Allen NEET-UG Major Test Paper 6 With Solutions Date 24-03-2019

*0999DMD310318017*
Form Number : MEDIIT Paper Code

(0999DMD310318017)
DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME

(Academic Session : 2018 - 2019)
LEADER TEST SERIES / JOINT PACKAGE COURSE

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2019
Test Type : MAJOR TEST # 06 Test Pattern : NEET-UG
TEST DATE : 24 - 03 - 2019
TEST SYLLABUS : FULL SYLLABUS
Important Instructions / 
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so

1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only.
If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination and
shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.

   

2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.

3 
180 720
3. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
 
4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.


5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.

  
1
7. Use Blue or Black Ball Point Pen Only to completely darken the appropriate circle.


8. If you want to attempt any question then circle should be properly darkened as shown below, otherwise leave blank.
 
Correct Method (
) Wrong Method ()
9. Please do not fold the Answer Sheet and do not make any stray marks on it.

10. The candidate will not do any rough work on the Answer Sheet.


11. CHANGING AN ANSWER IS NOT ALLOWED.


12. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited
 
Ensure that your OMR Answer Sheet has been signed by the Invigilator and the candidate himself/ herself.

OMR 
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2019

Corporate Office :  CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA - 324005
+91-744-2757575 dlp@allen.ac.in www.dlp.allen.ac.in, dsat.allen.ac.in
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/24-03-2019
HAVE CONTROL  HAVE PATIENCE  HAVE CONFIDENCE  100% SUCCESS
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
1. 1 joule of energy is to be converted into new 1. 1 
system of units in which length is measured in 
10 m, 
10 kg
10 m, mass in 10 kg and time in 1 minute then

1 
numerical value of 1 J in the new system is :-
(1) 36 × 10–4 (2) 36 × 10–3 (1) 36 × 10–4 (2) 36 × 10–3
(3) 36 × 10–2 (4) 36 × 10 –1 (3) 36 × 10–2 (4) 36 × 10 –1
2. The dimension of solar constant is :- 2. 
(1) [ML2T–2] (2) [MT–3] (1) [ML2T–2] (2) [MT–3]
(3) [MLT–2] (4) MºLºTº (3) [MLT–2] (4) MºLºTº
3. A ball is projected horizontally with a speed v from 3. 
v 
the top of inclined an plane which is inclined
45°

at an angle 45° with the horizontal. How far
from the point of projection will the ball strike 
the plane ?
2v 2  2v 2 
2
(1) (2) 2 
2v 2  2v  g  g 
(1) (2) 2 
g  g 
v2 v2 v2 v2
2 (3) (4) 2
(3) (4) g g
g g
4. A bus is moving with a velocity 10 ms–1 on a 4. 10 ms–1 
straight road. A scooterist wishes to overtake the 100 s 
bus in 100 s. If the bus is at a distance of 1 km 
1 km 
from the scooterist, with what velocity should the

scooterist chase the bus ?
(1) 50 ms–1 (2) 40 ms–1
(1) 50 ms–1 (2) 40 ms–1
(3) 30 ms –1
(4) 20 ms–1 (3) 30 ms–1 (4) 20 ms–1
5. A force-time graph for the motion of a body is 5. 
shown in the figure. The change in the momentum 
10 s 
of the body between zero and 10 s is y
y
1
1
F (N)
F (N)
x
x 8 10 t(s)
8 10 t(s) 0.5
0.5
(1) zero (2) 4 kg m/s (1)  (2) 4 kg m/s

(3) 5 kg m/s (4) 3 kg m/s (3) 5 kg m/s (4) 3 kg m/s
     

0999DMD310318017 LTS-1/39
Major Test For Target 2019/NEET-UG/24-03-2019
6. A block of mass 1 kg is at rest on a horizontal 6. 1 kg 
table. The coefficient of static friction between 
0.5 
the block and the table is 0.5. The magnitude
60° 
of the force acting upwards at an angle of 60°

from the horizontal that will just start the block
moving is 20
(1) 5 N (2) N
20 2 3
(1) 5 N (2) N
2 3
20 20
N (3) N (4) 10 N
(3) (4) 10 N 2 3
2 3
7. For a particle of mass 0.1 kg, position-time graph 7.  0.1 kg 
is shown. The impulse at t = 2 s is :- 
t = 2 s 
:-
x(m) x(m)
6 6
4 4
2 2
t(s) t(s)
2 4 6 2 4 6
(1) 0.2 kg m/s (2) –0.2 kg m/s (1) 0.2 kg m/s (2) –0.2 kg m/s
(3) 0.1 kg m/s (4) –0.4 kg m/s (3) 0.1 kg m/s (4) –0.4 kg m/s
8. Two block of masses 10kg and 4kg are 8. 

10 
connected by a spring of negligible mass and 4 
placed on a frictionless horizontal surface. An
impulse gives a velocity of 14 m/s to the 
heavier block in the direction of the lighter 
14 
block. The velocity of the centre of mass is:
(1) 30m/s (2) 20m/s
(1) 30 eh@ls (2) 20 eh@ls
(3) 10 m/s (4) 5 m/s (3) 10 eh@ls (4) 5 eh@ls
9. A particle of mass m strikes the ground 9.  m 
inelastically, with coefficient of restitution e :- 
e :-
m m
u v u v
   
tan  tan 
(1) e (1) e
tan  tan 
tan  tan 
(2) e (2) e
tan  tan 
(3) tan2 + tan2 = 1 (3) tan2 + tan2 = 1
(4) tan2 + tan2 = e2 (4) tan2 + tan2 = e2
LTS-2/39 0999DMD310318017
10. A frictionless wire AB is fixed on a circle of 10.  R 
AB 
radius R. A very small bead slips on this wire. 
A
Time taken by bead to slip from A to B is :-  B 
:-
A A
 
O O
R R
B B
C C
2 gR  cos   2 gR  cos  
(1) (2) 2 gR   (1) (2) 2 gR  
g cos  g  g cos  g 
R gR R gR
(3) 2 (4) (3) 2 (4)
g g cos g g cos
11. A uniform electric field of 20 N/C exists along the 11. 
x-
20 N/C 
x-axis in a space. The potential difference

A(4m, 2m)  B(6m, 5m)  
(V B – V A ) for the point A(4m, 2m) and
B(6m, 5m) is (VB – VA) :

(1) 20 13 V (2) – 40 V (1) 20 13 V (2) – 40 V
(3) + 40 V (4) – 20 13 V (3) + 40 V (4) – 20 13 V
12. A charge Q is uniformly distributed over a large 12. 

Q 
square plate of copper. The electric field at a point 
very close to the centre of the plane is 10 V/m. 10 V/m 

If the copper plate is replaced by a plastic plate 
Q 
of the same geometrical dimensions and carrying 
P
the same charge Q uniformly distributed, then the 
:
electric field at the point P will be : (1) 5 V/m (2) 
(1) 5 V/m (2) zero
(3) 10 V/m (4) 20 V/m (3) 10 V/m (4) 20 V/m
13. Four metallic plates, each with a surface area of 13. 
one side A, are placed at a distance d from each A 
d 
other. The plates are connected as shown in the 
a 
b 
figure. The capacitance of the system between 
:
a and b is : 1
a
1 2
a
2 3
3 4
b
4
b
30 A 20 A
30 A 20 A (1) (2)
(1) (2) d d
d d
2 0 A 3 0 A 2 0 A 3 0 A
(3) (4) (3) (4)
3 d 2 d 3 d 2 d
0999DMD310318017 LTS-3/39
14. The plates of a capacitor are charged to potential 14. 

V 
difference of V volts and then connected across
a resistor. The potential difference across the

capacitor decreases exponentially with respect to 
time. After one second, the potential difference

V/3 
between the plates is V/3; then after two seconds
from the start, the potential difference between 
:
the plates is : 2V V V V
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2V V V V 3 6 9 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 6 9 3 r
15. For a cylinder of radius R current density 15. R 
J  J0
R
r 
J0 
r 
J  J0 , where J0 is a constant and r is distance
R
from axis. Calculate total current : 
:
2J 0A 4J 0A 2J 0A 4J 0A
(1) (2) (1) (2)
3 3 3 3
5J 0A 7J 0A 5J 0A 7J 0A
(3) (4) (3) (4)
3 4 3 4
16. In given circuit power generated in 1 resistance 16. 
1 
will be maximum for x equal to : 
x  :
 
10V 10V
1 X X
1 1 1
2 2
(1) 1 (2) 3 (1) 1 (2) 3

2 2
(3)  (4) 0 (3)  (4) 0
3 3
17. In the circuit shown, the reading of the ammeter 17. 
(ideal) is the same with both switches open as 
with both closed find the value of resistance R R :-
in ohm.
100
100 A
A
50
50
R
R
300 1.5V
300 1.5V
(1) 600 (2) 800
(1) 600 (2) 800
(3) 400 (4) 300
(3) 400 (4) 300
LTS-4/39 0999DMD310318017
18. Shown in the figure is a conductor carrying a 18. 

I
current I. The magnetic field intensity at the point 'O' 
O (common centre of all the three arcs) is :- 
:-
I I
r r
r r
r  r 
O O
5 0 I 0 I 1 0 I 5 0 I 0 I 1 0 I
(1) (2) (3) (4) zero (1) (2) (3) (4) zero
24r 24r 24 r 24r 24r 24 r
19. Two thin long parallel wires, separated by a 19. d 
I 
distance d carry a current of I amp in the same 
:-
direction. They will :- (1) 
µ0I2/2d2 
(1) attract each other with a force of µ0I2/2d2 
per unit length.
(2) 
µ0I2/2d2 
(2) repel each other with a force of µ0I2/2d2

per unit length.
(3) 
µ0I2/2d  
(3) attract each other with a force of µ0I2/2d
per unit length.

