AGRICULTURE LICENSURE EXAM REVIEWER

ANIMAL SCIENCE EXAM

SET 1

1. The functions of all genes are the following EXCEPT:

a. Control the function of other (structural) genes
b. Copy or replicate itself
c. Store and transmit genetic information
d. Undergo mutation

2. Inbreeding depression in most reproductive traits in farm animals caused by:

a. Outcrossing hybridization
b. Parent offspring mating
c. Species
d. Upgrading

3. _____ is when certain genotypes perform well under certain environments than other genotypes
a. Epistasis
b. Fitness
c. Genotype + environment interaction
d. Panmixia

4. The average gestation period in the sow is:

a. 114 days
b. 148 days
c. 283 days
d. 316 days

5. Duroc is a breed of:

a. Beef cattle
b. Dairy cattle
c. Goat
d. Swine

6. ______ determines the sex of an individual:

a. Autosomes
b. Mating system
c. Selection
d. Sex chromosome

7. ______ is the notation refers to the heterogametic sex chromosome of a hen:

a. XX
b. XY
c. ZZ
d. ZW

8. ______ is the heterogametic sex in horses:

a. Male
b. Female
c. Either male or female
d. Both male and female

9. Milk production in cows and egg production in quails are examples of economically important traits which are known as:
a. Maternal effects
b. Sex-influenced
c. Sex-limited
d. Sex linked

10. Which of the following breed of livestock or poultry was NOT developed by Filipino animal breeders at the UP College of Agriculture in the
1920s?
a. Berkjala pigs
b. Los Banos Cantonese chickens
c. Pekin ducks
d. Philamen cattle

11. _____ is the term for gametogenesis in the cow

a. Fertilization
b. Hetorosis
c. Oogenesis
d. Spermatogenesis

12. ______ is a process by which the germinal cells divide to produce haploid cells each carrying only one-haft of the genetic compliment of
the individual.
a. Fertilization
b. Gametogenesis
 c. Meiosis
d. Mitosis

13. Splanchnic circulation is a part of system circulation that supplies blood to the:
a. Heart
b. Kidney
c. Liver
d. Digestive tract

14. Sexual receptivity, which coincides with estrus in animals that exhibit estrous cycle, is due to large amount of:
a. Testoterone
b. Progesterone
c. Estrogen
d. Relaxin

15. Hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the thyroid cells are compensatory mechanisms to counteract the deficiency of which mineral?
a. Iodine
b. Phosphorus
c. Calcium
d. Iron

16. Gigantism results from the hypersecretion of which hormone before the closure of the epiphyseal-diaphyseal plate of the long bones
a. Prolactin
b. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
c. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
d. Somatrotrophic hormone (STH)

17. Destruction of beta cells of the _____ will lead into a disease condition known as diabetes mellitus
a. Liver
b. Kidney
c. Pancreas
d. Adrenalin

18. A kind of blood cells (cellular element), which is non-nucleated and contains hemoglobin.
a. Erythrocyte
b. Lymphocyte
c. Thrombocyte
d. Monocyte

19. The artery of the base of the tail of an animal where the pulse is detected is called:
a. Femoral artery
b. Coccygeal artery
c. Saphenous artery
d. Pulmonary artery

20. Animals which feed on both plants and animals are called:
a. Hervibores
b. Carnivores
c. Omnivores
d. Homivores

21. The animal’s most important contribution to human welfare is:

a. Companionship
b. Clothing
c. Traction
d. Food

22. The scientific name of horse is:

a. Equus caballus
b. Bos taurus
c. Equus asinus
d. Bos indicus

23. The basic functional unit of the nervous system is called:

a. Nephron
b. Neuron
c. Alveoli
d. Dendrite

24. Nerve cells do not come in direct contact with one another, instead there is a small gap of about 200 angstrom units between them. This
gap is called:
a. Synapse
b. Perivitelline space
c. Axonal end
d. Nerve gap
25. ____ is defined as a substance or chemicals mediator, which is produced by an endocrine gland and carried by the blood to some distant
part of the body where it exerts its effects.
a. Enzyme
b. Toxin
c. Hormone
d. Vitamin

26. The atno-ventricular (A-V) valve presents the backflow of the blood from the ventricle to the antnum during ventricular systole. The (A-V)
valve present on the right side of the heart is called:
a. Pulmonary valve
b. Tricuspid valve
c. Aortic valve
d. Vitamin

27. Absorption is the transfer of substance from gastrointestinal tract to the circulatory system.
a. Occurs primarily in the small and large intestines
b. Villi increase surface area for absorption
c. Occurs primarily in the stomach and small intestines
d. All of the above

28. Feed is any material of nutritive value fed to animals for the purpose of sustaining them. Example of feed is:
a. Ground corn
b. Salt
c. Vitamin premix
d. All of the above

29. Macrominerals are normally present at greater level in animal body and are needed in relatively large amount in the diet. Examples of
macrominerals are:
a. Ca and P
b. Cu and Zinc
c. Fe and Cu
d. All of the above

30. Minerals that plays important roles in the skeletal formation and maintenance, and thus, found in the bones and teeth.
a. Calcium
b. Iron
c. Magnesium
d. All of the above

31. Vitamins are organic compound of natural food but distinct from carbohydrates, fats, proteins and water. Water soluble vitamin includes:
a. Thiamine and Riboflavin
b. Vitamin A an D
c. Vitamin A and K
d. All of the above

32. Vitamin A helps maintain normal vision in dim light. Extreme vitamin A deficiency may lead to night blindness. Such condition is called:
a. Xeropthalmia
b. Octeomalacia
c. Encephalomalacia
d. Agalactia

33. Vitamin containing cyanide group attached to the cobalt atom, which is responsible for the name of Cyanocobalamin.
a. B1
b. B2
c. B6
d. B12

34. Lack of vitamin C is characterized by, swollen, bleeding, ulcerated gums, loose teeth, malformed and big joints and fragility of the
capillaries with resulting hemorrhages through the body. Such condition is called:
a. Beri-beri
b. Pellagra
c. Scurvy
d. Dermatitis

35. In young animals lack of Calcium result to enlarged joints, soft and deformed bones. Such condition is called:
a. Rickets
b. Osteomalacia
c. Osteoporosis
d. None of the above

36. Farm animals are classified according to type of GI tracts: Ruminants include:
a. Cattle, carabaos and horses
b. Cattle, carabaos and sheep
c. Cattle, carabaos and pig
d. Cattle, pigs and chicken

37. Non-ruminants are simple stomach animals such as:

a. Pig, horse and rabbit
 b. Pig, horse and goat
c. Pig, horse and cattle
d. Pig, horse and carabao

38. Ruminants have only one true gastric stomach but with additional compartments which involved for fiber digestion. The true gastric
stomach in ruminants is:
a. Abomasum
b. Rumen
c. Omasum
d. Reticulum

39. The term that refers to the meat coming from cattle of less than one year of age:
a. Beef
b. Veal
c. Mutton
d. Chevon

