MBLEx Practice Exams PDF

Medical Massage Care’s
FSMTB Massage &

Bodywork Licensing
Examination MBLEx
Practice Exams
Philip Martin McCaulay
Medical Massage Care Authority, LLC

Medical Massage Care’s FSMTB Massage & Bodywork Licensing Examination MBLEx Practice Exams
© Copyright 2008. All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced or
transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic or mechanical, including photocopy,
recording, or any information storage or retrieval system, without permission in written form from
the publisher.
Permission may be sought by contacting

Medical Massage Care Authority, LLC:
E-mail: martinmccaulay@hotmail.com
Published in Cary, North Carolina, USA
ISBN: 978-0-557-03730-8
Library of Congress Control Number: 2008912239

Table of Contents
Exam 1 1
Exam 2 14
Exam 3 27
Exam 4 40
Exam 5 53
Exam 6 66
Exam 7 79
Exam 8 92
Exam 9 105
Exam 10 118
Exam 11 131
Exam 12 144
Exam 13 157
Exam 14 170
Exam 15 183
Exam 16 196
Exam 17 209
Exam 18 222
Exam 19 235
Exam 20 248
Reference List 262

Preface
Medical Massage Care’s FSMTB Massage & Bodywork Licensing
Examination MBLEx Practice Exams will help massage therapy students
pass the Massage & Bodywork Licensing Examination (MBLEx)
administered by the Federation of State Massage Therapy Boards
(FSMTB). This book includes twenty complete 125-question practice
exams, for a total of 2,500 questions. The questions on the practice
exams have the same percentage weights as the content of the FSMTB
MBLEx exam.
Percent of Number of Question

Content Exam Questions Numbers
Anatomy & Physiology 14 percent 18 1-18
Kinesiology 11 percent 14 19-32
Pathology,
Contraindications, Areas of
13 percent 16 33-48
Caution, and Special
Populations
Benefits and Physiological
Effects of Techniques that 17 percent 21 49-69
Manipulate Soft Tissue
Client Assessment,
Reassessment & Treatment 17 percent 21 70-90
Planning
Overview of Massage &
Bodywork History / Culture 5 percent 6 91-96
/ Modalities
Ethics, Boundaries, Laws,
13 percent 16 97-112
and Regulations
Guidelines for Professional
10 percent 13 113-125
Practice
Total 100 percent 125 1-125
After taking the practice exams and identifying areas of content that
require further study, students are encouraged to focus on those
sections from Medical Massage Care’s FSMTB Massage & Bodywork
Licensing Examination MBLEx Study Guide. It is estimated that exam
candidates will need a score of at least 70%, or 88 correct answers out of
the 125 questions, to successfully complete the MBLEx.
Exam 1
1. Which refers to the 6. What type of cartilage is rigid

microscopic study of tissues? and made of dense fibrous
A. Histology tissue, such as the cartilage in
B. Pathophysiology intervertebral disks?
C. Neuromuscular therapy A. Osteoporosis
D. Reflexology B. Axial
C. Fibrocartilage
2. What is the order of the levels D. Elastic cartilage
of organization in the body,
from smallest to largest? 7. What is the order of these
A. Cellular, chemical, atom, major structures of the brain
organ, systemic, body stem, starting with most
B. Chemical, cellular, organ, superior / cranial?
tissue, systemic, earth A. Medulla oblongata, pons,
C. Chemical, cellular, tissue, midbrain, diencephalons
organ, systemic, body B. Midbrain, diencephalons,
D. Cellular, chemical, organ, metastasis, pons
tissue, body, systemic C. Diencephalons, mandible,
medulla oblongata, pons
3. What is an increase in the size D. Diencephalons, midbrain,
of cells without cell division? pons, medulla oblongata
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis 8. Which is a function of the
C. Atrophy autonomic nervous system
D. Hypertrophy under parasympathetic control?
A. Increased heartbeat
4. What is the order of the layers B. Constricted blood vessels
of skin from most superficial to C. Increased peristalsis
most deep? D. Decreased secretion of
A. Epidermis, dermis, digestive juices
subcutaneous
B. Epidermis, arteries, dermis 9. Which is a gland the size of a
C. Dermis, epidermis, bone grape?
D. Dermis, epidermis, A. Thymus
hypodermis B. Pituitary
C. Mastoid
5. Which type of epithelial D. Patella
membrane are the pleura?
A. Mucous
B. Serous
C. Autoimmune
D. Synovial
Page 1
10. What receives oxygenated 16. Which actions occur in the

blood from the pulmonary sagittal plane?
veins? A. Flexion and extension
A. Pulmonary arteries B. Adduction and abduction
B. Aorta C. Rotation and circumduction
C. Right atrium D. Supination and pronation
D. Left atrium
17. Where is the cervical region?
11. What is a hormone secreted A. Head
by the pyloric area of the B. Temples
stomach and duodenum? C. Neck
A. Gastrin D. Shoulders
B. Melatonin
C. Trigger point 18. Which energetic
D. Fissure lesion manipulation technique
involves the liver meridian
12. Which connects two bones? beginning at the great toe,
A. Tendons ending at the chest, and being
B. Fascia associated with the flow of ki?
C. Ligaments A. Acupressure
D. Bursa B. Shiatsu
C. Acupuncture
13. What is a section of skin D. All of the above
supplied by a single spinal
nerve? 19. When the elbow extends,
A. Dorsal root ganglion what is the biceps?
B. Reflex mechanism A. Agonist
C. Dermatome B. Antagonist
D. Myotome C. Synergist
D. Prime mover
14. Which means closer to the
trunk or point of origin? 20. Which of these muscles
A. External originates at the lateral
B. Internal supracondylar ridge of the
C. Proximal humerus?
D. Distal A. Flexor carpi radialis
B. Palmaris longus
15. Where is the ulna relative to C. Extensor carpi radialis longus
the radius? D. Extensor carpi ulnaris
A. Proximal
B. Distal
C. Medial
D. Lateral
Page 2
21. Where is the medial 27. Which muscle of the right

longitudinal arch? forearm would be used to turn
A. First metatarsal to fifth a screwdriver clockwise?
metatarsal A. Brachialis
B. Calcaneus to first metatarsal B. Pronator teres
C. Calcaneus to fifth metatarsal C. Supinator
D. Calcaneus to malleolus D. Gluteus minimus
22. How many phalanges does 28. Which muscle extends and
the foot have? laterally rotates the hip, and
A. 5 flexes the knee?
B. 8 A. Rectus femoris
C. 14 B. Biceps femoris
D. 15 C. Gluteus minimus
D. Palmaris longus
23. What best describes the
shape of pectoralis major? 29. What type of contraction
A. Parallel occurs when one lowers a
B. Convergent book onto a table?
C. Multi-belly A. Concentric
D. Bipennate B. Reciprocal inhibition
C. Eccentric
24. What movement occurs at D. Isometric
the radioulnar joint?
A. Rotation 30. Which muscle would
B. Abduction predominantly have fast
C. Adduction twitch fibers?
D. Elevation A. Erector spinae
B. Soleus
25. Which muscle flexes the C. Deltoid
elbow, supinates the forearm, D. Transversospinalis
and flexes the shoulder?
A. Triceps brachii 31. What happens in an isotonic
B. Deltoid muscle contraction?
C. Trapezius A. The length of the muscle
D. Biceps brachii changes
B. The length of the muscle
26. Which muscle originates at does not change
the posterior iliac crest? C. The muscle lengthens but
A. Deltoid does not shorten
B. Biceps femoris D. The muscle shortens but
C. Sartorius does not lengthen
D. Quadratus lumborum
Page 3
32. Which is a ball and socket 38. Which rhythms repeat

joint? themselves every 24 hours?
A. Hip A. Circadian rhythms
B. Thumb B. Biological rhythms
C. Knee C. Ultradian rhythms
D. Elbow D. Seasonal rhythms
33. What is inflammation of the 39. What is the growth of a

sheath surrounding a tendon? calcium deposit in soft tissues,
A. Tenosynovitis which is always a local
B. Mitosis contraindication for massage?
C. Fibrosis A. Fibromyalgia
D. Edema B. Muscular dystrophy
C. Myositis ossificans
34. What is a congenital disease? D. Shin splints
A. A disease that deteriorates
B. A disease spread by mold or 40. What are amphetamines,
yeast adrenergic medications,
C. A disease with no known anticonvulsants, and
cause antiparkinson agents?
D. A disease present at birth A. Hormones
B. Anti-infectives
35. What refers to a disease of C. Antineoplastics
short duration? D. Central nervous system
A. Malignant medications
B. Chronic
C. Acute 41. What is the order of the five
D. Metastatic stages of acute fracture
healing after hematoma
36. What is the expected formation and before
outcome of a disease? remodeling?
A. Diagnosis A. Callus formation,
B. Prognosis ossification, strain
C. Pathology B. Cellular proliferation, callus
D. Etiology formation, ossification
C. Ossification, cellular
37. What refers to the proliferation, callus
decreasing size of tissue? formation
A. Atrophy D. Callus formation, sprain,
B. Entrainment ossification
C. Hypertrophy
D. Ambulatory
Page 4
42. What results in the popping 47. Which area is associated with
sound of the the cephalic vein and the
temporomandibular joint? nerves of the brachial plexus?
A. Whiplash A. Posterior triangle of the neck
B. Subluxation B. Anterior triangle of the neck
C. Dislocation C. Axillary area
D. Fracture D. Oblique plane
43. What kind of fracture 48. What are the sides of the
involves an incomplete break anterior triangle of the neck
in the bone causing it to split, endangerment site?
common in children? A. Mandible, clavicle, and
A. Greenstick fracture trachea
B. Depressed fracture B. SCM, mandible, and trachea
C. Impacted fracture C. Frontal, sagittal, and
D. Spondylitis transverse
D. Mandible, trachea, and
44. What is whiplash? trapezius
A. Tennis elbow
B. Spasm in SCM causing head 49. What is a reflex effect of
to tilt massage?
C. Frozen shoulder A. Normalizing system function
D. Cervical acceleration- B. Increased mental clarity
deceleration injury C. Pain reduction
D. All of the above
45. What is plantar fasciitis?
A. Pain and inflammation from 50. What is an effect of massage
calcaneus to metatarsals on the cardiovascular system?
B. Spasm in SCM causing head A. Reduces hyperthermia
to tilt B. Reduces cortisol levels
C. Frozen shoulder C. Dilates blood vessels
D. Whiplash D. Reduces superficial keloid
formation
46. What is a lateral curvature of
the spine? 51. If a client is functioning from
A. Scoliosis parasympathetic nervous
B. Gibbus system dominance, what
C. Kyphosis would be an appropriate
D. Lordosis initial stroke?
A. Gentle rocking
B. Kneading
C. Brisk effleurage
D. Tapotement
Page 5
52. What is the external 57. What is a physical effect of

application of cold for massage?
therapeutic purposes? A. Relieves muscle cramps and
A. Hydrotherapy spasms
B. Cryotherapy B. Improves circulation of blood
C. Thermotherapy and lymph
D. Hunting response C. Enhances removal of
metabolic waste
53. What is the R.I.C.E.S. First D. All of the above
Aid principle?
A. Rest, Immersion, 58. What is a direct physical
Compression, Elevation and effect of massage?
Sponging A. Reflexive effect
B. Rest, Ice, Compression, B. Mechanical effect
Elevation, and Stabilization C. Psychological effect
C. Rest, Ice, Compression, D. All of the above
Energy and Sponging
D. Resistance, Immersion, 59. What is an effect of massage
Contrasting, Elevation and on the skin?
Sponging A. Reddening and warming of
skin
54. What is the maximum B. Decreased activity of sweat
temperature that the skin can and oil glands
tolerate for a hot bath? C. Decreased circulation to the
A. 32 degrees Fahrenheit or 0 skin
degrees Celsius D. All of the above
B. 77 degrees Fahrenheit or 25
degrees Celsius 60. What has beneficial effects
C. 115 degrees Fahrenheit or 46 similar to exercise?
degrees Celsius A. Active joint movements
D. 140 degrees Fahrenheit or 60 B. Passive joint movements
degrees Celsius C. Friction
D. Effleurage
55. Which is the best transition
stroke? 61. What stimulates the
A. Friction sympathetic nervous system?
B. Tapotement A. Pre-event sports massage
C. Petrissage B. 15-minute chair massage
D. Effleurage C. Short, invigorating massage
D. All of the above
56. Which reduces scar tissue?
A. Kneading
B. Gliding
C. Cross fiber friction
D. Cupping
Page 6
62. Which stroke is generally 68. Which is not advisable for

applied first? pregnancy massage in the
A. Vibration second and third trimesters?
B. Superficial gliding A. Light effleurage
C. Percussion B. Lying prone
D. Friction C. Side-lying position
D. Supine position
63. Which stroke is appropriate
for treating a baseball pitcher 69. What is initially induced by
with a sore arm? cryotherapy?
A. Vibration A. Vasodilation
B. Deep gliding B. Rest
C. Cross-fiber friction C. Diathermy
D. Percussion D. Vasoconstriction
64. Which stroke is not a type of 70. What is appropriate for a

friction? client with chronic
A. Transverse constipation?
B. Cross fiber A. Stimulate peristaltic
C. Cupping contraction of the large
D. Circular intestine
B. Prescribe herbal remedies
65. Which stretching technique C. Reschedule the massage
has the client stretch into D. Perform the massage but
resistance and apply light avoid the abdomen
contraction?
A. Ballistic stretching 71. If a client has a forward head
B. Unassisted static stretching position, what is the most
C. Assisted static stretching appropriate treatment?
D. Reciprocal inhibition (RI) A. Lengthen and stretch SCM
and anterior scalene
66. What technique on the leg B. Lengthen and stretch upper
would create mobility at the trapezius and splenius
hip joint? C. Lengthen and stretch
A. Effleurage adductors and iliotibial tract
B. Rocking D. Shorten erector spinae
C. Reiki
D. Gliding 72. If a client has toeing out
when walking, what is the
67. Which stroke would be best most appropriate treatment?
for a ticklish client? A. Stretch the
A. Light effleurage metatarsophalangeal joints
B. Nerve strokes B. Stretch the plantar flexor
C. Feather strokes muscles
D. Compression C. Stretch the biceps femoris
D. Stretch the latissimus dorsi
Page 7
73. What is done if a client has 78. A tight and short psoas would
thoracic outlet syndrome? decrease the function of
A. Lengthen serratus anterior which muscle?
and soleus A. Rectus abdominis
B. Lengthen latissimus dorsi and B. Gluteus maximus
teres major C. Pectineus
C. Lengthen scalenes, SCMs, D. Erector spinae
pecs, and neck extensors
D. Lengthen biceps and triceps 79. What would most likely make
brachii the pelvis tilt forward?
A. Tight hamstrings
74. What would trigger points B. Weak low back muscles
along the psoas, quadratus C. Weak abdominal muscles
lumborum, and hamstrings D. Flexed knees
contribute to?
A. Brachial plexus impingement 80. If a client has lordotic
B. Sciatica posture, which muscles are
C. Tension headaches most likely short and strong?
D. Low back pain A. Anterior abdominals
B. Hamstrings
75. Where on the SOAP chart are C. Low back
referrals documented? D. Medial rotators of hip
A. Subjective
B. Objective 81. If a client complains of
C. Assessment tension headaches and tight
D. Plan muscles in the back of the
neck, what posture is most
76. Which is outside the scope of likely the cause?
practice of a massage A. Lordotic posture
therapist? B. Flat back
A. Postural assessment C. Flexed knees
B. Prescribing treatment D. Forward head and round
C. Manipulating soft tissues upper back
D. Homework
82. Regarding faulty posture of
77. What is the joint movement the feet, what happens with a
that requires the therapist to low longitudinal arch?
move the relaxed client? A. Flat foot
A. Active range of motion B. Slue-footed
B. Compensation pattern C. Pigeon-toed
C. Passive range of motion D. Calluses under ball of foot
D. Range of motion
Page 8
83. Which are short and strong 87. What type of assessment
with the right hip adducted involves temperature,
and medially rotated and left texture, tenderness, and tone?
hip abducted? A. Palpation
A. Right lateral trunk muscles, B. Gait
right hip adductors and left C. Needs
hip abductors D. Functional
B. Right peroneus longus and
brevis and left tibialis 88. What is an
posterior acceleration/deceleration
C. Left flexor hallucis longus injury to the head and neck?
and left flexor digitorum A. Frozen shoulder
longus B. Migraine
D. All of the above C. Plantar fasciitis
D. Whiplash
84. What is the appropriate
incline for the back of a chair 89. What is tennis elbow?
for good alignment in sitting A. Trigger finger
posture? B. Lateral epicondylitis
A. 0 degrees C. Medial epicondylitis
B. 10 degrees D. Golfer's elbow
C. 45 degrees
D. 90 degrees 90. What is an increase in the
normal thoracic kyphotic
85. How does a therapist test curve?
the left arm flexors? A. Thoracic outlet syndrome
A. Client holds left arm position B. Hyperkyphosis
against therapist's C. Scoliosis
superior/cephalad pressure D. Iliotibial band contracture
B. Client holds right arm
position against therapist's 91. What light massage
superior/cephalad pressure technique did Dr. Emil Vodder
C. Client holds left arm position and Dr. Estrid Vodder
against therapist's develop?
inferior/caudal pressure A. Neuromuscular therapy
D. Client holds right arm B. Manual lymph drainage
position against therapist's C. Reflexology
inferior/caudal pressure D. Ayurveda
86. What should be obtained 92. What type of sports massage

during the client consultation? is used for severe injuries?
A. Availability for next A. Pre-event massage
appointment B. Recovery massage
B. Payment in cash C. Chair massage
C. Informed consent D. Rehabilitation massage
D. Referrals
Page 9
93. Who developed Touch for 99. What is sexual touch from a
Health? professional bodyworker to a
A. Dr. Milton Trager client considered?
B. Dr. Ida Rolf A. Appropriate
C. Dr. John Thie B. Erotic
D. Per Henrik Ling C. Hostile
D. Touch technique
94. Which massage system uses
effleurage, petrissage, 100. What is not a violation of a
vibration, friction, and code of ethics?
tapotement? A. Exploiting the power
A. Swedish differential
B. German B. Working on a minor with
C. French and English parental consent
D. All of the above C. Informed consent violations
D. Misleading claims
95. What involves an energy flow
along a nerve tract? 101. What is in the therapeutic
A. Countertransference relationship?
B. Proprioceptor A. Confidentiality
C. Synergist B. Scope of practice
D. Meridians or channels C. Client-centered actions and
words
96. Which massage system uses D. All of the above
acupressure?
A. Chinese and Japanese 102. What are lines that
B. Swedish separate, limits, barriers,
C. Greek borders, and edges?
D. Indian and Hindu A. Informed consent
B. Boundaries
97. What are service limits and C. Medical advice
boundaries as determined by D. None of the above
legal, educational,
competency, and 103. What is needed before
accountability factors? working on a minor?
A. Code of ethics A. Psychological counseling
B. Informed consent B. Parental consent
C. Scope of practice C. Contract
D. Deductions D. None of the above
98. What is an example of a 104. What is name-dropping?

violation of a code of ethics? A. Confidentiality violation
A. Informed consent B. Practicing beyond scope of
B. Misleading claims practice
C. Right of refusal C. Violation of law
D. Contract D. None of the above
Page 10
105. What is appropriate for a 110. What is appropriate for the

therapist to do when seeing a therapist to discuss with the
client in a public place? client?
A. Ask how the last massage A. Finances
was B. Gossip
B. Do not bring up anything C. Personal issues
about the massage D. That the therapist has a cold
C. Ask when the therapist can
expect payment 111. What is the most
D. None of the above appropriate response if a
client asks to be touched in a
106. What is appropriate when a sexual manner?
client says they are going to A. Act as if nothing happened
stop taking their prescription B. Call 911
medication now? C. Remain professional and
A. Suggest the client discuss it explain the services
with their primary care D. Provide a referral
provider
B. Tell the client it is OK to 112. What is inappropriate
stop taking the medication activity during a massage
C. Answer A and B are correct session that would be
D. None of the above considered misconduct
involving sexual contact?
107. Massaging a family member A. Touching breasts for non-
involves what type of issue? therapeutic purposes
A. Financial impropriety B. Intercourse
B. Scope of practice C. Both A and B are correct
C. Dual relationship D. None of the above
D. None of the above
113. A therapist having
108. Who licenses? discomfort in what area
A. The government would indicate the massage
B. Associations table is probably too high?
C. Answer A and B are correct A. Upper back
D. None of the above B. Arms
C. Shoulders
109. Guidance on which topic is D. All of the above
typically not found in a code
of ethics? 114. What are the main reasons
A. Client relationships for using lubricants?
B. Professionalism A. Reduce risk of disease
C. Tax B. Reduce friction and increase
D. Scope of practice comfort
C. Warmth and modesty
D. Safety and sanitation
Page 11
115. Which is a noninfectious 120. Which vitamin is

disease? synthesized by ultraviolet
A. Athlete's foot radiation?
B. HIV A. Vitamin A
C. Hepatitis B B. Vitamin D
D. Diabetes C. Vitamin E
D. Saw palmetto
116. Which first aid kit item
would be used to clean a 121. What are advantages of
wound? self-employment?
A. Antibiotic A. Can focus on massage
B. Antiseptic B. Can set own schedule
C. Aspirin C. Steady income
D. Hydrocortisone D. All of the above
117. What uses leverage and 122. What would be used as a

structural alignment to road map to achieve goals?
prevent fatigue? A. Business plan
A. Asymmetric B. Resume
B. Body mechanics C. Marketing material
C. Laterally recumbent D. Financial records
D. Symmetric
123. What is barter income?
118. Which stance is best for A. Reportable to the IRS
deep effleurage? B. Tax deductible
A. Asymmetric C. Both A and B
B. Seated D. None of the above
C. Laterally recumbent
D. Symmetric 124. Which protects against an
adverse reaction to a lotion?
119. What are the main reasons A. General liability insurance
for draping? B. Product liability insurance
A. Reduce risk and prevent C. Professional liability
disease insurance
B. Reduce friction and increase D. Premises fire damage
comfort insurance for renters
C. Warmth and modesty
D. Safety and sanitation 125. What is deductible as a
business expense?
A. Royalties
B. Barter income
C. Tips
D. Continuing education
expenses
Page 12
Exam 1 Answer Key
1. A 43. A 85. C
2. C 44. D 86. C
3. D 45. A 87. A
4. A 46. A 88. D
5. B 47. C 89. B
6. C 48. B 90. B
7. D 49. D 91. B
8. C 50. C 92. D
9. B 51. A 93. C
10. D 52. B 94. D
11. A 53. B 95. D
12. C 54. C 96. A
13. C 55. D 97. C
14. C 56. C 98. B
15. C 57. D 99. C
16. A 58. B 100. D
17. C 59. A 101. D
18. D 60. A 102. B
19. B 61. D 103. B
20. C 62. B 104. A
21. B 63. C 105. B
22. C 64. C 106. A
23. B 65. B 107. C
24. A 66. B 108. A
25. D 67. D 109. C
26. D 68. B 110. D
27. C 69. D 111. C
28. B 70. A 112. C
29. C 71. B 113. D
30. C 72. B 114. B
31. A 73. C 115. D
32. A 74. D 116. B
33. A 75. D 117. B
34. D 76. B 118. A
35. C 77. C 119. C
36. B 78. B 120. B
37. A 79. C 121. B
38. A 80. C 122. A
39. C 81. D 123. A
40. D 82. A 124. B
41. B 83. A 125. D
42. B 84. B
Page 13
Exam 2
1. Which is the study of how 6. What is a thin membrane of

body parts work? connective tissue lining marrow
A. Hellerwork cavity of a bone containing
B. Embryology cells for growth and repair?
C. Reflexology A. Periosteum
D. Physiology B. Epidermis
C. Infraspinatus
2. Which level in the D. Endosteum
organization of the body
structure consists of related 7. What is usually the more
organs with a common moveable bone?
function? A. Origin
A. Molecular level B. Insertion
B. System level C. Prime mover
C. Tissue level D. Antagonist
D. Atomic level
8. Which component of the
3. What is the name for nuclear peripheral nervous system
division that distributes two controls smooth and cardiac
sets of chromosomes to two muscle?
separate nuclei? A. Autonomic
A. Mitosis B. Reflex arc
B. Mitochondria C. Somatic
C. DNA D. Cervical
D. The S phase
9. What secretes human growth
4. What is the passive movement hormones?
of ions from an area of higher A. Anterior pituitary gland
concentration to an area of B. Thymus
lower concentration? C. Hypogastric nerve
A. Phospholipid layer D. Right atrium
B. Diffusion
C. Filtration 10. What happens in pulmonary
D. Golgi apparatus circulation?
A. Blood unloads carbon dioxide
5. Which classification of and picks up oxygen
epithelia has many layers? B. Blood unloads oxygen and
A. Shiatsu picks up carbon dioxide
B. Lymph C. Blood unloads carbon dioxide
C. Columnar and oxygen
D. Stratified D. Blood picks up oxygen and
carbon dioxide
Page 14
11. Which system includes the 17. Where is the deltoid region?
nasal cavity, larynx, trachea, A. Armpit
bronchi, lungs, diaphragm, B. Between elbow and shoulder
and pharynx? C. Neck
A. Gastrointestinal D. Shoulders
B. Circulatory
C. Endocrine 18. Which method involves the
D. Respiratory kidney meridian beginning at
the foot, ending at the thorax,
12. Which cranial suture is the and being associated with the
articulation of the occipital impetus to move?
and parietal bones? A. Acupuncture
A. Umbilical B. Acupressure
B. Sagittal C. Shiatsu
C. Squamous D. All of the above
D. Lambdoidal
19. Which muscle fibers are
13. Which are nutrients that the pale, large in diameter, with
body requires an extremely few capillaries?
small amount to function A. Fast twitch
normally? B. Slow twitch
A. Plant and animal proteins C. Intermediate
B. Fat and carbohydrates D. All of the above
C. Lipids and fiber
D. Magnesium and zinc 20. Which of these muscles
originates at the lateral
14. Which means on or to the epicondyle of the humerus?
side? A. Flexor carpi radialis
A. Dorsal B. Soleus
B. Lateral C. Multifidi
C. Medial D. Extensor carpi ulnaris
D. Ventral
21. Where is the latitudinal arch?
15. Where are the phalanges A. First metatarsal to fifth
relative to the carpals? metatarsal
A. Proximal B. Calcaneus to first metatarsal
B. Distal C. Humerus to fifth metacarpal
C. Superficial D. Ulna to radius
D. Deep
22. How many phalanges does
16. Which body cavity is the hand have?
posterior to the diaphragm? A. 5
A. Cranial B. 8
B. Abdominal C. 14
C. Cervical D. 15
D. Vertebral
Page 15
23. What describes the shape of 29. Which extends the vertebral
extensor digitorum longus? column?
A. Circular A. Iliacus
B. Convergent B. Rectus abdominis
C. Unipennate C. Quadratus lumborum
D. Hinge D. Extensor carpi ulnaris
24. What is the thick, lubricating 30. What is a contraction in

substance secreted by a joint which the length of the
cavity membrane that reduces muscle does not change?
friction? A. Concentric
A. Joint capsule B. Isotonic
B. Synovial joint C. Eccentric
C. Synovial fluid D. Isometric
D. Suture
31. Which muscles have a higher
25. Which muscle crosses two percentage of fast-twitch
joints? white fibers?
A. Tibialis anterior A. Soft tissues
B. Frontalis B. Postural muscles
C. Gastrocnemius C. Connective tissue
D. Peroneus longus D. Phasic muscles
26. Which is an action of teres 32. What happens in an isometric

minor? muscle contraction?
A. Flex the elbow A. The length of the muscle
B. Medially rotate the shoulder changes
C. Horizontally abduct the B. The length of the muscle
shoulder does not change
D. Adduct the wrist C. The muscle lengthens but
does not shorten
27. Which muscle flexes, D. None of the above
laterally rotates, and abducts
the hip; and flexes and 33. What is the study of disease?
medially rotates the knee? A. Anthropology
A. Psoas major B. Diagnosis
B. Biceps femoris C. Pharmacology
C. Sartorius D. Pathology
D. Brachialis
34. What is a degenerative
28. What stabilizes the ulna disease?
during flexion and supination? A. Disease that deteriorates
A. Metacarpophalangeal joints B. Disease spread by mold or
B. Deltoid yeast
C. Bicipital aponeurosis C. Disease with no known cause
D. Radial carpal joint D. Disease present at birth
Page 16
35. What is nonmalignant or not 40. What are non-narcotic pain

progressive? relievers and narcotics?
A. Benign A. Analgesics
B. Metastatic B. Anti-inflammatory
C. Cancer medications
D. Somatic C. Antineoplastics
D. Central nervous system
36. What is the categorization of medications
a disease by a licensed
medical professional? 41. What are the implications for
A. Diagnosis massage for a client taking
B. Prognosis analgesics?
C. Pathology A. Watch for bruising
D. Etiology B. Pain perception is inhibited
C. Massage can help with
37. Is massage indicated or constipation
contraindicated for chronic D. All of the above
fatigue syndrome?
A. Indicated 42. What is used for coughs and
B. Contraindicated inflammation of the pharynx?
C. Local contraindication A. Peppermint
D. A medical diagnosis is B. Ma-huang
required before a massage C. Ginseng
D. St. John's Wort
38. Is massage indicated or
contraindicated for an open 43. What kind of fracture
wound? involves the bone in skull
A. Indicated being driven inward?
B. Contraindicated A. Greenstick fracture
C. Local contraindication B. Depressed fracture
D. Contraindicated in the acute C. Comminuted fracture
stage D. Stress fracture
39. Which is true regarding 44. What is lateral epicondylitis?