(4) repel each other with a force of µ0I2/2d (4) 
µ0I2/2d 
per unit length. 
20. An electric field of 1500 V/m and a magnetic field 20. 
1500 
/
of 0.40 weber/metre2 act on a moving electron. 0.40 /
2
The minimum uniform speed along a straight line 

the electron could have is :- 
:-
(1) 1.6 × 1015 m/s (2) 6 × 10–16 m/s (1) 1.6 × 1015 m/s (2) 6 × 10–16 m/s
(3) 3.75 × 103 m/s (4) 3.75 × 102 m/s (3) 3.75 × 103 m/s (4) 3.75 × 102 m/s
21. In the given figure, the magnet is moved towards 21. 
'v' 
the coil with speed 'v' and induced emf is 'e'. If 
'e'
magnet and coil recede away from one another 
'v'
each moving with speed 'v', the induced emf 
in the coil will be:- 
N S N S
v v
e e
(1) e (2) 2e (3) (4) 4e (1) e (2) 2e (3) (4) 4e
2 2
0999DMD310318017 LTS-5/39
22. In AC circuit current is I = 100 sin 200 t 22. 
I = 100 sin 200 t 
The time required for the current to achieve its         
peak value will be :- 
1 1 1 1
(1) s (2) s (1) s (2) s
100 200 100 200
1 1 1 1
(3) s (4) s (3) s (4) s
300 400 300 400
23. Electromagnetic wave of intensity 1400 W/m2 falls 23. 1400 W/m2 
1.5 m2
on metal surface on area 1.5 m2 is completely 


:-
absorbed by it. Find out force exerted by beam :-
(1) 14 × 10–5 N (2) 14 × 10–6 N
(1) 14 × 10–5 N (2) 14 × 10–6 N
(3) 7 × 10–5 N (4) 7 × 10–6 N
(3) 7 × 10–5 N (4) 7 × 10–6 N
24. In the figure shown the angle made by the light 24. 
2 
ray with the normal in the medium of 
:-
refractive index 2 is :- (1) 30° 45º
n1 = 1
(1) 30° 45º
n1 = 1 n2 = 
(2) 60°
(2) 60° n2 = 
n3 =  2
n3 =  2 (3) 90°
(3) 90° n4 = 2
n4 = 2
(4) 45º (4) 45º
25. A ray of light is incident on a thick slab of glass 25. 
t 
of thickness t as shown in the figure. The 
emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray but 
d 
displaced sideways by a distance d. If the angles

d 
-
are small then d is. :-
t t
i i
r r
d d
 i  i
 i  i (1) t  1 –  (2) rt 1 – 
(1) t  1 –  (2) rt 1 –   r  r
 r  r
 r  r  r  r
(3) it  1 –  (4) t  1 –  (3) it  1 –  (4) t  1 – 
 i  i
 i  i
 Key

Filling     
LTS-6/39 0999DMD310318017
26. A small rod of length 2mm lies along principal 26.  
2mm 
axis at a distance of 30 cm from a concave 
30 cm  20 cm 
mirror of focal length 20 cm than the axial   
length of the image of the rod is :- 
:-
(1) 6 mm (2) 4 mm (1) 6 mm (2) 4 mm (3) 8 mm (4) 5 mm
(3) 8 mm (4) 5 mm

27. If two waves represented by y1 = 4 sin t and 27. y2 = 3 sin  t   
y1 = 4 sin t   
 3

y2 = 3 sin  t   interfere at a point, then 
 3
amplitude of the resulting wave will be about 
(1) 7 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 3.5 (1) 7 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 3.5
28. Conditions of diffraction is 28.  

a a a a
(1) 1 (2)  1 (1) 1 (2)  1
   
a a
(3)  1 (4) None of these (3)  1 (4) 
 
29. A satellite is orbitting around the earth with 29.  
va 
areal speed va. At what height from the surface   
of the earth, it is rotating, if the radius of earth
   
R 
is R :-
4 va2 2va2
4 va2 2va2 (1) –R (2) R
(1) –R (2) R gR 2 gR 2
gR 2 gR 2
va2 va2
va2 va2 (3) R (4) R
(3) R (4) R gR 2 2gR 2
gR 2 2gR 2
30. If the de –Broglie wavelength of an electron 30. 
in first Bohr’s orbit be  then the minimum  
radial distance between the electrons in the first   
and second Bohr’s orbit is
 
  (1)  (2) (3) 2 (4)
(1)  (2) (3) 2 (4) 2 2
2 2
31. The activity of a radioactive sample is measured 31. 
t = 0   N0
as N0 counts per minute at t = 0 and N0/e counts  t = 5 N0/e 
 
per minute at t = 5 minutes. The time (in minutes)  
at which the activity reduces to half of its initial

:-
value is :-
(1) 5 loge 2 (2) loge2/5
(1) 5 loge 2 (2) loge2/5
5
5 (3) log 2 (4) 5 log102
(3) log 2 (4) 5 log 10 2 e
e
0999DMD310318017 LTS-7/39
32. A nucleus (of nuclear density ) disintegrates 32. 
 
into two daughter nuclei with masses in the 
8 : 27 
ratio 8 : 27. Density of the smaller nucleus is :- 
2 2 2 2
(1)  (2)  (1)  (2) 
3 5 3 5
8 8
(3)  (4)  (3)  (4) 
27 27
33. A semiconductor X is made by doping a 33.   X, (Z=33) 
germanium crystal with arsenic (Z=33). A second 
Y, 
semiconductor Y is made by doping germanium with
(Z=49) 
indium (Z=49). The two are joined end to end and
connected to a battery as shown. Which of the

following statements is correct : 
:
XY
XY
(1) X is P-type, Y is N-type and the junction is

forward biased (1) X, P-
Y, N-
(2) X is N-type, Y is P-type and the junction is (2) X, N-
Y, P-
forward biased
(3) X, P- Y, N-    
(3) X is P-type, Y is N-type and the junction is

reverse biased
(4) X is N-type, Y is P-type and the junction is (4) X, N- Y, P-    
reverse biased 
34. In a NPN transistor the collector current is 24 mA. 34.  NPN 
24 mA 
If 80% of electrons reach collector its base current 80% 
in mA is : (mA 
) 
:
(1)  (2) 26 (3) 16 (4) 6 (1)  (2) 26 (3) 16
(4) 6
35. Three waves of equal frequency having 35. 
10 m, 4 m
amplitudes 10 m, 4 m and 7 m arrive at a

7 m 
/2. 
given point with successive phase difference
of /2. The amplitude of the resulting wave in 
m 
:-
m is given by :-
(1) 7 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 4 (1) 7 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 4
36. An earthquake generates both transverse (S) and 36. 
(S) 
(P) 
longitudinal (P) sound waves in the earth. The 
S  4.5km/s
speed of S waves is about 4.5km/s and that of P P 8.0 km/s 
waves is about 8.0 km/s. A seismograph records (seismograph) P S 
P and S waves from an earthquake. The first P
P S 
4.0 
wave arrives 4.0 min before the first S wave. The
epicenter of the earthquake is located at a (epicenter) 

distance about :- 
:-
(1) 25 km (2) 250 km (1) 25 km (2) 250 km
(3) 2500 km (4) 5000 km (3) 2500 km (4) 5000 km
LTS-8/39 0999DMD310318017
37. A solid sphere rolls without slipping on a rough 37. 
surface and the centre of mass has a constant 
v0 
speed v0. If the mass of the sphere is m and its
m 
R 
radius is R, then find the angular momentum
of the sphere about the point of contact :- 
:-
3 4 3 4
(1) Mv 0 R (2) Mv 0 R (1) Mv 0 R (2) Mv 0 R
5 5 5 5
7 7 7 7
(3) Mv 0 R (4) Mv 0 R (3) Mv 0 R (4) Mv 0 R
5 2 5 2
38. A cable that can support a load W is cut into 38. W 
two equal parts. The maximum load that can 
be supported by either part is:
:
W W W W
(1) (2) (1) (2)
4 2 4 2
(3) W (4) 2W (3) W (4) 2W
39. A liquid X of density 3.36 g/cm3 is poured in 39. 3.36 kg/cm3 X,U-
10 cm
a U-tube upto 10 cm height, which contains Hg. 
8 cm
Another liquid Y is poured in left arm with

Y 
X 
height 8 cm. Upper levels of X and Y are same.
Y 
Y 
What is density of Y ?
(Density of Hg = 13.6 × 103 kg/m3 ) 
= 13.6 × 103 kg/m3 )
(1) 0.8 gm/cc Y X (1) 0.8 gm/cc Y X
8 cm 8 cm
10 cm 10 cm
(2) 1.2 gm/cc (2) 1.2 gm/cc
(3) 1.4 gm/cc (3) 1.4 gm/cc
(4) 1.6 gm/cc (4) 1.6 gm/cc
40. Two Carnot engines A and B are operated in 40. 
A 
B 
succession. The first one, A receives heat from A, T1 = 800 K 
a source at T1 = 800 K and rejects to sink at T2K. T2K
The second engine B receives heat rejected by
B 
T3 = 300 K
the first engine and rejects to another sink at
T3 = 300 K. If the work outputs of two engines 
A 
are equal, then the value of T2 is B 
T2 
(1) 100 K (2) 300 K (1) 100 K (2) 300 K
(3) 550 K (4) 700 K (3) 550 K (4) 700 K

41. The rate of dissipation of heat by a black body 41. T 
Q
2T
at temperature T is Q. What will be the rate of 
0.25 
dissipation of heat by another body at 
temperature 2T and emissivity 0.25 ?
(1) 16 Q (2) 4 Q (1) 16 Q (2) 4 Q
(3) 8 Q (4) 4.5 Q (3) 8 Q (4) 4.5 Q
0999DMD310318017 LTS-9/39
42. Two containers of equal volume contain identical 42. 
P1 
P2 
gases at pressures P 1 and P 2 and absolute T1 
T2 
temperatures, T1 and T2 respectively. The vessels 
T 
P 
are joined and the gas reaches a common

:-
pressure P and a common temperature T. Then
 P1 P2  1  P1 P2 
 P1 P2  1  P1 P2  (1) P    T (2) P    T
(1) P    T (2) P    T  T1 T2  2  T1 T2 
 T1 T2  2  T1 T2 
PT1 T2 2PT 1T 2 PT1 T2 2PT 1T 2

(3) T  (4) T  (3) T  (4) T 
P1 T2  P2 T1 P1 T1  P2 T2 P1 T2  P2 T1 P1 T1  P2 T2
43. An insulated container contains 4 moles of an ideal 43. 

T 
diatomic gas at temperature T. Heat Q is supplied 4 
Q 
to this gas, due to which 2 moles of gas are

dissociated into atoms but temperature of the gas

:-
remains constant. Then:-
(1) Q = 2 RT (2) Q = RT (1) Q = 2 RT (2) Q = RT
(3) Q= 3 RT (4) Q = 4 RT (3) Q= 3 RT (4) Q = 4 RT

44. A solid cylinder of density 0, cross-section area 44. 0 
, A 
 
A and length  floats in a liquid (> 0) with its 
(> 0) 
axis vertical, as shown. If it is slightly displaced 
downward and released, the time period will be :- 