40. The term refers to the act of slaughtering animal dead of some cause, prior to the time of slaughter.
a. Fabrication
b. Hot slaughter
c. Cold slaughter
d. Double killing

41. The process of heating foodstuffs, usually a liquid for a definite temperature and time and thereafter cooling it immediately.
a. Pasteurization
b. Homogenization
c. Curing
d. Clarification

42. What is the average amount of water of fresh whole meat?

a. 87%
b. 95%
c. 80%
d. 70%

43. The following are the condition that would warrant animals to be denied for slaughter EXCEPT:
a. The animal is pregnant
b. The animal is sick
c. The animal shows lameness
d. The animals is newly injected with antibiotic

44. The term refers to meat coming from illegal source:

a. Hot meat
b. Chilling
c. Shrouding
d. Singering

45. The term refers to the process of wrapping the carcass with cheesecloth previously soaked in lukewarm water.
a. Evisceration
b. Chilling
c. Shrouding
d. Singeing

46. Which of the following is an example of processed product from milk fat?
a. Cheese
b. Butter
c. Ice cream
d. Yogurt

47. Which of the following is not a step(s) in slaughtering hogs?

a. Scalding
b. Evisceration
c. Flaying
d. Splitting

48. The cholesterol in egg can be found in its component(s) namely:

a. Yolk
b. Albumin
c. Shell
d. A and B

49. The following are approved stunning period for hogs EXCEPT:
b. Use of stunning gun
c. Use of electric stunner
d. Use of carbon dioxide chamber
e. None of the above

50. Carbohydrates are stored in animal body in a form of:

 a. Starch
b. Fructose
c. Glycogen
d. Lactose

51. Boar taint odor becomes apparent at what age of boars?

a. Around five months
b. Around seven months
c. Around 12 months
d. Around 15 months

52. The form of milk wherein fat or cream is removed:

a. Filled milk
b. Skimmed milk
c. Condensed milk
d. Homogenized milk

53. The form of milk wherein fat globules are reduced to smaller size.
a. Filled milk
b. Skimmed milk
c. Condensed milk
d. Homogenized milk

54. The meat coming from sheep is called:

a. Chevon
b. Venison
c. Veal
d. Mutton

55. The popularity of poultry raising could be attributed to the fact that poultry species are:
a. Fast multipliers
b. Quick growers
c. Efficient converters from feed to meat and eggs
d. All of the above

56. Debeaking or beak trimming is done to prevent cannibalism. This is recommended for:
a. Broilers
b. Egg type chickens
c. Ducks
d. All of the above

57. Ducks ranks second in popularity among the poultry species in the Philippines. The popularity of duck industry is attributed to the high
demand of processed duck egg product such as:
a. “Balut”
b. Salted eggs
c. Century eggs
d. All of the above

58. The process where fully developed embryo (chicks) breaks out of the egg.
a. Breaking
b. Incubating
c. Hatching
d. Brooding

59. Very early _______of pigs is done at:

a. 6 weeks of age
b. 8 weeks of age
c. 10 weeks of age
d. 4 weeks of age

60. To give birth to young pigs is:

a. Calving
b. Kidding
c. Farrowing
d. Pigletting

58. Recommended age of castrating is:

a. 3 days
b. 2 weeks
c. 3 weeks
d. 8 weeks

62. A castrated pig after maturity is called:

a. Stud
b. Boar
c. Barrow
 d. Stallion

63. White breed of pigs:

a. Duroc
b. Yorkshire
c. Hampshire
d. None of the above

64. Reason for castrating pigs:

a. Fat growth rate
b. Better feed efficiency
c. Remove the boar taint
d. Thinner backfat

65. Young animal of cattle, usually under one year of age.

a. Calf
b. Piglets
c. Kid
d. All of the above

66. A female of cattle under 3 years old, which has not produced a calf
a. Gilt
b. Cows
c. Heifer
d. None of the above

67. General term for any class of animals of bovine family, genus Bos.
a. Cattle
b. Cow
c. Bull
d. None of the above

68. Mature female of cattle, one that has given birth.

a. Heifers
b. Gilts
c. Cow
d. Doe

69. Act of giving birth in cattle.

a. Kidding
b. Calving
c. Farrowing
d. Laying
 MOCK TEST IN ANIMAL SCIENCE
SET 2

1. The corresponds to the knee of the animals

a. Carpals
b. Tarsals
c. Humerus
d. Femur

2. The purebred known to be the “longest breed” among purebred hogs

a. Large white
b. Duroc
c. Landrace
d. Pietrain

3. This is a musculomembranous partition that separates the thoracic from the abdominal cavity
a. Pleurae
b. Peritoneum
c. Diaphragm
d. Mesentry

4. This is done by riding the back or pressing the loin or back of the gilt or sow.
a. Haunch pressure test
b. Semen or snout test
c. Riding the back test
d. Teaser method

5. Gall bladder is absent in this animal

a. Cattle
b. Dog
c. Horse
d. Cat

6. The act of giving birth to litter of pigs

a. Flushing
b. Farrowing
c. Crushing
d. Gestating

7. The outer layer of extra-embryonic membranes, which is in contact with the maternal uterine tissues
a. Allontois
b. Choroin
c. Amnion
d. Placenta

8. The percentage of crude protein for brood sow ration.

a. 14
b. 15
c. 18
d. 13

9. What hormone is responsible for broodiness of chicken?

a. Prolactin
b. Estrogen
c. Progesterone
d. Oxytoxin

10. The type of rooting that is recommended for swine building.

a. Monitor
b. Semi-monitor
c. Gable
d. Gothic

11. The auditory ossicles are found in the

a. External ear
b. Middle ear
c. Inner ear
d. Aurical

12. This is the height where the automatic waterer for weanling pigs is placed.
a. 5 to 8 cm from the floor
b. 14-16 cm from the floor
c. 12 to 14 cm from the floor
d. 15 to 20 cm from the floor
13. The average body temperature of goat is
a. 37.6 OC
b. 38.3 OC
c. 39.1 OC
d. 40.1 OC

14. The superiority of the crossbred offspring over average of the purebred parents
a. Close breeding
b. Hybrid vigor
c. Inbred
d. Line breeding

15. The length of estrus period of cattle

a. 30 hours
b. 18 hours
c. 21 hours
d. 24 hours

16. This breed is well known for the “thick backfat”

a. Pietrain
b. Poland China
c. Spotted Poland
d. Yorkshire

17. This refers to the meat of rabbit

a. Mutton
b. Lapan
c. Star meat
d. Venison

18. This refers to the application of genetics and physiology of reproduction

a. Grading
b. Breeding
c. Marking
d. Farrowing

19. This is a protein that greatly influenced the tenderness of the muscle after cooking
a. Collagen
b. Elastin
c. Reticulin
d. Myosin

20. This refers to the process of making the animal unconscious prior to slaughter
a. Sticking
b. Stunning
c. Scalding
d. Evisceration