Hepatitis B? A. Tennis elbow
A. It is 100 times more B. Golfer's elbow
contagious than HIV C. Pitcher's elbow
B. Vaccines are not effective D. Frozen shoulder
C. It accounts for 100% of all
new hepatitis cases 45. What is the result of an
D. It is transmitted through injury to the ulnar nerve?
contaminated food and A. List
water B. Loss of function of wrist and
fingers
C. Plantar fasciitis
D. Frozen shoulder
Page 17
46. What is associated with 51. What is an effect of massage

kyphotic-lordotic posture? on the skin?
A. Flat back A. Reduces heart rate
B. Forward head B. Stimulates sudoriferous gland
C. Normal anterior curve activity
D. All of the above C. Increases serotonin levels
D. Empty end feel
47. Which area is associated with
the ulnar nerve? 52. Which condition can benefit
A. Lateral epicondyle of the from massage?
humerus A. Temporomandibular joint
B. Medial epicondyle of the dysfunction
humerus B. Tonsillitis
C. Pelvic cavity C. Tuberculosis
D. Sciatic notch D. All of the above
48. Which of the following is a 53. Which is decreased as one of

component of the axillary the effects of massage?
area endangerment site? A. Dopamine
A. Vagus nerve B. Endorphins
B. Coccyx C. Cortisol
C. Cephalic vein D. Red blood cells
D. Ulnar nerve
54. Which hydrotherapy
49. What are venous return, application uses friction?
lymph flow, and breaking A. Baths
adhesions examples of? B. Packs
A. Mechanical effects C. Sponging
B. Physiological effects D. Compresses
C. Reflex effects
D. Placebo effects 55. Which involves high
frequency hand movements?
50. Which is an effect of A. Deep fiber friction
massage processed through B. Superficial friction
the autonomic nervous system C. Tapotement
(ANS)? D. Vibration
A. The body / mind effect
B. The placebo effect 56. Which stroke would be best
C. Entrainment to use to finish with a client
D. All of the above having trouble sleeping?
A. Friction
B. Tapotement
C. Petrissage
D. Effleurage
Page 18
57. What is another name for 62. Which is a percussion

proprioceptive neuromuscular movement?
facilitation (PNF)? A. Hacking
A. Muscle guarding B. Kneading
B. Stretching C. Gliding
C. Trigger point therapy D. Friction
D. Muscle energy techniques
63. Which stroke is a kneading
58. What is not a physical effect technique?
of massage? A. Vibration
A. Decreases in muscle cramps B. Deep gliding
and spasms C. Fulling
B. Increases circulation of blood D. Friction
and lymph
C. Increases removal of 64. Which stroke is not a type of
metabolic waste percussion?
D. Reduces anxiety A. Beating
B. Gliding
59. What is a psychological C. Slapping
effect of massage? D. Tapping
A. Increases anxiety
B. Helps clients become aware 65. How can position release
of where there is muscle techniques be done?
tension A. Isometric contraction
C. Relieves muscle cramps B. Isotonic contraction
D. Increases circulation C. Isokinetic contraction
D. All of the above
60. What is initiated by
stimulation of the 66. Which stroke breaks down
parasympathetic nervous scar tissue?
system? A. Effleurage
A. Reduced heart rate B. Friction
B. Blood diverted to muscles C. Deep tissue
C. Elimination and digestion D. Percussion
inhibited
D. All of the above 67. What is a guideline for
massaging persons with
61. What massage movement cancer?
causes a contraction of the A. Take a complete medical
blood vessels which tend to history
relax as the movement is B. Consult the physician
continued? C. Develop a treatment plan
A. Light percussion D. All of the above
B. Light stroking
C. Deep stroking
D. All of the above
Page 19
68. Which method applies cold? 73. Which muscles are

A. Hydrotherapy overactive if a client has
B. Cryotherapy shoulder pain, low back pain,
C. Cross-fiber friction and a headache when flexing
D. Percussion the shoulders?
A. Abdominal complex
69. What is the "E" in the B. Erector spinae, psoas, and
R.I.C.E.S. first aid principle? rectus abdominis
A. End feel C. Upper trapezius and
B. Elevate ipsilateral quadratus
C. Exacerbate lumborum
D. Excite D. Gluteus maximum and
gastrocnemius
70. If a client has kyphotic-
lordotic posture, what is the 74. What would be a more
most appropriate treatment? comfortable position for
A. Lengthen psoas major and clients with allergies and cold-
upper trapezius related respiratory
B. Lengthen biceps femoris and congestion?
SCM A. Supine
C. Lengthen soleus and B. Prone
gastrocnemius C. Side-lying
D. Shorten iliacus and rectus D. Recumbent
capitis posterior major
75. What are the SOAP headings?
71. If a client has a prominent or A. Synopsis, objective,
high right hip, what is the assessment, plan
most appropriate treatment? B. Subjective, origin, analysis,
A. Stretch knee flexors and hip plan
flexors C. Subjective, objective,
B. Stretch hip medial rotators assessment, prognosis
C. Stretch right lateral trunk D. Subjective, objective,
and left lateral thigh muscles assessment, plan
D. Stretch serratus anterior
76. Which would generally be
72. What is done if a client has included on an intake form?
retracted shoulders? A. Code of ethics
A. Stretch serratus anterior B. Range of motion assessment
B. Stretch rhomboids C. Health history and contact
C. Stretch rectus femoris information
D. Stretch extensor digitorum D. Financial records
longus
Page 20
77. What occurs when there is no 81. What happens to the feet
physical restriction to when standing in heels or
movement other than the pain walking fast?
expressed by the client? A. Less tendency towards
A. Soft tissue dysfunction pigeon-toes
B. Abnormal end feel B. Increase in out-toeing
C. Protective muscle C. Feet tend to become parallel
contraction D. Feet are more outward
D. Normal end feel rotating
78. Which muscles would 82. Which are long and weak
become dominant to with the pelvis laterally tilted
compensate for a weak and high left, left hip
gluteus medius? adducted and medially
A. Tensor fasciae latae and rotated, and right hip
adductors abducted?
B. Gracilis and biceps femoris A. Right lateral trunk muscles,
C. Semitendinosus and left hip abductors and right
semimembranosus hip adductors
D. Rectus femoris and biceps B. Left peroneus longus and
femoris brevis and right tibialis
posterior
79. What happens in the forward C. Right flexor hallucis longus
head position? and right flexor digitorum
A. Short and strong neck longus
extensors D. All of the above
B. Long anterior vertebral neck
flexors 83. Regarding faulty posture of
C. Weak anterior vertebral neck the feet, what happens when
flexors the ankle rolls out?
D. All of the above A. Pronation
B. Knock-knees
80. If a client has kyphotic- C. Bowlegs
lordotic posture, which D. Supination
muscles are most likely short
and strong?
A. Erector spinae
B. Neck extensors
C. External obliques
D. Hamstrings
Page 21
84. How does a therapist test 89. What is a painful significant

the left arm extensors? restriction of range of motion
A. Client holds left arm position at the shoulder?
against therapist's A. Tendonitis
superior/cephalad pressure B. Whiplash
B. Client holds right arm C. Frozen shoulder
position against therapist's D. Bursitis
superior/cephalad pressure
C. Client holds left arm position 90. What is an increase in the
against therapist's normal lumbar lordotic curve?
inferior/caudal pressure A. Hyperlordosis
D. Client holds right arm B. Hyperkyphosis
position against therapist's C. Scoliosis
inferior/caudal pressure D. Iliotibial band contracture
85. What is the first step of the 91. What did James Cyriax
client consultation? develop in his work on soft
A. Discuss fees tissue manipulation?
B. Greet client A. Swedish massage
C. Formulate treatment plan B. Manual lymph drainage
D. SOAP chart C. Reflexology
D. Deep transverse friction
86. Where on the SOAP chart
would the massage treatment 92. Which applies pressure to
given be documented? points on the hands and feet?
A. Subjective A. Reflexology
B. Observation B. Neuromuscular therapy
C. Assessment C. Deep transverse friction
D. Plan D. Hellerwork
87. What is an overuse condition 93. How does aromatherapy

resulting in inflammation in work?
the foot? A. Thermal properties
A. Frozen shoulder B. Stimulates olfactory nerve
B. Migraine C. Distraction
C. Plantar fasciitis D. Placebo response
D. Whiplash
94. Who is considered the father
88. What is inflammation of the of physical therapy?
common extensor tendon? A. Per Henrik Ling
A. Trigger finger B. Joseph Heller
B. Lateral epicondylitis C. Boris Chaitow
C. Medial epicondylitis D. Stanley Leif
D. Golfer's elbow
Page 22
95. Which early massage system 100. What is not a violation of a

described an ascete as a code of ethics?
person who exercises the mind A. Right of refusal
and body? B. Advertising
A. Greek C. Working on a minor with
B. German parental consent
C. Chinese D. All of the above
D. Indian
101. What is out of the
96. What is the path or way to therapeutic relationship?
sustain energy? A. Spiritual advice
A. Marketing B. Social needs
B. Tao C. Personal needs
C. Acupressure D. All of the above
D. Trigger point
102. What is an example of a
97. What occurs when a client's boundary?
expectations and behaviors A. Barrier
are moved to the therapist? B. Palpation assessment
A. Client-centered C. Both A and B are correct
B. Dual relationships D. None of the above
C. Transference
D. Ethics 103. Who can provide consent to
working on a minor?
98. Which section of a standards A. A legal guardian
of practice would contain B. Any relatives
guidance on advertising and C. A Friend
fees? D. All of the above
A. DBA
B. Confidentiality 104. Charging different fees if
C. Business practices the client pays in cash or
D. Prevention of sexual with insurance is what type
misconduct of unethical behavior?
A. Misrepresentation of
99. What is an example of a educational status
violation of a code of ethics? B. Financial impropriety
A. Contract C. Practicing beyond the scope
B. Right of refusal of practice
C. Dating a client D. None of the above
D. Informed consent
Page 23
105. What is the issue if a client 110. What is needed if a client

asks for information about asks for personal information
another client who they saw the therapist does not want
in the office? to share such as a home
A. Dual relationship phone number?
B. Transference A. Dual relationship
C. Countertransference B. Transference
D. Confidentiality C. Countertransference
D. Direct communication
106. What is outside the scope of
practice? 111. What is the most
A. Psychological advice appropriate response if a
B. Soft tissue manipulation client asks for a happy
C. Both A and B are correct ending?
D. None of the above A. Act as if nothing happened
B. Call 911
107. What is an issue if a teacher C. Remain professional and
and massage school student explain the services
start dating and it leads to D. Provide a referral
gossip and tension?
A. Transference 112. What provides a safe
B. Countertransference experience for clients?
C. Scope of practice A. Sexual jokes
D. Dual relationship B. Maintain a professional
appearance and demeanor
108. Which is unethical? C. Both A and B are correct
A. Advertising D. None of the above
B. Professionalism
C. Sexual misconduct 113. What is the loading capacity
D. All of the above of a good-quality massage
table?
109. What is the appropriate A. 100 to 125 pounds or more
action if a client constantly B. 175 to 225 pounds or more
complains about stress and C. 300 to 450 pounds or more
other people's problems? D. 600 to 750 pounds or more
A. Suggest the client seek
counseling for the stress 114. What would be done if a
B. Prescribe medication to therapist drops a sheet on
reduce stress the floor during a massage?
C. Leave the room and ask the A. Review proper draping
client to stop complaining procedures
D. Offer psychological advice B. Proceed with massage
C. Advise client on proper
sanitation procedures
D. Put sheet in hamper and
wash hands
Page 24
115. The following are standard 120. What draping method

precautions for preventing requires a minimum size of
transmission of pathogens 72 inches long and 36 inches
except: wide?
A. Proper draping A. Top cover method
B. Proper hand hygiene B. Full sheet method
C. Proper sanitation procedures C. Both A and B are correct
D. Proper disposal techniques D. None of the above
116. What is a universal 121. What amount of water is

precaution? needed by the body per day?
A. Wash hands with bleach A. 2 to 3 liters
before and after contact B. 3 to 4 gallons
with every client C. 4 to 5 gallons
B. Use disposable paper towels D. 5 to 6 gallons
after washing hands
C. Both A and B are correct 122. What are advantages of
D. None of the above working in self-employment?
A. Benefits
117. What increases the strength B. Tax forms
and power available in a C. Hours schedule
movement? D. FICA tax
A. Sanitation
B. Draping 123. What would the sum of fees
C. Body mechanics collected be?
D. Gloves A. Start-up costs
B. Overhead
118. In the asymmetric stance, C. Net income
the angle between the D. Gross income
humerus and the side of the
body should not exceed how 124. What is typically requested
many degrees? by an employer or landlord?
A. 45% A. Additional insured
B. 90% endorsement
C. 135% B. Legal defense coverage
D. 180% C. Professional liability
insurance
119. What is the process of D. Premises fire damage
keeping a client covered insurance for renters
while performing a massage?
A. Draping 125. How is a brochure used?
B. Body mechanics A. Licensing
C. Protective gear B. Tax
D. Assessment C. Marketing
D. Insurance
Page 25
Exam 2 Answer Key
1. D 43. B 85. B
2. B 44. A 86. C
3. A 45. B 87. C
4. B 46. B 88. B
5. D 47. B 89. C
6. D 48. C 90. A
7. B 49. A 91. D
8. A 50. D 92. A
9. A 51. B 93. B
10. A 52. A 94. A
11. D 53. C 95. A
12. D 54. C 96. B
13. D 55. D 97. C
14. B 56. D 98. C
15. B 57. D 99. C
16. D 58. D 100. D
17. D 59. B 101. D
18. D 60. A 102. A
19. B 61. A 103. A
20. D 62. A 104. B
21. A 63. C 105. D
22. C 64. B 106. A
23. C 65. D 107. D
24. C 66. B 108. C
25. C 67. D 109. A
26. C 68. B 110. D
27. C 69. B 111. C
28. C 70. A 112. B
29. C 71. C 113. C
30. D 72. B 114. D
31. D 73. C 115. A
32. B 74. A 116. B
33. D 75. D 117. C
34. A 76. C 118. B
35. A 77. B 119. A
36. A 78. A 120. A
37. A 79. D 121. A
38. C 80. B 122. C
39. A 81. C 123. D
40. A 82. D 124. A
41. D 83. D 125. C
42. A 84. A
Page 26
Exam 3
1. Which refers to the structures 6. What is a connective tissue

of the body? structure covering bones
A. Anatomy providing for nutrition, growth,
B. Ortho-bionomy and attachments?
C. Histology A. Periosteum
D. Pathophysiology B. Piezoelectric
C. Femoral region
2. Which level in the D. Endosteum
organization of the body
structure contains atoms and 7. What type of muscle tissue is
molecules? the heart?
A. Sub-atomic level A. Cardiac
B. Chemical level B. Skeletal
C. Organism level C. Elastic
D. Tissue level D. Smooth
3. What are lysosomes, 8. Which is a function of the

ribosomes, and centrosomes autonomic nervous system
examples of? under sympathetic control?
A. Cells A. Slow heartbeat
B. Cytoplasm B. Constricted blood vessels
C. Oils C. Increased peristalsis
D. Organelles D. Increased secretion of
digestive juices
4. Which surrounds the nucleus
and contains organelles? 9. Which component of the
A. Atom peripheral nervous system is
B. Cytoplasm working if the client starts to
C. Golgi apparatus breathe more slowly?
D. Feedback loop A. Somatic
B. Gastric
5. Which epithelium is found C. Sympathetic
where absorption or secretion D. Parasympathetic
takes place?
A. Simple 10. What receives oxygenated
B. Cuboidal blood from the left ventricle?
C. Dermis A. Pulmonary arteries
D. Ellipsoid B. Aorta
C. Right atrium
D. Kidney
Page 27
11. Which system provides 17. Where is the axillary region?

oxygen and removes carbon A. Armpit
dioxide? B. Between elbow and shoulder
A. Lymphatic C. Neck
B. Gastrointestinal D. Shoulders
C. Urinary
D. Respiratory 18. Which method involves the
small intestine meridian
12. What is required by nerve beginning at the little finger,
cells and muscle cells to ending at the ear, and being
conduct electricity? associated with assimilation?
A. Vitamin C A. Craniosacral therapy
B. Sodium and potassium B. Acupressure
C. Aloe C. Trigger point therapy
D. Vitamin D D. All of the above
13. What is required for tissue 19. Which muscle is considered

repair and essential for blood an accessory muscle of
clotting? respiration rather than a
A. Vitamin C primary muscle of respiration?
B. Sodium A. Diaphragm
C. Potassium B. Temporalis
D. Aloe C. Pectoris major
D. Sternocleidomastoid
14. Which means within the
body? 20. Which of these muscles
A. External originates at the medial
B. Internal epicondyle of the humerus?
C. Proximal A. Flexor carpi radialis
D. Superficial B. Biceps femoris
C. Levator scapula
15. Where is the heart relative D. Extensor carpi ulnaris
to the liver?
A. Superior 21. What are the tendons that
B. Inferior pass by the medial malleolus,
C. Plantar in order starting with the most
D. Volar anterior?
A. Tibialis anterior, tibialis
16. Which plane divides the body posterior, teres minor
into sections for a lateral B. Popliteus, sartorius, rectus
view? abdominis
A. Frontal plane C. Soleus, quadratus plantae,
B. Sagittal plane adductor digiti minimi
C. Oblique plane D. Tibialis posterior, flexor
D. Coronal plane digitorum, flexor hallucis
Page 28
22. How many metacarpals does 28. Which is an action of

the hand have? palmaris longus?
A. 5 A. Adducts scapula
B. 8 B. Flexes wrist and elbow
C. 14 C. Extends leg
D. 15 D. Extends wrist and elbow
23. What best describes the 29. Which muscle rotates the
shape of biceps brachii? vertebral column to the same
A. Bipennate side?
B. Saddle A. Vastus medialis
C. Unipennate B. Internal oblique
D. Convergent C. Peroneus longus
D. Rotatores
24. What is a freely moving joint
allowing movement in one or 30. What is the type of
more planes of action? contraction in which muscle
A. Joint capsule lengthens?
B. Synovial joint A. Concentric
C. Synovial fluid B. Reciprocal inhibition
D. Suture C. Eccentric
D. Isometric
25. The squamous suture is the
articulation of which bones? 31. Which muscles have a higher
A. Two phalanges percentage of slow-twitch red
B. Humerus and ulna fibers?
C. Parietal and temporal bones A. Soft tissues
D. Occipital and mandible B. Postural muscles
bones C. Connective tissue
D. Phasic muscles
26. Which is an action of
infraspinatus? 32. What kind of joint is
A. Abduct the leg described by diathrosis?
B. Medially rotate the shoulder A. Freely moveable
C. Horizontally abduct the B. Slightly moveable
shoulder C. Immoveable
D. Flex the arm D. Suture
27. Which muscle inserts on the 33. What is the formation of scar
proximal, medial shaft of the tissue?
tibia at the pes anserinus A. Edema
tendon? B. Tenosynovitis
A. Platysma C. Mitosis
B. Biceps brachii D. Fibrosis
C. Sartorius
Page 29
34. What is a fungal disease? 40. What are antianginals,

A. A disease that deteriorates vasodilators, antihypertensive
B. A disease spread by mold or agents, and beta blockers?
yeast A. Cardiovascular medications
C. A disease with no known B. Gastrointestinal medications
cause C. Hormones
D. A disease present at birth D. Anti-infectives
35. What means growing worse? 41. What are the implications for
A. Benign massage for a client taking
B. Chronic central nervous system
C. Cancer medications?
D. Malignant A. Massage can increase or
decrease the impact of the
36. What is the study of all of medication
the factors involved in causing B. Work with supervision from
a disease? the physician
A. Pathology C. Massage can help with
B. Epidemiology constipation
C. Etiology D. All of the above
D. Pharmacology
42. What is used for asthma and
37. Which is a local hay fever?
contraindication for massage? A. Peppermint
A. Bell's palsy B. Ma-huang
B. Acne C. Ginseng
C. Erysipelas D. St. John's Wort
D. Bronchitis
43. What kind of fracture
38. Is massage indicated or involves a crack in the bone
contraindicated for plantar often caused by repeated
fasciitis? mechanical stress and strain?
A. Indicated A. Spiral fracture
B. Contraindicated B. Impacted fracture
C. Local contraindication C. Comminuted fracture
D. Contraindicated in the acute D. Stress fracture
stage
44. What is torticollis?
39. Which is true regarding HIV? A. Tennis elbow
A. It is impossible to spread B. Spasm in SCM causing head
through breast milk to tilt
B. Its favorite target is the T4 C. Frozen shoulder
cell D. Subluxation
C. It is the same as AIDS
D. Coughing expels a large
quantity of HIV
Page 30
45. What is a cervical 50. Which effect of massage

acceleration-deceleration processed through the
injury? autonomic nervous system
A. Torticollis involves an altered state of
B. Spasm in SCM causing head consciousness?
to tilt A. The body / mind effect
C. Frozen shoulder B. Counterirritation
D. Whiplash C. Gate control theory
D. Mechanical methods
46. What is associated with
kyphotic-lordotic posture? 51. Which condition can benefit
A. Increased flexion of thoracic by massage?
spine A. High blood pressure
B. Forward head B. Cerebral palsy
C. Hyperextended lumbar spine C. Chronic fatigue syndrome
D. All of the above D. All of the above
47. Which muscle does the 52. How do inactive muscles

femoral nerve pierce? benefit greatly from massage?
A. Psoas A. The skin is warmed
B. Trapezius B. Synovial fluid is produced
C. Supinator C. Oxygen and nutrients are
D. Teres minor delivered
D. Oxytocin is decreased
48. Which of the following is a
component of the anterior 53. What involves scrubbing the
triangle of the neck body with a brush dipped in
endangerment site? warm, soapy water?
A. Jugular vein A. Sponging
B. Femoral artery B. Body shampoo
C. Cephalic vein C. Tonic friction
D. Patellar region D. Salt rub
49. What is a mechanical effect 54. What is the temperature of a

of massage? hot bath?
A. Venous return A. Below 32 degrees Fahrenheit
B. Lymph flow B. 77 to 80 degrees Fahrenheit
C. Breaking adhesions or 25 to 27 degrees Celsius
D. All of the above C. 100 to 110 degrees
Fahrenheit or 38 to 43
degrees Celsius
D. Above 100 degrees Celsius
Page 31
55. What strokes are done on the 60. What moves joints with
abdomen if a client has resistance or assistance on the
chronic constipation? part of the client?
A. Tapotement A. Active joint movements
B. Deep clockwise strokes B. Passive joint movements
C. Gliding counterclockwise C. Friction
strokes D. Effleurage
D. Gliding clockwise strokes
61. What massage movement
56. Which stroke would be best affects blood and lymph
for local deep massage of soft channels?
tissue? A. Stroking
A. Cryotherapy B. Light percussion
B. Tapotement C. Friction
C. Percussion D. All of the above
D. Deep effleurage
62. Which stroke is applied in a
57. Which is best for breaking up transverse direction?
areas of fibrosis? A. Vibration
A. Tapotement B. Deep gliding
B. Friction or deep effleurage C. Cross-fiber friction
C. Craniosacral therapy D. Circular friction
D. Rolfing
63. Which is gliding?
58. What is a psychological A. Effleurage
effect of massage? B. Petrissage
A. Increases muscle cramps and C. Cryotherapy
spasms D. Tapotement
B. Decreases circulation of
blood and lymph 64. Which stroke is not
C. Increases removal of petrissage?
metabolic waste A. Hacking
D. Calms the nervous system B. Kneading
C. Skin rolling
59. What is an effect of massage D. Fulling
on the muscular system?
A. Decreased supply of blood to 65. Which stretching technique
muscles is very useful for reducing
B. Storage of waste products muscle cramping?
C. Helps nourish tissues A. Ballistic stretching
D. Reddening of skin B. Unassisted static stretching
C. Assisted static stretching
D. Reciprocal inhibition (RI)
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66. What stoke usually requires 72. What is done if a client has a
lubricant? flexion, abduction, and lateral
A. Effleurage rotation deformity of the hip,
B. Jostling with flexion of the knee?
C. Percussion A. Lengthen deltoid
D. Compression B. Lengthen teres major
C. Lengthen sartorius
67. Which condition can benefit D. Lengthen quadriceps femoris
from pregnancy massage?
A. Pre-eclampsia 73. Which muscles are weak if a
B. Back strain client has shoulder pain, low
C. Both A and B back pain, and a headache
D. None of the above when flexing the shoulders?
A. Abdominal complex
68. Is massage for the critically B. Erector spinae, psoas, and
ill indicated or rectus abdominis
contraindicated? C. Levator scapula
A. Indicated for gentle work D. Gluteus maximum and
B. Indicated for deep work gastrocnemius
C. Contraindicated for touch
therapy 74. What is the best way to turn
D. Always contraindicated a client?
A. Hold edge of sheet and have
69. What is a secondary effect of client turn towards therapist
applying cold? B. Client gets off table feet
A. Increased local circulation first
B. Contrast method C. Client holds sheet and
C. Decreased local circulation therapist turns client
D. Vasoconstriction D. Seated
70. What refers symptoms to 75. Where on the SOAP chart are
other areas of the body? the massage treatment
A. Tender point applications including
B. Trigger point techniques, duration, and
C. Target muscle location recorded?
D. Muscle guarding A. Subjective
B. Objective
71. What is appropriate if a C. Assessment
client has a prominent or high D. Plan
left hip?
A. Stretch left lateral trunk and
right lateral thigh muscles
B. Stretch right lateral trunk
and left lateral thigh muscles
C. Stretch temporalis
D. Stretch trapezius
Page 33
76. Which is within the scope of 81. Which muscles are short and
practice of a massage strong with sway-back
therapist? posture?
A. Diagnosis A. Upper fibers of the internal
B. Intentional joint obliques
manipulation B. One-joint hip flexors
C. Skeletal realignment C. Neck flexors
D. Soft tissue manipulation D. All of the above
77. What is the most appropriate 82. Which are short and strong
action if a client comes in with the right hip joint
with enlarged lymph nodes? adducted and medially
A. Massage around the enlarged rotated, left hip abducted and
lymph nodes feet pronated?
B. Manual lymphatic drainage A. Left lateral trunk muscles,
C. Diagnose the condition as right hip abductors and left
lymphatic edema hip adductors
D. Refer the client to a primary B. Right peroneus longus and
care provider immediately brevis and left tibialis
posterior
78. When assessing the function C. Right flexor hallucis longus
of the shoulder, where is and right flexor digitorum
resistance applied? longus
A. Distal end of the humerus D. All of the above
B. At the wrist
C. On the scapula 83. What is a characteristic of
D. The end of the radius good alignment of the feet
and knees?
79. What happens in the forward A. The patella face forward
head position? B. The feet are pronated
A. Short and strong neck C. The feet are supinated
extensors D. Knock-kneed position
B. Short anterior vertebral neck
flexors 84. What happens when the
C. Strong anterior vertebral armrests of a chair are too
neck flexors low?
D. All of the above A. The hips are flexed
B. The shoulders will be pushed
80. If a client has kyphotic- upward
lordotic posture, which C. The arms will not have
muscles are strong and may or proper support
may not develop shortness? D. Neck and back strain
A. Erector spinae
B. Neck flexors
D. Low back
Page 34
85. How does a therapist test 90. What is swayback posture?

