The main reason for using high voltage for long distance power transmission is
a) reduction in transmission losses b) reduction in time of transmission
c) increase in system reliability d) none of the above

48. The diameter of each strand is d then the diameter of n-layer stranded conductor will be
a) (2n+1)d b) 3(n+1)d c) (2n-1)d d) 3(n-1)d

42.25
49. A unity feedback system has a forward path T.F. equal to 𝑠(𝑠+6.5). The unit step response of this
system starting from rest, will have its maximum value at time equal to
a) 0 sec b) 0.56 sec c) 5.6 sec d) infinite

𝑘(𝑠+2)
50. A unity feedback system 𝐺 (𝑠) = (𝑠+14)(𝑠+18). What is value of ‘k’ to yield 10% error in steady
state? a) 672 b) 189 c) 100 d) 21

51. While forming Routh’s array, the situation of row of a row of zero’s indicates that system
a) has symmetrically located roots b) Is not sensitive to variation in gain
c) is stable d) unstable

𝐾
52. The root locus plot of the system having the loop transfer function. 𝐺 (𝑠)𝐻(𝑠) = 𝑠(𝑠+4)(𝑠 2+4𝑠+5)
has a) no breakaway point b) three real breakaway points
c) only one breakaway point d) one real & two complex breakaway points

53. Which of the following statements are correct

1. The derivative control improves the overshoot of a given system
2. The derivative control reduces the steady state error
3. Integral control reduces the steady state error
4. Integral control does not affect the stability of the system
5. Integral control improves the overshoot of the system
a) 1&3 b) 1,2&5 c) 2,4&5 d) 1,3&5 are correct

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 SAIMEDHA MOCK TEST – 14 (100 Marks, Duration 2Hrs)

54. The T.F. of a phase lead network is

1+𝑠𝑇 𝛼(1+𝑠𝑇) 𝛽(1+𝑠𝑇) (1+𝑠𝑇)
a) (1+𝛽𝑠𝑇) ; 𝛽 > 1 b) ; 𝛼<1 c) ; 𝛽<1 d) ; 𝛼>1
1+𝛼𝑠𝑇 1+𝑠𝛽𝑇+𝑇 𝛼(1+𝛼𝑠𝑇)

0 1 0
55. The state equation of a system is 𝑋̇ = [ ] 𝑋 + [ ] 𝑈. The poles of the system are
−20 −9 1
located at a) -1,-9 b) -1,-20 c)-4,-5 d) -9,-20

−2 −4
56. A second-order system is represented by state variable has 𝐴 = [ ], the values of the
1 0
natural frequency and damping factor are respectively?
a) 2&0.5 b) 2&1 c) 1&2 d) 0.5&2

57. For the following circuit

If I=1.5A where R=10ohms, If R=20ohms then I=?

a) 0.75A b) 3A c) 4.5A d) 1.5A

58. In the circuit shown below V1 =40v, where R is ‘10’.when R is zero, the value of
V2 will be

a) 40v b) 30v c) 20v d) 10v

59. The capacitance of each capacitor is c=3µF in the figure shown. The effective capacitance
between points A&B is

a) 2µF b) 3µF c) 4µF d) 5µF

60. Consider the following statement 1. Power factor will be unity;

2. Current in circuit will be maximum; 3. Current in circuit will be minimum.
Which of these statements are correct w.r.to resonance in R-L-C parallel circuit
a) 1,2&3 b) 1&2only c) 2&3 only d) 1&3 only

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 SAIMEDHA MOCK TEST – 14 (100 Marks, Duration 2Hrs)

61. In the circuit shown in the given figure ‘R L’. Will absorb maximum power when
its value is

a) 2.75 b) 7.5 c) 25 d) 27

62. For the network shown, thevenin’s equalent voltage source and resistance are respectively.

a) 1v&10 b) 1mv&1k c) 1mv&10 d) 1v&1k

63. For the following circuit a source of 𝑉1 (𝑡) = 𝑒 −2𝑡 is applied

Then the resulting response V2(t) is given by

−2𝑡⁄
a) 𝑒 −2𝑡 + 𝑒 −𝑡 b) 𝑒 −𝑡 c) 𝑒 −𝑡 − 𝑒 −2𝑡 d) 𝑒 2

64. The transmission parameter matrix [T] for ideal transformer with a turns ratio of n 1:n2 is given
𝑛1 𝑛1 𝑛1 𝑛1
1 0 1 0
𝑛 𝑛 𝑛 𝑛
by a) [ 2 𝑛2 ] b) [ 2 𝑛2 ] c) [ 2 −𝑛2 ] d) [ 2 −𝑛2 ]
0 𝑛 0 𝑛 0 𝑛 1 𝑛
1 1 1 1

65. The conditions under which a passive two port network represented by ABCD is reciprocal and
symmetrical are
a) AD-BC=1;A=C b) AD-BC=0;A=D
c) AD-BC=1; D=A d) AD-BC=0; C=B

66. For a network of ‘11’ branches and 6 nodes, what is the no. of Independent loops?
a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 11

67. If XY=0 then XY is equal to

a) XY ̅̅̅̅
b)𝑋𝑌 c) 𝑋̅ + 𝑌̅ d) X+Y

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 SAIMEDHA MOCK TEST – 14 (100 Marks, Duration 2Hrs)

68. While obtaining minimal sum of product expression

a) all don’t cares area ignored b) all don’t cares are treated as logic 1’s
c) all don’t cares are treated as logic 0’s
d) only such don’t cares that help minimization area treated as logic 1’s

69. Which of the following is used in binary to gray code converter.

a) AND b) OR c) NAND d) EX-OR

70. How many flip-flops are needed for a divide by 16 counter.

a) two b) four c) eight d) sixteen.