21. The process in which the individuals are preferred to produce in the next generation.
a. Ovulation
b. Lactation
c. Selection
d. Gestation

22. Which of the following wholesale cuts of beef contains the sternum?
a. Chuck
b. Brisket
c. Ribs
d. Loin

23. They are extremely important to proper animal development

a. Minerals
b. Fats
c. Fiber
d. Vitamins

24. The predominant carbohydrate in milk

a. Galactose
b. Lactose
c. Maltose
d. Fructose

25. The digestive energy required in pregnant gilt.

a. 6,200
b. 6,400
c. 6,600
d. 6,800
26. Arbor Acre is locally known as:
a. Lohmann
b. Ross
c. Magnolia
d. Hubbard

27. The cutting of umbilical cord from the base in newly born piglet
a. 0.60 to 0.65 inches
b. 0.70 to 0.75 inches
c. 1.5 to 2.0 inches
d. 2.5 to 3.0 inches

28. Removal of feathers in the processing plant

a. Molting
b. Plucking
c. Scalding
d. Evisceration

29. Animal agriculture predominates in

a. Upland ecosystem
b. Hillylands
c. Lowland ecosystem
d. Less populated

30. The disease commonly observed in brooding with moist litter or wet litter causing brooer pneumonia
a. Coccidiosis
b. Aspergillosis
c. Avian pasteurellosis
d. Mycoplasmosis

31. The major contributor to the total livestock output is

a. Cattle
b. Swine
c. Carabao
d. Chicken

32. The highest cost expenses aside from feeds in broiler production.
a. Labor cost
b. Depreciation cost
c. Chick cost
d. Light, heat and water

33. The top broiler-producing in the Philippines?

a. Southern-tagalog
b. Central Visayas
c. Central Luzon
d. Southern Mindanao

34. The progeny of two different breeds or strains belong to single specie
a. Cross
b. Hybrid
c. Strain
d. Inbreed

35. The bones that protect the organ cover are:

a. Long bones
b. Flat bones
c. Short bones
d. Irregular bones

36. In a selection of breed this trait is the aptitude to tolerate the environmental conditions without drop in egg production.
a. Hardiness high productivity
b. Low feed consumption
c. Production quality
d. None of these

37. Muscles that cause body parts to bend are

a. Extensor muscles
b. Abductor muscles
c. Flexor muscles
d. Abductor muscles

38. Class of chicken based on purpose/use of breeding

a. Economic
b. Standard
c. Weight
d. All of these
39. Muscles expel or force out secretion of organs except:
a. Accessory glands
b. Sweet glands
c. Endocrine glands
d. Lymp gland

40. Native chicken are popular because people

a. People like the eggs of native chicken
b. People prefer the top meat
c. Maintenance cost are low
d. All of the above

41. Ovulation is stimulated by

a. Somatotropin
b. Thyrotropin
c. Follicle-stimulating hormone
d. Luteinizing hormone

42. Annual egg production of native chicken

a. 50-60 eggs
b. 100-150 eggs
c. 200-240 eggs
d. 260-280 eggs

43. A hormone, which augments the sympathetic nervous system and prepares for emergency is
a. Vasopressin
b. Intermeden
c. Oxytoxin
d. Epinephrine

44. Term applied to design mature domestic cocks and hen

a. Poultry
b. Fowl
c. Chicken
d. Chicks

45. Young domestic ostrich in the downy stage.

a. Chick
b. Poult
c. Keet
d. Gosling

46. Animals whose lungs has no subdivisions or lobes except for intermediate lobe are
a. Dogs
b. Swine
c. Cats
d. Horses

47. A male fowl one year old or over

a. Cob
b. Gobbler
c. Cock
d. Drake

48. The exchange of gases between the blood and tissues is called
a. Exchange respiration
b. Inspiration
c. Internal respiration
d. Expiration

49. Unsexed female fowl is known as

a. Capon
b. Pullet
c. Poulard
d. Poult

50. A means of heat loss from the animals to cooler objects and heat gains from animals from warmer ones
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Evaporation
d. Radiation

51. Race of domestic fowls, which maintains distinctive characteristics of shape, growth, temperament and color of egg shells
a. Variety
b. Strain
c. Breed
d. Type
52. The case when two alleles express themselves in the phenotype
a. Lack of dominance
b. Overdominance
c. Partial dominance
d. None of the above

53. Poultry species having 39 pairs of chromosomes

a. Chicken
b. Quail
c. Guinea fowl
d. All of the above

54. Poultry species having 39 pairs of chromosomes

a. Duck
b. Geese
c. Turkey
d. All of the above

55. Defined as the physical appearance of an animal that is dependent upon its genetic make-up
a. Genotype
b. Clone
c. Phenotype
d. None of the above

56. The incubation period of muscovy duck

a. 35 days
b. 21 days
c. 28 days
d. 24 days

57. The breed of cattle consisting of ¼ Shorthon, ½ Brahmam and ¼ Hereford blood.
a. Sta. Gertrudis
b. Beefmaster
c. Chabarav
d. Simprah

58. The fat-soluble vitamin needed calcium and phosphorus metabolism

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin K

59. After calving cows and caracows, rebreeding is done from

a. One month
b. 2-3 months
c. 3-4 months
d. None of the above

60. Storage of bran and rice polishing is difficult because of

a. High oil content
b. High silica of hull
c. To fine to become dusty
d. Bulkiness of the stuff

61. The most common system of feeding/raising ruminants in the backyard and is
a. Feedlot
b. Tethering
c. Range
d. None of the above

62. Kapok seeds cannot be fed for monogastrics due to tannin. Kapok is known scientifically
a. Helianthus annuus
b. Henea brasiliensis
c. Ceiba pentandra
d. Arachis hypogea

63.The fresh grass or forage that is cut and directly fed to animals is the barn/stable is
a. Straw
b. Hay
c. Silage
d. Soilage

64.The percent crude protein of quail starter should be

a. 23-27% CP
b. 18-22% CP
c. 10-14% CP
d. 20-22% CP
 65. The elimination of unproductive or undesirable birds
a. Culling
b. Selection
c. Dusting
d. Grading

66. Method of feeding grain to broiler parent stock

a. Place in hopper
b. Broadcast in litter
c. Place in round
. d. Place in automatic feeder

67. The meat of mature sheep is called mutton

a. Lamb
b. Veal
c. Mutton
d. Venison

68. Disease, which are easily spread from one animal to another animal
a. Contagious diseases
b. Zoonotic diseases
c. Acute diseases
d. Nutritional defects