the right arm extensors? A. Scoliosis
A. Client holds left arm position B. C-curve
against therapist's C. Hyperlordosis
superior/cephalad pressure D. Hyperkyphosis
position against therapist's 91. With what soft tissue method
superior/cephalad pressure are Boris Chaitow and Stanley
C. Client holds left arm position Leif associated?
against therapist's A. Neuromuscular therapy
inferior/caudal pressure B. Ayurveda
D. None of the above C. Reflexology
D. Deep transverse friction
86. What is the next step of the
client consultation after the 92. In polarity therapy, what are
initial greeting and points along an energy current
determining the client's that connect with other points
needs? along that current?
A. Explain procedures and state A. Ether, air, fire, water, and
policies earth
B. Perform massage B. Reflexes
C. Formulate treatment plan C. Chakras
D. SOAP chart D. Doshas
87. What causes pain during 93. Who developed the Trager
palpation of the calcaneus? method?
A. Plantar fasciitis A. Dr. Milton Trager
B. Whiplash B. Dr. Ida Rolf
C. Torticollis C. Dr. John Thie
D. Migraine D. Dr. John Upledger
88. What is the frozen phase of 94. Which early massage system
frozen shoulder? included Ayurveda and
A. Acute Tschanpua?
B. Subacute A. Greek
C. Third stage B. Swedish
D. Chronic C. Chinese
D. Indian
89. What involves nerve
compression in the area of the 95. What is a life force or
scalenes and pec minor? energy?
A. Torticollis A. Chi or Qi or Ki
B. Thoracic outlet syndrome B. Marketing
C. Frozen shoulder C. Acupressure
D. Whiplash D. Soft tissue manipulation
Page 35
96. Which uses doshas such as 102. What is out of the

vata, pitta, and kapha? therapeutic relationship?
A. Tapotement A. Informed consent
B. Ayurveda B. Consistency
C. Acupressure C. Spiritual advice
D. Acupuncture D. All of the above
97. What occurs when a 103. What is an example of a

therapist's expectations and type of boundary?
behaviors are moved to the A. Health history form
client? B. Intellectual
A. Client-centered C. Both A and B are correct
B. Dual relationships D. None of the above
C. Professionalism
D. Countertransference 104. What is appropriate if a
minor requests a massage
98. What is considered a without parental consent?
protection process for the A. Perform the massage if a
consumer? cousin says it is OK
A. Informed consent B. Do not perform the massage
B. Power differential C. Answers A and B are correct
C. DBA D. None of the above
D. Dual role
105. Treating a client when the
99. What is an example of a therapist is sick is what type
violation of a code of ethics? of unethical behavior?
A. Exploiting the power A. Confidentiality violation
differential B. Practicing beyond scope of
B. Right of refusal practice
C. Informed consent C. Contraindication violation
D. All of the above D. None of the above
100. What is not a violation of a 106. When can what a client says
code of ethics? or does be revealed to others
A. Informed consent without the client's consent?
B. Dating a client A. When required by law or a
C. Working on a minor without court order
parental consent B. When required to protect the
D. All of the above public
C. Answers A and B are correct
101. What is in the therapeutic D. None of the above
relationship?
A. Contract
B. Rights as professionals
C. Right of refusal
D. All of the above
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107. What should the therapist 111. What is any action or

do if a client asks for herbs to verbalization of an
replace prescription inappropriate sexual nature
medication? towards a client?
A. Suggest an herb to replace A. Dual relationship
the prescription medication B. Transference
B. Tell the client to consult C. Countertransference
with their primary care D. Sexual misconduct
provider before stopping to
take any prescription 112. What provides a safe
medication experience for clients?
C. Suggest an alternative A. Continue education in ethics
prescription medication B. Treat all clients equally
D. Recommend that the client C. Both A and B are correct
stop taking the medication D. None of the above
first before trying herbs
113. What might a client with
108. Massaging an associate hypothyroidism most likely
involves what type of issue? need to be comfortable?
A. Dual relationship A. Referral
B. Consent B. Warm room temperature
C. Scope of practice C. Unrestricted access
D. None of the above D. Massage mat
109. Guidance on which topic is 114. What is the most common

typically not found in a code width for massage table tops?
of ethics? A. 18 to 22 inches
A. Insurance B. 27 to 30 inches
B. Income and expense C. 36 to 40 inches
measurement D. 72 to 76 inches
C. Tax
D. All of the above 115. In what manner are used
linens handled, according to
110. What are the feelings of the the CDC?
client toward the therapist? A. Single-use linens are
A. Dual relationships recommended
B. Transference B. Put in a private room
C. Confidentiality C. In a manner that prevents
D. Countertransference skin and mucous exposure
D. Place in appropriate
puncture-proof container
Page 37
116. The following are steps for 121. A deficiency of which

proper handwashing, vitamin would interfere with
according to the CDC, growth and reduce immunity?
except: A. Vitamin A
A. Wet hands and apply liquid B. Lavender
soap or clean bar soap C. Camphor
B. Rub hands vigorously for at D. Vitamin D
least one minute
C. Rinse well and dry hands 122. What would primarily
with disposable towel include numbers such as
D. Use cloth towel to turn off income and expenses?
faucet A. Business plan
B. Resume
117. What removes pathogens C. Marketing material
from implements and D. Financial records
surfaces?
A. Sanitation 123. What form is used for the
B. Disinfection net profit from a business?
C. Both A and B are correct A. Schedule C of Form 1040
D. None of the above B. Form 1099
C. Form W-2
118. What is a client safety D. Form 2106
practice regarding sanitation?
A. Use clean linens with each 124. What involves mutually
client beneficial business
B. Wash hands before and after relationships?
each client A. Corporation
C. Provide sanitary bathrooms B. Networking
D. All of the above C. DBA
D. Sole proprietorship
119. Which stance is best for
petrissage? 125. Costs for what could be
A. Asymmetric deductible as a business
B. Seated expense?
C. Archer stance A. Business cards
D. Horse stance B. Linens
C. Both A and B
120. What is for the client's D. None of the above
comfort, warmth, and
modesty?
A. Draping
B. Body mechanics
C. Protective gear
D. Assessment
Page 38
Exam 3 Answer Key
1. A 43. D 85. B
2. B 44. B 86. A
3. D 45. D 87. A
4. B 46. D 88. B
5. B 47. A 89. B
6. A 48. A 90. C
7. A 49. D 91. A
8. B 50. A 92. B
9. D 51. D 93. A
10. B 52. C 94. D
11. D 53. B 95. A
12. B 54. C 96. B
13. A 55. D 97. D
14. B 56. D 98. A
15. A 57. B 99. A
16. B 58. D 100. A
17. A 59. C 101. D
18. B 60. A 102. C
19. D 61. D 103. B
20. A 62. C 104. B
21. D 63. A 105. C
22. A 64. A 106. C
23. A 65. D 107. B
24. B 66. A 108. A
25. C 67. B 109. D
26. C 68. A 110. B
27. C 69. A 111. D
28. B 70. B 112. C
29. B 71. A 113. B
30. C 72. C 114. B
31. B 73. C 115. C
32. A 74. A 116. D
33. D 75. B 117. C
34. B 76. D 118. D
35. D 77. D 119. D
36. C 78. A 120. A
37. B 79. A 121. A
38. A 80. D 122. D
39. B 81. A 123. A
40. A 82. C 124. B
41. D 83. A 125. C
42. B 84. C
Page 39
Exam 4
1. What does physiology refer to? 6. What is an air cavity within a

A. Soft tissue manipulation bone?
B. Functions of the body A. Fissure
C. Disease B. Foramen
D. Tissues C. Meatus
D. Sinus
2. Which level in the
organization of the body 7. What structure receives
structure contains the basic stimulus directly from the
structural and functional units receptor organ in the reflex
of an organism? arc?
A. Cellular level A. Sensory neuron
B. System level B. Effector organ
C. Microscopic level C. Efferent neuron
D. Tissue level D. Lymphocyte
3. What is the name for 8. Which is the main function of

reproductive cell division in the endocrine system?
which the number of A. Secretion of chemicals
chromosomes is reduced by B. Defense against infection
half? C. Circulation
A. Mitosis D. Gas exchange
B. Meiosis
C. Apoptosis 9. Which system includes glands
D. Cytokinesis such as the parathyroid,
pineal, adrenal, pancreas, and
4. Which are vesicles filled with gonads?
digestive enzymes that form A. Endocrine
the Golgi complex? B. Lymphatic
A. Lysosomes C. Gastrointestinal
B. DNA D. Urinary
C. Connective tissue
D. Microvilli 10. What taste goes with the
spleen?
5. Which type of serous A. Bitter
membrane covers the heart? B. Acid
A. Pleura C. Sweet and sour
B. Pericardium D. Salty
C. Cutaneous
D. Jejunum
Page 40
11. In what order of the colons 16. Which plane passes through
does food pass through the the body at an angle between
large intestine, before the transverse plane and
reaching the sigmoid colon? either the sagittal or frontal
A. Descending, transverse, plane?
jejunum A. Cross-sectional plane
B. Ascending, protracting, B. Oblique plane
transverse C. Median plane
C. Ascending, transverse, D. Coronal plane
descending
D. Descending, ascending, 17. Where is the brachial region?
transverse A. Armpit
B. Between elbow and shoulder
12. The sagittal suture is the C. Neck
articulation of which bones? D. Shoulders
A. Two parietal bones
B. Frontal and parietal bones 18. Which method involves the
C. Patellar and ulnar bones gallbladder meridian
D. Occipital and parietal bones beginning at the head, ending
at the toe, and being
13. A deficiency of which associated with the flow of ki?
vitamin would result in A. Bindegewebmassage
digestive disturbances, B. Ayurveda
enlargement of the liver, and C. Shiatsu
disturbance of the thyroid? D. All of the above
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B complex 19. When the elbow extends,
C. Vitamin C what is the triceps?
D. Vitamin D A. Agonist
B. Antagonist
14. Which means exterior? C. Origin
A. External D. Insertion
B. Internal
C. Proximal 20. Where does the subclavius
D. Superficial insert?
A. Scapula
15. Where is the stomach B. Clavicle
relative to the lungs? C. Humerus
A. Superior D. Radius
B. Inferior
C. Anterior 21. How many carpals does the
D. Posterior hand have?
A. 5
B. 8
C. 14
D. 15
Page 41
22. Where is the peroneus 28. Which muscle abducts,

tertius? flexes, extends, medially and
A. Between the patella and the laterally rotates, and
head of the fibula horizontally adducts and
B. Anterior to the ribs abducts the shoulder?
C. Directly medial from A. Triceps brachii
olecranon process B. Deltoid
D. Posterior to the skull C. Trapezius
D. Biceps femoris
23. What best describes the
shape of rectus femoris? 29. Which muscle assists in
A. Isometric extending the thumb?
B. Convergent A. Abductor pollicis longus
C. Unipennate B. Pronator teres
D. Bipennate C. Biceps brachii
D. Flexor pollicis longus
24. What is a connective tissue
structure that indirectly 30. What type of lever has the
connects the bony fulcrum in the middle?
components of a joint? A. First class lever
A. Joint capsule B. Second class lever
B. Synovial joint C. Saddle
C. Synovial fluid D. Hinge
D. Suture
31. What describes a joint with
25. Which are critical for proper excessive range of motion?
muscle contraction? A. Hypermobility
A. Vitamins B and E B. Hypomobility
B. Sodium and aloe C. Close-packed position
C. Calcium and magnesium D. Loose-packed position
32. What happens in an
26. Which muscle extends the eccentric muscle contraction?
vertebral column and head? A. The muscle relaxes
A. Multifidi B. The length of the muscle
B. Rotatores does not change
C. Semispinalis C. The muscle lengthens
D. Hamstrings D. The muscle shortens
27. Which muscle originates at 33. What is the scientific field of

the anterior superior iliac study of all factors involved in
spine (ASIS)? causing a disease?
A. Extensor digitorum A. Etiology
B. Biceps femoris B. Diagnosis
C. Sartorius C. Prognosis
D. Quadratus lumborum D. Homeostasis
Page 42
34. What are generally the most 40. What are the implications for
acceptable methods to massage for a client taking
strengthen the healing vasodilators?
process? A. The medication may increase
A. Denial the effect of the massage
B. Recreational drugs B. Stop the massage if the heart
C. Therapeutic applications rate slows to below 90 beats
D. Marketing per minute
C. Avoid energetic massage
35. What refers to the spreading methods
or change in location of a D. All of the above
disease?
A. Benign 41. What type of medication
B. Chronic might be used to help
C. Cancer someone stop smoking?
D. Metastatic A. Antibiotics
B. Antidepressants
36. What refers to the problems C. Antihistamines
of a disease as described by a D. Anti-inflammatory
patient?
A. Diagnosis 42. What natural supplement
B. Prognosis improves physical stamina?
C. Referral A. NSAIDs
D. Symptoms B. Ma-huang
C. Ginseng
37. Which is a contraindication D. St. John's Wort
for massage while in the acute
stage? 43. What fracture involves the
A. Bell's palsy broken ends of bone being
B. Acne jammed into each other?
C. Erysipelas A. Greenstick fracture
D. Bronchitis B. Impacted fracture
C. Spiral fracture
38. Is massage indicated or D. Stress fracture
contraindicated for warts?
A. Indicated 44. What is adhesive capsulitis?
B. Contraindicated A. Tennis elbow
C. Local contraindication B. Golfer's elbow
D. None of the above C. Pitcher's elbow
D. Frozen shoulder
39. What exercise is most
beneficial for osteoporosis? 45. What is ringing in the ears?
A. Weight bearing A. Torticollis
B. Stretching B. Tinnitus
C. Aerobic C. Tendonitis
D. Endurance D. Whiplash
Page 43
46. What is associated with flat 52. Which condition can benefit
back posture? from massage?
A. Forward head A. Anemia
B. Flexed or straight lumbar B. Appendicitis
spine C. Autoimmune diseases or
C. Posterior pelvic tilt acute inflammatory
D. All of the above processes during flare-up
D. All of the above
47. Which muscle does the
greater occipital nerve pierce? 53. When should hydrotherapy
A. Psoas be avoided?
B. Trapezius A. Infectious skin condition
C. Supinator B. Diabetes
D. Teres minor C. Kidney infection
D. All of the above
48. Which is close to the SCM,
splenius capitis, trapezius, 54. At what temperature can
and scalenes? water cause tissue damage?
A. Femoral artery A. Below 30 degrees Fahrenheit
B. Carotid artery B. Over 124 degrees Fahrenheit
C. Kidneys C. Below 0 degrees Celsius or
D. Inguinal region above 51 degrees Celsius
D. All of the above
49. What is a mechanical effect
of massage? 55. Which stroke is a variation of
A. Venous return light effleurage?
B. Parasympathetic nervous A. Deep fiber friction
system activation B. Superficial friction
C. Release of endorphins C. Tapotement
D. All of the above D. Vibration
50. What is a reflex effect of 56. What is a PNF technique in

massage? which the muscle spindles and
A. Venous return Golgi tendon organs are used
B. Lymph flow to relax a hypertonic muscle?
C. Increased mental clarity A. Direct manipulation (DM)
D. All of the above B. Positional release (PR)
C. Post-isometric contraction
51. What is an effect of massage (PIR)
on the cardiovascular system? D. Tapotement
A. Soft end feel
B. Increases heart rate and 57. Which is Swedish massage?
pulse rate A. Rolfing
C. Decreases red blood cell B. Petrissage
count C. Polarity therapy
D. Increases stroke volume D. Reflexology
Page 44
58. What is a physical effect of 64. What is the change in the

massage? quality of movement from the
A. Decreases metabolism first sense of resistance?
B. Slows healing A. End feel
C. Reduces tension and anxiety B. Active joint movement
D. Improves functions of C. Passive joint movement
lymphatic system D. Tapping
59. What is a massage technique 65. What is shaking?

with a sedative effect? A. Effleurage
A. Gentle stroking B. Vibration
B. Strong percussion for a short C. Slapping
period D. Tapping
C. Friction
D. All of the above 66. Which stroke would restore
pliability to connective tissue?
60. What is holding pressure on a A. Light effleurage
sensitive trigger point? B. Skin rolling
A. Ischemic compression C. Feather strokes
B. Slapping D. Compression
C. Shaking
D. All of the above 67. What is contraindicated for
61. What massage movement cancer?
increases the permeability of A. Deep pressure
the capillary beds? B. Circulatory massage
A. Light percussion C. Fever
B. Light stroking D. All of the above
C. Light massage
D. Friction 68. What is a partial immersion
bath where the water is
62. Which stroke is a rhythmic agitated?
pressing movement? A. Whirlpool bath
A. Vibration B. Full body steam bath
B. Compression C. Diathermy
C. Cross-fiber friction D. Cryotherapy
D. Percussion
69. What is the "S" in the
63. Which is stoking? R.I.C.E.S. first aid principle?
A. Effleurage A. Secure
B. Petrissage B. Stabilize
C. Cryotherapy C. Sensitivity
D. Tapotement D. Sufficiency
Page 45
70. In which muscles would a 74. What is a recommendation

client who had recently for activities between
ruptured an Achilles tendon sessions?
most likely have spasms and A. Ergonomics
pain? B. Referral
A. Gastrocnemius and soleus C. Self help
B. Tibialis anterior and deltoid D. Treatment plan
C. Biceps brachii and pectineus
D. Tensor fasciae latae and 75. What would you massage on
piriformis an athlete who complains of
pain in the patella after an
71. If a client has hammer toes event?
and a low metatarsal arch, A. Quadriceps
what is the most appropriate B. Tibialis anterior
treatment? C. Gluteus minimus
A. Stretch the D. Psoas major
metatarsophalangeal joints
B. Stretch the knee flexors 76. Where on the SOAP chart is a
C. Stretch the low back muscles list of prioritized health
D. Stretch the fascia lata concerns or goals for the
session recorded?
72. What is done if a client has A. Subjective
decreased range of motion in B. Objective
horizontal abduction and C. Assessment
lateral rotation of the D. Plan
shoulder?
A. Lengthen upper fibers of 77. When the range of motion of
pectoralis major a joint allows 0 to 90 degrees
B. Lengthen biceps brachii of flexion, what is anything
C. Lengthen serratus anterior less?
D. Refer to emergency room A. Relaxed
immediately B. Hypomobile
C. Hypermobile
73. What is done if a client has D. Tensed
the hip in a flexed position
and a knock-knee position? 78. What is the most appropriate
A. Lengthen pectoralis major action if a client's pulse is
B. Lengthen extensor digitorum strong on one side of the body
longus and weak on the other?
C. Lengthen tensor fasciae A. Massage the side with the
latae weak pulse
D. Lengthen quadriceps femoris B. Perform the regular massage
C. Massage the side with the
strong pulse
D. Refer the client to a primary
care provider
Page 46
79. When assessing extension of 83. Which are short and strong
the hip, where is resistance with the pelvis laterally tilted
applied? and high right, right hip
A. Distal end of the tibia adducted and medially
B. At the ankle rotated, and left hip
C. On the sacrum abducted?
D. The end of the femur A. Right lateral trunk muscles,
right hip adductors and left
80. What happens in the forward hip abductors
head position? B. Left peroneus longus and
A. Long neck extensors brevis and right tibialis
B. Weak neck extensors posterior
C. Long and weak anterior C. Right flexor hallucis longus
vertebral neck flexors and right flexor digitorum
D. All of the above longus
D. All of the above
lordotic posture, which 85. How does a therapist test
muscles are most likely the right arm flexors?
elongated and weak? A. Client holds left arm position
A. Low back against therapist's
B. Upper back erector spinae inferior/caudal pressure
C. Lateral rotators of hip B. Client holds right arm
D. Hip flexors position against. therapist's
inferior/caudal pressure
82. Which muscles are short and C. Client holds left arm position
strong with sway-back against therapist's
posture? superior/cephalad pressure
A. External obliques D. None of the above
B. One-joint hip flexors
C. Hamstrings 86. Where on the SOAP chart
D. All of the above would the therapist's
suggestion for a return visit in
84. What is a characteristic of two weeks be documented?
good alignment of the feet A. Subjective
and knees? B. Objective
A. Medial rotation of the femurs C. Assessment
B. The feet are not pronated D. Plan
C. The feet are supinated 87. What is inflammation of the
D. Knock-kneed position common extensor tendon?
A. Medial epicondylitis
B. Golfer's elbow
C. Trigger finger
D. Tennis elbow
Page 47
88. Which is a treatment for 93. Which is effective for

frozen shoulder? flexibility during sports
A. Ice in the acute stage massage?
B. Deep moist heat in the A. Vibration
subacute stage B. Compression
C. Deep moist heat in the C. Active joint movements
chronic stage D. Gliding
D. All of the above
94. What is based on about 360
89. What includes anterior points of energy?
scalene syndrome, pectoralis A. Chi or Qi or Ki
minor syndrome, and B. Tao
costoclavicular syndrome? C. Acupressure
A. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Meridians or channels
B. Thoracic outlet syndrome
C. Frozen shoulder 95. Which traditional Japanese
D. Whiplash massage technique comes
from a Chinese word for
90. What involves a C-curve or S- calming by rubbing?
curve of the spine? A. Ayurveda
A. Scoliosis B. Amma
B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Acupressure
C. Hyperlordosis D. Tapotement
D. Hyperkyphosis
96. Which massage system uses
91. What method did Eunice Shiatsu?
Ingram develop based on Asian A. Greek
roots? B. Indian
A. Neuromuscular therapy C. Chinese
B. Manual lymph drainage D. Japanese
C. Reflexology
D. Shiatsu 97. What are rules and
procedures for professional
92. What does polarity therapy conduct and quality of care to
attempts to locate and be followed by members of a
release? profession?
A. Tissues A. Insurance
B. Lymph B. Informed consent
C. Energy C. Scope of practice
D. Joints D. Standards of practice
Page 48
98. If a male client requests a 103. Doing medical treatments

female bodyworker, what type without the proper training is
of issue is most likely present? what type of unethical
A. Professional behavior?
B. Cultural A. Informed consent violation
C. Gender B. Confidentiality
D. Age C. Practicing beyond the scope
of practice
99. What is an example of a D. None of the above
violation of a code of ethics?
A. Client-centered actions and 104. Guaranteeing that pain will
words be gone is what type of
B. Dating a client unethical behavior?
C. Working on a minor with A. Misleading claims of curative
parental consent abilities
D. All of the above B. Financial impropriety
C. Exploiting the power
100. What is an example of a differential
violation of a code of ethics? D. None of the above
A. Practicing beyond the scope
of practice 105. What if a therapist cannot
B. Sexual misconduct assess a condition?
C. Misrepresentation of A. Try to diagnose the condition
educational status B. Suggest the client discuss it
D. All of the above with their primary care
provider
101. What is out of the C. Prescribe medication
therapeutic relationship? D. None of the above
A. Right of refusal
B. Scope of practice 106. What is an issue if a
C. Client-centered actions and therapist agrees to trade
words massages for artwork to be
D. None of the above created in the future?
A. Transference
102. What occurs when a B. Countertransference
therapist for the first time C. Scope of practice
suddenly gives a regular D. Dual relationship
client a big hug after the
session? 107. What are guidelines for
A. Projection morally acceptable and
B. Boundary crossing professional behavior?
C. Dual relationship A. Dual relationships
D. Networking B. Advertising
C. Networking
D. Code of ethics
Page 49
108. Guidance on which topic is 113. What is the most common

typically found in a code of length for massage table
ethics? tops?
A. Image/advertising claims A. About 4 feet
B. Client relationships B. About 5 feet
C. Appropriate techniques C. About 6 feet
D. All of the above D. About 8 feet
109. What is making personal 114. Which is the proper storage

and professional contacts for procedure for laundry?
sharing information? A. Soiled sheets on the floor,
A. Dual relationships clean sheets in a hamper
B. Advertising B. Soiled sheets in a hamper,
C. Networking clean sheets on the floor
D. None of the above C. Soiled sheets on the floor,
clean sheets off the floor
110. What helps the therapist D. Soiled sheets in a hamper,
have a dialogue with the clean sheets off the floor
client regarding goals,
treatments, and outcomes? 115. What is recommended for
A. Dual relationships handwashing, according to
B. Communication skills the CDC?
C. Networking A. Wash hands before gloves
D. Code of ethics are removed
B. Use plain non-antimicrobial
111. What if a client says that a soap
prior therapist who is a C. Wash hands with bleach
respected associate made D. Dry with used linens
sexual advances during the
massage? 116. What is the most complete
A. Ignore the information process of decontamination?
B. Report the therapist to the A. Disinfection
massage board B. Sterilization
C. Contact the therapist to C. Both A and B are correct
discuss the issue D. None of the above
D. Tell the client that they are
imagining things 117. What is a safety practice
regarding housekeeping and
112. What is sexual harassment? sanitation?
A. Demand for sexual favors in A. Dry hands with cloth towels
exchange for job benefits B. Disinfect tubs, steam
B. Hostile work environment cabinets, shower stalls and
including unwelcome acts or wet tables between each use
visual displays C. Sterilize all entryways, floors
C. Both A and B are correct and surfaces
D. None of the above D. Commercially launder linens
Page 50
118. What is the order of the 123. What must be included in

first aid emergency action income reported to the IRS?
steps? A. Wages
A. Call, check, care B. Barter income
B. Care, check, call C. Tips
C. Check, call, care D. All of the above
D. Alarm, resistance,
exhaustion 124. Where are wages recorded?
A. Form 1099-MISC
119. Which stance has both feet B. Form 5498
in line with the massage C. Form W-2
table? D. Schedule K-1
A. Asymmetric
B. Body mechanics 125. What is a business with a
C. Archer stance single owner who is also the
D. Horse stance only employee?
A. S-Corporation
120. Which is true regarding B. LLC
draping? C. Partnership
A. It is required under federal D. Sole proprietorship
law
B. It is required under the code
of ethics
C. You must not use draping if
the client does not want it
D. It is for the client's comfort
and warmth
121. How many grams of protein

are recommended for adults
per day?
A. About 3 to 4 grams
B. About 4 to 6 grams
C. About 16 to 28 grams
D. About 45 to 63 grams
122. What are advantages of

being an employee?
A. Keep more of fee collected
B. Flexible hours
C. Stable income
D. Variable compensation
Page 51
Exam 4 Answer Key
1. B 43. B 85. B
2. A 44. D 86. D
3. B 45. B 87. D
4. A 46. D 88. D
5. B 47. B 89. B
6. D 48. B 90. A
7. A 49. A 91. C
8. A 50. C 92. C
9. A 51. D 93. C
10. C 52. A 94. C
11. C 53. D 95. B
12. A 54. D 96. D
13. B 55. B 97. D
14. A 56. A 98. C
15. B 57. B 99. B
16. B 58. D 100. D
17. B 59. A 101. D
18. C 60. A 102. B
19. A 61. D 103. C
20. B 62. B 104. A
21. B 63. A 105. B
22. A 64. A 106. D
23. D 65. B 107. D
24. A 66. B 108. D
25. C 67. D 109. C
26. C 68. A 110. B
27. C 69. B 111. C
28. B 70. A 112. C
29. A 71. A 113. C
30. A 72. A 114. D
31. A 73. C 115. B
32. C 74. C 116. B
33. A 75. A 117. B
34. C 76. A 118. C
35. D 77. B 119. D
36. D 78. D 120. D
37. D 79. D 121. D
38. C 80. C 122. C
39. A 81. B 123. D
40. A 82. C 124. C
41. B 83. B 125. D
42. C 84. D
Page 52
Exam 5
1. Which literally means to cut 6. What type of cartilage is

up and was first studied by semitransparent, flexible and
dissection? insensitive, such as the
A. Reflexology cartilage in the nose?
B. Pathophysiology A. Hyaline cartilage
C. Anatomy B. White fibrocartilage
D. Ortho-bionomy C. Elastic cartilage
D. Isotonic
2. Which level in the
organization of the body 7. What type of muscle tissue is
structure has groups of cells attached to bones by tendons?
working together to perform a A. Cardiac
particular function? B. Skeletal
A. Environmental level C. Reticular
B. System level D. Smooth
C. Organ level
D. Tissue level 8. Which component of the
peripheral nervous system
3. What is a decrease in the size controls skeletal muscle
of cells? contractions?
A. Mitosis A. Autonomic
B. Meiosis B. Cervical
C. Atrophy C. Somatic
D. Hypertrophy D. Parasympathetic
4. What is the forcing of fluid 9. Which system alters the

across a semipermeable activity of muscle and alters
membrane? the activity of the immune
A. Mitochondria system?
B. Diffusion A. Gastrointestinal
C. Filtration B. Urinary
D. Conductivity C. Endocrine
D. Respiratory
5. What type of membrane lines
joints and contains connective 10. What does the right side of
tissue but no epithelium? the heart do?
A. Mucous A. Pumps oxygenated blood to
B. Serous all tissues except the lungs
C. Cutaneous B. Pumps oxygenated blood to
D. Synovial the lungs
C. Pumps deoxygenated blood
to all tissues except lungs
D. Pumps deoxygenated blood
to the lungs
Page 53
11. Which system initiates gas 17. Where is the lumbar region?
exchange? A. Top of head
A. Gastrointestinal B. Shoulder blade
B. Respiratory C. Lower back
C. Circulatory D. Buttocks
D. Urinary
18. Which method describes the
12. The coronal suture is the liver as a yin meridian?
articulation of which bones? A. Ayurveda
A. Two parietal bones B. Acupressure
B. Frontal and parietal bones C. Polarity theory
C. Patellar and ulnar bones D. All of the above
D. Occipital and parietal bones
19. Which actions occur in the
13. What adds bulk to food and frontal plane?
helps with bowel movements? A. Flexion and extension
A. Plant proteins B. Adduction and abduction
B. Fat C. Rotation and circumduction
C. Insoluble carbohydrates D. Supination and pronation
D. Animal proteins
20. Which of these muscles
14. Which means on or toward inserts on the proximal medial
the surface? shaft of the tibia at the pes
A. Deep anserinus tendon?
B. Internal A. Pronator teres
C. Proximal B. Psoas major
D. Superficial C. Supraspinatus
D. Gracilis
15. Where is the esophagus
relative to the trachea? 21. Where does tibialis posterior
A. Medial insert?
B. Lateral A. Ulna
C. Anterior B. Phalanges
D. Posterior C. Metacarpal
D. Tarsals and metatarsals
16. What are structures close to
the sagittal plane? 22. What is the attachment site
A. Medial for gluteus medius, gluteus
B. Distal minimus, and the deep rotator
C. Lateral muscles?
D. Deep A. Iliac tubercle
B. Greater trochanter of femur
C. Lamina groove of cervicals
D. Greater tubercle of the
humerus
Page 54
23. What muscle originates at 28. Which muscles are synergists

the external occipital for adduction of the wrist?
protuberance, the nuchal line, A. Pronator teres, brachialis
and C-7 through T-12? B. Flexor carpi radialis,
A. Latissimus dorsi extensor digitorum
B. Trapezius C. Biceps femoris,
C. Serratus anterior semitendinosus
D. Plantaris D. Extensor carpi ulnaris, flexor
carpi ulnaris
24. Which connects bones
together, has uneven collagen 29. Which muscle rotates the
fibers, and will remain taut? vertebral column?
A. Tendons A. Multifidi
B. Joints B. Soleus
C. Ligaments C. Spinalis
D. Bursae D. Trapezius
25. What type of joint is 30. What type of contraction

between the axis and atlas? occurs when one tries to lift a
A. Pivot weight that does not move?
B. Saddle A. Concentric
C. Ball and socket B. Isotonic
D. Gliding C. Eccentric
D. Isometric
26. Which extends, rotates and
laterally flexes the head and 31. Postural muscles have a
neck and elevates, depresses, higher percentage of what
adducts and upwardly rotates kind of fibers?
the scapula? A. Slow-twitch red fibers
A. Triceps brachii B. Retinaculum
B. Soleus C. Fusiform
C. Trapezius D. Fast-twitch red fibers
D. Biceps brachii
32. What kind of joint is
27. Which muscle originates on described by amphiarthrosis?
the ischial tuberosity and the A. Freely moveable
lateral lip of the linea aspera? B. Slightly moveable
A. Psoas major C. Immoveable
B. Biceps femoris D. Suture
C. Latissimus dorsi
D. Trapezius
Page 55
33. What is chronic pain? 38. Which rhythms repeat