:-
0
0


 0   0 
(1) 2 (2) 2 (1) 2 (2) 2
g g g g
   
(3) 2  (4) 2 (3) 2  (4) 2
0 g 2g 0 g 2g
45. When a block of mass m is suspended separately 45. 
m 
by two different springs have time period t1 and t1 
t2 

t 2 . If same mass is connected to series 
combination of both springs, then its time 
:-
period is given by :- (1) t1 + t2 (2) t12 + t12
(1) t1 + t2 (2) t12 + t12
1
1 (3) t12  t 22 (4)
(3) t12  t 22 (4) t12  t 22
t12  t 22
Use stop, look and go method in reading the question
LTS-10/39 0999DMD310318017
46. If DT and D0 are the theoretical and observed 46. , DT, D0
vapour densities at a definite temperature and % ? ] ?
be the degree of dissociation of a substance.
D0, DT n (1
Then, in the terms of D0, DT and n (number
of moles of product formed from 1 mole [; ) :-
reactant) is calculated by the formula :-
D0 DT DT D0
D0 DT DT D0 (1) (2)
(1) (2) (1 n)DT (n 1)DT
(1 n)DT (n 1)DT
DT D0 D0 DT DT D0 D0 DT
(3) (4) (3) (4)
(n 1)D0 (n 1)DT (n 1)D0 (n 1)DT
47. Which of the following is least likely to behave 47. {
as Lewis Base ?
(1) H2O (2) NH3 (3) BF 3 (4) OH– (1) H2O (2) NH3 (3) BF 3 (4) OH–
48. From the following the largest number of atoms 48. [;
are in
(1) 36g H2O (2) 28g CO
(1) 36g H2O (2) 28g CO
(3) 46g C 2H 5OH (4) 54g N2O 5 (3) 46g C 2H 5OH (4) 54g N2O 5
49. Which of the following electronic 49. ]
configurations is not possible according to
Hund's rule
(1) 1s2 2s2
(1) 1s2 2s2
(2) 1s2 2s1 (2) 1s2 2s1
(3) 1s2 2s2 2px1 2py1 2pz1 (3) 1s2 2s2 2px1 2py1 2pz1
(4) 1s2 2s2 2px2 (4) 1s2 2s2 2px2
50. The ratio of the radii of the first three Bohr orbits 50. &
is -
1 1
1 1 (1) 1 : : (2) 1 : 2 : 3
(1) 1 : : (2) 1 : 2 : 3 2 3
2 3
(3) 1 : 4 : 9 (4) 1 : 8 : 27
(3) 1 : 4 : 9 (4) 1 : 8 : 27
51. Which one of the following is always not 51. :-
negative :- (1) ,
(1) Enthalpy of combustion
(2) ,
(2) Enthalpy of formation
(3) Enthalpy of neutralisation
(3) ,
(4) Lattice enthalpy of formation (4) ,
52. The units of constant 'a' in Vander Waal's 52. 'a' :-
equation is :- (1) dm atm mol
6 –2
(1) dm6atm mol–2 (2) dm3atm mol–1

(2) dm3atm mol–1
(3) dm atm mol–1
(3) dm atm mol–1
(4) atm mol–1
(4) atm mol–1
Take it Easy and Make it Easy
0999DMD310318017 LTS-11/39
53. Which of the following is most suitable to 53. ? ,
disperse benzene in water ?
O O
(1) – (1) –
O Na+ O Na+
O O
– –
Na O –
Na O –
(2) O Na+ (2) O Na+
O O
(3) (3)
CH3 CH3
Ph Ph
(4) (4)
Cl Cl
54. Consider the following statements pertaining to 54. ±/ , :-
fuel cells :-
(a) ±/ KOH
(a) Hydrogen oxygen fuel cell make use of
;
concentrated KOH solution as electrolyte
and porous graphite impregnated with
platinum as electrodes
(b) The efficiency of fuel cell is less then unity (b) ±/ ] /
due to polarisation at electrodes and the
resistance offered by the electrode and the
; ,
electrolyte (c) ]; , ;
(c) The electrical work, assuming the cell to be – G = Welectrical = – H + T S
working reversibly may be represented as
– G = Welectrical = – H + T S
Which of the above statements are correct –
(1) (a) and (b) (1) (a) (b)
(2) (a) and (c) (2) (a) (c)
(3) (b) and (c) (3) (b) (c)
(4) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a), (b) (c)
55. The volumes of two HCl solutions A(0.5 M) 55. 2L 0.2 M HCl , HCl
and B(0.1 M) to be mixed for preparing 2L of A(0.5 M) B(0.1 M)
0.2 M HCl are :- :-
(1) 0.5 L of A + 1.5 L of B (1) 0.5 L of A + 1.5 L of B
(3) 1 L of A + 1 L of B (3) 1 L of A + 1 L of B
LTS-12/39 0999DMD310318017
56. Ferrous oxide has a cubic structure and each 56. ? ;
edge of the unit cell is 5.0Å, assuming density 5.0Å ? 4.0 g cm–3
of the oxide as 4.0 g cm–3 then the number of
Fe+2 O2– [;
Fe+2 and O2– ions present in each unit cell will
be (Mw of FeO = 72) :- (Mw of FeO = 72) :-
(1) Four Fe2+ and four O2– (1) Four Fe2+ and four O2–
(2) Two Fe2+ and four O2– (2) Two Fe2+ and four O2–
(3) Four Fe2+ and two O2– (3) Four Fe2+ and two O2–
(4) Three Fe2+ and three O 2– (4) Three Fe2+ and three O 2–
57. For the redox reaction 57.
xP4 + yHNO3 H3PO4 + NO2 + H2O xP4 + yHNO3 H3PO4 + NO2 + H2O
(1) x = 1, y = 5 (2) x = 2, y = 10 (1) x = 1, y = 5 (2) x = 2, y = 10
(3) x = 1, y = 20 (4) x = 1, y = 15 (3) x = 1, y = 20 (4) x = 1, y = 15
58. If rate law is r = K[A] then left conc of reactant 58. r = K[A]
after time t = 1/k is :- ([A]0 – concentration of t = 1/k :- ([A]0 – t = 0
reactant at t = 0) )
A0 A0 e A0 A0 e
(1) (2) [A]0 e (3) (4) (1) (2) [A]0 e (3) (4)
e e2 A0 e e2 A0
59. Which of the following compounds will absorb 59. ;
the maximum quantity of heat when dissolved ? ;
completely in the same amount of water ? The ;
heats of solution of these compounds at 25°C ; 25°C kJ/mole
in kJ/mole of each solute is given in brackets:- :-
(1) HNO3 ( H = –33) (1) HNO3 ( H = –33)
(2) KCl( H = +17.64) (2) KCl( H = +17.64)
(3) NH4NO3( H = +25.5) (3) NH4NO3( H = +25.5)
(4) HCl ( H = –74.1) (4) HCl ( H = –74.1)
60. The osmotic pressure of a 5% w/v solution of 60. 5% w/v 150°C
cane sugar at 150°C is :- :-
(1) 4 atm (2) 3.4 atm (1) 4 atm (2) 3.4 atm
(3) 5.078 atm (4) 2.45 atm (3) 5.078 atm (4) 2.45 atm
61. Incorrect statement is :- 61. :-
(1) Bond form by s–s overlapping is always (1) s–s
weakest
(2) SiO2 is 3-D network solid (2) SiO2 3-D
(3) Coaxial overlapping always produce bond (3) ;
(4) Hybrid orbitals produce bond (4)
62. Which of the following has been arranged in 62. ?
order of decreasing bond length :- :-
(1) P – O > Cl – O > S – O (1) P – O > Cl – O > S – O
(2) P – O > S – O > Cl – O (2) P – O > S – O > Cl – O
(3) S – O > Cl – O > P – O (3) S – O > Cl – O > P – O
(4) Cl – O > S – O > P – O (4) Cl – O > S – O > P – O
0999DMD310318017 LTS-13/39
63. The correct sequence of decreases in the bond 63. ? :-
angles of the following hydrides is :-
(1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
(1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
(2) NH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > SbH3
(2) NH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > SbH3
(3) SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > NH3
(3) SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > NH3
(4) PH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 (4) PH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
64. Which of the following species is paramagnetic? 64. ;
(1) NO –
(2) O2 2–
(3) CN –
(4) CO (1) NO –
(2) O2 2–
(3) CN– (4) CO
65. From the given set of species, point out the 65. ,
species from each set having least atomic :-
radius :-
(A) F–, Na+, Mg+2 (B) Ni, Cu, Zn
(A) F–, Na+, Mg+2 (B) Ni, Cu, Zn
(C) N–3, Cs+, H– (D) Li, He, Be+2
(C) N–3, Cs+, H– (D) Li, He, Be+2
(1) Mg+2, Ni, N–3, Be+2 (2) Na+, Cu, Cr+, Li (1) Mg+2, Ni, N–3, Be+2 (2) Na+, Cu, Cr+, Li
(3) F–, Cu, N–3, He (4) Na+, Ni, H–, He (3) F–, Cu, N–3, He (4) Na+, Ni, H–, He
66. Incorrect order of ionic radius is :- 66. :-
(1) Na+ > Mg+2 > Al+3 (1) Na+ > Mg+2 > Al+3
(2) V+2 > V+3 > V+4 > V+5 (2) V+2 > V+3 > V+4 > V+5
(3) K+ > Sc+3 > V+5 > Mn+7 (3) K+ > Sc+3 > V+5 > Mn+7
(4) O–2 > Rb+ > Sr+2 > Cs+ (4) O–2 > Rb+ > Sr+2 > Cs+
67. The melting point of Zn is lower as compared 67. Zn 3d ;
to those of the other elements of 3d series &
because–
(1) d–
(1) the d–orbitals are completely filled
(2) the d–orbitals are partially filled (2) d–
(3) d–electrons do not participate in metallic (3) d– /
bonding
(4) (1) and (3) both (4) (1) (3)
68. What is electronic arrangement of metal atom/ion 68. ; d4
in octahedral complex with d4 configuration, ; <
0
if 0 < pairing energy.
4 4 0
4 4 0 (1) t 2g e 0g (2) e g t 2g
(1) t 2g e 0g (2) e g t 2g
3 1 2 2 3 1 2 2
(3) t 2g e g (4) t 2g e g (3) t 2g e g (4) t 2g e g
69. Which of the following is considered as an 69. :-

anticancer species :-
H3 N Cl H3 N Cl
H3 N Cl H3 N Cl (1) Pt (2) Pt
(1) Pt (2) Pt H3 N Cl Cl NH3
H3 N Cl Cl NH3
Cl CH2 Cl Cl CH2 Cl
Pt Cl Cl
(3) Cl CH2 (4) Pt (3) Cl
Pt CH2 (4) Pt
Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl
:
LTS-14/39 0999DMD310318017
70. Crystal field stablization energy for complex 70. [Co(CN)6]–3 , {=
[Co(CN)6]–3 will be :- :-
(1) –2.4 0
+ 3P (1) –2.4 + 3P
0
(2) +2.4 0
+ 3P (2) +2.4 + 3P
0
(3) –3.6 0
+ 3P (3) –3.6 0
+ 3P
(4) –1.8 0
+ 3P (4) –1.8 0
+ 3P
71. From which of the following reaction 71. } MgCl2
anhydrous MgCl2 can be prepared.
(1) MgCl2.6H2O + current of dry HCl (1) MgCl2.6H2O + HCl /
(2) Mg + dil HCl on heating (2) Mg + dil HCl
(3) MgCl 2.6H2 O on heating (3) MgCl2.6H2O
(4) MgSO4.7H2O on heating (4) MgSO4.7H2O
72. Correct match the List-I with List-II :- 72. -I -II ?
List-I List-II List-I List-II
P [M(CN)2]– 1 Ni (during refining of metal) P [M(CN)2]– 1 Ni (/kkrq dk 'kks /ku)
Q [M(CO)4] 2 Ti (during refining of metal) Q [M(CO)4] 2 Ti (/kkrq dk 'kks/ku)
R MI4 3 Pb (during roasting of ore)
S MO 4 Ag (during leaching of ore) R MI4 3 Pb (v;Ld dk HktZ u)
S MO 4 Ag ( v;Ld dk fu{kkyu )
P Q R S
P Q R S
(1) 4 1 2 3
(1) 4 1 2 3
(2) 4 2 1 3
(2) 4 2 1 3
(3) 3 1 2 4 (3) 3 1 2 4
(4) 1 2 4 3 (4) 1 2 4 3
73. There is no S–S linkage is :- 73. S–S :-
(1) S 2 O 3 –2 (2) S2O5–2 (1) S 2 O 3 –2 (2) S2O5–2
(3) S2O6–2 (4) S2O7–2 (3) S2O6–2 (4) S2O7–2
74. 1. KClO3 2. XeF2 H2O