69. The color of rabbit meat.

a. Cherry pink
b. White
c. White gray
d. Pinkish brown

70. The microorganism, which can only be seen by an electron microscope

a. Yeast
b. Fungi
c. Viruses
d. Bacteria

71. The color of beef

a. Bright red
b. Purplish brown
c. Dark red
d. Dark red to dark red

72. The basic unit of inheritance is

a. Cell
b. Chromosomes
c. Genes
d. Nucleus

73. The color of cara-beef

a. Dark- red
b. Pinkish brown
c. Light red
d. Bright red

74. Bacterial disease caused by Salmonella gallinarum

a. Fowl typhoid
b. Pullorum
c. Fowl cholera
d. Fowl fox

75. Retail cuts from pork belly

a. Picnic slice
b. Short plate
c. Boneless ham
d. Bacon slice

76. Hitcher B1 strain of vaccine

a. Fowl fox
b. Avian pest
c. Fowl cholera
d. Marke’s disease

77. The number of hours that hogs should be given feeds prior to slaughter
a. 48
b. 18
c. 24
d. 36
78. These are bactericidal antibiotics that can kill bacteria except:
a. Penicillin
b. Streptomycin
c. Neomycin
d. Lincomycin

79. Tapeworms are also known as

a. Trematodes
b. Cestodes
c. Nematodes
d. Annelids

80. The management problem resulting to mortalities due to lack of water and food intake is
a. Starve outs
b. Piling
c. Cannibalism
d. Wet litter

81. The average in water in lean meat

a. 47-78
b. 83-90
c. 13-18
d. 8-5

82. High mortality in laying house can be due to

a. Poor debeaking
b. High stock rate
c. Disease
d. All of these

83. The following are the basic requirements for slaughtering except:
a. The animal should be restrained
b. Ante-mortem & post-mortem examination
c. Slaughter should be done rapidly
d. Euthanasia and slaughter should be done on public view

84. Deficiency of this nutrient can be permanently damage the immunological system of bird
a. Carbohydrates
b. Protein
c. Vitamins
d. Minerals

85. It is an acid flavor and a smooth and light custard texture

a. Ice cream
b. Yoghurt
c. Butter
d. Cheese

86. The beef-cattle production systems are composed of

a. Backyard
b. Commercial
c. Semi-commercial
d. All of the above

87. A mixture of milkfat, buttermilk and water usually with salt and added color is known as
a. Milk lollies
b. Ice cream
c. Butter
d. Cheese

88. The 997,000 hectares of the Philippine pasture land support

a. 500,000 A. U.
b. 5,000 A. U.
c. 500 A. U.
d. None of the above

89. The sudden stress of an animal before slaughter causes cause rapid
a. Hydrolysis
b. Glycolysis
c. Loss of protein
d. Loss of water

90. The A. U. equivalent of heifer is

a. 0.75
b. 0.50
c. 0.25
d. 1.0
 91. Processed meat products that is made from bellies of pork minus the ribs
a. Tocino
b. Ham
c. Bacon
d. Sausage

92. What is the total number of vegetative planting materials needed for 1 ha, If the distance between furrows is 0.7 and 0.5 m
between hills
a. 20,000
b. 25,000
c. 20,666
d. 26,666

93. The process of keeping meat to make it stay longer or to retard spoilage
a. Drying
b. Salting
c. Meat preservation
d. curing

94. The average gestation period of beef cattle is

a. 270 days
b. 283 days
c. 290 days
d. 273 days

95. It increase the water holding capacity of cured products

a. Nitrite
b. Nitrate
c. Ascorbate
d. Phosphate

96. Scientific name of goat

a. Capra aries
b. Ovies hircus
c. Capra circus
d. Capra hircus

97. The part of the cell wall that is not digestible even by rumen organisms.
a. Cellulose
b. Hemicellulose
c. Liignin
d. Pectin

98. The process of bringing nutrients from the site of absorption to the site of utilization
a. Diffusion
b. Digestion
c. Metabolism
d. Transport

99. The other term of male goat

a. Billy
b. Dilly
c. Timmy
d. Jonny
 ANIMAL SCIENCE EXAM
PART 2

1. This corresponds to the knee of the animals

a. Carpals
b. Tarsals
c. Humerus
d. Femur

2. This hormone is responsible for the characteristic buck odor

a. Capric hormone
b. Castric hormone
c. Odric hormone
d. Centric hormone

3. This is the fluid potion of uncoagulated blood

a. Serum
b. Plasma
c. Globulin
d. Hemoglobin

4. This is a lymphoid organ that act as graveyard for old and senile red blood cells
a. Liver
b. Lungs
c. Spleen
d. Thymus

5. This is a musculomembranous partition that separates the thoracic from the abdominal cavity
a. Pleurea
b. Peritoneum
c. Diaphragm
d. Mesentery

6. This teeth are absent in horse and cattle

a. Canine teeth
b. Milk teeth
c. Molar teeth
d. Incisor

7. This is the site of gastric juice production in chicken

a. Crop
b. Proventriculus
c. Gizzard
d. Small intestine

8. This is the structural and functional units of the kidneys

a. Alveoli
b. Glomerus
c. Nephron
d. Nephrite

9. Gall bladder is absent in this animal

a. Cattle
b. Dog
c. Horse
d. Cat

10. This is the site of fertilization in chicken

a. Fibriae
b. infundibulum
c. Uterus
d. Ishmus

11. This is an animal where both testicles failed to descend to the scrotal sac
a. Cryptorehid
b. Monorcid
c. Duorchid
d. Anestrus

12. The average gestation period of beef cattle

a. 283 days
b. 300 days
c. 330 days
d. 350 days

13. The outer later of the extra-embryonic membranes, which is in contact with the maternal uterine tissues
a. Allantois
 b. Chorions
c. Amnion
d. Placenta

14. Which of these cells produce the hormone testosterone?

a. Spermatogonia
b. Spermatocyte
c. Leydig cells
d. Sertoli cells

15. Which of the following accsssory sex glands in male is absent in tom?
a. Seminal vesicles
b. Prostate glands
c. Cowper’s gland
d. Bulbourethral gland

16. Part of the oviduck in chicken, which is responsible for the secretion of albumin
a. Uterus
b. Ishmus
c. Magnum
d. Fimbrae

17. What hormone is responsible for broodiness in chicken?

a. Prolactin
b. Estrogen
c. Progesterone
d. Oxytoxin

18. This hormone is responsible for the development of sperm cells in the seminiferous tubules
a. Luteinizing hormone
b. Follicle stimulating hormone
c. Testosterone
d. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone

19. This stimulates glycogen breakdown and glyconeogenesis in the liver

a. Innsulin
b. Epinephrine
c. Glucagons
d. Estradiol

20. This is the neuro-epithelial portion of the nervous tunic of the eye
a. Retina
b. Iris
c. Pupil
d. Choroids

21. The auditory ossicles are found in the

a. External ear
b. Middle ear
c. Inner ear
d. Auricula

22. This is a protective mechanism of animals against profound cooling

a. Hibernation
b. Estivation
c. Panting
d. Chilling

23. This refers to the range of environmental temperature within which the animal does not have to adopt to the environment
a. Critical temperature
b. Comfort zone
c. Body temperature
d. Subnormal temperature