A. Referred pain themselves every few hours,
B. A short lived and localized which are on a 24-hour clock,
unpleasant feeling and which are annual, in that
C. An unpleasant sensation from order?
an internal organ A. Alarm, resistance,
D. An unpleasant feeling that exhaustion
lasts over 6 months B. Proliferation, ossification,
remodeling
34. What is the reproduction of C. Ultradian, seasonal, and
abnormal cells that fail to biological rhythms
mature into specialized cell D. Ultradian, circadian, and
types? seasonal rhythms
A. Homeostasis
B. Syndrome 39. What is the last stage of
C. Anaplasia osteoarthritis?
D. Malignant A. Bony adaptation
B. Cartilage damage
35. What refers to a disease of C. Bony adaptation
long duration? D. Atrophy
A. Benign
B. Chronic 40. What are the implications for
C. Acute massage for a client taking
D. Metastatic antianginals?
A. The medication may increase
36. What refers to the evidence the effect of the massage
of a disease as observed by a B. Prescribe alternative
health professional? medications
A. Informed consent C. Stop the massage if the heart
B. Contraindication rate increases above 50
C. Signs beats per minute
D. Dysfunction D. Avoid Swedish massage
methods
37. Which is generally indicated
for massage at all stages? 41. What type of prescription
A. Bell's palsy medication might be used to
B. Lice reduce swelling and pain?
C. Erysipelas A. Saw palmetto
D. Bronchitis B. Antidepressants
C. Antihistamines
D. Anti-inflammatory
Page 56
42. What natural supplement is 48. What is in danger of being

used for mild depression? compressed in the lateral
A. Peppermint epicondyle of the humerus
B. Antihistamine endangerment site?
C. Ginseng A. Ulnar nerve
D. St. John's Wort B. Radial nerve
C. Vagus nerve
43. What is tennis elbow, caused D. Hara
by repetitive extension of the
wrist or pronation and 49. What is a mechanical effect
supination of the forearm? of massage?
A. Bursitis A. Lymph flow
B. Lateral epicondylitis B. Activation of
C. Medial epicondylitis parasympathetic nervous
D. Adhesive capsulitis system
C. Pain reduction
44. What is athlete's foot? D. All of the above
A. Whiplash
B. Tinnitus 50. Which is an effect of
C. A fungus massage that can be
D. Pandemic processed through the
autonomic nervous system?
45. What is a tear to a ligament? A. Body/mind effect
A. Sprain B. Toughening/hardening
B. Strain C. Placebo effect
C. Tinnitus D. All of the above
D. Tinea cruris
51. Which condition can benefit
46. What is associated with flat from massage?
back posture? A. Fibromyalgia
A. Hips and knees in neutral B. Headaches
position C. High blood pressure
B. Flexed or straight lumbar D. All of the above
spine
C. Anterior pelvic tilt 52. What is a broad category of
D. All of the above hydrotherapy application that
involves partial or complete
47. Which area is associated with immersion in water?
the femoral nerve? A. Bath
A. Lateral epicondyle of the B. Pack
humerus C. Compress
B. Medial epicondyle of the D. Fomentations
humerus
C. Inguinal triangle
D. Occipital region
Page 57
53. What is considered neutral 58. What is not a physical effect

water temperature? of massage?
A. 32 degrees Fahrenheit or 0 A. Reduces muscle cramps and
degrees Celsius spasms
B. 50 to 55 degrees Fahrenheit B. Increases circulation of blood
or 40 to 45 degrees Celsius and lymph
C. 92 to 93 degrees Fahrenheit C. Increases removal of
or 32 to 33 degrees Celsius metabolic waste
D. 212 degrees Fahrenheit or D. Reduces stress
100 degrees Celsius
59. What is an effect of massage
54. Why are cold applications on the muscular system?
not used for prolonged A. Easier, pain-free movement
periods? B. Improved posture
A. Inflammation C. More flexibility
B. Slight analgesia D. All of the above
C. Depressing effects
D. Deterioration of lung disease 60. What maintains homeostasis?
A. Sympathetic nervous system
55. How long must pressure on a B. Parasympathetic nervous
trigger point typically be system
maintained until the tissue C. Both A and B
releases? D. Spinal nervous system
A. 5 to 10 seconds
B. 30 to 45 seconds 61. Which condition can benefit
C. 1 to 2 minutes from massage?
D. 3 to 4 minutes A. Stress
B. Pain
56. Which stroke involves C. Joint immobility
temporarily stopping blood D. All of the above
flow to an area, then
releasing to allow greater 62. Which is a percussion
blood flow? movement?
A. Compression A. Deep effleurage
B. Friction B. Kneading
C. Effleurage C. Tapping
D. Petrissage D. Cross fiber friction
57. Which addresses adhesions in 63. Which stroke uses a back and
tendinous tissue? forth movement of both
A. Kneading hands?
B. Gliding A. Gliding
C. Friction B. Compression
D. Cupping C. Wringing
D. Percussion
Page 58
64. What is lifting and grasping? 70. What is done if a client has
A. Tapping the knee flexed along with
B. Light stroking posterior tilting of the pelvis
C. Kneading and a flattening of the lumbar
D. Pressing spine?
A. Lengthen soleus
65. Which stroke is not a type of B. Lengthen hamstrings
friction? C. Lengthen pronator teres
A. Transverse D. Refer to a primary care
B. Cross fiber provider immediately
C. Pummeling
D. Circular 71. If a client has a medially
rotated femur, what is the
66. What is contraction without most appropriate treatment?
joint movement? A. Stretch the
A. Isometric contraction sternocleidomastoid
B. Isotonic contraction B. Stretch the knee flexors
C. Isokinetic contraction C. Stretch the hip medial
D. Reciprocal inhibition rotators
D. Stop the massage, a medially
67. How is the pressure during rotated femur is
effleurage? contraindicated
A. Variable
B. Even 72. What is done if a client has a
C. From light to deep flexion deformity of the distal
D. From deep to light phalanges of the lateral four
toes?
68. Which is appropriate for A. Lengthen deltoid
pregnancy massage? B. Lengthen extensor hallucis
A. Light effleurage longus
B. Supine position C. Lengthen flexor digitorum
C. Side-lying position longus
D. All of the above D. Lengthen temporalis
69. What is a method of applying 73. Which muscle is weak if a

ice massage? client has pain in the low
A. Ice in a paper or Styrofoam back, buttocks, sacroiliac
cup joint, lateral knee, and
B. Ice pack anterior knee?
C. Ice in a plastic bag A. Gluteus medius
D. All of the above B. Quadratus lumborum
C. Platysma
D. Upper trapezius
Page 59
74. What would be a good 79. What would most likely allow
position for massaging the the pelvis to tilt forward?
biceps femoris? A. Tight hamstrings
A. Supine B. Weak low back muscles
B. Prone C. Weak abdominal muscles
C. Side-lying D. Flexed knees
D. Seated
75. Where on the SOAP chart are lordotic posture, which
the therapist's visual muscles are slightly elongated
observations documented? but may or may not be weak?
A. Subjective A. Hip flexors
B. Objective B. Medial rotators of hip
C. Assessment C. Neck extensors
D. Plan D. Hamstrings
76. What is the end-to-end 81. Which muscles are elongated

distance of a specific joint and weak with sway-back
movement that is structurally posture?
possible? A. External obliques and upper
A. Active range of motion back extensors
B. Compensation pattern B. One-joint hip flexors
C. Passive range of motion C. Neck flexors
D. Range of motion D. All of the above
77. Massaging what type of 82. Which are long and weak
muscles could add to muscle with the pelvis laterally tilted
imbalance? and high right, right hip
A. Tight but long functioning adducted and medially
muscle areas rotated, and left hip
B. Shortened tight muscles abducted?
C. Shortened weak muscles A. Left lateral trunk muscles,
D. Trigger points right hip abductors and left
hip adductors
78. When assessing flexion of the B. Right peroneus longus and
knee, where is resistance brevis and left tibialis
applied? posterior
A. Distal end of the tibia C. Left flexor hallucis longus
B. At the ankle and left flexor digitorum
C. On the sacrum longus
D. The end of the femur D. All of the above
Page 60
83. Which is an area where the 89. What is treated by

body is balanced in gravity? decreasing the compression on
A. Axis the median nerve?
B. Atlas A. Carpal tunnel syndrome
C. Feet B. Thoracic outlet syndrome
D. Hands C. Frozen shoulder
D. Whiplash
84. Which muscle tends to show
acquired postural weakness in 90. What involves a posterior
right handed individuals? pelvic tilt and hip extension?
A. Splenius capitis A. Hyperlordosis
B. Left soleus B. Hyperkyphosis
C. Right hip lateral rotators C. Scoliosis
D. Frontalis D. Flat-back posture
85. What is good alignment of 91. What approach did Paul St.
the feet and knees? John use when developing his
A. Medial rotation of the femurs nervous or reflexive method?
B. The feet are pronated A. Trigger points
C. The feet are not supinated B. Myofascial approach
D. Knock-kneed position C. Neuromuscular approach
D. Shiatsu
86. What is generally the first
step when a client arrives for 92. Which has a primary goal of
an initial massage session? releasing energy?
A. Perform massage A. Post isometric relaxation
B. Update SOAP chart and B. Trigger point therapy
client records C. Myofascial release
C. Get referrals D. Polarity therapy
D. Intake and medical history
forms 93. Who called a system of
movements medical
87. What may be caused by gymnastics?
occupations such as plumbing A. Per Henrik Ling
and meat cutting? B. Dr. John Georg Mezger
A. Rotator cuff tendinitis C. Dr. George H. Taylor
B. Lateral epicondylitis D. Elizabeth Dicke
C. Medial epicondylitis
D. Golfer's elbow 94. Who developed craniosacral
therapy?
88. What is the thawing phase of A. Dr. Milton Trager
frozen shoulder? B. Dr. Ida Rolf
A. Second stage C. Dr. John Thie
B. Chronic D. Dr. John Upledger
C. Acute
D. Subacute
Page 61
95. What code of ethics for 101. What is in the therapeutic

physicians is from the Greeks? relationship?
A. Shiatsu A. Medical advice
B. Ayurveda B. Social needs
C. Tschanpua C. Personal needs
D. Hippocratic Oath D. None of the above
96. What describes reactive 102. What are types of

points? boundaries?
A. Conception Vessel A. Interpersonal
B. Ayurveda B. Physical and emotional
C. Tsubos C. Sexual and intellectual
D. Antagonist D. All of the above
97. What are commonly 103. Watching a client undress is

accepted guidelines or what type of unethical
principles of conduct that behavior?
govern professional conduct? A. Accessibility violation
A. Code of ethics B. Sexual misconduct
B. Informed consent C. Practicing beyond the scope
C. Scope of practice of practice
D. Power differential D. None of the above
98. Which section of a standards 104. Refusing to work on a client

of practice would contain due to race, religion, size, or
guidance on peer review and sexual orientation is what
the scope of practice? type of unethical behavior?
A. Professionalism A. Misleading claims of curative
B. Accounting abilities
C. Dual roles B. Accessibility violation
D. Prevention of sexual C. Bigotry
misconduct D. None of the above
99. What is an example of a 105. What is appropriate for a

violation of a code of ethics? therapist to do when seeing a
A. Informed consent client in the grocery store?
B. Confidentiality A. Ask how the last massage
C. Ignoring contraindications was
D. All of the above B. Do not bring up anything
about the massage
100. What is not a violation of a C. Ask when the therapist can
code of ethics? expect payment
A. Informed consent D. None of the above
B. Misleading claims
C. Bigotry
D. Inappropriate advertising
Page 62
106. What is respect for the 111. What is unethical behavior

client's privacy? from therapists in a
A. Dual relationships professional relationship?
B. Communication skills A. Sexual talk
C. Confidentiality B. Sexual relations
D. Code of ethics C. Sexual acts and activities
D. All of the above
107. What is an issue if a client
has a condition that the 112. What provides a safe
therapist cannot access? experience for clients?
A. Transference A. Watch the client get
B. Countertransference undressed
C. Scope of practice B. Ask the client for a date
D. Dual relationship during the massage
C. Both A and B are correct
108. What describes the D. None of the above
situation when a therapist is
also the client's friend, 113. What is appropriate for the
relative, or associate? massage environment?
A. Dual relationship A. Strong scents and flowering
B. Transference plants
C. Countertransference B. Indirect or natural light
D. Discrimination C. Loud fast music
D. Two therapists in an 8' x 8'
109. Who would put restrictions room
on business operated from a
home? 114. What is recommended for
A. Local governments handwashing, according to
B. Professional massage the CDC?
associations A. Wash hands after gloves are
C. Answer A and B are correct removed
D. None of the above B. Use scented antimicrobial
soap
110. What is the appropriate C. Wash in a manner that
action if a new client asks the prevents skin and mucous
therapist if the therapist is exposure
married? D. Use the one-handed scoop
A. Do not give out personal technique
information
B. Provide as much information 115. What destroys bacterial
as the client requests spores?
C. Answer and ask the client if A. Disinfection
they are married B. Sterilization
D. None of the above C. Both A and B are correct
Page 63
116. What is designed to protect 122. What is a barter exchange?

from exposure to blood or A. An arrangement that
bodily fluids? provides an informal
A. Universal precautions exchange of similar services
B. Strategic planning on a noncommercial basis
C. Contraindication B. An independent contractor
D. Scope of practice C. An organization with
members who trade services
117. Which are not appropriate D. A corporation
for draping?
A. Sheets 123. What is a statement of
B. Towels purpose?
C. Pillowcases A. Mission statement
D. Light, see-through colors B. Business card
C. Brochure
118. What fat-soluble vitamin is D. Media
a strong anti-oxidant and
immune supporter? 124. Which protects against a
A. St. John's Wort lawsuit?
B. Ma-huang A. Liability insurance
C. Vitamin D B. Life insurance
D. Vitamin E C. Health insurance
D. Flood insurance
working as an employee? 125. What is maintaining the
A. Control office and keeping a budget
B. Flexibility an example of?
C. Can focus on massage A. Licensing
D. Maximize income B. Tax
C. Marketing
120. What is like working as an D. Management
employee while being self-
employed?
A. Independent contractor
B. DBA
C. LLC
D. S-Corporation
121. What is generally the best

form of advertising for a
massage therapist?
A. Phone books
B. Magazines
C. Radio
D. Word of mouth
Page 64
Exam 5 Answer Key
1. C 43. B 85. C
2. D 44. C 86. D
3. C 45. A 87. B
4. C 46. B 88. B
5. D 47. C 89. A
6. A 48. B 90. D
7. B 49. A 91. C
8. C 50. D 92. D
9. C 51. D 93. A
10. D 52. A 94. D
11. B 53. C 95. D
12. B 54. C 96. C
13. C 55. B 97. A
14. D 56. A 98. A
15. D 57. C 99. C
16. A 58. D 100. A
17. C 59. D 101. D
18. B 60. C 102. D
19. B 61. D 103. B
20. D 62. C 104. C
21. D 63. C 105. B
22. B 64. C 106. C
23. B 65. C 107. C
24. C 66. A 108. A
25. A 67. B 109. A
26. C 68. D 110. A
27. B 69. D 111. D
28. D 70. B 112. D
29. A 71. C 113. B
30. D 72. C 114. A
31. A 73. A 115. B
32. B 74. B 116. A
33. D 75. B 117. D
34. C 76. D 118. D
35. B 77. A 119. C
36. C 78. A 120. A
37. A 79. C 121. D
38. D 80. D 122. C
39. D 81. D 123. A
40. A 82. D 124. A
41. D 83. B 125. D
42. D 84. C
Page 65
Exam 6
1. What does anatomy refer to? 6. What classification of bones

A. Structures of the body includes the larger bones with
B. Soft tissue manipulation a shaft and medullary cavity
C. Disease such as the arm bones?
D. Tissues A. Sesamoid
B. Sutural
2. Which level in the C. Long
organization of the body D. Short
structure has different types of
tissues joined together? 7. Which is part of the nervous
A. Atomic level system?
B. System level A. Skull
C. Organ level B. Spinal cord
D. Cellular level C. Joints
D. Sacrum
3. What is adenosine
triphosphate or ATP? 8. Which is a function of the
A. A substance used to identify autonomic nervous system
crime victims under parasympathetic control?
B. Oxygen, carbon, and A. Increased heartbeat
hydrogen B. Constricted blood vessels
C. A double helix C. Decreased peristalsis
D. Energy currency D. Increased secretion of
digestive juices
4. What type of tissue protects
and supports the body and 9. Which is the main function of
holds organs together? the cardiovascular system?
A. Epithelial A. Secretion of chemicals
B. Connective B. Defense against infection
C. Cardiac C. Circulation
D. Patellar D. Gas exchange
5. What is a general term for 10. Which system is most closely

sweat glands? associated with the immune
A. Sudoriferous glands system?
B. Dermis A. Lymphatic
C. Apocrine glands B. Endocrine
D. Ulcers C. Respiratory
D. Circulatory
Page 66
11. Which system helps with the 17. Where is the gluteal region?
sense of smell? A. Top of head
A. Lymphatic B. Shoulder blade
B. Gastrointestinal C. Lower back
C. Urinary D. Buttocks
D. Respiratory
18. Which method describes the
12. Which is a simple sugar that small intestine as a yang
is the end-product of meridian?
carbohydrate digestion? A. Swedish gymnastics
A. Amino acid B. Movement cure
B. Glucose C. Acupressure
C. Triglyceride D. All of the above
D. Enzyme
13. The Lambdoidal suture is the inserts on the head of the
articulation of which bones? fibula?
A. Three parietal bones A. Triceps brachii
B. Sacral and lumbar bones B. Psoas major
C. Parietal and temporal bones C. Frontalis
D. Occipital and parietal bones D. Biceps femoris
14. Which means situated away 20. Where does extensor hallucis
from the trunk or midline? longus insert?
A. External A. Phalanx
B. Internal B. Femur
C. Proximal C. Clavicle
D. Distal D. Tarsals and metatarsals
15. Where is the sternum 21. What is the boundary of the

relative to the head? origins of the tensor fasciae
A. Medial latae and gluteus medius?
B. Lateral A. Iliac tubercle
C. Anterior B. Greater trochanter of femur
D. Posterior C. Olecranon process
D. Greater tubercle of the
16. Which region of the trunk humerus
has five vertebrae fused into
one? 22. What originates at the
A. Sacral vertebrae, the ribs, and iliac
B. Cervical crest and inserts on the lesser
C. Lumbar tubercle of the humerus?
D. Thoracic A. Latissimus dorsi
B. Gastrocnemius
C. Soleus
D. Pectoralis major
Page 67
23. Which attaches muscle to 29. What is the general type of

bone, has parallel collagen contraction in which the
fibers, and can be taut or length of the muscle changes?
slack? A. Reciprocal inhibition
A. Tendons B. Isotonic
B. Joints C. Elasticity
C. Ligaments D. Isometric
D. Aponeurosis
30. Which muscle would
24. What type of joint is predominantly have slow
between the carpals? twitch fibers?
A. Pivot A. Erector spinae
B. Saddle B. Pronator teres
C. Ball and socket C. Deltoid
D. Gliding D. Biceps brachii
25. Which inserts on the greater 31. What describes the

tubercle of the humerus? positioning in which a joint is
A. Supraspinatus free to move without causing
B. Infraspinatus motion at another joint?
C. Teres minor A. Closed kinematic chains
D. All of the above B. Open kinematic chains
C. Close-packed position
26. Which muscle flexes the D. Loose-packed position
elbow and assists to pronate
and supinate the forearm? 32. Which muscle horizontally
A. Triceps brachii abducts the shoulder?
B. Deltoid A. Supinator
C. Brachioradialis B. Vastus intermedius
D. Biceps femoris C. Infraspinatus
D. Levator scapula
27. What movement occurs at
the distal radius? 33. What is somatic pain?
A. Depression A. Persistent chronic pain
B. Extension B. A short lived and localized
C. Radial deviation unpleasant feeling
D. Ulnar deviation C. Homeostasis
D. Atrophy
28. Which muscle inserts on the
transverse process of the 34. What is uncontrolled cell
atlas? division?
A. Rectus capitis posterior A. Hyperplasia
minor B. Inflammation
B. Pectoralis major C. Anaplasia
C. External oblique D. Malignant
D. Oblique capitis inferior
Page 68
35. What is malignant neoplasia? 41. What type of medication

A. Trauma might be used to treat a
B. Inflammation bacterial infection?
C. Carbuncle A. Antibiotics
D. Cancer B. Antidepressants
C. Lavender
36. Which is more likely to be a D. Anti-inflammatory
mode of HIV transmission?
A. Handshake 42. What is used for skin
B. Toilet seat inflammation?
C. Breast milk A. Scabicide
D. Cough B. Brewer's yeast
C. Antihistamine
37. Which is a systematic D. Chamomile
contraindication for massage?
A. Bell's palsy 43. What is frozen shoulder?
B. Acne A. Bursitis
C. Erysipelas B. Lateral epicondylitis
D. Bronchitis C. Medial epicondylitis
D. Adhesive capsulitis
38. Which rhythms repeat
themselves every few hours? 44. What is a disease that affects
A. Acute the entire world?
B. Biological rhythms A. Isolated
C. Ultradian rhythms B. Sudden onset
D. Inflammation C. Acute
D. Pandemic
39. What is a progressive skin
condition that destroys motor 45. What is a sprain?
neurons in the spinal cord? A. Injury to muscle
A. Alzheimer's disease B. Tear to ligament
B. Lou Gehrig's disease C. Fungus
C. Plantar fasciitis D. Tinea cruris
D. HIV
46. What position of the pelvis is
40. What are the implications for associated with lordosis?
massage for a client taking A. Anterior tilt
beta blockers? B. Neutral position
A. The client may be C. Posterior tilt
susceptible to cold D. Lateral tilt
B. The medication may result in
dizziness after the massage
C. Massage may help with
constipation
D. All of the above
Page 69
47. Which muscles is the radial 52. Which group can benefit
nerve associated with? from massage?
A. Psoas and quadratus A. Individuals with HIV
lumborum B. Hospitalized and hospice
B. Trapezius and scalene patients
C. Supinator and triceps C. Infants
D. Teres major, temporalis, and D. All of the above
triceps
53. What is the hydrotherapy
48. What is an endangerment application that combines
site? heat and cold?
A. An exaggerated lumbar curve A. Contrast method
B. A keloid B. Cryotherapy
C. An area where nerves and C. Thermotherapy
blood vessels could be D. Ice massage
compressed
D. Pressure points 54. Which is not Swedish
massage?
49. What is a mechanical effect A. Tapotement
of massage? B. Friction
A. Therapeutic touch C. Vibration
B. Breaking adhesions D. All of the above are Swedish
C. Pain reduction massage
D. All of the above
55. Which is an effect of
50. Which is an effect of effleurage?
massage that can be A. Stimulate sympathetic
processed through the somatic nervous system
nervous system? B. Decrease adhesions
A. Sympathetic activation and C. Repair scar tissue
stress D. Improve health of ischemic
B. Parasympathetic patterns tissues
and conservation withdrawal
C. Reduction of impingement 56. Which is effective for
D. All of the above reducing adhesions during
sports massage?
51. What is an effect of massage A. Vibration
on the cardiovascular system? B. Effleurage
A. Reduces ischemia C. Active joint movements
B. Decreases white blood cell D. Cross fiber friction
count
C. Ballistic stretching 57. Which is a form of vibration?
D. Decreases stroke volume A. Wringing
B. Skin rolling
C. Jostling
D. Percussion
Page 70
58. What is a psychological 64. What breaks up adhesions?

effect of massage? A. Effleurage
A. Relieves fatigue B. Friction
B. Reduces tension and anxiety C. Slapping
C. Calms the nervous system D. Tapotement
D. All of the above
65. Which is appropriate for
59. What is a massage technique massage for the critically ill?
that tends to anesthetize the A. Abbreviated length of session
local nerves? B. Extended length of session
A. Rolling C. Methods that stimulate
B. Strong percussion for a short circulation
period D. Methods that stir up wastes
C. Prolonged percussion
D. All of the above 66. What is contraindicated for
60. What is initiated by cancer?
stimulation of the A. Deep pressure
parasympathetic nervous B. Site of incision first 4 weeks
system? after surgery
A. Adrenal secretions increased C. Massage on lower limbs post-
B. Sweat glands activated surgery
C. Body is more alert and D. All of the above
attentive
D. Relaxation/restoration 67. What is the initial feeling
response from applying ice?
A. Uncomfortable cold
61. What elevates the mood B. Total numbness
when increased? C. Increased local circulation
A. Serotonin D. Vasodilation
B. Dopamine
C. Endorphins and enkephalins 68. Which is a proprioceptive
D. All of the above neuromuscular facilitation
(PNF) technique?
62. Which is a type of vibration? A. Reciprocal Inhibition
A. Jostling B. Petrissage
B. Compression C. Reiki
C. Kneading D. Effleurage
D. Percussion
69. Which stroke is not a type of
63. Which stroke is not percussion?
effleurage? A. Beating
A. Superficial gliding B. Cross fiber
B. Deep gliding C. Pummeling
C. Percussion D. Tapping
D. Aura stroking
Page 71
70. If a client has lordotic 74. What is a recommendation to

posture, what is the most see a specific professional?
appropriate treatment? A. Ergonomics
A. Lengthen sartorius and B. Referral
adductors C. Self help
B. Lengthen psoas major and D. Treatment plan
multifidi
C. Lengthen external obliques 75. Where on the SOAP chart is
and semitendinosus written information that
D. Refer to a primary care clients share regarding health
provider immediately history documented?
A. Subjective
71. If a client has left torticollis, B. Objective
what is the most appropriate C. Assessment
treatment? D. Plan
A. Lengthen erector spinae and
transversospinalis 76. What is the joint movement
B. Lengthen left biceps brachii that requires the client to use
and triceps their own energy?
C. Lengthen left splenius capitis A. Active range of motion
and right upper trapezius B. Compensation pattern
D. Lengthen right splenius C. Passive range of motion
capitis and left upper D. Range of motion
trapezius
77. What is the muscle being
72. What is done if a client has treated in a therapeutic
an abduction deformity that technique?
may be seen as a lateral A. Tender point
pelvic tilt? B. Trigger point
A. Lengthen gluteus medius C. Target muscle
B. Lengthen hamstrings D. Muscle guarding
C. Lengthen rectus abdominis
D. Lengthen quadriceps femoris 78. If a client says an area is
stiff, what type of issue is it
73. Where would a trigger point usually?
on orbicularis oculi refer pain? A. Muscle tone issue
A. Above eyelid, sinuses B. Connective tissue or fluid
B. Down the lateral side of the retention issue
arm C. Joint issue
C. Hip and down lateral side of D. Chakra issue
leg
D. Posterior axillary area,
scapula, and ulnar side of
arm
Page 72
79. What is happening when the 83. What is the effect on the
pelvis maintains its ideal feet from walking with lateral
alignment? rotation of the legs?
A. The abdominal muscles pull A. Medial rotation of the ulna
upward B. The feet are pronated
B. The back muscles pull C. The feet are supinated
downward D. Strain on longitudinal arches
C. The SCM pulls upward
D. The arm flexors pull upward 84. Which muscles usually work
against gravity?
80. If a client has lordotic A. Internal rotators
posture, which muscles are B. External rotators
most likely elongated and C. Extensors and abductors
weak? D. Flexors and adductors
A. Anterior abdominals
B. Lateral rotators of hip 85. How does a therapist test
C. Low back the left leg extensors?
D. Frontalis and SCM A. Client holds left leg position
against therapist's
81. If a client complains of superior/cephalad pressure
difficulty with stair climbing B. Client holds right leg position
and walking up an incline, against therapist's
what muscle is most likely superior/cephalad pressure
weak? C. Client holds left arm position
A. Quadriceps femoris against therapist's
B. Soleus inferior/caudal pressure
C. Trapezius D. Client holds right leg position
D. Semitendinosus against therapist's
82. Which are long and weak
with the right hip adducted 86. What is generally the next
and medially rotated, left hip step in a massage session after
abducted and feet pronated? the consultation?
A. Left lateral trunk muscles, A. Perform massage
right hip abductors and left B. Update SOAP chart and
hip adductors client records
B. Left deltoid and right C. Get referrals
pronator teres D. Medical history forms
C. Right flexor hallucis longus
and right flexor digitorum 87. What is a synovial cyst that
longus usually appears on the lateral
D. All of the above side of the popliteal space?
A. Bunion
B. Baker's cyst
C. Tendonitis
D. Trigger finger
Page 73
88. Which is a treatment for 94. Who developed manual

frozen shoulder? lymph drainage?
A. Ice in the acute stage A. Dr. Emil Vodder and Dr.
B. Treat compensating Estrid Vodder
structures B. James Cyriax
C. Mobilize hypomobile joints C. Elizabeth Dicke
D. All of the above D. Joseph Heller
89. What is treated by applying 95. What is the art of rubbing a

techniques to pronator teres? body part upward?
A. Frozen shoulder A. Anatripsis
B. Whiplash B. Ayurveda
C. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Tschanpua
D. Thoracic outlet syndrome D. Hippocratic Oath
90. What is a characteristic of 96. What are earth, metal,

flat-back posture? water, wood, and fire?
A. Tight abdominals A. Chakras
B. Tight hamstrings B. The Five Elements
C. Posterior pelvic tilt C. Doshas
D. All of the above D. Trigger points
91. With what approach is Janet 97. What occurs when personal
Travel associated? and professional roles overlap?
A. Trigger points A. Client-centered
B. Myofascial approach B. Dual relationships
C. Neuromuscular approach C. Balance
D. Structural integration D. Countertransference
92. Which method associates the 98. If a client reenacts abuse

stomach with a point on the while on the massage table by
medial side of the foot in crying and shaking, what is an
between the waist line and appropriate action by the
diaphragm line? therapist?
A. Swedish A. Encourage the response
B. Trigger point therapy B. Stop the response
C. Bindegewebmassage C. Terminate the massage
D. Reflexology D. Be calm and accepting
93. Who developed Rolfing? 99. What is an example of a