71. The Fermi level in a type semiconductor lies close to

a) Top of the valance band b) bottom of the valance band
c) Top of the conduction band d) bottom of the conduction band

72. How can the channel with in a Junction Field Effect Transistor be controlled
a) by the length of the source b) by two back-biased pn junctions
c) by the length of the drain d) by the length of both the source and drain

73. Depletion capacitance in a diode depends on

1) Applied junction voltage 2) junction built in potential
3) current through junction 4) doping profile across the junction
a) 1&2 b) 1&3 c) 1,2&4 d) 2,3&4

74. A Bipolar junction transistor has a common base forward short circuit current gain of 0.99. It’s
common emitter forward short circuit current gain will be
a) 50 b) 99 c) 100 d) 200

75. Thermal run away is not possible in FET because, as the temperature of FET increases
a) the drain current increases b) the mobility increases
c) the mobility decreases d) the trans-conductance increases

76. In an electro dynamo meter, a moving coil has an area ‘A’ turn ‘N’ and carries a current ‘I’
producing a magnetic flux ‘B’. The torque on the moving coil is proportional to
a) I b) I2 c) B.I2 d) A.N.B.I2

77. The Accuracy of a 0-10mA meter is ±2%. What is it’s accuracy while taking a reading of 5mA?
a) ±0.5% b) ±1% c) ±2% d) ±4%

78. Dynamic char’s of instruments leading to variations during measurements are

1. speed of response; 2. Fidelity; 3. Dynamic error.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1&3

79. Maxwell’s bridge measures an unknown inductance in terms of

a) known inductance b) known capacitance
c) known resistance d) Q of the coil

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 SAIMEDHA MOCK TEST – 14 (100 Marks, Duration 2Hrs)

80. Which of the following meters requires an external power source for its operation?
a) PMMC meter b) Hot wire Ammeter
c) Electronic voltmeter d) electro dynamo meter

81. Which Indian city to host the 5th edition of global conference on cyber space (GCCS-2017)?
a) Pune b) Chennai c) Kochi d) New Delhi

82. The 2017 UN climate change conference (cop23) was held in which country?
a) France b) United states c) India d) Germany

83. Which country hosted the 4th Global conference on sustained eradication of child labour?
a) Germany b) South Africa c) New Zealand d) Argentina

84. Who was the first chief justice of India

a) Patanjali satri b) HJ Kania c) SRDas d) Chand Mahajan

85. A boat can travel 15km/hr. in still water if the speed of the stream is 3km/hr, then what will
be the time taken by the boat to travel 72km in downstream direction?
a) 3hrs b) 4hrs c) 6hrs d) 12hrs

86. A batsman in his 10th Innings, makes a score of ‘72’ runs and thereby increases his average
score by 3runs. What will be the average after 10th Innings?
a) 45 b)46 c) 47 d) 48

87. A car starts a journey of 290km with the speed of 50km/hr. After every two hours the speed
of the car increases by 10km/hr so, how much time will it take to cover the distance?
a) 2hr 10min b) 4hrs c) 4hrs, 45min d) 5hrs

88. A Towel, when bleached, lost 20% of its length & 10% of its breadth. What is the percentage
decrease in area a) 30% b) 28% c) 32% d) 26%

89. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a
a) main frame b) Super computer c)network d) Clint

90. A ……….. is approximately one billion bytes

a) bit b) kilo byte c) giga byte d) mega byte

91. Which of the following stores more data?

a) DVD b) CDROM c) floppy disk d) CDRW

92. To move forward through the tabs

a) CTRL+TAB b) CTRL+SHIFT+TAB c) SHIFT+TAB d) none

93. On which date Telangana Government declared Bonalu festival as the state festival?
a) July16,2014 b) July2,2014 c) June16,2014 d) June2,2014

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 SAIMEDHA MOCK TEST – 14 (100 Marks, Duration 2Hrs)

94. Mission Kakatiya works starts from which district?

a) Karim nagar b) Medak c) Nizamabad d) Nalgonda

95. Kangal Hills are located in which district?

a) Mahaboob Nagar b) Nalgonda c) Warangal d) Medak

96. Who found Telangana emblem?

a) Ekka yadagiri b) Ele laxman c) Andesri d) Guda Anjaiah

97. Which is the correct statement?

a) I am 20years old b) I have 20years old c) I have been 20years old d) I am 20years

98. He gave me ……. Few books to read a) the b) an c) some d) a

99. It was ……….. unique hotel a) a b) an c) the d) the most

100. Fill in the blanks with a suitable preposition?

a) of b) to c) no preposition d) for

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