74. 1. KClO3 2. XeF2 H2O
3. XeF4 H2 O
4. PbO 2 3. XeF4 H2 O
4. PbO 2
5. XeF6 H2 O
5. XeF6 H2 O
In how many of the above processes, O2 will

O2 , :-
be one of the products :-
(1) (2)
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) Four (4) Five (3) (4)
75. One of the products formed due to the reaction 75. KMnO4 HCl /;
between KMnO4 and HCl is :
(1) red liquid, CrO2Cl2 (1) ] CrO2Cl2
(2) black powder, MnO2 (2) ] MnO2
(3) greenish yellow gas, Cl2 (3) ] Cl2
(4) colourless liquid, HClO4 (4) ] HClO4
0999DMD310318017 LTS-15/39
76. How many are meso molecules :- 76. :
CHO Cl CH3 CHO Cl CH3

O Br H OH O Br H OH
C=O C=O
Br O H OH Br O H OH
CHO CHO
(1) Zero (2) One (1) ; (2)
(3) Two (4) Three (3) (4)
77. Which of the following IUPAC name is 77. IUPAC ;

incorrect:-
CH3
CH3 CH3
CH3 (1) 1,5-Dimethylcyclopentene
(1) 1,5-Dimethylcyclopentene
(2) OH 3,4-Dimethylpent-1-en-3-ol
(2) OH 3,4-Dimethylpent-1-en-3-ol
(3) 6-Bromo-3,3-dimethylcyclohexene (3) 6-Bromo-3,3-dimethylcyclohexene
Br Br
OH OH
HO HO
(4) 5-Hydroxycyclopent-2-en-1-ol (4) 5-Hydroxycyclopent-2-en-1-ol
78. Which of the following is most acidic:- 78. ; ;
COOH OH COOH OH
NO2 NO2
(1) (2) (1) (2)
OH COOH OH COOH
(3) (4) (3) (4)

NO2 NO2 NO2 NO2
LTS-16/39 0999DMD310318017
dil. H 2SO 4 , HgSO 4
79. C H 3– C C – O – C H 3 major 79. CH3–C C–O–CH3 dil. H 2SO 4 , HgSO 4
[; :-
product :-
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
80. Which is correct order for the rate of 80. ,

sulphonation of benzene ? ?
(1) K C6 H 6 K C 6 D6 K C6 T6 (1) K C6 H 6 K C 6 D6 K C6 T6
(2) K C6 H 6 K C 6 D6 K C6 T6 (2) K C6 H 6 K C 6 D6 K C6 T6
(3) K C6 H6 K C 6 D6 K C6 T6 (3) K C6 H6 K C 6 D6 K C6 T6
(4) K C6 H6 K C 6 D6 K C6 T6 (4) K C6 H6 K C 6 D6 K C6 T6
81. Arrange the following compounds in 81. ; ; ?

decreasing order of nucleophilic addition :-
reaction :-
O O O O
O O O O
H–C–H H Ph
H–C–H H Ph
I II III IV
I II III IV
(1) II > IV > III > I (2) I > II > III > IV (1) II > IV > III > I (2) I > II > III > IV
(3) IV > III > II > I (4) II > III > IV > I (3) IV > III > II > I (4) II > III > IV > I
NH2 NH2
CHCl3 , KOH LiAlH4 CHCl3 , KOH LiAlH4
82. X H2 O Y; (Y) is:- 82. X H2 O Y; (Y) :-
(1) Ph–N–CH 3 (2) Ph–CH2–NH2 (1) Ph–N–CH 3 (2) Ph–CH2–NH2

H H
O O
(3) Ph–N–C–H (4) Ph N C (3) Ph–N–C–H (4) Ph N C
H H
83. The major product obtained on treatment of 83. CH 3CH 2CH(F)CH 3 CH 3 O – /CH 3 OH
–
CH3CH2CH(F)CH3 with CH3O /CH3OH is [;
(1) CH3 CH2 CH(OCH3 )CH3 (1) CH3 CH2 CH(OCH3 )CH3
(2) CH3 CH=CHCH3 (2) CH3 CH=CHCH3
(3) CH3 CH2 CH=CH2 (3) CH3 CH2 CH=CH2
(4) CH3 CH2 CH 2CH 2 OCH3 (4) CH3 CH2 CH 2CH 2 OCH3
0999DMD310318017 LTS-17/39
84. OH,
x (major product) 84. OH,
x ( [; )
NMe3 NMe3
CH3O /CH3OH
y (major product)
CH3O /CH3OH
y ( [; )
Cl Cl
Which statement is correct ? ; ?

(1) Both x and y are 2-Butene (1) x y 2-
(2) Both x and y are 1-Butene (2) x y 1-

(3) x is 1-Butene and y is 2-Butene (3) x 1- y 2-
(4) x is 2-Butene and y is 1-Butene (4) x 2- y 1-
85. Which of the following reaction does not give 85. , ?
aldehyde as a product. :-
CH 3
CH 3
(i)CrO 2Cl2
(i)CrO 2Cl2 (1) (ii)H 3O
(1) (ii)H 3O
OH OH
Cu
(2) Cu (2) 300 C
300 C
OH OH
PCC
(3) PCC (3)
NH2 NH2
LiAlH 4
(4) LiAlH 4 (4)
O O
86. Which of the following is correct structure of 86. L- ?
L-glucose ?
CHO CHO
CHO CHO
HO C H H C OH
HO C H H C OH HO C H
H C OH
H C OH HO C H (1) (2)
(1) (2) HO C H H C OH
HO C H H C OH H C OH
HO C H
HO C H H C OH CH2OH
CH2OH
CH2OH CH2OH
CHO CHO CHO CHO

H C OH HO C H H C OH HO C H
H C OH H C OH H C OH H C OH
(3) (4) (3) (4)
H C OH H C OH H C OH H C OH
H C OH HO C H H C OH HO C H
CH 2OH CH2OH CH 2OH CH2OH
87. The formation of which of the following 87.

polymers involves hydrolysis reaction ?
(1) Nylon 6 (2) Bakelite (1) 6 (2)
(3) Nylon 6, 6 (4) Terylene (3) 6, 6 (4)
LTS-18/39 0999DMD310318017
88. Which of the following reaction does not give 88. ,
primary amine as a product ? ?
Na/C2H5OH Na/C2H5OH
(1) CN (1) CN
O O
(2) LiAlH4 (2) LiAlH4
NH2 NH2
O O
(i) KOH (i) KOH
(3) NH (3) NH
(ii) CH3CH2Br (ii) CH3CH2Br
C C
(iii) H2O, (iii) H2O,
O O
(4) H 2/Pd (4) H 2/Pd

NC NC
89. Match the column : 89. ,&
Column-II
Column-I Cleansing
Structure agents
(i) CH3 (CH2 )16 COO(CH2CH2O)n CH2CH2OH Cationic (i) CH3(CH2 )16COO(CH2CH2O)n CH2CH2OH
(a) (a)
detergent
Anionic (ii) C17H35 COO–Na+ (b)
(ii) C17 H35 COO– Na+ (b)
detergent
Nonionic (c)
(iii) CH3 –(CH2 )10CH2 OSO3Na (c) (iii) CH3–(CH2)10 CH 2OSO3Na
detergent
CH3 CH3
(iv) CH3(CH2)15—N—CH 3 Br (d) Soap (iv) CH3(CH 2)15—N—CH3 Br (d)
CH3 CH3
(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d (1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(2) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c (2) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c
(3) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a (3) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a
(4) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b (4) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
90. Which of the following pair cannot be 90. }

distinguished by Tollen's reagent. :- ?
(1) CH3COCH3, PhCHO (1) CH3COCH3, PhCHO
(2) HCOOH, CH3COCH3 (2) HCOOH, CH3COCH3
(3) CH3CHO, PhCH 2CHO (3) CH3CHO, PhCH 2CHO
(4) PhCOCH3, HCHO (4) PhCOCH3, HCHO

] <+
0999DMD310318017 LTS-19/39
91. Which of the following animal has chitinous 91. ]4
exoskeleton, 4 pairs of jointed legs, book lungs for ] , ,
respiration and malpighian tubules for excretion:
, &
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
92. Petromyzon can be distinguished from scoliodon 92.

by the presence of : &
(1) Jawless and circular mouth (1) ,
(2) Scales on body and heterocercal tail (2)
(3) Paired pectoral & pelvic fins (3)
(4) Bony vertebral column (4)
93. There is a diagrammatic sectional view of an 93. = ,
animal in the adjacent figure, which can be ,&
identified as :
(1) ( ) ,
(1) Schistosoma (Blood fluke) & Ascaris
(2) ( )
(2) Nereis (Sand worm) & earthworm
(3) Ascaris & Trichinella (3)
(4) Taenia (Tapeworm) and liver fluke (4) ( ) ;
94. Which of the following fish has gills without 94.
operculum :
(1) Labeo (Rohu) (1) ( )
(2) Clarius (Magur) (2) ( )
(3) Scoliodon (dog fish) (3) ( )
(4) Chimera (Ghost fish) (4) ( )
LTS-20/39 0999DMD310318017
95. If head of cockroach is cut off, it will still live 95. , ;
as long as one week because : ] &
(1) It absorb liquid food through neck (1) }
(2) Complex neural structures like brain, ganglia
(2) ; ] ,
and nerve cords present in head
(3) Main part of nervous system lies in thorax &
abdomen (3) =
(4) It has fat bodies that can reserve fat for long (4) ; ,
duration ;
96. Consider the following four statement (A–D) and 96. (A–D) /; <+;
select the option which include all the correct ones ;
only.
(A) Compound epithelium is composed of multi (A)
layer and function as protection of our body.
(B) Compound epithelium has main function of
(B) [;
secretion & absorption.
(C) Transitional epithelium found in renal cortex.
(C)
(D) Simple columnar epithelium is found in gastro
intestinal tract. (D) ;
(1) Statement A and B (1) A B
(2) Statement B and D (2) B D
(3) Statement B and C (3) B C
(4) Statement A and D (4) A D
97. Find out the correct match 97.
(1) Widely distributed tissue – Cardiac muscle (1) – ;
(2) Tight junction – Facilitate Communication (2) <+ – /;
(3) Secretion of fibres – Fibroblast (3) –
(4) Stop leaking – Desmosome (4) –
98. One of the important consequences of 98. , ;
geographical isolation is :- &
(1) Creation of new species through small (1) }
mutations only
(2) No change in the isolated flora (2)
(3) Preventing Speciation (3) :
(4) Speciation through reproductive isolation (4) }
99. The concept of chemical evolution is based on:- 99.
(1) Possible origin of life by combination of (1) ;
chemicals under suitable environmental
conditions
(2) Natural selection (2)
(3) Theory of abiogenesis (3)
(4) Effect of cosmic radiation on water (4) ;
100. Evolutionary history of an organism is known as 100. ; ?
(1) Phylogeny (2) Ancestry (1) (2)
(3) Homology (4) Vestigeal organ (3) (4)
0999DMD310318017 LTS-21/39
101. Which of the following option is not correct :- 101. :-
(1) Fertilisation takes place at ampullary isthmic (1) ,

juction.
(2) ectopic
(2) Zona pellucida prevent ectopic implantation.
(3) ,
(3) Only one sperm can fertilise an ovum.
(4) Myometrium is the site for implantation. (4)