A. Dr. Milton Trager violation of a code of ethics?
B. Dr. Ida Rolf A. Informed consent
C. Dr. John Thie B. Violations of confidentiality
D. Dr. John Upledger C. Working on a minor with
parental consent
D. All of the above
Page 74
100. What is not a violation of a 105. What is appropriate when a

code of ethics? client says they are going to
A. Informed consent violations stop their medical treatment
B. Dating a client now?
C. Working on a minor with A. Suggest the client discuss it
parental consent with their primary care
D. All of the above provider
B. Tell the client it is OK to
101. What is out of the stop the medical treatment
therapeutic relationship? C. Answer A and B are correct
A. Other business deals D. None of the above
B. Contract
C. Right of refusal 106. What is an issue if a
D. All of the above therapist hires a client to do
renovations then is
102. What might be appropriate disappointed in the work?
for a client who does not A. Transference
want to fill out a health B. Dual relationship
intake form? C. Countertransference
A. Take the information D. Scope of practice
verbally
B. Suggest filling out a shorter 107. What can state and local
version of the form governments do?
C. Both A and B are correct A. Require licensing
D. None of the above B. Restrict what businesses may
be operated from a home
103. Doing spinal adjustments C. Answer A and B are correct
without the proper training is D. None of the above
what type of behavior?
A. Unethical 108. What supports a higher
B. Practicing beyond the scope level of professionalism?
of practice A. Sexual misconduct
C. Both A and B are correct B. Continuing education
D. None of the above C. Answer A and B are correct
104. Presenting misleading
qualifications in a brochure is 109. What occurs when a
what type of unethical therapist gets angry because
behavior? a client talks too much?
A. Sexual misconduct A. Transference
B. Accessibility violation B. Dual relationship
C. Inappropriate advertising C. Boundaries
D. None of the above D. Countertransference
Page 75
110. What could make it difficult 115. What must be made

for a therapist to available within 10 days for
communicate with a client if employees with occupational
the therapist feels the client exposure?
is more powerful? A. Hepatitis B vaccination
A. Power differential B. Employer-provided
B. Transference protective clothing and
C. Safety practices equipment
D. Clinical reasoning C. Engineering and work
practice controls
111. What is a sexual misconduct D. SHARPS injury control
boundary violation? program
A. Sexual demeaning comments
B. Sexual demeaning gestures 116. What is the primary
C. Sexual demeaning infection precaution?
expressions A. Hand washing with 10%
D. All of the above bleach
B. Hand washing with soap
112. What provides a safe C. Use of latex gloves with oil
experience for clients? D. Washing linens in cold water
A. Diffuse any hints or signs of
sexual arousal 117. What is a universal
B. Keep accurate records of precaution?
questionable events A. Wash hands with soap and
C. Both A and B are correct water before and after
D. None of the above contact with every client
B. Gloves must be worn if the
113. What is the proper height therapist's skin is not intact
for a table for general C. Both A and B are correct
relaxation massage? D. None of the above
A. 17 inches
B. Middle of the therapist's 118. When must clean linens be
thighs used?
C. At or above the therapist's A. Daily
waist B. For each client
D. 34 inches C. Each time the client turns
over
114. What removes pathogens D. None of the above
from implements and
surfaces?
A. Sterilization
B. Disinfection
Page 76
119. What is a fire safety 124. What shows assets and

practice? liabilities?
A. Maintain functioning smoke A. Balance sheet
and carbon dioxide detectors B. Income and expense
B. Be familiar with location of statement
fire extinguishers C. Budget
C. Clearly indicate fire exits D. Marketing
and have an evacuation
procedure 125. What protects against
D. All of the above monetary loss for damage to
a building or equipment?
120. What is appropriate first aid A. Unemployment insurance
care when a person is not B. Disability insurance
breathing or unconscious? C. Liability insurance
A. Cool the body D. Property insurance
B. Move the person to an area
of fresh air
C. Tilt the head back and lift
the chin
D. Move the person to a warm
place
121. What protects the

practitioner's hands?
A. Stay on top of the massage
movement rather than in
front
B. Avoid excessive wrist angles
C. Hyperextend the wrist
D. Do not use the forearms and
elbows for deep pressure
122. What are the main reasons

for draping?
A. Legal requirements
B. Gender issues
C. Establish trust and modesty
D. Cultural issues
123. Which vitamin is necessary

for the absorption of calcium
and phosphorus?
A. NSAIDs
B. Thiamine
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
Page 77
Exam 6 Answer Key
1. A 43. D 85. A
2. C 44. D 86. A
3. D 45. B 87. B
4. B 46. A 88. D
5. A 47. C 89. C
6. C 48. C 90. D
7. B 49. B 91. A
8. D 50. C 92. D
9. C 51. A 93. B
10. A 52. D 94. A
11. D 53. A 95. A
12. B 54. C 96. B
13. D 55. D 97. B
14. D 56. D 98. D
15. C 57. C 99. B
16. A 58. D 100. C
17. D 59. C 101. A
18. C 60. D 102. C
19. D 61. D 103. C
20. A 62. A 104. C
21. A 63. C 105. A
22. A 64. B 106. B
23. A 65. A 107. C
24. D 66. D 108. B
25. D 67. A 109. D
26. C 68. A 110. A
27. C 69. B 111. D
28. D 70. B 112. C
29. B 71. C 113. B
30. A 72. A 114. C
31. B 73. A 115. A
32. C 74. B 116. B
33. B 75. A 117. C
34. A 76. A 118. B
35. D 77. C 119. D
36. C 78. B 120. C
37. C 79. A 121. B
38. C 80. A 122. C
39. B 81. A 123. D
40. D 82. A 124. A
41. A 83. D 125. D
42. D 84. D
Page 78
Exam 7
1. Which refers to the functions 7. Which system is responsible

of the body? for the processes of
A. Craniosacral therapy intelligence, memory, and
B. Physiology emotion?
C. Histology A. Nervous
D. Anthropology B. Reproductive
C. Endocrine
2. What does myelin act as? D. Cardiovascular
A. A spinal cord analgesic
B. A dermatome 8. Which is a function of the
C. An electrical insulator autonomic nervous system
D. A catalyst for actin and under sympathetic control?
myosin A. Increased heartbeat
B. Slow heartbeat
3. What involves a cell C. Increased peristalsis
replicating its DNA? D. Increased secretion of
A. Atrophy digestive juices
B. Hypertrophy
C. Reflex arc 9. Which system includes the
D. Interphase heart, arteries, veins, and
capillaries?
4. What type of tissue generates A. Respiratory
the physical force necessary B. Cardiovascular
for movement? C. Nervous
A. Epithelial D. Gastrointestinal
B. Cranial
C. Skeletal 10. Fluid flowing into lymph
D. Muscular capillaries is derived from
what?
5. What are glands along the A. Fibrin
shaft of the hair? B. Pericardium
A. Rosacrea C. Blast cells
B. Sudoriferous glands D. Blood plasma
C. Stratum germinativum
D. Sebaceous glands 11. Which system is the gateway
for nutrients?
6. What classification of bones A. Respiratory
includes bones such as the ribs B. Reproductive
that are less round? C. Urinary
A. Flat D. Gastrointestinal
B. Irregular
C. Long
D. Short
Page 79
12. What is a small fluid-filled 17. Where is the sacral region?

sac that reduces friction A. Top of head
between two structures? B. Shoulder blade
A. Bursa C. Below lower back
B. Superficial fascia D. Buttocks
C. Deep fascia
D. Retinaculum 18. Which method describes the
stomach as a yang meridian?
13. Which cranial suture is the A. Shiatsu
articulation of two parietal B. Acupressure
bones? C. Acupuncture
A. Coronal D. All of the above
B. Sagittal
C. Synovial 19. What action occurs in the
D. Lambdoidal transverse plane?
A. Flexion
14. Which means higher than or B. Adduction
above? C. Rotation
A. Anterior D. Supination
B. Inferior
C. Posterior 20. Which of these muscles has
D. Superior the occiput as one of its
origins?
15. Which means the ends are A. Rhomboid major
bent outward, or bent toward B. Trapezius
the wall: <>, bowlegged? C. Soleus
A. Valgus deformity D. Deltoid
B. Varus deformity
C. Plantar 21. Where does flexor digitorum
D. Volar longus insert?
A. Pelvis
16. What is the order of the body B. Phalanges
cavities from the most C. Metacarpal
superior to the most inferior, D. Calcaneus
after the cranial cavity?
A. Vertebral, thoracic, 22. Where is the greater
abdominal, pelvic tubercle of the humerus?
B. Thoracic, abdominal, pelvic, A. Anterior to the lateral
vertebral malleolus
C. Thoracic, pelvic, umbilical, B. Inferior and lateral to
vertebral acromion
D. Vertebral, posterior, C. Distal to iliac crest on side of
thoracic, abdominal hip
D. Directly medial from coccyx
Page 80
23. What muscle originates at 29. Which muscle laterally tilts

the clavicle, sternum, and the the pelvis and laterally flexes
ribs, and inserts on the the vertebral column?
greater tubercle of the A. Occipitofrontalis
humerus? B. Biceps femoris
A. Biceps femoris C. Sartorius
B. Trapezius D. Quadratus lumborum
C. Serratus anterior
D. Pectoralis major 30. What movement occurs at
the distal ulna?
24. Which connects muscle to A. Depression
bone? B. Extension
A. Bursae C. Radial deviation
B. Fascia D. Ulnar deviation
C. Ligaments
D. Tendons 31. Which muscle plantar flexes
the ankle and everts the foot?
25. What type of joint is the A. Triceps brachii
elbow? B. Deltoid
A. Planar C. Vastus lateralis
B. Hinge D. Peroneus longus
C. Ball and socket
D. Ellipsoidal 32. What type of joint allows
flexion / extension and
26. What group includes biceps abduction / adduction?
femoris, semitendinosus, and A. Gliding
semimembrinosis? B. Ellipsoid
A. Quadriceps C. Hinge
B. Hamstrings D. Amphiarthrosis
C. Adductors
D. Abductors 33. What is persistent chronic
pain?
27. Which muscle medially A. Intractable pain
rotates the shoulder? B. Atrophy
A. Subscapularis C. Referred pain
B. Infraspinatus D. Acute pain
C. Tibialis anterior
D. Biceps femoris 34. Which is increased in the
elderly?
28. Which muscle extends the A. Immune response to vaccines
elbow, adducts the shoulder, B. Incidence of autoimmune
and extends the shoulder? diseases
A. Triceps brachii C. Natural killer cell activity
B. Vastus lateralis D. Number of T lymphocytes
C. Splenius capitis
D. Biceps brachii
Page 81
35. What means founded on 40. What is a hole or rip in the

actual observations and abdominal wall or inguinal
treatment? ring through which the small
A. Clinical intestine may protrude?
B. Ambulatory A. Hernia
C. Anomaly B. Ganglion cyst
D. Stages of lifecycle C. Spondylosis
D. Diverticulitis
36. Which is least likely to be a
mode of HIV transmission? 41. What are the implications for
A. Blood massage for a client taking
B. Semen antihyperlipidemics?
C. Vaginal secretions A. Occasional muscle and joint
D. Saliva pain can occur
37. Which is a contraindication dizziness after the massage
for massage while in the acute C. Massage may help with
stage? constipation
A. Herpes zoster D. All of the above
B. HIV
C. Stress 42. What is an example of an
D. Renal failure herbal supplement?
A. Antihistamine
38. Is massage indicated or B. Saw palmetto
contraindicated for C. Bee pollen
meningitis? D. Muscle relaxant
A. Indicated
B. Contraindicated 43. What kind of fracture
C. Local contraindication involves a break in the skin
D. Contraindicated in the acute and torn soft tissues, where
stage the bone protrudes through
skin?
39. What type of disease shows A. Incomplete fracture
either little change or slow B. Compound or open fracture
progression? C. Simple fracture
A. Acute D. Chronic
B. Sub-acute
C. Chronic 44. What is the result of
D. Depression compression of the median
nerve of the brachial plexus?
A. Tennis elbow
B. Golfer's elbow
C. Carpal tunnel syndrome
D. Frozen shoulder
Page 82
45. What is a strain? 51. What is an effect of massage

A. Injury to muscle on the cardiovascular system?
B. Tear to ligament A. Decreases oxygen saturation
C. Fungus in blood
D. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Increases white blood cell
count
46. What is an overdeveloped C. Decreases red blood cell
lumbar curve? count
A. Lordosis D. Sweat glands activated
B. Scoliosis
C. Kyphosis 52. If a client is functioning from
D. All of the above sympathetic nervous system
dominance, what would be an
47. Which area is associated with appropriate initial stroke?
the SCM, clavicle, and A. Gentle rocking
trapezius? B. Slow effleurage
A. Posterior triangle of the neck C. Feather strokes
B. Anterior triangle of the neck D. Tapotement
C. Axillary area
D. Sacral region 53. What is a sitting bath with
the water coming up to the
48. Which of the following is a navel?
component of the posterior A. Steam bath
triangle of the neck B. Sauna
endangerment site? C. Sitz bath
A. Carotid artery D. Paraffin bath
B. Femoral region
C. Subclavian artery 54. What are reduced
D. Vagus nerve inflammation, reduced
swelling, and reduced muscle
49. What are the activation of spasm effects of?
the parasympathetic nervous A. Tonic friction
system and the release of B. Heat
endorphins examples of? C. Cold
A. Homeostasis D. Shampoos
B. Physiological effects
C. Placebo effects 55. Which stroke is kneading?
D. Mind-body effects A. Friction
B. Tapotement
50. Which massage effect can be C. Petrissage
processed through the somatic D. Effleurage
nervous system?
A. Neuromuscular mechanisms
B. Hyperstimulation analgesia
C. Counterirritation
D. All of the above
Page 83
56. What is a PNF technique that 61. Which is a percussion

involves holding and waiting movement?
for the nervous system to A. Deep effleurage
trigger relaxation? B. Kneading
A. Compression C. Beating
B. Positional release (PR) D. Cross fiber friction
(PIR) 62. Which stroke is appropriate
D. Reciprocal inhibition (RI) for treating tendonitis?
A. Vibration
57. What is a physical effect of B. Deep gliding
massage? C. Cross-fiber friction
A. Relieves muscle cramps and D. Percussion
spasms
B. Decreases circulation of 63. What is kneading?
blood and lymph A. Tapping
C. Reduces removal of B. Light stroking
metabolic waste C. Lifting and grasping
D. Calms the nervous system D. Pressing
58. What is a psychological 64. What is a bone against bone

effect of massage? feeling?
A. Relieves fatigue A. Hard end feel
B. Increases tension and anxiety B. Soft end feel
C. Relieves muscle cramps C. Empty end feel
D. Increases circulation D. Active joint movement
59. What is an effect of massage 65. What is most appropriate for

on the muscular system? breaking up adhesions in the
A. Release fascial restrictions muscle belly?
B. Reduce thickening of A. Effleurage
connective tissue B. Kneading
(hyperplasia) C. Percussion
C. More flexibility D. Tapotement
D. All of the above
66. What is a virus that can
60. What is increased by potentially destroy the
massage? immune system?
A. Serotonin A. AIDS
B. Dopamine B. HIV
C. Endorphins C. T-cell
D. All of the above D. Kaposi's sarcoma
Page 84
67. What is a Russian bath? 72. If a client has lordotic

A. Whirlpool bath posture, what is the most
B. Full body steam bath appropriate treatment?
C. Diathermy A. Shorten tensor fasciae latae
D. All of the above and longissimus thoracis
B. Lengthen rectus abdominis
68. What is the "C" in the and biceps femoris
R.I.C.E.S. first aid principle? C. Lengthen iliacus and
A. Cold iliocostalis lumborum
B. Circulation D. Lengthen internal obliques
C. Compression and semimembranosus
D. Cryotherapy
73. If a client has right
69. Which is a proprioceptive torticollis, what is the most
neuromuscular facilitation appropriate treatment?
(PNF) technique? A. Lengthen erector spinae and
A. Hydrotherapy transversospinalis
B. Cryotherapy B. Lengthen left biceps brachii
C. Cross-fiber friction and triceps
D. Positional Release C. Lengthen left splenius capitis
and right upper trapezius
70. What would be a good D. Lengthen right splenius
position to start a massage for capitis and left upper
first-time clients to make trapezius
them feel more comfortable
and safer? 74. What is done if a client has a
A. Supine supinated position of the heel
B. Prone with forefoot varus?
C. Side-lying A. Lengthen flexor digitorum
D. Lateral longus
B. Lengthen extensor digitorum
71. If a client has a forward head longus
position, what is the most C. Lengthen tibialis posterior
appropriate treatment? D. Lengthen tibialis anterior
A. Lengthen and stretch rectus
capitis posterior major 75. What would be used to find
B. Shorten upper trapezius and tender areas within muscles
splenius resulting from a postural
C. Lengthen and stretch oblique deviation?
capitis inferior A. Rapport
D. Lengthen and stretch spinalis B. Care plan
C. Assessment
D. Palpation
Page 85
76. Where on the SOAP chart are 80. Which muscles are elongated
palpation findings and weak with flat back
documented? posture?
A. Subjective A. Hamstrings
B. Objective B. One-joint hip flexors
C. Assessment C. Muscles of the face
D. Plan D. All of the above
77. Which areas must be 81. Where does the standard

identified in an assessment so side-view line of reference
that correction can be applied through the ankle pass?
to those areas? A. Anterior to the axis of the
A. Concentrically contracted elbow joint
shortened areas B. Posterior to the knee joint
B. Concentrically contracted C. Posterior to the outer
lengthened areas malleolus and through the
C. Isometrically contracted apex of the arch
lengthened areas D. Anterior to the outer
D. Assessments are outside the malleolus and through the
scope of practice apex of the arch
78. What happens to postural 82. Which muscles need to be

muscles if posture is not exercised when the shoulders
balanced? are depressed and the
A. They jump into action and scapulae abducted?
tire more quickly A. Platysma
B. They must function more like B. Rectus abdominis
ligaments and bones C. Upper trapezius
C. They have more fast-twitch D. Lower trapezius
white fibers
D. Atrophy of the temporalis 83. Which is a correct set up for
proper ergonomics at a
79. If a client has kyphotic- computer workstation?
lordotic posture, which A. Phone on shoulder
muscles are most likely B. Feet propped on chair legs
elongated and weak? C. Monitor at or below eye level
A. Hip flexors D. Computer in a corner on a
B. Low back platform
D. Frontalis and soleus 84. Which muscle tends to show
acquired postural weakness in
right handed individuals?
A. Gluteus maximum
B. Right tibialis anterior
C. Left flexor hallucis longus
D. Occipitofrontalis
Page 86
85. When would a therapist need 90. What is treated by stretching

to postpone a massage for an the erector spinae and
athlete? quadratus lumborum when
A. Immediately prior to an prone?
athletic event A. Hyperlordosis
B. During a break in the B. Hyperkyphosis
competition C. Scoliosis
C. After an athletic event D. Flat-back posture
D. If the athlete has heat
exhaustion 91. Who developed Swedish
massage and is considered the
86. What is not part of the Father of Swedish Massage?
treatment for plantar fasciitis? A. Per Henrik Ling
A. Apply cold in the acute and B. Dr. John Georg Mezger
chronic stages C. Dr. George H. Taylor
B. Cross fiber friction on D. Dr. John Harvey Kellogg
adhesions
C. Treat the shortened 92. Which is a non-invasive
gastrocnemius and soleus neuromuscular approach with
D. Thumb kneading on foot roots in osteopathy?
A. Ortho-bionomy
87. What is excessive bone B. Craniosacral therapy
growth at the first C. Reflexology
metatarsophalangeal joint D. Polarity therapy
capsule?
A. Trigger finger 93. Which modality developed by
B. Bunion Dr. John Upledger uses the
C. Baker's cyst principles of unwinding?
D. Tendonitis A. Post isometric relaxation
B. Shiatsu
88. What type of range of motion C. Hydrotherapy
is painful with frozen D. Craniosacral therapy
shoulder?
A. Active only 94. Who developed deep
B. Passive only transverse friction?
C. Active and passive A. Dr. Emil Vodder and Dr.
D. None of the above Estrid Vodder
B. James Cyriax
89. What is a condition that C. Elizabeth Dicke
results from compression of D. Joseph Heller
the median nerve at the wrist?
A. Trigger finger 95. What was developed in India?
B. Piriformis syndrome A. Anatripsis
C. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Ayurveda
D. Thoracic outlet syndrome C. Anma
D. Lomi lomi
Page 87
96. Which is an energy 102. What is a duty of health

technique? professionals?
A. Esalen massage A. Do no harm
B. Reiki B. Do positive good
C. Trigger point therapy C. Both A and B are correct
97. What are professional 103. What occurs when a

classifications of touch? therapist who is angry
A. Mechanical or expressive assumes that a client is
touch angry?
B. German or French method A. Projection
C. Hostile or aggressive touch B. Power differential
D. Sexual or erotic touch C. Dual relationship
D. Networking
violation of a code of ethics? 104. What should the therapist
A. Bigotry do if a minor asks for an
B. Right of refusal exception to getting parental
C. Working on a minor with consent for a massage?
parental consent A. Do the massage if a friend
D. All of the above says it is OK
B. Do not do the massage
99. What is not a violation of a C. Do the massage if the minor
code of ethics? promises to get permission
A. Client-centered actions and later
words D. Do the massage but decrease
B. Dating a client the duration
C. Ignoring contraindications
D. Informed consent violations 105. What is gathering
information about a
100. What is in the therapeutic condition?
relationship? A. Dual relationship
A. Personal needs B. Assessment
B. Scope of practice C. Countertransference
C. Social needs D. Diagnosis
D. All of the above
106. What is a condition that
101. What is an example of a prompts dual relationships?
boundary? A. Safe use of equipment and
A. Written data collection supplies
B. Edge B. Dating
C. Both A and B are correct C. Both A and B are correct
D. None of the above D. None of the above
Page 88
107. What is more common at 112. What provides a safe

the local government level experience for clients?
rather than the state A. Be mindful of body contact
government level? during session
A. Licensing requirements B. Use appropriate draping
B. Restrictions on businesses C. Both A and B are correct
operated from a home D. None of the above
C. Answer A and B are correct
D. None of the above 113. What is a guideline for the
massage table?
108. Guidance on which topic is A. 78 to 84 inches long
typically found in a code of B. 24 to 25 inches wide
ethics? C. 1 to 2 inches of high density
A. Scope of practice foam padding
B. Tax D. All of the above
C. Insurance
D. All of the above 114. All of the following are
advantages of massage oils
109. What are the feelings of the over lotions except:
therapist towards the client? A. Oils do not degrade with
A. Dual relationships heat
B. Transference B. Oils spread easily
C. Confidentiality C. A little oil goes a long way
D. Countertransference D. Oils helps slide over hair
110. What should a therapist do 115. What is mandatory for

after making a mistake? sheets with blood stains?
A. Admit the mistake A. Biohazard label
B. Act like nothing happened B. Red container
C. Blame the client C. Commercial laundry
D. Deny making a mistake D. No label needed if universal
precautions are used
111. What could be considered a
sexual misconduct boundary 116. What decontaminates?
violation by failing to ensure A. Sanitation
a client's privacy? B. Disinfection
A. Improper draping C. Sterilization
B. Not providing a gown D. All of the above
C. Watching a client undress
D. All of the above 117. Why would diaper draping
be used?
A. Trust, warmth and modesty
B. Legal requirements, safety
and sanitation
C. Massaging a newborn
D. Massaging a toddler
Page 89
118. What uses one full-size 124. What is the doing business
double flat sheet to cover the as name?
table and wrap the client? A. SSN
A. Top cover method B. TIN
B. Full sheet method C. DBA
C. Both A and B are correct D. LLC
125. What is a business
119. How many calories are arrangement with one or
needed by the body per day? more owners and limited
A. About 600 to 700 liability?
B. About 800 to 1000 A. Corporation
C. About 1000 to 1200 B. Networking
D. About 1600 to 2800 C. Partnership
D. Sole proprietorship
120. What is the recommended
number of servings per day of
the meat, poultry, fish, dried
beans, and nuts group?
A. Use sparingly
B. 2 to 3 servings
C. 6 to 7 servings
D. 9 to 11 servings

being an employee?
A. Set own schedule
B. Employer provides facilities
and supplies
C. Flexible hours
D. All of the above
122. Costs for what could be

deductible as a business
expense?
A. Advertising
B. Professional clothes
C. Insurance
D. All of the above
123. What promotes the

business?
A. Credentials
B. DBA
C. Marketing
D. Ledger
Page 90
Exam 7 Answer Key
1. B 43. B 85. D
2. C 44. C 86. A
3. D 45. A 87. B
4. D 46. A 88. C
5. D 47. A 89. C
6. A 48. C 90. A
7. A 49. B 91. A
8. A 50. D 92. A
9. B 51. B 93. D
10. D 52. D 94. B
11. D 53. C 95. B
12. A 54. C 96. B
13. B 55. C 97. A
14. D 56. B 98. A
15. B 57. A 99. A
16. A 58. A 100. B
17. C 59. D 101. B
18. D 60. D 102. C
19. C 61. C 103. A
20. B 62. C 104. B
21. B 63. C 105. B
22. B 64. A 106. B
23. D 65. B 107. B
24. D 66. B 108. A
25. B 67. B 109. D
26. B 68. C 110. A
27. A 69. D 111. D
28. A 70. B 112. C
29. D 71. A 113. C
30. D 72. C 114. A
31. D 73. D 115. D
32. B 74. C 116. D
33. A 75. D 117. A
34. B 76. B 118. B
35. A 77. A 119. D
36. D 78. B 120. B
37. A 79. C 121. B
38. D 80. B 122. D
39. C 81. D 123. C
40. A 82. C 124. C
41. D 83. C 125. A
42. B 84. C
Page 91
Exam 8
1. Which refers to the study of 6. What classification of bones

anatomical landmarks through includes the small bones found
visualization and palpation? in the hands and feet?
A. Endocrinology A. Sesamoid
B. Anthropology B. Irregular
C. Surface anatomy C. Long
D. Ortho-bionomy D. Short
2. Which level in the 7. Which system includes the

organization of the body brain, spinal cord, and special
structure is the largest level sense organs?
including all the body systems A. Nervous
and parts? B. Musculoskeletal
A. Chemical level C. Lymphatic
B. Organismal level D. Integumentary
C. Tissue level
D. Atomic level 8. Which is a function of the
autonomic nervous system
3. What is the large central under sympathetic control?
fluid-filled cavity of a A. Increased heartbeat
mitochondrion, enclosed by the B. Decreased peristalsis
inner mitochondrial C. Decreased secretion of
membrane? digestive juices
A. Polyribosome D. All of the above
B. Cytoplasm
C. Synovial joint 9. Which system includes the
D. The matrix pancreas and the thymus?
A. Lymphatic
4. What type of tissue detects B. Endocrine
changes in condition and C. Respiratory
responds by generating action D. Circulatory
potentials?
A. Epithelial 10. What is the order of these
B. Connective major lymph nodes, starting
C. Nervous with most superior / cranial?
D. Muscular A. Parotid, spleen, thymus,
cisterna chyli, iliac, inguinal
5. What are large glands in the B. Parotid, thymus, spleen,
axillary region? cisterna chyli, iliac, inguinal
A. Arrector pili C. Parotid, spleen, thymus,
B. Phasic muscles adrenal, inguinal, iliac
C. Apocrine glands D. Parotid, thyroid, cisterna
D. Seborrhea chyli, spleen, inguinal, iliac
Page 92
11. Which system includes the 17. Where is the scapular region?
mouth, tongue, teeth, salivary A. Top of head
glands, and esophagus? B. Shoulder blade
A. Respiratory C. Lower back
B. Digestive D. Buttocks
C. Nervous
D. Endocrine 18. Which method describes the
pericardium as a yin meridian?
12. Which cranial suture is the A. Acupuncture
articulation of the frontal and B. Trager method
parietal bones? C. Manual lymph drainage
A. Coronal D. All of the above
B. Sagittal
C. Axial 19. What type of muscle found in
D. Lambdoidal the heart has branched muscle
fibers, striations, intercalated
13. What has a great variety of disks, and autonomic nerves?
amino acids? A. Skeletal
A. Plant proteins B. Cardiac
B. Fat C. Smooth
C. Insoluble carbohydrates D. Fusiform
D. Animal proteins
14. Which means behind or in inserts on the calcaneus via
the back? the calcaneal tendon?
A. Anterior A. Biceps femoris
B. Inferior B. Gastrocnemius
C. Posterior C. Brachialis
D. Superior D. Trapezius
15. Where are the lungs relative 21. Where does the
to the heart? sternocleidomastoid insert?
A. Proximal A. Femur
B. Distal B. Radius
C. Medial C. Occiput
D. Lateral D. Mandible
16. Which body cavities are in 22. Where is the brachial plexus?
the dorsal region? A. Left lumbar region
A. Cranial and vertebral B. Junction between
B. Thoracic, abdominal, and manubrium and sternum
pelvic C. C5 to T1, scalenes, clavicle
C. Thoracic, pelvic, and D. T2, T4 and T10 of vertebral
vertebral column
D. Cranial, vertebral, and pelvic
Page 93
23. What originates at the 29. Which is an action of the

surface of 8 or 9 ribs and deltoid?
inserts on the anterior surface A. Lateral rotation
of the medial border of the B. Adduction
scapula? C. Elevation
A. Latissimus dorsi D. Depression
B. Trapezius
C. Serratus anterior 30. Where would a therapist put
D. Peroneus longus a pillow to work on a client's
pectoralis minor?
24. What surrounds muscle A. Under patella
bellies? B. Under head and neck
A. Bursa C. Under abducted bent elbow,
B. Aponeurosis laying supine
C. Deep fascia D. Under adducted bent elbow,
D. Retinaculum laying prone
25. What type of joint is the 31. Which muscle extends the
wrist? knee?
A. Planar A. Triceps brachii
B. Hinge B. Sartorius
C. Ball and socket C. Vastus lateralis
D. Ellipsoidal D. Peroneus longus
26. What is the general 32. Which proprioceptors

adaptation syndrome in respond to tension and send a
response to? signal to the antagonist?
A. Stress A. Joint kinesthetic receptors
B. Resistance B. Golgi tendon organs
C. Alarm C. Somatic reflex arcs
D. Exhaustion D. Muscle spindles
27. Which is an action of 33. What is a disease present at

supraspinatus? birth?
A. Abduct the shoulder A. Degenerative
B. Medially rotate the shoulder B. Fungal
C. Adduct the leg C. Idiopathic
D. Extend the wrist D. Congenital
28. What is the action of the 34. What could cause

platysma? inflammation?
A. Flex arms A. A tissue injury
B. Assist in depression of the B. Heat and redness
mandible C. Abnormal tissue growth
C. Laterally flex head and neck D. Cells that fail to mature
D. Flex the shoulder
Page 94
35. What means able to walk or 40. What are the implications for
not confined to bed? massage for a client taking
A. Clinical antihypertensives and
B. Ambulatory diuretics?
C. Anomaly A. The client may be
D. Atrophy susceptible to cold
36. What psychological disorder dizziness after the massage
has to do with exaggerated C. Massage may help with
irrational fears? constipation
A. Anorexia D. All of the above
B. Anxiety
C. Rickets and scurvy 41. What is an example of a non-
D. Chemical dependency herbal natural supplement?
A. Antihistamine
37. Which is indicated for B. Saw palmetto
massage for people who have C. Bee pollen
survived the condition for five D. Muscle relaxant
years?
A. Herpes zoster 42. What natural supplement is
B. Scabies used for the common cold?
C. Leukemia A. Diuretic
D. Renal failure B. Brewer's yeast
C. Aloe
38. Which rhythms repeat D. Antiulcer medication
themselves annually?
A. Idiopathic 43. What is inflammation of a
B. Biological rhythms tendon?
C. Ultradian rhythms A. Tendonitis
D. Seasonal rhythms B. Tenosynovitis
C. Greenstick fracture
39. What is a chronic D. Ischemic necrosis
autoimmune disease in which
antibodies attack various 44. What is acute?
types of tissue throughout the A. Widespread
body? B. Gradual onset
A. Bronchitis C. Short duration
B. Tinnitus D. Long duration
C. Fever
D. Lupus 45. What is an injury to a
muscle?
A. Sprain
B. Strain
C. Tinnitus
D. Tinea cruris
Page 95
46. What is overdeveloped 51. What is an effect of massage

thoracic curve? on the cardiovascular system?
A. Gibbus A. Increases oxygen saturation
B. Scoliosis in blood
C. Kyphosis B. Decreases white blood cell
D. All of the above count
C. Decreases red blood cell
47. Which area is associated with count
the subclavian artery and the D. Decreases stress
brachiocephalic artery?
A. Posterior triangle of the neck 52. Which condition can benefit
B. Anterior triangle of the neck from massage?
C. Axillary area A. Skin conditions such as mild
D. Pelvic cavity dryness
B. Stress and anxiety
48. Which of the following is a C. Temporomandibular joint
component of the anterior dysfunction
triangle of the neck D. All of the above
endangerment site?
A. Carotid artery 53. When should ice be avoided?
B. Brachiocephalic artery A. Inflammation
C. Frontal chakra B. Spasms
D. Soleus C. Pain
D. Circulatory problems
49. What is a reflexive effect of
massage? 54. What reduces inflammation,
A. Muscle relaxation swelling, and muscle spasms?
B. Increased mental clarity A. Tonic friction
C. Pain reduction B. Heat
D. All of the above C. Ice
D. Shampoos
on the nervous and endocrine 55. What is a benefit of a
systems? contrast bath?
A. Creates hyperthermia A. Increase in pulse rate
B. Reduces cortisol levels B. Reduce swelling
C. Decreases serotonin levels C. Alternating vasoconstriction
D. Reduces superficial keloid and vasodilation
formation D. Reduced inflammation
56. Which is effleurage?