24. Which of the following is not a way of removing moisture or water from the animals body?
a. Panting
b. Sweating
c. Respiration
d. None of the above

25. The average body temperature of goat is

0
a. 37.6 C
0
b. 38.3 C
0
c. 39.1 C
0
d. 40.1 C

26. This refers to a rise in body temperature that develops during pathological conditions
a. Fever
 b. Hypothermia
c. Hyperthermia
d. Heat stroke

27. This is the yellow body formed from the ruptured graafian follicle
a. Corpus hemorrhagicum
b. Corpus albicans
c. Corpus luteum
d. Corpus anthrum

28. Phase of estrus cycle where the corpus luteum is developed and progesterone is secreted
a. Protestrus
b. Metestrus
c. Estrus
d. Diestrus

29. The length of estrus period of cattle

a. 30 hours
b. 18 hours
c. 21 hours
d. 24 hours

30. This is the muscles, which retracts the testicles against the body to prevent it from excessive cold
a. Bulbocavernous muscle
b. Cremaster
c. Retractor
d. Urethral muscle

31. This refers to animal tissue, which are suitable for food
a. Meat
b. Fat
c. Lean
d. Muscle

32. Which is not considered as red meat?

a. Beef
b. Pork
c. Mutton
d. None of the above

33. This refers to meat of rabbit

a. Mutton
b. Lapan
c. Star meat
d. Venison

34. This refers to the meat of cattle slaughtered before one year of age
a. Venison
b. Veal
c. Beef
d. Mutton

35. Which of the following muscles yield the less tender meat?
a. Leg muscle
b. Back muscle
c. Rib
d. Rump

36. Which of the following is not affected by water and moisture content of the meat?
a. Texture
b. Color
c. Juiceness
d. None

37. This is the protein that greatly influenced the tenderness of the muscle after muscle after cooking
a. Collagen
b. Elastin
c. Reticulin
d. Myosin

38. These substances in meat are responsible for the so- called “gamcy” flavor of meat of wild animals
a. Nitrogeneous extractiveness
b. Sarcoplasmic protein
c. Low shrinkage
d. Short shelf-life

39. Which is not an advantage in pasting animals prior to slaughter?

 a. Save feeds
b. Ease of cleansing entrails
c. Low shrinkage
d. Short shelf-life

40. The water requirement for slaughtering a head of cattle or carabao

a. 30 galloons
b. 60 galloons
c. 15 galloons
d. 35 galloons

41. This refers to the process of making the animal unconscious prior to slaughter
a. Sticking
b. Stunning
c. Scalding
d. Evisceration

42. The process of wrapping the beef carcass with cheesecloth soaked in lukewarm water
a. Chilling
b. Shrouding
c. Scalding
d. Singeing

43. This refers to the cutting of carcasses into standard wholesale and retail cuts
a. Fabrication
b. Grading
c. Meant evaluation
d. Meat chopping

44. Which is not included of the wholesale cut of the front quarter of a beef carcass
a. Ribs
b. Plate
c. Loin
d. Brisket

45. Which of the following wholesale cuts of beef contains the sternum?
a. Chuck
b. Brisket
c. Ribs
d. Loin

46. This process of making a stable milk emulsion

a. Pasteurization
b. Homogenization
c. Cream separator
d. Curdling

47. This cuts contains part of the 13th rib and the abdominal muscle
a. Flank
b. Loin
c. Round
d. Brisket

48. Which is not included as primal cuts of pork?

a. Loin
b. Ham
c. Shoulder
d. Billy

49. The predominant carbohydrate in milk

a. Galactose
b. Lactose
c. Maltose
d. Fructose

50. Milk is not rich in this mineral

a. Iron
b. Zinc
c. Calcium
d. Phosphorus

51. Strain of broiler used in contract grower scheme of Tyson’s agribusiness ventures
a. Cobb
b. Magnolia
c. Anak
d. Paterson

52. Commercial broiler strain available in the market except

 a. Pilch
b. Hybro
c. H and N
d. Starcross

53. Arbor acre is locally known as

a. Lohmann
b. Ross
c. Magnolia
d. Hubbard

54. This common type of house intended for broiler contract growing
a. Litter floor
b. Slat floor
c. Ranges
d. Battery cages

55. In brooding chicks old newspapers are used as bedding to

a. Serve as litter to absorb moisture of manure
b. Teach birds to recognize pictures
c. Improved the walking stance of chicks for better growth
d. Conserve heat for brooding as insulator

56. In raising 200 broilers in the litter floor, how many feeding trough of on- meter length, both sides can be used are required? The feeding
space is 4 cm/bird.
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

57. Removal of feathers in the processing plants

a. Molting
b. Plucking
c. Scalding
d. Evisceration

58. The crude protein of broiler parent stock

a. 12-14% CP
b. 16-17% CP
c. 17-18% CP
d. 18-21% CP

59. Gumboro disease is also known as

a. Avian pest
b. Fowl fox
c. Infectious bursal disease
d. Marek’s disease

60. The limiting constraints why broilers cannot be extensively raised in rural areas
a. Diseases and parasites
b. Feeds
c. Labor requirement
d. Marketing and distribution

61. The disease commonly observed in brooding with moist litter or wet litter causing brooder pneumonia or
a. Coccidiosis
b. Aspergillosis
c. Avian pasteurellosis
d. Mycoplasmosis

62. The average weight of modern broilers now is about_____ at 35-37 days
a. 2.0 kg
b. 1.4 kg
c. 1.7 kg
d. 1.0 kg

63. When the FCE of broiler is 1.9, it means

a. Broiler will have to eat 1 kg feed to produce 1.9 kg body weight
b. Feeding 1.9 kg feed to produce I kg of broiler
c. The total feed intake of one broiler is 1.9 kg
d. Bodyweight of 1.9 kg will be achieved by feeding only one kilo

64. Broilers can be raised any time of the year for about____ per year if the duration of one cycled is 38 days, cleaning of 3 days, selling of 14
days and chick order of 7 days
a. 5 batches
b. 7 batches
c. 9 batches
d. 3 batches

65. The highest cost expenses aside from feeds in broiler production
a. Labor cost
 b. Depreciation
c. Chicks cost
d. Light, heat and water

66. The worldwide numbers of breeds of fowls

a. More than 300
b. More than 100
c. More than 200
d. More than 400

67. Population of small number of birds isolated within the breed, which is responsible with specific characteristics
a. Breed
b. Strain
c. Cross
d. In-breed

68. Leghorn breed has plumage colors of

a. White
b. Black
c. Silver
d. All of these

69. The progeny of two different breeds or strain belonging to a single specie
a. Cross
b. Hybrid
c. Strain
d. In-breed

70. Progeny of breeding between different species

a. Back cross
b. Criss-cross
c. Upgrade
d. Cross breeding

71. The method of crossing wherein the first generation crosses are mated with their parents
a. Back cross
b. Criss-cross
c. Upgrade
d. Cross breeding