102. Identify the correct match from the column I, II 102. I, II III :-
and III :-
Column-I Column-II Column-III
Column-I Column-II Column-III
1. Labia (a) (i)
1. Labia (a) Thin fold (i) Fourchette
majora
majora like structure
of skin
2. Labia (b) Small, (ii) Homologous 2. Labia (b) ] (ii)
minora Cylindrical to scrotum minora
and erectile
3. Clitoris (c) Folds of (iii) Homologous
subcutaneous to cowper's 3. Clitoris (c) ; (iii)
tissue gland ;
4. Bartholin's (d) Greater (iv) Homologous
4. Bartholin's (d) (iv)
gland vestibular to penis
gland gland
(1) 1-c-ii, 2-a-i, 3-b-iv, 4-d-iii (1) 1-c-ii, 2-a-i, 3-b-iv, 4-d-iii
(2) 1-d-iv, 2-c-ii, 3-a-i, 4-b-iii (2) 1-d-iv, 2-c-ii, 3-a-i, 4-b-iii
(3) 1-a-i, 2-b-ii, 3-c-iii, 4-d-iv (3) 1-a-i, 2-b-ii, 3-c-iii, 4-d-iv
(4) 1-b-i, 2-a-iii, 3-d-iv, 4-c-iii (4) 1-b-i, 2-a-iii, 3-d-iv, 4-c-iii
103. Identify the correct match from Column I, II and III. 103. I, II III
Column I Column II Column III -I -II -III
Ovulatory Breakdown of ,.
(A) (a) 5th-13th day (i) (A) (a) 5 -13 (i)
phase endomentium
Release of
Menstruation (B) (b) 15 -28 (ii)
(B) (b) 15th-28th day (ii) secondary
phase
oocyte
Secretory Development of (C) (c) 14 (iii)
(C) (c) 14th day (iii)
phase mature follicle
Follicular Formation of ;
(D) (d) 1st-4th day (iv) (D) (d) -4 (iv)
phase corpus luteum
(1) A-c-i, B-d-ii, C-a-iii, D-b-iv (1) A-c-i, B-d-ii, C-a-iii, D-b-iv
(2) A-c-ii, B-a-i, C-b-iii, D-d-iv (2) A-c-ii, B-a-i, C-b-iii, D-d-iv
(3) A-d-i, B-a-iv, C-d-iv, D-c-ii (3) A-d-i, B-a-iv, C-d-iv, D-c-ii
(4) A-c-ii, B-d-i, C-b-iv, D-a-iii (4) A-c-ii, B-d-i, C-b-iv, D-a-iii
LTS-22/39 0999DMD310318017
104. LSD is most powerful hallucenogen obtained 104. LSD ;
from :- ?
(1) Papaver somniferum (2) Claviceps purpurea (1) (2)
(3) Cannabis sativa (4) Erythroxylum coca (3) (4)
105. Which of the following is not involved in allergic 105. ,
response ? (1) (2) IgE
(1) Mast cells (2) IgE
(3) Basophils (4) Fibroblast (3) (4)
106. Transmission of HIV :- 106. :-
(a) Transfusion of contaminated blood. (a) }
(b) Sexual contact with infected person (b) ;
(c) From infected mother to her baby through (c) }
placenta. (d)
(d) Sharing infected needles (e)
(e) Sharing food with infected person ; ?
Which of the statements given above is/are (1) a, b, e
not correct ? (2) e
(1) a, b, e (2) e only (3) a, c, d, e
(3) a, c, d, e (4) a, b, c, d (4) a, b, c, d
107. Pneumonia is a disease of :- 107. :-
(1) Liver (2) Brain (1) (2)
(3) Lungs (4) Kidney (3) (4)
108. Which of the following is a best mathod for 108.
animals which are below average in productivity? :-
(1) Inbreeding (1) %
(2) Out crossing (2) %
(3) Cross breeding (3)
(4) Inter specific hybridisation (4)
109. Read the following statements and select the 109. <+
option with all correct statements.
(A) The cell walls of fungi are composed of chitin (A)
and polysacchrides
(B) Neurospora is used extensively in (B)
biochemical and genetic work
(C) Large number of deuterom ycetes are (C) ;
decomposers of litter and help in mineral [
cycling
(D) Lichen are very good air pollution indicators, (D) ]
they grow in polluted areas.
(E) The sporophyte in moss is less elaborate than (E)
that in liver worts.
(1) A, C, D, E (2) A, B, C (1) A, C, D, E (2) A, B, C
(3) A, D, E (4) A, B, C, D, E (3) A, D, E (4) A, B, C, D, E
110. Zygospore and oospore are respectively :- 110. :-
(1) Diploid and haploid (1)
(2) Haploid and diploid (2)
(3) Haploid and Haploid (3)
(4) Diploid and diploid (4)
0999DMD310318017 LTS-23/39
111. Which statement is correct about protist ? 111.
(1) Members of protista are primarily terrestial ?
(2) Member of protista are chief producers in the (1) ; [; ;

ponds (2) ; [;
(3) Member of protista spread on the surface of (3) ;
sea water appear red, it is called as Red sea.
(4) Slime moulds, under suitable condition they
may grow and spread over several feet called (4) ,
plasmodium.
112. Match the column correctly :- 112. , :-
Column-I Column-II -I -II

Microbes Desease
(a) Salmonella typhi (i) Plague (a) (i)
(b) Yersinia pestis (ii) Anthrax (b) (ii)
(c) Xanthomonas citri (iii) Typhoid (c) (iii)
(d) Bacillus anthracis (iv) Citrus cancer (d) , (iv)
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
113. New systematics term given by :- 113.
(1) Linnaeus (2) Huxley (1) (2)
(3) Mayer (4) A.P. de candolle (3) (4)
114. Given life cycle pattern is represented by :- 114. :-
Sporophyte
2n 2n
Ga
me
te
te
Zy go
n n
(1) Ectocorpus, Polysiphonia & Kelps (1) ,

(2) Fucus, Gymnosperm, Angiosperms (2) ] ,
(3) Bryophyta and pteridophyta (3)
(4) Algae like Volvox & Chlamydomonas (4)
LTS-24/39 0999DMD310318017
115. Idendtify the incorrect statement with regards to 115.
the gymnosperms : (1) ]
(1) In gymnosperms, ovules remain exposed,
before and after fertilisation
(2) )
(2) The giant redwood tree Sequoia is tallest
(Sequoia)
gymnospermic tree
(3)
(3) All gymnosperms are homosporous
(4) Leaves in gymnosperms are well-adapted to (4) ;
withstand extreme environmental conditions ,
116. Observe the diagrams given below and choose the 116. , , = , A, B C ,
correct option for A, B and C : ,:
A A
B B
C C
(1) A-Antheridiophore, B-Archegoniophore, (1) A- , B- ,

C-Endospore C- %
(2) A-Archegoniophore, B-Antheridiophore, (2) A- , B- ,
C-Gemma cup C-
(3) A-Antheridiophore, B-Archegoniophore, (3) A- , B- ,
C-Gemma cup C-
(4) A-Archegoniophore, B-Antheridiophore, (4) A- , B- ,
C-Seta cup C-
117. If a DNA molecule contain 125 adenine and 250 117. DNA 125 (adenine) 250
cytosine bases. The total number of sugar { DNA
molecules in this DNA fragment are - [; -
(1) 375 (2) 500 (1) 375 (2) 500
(3) 750 (4) 250 (3) 750 (4) 250
118. A segment of DNA has a base sequence. 118. DNA , [ {
ATG ACG GAC AGA AAC ATG ACG GAC AGA AAC
Which one of the following represents frame shift
mutation.
(1) GTC ATG AGA GAC AC (1) GTC ATG AGA GAC AC
(2) ATG CAG GGA CGA AC (2) ATG CAG GGA CGA AC
(3) ATG CGG ACA GAA AC (3) ATG CGG ACA GAA AC
(4) CAT GAC GAA CGA AC (4) CAT GAC GAA CGA AC
0999DMD310318017 LTS-25/39
119. Identify (a), (b), (c) and (d) in the given diagram? 119. = (a), (b), (c) (d) ?
(a) Replication (a)

(d) (d)
(b) Replication (b)
(c) (c)
Options :- :-
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) RNA DNA Protein Transcription (1) RNA DNA

Reverse
(2) DNA RNA Protein (2) DNA RNA
Transcription
Reverse (3) RNA DNA RNA
(3) RNA DNA RNA
Transcription
(4) RNA Protein DNA Transcription (4) RNA DNA
120. What is the inheritance of colour blindness of both 120. ; ;

parents having a normal vision but mother has a ,
recessive gene for colour blindness :-
Son Daughter
(1) 50% Nil (1) 50%
(2) 100% Nil (2) 100%
(3) Nil 100% (3) 100%
(4) Nil Nil (4)
121. Baldness in man is a :- 121. , %&

(1) Autosomal character (1)
(2) Sex linked character (2)
(3) Sex influenced character (3)
(4) 1 and 3 both (4) 1 3
122. Number of Bar Body in XXXX female :- 122. XXXX %&
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
123. Barr body is associated with :- 123. ; :-
(1) sex chromosome of female (1)
(2) sex chromosome of male (2)
(3) autosome of female (3)
(4) autosome of male (4)
LTS-26/39 0999DMD310318017
124. A technique used to make numerous copies of a 124. DNA [
specific segment of DNA quickly and accurately , %&
(1) Ligase chain reaction (1)
(2) Transcription (2)
(3) Polymerase chain reaction (3)
(4) Translation (4)
125. Which of the following is used to deliver desirable 125.
gene in to animal cell ? , ?
(1) Normal retrovirus (2) Disarmed retrovirus (1) ; (2)
(3) Agrobacterium (4) E.coli. (3) (4)
126. What is antisense technology? 126.
(1) A cell displaying a foreign antigen used for (1) ;, ,
synthesis of anti bodies.
(2) Production of somaclonal variants in tissue culture (2)
(3) A complimentary RNA used to stop expression (3) RNA
of a specific gene
(4) RNA polymerase producing DNA. (4) RNA } DNA
127. Mark out the correct statement 127. &
I. Hind III cuts a specific sequence of four base I. Hind III DNA {
pairs in the DNA
II. In ECoRI, the letter 'R' is devided from the II. ECoRI 'R'
name of strain.
III. Origin of Replication is the site recognized by
III. ]
Restriction enzyme only
IV. Recombinant DNA technology allow to select
,
a set of desirable genes for introduction into IV. DNA
the target organism.
(1) II & IV (2) III & IV (1) II & IV (2) III & IV
(3) I, II & IV (4) I, III & IV (3) I, II & IV (4) I, III & IV
128. A major component of gobar gas is :- 128. [; ? :-
(1) Butane (2) Ammonia (1) (2)
(3) Methane (4) Ethane (3) (4)
129. 'Pomato' is developed by which tissue culture 129. ' ' } :-
method :- (1) (2)
(1) Meristem culture (2) Embryo culture
(3) (4)
(3) Anther culture (4) Somatic hybridisation
130. Which of the following is a caused by 130. :-
biomagnification :- (1)
(1) minamata disease
(2)
(2) silient spring
(3) non-biodegradable pollutant (3)
(4) All of the above (4)
131. Multicarpellary and apocarpous gynoecium 131. , ?
occurs in? (1)
(1) Tomato & brinjal
(2)
(2) Lotus and rose
(3) Salvia & mustard (3)
(4) Dianthus and Primrose (4)
0999DMD310318017 LTS-27/39
132. Ovary is one chamberd but it becomes two chambered 132. ;,
due to the formation of the false septum in :- :-
(1) Dianthus and Primrose (1)
(2) Mustard and Argemone (2)
(3) Mustard and Sunflower (3)
(4) Argemone and Rose (4)
133. Study the following statements carefully and give 133. <+ %&
the answer :-
(A) ] ( )
(A) Petioles allow leaf blade to flutter in wind
(B) Veins provide rigidity to the leaf blade and (B) <+
act as channels of transport.
(C) Axillary bud is present in the axil of both leaf (C) ,

and leaflet
(D) In pinnately compound leaf, all leaflets are (D) ,
attached to a common point petiole.
Option :- %&
(1) Both A and C are correct (1) A C
(2) Both A and D are correct (2) A D
(3) Both C, D are wrong (3) C D
(4) Both B and C are wrong (4) B C
134. Figures 'x' and 'y' represent the transverse sections 134. = 'x' 'y' % ________ ______
of________and______respectively. %&
(x) (x)
(y) (y)
x y x y
(1) Dicot root Dicot stem (1)
(2) Monocot Root Monocot stem (2) + ,