A. Kneading
B. Gliding
C. Cross fiber friction
D. Cupping
Page 96
57. Which is best for tight bands 63. Which stroke is not
of muscle fibers? effleurage?
A. Trigger point therapy A. Superficial gliding
B. Touch therapy B. Deep gliding
C. Gliding C. Skin rolling
D. Effleurage D. Aura stroking
58. What is not a physical effect 64. What is a cushioned

of massage? limitation?
A. Increases metabolism A. Hard end feel
B. Hastens healing B. Soft end feel
C. Relaxes and refreshes the C. Empty end feel
muscles D. Active joint movement
D. Rebuilds a positive self-
image 65. What promotes vasodilation?
A. Massage of the vascular
59. What is light rubbing, rolling system
or wringing? B. Cryotherapy
A. Vibration C. Ice
B. Percussion D. Reiki
C. Friction
D. Ischemic compression 66. Which is not advisable for
pregnancy massage?
60. The effects of massage on A. Light effleurage
the autonomic nervous system B. Percussion
are mostly what type? C. Side-lying position
A. Reflexive D. Supine position
B. Mechanical
C. Placebo 67. Which is not appropriate for
D. Direct massage for the critically ill?
A. Abbreviated length of session
61. Which is a rapid striking B. Slow, gentle strokes
movement? C. Methods that move toxins
A. Vibration D. Energy work
B. Kneading
C. Percussion 68. What is a method of applying
D. Friction ice massage?
A. Ice in a paper or Styrofoam
62. When is oil usually first cup
applied? B. Ice in a towel
A. Effleurage C. Ice in a plastic bag
B. Petrissage D. All of the above
C. Percussion
D. Tapotement
Page 97
69. Which is a proprioceptive 74. Which muscles are

neuromuscular facilitation overactive if a client has low
(PNF) technique? back pain, buttock pain, and
A. Post-isometric contraction hamstring shortening when
B. Petrissage flexing the trunk?
C. Reiki A. Gluteus maximum and
D. Effleurage gastrocnemius
B. Abdominal complex
70. What would be a good C. Erector spinae, psoas, and
position to start a massage for rectus abdominis
a pregnant client? D. Upper trapezius and
A. Supine ipsilateral quadratus
B. Prone lumborum
C. Side-lying
D. Face down 75. What would involve client
goals and a time frame?
71. If a client has a forward head A. Business plan
position, what is the most B. Care plan
appropriate treatment? C. Assessment
A. Lengthen and stretch D. Palpation
anterior scalene
B. Lengthen and stretch 76. Where on the SOAP chart are
quadratus lumborum self care recommendations
C. Lengthen and stretch rectus documented?
capitis posterior minor A. Subjective
D. Shorten rectus capitis B. Objective
posterior major C. Assessment
D. Plan
72. If a client has flat back
posture, what is the most 77. What exists when a tight
appropriate treatment? muscle decreases nervous
A. Shorten semitendinosus stimulation to its antagonist,
B. Lengthen upper trapezius causing it to reduce activity?
C. Lengthen biceps femoris A. Carpal tunnel syndrome
D. Lengthen iliacus B. Muscle testing
C. Reciprocal inhibition
73. What is done if a client has D. Inflammation
an adducted and elevated
scapula? 78. If a client says an area is
A. Lengthen serratus anterior stuck, what type of issue is it
B. Lengthen trapezius usually?
C. Lengthen latissimus dorsi A. Endangerment site issue
D. Lengthen teres major B. Connective tissue or fluid
retention issue
C. Joint issue
D. Ligament issue
Page 98
79. What is happening when the 83. What is a characteristic of

pelvis maintains its ideal knees in hyperextension?
alignment? A. The plumb line passes
A. The brachialis pulls upward slightly anterior to the axis
B. The abdominal muscles pull of the knee joint
downward B. Genu valgum
C. The back muscles pull C. The ankle joint is in plantar
upward flexion
D. The posterior hip flexors pull D. Genu varum
upward
84. What is like anatomical
80. Which muscles are elongated position with the hands facing
and weak with lordotic the body and the forearms in
posture? between pronation and
A. Hip flexors supination?
B. Frontalis and temporalis A. Sagittal plane
C. Anterior abdominals B. Center of gravity
D. All of the above C. Longitudinal axis
D. Zero position
81. As feet are influenced by
shoes with heels, what tends 85. How does a therapist test
to increase with heel height? the right leg flexors?
A. Abduction A. Client holds left leg position
B. Slight out-toeing against therapist's
C. Tendency toward parallel superior/cephalad pressure
position from out-toeing B. Client holds right leg position
D. Outward rotating against therapist's
82. Which are long and weak C. Client holds posterior gluteal
with the right hip adducted line against therapist's
and medially rotated, left hip inferior/caudal pressure
abducted and feet pronated? D. Client holds right leg position
A. Right lateral trunk muscles, against therapist's
left hip abductors and right inferior/caudal pressure
hip adductors
B. Platysma and trapezius 86. What may be caused by
C. Left flexor hallucis longus occupations such as drywall
and left flexor digitorum hanging?
longus A. Rotator cuff tendinitis
D. All of the above B. Plantar fasciitis
C. Whiplash
D. Torticollis
Page 99
87. What are symptoms of 93. Which is the most non-

bursitis? invasive?
A. Heat A. Therapeutic touch
B. Swelling B. Reciprocal inhibition
C. Redness C. Deep transverse friction
D. All of the above D. Hellerwork
88. When is frozen shoulder most 94. What would an aromatherapy

frequently painful? bath or massage oil of orange
A. Gliding blossom, neroli, patchouli and
B. Circumduction lavender be used for?
C. Abduction and external A. Postural assessment
rotation B. Moisturizing
D. Flexion and extension C. Stimulating
D. Injury prevention
89. What results from sciatic
nerve compression? 95. What is a Hindu technique of
A. Whiplash massage in the bath?
B. Piriformis syndrome A. Acupressure
C. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Tschanpua
D. Thoracic outlet syndrome C. Anma
D. Tapotement
90. What is treated by stretching
iliopsoas, rectus femoris, 96. What is an area of
tensor fascia lata, and excessively strong ki in
adductors when supine? Shiatsu?
A. Hyperlordosis A. Proprioceptor
B. Hyperkyphosis B. Dosha
C. Scoliosis C. Jitsu
D. Flat-back posture D. Chakra
91. Who standardized massage 97. What refers to guiding

terminology and brought principles for distinguishing
massage to the scientific between right and wrong?
community? A. Marketing
A. Dr. John Upledger B. Confidentiality
B. Dr. John Georg Mezger C. Ethics
C. Dr. Milton Trager D. Overhead
D. Dr. John Harvey Kellogg
92. What type of sports massage violation of a code of ethics?
is used for minor injuries? A. Rights as professionals
A. Pre-event massage B. Right of refusal
B. Chair massage C. Misleading claims of curative
C. Remedial massage abilities
D. Rehabilitation massage D. Informed consent
Page 100
99. What is not a violation of a 105. What is the scope of

code of ethics? practice?
A. Dating a client A. Advertising
B. Misleading claims B. Dual relationship
C. Advertising C. Boundaries
D. All of the above D. Practice parameters
100. What is in the therapeutic 106. What is a condition that

relationship? prompts dual relationships?
A. Spiritual advice A. Soft tissue techniques
B. Informed consent B. Interactions between
C. Psychological counseling students and school
D. All of the above personnel
101. What is out of the D. None of the above
therapeutic relationship?
A. Consistency 107. What is the difference
B. Rights as professionals between a license and a
C. Confidentiality credential?
D. None of the above A. Governments issue licenses
B. Associations issue credentials
102. What should the therapist C. Answer A and B are correct
do if a client reveals that D. None of the above
they abuse their children?
A. Contact the child welfare 108. Guidance on which topic is
authorities where required typically found in a code of
by law ethics?
B. Do nothing A. Professionalism
C. Tell the client not to reveal B. Client relationships
that information C. Scope of practice
D. Recommend prescription D. All of the above
medication
109. What occurs when a
103. What is needed before therapist gives psychological
working on a minor? advice to the client to solve
A. Parental consent personal problems?
B. Contract A. Transference
C. Medical advice B. Scope of practice violation
D. None of the above C. Boundaries
D. Countertransference
104. What protects a client's
information?
A. HIPPA
B. Confidentiality
Page 101
110. What happens if a client 115. What is a universal

grimaces in pain while saying precaution?
that the pressure is fine? A. Gloves shall be worn if there
A. Dual relationship is potential for direct
B. Boundary crossing contact with body fluids
C. Countertransference B. Hands must be washed after
D. Nonverbal communication removing gloves
111. What is misconduct D. None of the above
involving sexual contact?
A. Encouraging the client to 116. What is a safety practice
masturbate regarding housekeeping and
B. Masturbation by the sanitation?
practitioner A. Keep all halls and walkways
C. Intercourse clear
D. All of the above B. Keep all carpets vacuumed
and sanitized
112. What is appropriate for C. Keep all solid floors cleaned
addressing erections in and sanitized
clients if the client shows D. All of the above
signs of discomfort?
A. Establish and maintain 117. What is a safety practice
appropriate boundaries regarding housekeeping and
B. The therapist should sanitation?
consider talking to the client A. Commercially wash linens or
C. Both A and B are correct wash in hot water with
D. None of the above bleach
B. Dry linens in a hot dryer
113. What is the safest C. Store clean linens in a closed
equipment for massaging a 6- cabinet
month old baby? D. All of the above
A. Table
B. Chair 118. What is a therapist personal
C. Mat safety practice?
D. Supports A. Know contraindications
B. Perform outside the scope of
114. What is mandatory for practice
contaminated sheets sent to C. Do not give out contact
a facility that does not use information to an associate
universal precautions? when leaving to perform in-
A. Medical record house massage
B. Use washer and dryer of D. All of the above
employer
C. Biohazard label or red
container
Page 102
119. What protects the 124. Which is property

practitioner's hands? insurance?
A. Use the fingertips for deep A. General liability insurance
pressure B. Product liability insurance
B. Stay in front of the massage C. Professional liability
movement rather than on insurance
top D. Premises fire damage
C. Hyperextend the wrist insurance for renters
D. Avoid using the forearms and
elbows for deep pressure 125. What is a way to explain
services in detail to
120. What draping method uses a prospective clients?
table covering along with a A. Mission statements
top covering large enough to B. Brochures
cover the body? C. Resumes
A. Top cover method D. Advertising
B. Full sheet method
121. What vitamin is found in

citrus fruits?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B complex
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
122. Which is included in the

vitamin B complex?
A. Thiamine
B. Niacin
C. Riboflavin
D. All of the above
123. What would monthly rent

be considered?
A. Start-up costs
B. Overhead
C. Net income
D. Gross income
Page 103
Exam 8 Answer Key
1. C 43. A 85. D
2. B 44. C 86. A
3. D 45. B 87. D
4. C 46. C 88. C
5. C 47. A 89. B
6. D 48. A 90. A
7. A 49. D 91. B
8. D 50. B 92. C
9. B 51. A 93. A
10. B 52. D 94. B
11. B 53. D 95. B
12. A 54. C 96. C
13. D 55. C 97. C
14. C 56. B 98. C
15. D 57. A 99. C
16. A 58. D 100. B
17. B 59. C 101. D
18. A 60. A 102. A
19. B 61. C 103. A
20. B 62. A 104. C
21. C 63. C 105. D
22. C 64. B 106. B
23. C 65. A 107. C
24. C 66. B 108. D
25. D 67. C 109. B
26. A 68. D 110. D
27. A 69. A 111. D
28. B 70. C 112. C
29. A 71. C 113. C
30. C 72. C 114. C
31. C 73. B 115. C
32. B 74. C 116. D
33. D 75. B 117. D
34. A 76. D 118. A
35. B 77. C 119. B
36. B 78. C 120. A
37. C 79. C 121. C
38. D 80. C 122. D
39. D 81. C 123. B
40. D 82. C 124. D
41. C 83. C 125. B
42. B 84. D
Page 104
Exam 9
1. Which refers to the anatomy 6. What is the order of these

of specific areas such as the major structures of the central
head or chest? nervous system, starting with
A. Cardiovascular physiology most superior / cranial?
B. Regional anatomy A. Cerebrum, medulla, cervical
C. Biology plexus, spinal cord
D. Systemic anatomy B. Cerebrum, cerebellum,
spinal cord, medulla
2. Which organization is C. Cerebrum, cerebellum,
primarily focused on supporting medulla, spinal cord
research? D. Cerebellum, cerebrum,
A. National Institute of Health medulla, sinus
Office of Alternative and
Complementary Medicine 7. What are the components of
B. American Massage Therapy the autonomic nervous system?
Association A. Somatic and sympathetic
C. National Certification Board B. Somatic and
D. Associated Bodywork and parasympathetic
Massage Professionals C. Sympathetic and
parasympathetic
3. What are specialized D. Cholinergic and adrenergic
substances within a cell that
have characteristic shapes and 8. What receives deoxygenated
perform specific functions? blood from the right atrium?
A. Organelles A. Pulmonary arteries
B. Plasma B. Spleen
C. Golgi apparatus C. Right ventricle
D. Tissues D. Left atrium
4. Which type of epithelial 9. What is the largest lymphoid

membrane is the peritoneum? organ?
A. Cardiac A. Thymus
B. Serous B. Spleen
C. Cutaneous C. Liver
D. Synovial D. Parotid
5. What classification of bones 10. Which system includes the

includes complex shaped bones stomach, small and large
such as the vertebrae? intestines, liver, gallbladder,
A. Flat and pancreas?
B. Irregular A. Digestive
C. Long B. Urinary
D. Short C. Lymphatic
D. Endocrine
Page 105
11. Which fibers consist of 17. Where is the patellar region?

collagen in fine bundles and A. Knee
provide support in walls of B. Thigh
blood vessels? C. Groin
A. Reticular D. Abdomen
B. Mast cells
C. Dense irregular 18. Which method involves the
D. Adipocytes stomach meridian beginning at
the orbital cavity, ending at
12. Which are organic catalysts the second toe, and being
that change the rate of a associated with food intake?
chemical reaction? A. Swedish massage
A. Amino acids B. Hellerwork
B. Carbohydrates C. Shiatsu
C. Triglycerides D. All of the above
D. Enzymes
19. What type of muscle in the
13. Which cranial suture is the bladder has fusiform muscle
articulation of the parietal fibers and autonomic nerves?
and temporal bones? A. Skeletal
A. Coronal B. Cardiac
B. Sagittal C. Smooth
C. Squamous D. All of the above
D. Thoracic
20. Which of these muscles has
14. Which means lower than or the anterior part of the iliac
below? crest as one of its insertions?
A. Anterior A. External obliques
B. Inferior B. Trapezius
C. Posterior C. Temporalis
D. Superior D. Erector spinae
15. Where are the ribs relative 21. Where does the platysma
to the chest and back? insert?
A. Proximal A. Pelvis
B. Distal B. Sacrum
C. Superficial C. Skin on edge of occiput
D. Deep D. Skin on edge of mandible
16. What is the relationship of 22. Which are tarsals?

the frontal, transverse, and A. Malleolus, talus, phalanges
sagittal planes to each other? B. Cuboid, cuneiforms,
A. They are at right angles navicular
B. They are the same C. Acromion process, spine of
C. They are parallel scapula, clavicle
D. They are unrelated D. Lunate, pisiform, hamate
Page 106
23. What is the origin of the 28. Which muscles are used
short head of the biceps when riding a bike?
brachii? A. Multifidi
A. Scapula B. Rotatores
B. Coracoid process C. Quadriceps
C. Pubic crest D. Longissimus thoracis
D. Ischial tuberosity
29. What type of joint only
24. What is immediately deep to allows small shifting
the skin and covers the entire movements?
body? A. Gliding
A. Bursa B. Ellipsoid
B. Superficial fascia C. Hinge
C. Deep fascia D. Ball and socket
D. Retinaculum
30. Which muscle would
25. What are the rotator cuff predominantly have fast
muscles? twitch fibers?
A. Deltoid, infraspinatus, teres A. Erector spinae
major, and subscapularis B. Soleus
B. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, C. Transversospinalis
teres minor, and D. Biceps brachii
subscapularis
C. Sternocleidomastoid, 31. What happens in a
infraspinatus, teres minor, concentric muscle
and subscapularis contraction?
D. Trapezius, infraspinatus, A. The muscle relaxes
teres minor, and serratus B. The length of the muscle
anterior does not change
C. The muscle lengthens
26. Which muscle inserts on the D. The muscle shortens
tuberosity of the radius?
A. Biceps brachii 32. Which muscle originates on
B. Plantaris the lumbar vertebrae and
C. Deltoid inserts on the lesser
D. Trapezius trochanter?
A. Psoas major
27. Which muscle of the right B. Biceps femoris
forearm would be used to turn C. Deltoid
a screwdriver clockwise? D. Quadratus lumborum
A. Brachialis
B. Pronator teres
C. Supinator
D. Gastrocnemius
Page 107
33. What are organisms that 38. What refers to the internal
cause disease only when periodic timing components of
immunity is low? an organism and can be
A. Virulent circadian, ultradian, or
B. Fungal seasonal?
C. Opportunistic pathogens A. Entrainment
D. Transmission by inhalation B. Biological rhythms
C. Etiology
34. What is hyperplasia? D. Homeostasis
A. Abnormal tissue growth from
uncontrolled cell division 39. What is a highly contagious
B. Cells that fail to mature into airborne disease from a
specialized cells bacterial infection that
C. Displacement of bones usually begins in the lungs?
D. A group of signs and A. Edema
symptoms B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Tuberculosis
35. What means a deviation from D. Gastroesophageal reflux
normal? disorder
A. Clinical
B. Ambulatory 40. What are amphetamines,
C. Anomaly adrenergic medications,
D. Idiopathic anticonvulsants, and
antiparkinson agents?
36. What is a psychological mood A. Hormones
disorder that can result in B. Anti-infectives
feelings of hopelessness? C. Antineoplastics
A. Anorexia D. Central nervous system
B. Inflammation medications
C. Depression
D. Chemical dependency 41. What is the formation of
bony spurs?
37. What refers to the increase A. Subluxation
in the size of cells without cell B. Tenosynovitis
division? C. Tuberculosis
A. Atrophy D. Spondylosis
B. Entrainment
C. Hypertrophy 42. What natural supplement is
D. Ambulatory used to heal burns?
A. NSAID
B. Brewer's yeast
C. Aloe
D. Steroid
Page 108
43. What is the complete 48. Which of the following is a

displacement of bones of a component of the posterior
joint? triangle of the neck
A. Whiplash endangerment site?
B. Dislocation A. Brachial artery
C. Hernia B. Brachiocephalic artery
D. Subluxation C. Oblique plane
D. Vagus nerve
44. What is the order of the
response to stress under the 49. What is a physiological effect
general adaptation syndrome? of massage?
A. Exhaustion, resistance, A. Cures terminal illnesses
alarm B. Activation of
B. Ultradian, circadian, parasympathetic nervous
seasonal system
C. Alarm, exhaustion, C. Increases keloid formation
resistance D. None of the above
D. Alarm, resistance,
exhaustion 50. Which category of the
physiological effects of
45.What is athlete's foot? massage refers to applying
A.Sprain force such as bending and
B.Strain compression?
C.A fungus on the feet and A. Biofield methods
toes B. Reflexive methods
D. Plantar fasciitis C. Mechanical methods
D. Energetic methods
46. What is there in the back
with an anterior tilt of the 51. What is an effect of massage
pelvis? on the cardiovascular system?
A. Flat back A. Stops release of
B. Lordosis acetylchlorine and histamine
C. Normal anterior curve B. Decreases white blood cell
D. All of the above count
47. Which area is associated with count
the SCM, mandible, and D. Increases platelet count
trachea?
A. Posterior triangle of the neck 52. How much time does it
B. Anterior triangle of the neck usually take before massage
C. Axillary area activates the parasympathetic
D. Sacral region nervous response?
A. Less than 2 minutes
B. 10 to 15 minutes
C. 60 to 75 minutes
D. More than 90 minutes
Page 109
53. What is friction with a saline 59. What is an effect of massage

solution? on the skin?
A. Tonic friction A. Improved posture
B. Salt rub B. Decreased activity of sweat
C. Sponging and oil glands
D. Shampoo C. Increased circulation to the
skin
54. For which condition could D. Reduction in dopamine
cold be applied?
A. Stretch weak muscles 60. What massage movement
B. Impaired circulation produces a hyperemia?
C. Swelling A. Petrissage or kneading
D. Arthritis B. Light massage
C. Compression
55. Which stroke kneads soft D. All of the above
tissue?
A. Compression 61. Which is an effleurage
B. Grounding movement?
C. Effleurage A. Compression
D. Petrissage B. Skin rolling
C. Aura stroking
56. How would a therapist finish D. Petrissage
a massage for a client with
insomnia? 62. Which is done with long,
A. Kneading smooth strokes?
B. Gliding A. Vibration
C. Cross fiber friction B. Aura stroking
D. Cupping C. Percussion
D. Friction
57. Which is a form of
tapotement? 63. When is effleurage typically
A. Wringing used during a session?
B. Skin rolling A. Only at the beginning
C. Jostling B. Only at the end
D. Percussion C. To apply lubricant
D. In the middle
58. What is an indirect physical
effect of massage? 64. What is an abrupt limitation
A. Reflexive effect to a joint movement?
B. Mechanical effect A. Hard end feel
C. Decreased circulation B. Soft end feel
D. All of the above C. Empty end feel
D. Passive joint movement
Page 110
65. What gives the best 71. If a client has flat back
information about connective posture, what is the most
tissue? appropriate treatment?
A. Percussion A. Lengthen semitendinosus
B. Vibration B. Shorten semimembranosus
C. Friction C. Lengthen psoas
D. Tapotement D. Lengthen splenius
66. What contributes to AIDS? 72. What is done if a client has

A. Opportunistic infection the knee flexed along with
B. HIV posterior tilting of the pelvis
C. Low T-cell count and a flattening of the lumbar
D. All of the above spine?
A. Lengthen soleus
67. What is the application of B. Lengthen hamstrings
oscillating electromagnetic C. Lengthen tibialis anterior
fields to tissue? D. Lengthen quadriceps femoris
A. Whirlpool bath
B. Full body steam bath 73. What is done if a client has
C. Diathermy thoracic outlet syndrome?
D. Cryotherapy A. Lengthen serratus anterior
and trapezius
68. What is the "I" in the B. Lengthen latissimus dorsi and
R.I.C.E.S. first aid principle? teres major
A. Injury C. Lengthen scalenes, SCMs,
B. Infection pecs, and neck extensors
C. Ice D. Lengthen biceps and triceps
D. Inflammation brachii
69. Which is a proprioceptive 74. What is an appropriate

neuromuscular facilitation consideration for self-care?
(PNF) technique? A. Maximize the assignments
A. Hydrotherapy B. Introduce a vigorous exercise
B. Cryotherapy program
C. Direct Manipulation C. Support the client in
D. Petrissage achieving their goals
D. Recommend a radical change
70. If a client has a forward head in diet
position, what is the most
appropriate treatment? 75. Which is more of a part of
A. Lengthen anterior scalene developing a plan than an
B. Lengthen and stretch upper objective observation?
trapezius and splenius A. Gait assessment
C. Lengthen oblique capitis B. Needs assessment
inferior C. Posture assessment
D. Shorten SCM D. Palpation
Page 111
76. Where on the SOAP chart is 81. What is associated with ideal
the initial gait analysis alignment in the posterior
documented? view?
A. Subjective A. Level shoulders
B. Objective B. Medial borders of scapulae
C. Assessment parallel
D. Plan C. Feet parallel or slight out-
toeing
77. What is the dysfunction in D. All of the above
which muscles compensate for
a weak prime mover to 82. Which muscles are weak
produce the movement? when the scapula is rotated so
A. Muscle guarding the axillary border is more
B. Muscle testing horizontal than normal?
C. Inflammation A. Serratus anterior and
D. Synergistic dominance trapezius
B. Digastric and psoas
78. What could cause a cold C. Platysma and scalenes
area? D. Rectus abdominis and SCM
A. Inflammation
B. Diminished blood flow 83. What is a characteristic good
C. Muscle spasm alignment for sitting posture?
D. Hyperactivity A. A position that requires
effort to maintain
79. What is happening when the B. A slightly horizontal position
pelvis maintains its ideal C. The position requires the
alignment? least expenditure of muscle
A. The abdominal muscles pull energy
downward D. The low back is in lordosis
B. The anterior hip flexors pull
downward 84. Which muscle tends to show
C. The posterior hip flexors pull acquired postural weakness in
upward left handed individuals?
D. The hyoid bone pulls A. Right hip abductors
downward B. Right flexor hallucis longus
C. Digastric
80. Which muscles are short and D. Hyoid
strong with flat back posture?
A. Hamstrings 85. Where on the SOAP chart
B. One-joint hip flexors would observations about the
C. Neck flexors way a client walks be
D. All of the above documented?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Assessment
D. Plan
Page 112
86. Where would the client give 91. Who popularized the
a rating to measure the level Movement Cure in America,
of discomfort? introducing the Swedish
A. Pain questionnaire movements in the mid 19th
B. Insurance form century?
C. SOAP chart A. Dr. Ida Rolf
D. Client record B. Dr. John Georg Mezger
C. Dr. George H. Taylor
87. What inflammation of a small D. Elizabeth Dicke
fluid-filled friction-reducing
sac caused by overuse of 92. Which method associates the
surrounding structures? diaphragm with a line across
A. Trigger finger the ball of the foot?
B. Whiplash A. Reflexology
C. Frozen shoulder B. Shiatsu
D. Bursitis C. Ayurveda
D. Acupressure
88. What is an abnormal
positioning of the head and 93. What would an aromatherapy
neck relative to the body? bath or massage oil of
A. Frozen shoulder rosemary, thyme, pine and
B. Bursitis cypress be used for?
C. Torticollis A. Trigger point therapy
D. Scoliosis B. Moisturizing
C. Stimulating
89. What is treated by D. Marketing
decreasing compression on the
sciatic nerve? 94. Who developed a connective
A. Piriformis syndrome tissue massage technique
B. Carpal tunnel syndrome called Bindegewebmassage?
C. Thoracic outlet syndrome A. Dr. Emil Vodder and Dr.
D. Torticollis Estrid Vodder
B. James Cyriax
90. What is characterized by C. Elizabeth Dicke
weak supra-hyoids, infra- D. Joseph Heller
hyoids, longus capitis, and
longus cervicis? 95. What is a Greek word for a
A. Flat-back posture person who exercises the mind
B. Hyperlordosis and body?
C. Hyperkyphosis A. Tsubo
D. Scoliosis B. Tschanpua
C. Anma
D. Ascete
Page 113
96. What is an area of deficient 102. What are examples of how

and weak ki in Shiatsu? boundaries are created,
A. Dosha managed, and changed?
B. Kyo A. Location and language
C. Trigger point B. Proprioceptors and joint
D. Governing vessel structure
97. What refers to the quality of D. None of the above
accepting the consequences of
one's actions? 103. Working on a minor without
A. Accountability parental consent is what type
B. Confidentiality of behavior?
C. Barter A. Informed consent violation
D. Networking B. Unethical
98. What is an example of a D. None of the above
violation of a code of ethics?
A. Sexual misconduct 104. Telling a spouse details
B. Right of refusal about their partner's session
C. Informed consent is what type of unethical
D. All of the above behavior?
A. Confidentiality violation
99. What is an example of a B. Practicing beyond scope of
violation of a code of ethics? practice
A. Lack of accessibility C. Exploiting the power
B. Bigotry differential
C. Inappropriate advertising D. None of the above
D. All of the above
105. What relates to client
100. What is in the therapeutic information?
relationship? A. Financial statement
A. Contract B. Confidentiality
B. Other business deals C. Dual relationship
C. Medical advice D. None of the above
D. All of the above
106. What is within the scope of
101. What is an example of a practice for massage
type of boundary? therapists?
A. Sexual A. Spinal manipulations
B. Skeletal system B. Assessment
C. Both A and B are correct C. Prescribing medication
D. None of the above D. Diagnosis
Page 114
107. What is typically done by a 112. What occurs if a therapist

primary care provider and not begins a sexual relationship
a massage therapist? with a client?
A. Assessment A. Projection
B. Diagnosis B. Sexual misconduct
C. Both A and B are correct C. Transference
D. None of the above D. Networking
108. What is a condition that 113. What is a way to determine