72. Crossing the first generation with the male belonging to each of the parent breeds alternately
a. Criss-cross
b. Back cross
c. Upgrade
d. Inbreeding

73. In this selection of breed, this trait is the aptitude to tolerate the environmental condition without drop in the egg production
a. Hardiness high productivity
b. Low feed consumption
c. Product quality
d. None of these

74. The breed of commercial hybrid layers with white eggs

a. White Leghorn
b. Barred Playmouth Rock
c. New Hamshire
d. Rhode Island Red

75. Example of layer from the Institute of Animal Selection (IAS) strain
a. Warren
b. Starcross
c. Hissex
d. Golden comet

76. The red jungle fowl from East Java, Burma, Thailand and Sumatra
a. Gallus bankciva
b. Gallus soneratti
c. Gallus varius
d. Gallus lafayetti

77. Class of breeding based on purpose/use of breeding

a. Economic
b. Standard
c. Weight
d. All of these

78. Native chicken are popular because people

a. People like the eggs of the native chicken
 b. People prefer the tough meat
c. Maintenance cost are low
d. All of the above

79. Annual egg production of native chicken

a. 50-60 eggs
b. 100-150 eggs
c. 200-340 eggs
d. 260-280 eggs

80. Term applied to designate mature domestic cocks and hen

a. Poultry
b. Fowl
c. Chicken
d. Chicks

81. Young domestic ostrich in the downy stage

a. Chick
b. Poult
c. keet
d. Gosling

82. A male fowl one year old or over

a. Cob
b. Gobbler
c. Cock
d. Drake

83. Unsexed female fowl is known as

a. Capon
b. Pullet
c. Poulard
d. Poult

84. Race of domestic fowls, which maintain distinctive characteristics of shape, growth, temperament and color of egg shells.
a. Variety
b. Strain
c. Breed
d. Type

85. Poultry species having 39 pairs of chromosomes

a. Chicken
b. Quail
c. Guinea fowl
d. All of these

86. Poultry species having 40 pairs of chromosomes

a. Duck
b. Geese
c. Turkey
d. All of these

87. The incubation period of muscovy duck

a. 35 days
b. 21 days
c. 28 days
d. 24 days

88. This is the incubation period of quails

a. 16-18 days
b. 30-34 days
c. 26-28 days
d. 22-24 days

89. The egg weight of geese is

a. 58-60 grams
b. 70-80 grams
c. 85-89 grams
d. 130 –200 grams

90. The egg weight of guinea fowl is

a. 40-48 grams
b. 13-15 grams
c. 55-61 grams
d. 17-18 grams

91. The incubation period of mallard duck is

a. 21 days
 b. 28 days
c. 35 days
d. 14 days

92. The incubation of turkey is

a. 17 days
b. 42 days
c. 28 days
d. 21 days

93. Example of toxic material found in paint in greater amount is

a. Lead
b. Arsenic
c. Cadmium
d. Mercury

94. The toxic mineral known as industrial pollutant

a. Arsenic
b. Lead
c. Cadmium
d. Mercury

95. The fat-soluble vitamin needed in Calcium and phosphorus metabolism

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin K

96. The vitamin necessary in all metabolism and anti-oxidation

a. Vitamin K
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin D

97. Vitamin needed only by humans, monkey and Guinea pigs

a. Vitamin E
b. Vitamin B1
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D

98. After palay milling, the level of rice bran in palay is about
a. 3
b. 10
c. 20
d. 17

99. Storage of bran and rice polishing is difficult because of

a. High oil content
b. High silica of hull
c. To fine to become dusty
d. Bulkiness of the stuff

100. In general all grain products need this supplement

a. Calcium
b. Phosphorus
c. Magnesium
d. Salt

101. Wheat is scientifically known as:

a. Glysine max
b. Triticum sativum
c. Arachis hypogea
d. Manihat utilisima

102. Cassava contains this substance that makes the taste bitter in some varieties
a. Prusic acid
b. Anti-trypsin factor acid
c. Tannin
d. Mimosine

103. Kapok seeds cannot be fed by monogastrics due to tannin. Kapok is known scientifically as:
a. Heliantus annus
b. Henca Brasiliensis
c. Ceiba petandra
d. Arachis hypogea

104. The mineral needed in trace amount includes

a. Sodium
 b. Calcium
c. Copper
d. Potassium

105. The mineral needed as macroelement in poultry

a. Iodine
b. Iron
c. Selenium
d. Phosphorus

106. Poultry eat a daily amount of feed that is equivalent to approximately_____ percent of their bodyweight
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 3%

107. The percent crude protein of quail starter should be

a. 23-27% CP
b. 18-22% CP
c. 10-14% CP
d. 20-22% CP

108. The site of bacterial fermentation of undigested food in poultry

a. Small intestine
b. Large intestine
c. Cloaca
d. Ceca

109. This organ has thick glandular mucous membrane that secretes hydrochloric acid and pepsinogen
a. Gizzard
b. Proventiculus
c. Crop
d. Cloaca

110. The CP content of grower mash

a. 16%
b. 18%
c. 20%
d. 24%

111. Method of feeding grain to broiler parent stock

a. Place in hopper
b. Broadcast in litter
c. Place in a round feeder
d. Place in automatic feeder

112. Most practical way to feed broiler

a. Ad libitum
b. Skip-a-day
c. Restricted feeding
d. Phase feeding

113. A disease condition is observed when

a. There are sub-clinical pathological processes
b. There is imbalance between infection pressure and resistance of animals
c. Normal body functions of tissues or organ are impaired
d. All of the above

114. This refers to the general susceptibility of animals to diseases either acquired or genetically present at birth/development
a. Predisposition
b. Condition
c. Constitution
d. Behavior

115. Diseases, which are easily spread from one animal to another
a. Contagious diseases
b. Zoonotic diseases
c. Acute diseases
d. Nutritional defects

116. Pathogens, which can neither be classified as plants or animals

a. Viruses
b. Bacteria
c. Yeast
d. Fungi

117. Organisms that live at the expense of live plants or animals

a. Parasite
 b. Saprophytes
c. Microorganism
d. Commensals

118. The process of anaerobic breakdown of carbohydrates used for the production of alcohol, vinegar and lactic acid
a. Fermentation
b. Bio-synthesis
c. Symbiosis
d. Mineralization

119. The microorganism, which can only be seen by an electron microscope

a. Yeast
b. Fungi
c. Viruses
d. Bacteria

120. Pathogenic agents can damage the tissue by loss of resistance known as
a. Anemia
b. Necrosis
c. Immunosuppression
d. Diarrhea

121. The science of the specific defense mechanisms of the body against pathological processes
a. Immunity
b. Immunology
c. Pathology
d. Enzymology

122. The disease of poultry known as Avian pest

a. Gumboro disease
b. New Castle Disease
c. Fowl fox
d. Lymphoid lenkosis

123. The basic unit of inheritance

a. Cell
b. Chromosomes
c. Genes
d. Nucleus

124. The disease that could be prevented by vaccination through the wing-web method
a. Avian Pest
b. Fowl fox
c. Herpes Virus of turkey
d. Infectious Bursal Disease