(3) Dicot stem Monocot stem (3)
(4) Monocot stem Dicot stem (4)
LTS-28/39 0999DMD310318017
135. Annual ring in a tree signify the age of the tree, 135. ; ;
what these annual rings are made of ? ; ,
(1) Growing secondary phloem (1) <+
(2) Growing secondary xylem (2) <+ :
(3) Both (1) & (2) (3) (1) (2)
(4) Growing primary xylem (4) <+ #
136. Trap door mechanism of pollination is a 136. ,
characteristic adaptation for entomophily in ]
which plant :- :-
(1) Ficus (1)
(2) Vallisnaria (2)
(3) Salvia (3)
(4) Yucca (4)
137. How many statements are correct for over 60% 137. 60% ; ,
of flowering plants? ;
(A) Pollen grains undergo three mitosis in the
(A)
parental plant body.
(B) Pollen grains are shed generally at 3–celled
stage (B) % ;
(C) Pollination occurs usually at 2–celled stage
(D) The generative cell divides and forms the (C) % ;
two male gametes during the growth of (D) ;
pollen tube. ;
(1) Four (2) Three (1) (2)
(3) Two (4) One (3) (4)
138. In angiosperms, triple fusion is required for the 138. ,
formation of :- :-
(1) Fruit wall (2) Seed coat (1) (2)
(3) Embryo sac (4) Endosperm (3) (4)
139. Which of the following pair of functions are 139. ,

caused due to root pressure ? :-
(1) Guttation and pushing up water to small (1)
height in stem
(2) Guttation and transpiration (2)
(3) Transpiration and ascent of sap (3)
(4) Ascent of sap and translocation of organic food (4)
{
0999DMD310318017 LTS-29/39
140. Which of the following statements in related to 140. =
the phenomenon shown in the diagram below? ?
Cotton Cotton
(1) Plants show curvature towards the source of (1)

light
(2) Water and nutrients are essential for (2) [
vernalization
(3) Essential elements were identified and their (3)
deficiency symptoms discovered
(4) All of these (4)
141. At which step of Calvin cycle the both products 141.
(ATP & NADPH2) of light reaction are used ? (ATP NADPH2) ?
(1) Regeneration (2) Carboxylation (1) (2)
(3) Reduction (4) Transamination (3) (4)
142. Find the incorrect match :- 142. , :-
(1) Maize - C3 cycle (1) - C3
(2) Sugarcane - No photorespiration (2) -
(3) Wheat - No CO2 fixation in bundle sheat cell (3) - CO2
(4) Rice - Transfer of malic acid to bundle sheath (4) - /;
cell from mesophyll cell
143. Which of the following hormones was discovered 143.
from autoclaved hering sperm DNA? DNA [ ?
(1) Auxin (2) Gibberellin (1) (2)
(3) Ethylene (4) Cytokinin (3) (4)
144. Find the correct match :- 144. :-
(1) Glycolysis - PPP (1) - PPP
(2) Krebs Cycle - TCA cycle (2) - TCA
(3) Calvin Cycle - C2 Cycle (3) - C2
(4) Photorespiration - C4 cycle (4) - C4
145. Activator of carboxypeptidase is :- 145. :-
(1) Mn++ (2) Fe++ (1) Mn++ (2) Fe++
(3) Mg++ (4) Zn++ (3) Mg++ (4) Zn++
146. Correct expression of DPD for plasmolysed cell 146. ; , DPD
is :- :-
(1) DPD = OP + TP (2) DPD = OP (1) DPD = OP + TP (2) DPD = OP
(3) DPD = TP (4) DPD = OP – TP (3) DPD = TP (4) DPD = OP – TP
LTS-30/39 0999DMD310318017
147. Recognise the figure and find out the correct 147. , :-
matching :-
(a) (b) (c)

(a) (b) (c)
(1) (a) , (b) ,
(1) (a) Early prophase, (b) Late prophase,
(c) /;
(c) Transition to metaphase
(2) (b) Early prophase, (c) Late prophase, (2) (b) , (c) ,
(a) Transition to metaphase (a) /;
(3) (c) Early prophase, (a) Late prophase, (3) (c) , (a) ,
(b) Transition to metaphase. (b) /;
(4) (b) Early prophase, (a) Late prophase, (4) (b) , (a) ,
(c) Transition to metaphase. (c) /;
148. Identify the correct match from the column-I, II 148. -I, II III ,&
and III.
I II III
Column I Column II Column III
1. a. i. ER,
1. Late a. i. ER, Golgi
prophase complex
disappear
2. b. ii. =
2.Anaphase b. ii. Chromosome
decondense
and loose
their [
individuality
3. c. iii. -I
3. Telophase c. iii. Longest
phase of
meiosis-I
4. -I d. iv. =
4. Prophase-I d. iv. Splitting
of centromere
occur
(1) 2-a-iii, 1-c-iv, 3-b-i, 4-d-ii (1) 2-a-iii, 1-c-iv, 3-b-i, 4-d-ii
(2) 1-b-i, 2-a-iv, 3-d-ii, 4-c-iii (2) 1-b-i, 2-a-iv, 3-d-ii, 4-c-iii
(3) 1-d-iii, 2-b-iv, 3-b-i, 4-d-ii (3) 1-d-iii, 2-b-iv, 3-b-i, 4-d-ii
(4) 2-a-iii, 1-c-iv, 3-a-ii, 4-d-i (4) 2-a-iii, 1-c-iv, 3-a-ii, 4-d-i
0999DMD310318017 LTS-31/39
149. Which one of the following options give the 149. , ;
correct categorisation of four cell components
with their functions or structure ?
Plasma
Cell wall Mitochondria Nucleus
membrane
(1) Mesosome Barrier to Genetic Histone (1) ;
undesirable material protein
,
Macro
molecules
(2) Ca Mg ATP
(2) Ca and Mg Connect the Site of ATP Polyamine
Pectate cytoplasm of synthesis ;
neighbouring
cell
(3) Integral Pump protein Cristae Chromatin (3)
proteins
(4) Cell Plant cement Chlorophyll DNA

(4) DNA
division
150. A cell which is very active in the synthesis and 150. ] ;