prompts dual relationships? the proper height of the
A. Sexual activity massage table?
B. Family A. Standing straight with hands
C. Both A and B are correct flat on table
D. None of the above B. Standing straight with
fingertips touching table
109. How may laws restrict C. No more than knee high
massage therapists? D. At least chest high
A. Restrictions on the use of
titles 114. All of the following would
B. Restrictions on scope of be appropriate for lubricant
practice storage except:
C. Answer A and B are correct A. Pump dispenser
D. None of the above B. Flip-top bottle
C. Open container
110. Guidance on which topic is D. Squeezable tube
typically not found in a code
of ethics? 115. What should be done with
A. Fee structure rancid linens?
B. Scope of practice A. Wash in ethyl alcohol
C. Professionalism B. Hang out to dry
D. All of the above C. Wash in cold water
D. Discard
111. A therapist being
uncomfortable massaging a 116. When are hands washed?
client with an infectious A. Immediately before gloves
disease involves what type of are removed
issue? B. Between client contacts
A. Dual relationship C. After handling clean linens
B. Therapist's right of refusal D. To transfer microorganisms
C. Scope of practice
Page 115
117. What is a universal 122. What would be found in a

precaution? brochure?
A. Linens soiled with blood A. Business plan
must be placed in a B. Types of massages
leakproof bag for C. Tax information
transportation to the laundry D. Start up costs
B. Bleach can be added to the
laundry for contaminated 123. What would determine
linens profit?
C. Both A and B are correct A. Start-up costs
D. None of the above B. Overhead
C. Net income
118. Which stance is also known D. Gross income
as the archer stance?
A. Asymmetric 124. Where are barter exchange
B. Body mechanics transactions recorded?
C. Laterally recumbent A. Schedule K-1
D. Symmetric B. Form W-2
C. Form 1099-B
119. What is the purpose of D. Form 1098
draping?
A. Warmth and modesty 125. What is the purpose of an S
B. Assessment corporation?
C. To comply with federal law A. Avoid income tax
D. None of the above B. Avoid estimated tax
C. Avoid double taxation
120. What vitamin is found in D. All of the above
brewer's yeast?
A. Vitamin A
C. Camphor
D. Eucalyptus
121. What are disadvantages of

being an employee?
A. Less steady income
B. Responsible for own taxes
C. Must pay for own facilities
and supplies
Page 116
Exam 9 Answer Key
1. B 43. B 85. B
2. A 44. D 86. A
3. A 45. C 87. D
4. B 46. B 88. C
5. B 47. B 89. A
6. C 48. B 90. C
7. C 49. B 91. C
8. C 50. C 92. A
9. B 51. D 93. C
10. A 52. B 94. C
11. A 53. B 95. D
12. D 54. C 96. B
13. C 55. D 97. A
14. B 56. B 98. A
15. D 57. D 99. D
16. A 58. A 100. A
17. A 59. C 101. A
18. C 60. C 102. A
19. C 61. C 103. C
20. A 62. B 104. A
21. D 63. C 105. B
22. B 64. C 106. B
23. B 65. C 107. B
24. B 66. D 108. C
25. B 67. C 109. C
26. A 68. C 110. A
27. C 69. C 111. B
28. C 70. B 112. B
29. A 71. A 113. A
30. D 72. B 114. C
31. D 73. C 115. D
32. A 74. C 116. B
33. C 75. B 117. C
34. A 76. B 118. A
35. C 77. D 119. A
36. C 78. B 120. B
37. C 79. B 121. D
38. B 80. A 122. B
39. C 81. D 123. C
40. D 82. A 124. C
41. D 83. C 125. C
42. C 84. B
Page 117
Exam 10
1. Which refers to the study of 6. Which system is responsible

structures that can be for skeletal movement, moves
examined without a blood, and generates heat?
microscope? A. Nervous
A. Gross anatomy B. Muscular
B. Reflexology C. Endocrine
C. Immunology D. Skeletal
D. Systemic anatomy
7. Which component of the
2. Which is the smallest unit of peripheral nervous system is
matter that participates in working if the client is
chemical reactions? sweating?
A. Cell A. Somatic
B. Ion pump B. Pneumonic
C. Atom C. Sympathetic
D. Tissue D. Parasympathetic
3. What is a thin flexible sheet 8. What receives deoxygenated

of tissue? blood from the right ventricle?
A. Organelle A. Pulmonary arteries
B. Cytoplasm B. Aorta
C. The matrix C. Right atrium
D. Membrane D. Liver
4. What are the four basic types 9. What are the components of
of tissue in the body? the lymphatic system?
A. Stratified, squamous, A. Lymphatic capillaries,
epithelial, and connective lymphatics, arterioles,
B. Epithelial, cardiac, smooth, venules
and muscle B. Lymph vessels, lymph,
C. Epithelial, connective, arterioles, venules
muscle, and nervous C. Lymph vessels, lymph,
D. Stratified, squamous, lymphoid organs, lymphoid
epithelial, and glandular tissue
D. Lymph vessels, blood,
5. What classification of bones intestine, liver
includes the bones found in the
skull? 10. Which system uses the teeth
A. Long to break food down into small
B. Flat particles?
C. Cubed-shaped A. Respiratory
D. Short B. Reproductive
C. Urinary
D. Gastrointestinal
Page 118
11. What vitamin helps the eyes 17. Where is the femoral region?
adjust to darkness? A. Knee
A. Vitamin A B. Thigh
B. Vitamin C C. Groin
C. Vitamin D D. Abdomen
D. Vitamin E
18. Which method involves the
12. Which type of epithelial spleen meridian beginning at
membrane is the pericardium? the great toe, ending in the
A. Mucous intercostal space, and being
B. Serous associated with digestion?
C. Cervical A. Acupuncture
D. Synovial B. Acupressure
C. Shiatsu
13. Which is necessary for D. All of the above
hemoglobin?
A. Vitamin A 19. What type of muscle
B. Vitamin C attached to bone has
C. Iron cylindrical muscle fibers,
D. Calcium striations, and motor neurons?
A. Skeletal
14. Which means in front of or B. Cardiac
toward the front? C. Smooth
A. Anterior D. All of the above
B. Inferior
C. Posterior 20. Which of these muscles
D. Superior inserts on the cartilage of the
fifth, sixth, and seventh ribs
15. Where are the ribs relative and the xiphoid process?
to the lungs? A. Pectoris major
A. Proximal B. Deltoid
B. Distal C. Rectus abdominis
C. Superficial D. Erector spinae
D. Deep
21. Where does splenius cervicis
16. Which body cavities are insert?
generally more superior to the A. Hyoid
diaphragm? B. Vertebrae
A. Cranial and pelvic C. Occiput
B. Thoracic and abdominal D. Mandible
C. Thoracic and pelvic
D. Cranial and thoracic
Page 119
22. Which are carpals? 27. Which muscle originates on

A. Olecranon process, trochlear the bodies and transverse
notch, styloid processes of the lumbar
B. Cuboid, cuneiforms, vertebrae?
navicular A. Psoas major
C. Acromion process, spine of B. Biceps femoris
scapula, clavicle C. Sartorius
D. Lunate, pisiform, hamate D. Brachialis
23. What best describes the 28. What does the tibialis
organization of the muscle anterior do?
fibers of the deltoid? A. Plantar flexes and everts
A. Parallel foot
B. Fusiform B. Dorsiflexes and inverts foot
C. Circular C. Flexion of the toes
D. Triangular D. Extension of the wrist
24. What is a transverse 29. Which muscle flexes the hip

thickening of connective and extends the knee?
tissue that straps tendons A. Rectus femoris
down? B. Biceps brachii
A. Bursa C. Gluteus minimus
B. Superficial fascia D. Psoas major
C. Deep fascia
D. Retinaculum 30. What type of joint allows
movement in every plane?
25. Which muscle can bring the A. Gliding
shoulder to 90 degrees? B. Ellipsoid
A. Supraspinatus C. Hinge
B. Sternocleidomastoid D. Ball and socket
C. Teres minor
D. Vastus medialis 31. What are accessory
movements of the articulating
26. Which muscle originates on surfaces of bones at joint
the lateral one-third of the surfaces?
clavicle, acromion, and spine A. Hypermobility
of the scapula? B. Joint play
A. Biceps brachii C. Arthrokinematics
B. Rectus femoris D. Osteokinematics
C. Deltoid
D. Trapezius 32. What kind of joint is
described by synarthrosis?
A. Freely moveable
B. Slightly moveable
C. Immoveable
D. Ellipsoidal
Page 120
33. What is an idiopathic 39. What are antianxiety

disease? medications, sedatives,
A. A disease with no known antipsychotics, tranquilizers
cause and antidepressants?
B. A disease present at birth A. Hormones
C. A disease that deteriorates B. Natural supplements
D. A disease spread by mold or C. Antineoplastics
yeast D. Central nervous system
medications
34. What is anaplasia?
A. Abnormal tissue growth from 40. What are the implications for
uncontrolled cell division massage for a client taking
B. Cells that fail to mature into respiratory medications?
specialized cells A. Avoid heat hydrotherapy
C. A tissue injury B. The client may be dizzy after
D. Redness, swelling, and heat the massage
C. The massage could produce a
35. What occurs as the result a skin reddening
violent or disruptive action or D. All of the above
a severe emotional shock?
A. Subluxation 41. What natural supplement is
B. Dysfunction used for memory problems?
C. Rickets and scurvy A. Antihistamine
D. Trauma B. Bee pollen
C. Ginkgo
36. Which is generally D. Lavender
contraindicated for massage?
A. Osteomyelitis 42. What kind of fracture
B. Sprains involves more than one
C. Joint stiffness fracture line, with several
D. Headaches fragments resulting and much
soft tissue damage?
37. Is massage indicated or A. Greenstick fracture
contraindicated for lice? B. Depressed fracture
A. Indicated C. Comminuted fracture
B. Contraindicated D. Torticollis
C. Local contraindication
D. Contraindicated in the acute 43. What is a developmental
stage problem in which the bones
are deformed and fragile as a
38. Which adds to the risk of skin result of demineralization?
cancer? A. Gibbus
A. Naturally dark skin B. Cleft palate
B. Excessive sun exposure C. Clubfoot or talipes
C. Little time outdoors D. Osteogenesis imperfect
D. Strong immunity
Page 121
44. What is the first stage of the 50. Which category of the
general adaptation syndrome? physiological effects of
A. The fight-or-flight response massage refers to the
B. The body's initial reaction stimulation of the nervous and
C. Alarm endocrine systems?
D. All of the above A. Biofield methods
B. Reflexive methods
45. What is dislocation? C. Mechanical methods
A. Tennis elbow D. Energetic methods
B. Golfer's or pitcher's elbow
C. Displacement of bones of a 51. What is an effect of massage
joint on the cardiovascular system?
D. Frozen shoulder A. Stimulates release of
acetylchlorine and histamine
46. What is there in the back in for vasodilatation
a neutral position of the B. Decreases white blood cell
pelvis? count
A. Flat back C. Decreases red blood cell
B. Lordosis count
C. Normal anterior curve D. Decreases platelet count
D. All of the above
52. When should heat be
47. Which area is associated with avoided?
the piriformis? A. Edema
A. Cranial cavity B. Spasms
B. Anterior triangle of the neck C. Pain
C. Axillary area D. Circulatory problems
D. Sciatic notch
53. What is the temperature of a
48. What are the sides of the warm bath?
posterior triangle of the neck A. Below 32 degrees Fahrenheit
endangerment site? B. 95 to 100 degrees Fahrenheit
A. Mandible, clavicle, and or 35 to 38 degrees Celsius
trachea C. 115 degrees Fahrenheit or 43
B. Teres major, mandible, and degrees Celsius
trachea D. Above 100 degrees Celsius
C. SCM, clavicle, and trapezius
D. Mandible, plantaris, and 54. Which would be most
trapezius effective in increasing
extensibility of collagen
49. What is a physiological effect tissue?
of massage? A. Heat
A. Increased blood clots B. Cryotherapy
B. Increasing adhesions C. Ice massage
C. Release of endorphins D. Vapocoolant spray
Page 122
55. Which uses slow, gliding 61. Which is done with light
strokes? pressure and long, flowing
A. Compression strokes?
B. Grounding A. Vibration
C. Effleurage B. Feather stroking
D. Petrissage C. Percussion
D. Friction
A. Petrissage 62. Which stroke is appropriate
B. Superficial friction for treating a tennis player
C. Cross fiber friction with a sore arm?
D. Tapotement A. Vibration
B. Deep gliding
57. What is a physical effect of C. Cross-fiber friction
massage? D. Percussion
A. Increases in muscle cramps
and spasms 63. Which are strokes that
B. Increases circulation of blood knead?
and lymph A. Effleurage
C. Decreases removal of B. Petrissage
metabolic waste C. Percussion
D. Reduces anxiety D. Tapotement
58. What is a mechanical effect 64. How many types of Swedish

of massage? massage strokes are there?
A. Reflexive effect A. 3
B. Indirect physical effect B. 4
C. Psychological effect C. 5
D. Direct physical effect D. 6
59. What moves joints with no 65. Which stroke is used for
resistance on the part of the tapping a large area of the
client? body?
A. Active joint movements A. Effleurage
B. Passive joint movements B. Rocking
C. Friction C. Deep tissue
D. Effleurage D. Percussion
60. What is a stimulating 66. Which stroke is most

massage technique? appropriate for the elderly?
A. Vibration A. Effleurage
B. Strong percussion for a short B. Friction
period C. Deep tissue
C. Friction D. Percussion
D. All of the above
Page 123
67. Which is a contraindication 72. Which muscles are

for pregnancy massage? overactive if a client has low
A. Toxemia back pain, buttock pain, and
B. Back strain hamstring strains when
C. Second or third trimester extending the trunk?
D. Pregnancy is always A. Gluteus maximum and
contraindicated gastrocnemius
B. Abdominal complex
68. What is a benefit of massage C. Erector spinae and
for the critically ill? hamstrings
A. Bring comfort, pleasure and D. Upper trapezius and
relaxation ipsilateral quadratus
B. Control pain lumborum
C. Reduce isolation
D. All of the above 73. What is done if a client has
the foot pulled into forefoot
69. What does the contrast varus with the big toe
method use? abducted?
A. Ice packs A. Lengthen abductor hallucis
B. Cold only B. Lengthen adductor hallucis
C. Heat and cold C. Lengthen flexor digitorum
D. Heat only longus
D. Lengthen tibialis anterior
lordotic posture, what is the 74. If a client only has 30
most appropriate treatment? minutes for a massage instead
A. Shorten adductor longus and of the usual hour, what would
oblique capitis superior be adjusted?
B. Lengthen gluteus maximus A. Depth of pressure
and longus capitis B. Duration
C. Lengthen biceps femoris and C. Speed
SCM D. Rhythm
D. Lengthen iliacus and rectus
capitis posterior major 75. Regarding faulty posture of
the feet, what happens when
71. If a client has tight muscles the toes are in while walking?
from holding a telephone on A. Pronation
the right shoulder, what is the B. Slue-footed
most appropriate treatment? C. Pigeon-toed
A. Shorten right splenius D. Supination
B. Lengthen right upper
trapezius 76. Which is more objective?
C. Lengthen left upper A. Interviewing
trapezius B. Listening
D. Lengthen spinalis C. Client history
D. Physical assessment
Page 124
77. What could be the result of 82. What is the assessment when
inefficient joint movement the shoulders are elevated
during walking that could lead and the scapulae adducted?
to tissue shortening? A. Weak serratus anterior
A. Homeostasis B. Tight upper trapezius
B. Balance C. Weak peroneus longus
C. Protective muscle D. Tight quadratus lumborum
contraction
D. Normal end feel 83. What is the appropriate
angle for the hip and knees for
78. Which muscles are about 25% good alignment in sitting
to 30% stronger than their posture?
antagonists? A. 0 degrees
A. Flexors, internal rotators, B. 45 degrees
and adductors C. 90 degrees
B. Adductors and abductors D. 135 degrees
C. Extensors, external rotators,
and abductors 84. Which muscle tends to show
D. Mylohyoid and stylohyoid acquired postural weakness in
left handed individuals?
79. If a client has a forward head A. Sacrum
position, what is most likely to B. Coccyx
be true? C. Right flexor digitorum longus
A. The neck extensors are short D. Left lateral trunk muscles
B. The neck extensors are weak
C. The anterior vertebral neck 85. Where on the SOAP chart
flexors are short would the therapist's visual
D. The tibial shaft is strong observations of muscle
guarding be documented?
80. If a client has lordotic A. Subjective
posture, which muscles are B. Objective
most likely short and strong? C. Assessment
A. Supinators D. Plan
B. Hamstrings and
Occipitofrontalis 86. What would not require
C. Anterior abdominals treatment for whiplash?
D. Hip flexors A. Shoulder
B. Neck
81. What is associated with ideal C. SCM
alignment in the posterior D. Hamstrings
view?
A. Level pelvis
B. Straight spine
C. Feet parallel or slight out-
toeing
D. All of the above
Page 125
87. What is the swelling of the 92. Which method associates the
tendons in a finger due to waist with a line across the
overuse? metatarsals?
A. Trigger finger A. Reflexology
B. Lateral epicondylitis B. Swedish
C. Medial epicondylitis C. Ayurveda
D. Tennis elbow D. Trigger point therapy
88. Which is a treatment for 93. Which is best for removing

frozen shoulder? waste?
A. Reduce fascial restrictions A. Manual lymphatic drainage
B. Increase range of motion B. Reciprocal inhibition
C. Reduce hypertonicity and C. Deep transverse friction
trigger points D. Hellerwork
D. All of the above
94. Who developed a structural
89. What involves painful integration technique called
degenerative changes to the Hellerwork?
articular cartilage on the A. Dr. Emil Vodder and Dr.
kneecap? Estrid Vodder
A. Piriformis syndrome B. James Cyriax
B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Elizabeth Dicke
C. Thoracic outlet syndrome D. Joseph Heller
D. Patellofemoral syndrome
95. What is the primary
90. What is treated by stretching technique of neuromuscular
the pecs, subclavius, serratus therapy?
anterior, and the anterior A. Acupressure
intercostals? B. Gliding
A. Flat-back posture C. Tapotement
B. Hyperlordosis D. All of the above
C. Hyperkyphosis
D. Scoliosis 96. What are energy forces used
in Indian and Hindu methods?
91. What did Elizabeth Dicke A. Doshas
develop because she was B. Synergists
suffering from impaired C. Acupuncture points
circulation in the leg? D. Acupressure points
A. Acupuncture
B. Manual lymph drainage 97. What is the standard of
C. Reflexology conduct, goals, and qualities
D. Connective tissue massage of workers in the same field?
A. Budget
B. Confidentiality
C. Ledger
D. Professionalism
Page 126
98. What would describe the 103. What are boundaries?

relationship when an A. Limits, barriers, borders,
experienced therapist with a edges
PhD performs a massage on a B. Time, location, language
new therapist? C. Clothing, space, touch,
A. Informed consent money
B. Power differential D. None of the above
C. Right of refusal
D. Dual role 104. What is needed before
working on a minor?
99. What is an example of a A. Psychological counseling
violation of a code of ethics? B. Parental consent
A. Working on a minor without C. Contract
parental knowledge D. All of the above
B. Informed consent
C. Client-centered actions and 105. Dating a client is what type
words of unethical behavior?
D. Right of refusal A. Financial impropriety
B. Bigotry
100. What is not a violation of a C. Dual relationship violation
code of ethics? D. None of the above
A. Bigotry
B. Inappropriate advertising 106. What is appropriate for a
C. Confidentiality therapist to do when seeing a
D. Lack of accessibility client in a restaurant?
A. Ask how the last massage
101. What is in the therapeutic was
relationship? B. Do not bring up anything
A. Confidentiality about the massage
B. Medical advice C. Ask for a referral
C. Social needs D. None of the above
D. All of the above
107. What is outside the scope of
102. What is out of the practice for a massage
therapeutic relationship? therapist?
A. Client-centered actions and A. Assessment
words B. Diagnosis
B. Social needs C. Both A and B are correct
C. Scope of practice D. None of the above
D. All of the above
prompts dual relationships?
A. Client/practitioner reversal
B. Body mechanics
Page 127
109. What is done by 114. Handwashing with soap and

governments rather than water is an example of what
associations? level of decontamination?
A. Licensing A. Sanitation
B. Credentialing B. Disinfection
C. Answer A and B are correct C. Sterilization
D. None of the above D. All of the above
110. Which is unethical? 115. All of the following are

A. Advertising organisms that can cause
B. Business cards disease in other organisms
C. Discrimination based on race except:
or religion A. Pathogen
D. None of the above B. Pathogenic microorganism
C. Cornstarch
111. What is a client's right to D. Germs
stop any part of treatment?
A. Dual relationship 116. What are standard infection
B. Transference precautions designed to do?
C. Countertransference A. Improve mobility
D. Right of refusal B. Control pain
C. Prevent blood and other
112. What is appropriate for body secretions from
addressing erections in entering practitioner's body
clients if the client shows no D. All of the above
signs of discomfort?
A. Establish and maintain 117. What reduces the risk of
appropriate boundaries injury to the practitioner
B. It is not necessary to from positioning?
mention it if the therapist is A. Body mechanics
comfortable B. Gloves
C. Both A and B are correct C. Sanitation
D. None of the above D. Draping
113. What is the proper room 118. Which stance is known as

temperature for a general the horse stance?
relaxation massage? A. Asymmetric
A. 55 to 60 degrees B. Body mechanics
B. 66 to 68 degrees C. Laterally recumbent
C. 72 to 74 degrees D. Symmetric
D. 78 to 80 degrees
Page 128
119. What is in butter, egg yolks 125. What is a relationship

and yellow vegetables? between two or more persons
A. Vitamin A to carry on a trade or
B. Vitamin B complex business?
C. Aloe A. S Corporation
D. Vitamin D B. Partnership
C. Sole proprietorship
120. Who gets W-2 forms? D. LLC
A. Independent contractors
B. Employer
C. Employees
D. The massage board
121. How is a business card used?

A. Licensing
B. Tax
C. Marketing
D. Insurance
122. What would the cost of

obtaining credentials and a
business license be?
A. Start-up costs
B. Overhead
C. Net income
D. Gross income
123. Where are fees for

subcontractors recorded?
A. Schedule K-1
B. Form 1099-MISC
C. Form 1098
D. Form W-2
124. What could be limited by

keeping accurate records?
A. Liability
B. Marketing
C. Insurance
D. Barter income
Page 129
Exam 10 Answer Key
1. A 43. D 85. B
2. C 44. D 86. D
3. D 45. C 87. A
4. C 46. C 88. D
5. B 47. D 89. D
6. B 48. C 90. C
7. C 49. C 91. D
8. A 50. B 92. A
9. C 51. A 93. A
10. D 52. A 94. D
11. A 53. B 95. B
12. B 54. A 96. A
13. C 55. C 97. D
14. A 56. C 98. B
15. C 57. B 99. A
16. D 58. D 100. C
17. B 59. B 101. A
18. D 60. D 102. B
19. A 61. B 103. A
20. C 62. C 104. B
21. B 63. B 105. C
22. D 64. C 106. B
23. D 65. D 107. B
24. D 66. A 108. A
25. A 67. A 109. A
26. C 68. D 110. C
27. A 69. C 111. D
28. B 70. D 112. C
29. A 71. B 113. C
30. D 72. C 114. A
31. C 73. A 115. C
32. C 74. B 116. C
33. A 75. C 117. A
34. B 76. D 118. D
35. D 77. C 119. A
36. A 78. A 120. C
37. B 79. A 121. C
38. B 80. D 122. A
39. D 81. D 123. B
40. D 82. B 124. A
41. C 83. C 125. B
42. C 84. C
Page 130
Exam 11
1. Which refers to the study of 6. What is usually the stationary

functional or physiologic bone?
changes in the body that result A. Origin
from various disease processes? B. Insertion
A. Craniosacral therapy C. Prime mover
B. Anatomic pathology D. Synergist
C. Clinical reasoning
D. Pathophysiology 7. Which lobe of the cerebral
cortex is responsible for
2. Which is the process of detecting impulses from touch?
breaking down substances and A. Parietal
releasing energy? B. Occipital
A. Catabolism C. Femoral
B. Assessment D. Mastoid
C. Exchange
D. Reversible reaction 8. What is the order of these
major endocrine glands,
3. What is one of the most starting with most superior /
abundant tissues in the body cranial?
that binds together other A. Pineal, pituitary, thyroid,
tissues? thymus, pancreas
A. Ground tissue B. Pituitary, pineal, thymus,
B. Epithelial tissue thyroid, patella
C. Connective tissue C. Pineal, pituitary, cervical,
D. Muscular tissue thyroid, thymus
D. Pituitary, pineal, pancreas,
4. What are the most common thymus, thyroid
sweat glands?
A. Eccrine glands 9. Which system includes
B. Bursitis vessels, nodes, the spleen,
C. Apocrine glands tonsils, thymus gland, and
D. Hair follicles bone marrow?
A. Cardiovascular
5. Which bones are included in B. Lymphatic
the axial skeleton? C. Respiratory
A. Pelvic girdle, bones of lower D. Gastrointestinal
and upper limbs
B. Skull, hands, ribs, sacrum, 10. Which system helps regulates
and shoulder blood volume and blood
C. Skull, vertebrae, feet, pressure?
shoulder, and hyoid bone A. Lymphatic
D. Skull, vertebrae, ribs, B. Respiratory
sternum, and hyoid bone C. Gastrointestinal
D. Urinary
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11. What are the parts of the 17. Where is the inguinal region?
small intestine, in order A. Knee
starting with the part leading B. Thigh
off from the stomach? C. Groin
A. Ileum, jejunum, duodenum D. Abdomen
B. Duodenum, jejunum, ileum
C. Jejunum, ileum, dura matter 18. Under what theory does
D. Jasmine, duodenum, ileum water correspond to the
kidney and bladder?
12. What regulates blood A. Yin and yang
coagulation? B. Five elements
A. Zinc C. Ayurveda
B. Vitamin K D. Yoga
C. Mugwort
D. Lavender 19. Which of these muscles
inserts on the lesser
13. A deficiency of which trochanter of the femur?
vitamin prolongs blood- A. Psoas major
clotting time and causes B. Biceps femoris
bleeding? C. Gracilis
A. Vitamin A D. Rectus femoris
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D 20. Where does sartorius insert?
D. Vitamin K A. Femur
B. Tibia
14. Which means the palm side C. Fibula
of the hand? D. Calcaneus
A. Varus
B. Valgus 21. What is the attachment site
C. Plantar for the hamstrings, adductor
D. Volar magnus, and the
sacrotuberous ligament?
15. Which plane divides the body A. Sternum
into anterior and posterior B. Occiput
portions? C. Ischial tuberosity
A. Frontal or coronal plane D. Greater tubercle of the
B. Parasagittal plane humerus
C. Oblique plane
D. All of the above 22. What type of joint is the hip?
A. Pivot
16. Which means inside or away B. Saddle
from the surface? C. Ball and socket
A. Deep D. Gliding
B. Internal
C. Proximal
D. Superficial
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23. Which muscles attach to the 28. Which muscle is associated

coracoid process? with spasmodic torticollis?
A. Pectoralis minor, A. Sternocleidomastoid
coracobrachialis, biceps B. Rectus abdominis
B. Latissimus dorsi, teres C. Erector spinae
major, supraspinatus D. Iliopsoas
C. Biceps brachii, triceps,
deltoid 29. Flexing the arm is an
D. Genohyoid, stylohyoid, example of what type of
thyrohyoid lever?
A. First class lever
24. Which is superficial with a B. Second class lever
medial portion deep to the C. Third class lever
trapezius and a lateral portion D. Fulcrum
deep to the deltoid?
A. Supraspinatus 30. What is a joint in which a
B. Infraspinatus thin layer of hyaline growth
C. Biceps femoris cartilage connects two bones
D. Piriformis such as the first sternocostal
joint?
25. Which muscle inserts on the A. Fusiform
lateral one-third of the B. Synovial
clavicle, acromion, and spine C. Ball and socket
of the scapula? D. Synchondrosis
A. Deltoid
B. Trapezius 31. What occurs moving sideways
C. Biceps brachii from the sagittal plane in a
D. Psoas major coronal direction?
A. Circumduction
26. Which muscle inverts the B. Plantar flexion
foot and dorsiflexes the ankle? C. Abduction and adduction
A. Tibialis anterior D. Flexion and extension
B. Biceps femoris
C. Sartorius 32. Which would predominantly
D. Trapezius have slow twitch fibers?
A. Supinator
27. Which muscle should be B. Soleus
stretched for kyphosis? C. Deltoid
A. Platysma D. Biceps brachii
B. Pectoralis major
C. Scalenes 33. What kind of disease involves
D. Adductors the breakdown of tissues?
A. Degenerative
B. Fungal
C. Idiopathic
D. Congenital
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34. What is characterized by 39. What are antitussives,

heat, redness, swelling, and expectorants, decongestants,
pain? bronchodilators, and
A. Hyperplasia antihistamines?
B. Inflammation A. Central nervous system
C. Anaplasia medications
D. Malignant B. Analgesics
C. Anti-inflammatory
35. When is homeostasis most medications
optimal? D. Respiratory medications
A. Infancy
B. Senopia 40. What are the implications for
C. Adolescence massage for a client taking
D. Senescence thyroid medications?
A. Changes in stress level may
36. What involves the re- affect the dose
experiencing of flashback B. Avoid draping the client
memory? C. Avoid Swedish massage
A. Panic methods
B. Dysfunction D. Massage may help with
C. Posttraumatic stress disorder constipation
D. Trauma
41. What is a rheumatoid
37. Is massage indicated or inflammatory disorder in
contraindicated for irritable which spinal ligaments ossify?
bowel syndrome? A. Ankylosing spondylitis
A. Indicated B. Spondylolisthesis
B. Contraindicated C. Tinnitus
C. Local contraindication D. Torticollis
D. Contraindicated in the acute
stage 42. What has a calming scent?
A. Saw palmetto
38. What is maintained by the B. Bee pollen
sympathetic and C. Ginkgo
parasympathetic systems D. Lavender
working together?
A. Entrainment 43. What is the general
B. Toughening / hardening adaptation syndrome?
C. Conservation withdrawal A. Alarm, resistance,
D. Homeostasis exhaustion
B. Heat, redness, swelling, pain
C. Pain-spasm-pain cycle
D. Increase in pain as a result of
muscle exertion
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44. What is one's opinion of one's 50. Which is an effect of