125. During vaccination, skim milk is usually added to

a. Supplement the feed as protein source
b. Decrease the effect of vaccination
c. Increase potency of vaccine
d. Improve the drinking capacity of poultry

126. Bacterial disease of poultry cause by Mycoplasma gallisepticum

a. Avian Leucosis
b. Infectious Coryza
c. Chronic Reespiratory disease
d. Fowl cholera

127. Bacterial disease caused by Salmonella gallinarum

a. Fowl thypoid
b. Pullorum
c. Fowl cholera
d. Fowl fox

128. Aspergillosis, a disease caused by Aspergillusfumigatus

a. Viral disease
b. Bacterial disease
c. Protozoan disease
d. Fungal disease

129. The disease characterized by swollen disease of poultry

a. Coryza
b. Fowl fox
c. Chronic Respiratory disease
d. Avian pest

130. Hypodermic infection is similar to

a. Intramascular route
 b. Intra ocular
c. Per os method
d. Intranasal method

131. Hitcher B1 strain of vaccine is

a. Fowl fox
b. Avian pest
c. Fowl cholera
d. Marek’s disease

132. The vaccine usually administered in the hatchery at day-old

a. Fowl fox vaccine
b. Bursal disease vaccine
c. La sota vaccine
d. Marek’s disease vaccine

133. These antibiotics are bacteriostatic except

a. Tetracycline
b. Erythromycin
c. Bacitricin
d. Tylosine

134. These are bactericidal antibiotics that can kill bacteria except:
a. Penicillin
b. Streptomycin
c. Neomycin
d. Lincomycin

135. Ecto-parasites that have no wings

a. Ticks
b. Fleas
c. Mite
d. House flies

136. Very small ecto-parasites barely visible by naked eyes

a. Mites
b. Ticks
c. Fleas
d. Lice

137. Most endo-parasites are round worms and can also be called
a. Annelids
b. Nematodes
c. Cestodes
d. Trematodes

138. Tapeworms are also known as

a. Trematodes
b. Cestodes
c. Nematodes
d. Annelids

139. Excretion of pathogenic agents in this group is dangerous because detection is nearly impossible and the quality of pathogens may be
high
a. Sick animals
b. Animals in the incubation period
c. Recovered animals
d. Sub-clinical infections

140. Any disease is a stress, which can have this effect

a. Immunosuppression
b. Decreased intestinal function
c. Recovered animals
d. Sub-clinical infections

141. Protozoans that moves by making projections

a. Sporozoa
b. Rhizopoda
c. Flagellates
d. Ciliates

142. Viral disease can be prevented only by vaccination because

a. It is caused by viruses and no drugs exists against these diseases
b. Drug act on enzymes but viruses use the enzyme of host
c. When a virus enters a cell, it losses its mantle of proteins
d. All of the above

143. The management problem resulting to mortalities due to lack of water and feed intake is
 a. Starve outs
b. Piling
c. Cannibalism
d. Wet litter

144. Too high mortality in growing birds can be due to

a. Disease and parasites
b. High stocking density
c. Poor debeaking
d. All of these

145. Too much feed consumption during the rearing period can be due to
a. Poor quality feed
b. Feed wastage
c. Feed eaten by rats and mites
d. All of these

146. The growing pullets had slow growth rate because of

a. High house temperature
b. Diseases
c. Poor quality feed
d. All of these

147. High mortality in laying house can be due to

a. Poor debeaking
b. High stocking rate
c. Disease
d. All of these

148. The reason why layers have poor quality eggs

a. Poor design of nest
b. Age of birds
c. High temperature
d. All of these

149. Toxin produced from secondary metabolites of mold is

a. Endotoxin
b. Aflatoxin
c. Toxoid
d. Autotoxin

150. A chick can be resistant or immunologically adult at

a. 3 months
b. 9 weeks
c. 3 weeks
d. 6 months

151. Deficiency of this nutrient can permanently damage the immunological system of bird
a. Carbohydrates
b. Protein
c. Vitamins
d. Minerals

152. Organ lesions can lower resistance like liver, which can be damage by
a. Intestinal disorder
b. Intoxications
c. Disease and stress
d. All if the above

153. The meat per capita consumption in the Philippines

a. 43.1 kg
b. 50 kg
c. 30 kg
d. 41.3 kg

154. The Beef Cattle Production System composed of

a. Backyard
b. Commercial
c. Semi- commercial
d. All of the above

155. There are at least-accredited feedlots in the Philippines

a. 18
b. 180
c. 280
d. 80

156. The largest feedlot in the Philippines at present is

 a. Monterey
b. Dealco
c. El Rancho
d. Del Monte

157. The scientific name of Aurochs is

a. Bos auros
b. Bos longifrons
c. Bos taurus
d. Bos premigenus

158. The 997,000 Philippines pastures land can support

a. 500,000 A.U
b. 5,000 A.U
c. 500 A.U.
d. None of the above

159. The commercial cow-calf operations of the country are located in

a. Pangasinan
b. Masbate
c. Bukidnon
d. All of these

160. The total agricultural lands devoted to crops of the country like the rice-lands, corn-land, coconut farming, etc. can support
a. 10 M A.U.
b. 12 M A.U.
c. 11 M A.U.
d. None of the above

161. Herd division is merely grouping the cattle/ buffalo according to

a. Age
b. Purpose
c. Size
d. All of the above

162. The A.U. equivalent of a Heifer is

a. 0.75
b. 0.50
c. 0.25
d. 1.0

163. The total A.U. of 5 yearlings in the herd is

a. 1.5
b. 2.5
c. 3.5
d. 4.5

164. The daily dry matter requirement of a 300 kg feedlot cattle

a. 7.5 kg
b. 6.5 kg
c. 6.0 kg
d. 9.0 kg

165. The roughage dry matter requirement of a 400 kg mature cattle with a roughage to concentrate ratio of 80:20
a. 6.4 kg
b. 8.4 kg
c. 7.4 kg
d. None of the above

166. What is the total number of vegetative planting materials needed for 1 ha if the distance between furrows is 0.7 m and 0.5 m between
hills?
a. 20,000
b. 25,000
c. 20,666
d. 26,666

167. What is the total daily soilage requirement of 180 kg young cattle if soilage contains 20% DM?
a. 27 kg
b. 20 kg
c. 25 kg
d. 30 kg

168. This ensures the appropriate nutrition of the various age groups of the herd
a. Herd division
b. Herd management
c. Nutritional requirement
d. None of the above
169. The most common and legal means of identifying beef cattle ownership
a. Hide branding
b. Horn branding
c. Earnotching
d. Tattooing