secretion of proteins would be expected to ] :–
(1)
have :–
(1) equal amount of RER and SER (2)
(2) more SER than RER
(3) [
(3) more RER than SER
(4) more GB and no RER (4) ; [
151. Which of the following sequence is correct ? 151. ?
(1) Basal body Cilium/flagellum Centriole (1) ; /
(2) Cilium/flagellum Basal body Centriole (2) / ;
(3) Centriole Basal body Cilium/Flagellum (3) ; /
(4) Basal body Centriole Flagellum/Cilium (4) ; /
152. Which one is di amino mono carboxylic amino 152. ,
acid? ?
(1) Glutamic acid (1)
(2) Lysine (2)
(3) Alanine (3)
(4) Valin (4)
LTS-32/39 0999DMD310318017
153. Least abundant chemical in living organsim 153.
is ? ?
(1) Lipid (1) +
(2) Ions (2)
(3) Nucleic acids (3)
(4) Protein (4)
154 Which of the following statement is incorrect ? 154 ; ?
(1) In a polypeptide chain the last amino acid is (1)
called the C-terminal amino acid, C-
(2) The backbone of B-DNA is formed by the (2) DNA <+
sugar–Phosphate–sugar chain
(3) According to double helix model, the nitrogen (3) {
bases are projected more or less perpendicular , <+
to backbone but face outside
(4) Living state is a non equilibrium steady state (4) , ;
to be able to perform work.
155. If for some reason the parietal cells of the gut 155. ,
epithelium become partially non-functional, what %
is likely to happen ?
(1) The pH of stomach will fall upto 1.5. (1) ; pH 1.5
(2) Pancreatic amylase will be more effective (2) ,
(3) Proper acidic medium will not be maintained
(3) ; ; /;
in stomach.
(4) The pancreatic enzymes and specially the (4) , %
trypsin and lipase will not work efficiently
156. A patient is generally advised to specially, 156. ] ]
consume more meat, lentils, milk and eggs in diet
only when the suffers from : %
(1) Kwashiorkar (1)
(2) Beri beri (2)
(3) Goitre (3)
(4) Scurvy (4)
157. Hormone are -----A ------ chemicals which act as 157. -----A
------ B
-----------
----- B
------ messengers and are produced in C
-----------
C
----------- amounts. Choose the correct option :- , :-
A B C A B C
(1) Nutrient Intra cellular Trace (1) % ;
(2) Nutrient Inter cellular Large (2) ;
Non- Trace
(3) Inter cellular (3) ;
nutrient
Non-
(4)
Nutrient
Extra cellular Large (4) ;
0999DMD310318017 LTS-33/39
158. Which of the statement is true regarding pituitary 158. ;
gland ? (1) ; GH
(1) Gigantism is abnormal growth caused by
hyposecretion of GH
(2) TSH
(2) TSH stimulates the synthesis and secretion of
thyroid hormone from thyroid gland.
(3)
(3) Oxytocin regulates the growth of mammary
gland and formation of milk in them.
=.
(4) ACTH stimulates the synthesis and secretion (4) ACTH
of steroid hormone called gonadotrophins. ,
159. The neural system provides or organised network of 159. ; = =
___B___ connections for a ___A___ coordination. __B__ __A__ ;
Choose the correct option for B & A to complete , B A , ,
the given statement. ;
(1) A – point to point, B – chemical (1) A – ,B–
(2) A – chemical, B – fast (2) A – ,B–
(3) A – Fast, B – point to point (3) A – ,B–
(4) A – Chemical, B – slow (4) A – ,B–
160. Identify the type of neurons in the given diagram 160. , = neurons :-
a b a b
Organ Organ
c c
(1) 'a' is sensory neuron, 'b' is synapse (1) 'a' neuron , 'b'
(2) 'a' is motor neuron, 'b' is sensory neuron (2) 'a' neuron , 'b' neuron
(3) 'c' is sensory neuron, 'a' is motor neuron, (3) 'c' neuron , 'a' neuron ,
'b' is inter neuron 'b' neuron
(4) 'a' is sensory neuron, 'b' is inter neuron, (4) 'a' neuron , 'b' neuron ,
'c' is motor neuron 'c' neuron
161. Blood clotting requires :- 161. , %&
(1) Albumin & prothrombin (1)
(2) Na + Fibrinogen
+
(2) Na+ +
(3) Na+ + Thromboplastin (3) Na+ + Thromboplastin
(4) Ca++ + Thromboplastin (4) Ca++ + Thromboplastin
162. Blood pressure in the mammalian aorta is 162. (, ) :
minimum during :
(1) Diastole of the ventricles (1) ( )
(2) Systole of the ventricles (2)
(3) Diastole of the atria (3)
(4) Systole of the atria (4) ( )
LTS-34/39 0999DMD310318017
163. What will happen if the stretch receptors of the 163. ;
urinary bladder wall are totally removed ? ] ?
(1) There will be no micturition (1) =.
(2) Urine will become more dilute in the bladder (2) ; =
(3) Micturition will continue (3) =.
(4) Urine becomes more concentrate (4) =
164. Which of the following statement is correct about 164.
excretion ?
(1) Concentration of urine is 1200 mOsmol L–1 (1) = 1200 mOsmol L–1
(2) Glucose and amino acids are absorbed (2) ;:
passively in renal tubules
(3) Descending loop of Henle is impermeable to (3) ] , ;
water
(4) Ascending limb of Henle's loop is impermeable (4) , ;
to salts
165. During normal respiration with effort the volume 165. ;
of air inspired & expired is called – &
(1) IRV & ERV respectively (1) % IRV ERV
(2) Reserve volume (2)
(3) Tidal volume (3) ;
(4) ERV & IRV respectively (4) % ERV IRV
166. Which of the following diseases are occupational 166.
respiratory disorders ? &
(1) Asthma and Fibrosis (1)
(2) Pneumonia and fibrosis (2)
(3) Fibrosis, silicosis (3) ]
(4) Dysentry and Asbestosis (4) ,
167. Which of the following pairs, is correctly matched? 167. &
(1) Fibrous joint – between humerus and girdle (1) ; (Fibrous) & /;
(2) Cartilaginous joint – Skull bones (2) ; &[
(3) Gliding joint – between zygapophyses of the (3) &
successive vertebrae ;
(4) Hinge joint – between Ribs (4) & /;
168. In a muscle fibre Ca++ is stored in :- 168. ; Ca++ %&
(1) Sarcoplasmic reticulum (1)
(2) Sarcosome & sarcoplasm (2)
(3) Sarcomere & myosin (3)
(4) Sarcolemma and HMM (4) HMM
0999DMD310318017 LTS-35/39
169. The -----A ------ labyrinth is a series of channels. 169. -----A
------ ,
Inside these channels lies the -----------
B labyrinth, B
-----------
which is filled by a fluid called -----C ------ The C
----------- -----D
------
-----D
------ labyrinth is surrounded by a fluid called -----E
------ :-
-----E
------ :-
A B C D E
A B C D E
Memb- Memb- Endo- (1) ,
(1) Bony Perilymph
ramous ramous lymph
Membr- Endo- Memb- (2) ,
(2) Bony Perilymph
anous lymph ramous
Memb- Endo- Memb- (3) ,
(3) Bony Perilymph
ramous lymph ramous
Memb- Memb- Endo- (4) ,
(4) Bony Perilymph
ranous ramous lymph
170. Which scientist proposed 'Rivet popper 170. =

hypothesis' related to biodiversity and ecosystem?
(1) David Tilman (1)
(2) Paul Ehrlich (2) ,
(3) Tansely (3)
(4) Warming (4)
171. Which is related to forest conservation ? 171. , ?
(1) Appiko movement (1)
(2) Khilafat movement (2)
(3) Quit India movement (3)
(4) Swadeshi movement (4)
172. According Alexander Von Humbolt, in the graph 172. ] { = A, B C
of species area relation of area A, B and C which
;{= {= %
of the following area has steeper slope and
minimum species richness respectively :- <+ ; :-
C C
A A
richness
richness
species
species
B B
Area Area
(1) A and B (1) A B
(2) C and A (2) C A
(3) C and B (3) C B
(4) C and C (4) C C
Time Management is Life Management
LTS-36/39 0999DMD310318017
173. Which is a mismatch in the following option ? 173. ?
(i) Dodo - Mauritius (i) -
(ii) Quagga - Russia (ii) -
(iii) Thylacine - Australia (iii) -
(1) (ii) & (iii) (1) (ii) & (iii)
(2) (i) & (iii) (2) (i) & (iii)
(3) only (ii) (3) (ii)
(4) (i) & (ii) (4) (i) & (ii)
174. During world was - II, DDT was found to be of 174. ; ; ;

great use in the control of malaria and other insect =. DDT ;
born disease but it causes :- ; ; :-
(1) Soil pollution (1)
(2) Air pollution (2)
(3) Water pollution (3)
175. The percent area cover or biomass is a more 175. ,

meaningful measure of population size in the case %&
of :-
(1)
(1) Bacterial in flask
(2)
(2) Tiger in forest
(3) Fishes in pond (3)
(4) parthenium and banyan tree (4)
176. Increased productivity in eutrophic lake due to 176. > ? ,

excessive pollutant from home & industry causes? <+ ;
(1) Increased amount of dissolve oxygen (1) <+
(2) biodiversity decreases (2) ?
(3) the lake gives ways to cold water organisms (3) ;
(4) BOD of water decreases even finally (4) BOD
177. Which of the following is not related to radioactive 177.

pollution ?
(1)
(1) Three mile island
(2) ;
(2) Nuclear thermal power plant
(3) Chernobil (3)
(4) Los Angeles smog (4) ,
0999DMD310318017 LTS-37/39
178. In 2012 Rio-20 summit was held at Rio de Janeiro 178. 2012 , -20 [;
it is meant for :- ; :-
(1) Sustainable development (1)
(2) Kyoto protocol (2)
(3) Climate change (3)
179. The "Great barrier reef" along the east of Australia 179.
can be categorized as :- :-
(1) Population (1)
(2) Community (2) ;
(3) Ecosystem (3) =
(4) Biome (4)
180. At which place, heat gain through insolation 180. {= ;
approximately equals to heat loss through -
terrestrial radiation.
(1)
(1) Temperate deciduous forest
(2) ;
(2) Tropical deciduous forest
(3) Tropical rain forest (3) ;
(4) Tundra biome (4)
Your moral duty is to prove that

is
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2019
Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in within 2 days along with Paper code
and Your Form No.
%; = Correction Paper code , Form No. 2 dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in
mail
LTS-38/39 0999DMD310318017
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /
0999DMD310318017 LTS-39/39
DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME
(Academic Session : 2018 - 2019)
LEADER TEST SERIES / JOINT PACKAGE COURSE

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2019
Test Type : MAJOR TEST # 06 Test Pattern : NEET-UG
TEST DATE : 24 - 03 - 2019
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 2 2 4 4 2 2 3 2 3 2 3 4 3 1 4 1 1 3 3
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 4 4 1 3 3 2 1 1 4 1 4 4 4 3 3 3 3 1 3
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 4 3 2 1 1 4 1 1 3 1 3 3
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 1 2 1 1 1 4 4 3 1 1 1 1 4 3 3 3 4 4 2 1
Que. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 2 1 3 3 4 1 1 4 3 3 3 1 3 3 3 4 3 4 1 1
Que. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans. 4 1 4 2 4 2 3 2 2 4 4 3 2 2 3 2 3 3 2 1
Que. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans. 4 3 1 3 2 3 1 3 4 1 2 2 3 3 2 1 3 4 1 3
Que. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans. 3 4 4 2 4 1 1 2 1 3 3 2 2 3 3 1 3 2 3 4
Que. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans. 4 1 1 1 1 3 3 1 3 2 1 3 3 4 4 2 4 1 3 4
HINT – SHEET
1. 1J=? New system
1 2 v
2 –2 3. x = vt or y = gt
M1 L1 T1 2
n2 = n1 y l
M2 L2 T2 1 x2
y= g 2 45°
2 –2
2 v x
kg m 10
=1 y 45°
10kg 10m 60 tan 45°= y=x
x
1
1
1
2
gx 2 2v 2
= (60)2 = 36 × 10–1 x= x=
10 10 2v 2 g
Energy 2v 2
2. Solar constant S = Area time Also, y=
g
2v 2
[ML2 T –2 ] 2
l = x +y2 2
l= 2 x = 2
= = [MT–3] g
[L2 ][T]
0999DMD310318017 LTS/HS-1/7
4. Let the velocity of the scooter be v ms–1.
u cos v cos
Velocity of scooter w.r.to bus is 9. v
vr = (v – 10) u v sin
u cos
(v – 10) × 100 = 1000
v = 20 ms–1
5. p = area under F-t graph
v cos = e u cos …(1)
1 and v sin = u sin …(2)
p= 8 1 2 0.5 = 3 kg m/s
2 Eq. (ii)/ Eq. (i)
v sin u sin
6. Fsin60° v cos eu cos
F
N tan tan
60° tan = e
Fcos60°
e tan
f 10. AB = 2R cos
\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\ A
mg
3F
N = mg – B
90°
2
If block just starts moving C
acceleration along AB is
F cos 60° = N
a = g cos
F 3 AB = 0 + 1/2 at2
0.5 mg .F
2 2 2AB 2(2R cos ) 4R
t2 =
a g cos g
3F 20
F+ = 10 or F= R
2 2 3
t= 2
g
7. For time 0 2 sec
11. Potential goes on decreasing in the direction
dx 4
v1 = 2ms 1 , for t > 2 s, v2 = 0 of electric field.
dt 2
(VB – VA) = – Edx = –20 × 2 = – 40 volt
p = p2 – p1 = m(v2 – v1) 12. Electric field will remain same
= 0.1(0 – 2) = –0.2 kg m/s
Q
p = Impulse = –0.2 kg m/s in case of copper plate
2A
m1v1 + m 2 v 2 10 ×14 + 4 × 0
8. vCOM = = 10 m s –1 Q
m1 + m 2 10 + 4 E
0 2A 0
v1 = 14 m/s v2 = 0 Q
in case of plastic plate
A
m1 = 10 kg m2 = 4 kg Q
+ve
E
2 0 2A 0
LTS/HS-2/7 0999DMD310318017
13. The equivalent arrangement is shown in figure. 100 I
Capacitance between A and B is given by :
A
17. 1.5
50 I A
2 3 450
a b
2 1 300 1.5V
A 4 3 B
100 A
I
1 1 1 2 R 100
a b 50 R ab
CAB C C C R 100 R
C 300 1.5V
or CAB
2
1.5
Vab= 300 R R ab
C 3 ab
Cab = C + C
2 2
Vab 1.5 100R 1
I= R 100
100 100 R 100
3 0A 300
100 R
2 d
1.5 R
V 1 =
14. V.e 1/RC
or e
1/ RC 300 (100 R) 100R
3 3
1.5R 1.5R
2
V' = Ve 2 / RC
V e 1/ RC 300 100 300R 100R 450
450 = 400 R + 300 × 100
50 R = 300 × 100
2
1 V R = 600
= V
3 9 18. Since, magnetic field at the centre of an arc is
equal to
dr I
15. r B 0
4 r
I 10 1 1 5 0I
Net B =
dI = J. 2 r dr 4 r 2r 3r 24 r
I2 L
J0 r 19. F 0
= 2 r dr 2 d
R
J0 2 R 2 2 J0 R3 2
I= r dr = J 0 . R2 I1 I2
R 0 R 3 3 d
L L
2
= J0 A
3 Where L is the overlapping length. Two long
parallel conductor carrying currents in the same
16. For maximum power current in 1 must be
direction attract each other.
maximum so x = 0
0999DMD310318017 LTS/HS-3/7
20. When the electron moves in both electric and
dA 1 1 2 2
magnetic fields then : 29. va = rv v 2a r v
dt 2 4
qE = qvB
E 1500 1 2 gR 2
v 3750 m / s v 2a r
B 0.40 4 r
= 3.75 × 103 m/s.