170. The average gestation period of beef cattle is

a. 270 days
b. 283 days
c. 290 days
d. 273 days

171. Bullock is usually a stag that is used for

a. Milk
b. Draft
c. Meat
d. Fattening

172. Beef cattle that are common in tropical countries are

a. Bos Taurus
b. Bos indicus
c. Bos bobalus
d. Bos aurochs

173. Gestation period of goat

a. 165 days
b. 265 days
c. 150 days
d. 157 days

174. Scientific names of goat

a. Capra aries
b. Ovies hircus
c. Capra circus
d. Capra hircus

175. The largest part of the cattle digestive system and serve as fermentation chamber
a. Omasum
b. Reticulum
c. Small intestine
d. Rumen

176. The heat cycle of goat

a. 31 days
b. 21 days
c. 41 days
d. 11 days

177. The matured weight of a native goat is

a. 20-25 kg
b. 15-20 kg
c. 20-30 kg
d. 30-40 kg

178. The chromosome number of goat is

a. 54
b. 60
c. 64
d. 72

179. The chromosome number of sheep is

a. 64
b. 44
c. 54
d. 74

180. The latest breed of goat in the Philippines is

a. Anglo- Nubian
b. Saanem
c. Boer
d. Kiko

181. The term for female goat is

a. Boe
b. Doe
c. Sow
d. Dam
182. The term for male goat is
a. Buck
b. Boar
c. Ram
d. Stag

183. The term for female sheep

a. Doe
b. Dam
c. Ewe
d. Mare

184. The term for male sheep

a. Ram
b. Buck
c. Stag
d. Steer

185. The term for mother goat or sheep

a. Dam
b. Doe
c. Ewe
d. Stallion

186. The term for young goat is

a. Kid
b. Nanny
c. Billy
d. Gouty

187. The act of parturition in goat is

a. Goating
b. Kidding
c. Lambing
d. Farrowing

188. The breed of goat with long pendulous ears and distinct roman nose is
a. Boer
b. Anglo-Nubian
c. Toggenburg
d. Kambing kajang

189. The act of parturition in sheep is

a. Sheeping
b. Lambing
c. Darling
d. Ewing

190. The goat is said to be

a. Grazers
b. Growsers
c. Browsers
d. Bowsers

191. The sheep is said to be

a. Grazers
b. Growsers
c. Browsers
d. Bowsers

192. The first milk of goat is called

a. Colostrum
b. Fresh milk
c. Non-allergenic milk
d. Skim milk

193. The queen dairy goat is

a. Queeny
b. Alpine
c. Saanen
d. Kiko

194. The castrated ram is called

a. Wether
b. Fether
c. Bether
d. Rather
195. The meat of goat is called
a. Lapan
b. Chevrons
c. Mutton
d. Chevon

196. The meat of sheep is called

a. Lapan
b. Chevrons
c. Mutton
d. Chevon

197. The prehensile organ of goat is

a. Lips
b. Mouth
c. Tongue
d. Teeth

198. The matured goat consumes ______ of clean water a day

a. 1.5 liters
b. 2 liters
c. 2.5 liters
d. 3 liters

199. The other term for female goat

a. Nanny
b. Jenny
c. Kelly
d. Golly

200. The other term for male goat is

a. Billy
b. Dilly
c. Timmy
d. Jonny
ANSWER KEY-

Animal Science Exam (Set 1)

1. A 11. C 21. D 31. A 41. A 51. B 61. B
2. B 12. C 22. A 32. A 42. A 52. B 62. A
3. C 13. D 23. B 33. D 43. C 53. D 63. B
4. A 14. C 24. A 34. B 44. A 54. D 64. C
5. D 15. A 25. C 35. A 45. C 55. D 65. A
6. D 16. D 26. B 36. B 46. B 56. B 66. C
7. D 17. C 27. B 37. A 47. C 57. D 67. A
8. A 18. A 28. A 38. A 48. A 58. C 68. C
9. C 19. B 29. A 39. B 49. D 59. D 69. B
10. C 20. C 30. A 40. C 50. C 60. C

Mock Test In Animal Science (Set 2)

1. A 11. B 21. C 31. B 41. D 51. C 61. B 71. D 81. A 91. C
2. C 12. D 22. B 32. C 42. B 52. A 62. C 72. C 82. D 92. B
3. C 13. C 23. A 33. A 43. D 53. D 63. D 73. A 83. D 93. C
4. C 14. A 24. B 34. C 44. B 54. A 64. D 74. A 84. B 94. B
5. C 15. B 25. C 35. B 45. B 55. C 65. A 75. C 85. B 95. D
6. B 16. B 26. C 36. A 46. D 56. A 66. D 76. B 86. D 96. D
7. B 17. B 27. C 37. C 47. A 57. B 67. C 77. C 87. C 97. C
8. A 18. B 28. B 38. A 48. C 58. B 68. A 78. A 88. A 98. D
9. A 19. A 29. D 39. D 49. B 59. B 69. B 79. A 89. B 99. A
10. A 20. B 30. B 40. A 50. A 60. A 70. C 80. A 90. A
Animal Science Exam Part 2
1. A 34. B 67. D 101. B 134. D 167. A
2. A 35. A 68. B 102. C 135. B 168. A
3. B 36. D 69. A 103. D 136. A 169. A
4. C 37. A 70. A 104. C 137. B 170. B
5. C 38. A 71. A 105. D 138. B 171. B
6. A 39. D 72. A 106. C 139. B 172. B
7. B 40. B 73. A 107. D 140. D 173. C
8. C 41. B 74. A 108. D 141. B 174. D
9. C 42. B 75. A 109. B 142. D 175. D
10. B 43. A 76. A 110. A 143. A 176. B
11. A 44. C 77. A 111. D 144. D 177. A
12. A 45. B 78. A 112. A 145. D 178. *
13. B 46. B 79. B 113. D 146. D 179. *
14. C 47. A 80. B 114. C 147. D 180. C
15. A 48. D 81. C 115. A 148. D 181. B
16. C 49. B 82. A 116. A 149. B 182. A
17. A 50. A 83. B 117. A 150. B 183. C
18. B 51. C 84. C 118. A 151. B 184. A
19. C 52. D 85. D 119. C 152. D 185. A
20. A 53. C 86. A 120. C 153. A 186. A
21. B 54. B 87. A 121. B 154. A 187. B
22. A 55. A 88. A 122. B 155. B 188. B
23. B 56. B 89. D 123. C 156. D 189. B
24. D 57. B 90. A 124. B 157. D 190. B
25. C 58. C 91. B 125. C 158. A 191. A
26. A 59. C 92. C 126. C 159. D 192. A
27. C 60. C 93. A 127. A 160. C 193. C
28. B 61. B 94. C 128. D 161. D 194. A
29. B 62. C 95. C 129. A 162. A 195. D
30. B 63. B 96. C 130. D 163. B 196. C
31. A 64. A 97. C 131. B 164. C 197. A
32. D 65. C 98. B 132. D 165. A 198. D
33. B 66. A 99. A 133. C 166. D 199. A
100. A 200. A