4v 2a 4v 2a
T 1 2 1 2 1 r= h= R
22. t= 4 s gR 2 gR 2
4 4 200 400
30. 2 r=n 2 (r2 – r1) = 2 –
I
23. Pressure =
c
r2 – r1 =
I 1400 2
Force = A 1.5 7 10 6 N
c 3 108
N0 1
24. If required angle is 31. N = N0e– t = N0e– (5) =
e 5
From snell's law
N0 1
1sin i = 2 sin r = 3 sin r2 Now = N0e– (t) t= n2 = 5 n2
2
1
1 × sin 45º = 2 sin r2 sin r2 =
2 32. Density is independent of mass number
r2 = 30º Aº
t
25. d= sin(i – r) 80 80
cos r 34. Given i c ie 24 ie 30mA
100 100
For small angles sin(i – r) i – r; cosr 1
By using ie = ib + ic ib = 30 – 24 = 6 mA
r 35. Phase difference between I & III wave is rad
d = t(i –r), d = it 1 –
i so resulting is 10 m – 7 m = 3 m then
amplitude of resultant wave is
26. Size of object is small
2 2
LI 2 4 3 =5 m
mL mT
L0
OR
2
LI 20
2mm 20 30 7
4
2
LI = –(–2) × 2mm AR
4
LI = – 8mm Ar = (3)2 (4) 2 = 5
Length of image = 8 mm
3 10
27. A a12 a 22 2a1a 2 cos
36. ts – tp = 4 min
A 16 9 2 4 3 cos60
d d
240sec
1 Vs Vp
A 25 24
2
1 1
A 25 12 d 240
4.5 8
A 37 6
d 2500 km
LTS/HS-4/7 0999DMD310318017
37. 41. Q= T4
LP L cm r pcm = Icm R mv cm ;
Q' = e A(2T)4
here v cm = v
0
S i n ce s ph er e i s in p ur e r ol li ng m ot io n = 0.25 × 16 Q = 4Q
hence = v 0 /R
42.
v0 Total number of moles will remain same

P1V P2 V P(2V)
P RT1 + RT2 = RT
Lp
2 v
MR2 0 k̂ + Mv0 R k̂ 1 FG P 1 P2 IJ
5 R P=
2 HT 1 T2 K T
7
= Mv0 R k̂ 4 mole mono
5 4 mole T
38. Applied maximum force does not depend on 43. Q Diatomic
length of wire. gas T
2 mole Di
39. T
5
Q+ 4RT 4 RT + 2 RT
B A 2 2 2
Q = RT
PA = PB 44. Let length of submerged part = h
then Ah = A 0
10 × x
× g = 8 yg + 2 Hg
g
0
h
10 × 3.36 = 8 y
+ 2 × 13.6
y
= 0.8 g/cm3 h 0
T=2 T 2
W T1 T2 g g
40.
Q T1
m
45. T 2
800 T2 k
W1 Q
800
m m
Q T2 t1 2 and t2 2
heat rejected by A is Q2 = Q – W1 = k1 k2
800
QT2 k1 k 2
heat rejected by 1st = input of 2nd = for series combinatin keq =
800 k1 k 2
T2 300 QT2 Q(T2 300)
W2 =
T2 800 800 m m(k1 k 2 )
t= 2 2
k eq k1 k 2
W1 = W2
800 T 2 (T2 300)Q

Q 2 2
800 800 4 m 4 m
t12 t 22
k1 k2
2T2 = 1100 T2 = 550 K
0999DMD310318017 LTS/HS-5/7
46. An nA
Z M
56. d= 3
1– n a 6.02 10 23
DT 1 (n 1) d a 3 6.02 10 23
Z=
D0 1 M
4 5.0 3 10 24
6.02 10 23
D T D0
72
(n 1)D0
= 4.18 4
47. BF 3 is Lewis acid 57. P4 + 20HNO3 4H3 PO4 + 20NO2 + 4H2 O
48. No. of atoms = atomicity × no. of moles 61. Concept
62. Bond length P–O > S–O > Cl–O
36
n H 2O 2
18 63. B.A EN of central atom
64. NO– has two U.P.E.
28 65. Concept
n CO 1
28
66. Cs+ > Rb+ > Sr+2 > O–2 order of Radii
46 67. Zn has zero U.P.E.

n C2H5OH 1
46
eg
54 68. 0 < P.E
n N 2O 5 0.5
108
t2g
51. Enthalpy of formation is +ve or –ve
69. Concept
53. Hydrophobic end Hydrophilic

O
– +
end
O Na
70. [Co(CN)6]3–
Such a compound which has one terminal at

one end hydrophabic and other hydrophilic 2
CFSE = 6 3p = 2.4 + 3p
terminal. 5
0 0
55. M1 × V 1 = M 2 V 2 = M 3 V 3
71. Concept
0.5 × V1 + 0.1 (2 – V1) = 0.2 × 2 72. Concept
0.4 V1 = 0.4 – 2
O O
2–
0.2 73. S2 O 7 – S S –
V1 = = 0.5 L O O O
0.4 O O
V2 = 1.5 L No. S–S linkage
LTS/HS-6/7 0999DMD310318017
3
74. KClO3 KCl + O2
2
CH3O /CH3OH
1 83. CH3–CH2–CH–CH2
XeF2 + H2O Xe + 2HF + O
2 2 F H
XeF4 + H2O Xe + XeO3 + HF + O2 B
PbO2 Pb + O2 CH3–CH2–CH–CH2
75. KMnO4 + HCl Mn+2 + Cl2 F
OH Stable Anion
3
77. HO 4
2 Cyclopent-1-en-3-4 diol CH3–CH2–CH=CH2
5 1
OH
79. CH3–C = C–O–CH3
+ CH3O– /CH3OH
Hg 84.
1-Butene (major)
O O F
(Hoffmann Product)
CH3–CH2–C–O–CH3 CH3–CH–C–O–CH3
+
Hg
80. Sulphonation is reversible and rate also depends CH3O– /CH3OH
on breaking of C–H bond. Heavier isotope Cl

2-Butene (major)
forms stronger bond so takes max. time. (Saytzeff Product)
81. Reactivity in NAR depends on
NH2 NH2
1. electrophilic nature of carbonyl carbon LiAlH4
85.
2. steric hindrance on carbonyl carbon
O
Ph is more EDG than CH3
88. Isocyanide on reduction gives secondary
NH2
amines.
82. + CHCl3 + KOH C6H5–NC + KCl + H2O
90. Tollen's test is used to distingwish Aldehydes
LiAlN4
& Ketones. Formic acid also gives tollen's test.
C6H5NH–CH 3
0999DMD310318017 LTS/HS-7/7

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DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME

LEADER TEST SERIES / JOINT PACKAGE COURSE

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2019

(1) zero (2) 4 kg m/s (1)  (2) 4 kg m/s

     

8. Two block of masses 10kg and 4kg are 8. 

(3) + 40 V (4) – 20 13 V (3) + 40 V (4) – 20 13 V

12. A charge Q is uniformly distributed over a large 12. 

14. The plates of a capacitor are charged to potential 14. 

(1) 1 (2) 3 (1) 1 (2) 3

18. Shown in the figure is a conductor carrying a 18. 

The minimum uniform speed along a straight line 

on metal surface on area 1.5 m2 is completely 

(1) X is P-type, Y is N-type and the junction is

(3) 550 K (4) 700 K (3) 550 K (4) 700 K

PT1 T2 2PT 1T 2 PT1 T2 2PT 1T 2

43. An insulated container contains 4 moles of an ideal 43. 

(3) Q= 3 RT (4) Q = 4 RT (3) Q= 3 RT (4) Q = 4 RT

(1) dm6atm mol–2 (2) dm3atm mol–1

(1) (a) and (b) (1) (a) (b)

(2) (a) and (c) (2) (a) (c)

(3) (b) and (c) (3) (b) (c)

(4) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a), (b) (c)

69. Which of the following is considered as an 69. :-

74. 1. KClO3 2. XeF2 H2O

In how many of the above processes, O2 will

CHO Cl CH3 CHO Cl CH3

(1) Zero (2) One (1) ; (2)

(3) Two (4) Three (3) (4)

77. Which of the following IUPAC name is 77. IUPAC ;

(3) 6-Bromo-3,3-dimethylcyclohexene (3) 6-Bromo-3,3-dimethylcyclohexene

78. Which of the following is most acidic:- 78. ; ;

(3) (4) (3) (4)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

80. Which is correct order for the rate of 80. ,

81. Arrange the following compounds in 81. ; ; ?

(1) Ph–N–CH 3 (2) Ph–CH2–NH2 (1) Ph–N–CH 3 (2) Ph–CH2–NH2

Which statement is correct ? ; ?

(2) Both x and y are 1-Butene (2) x y 1-

CHO CHO CHO CHO

87. The formation of which of the following 87.

(4) H 2/Pd (4) H 2/Pd

89. Match the column : 89. ,&

90. Which of the following pair cannot be 90. }

(1) CH3COCH3, PhCHO (1) CH3COCH3, PhCHO

(2) HCOOH, CH3COCH3 (2) HCOOH, CH3COCH3

(3) CH3CHO, PhCH 2CHO (3) CH3CHO, PhCH 2CHO

(4) PhCOCH3, HCHO (4) PhCOCH3, HCHO

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

92. Petromyzon can be distinguished from scoliodon 92.

101. Which of the following option is not correct :- 101. :-

(1) Fertilisation takes place at ampullary isthmic (1) ,

(4) Myometrium is the site for implantation. (4)

(2) Member of protista are chief producers in the (1) ; [; ;

Column-I Column-II -I -II

(b) Yersinia pestis (ii) Anthrax (b) (ii)

(c) Xanthomonas citri (iii) Typhoid (c) (iii)

(d) Bacillus anthracis (iv) Citrus cancer (d) , (iv)

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) Ectocorpus, Polysiphonia & Kelps (1) ,

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