self? massage that can be
A. Self-concept processed through the
B. Emotions autonomic nervous system?
C. Behavior A. Sympathetic activation and
D. Denial stress
B. Parasympathetic patterns
45.What is subluxation? and conservation withdrawal
A.Tennis elbow C. Entrainment
B.Golfer's or pitcher's elbow D. All of the above
C.Partial displacement of
bones of a joint 51. What includes reflexive
D. Frozen shoulder methods and mechanical
methods?
46. What is a lateral tilt of the A. Neuroendocrine interaction
spine? B. Homeostasis
A. Kyphosis C. Ischemia
B. List D. Physiological effects of
C. Sprain massage
D. Lordosis
52. Which condition can benefit
47. Which nerve is associated from massage?
with the heart, lungs, kidneys, A. Alzheimer's disease
and the gastrointestinal tract? B. Anemia
A. Ulnar C. Asthma
B. Vagus D. All of the above
C. Transverse
D. Radial 53. What uses hot vapors in a
confined area for
48. What is in danger of being temperatures from 105 to 120
compressed in the inguinal degrees Fahrenheit with 100%
triangle endangerment site? humidity?
A. Femoral nerve A. Steam bath
B. Radial nerve B. Sauna
C. Cranial cavity C. Whirlpool
D. Tibial nerve D. Shower or spray
49. What is the result of physical 54. Which stroke would be best
forces such as compression, for bronchitis?
stretching, shearing, A. Friction
broadening, and vibration of B. Tapotement
tissues? C. Petrissage
A. Mechanical effects D. Effleurage
B. Physiological effects
C. Entrainment
D. Mind-body effects
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55. Which focuses on pain and 61. What stimulates the

explores the soft tissue sympathetic nervous system?
components of pain? A. Pre-event sports massage
A. Cross fiber friction B. Long massage
B. Energetic methods C. Relaxation massage
C. Reflexology D. All of the above
D. Neuromuscular therapy
62. Which stroke is effleurage?
56. Which stroke involves a slight A. Vibration
trembling of the hand? B. Deep gliding
A. Vibration C. Percussion
B. Cupping D. Friction
C. Kneading
D. Gliding 63. Which stroke is not a type of
friction?
57. What is a PNF technique in A. Transverse
which the client contracts the B. Cross fiber
antagonist to the target C. Skin rolling
muscle? D. Circular
A. Direct manipulation (DM)
B. Petrissage 64. What stretching technique
C. Post-isometric contraction involves bobbing or bouncing
(PIR) during the stretch?
D. Reciprocal inhibition (RI) A. Ballistic stretching
B. Positional release (PR)
58. What is not a physical effect C. Post-isometric contraction
of massage? (PIR)
A. Increases metabolism D. Reciprocal inhibition (RI)
B. Speeds healing
C. Reduces tension and anxiety 65. Yoga is an example of which
D. Improves functions of stretching technique?
lymphatic system A. Unassisted static stretching
B. Ballistic stretching
59. What is shaking or trembling? C. Assisted static stretching
A. Vibration D. Reciprocal inhibition (RI)
B. Percussion
C. Friction 66. What stoke is usually
D. Ischemic compression performed to end a massage?
A. Effleurage
60. What is initiated by B. Petrissage
sympathetic stimulation? C. Percussion
A. Accelerated heart rate D. Tapotement
B. Blood diverted to muscles
C. Elimination and digestion
inhibited
D. All of the above
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67. Which stroke would not 73. Which muscle is weak if a

require lubricant? client has low back pain,
A. Light effleurage buttock pain, and hamstring
B. Nerve strokes strains when extending the
C. Feather strokes trunk?
D. Compression A. Gluteus maximum
B. Gastrocnemius
68. Which is not advisable for C. Tibialis anterior
pregnancy massage? D. Upper trapezius
A. Light effleurage
B. Abdominal massage 74. What would be a good
C. Side-lying position position to start a massage for
D. Supine position clients with back pain and
tension?
69. What would benefit from the A. Supine
R.I.C.E.S. first aid principle? B. Prone
A. Sprains and strains C. Side-lying
B. Circulatory problems D. Horizontal
C. Infectious diseases
D. Cancer 75. What are the last three
SOAPIER headings?
70. If a client has a prominent or A. Inflammation, evaluation,
high right hip, what is the referral
most appropriate treatment? B. Intervention, e-mail, record
A. Stretch right lateral trunk C. Integrity, exceptions,
muscles revisions
B. Stretch low back muscles D. Intervention, evaluation,
C. Stretch shoulder adductors revisions
D. Stretch hamstrings
76. Which involves observing
71. If a client has tight muscles basic body movements of
from holding a telephone on walking to recognize
the left shoulder, what is the dysfunctional and inefficient
most appropriate treatment? patterns?
A. Shorten left gluteus maximus A. Gait assessment
B. Lengthen right upper B. Needs assessment
trapezius C. Posture assessment
C. Lengthen semitendinosus D. Palpation
D. Lengthen left splenius
77. Which tend to shorten and
72. What is done if a client has increase in tension when
hallux valgus? under strain?
A. Lengthen teres major A. Postural muscles
B. Lengthen adductor hallucis B. Mover muscles
C. Lengthen temporalis C. Phasic muscles
D. Lengthen tibialis anterior D. Soft tissues
Page 137
78. If a client has a forward head 82. Which muscles are tight
position, what is most likely to when the shoulders are
be true? elevated and the scapulae
A. The neck extensors are long adducted?
B. The neck extensors are weak A. Platysma
C. The anterior vertebral neck B. Rectus abdominis
flexors are short C. Upper trapezius
D. The anterior vertebral neck D. Lower trapezius
flexors are weak
83. What is genu valgum?
79. Which muscles are elongated A. Knee hyperextension
and weak with kyphotic- B. Knock-knees
lordotic posture? C. Bowlegs
A. Neck extensors D. Genu varum
B. Upper back erector spinae
C. Hip flexors 84. Where is the gravity line in
D. All of the above the back view of standing
posture?
80. What is associated with A. Coronal plane
lordotic posture? B. Midsagittal plane
A. Hyperextended lumbar spine C. Transverse plane
B. Flexed knees D. Zero position
C. Posterior pelvic tilt
D. All of the above 85. What is the obtained before
performing a massage?
81. Where are the feet in A. Availability for next
standard posture? appointment
A. Heels 3 inches apart and B. Payment in cash
angle of out-toeing 8 to 10 C. Intake form
degrees from the midline D. Referrals
B. Heels 3 inches apart and
angle of in-toeing 8 to 10 86. What assessment involves
degrees from the midline observing the client walk?
C. Posterior to the outer A. Palpation
malleolus and through the B. Gait
apex of the arch C. Needs
D. Anterior to the outer D. Functional
malleolus and through the
apex of the arch 87. What is characterized by
forward head posture and an
increase in the cervical
lordotic curve?
A. Plantar fasciitis
B. Whiplash
C. Frozen shoulder
D. Migraine
Page 138
88. Which is a treatment for 94. What is responsible for all

frozen shoulder? yang meridians?
A. Heat in the acute stage A. Contraindication
B. Heat in the freezing phase B. Governing vessel
C. Increase range of motion C. Ayurveda
D. All of the above D. Marketing
89. What involves a thickening of 95. What are the seven centers
the muscle that provides of the Prana used in Indian or
lateral support at the knee? Hindu practices?
A. Piriformis syndrome A. The Five Elements
B. Iliotibial band contracture B. Transference
C. Thoracic outlet syndrome C. Range of motion
D. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Chakras
90. What involves protracted 96. Which massage system uses

scapulae and head-forward the stimulation of
posture? acupuncture points to
A. Thoracic outlet syndrome regulate chi, the life force
B. Scoliosis energy?
C. Hyperkyphosis A. Greek
D. Iliotibial band contracture B. Indian
C. Chinese
91. In polarity therapy, what are D. Swedish
the five major body currents?
A. Doshas 97. Which section of a standards
B. Chakras of practice would contain
C. Air, wind, earth, sun, and guidance on client files and
moon sharing information?
D. Ether, air, fire, water, and A. Insurance
earth B. Tax
C. Confidentiality
92. Which method uses a heel D. Business practices
line across the calcaneus?
A. Swedish 98. What is an example of a
B. Shiatsu violation of a code of ethics?
C. Trigger point therapy A. Informed consent
D. Reflexology B. Exploiting the power
differential
93. What is the appropriate C. Right of refusal
duration of pressure on a D. Working on a minor with
trigger point? parental knowledge
A. 1 to 2 seconds
B. 8 to 12 seconds
C. 30 to 40 seconds
D. 3 to 4 minutes
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99. What is not a violation of a 104. What is the issue if a

code of ethics? therapist mentions the name
A. Right of refusal of a famous client without
B. Practicing beyond the scope permission?
of practice A. Dual relationship
C. Sexual misconduct B. Transference
D. Misrepresentation of C. Countertransference
educational status D. Confidentiality violation
100. What is in the therapeutic 105. What is appropriate for a

relationship? therapist to do when seeing a
A. Consistency client in a public place?
B. Informed consent A. Ask how the last massage
C. Right of refusal was
D. All of the above B. Do not bring up anything
about the massage
101. What can be interpersonal, C. Ask when the therapist can
physical, emotional, sexual or expect payment
intellectual? D. All of the above
A. Informed consent
B. Boundaries 106. What is appropriate when a
C. Consumer rights client says they are going to
D. None of the above stop taking their prescription
medication now?
102. What is needed before A. Suggest the client discuss it
working on a minor? with their primary care
A. Parental consent provider
B. Contract B. Tell the client it is OK to
C. Medical advice stop taking the medication
D. All of the above C. Prescribe a different
medication
103. Hugging a client in a sexual D. All of the above
manner is what type of
unethical behavior? 107. Massaging a friend involves
A. Accessibility violation what type of issue?
B. Sexual misconduct A. Financial impropriety
C. Practicing beyond the scope B. Scope of practice
of practice C. Dual relationship
108. Who issues credentials?

A. The government
B. Associations
Page 140
109. Which is unethical? 115. What is a universal

A. Advertising precaution?
B. Professionalism A. Gloves shall be worn if there
C. Bigotry is potential for direct
D. All of the above contact with body fluids
B. Hands must not be washed
110. What is an appropriate after removing gloves
interview technique? C. Both A and B are correct
A. Discussing finances D. None of the above
B. Gossiping
C. Discussing personal issues 116. How often should
D. Listening hydrotherapy tubs, steam
cabinets, shower stalls and
111. What is the most wet tables be disinfected?
appropriate response if a A. Every hour
caller asks if the massage B. Between each use
includes a happy ending? C. Daily
A. Schedule an appointment D. Weekly
B. Call 911
C. Remain professional and 117. What is a safety practice
explain the services regarding equipment?
D. Provide a referral A. Check all stools and tables
for stability
112. What provides a safe B. Maintain electrical cords
experience for clients? C. Store equipment and linens
A. Clarify intentions towards properly
clients D. All of the above
B. Sexual innuendo
C. Both A and B are correct 118. Which first aid kit item
D. None of the above would be used to treat an
external rash?
113. How should massage oil, A. Antibiotic
cream, or lotion be removed B. Antiseptic
from a container? C. Aspirin
A. With the fingers D. Hydrocortisone
B. Without touching the
product 119. What prevents muscle
C. Both A and B are correct strain and overuse injuries
D. None of the above when used properly?
A. Gloves
114. What can disinfect floors, B. Draping
surfaces and restrooms? C. Body mechanics
A. Warm water D. All of the above
B. Cresol or Lysol
C. Cold water
D. All of the above
Page 141

effleurage?
A. Symmetric
B. Seated
C. Archer stance
D. Horse stance
121. Which fat-soluble vitamin is

formed within the body from
alpha, beta, and gamma
carotene?
A. Vitamin A
B. Niacin
C. Vitamin C
D. Aloe
122. What are disadvantages of

self-employment?
A. Less steady income
B. Flexibility
C. Keep greater portion of fees
D. All of the above
123. How much of barter income

must be reported to the IRS?
A. 40%
B. 50%
C. 100%
D. 0%
124. What form is used for

depreciation?
A. Schedule K-1
B. Form 1099
C. Form W-2
D. Form 4562
125. What is deductible as a

business expense?
A. Royalties
B. Cost of equipment
C. Tips
D. Barter income
Page 142
Exam 11 Answer Key
1. D 43. A 85. C
2. A 44. A 86. B
3. C 45. C 87. B
4. A 46. B 88. C
5. D 47. B 89. B
6. A 48. A 90. C
7. A 49. A 91. D
8. A 50. D 92. D
9. B 51. D 93. B
10. D 52. D 94. B
11. B 53. A 95. D
12. B 54. B 96. C
13. D 55. D 97. C
14. D 56. A 98. B
15. A 57. D 99. A
16. A 58. C 100. D
17. C 59. A 101. B
18. B 60. D 102. A
19. A 61. A 103. B
20. B 62. B 104. D
21. C 63. C 105. B
22. C 64. A 106. A
23. A 65. A 107. C
24. B 66. A 108. B
25. B 67. D 109. C
26. A 68. B 110. D
27. B 69. A 111. C
28. A 70. A 112. A
29. C 71. D 113. B
30. D 72. B 114. B
31. C 73. A 115. A
32. B 74. B 116. B
33. A 75. D 117. D
34. B 76. A 118. D
35. C 77. A 119. C
36. C 78. D 120. C
37. A 79. B 121. A
38. D 80. A 122. A
39. D 81. A 123. C
40. A 82. C 124. D
41. A 83. B 125. B
42. D 84. B
Page 143
Exam 12
1. Which refers to the study of 6. What are the three types of

the nature and causes of muscle tissue?
disease as related to structure A. Striated, cardiac, and
and function of the body? smooth
A. Pathology B. Skeletal, axial, and
B. Anatomy appendicular
C. Swedish massage C. Skeletal, cardiac, and
D. Metabolism digestive
D. Skeletal, cardiac, and
2. Which is the process of smooth
building up potential energy?
A. Lordosis 7. Which is the "fight or flight"
B. Anabolism nervous system?
C. Joint movement A. Reflex arc
D. Reversible reaction B. Sympathetic
C. Somatic
3. Which is the first line of D. Parasympathetic
defense for the body?
A. Fibroblasts 8. What receives deoxygenated
B. Lymph nodes blood from the body?
C. The skin A. Pulmonary arteries
D. The heart B. Right atrium
C. Pulmonary veins
4. Which type of serous D. Left atrium
membrane covers the lungs?
A. Pleura 9. What moves lymph?
B. Pericardium A. Ion pumps
C. Craniosacral B. Muscles
D. Lavender C. Gravity
D. Osmosis
5. Which system includes the
skin, hair, and nails? 10. What is the order of these
A. Nervous parts of the urinary system,
B. Musculoskeletal starting with the part
C. Lymphatic connected to the renal artery
D. Integumentary and vein?
A. Bladder, ureter, urethra,
spleen
B. Kidney, liver, bladder, ureter
C. Kidney, ureter, bladder,
urethra
D. Kidney, ulnar nerve, ureter,
urethra
Page 144
11. In what order of the colons 17. Under what theory does
does food pass through the wood correspond to the liver
large intestine? and gallbladder?
A. Descending, transverse, A. Lomi lomi
ascending, serous B. Yin and yang
B. Ascending, sigmoid, C. Five elements
descending, transverse D. Acupressure
C. Ascending, transverse,
descending, sigmoid 18. Under what theory does
D. Ascending, descending, metal correspond to the lung
neurological, sigmoid and large intestine?
A. Positional release
12. Which vitamin is necessary B. Yin and yang
for the formation of red blood C. Myofascial approach
cells? D. Five elements
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B-12 19. Which of these muscles
C. Vitamin C inserts on the anterior surface
D. Vitamin D of the medial border of the
scapula?
13. What is the relationship of A. Pectoralis major
the skin to the muscles? B. Rotatores
A. Deep C. Serratus anterior
B. Internal D. Deltoid
C. Proximal
D. Superficial 20. Where does the soleus insert?
A. Femur
14. Which plane divides the body B. Tibia
into equal left and right sides? C. Mandible
A. Midsagittal or median plane D. Calcaneus
B. Sagittal or parasagittal plane
C. Oblique plane 21. What is the spherically
D. All of the above shaped attachment site for
the tendons of the wrist and
15. Which body cavity contains hand flexors?
the psoas major? A. Coccyx
A. Distal B. Greater trochanter of femur
B. Pelvic C. Medial epicondyle of the
C. Thoracic humerus
D. Abdominal D. Nuchal line of the occiput
16. Which group is more medial?

A. Abductors
B. Adductors
C. Hamstrings
D. Quadriceps
Page 145
22. What bony landmark locates 28. Which group is primarily

the proximal end of the ulna? responsible for flexing the
A. Lamina groove knee?
B. Coracoid process A. Abductors
C. Pubic crest B. Adductors
D. Olecranon process C. Hamstrings
D. Quadriceps
23. Which is found near C-6?
A. Deltoid ligament 29. Which muscle flexes,
B. Carotid tubercle extends, medially and
C. Metatarsals laterally rotates, and abducts
D. Medial malleolus the hip?
A. Digastric
24. What is the functional class B. Biceps femoris
of the joints between the tibia C. Gluteus minimus
and fibula? D. Psoas major
A. Synarthrosis
B. Gomphosis 30. What type of lever has effort
C. Diathrosis applied at a point between
D. Amphiarthrosis the load and the fulcrum?
A. Ball and socket
25. Which is a small muscle high B. Second class lever
on the axilla? C. Third class lever
A. Supraspinatus D. Isotonic
B. Tibialis anterior
C. Teres minor 31. What is the movement of
D. Adductor pollicis bones by action of the
muscles?
26. Which muscles are A. Hypermobility
responsible for depression or B. Hypomobility
protraction of the scapula? C. Anatomy
A. Deltoid and pronator teres D. Osteokinematics
B. Serratus anterior and
pectoralis minor 32. What is the structural limit
C. Biceps brachii and triceps on the range of motion?
brachii A. Anatomic range of motion
D. Rectus femoris and vastus B. Physiologic range of motion
lateralis C. Hypermobility
D. Pathologic range of motion
27. Which muscle originates on
the proximal lateral surface of 33. What is temporary pain after
the tibia? an operation?
A. Tibialis anterior A. Intractable pain
B. Biceps femoris B. Phantom pain
C. Extensor digitorum C. Referred pain
D. Tibialis posterior D. Acute pain
Page 146
34. What is a neoplasm? 39. What are calcium channel

A. Cells that fail to mature blockers, antiarrhythmics,
B. Ringing in the ears diuretics, cardiac glycerides,
C. An infectious disease anticoagulants, and
D. A tumor resulting from antihyperlipidemics?
hyperplasia A. Cardiovascular medications
B. Gastrointestinal medications
35. What is a condition in which C. Hormones
all functions are normally D. Anti-infectives
active and a state of complete
well-being? 40. What are the implications of
A. Pathogenicity massage for a client taking
B. Entrainment anticholinergics and narcotics?
C. Health A. The relaxation effects of
D. Stages of lifecycle massage may be altered
B. Recommend alternative
36. What describes the vague medications
uneasiness when a client does C. Stop massage if heart rate
not remember the details of drops below 120 beats per
abuse? minute
A. Degenerative D. Avoid energetic massage
B. Detachment methods
C. Reenactment
D. Congenital 41. What is the moving forward
of one vertebra onto another?
37. Which can be indicated for A. Ankylosing spondylitis
massage at all stages, except B. Spondylolisthesis
for circulatory massage? C. Whiplash
A. Herpes zoster D. Carpal tunnel syndrome
B. HIV
C. Leukemia 42. What is the inflammatory
D. Renal failure response?
A. Alarm, resistance,
38. What is an injury or disease exhaustion
that is a short-term condition B. Heat, redness, swelling, pain
that resolves through normal C. Pain-spasm-pain cycle
healing processes and care? D. Increase in pain as a result of
A. Acute muscle exertion
B. Sub-acute
C. Chronic 43. What is inflammation of a
D. Debilitating tendon sheath?
A. Tendonitis
B. Tenosynovitis
C. Calcific tendonitis
D. Fracture
Page 147
44. What is a way of coping with 50. What is the result of

stress by ignoring stressors? improving the flow of energy
A. Relaxation within or around the body?
B. Denial A. Mechanical effects
C. Breathing B. Energetic effects
D. Anxiety C. Reflex effects
D. Stretching
45.What is tendonitis?
A.Inflammation of a tendon 51. Which condition can benefit
B.Hernia from massage?
C.Partial displacement of A. Attention deficit
bones of a joint hyperactivity disorder
D. Full displacement of bones B. Autism
of a joint C. Burn victims
D. All of the above
lordotic posture? 52. When should hydrotherapy
A. Normal cervical spine be avoided?
B. Normal thoracic spine A. Extremely high or low blood
C. Anterior pelvic tilt pressure
D. All of the above B. Lung disease
C. Cardiac impairment
47. Which nerve is associated D. All of the above
with the hand and wrist
flexors? 53. What involves streams of
A. Ulnar water under pressure?
B. Vagus A. Immersion bath
C. Axillary B. Shower or spray
D. Sagittal C. Whirlpool
D. Sauna
48. What is in danger of being
compressed in the popliteal 54. What is the maximum
fossa endangerment site? temperature that the skin can
A. Femoral nerve tolerate for steam vapor?
B. Radial nerve A. 32 degrees Fahrenheit or 0
C. Sacral region degrees Celsius
D. Tibial nerve B. 95 to 100 degrees Fahrenheit
or 35 to 38 degrees Celsius
49. What are the relaxation C. 100 to 115 degrees
response and anxiety Fahrenheit or 38 to 46
reduction examples of? degrees Celsius
A. Mechanical effects D. 140 degrees Fahrenheit or 60
B. Hard end feel degrees Celsius
C. Reflex effects
Page 148
55. What is produced when 61. What massage movement

muscles are kneaded? hastens the flow of blood
A. Slip through the superficial veins?
B. Grounding A. Light percussion
C. Centering B. Light stroking
D. Heat C. Light massage
D. Friction
A. Effleurage 62. Which is a percussion
B. Gliding movement?
C. Stretching or pulling A. Slapping
D. Percussion B. Kneading
C. Gliding
57. Which is a Muscle Energy D. Friction
Technique?
A. Touch therapy 63. Which stroke presses one
B. Rolfing layer against another?
C. Reciprocal inhibition A. Vibration
D. Trigger point therapy B. Deep gliding
C. Fulling
58. What is a reflexive effect of D. Friction
massage?
A. Mechanical effect 64. Which stroke is not a type of
B. Indirect physical effect percussion?
C. Psychological effect A. Hacking
D. Direct physical effect B. Kneading
C. Slapping
59. What is kneading? D. Tapping
A. Vibration
B. Percussion 65. Which stroke is appropriate
C. Petrissage for constipation?
D. Ischemic compression A. Counterclockwise effleurage
B. Clockwise effleurage
60. What is initiated by C. Slapping
stimulation of the D. Tapping
parasympathetic nervous
system? 66. Which stroke tones weak
A. Reduced heart rate muscles?
B. Blood diverted to internal A. Effleurage
organs B. Nerve strokes
C. Increased elimination and C. Gliding
digestion D. Tapotement
D. All of the above
Page 149
67. What is a guideline for 72. What is done if a client has

massaging persons with restricted flexion of the knee?
cancer? A. Lengthen latissimus dorsi
A. Deep pressure, shorter B. Lengthen deltoid
sessions C. Lengthen tibialis anterior
B. Light to moderate pressure, D. Lengthen quadriceps femoris
shorter sessions
C. Light to moderate pressure, 73. Where would a trigger point
longer sessions on the deltoid refer pain?
D. Deep pressure, longer A. Head and face, occipital
sessions regions, ear, forehead
B. Down the lateral side of the
68. What is the eventual feeling arm
from applying ice? C. Sacroiliac region, buttock
A. Uncomfortable cold and down posterior thigh
B. Total numbness D. Popliteal region and ulnar
C. Inflammation side of arm
D. Spasm
74. What are self care
69. Which hydrotherapy recommendations?
application would benefit A. Diagnosis
chronic muscle spasms most? B. Suggestions
A. Ice bath C. Prescriptions
B. Contrast method D. Referrals
C. Diathermy
D. Cryotherapy 75. Where on the SOAP chart are
functional outcomes recorded?
70. If a client has a flexed knee, A. Subjective
what is the most appropriate B. Objective
treatment? C. Assessment
A. Stretch the knee flexors D. Plan
B. Stretch the low back muscles
C. Stretch the fascia lata 76. Which involves observing the
D. Stretch the client's gravitation line,
metatarsophalangeal joints balance and symmetry?
A. Gait assessment
71. If a client has the wrist B. Needs assessment
flexed to the radial side, what C. Posture assessment
is the most appropriate D. Palpation
treatment?
A. Lengthen flexor carpi radialis 77. Which jump into action
B. Lengthen flexor carpi ulnaris quickly and tire quickly?
C. Lengthen occipitofrontalis A. Postural muscles
D. Lengthen vastus lateralis B. Stabilizer muscles
C. Phasic muscles
D. Soft tissues
Page 150
78. In which muscles can tension 82. What is the assessment when
be felt? the scapula is rotated so the
A. Weak muscles axillary border is more
B. Atrophied muscles horizontal than normal?
C. Concentrically short or A. Weak serratus anterior
eccentrically long muscles B. Tight upper trapezius
D. Eccentrically short or C. Tight SCM
concentrically long muscles D. Weak quadratus lumborum
79. What is there in the back 83. What happens when the
with a posterior tilt of the armrests of a chair are too
pelvis? high?
A. Lateral pelvic tilt A. The hips are flexed
B. Lordosis B. The shoulders will be pushed
C. Sway back or flat back upward
D. All of the above C. The arms will not have
proper support
80. Which muscles are elongated D. Neck and back strain
and weak with sway-back
posture? 84. Which muscle tends to show
A. Upper fibers of the internal acquired postural weakness in
obliques right handed individuals?
B. One-joint hip flexors A. Left hip abductors
C. Hamstrings B. Right tibialis anterior
D. All of the above C. Left flexor digitorum longus
D. Right lateral trunk muscles
81. Which are short and strong
with the right hip joint 85. What is the next step of the
adducted and medially client consultation after the
rotated, left hip abducted and initial greeting?
feet pronated? A. Determine client's needs and
A. Left lateral trunk muscles, expectations
right hip abductors and left B. Perform massage
hip adductors C. Formulate treatment plan
B. Left peroneus longus and D. SOAP chart
brevis and right tibialis
posterior 86. Where on the SOAP chart
C. Left flexor hallucis longus would the changes due to the
and left flexor digitorum massage be documented?
longus A. Subjective
D. All of the above B. Observation
C. Assessment
D. Plan
Page 151
87. What causes pain in the toe- 93. Who was an English surgeon
off stage of gait? who practiced chirurgy, or
A. Plantar fasciitis healing with the hands?
B. Whiplash A. Per Henrik Ling
C. Frozen shoulder B. Dr. John Georg Mezger
D. Migraine C. Dr. George H. Taylor
D. John Grosvenor
88. What would require treating
and stretching the affected 94. What technique of
sternocleidomastoid muscle? neuromuscular therapy uses
A. Torticollis the thumb to move across
B. Tennis elbow tissues?
C. Frozen shoulder A. Acupressure
D. Bursitis B. Gliding
C. Tapotement
89. What is treated by stretching D. All of the above
the tensor fascia lata and
gluteus maximus? 95. What is responsible for all
A. Whiplash yin meridians?
B. Iliotibial band contracture A. Conception Vessel
C. Thoracic outlet syndrome B. Antagonist
D. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Protective gear
D. Strategic planning
90. What involves an increased
anterior pelvic tilt and hip 96. Which uses doshas such as
flexion? vata, pitta, and kapha?
A. Hyperlordosis A. Swedish massage
B. Iliotibial band contracture B. Trigger point therapy
C. Scoliosis C. Shiatsu
D. Iliotibial band contracture D. Ayurveda
91. In polarity therapy, what 97. What is most likely involved

does the left side represent? when a client makes a
A. Negative receptive energy decision based on whether the
B. Meridian therapist is male or female?
C. Chakra A. Hostile touch
D. Heel line B. Influence of age on touch
C. Cultural influences
92. Which method associates the D. Gender issues
brain with the great toe?
A. Swedish 98. What means a client can stop
B. Reflexology treatment?
C. Shiatsu A. Informed consent
D. Ayurveda B. Power differential
C. Right of refusal
D. Dual role
Page 152
99. What is an example of a 105. Asking a professional for

violation of a code of ethics? advice during the session is
A. Misrepresenting educational what type of unethical
status behavior?
B. Right of refusal A. Professionalism
C. Informed consent B. Financial impropriety
D. All of the above C. Exploiting the power
differential
100. What is not a violation of a D. None of the above
code of ethics?
A. Right of refusal 106. Treating an injury without
B. Dating a client permission is what type of
C. Working on a minor without unethical behavior?
parental consent A. Informed consent violation
D. All of the above B. Misleading claims of curative
abilities
101. What is out of the C. Contraindication violation
therapeutic relationship? D. None of the above
A. Medical advice
B. Psychological counseling 107. When can what a client says
C. Other business deals or does be revealed to others
D. All of the above without the client's consent?
A. When required by law
102. What is an example of a B. When required under a court
boundary? order
A. Border C. When necessary to protect
B. Tissue injury and repair the public
C. Both A and B are correct D. All of the above
108. What is appropriate if a
103. What might make a client client needs treatment
reluctant to make special outside the scope of practice?
requests while on the A. Schedule more appointments
massage table? B. Charge more
A. Power differential C. Offer to provide the
B. Business records treatment at no charge
C. Principles D. Provide a referral to another
D. Body mechanics professional
104. Working on a minor without

parental consent is what type
of unethical behavior?
A. Informed consent violation
B. Outside scope of practice
C. Contraindication violation
Page 153
109. What is an issue if a teacher 114. When should sheets be

hires a massage school changed?
student as a babysitter and A. Daily
they end up getting upset B. Weekly
with each other? C. After each massage
A. Transference D. After being soiled
B. Countertransference
C. Scope of practice 115. How can a table be cared
D. Dual relationship for if contaminated with
blood?
110. Guidance on which topic is A. Clean and sanitize with soap
typically not found in a code and water
of ethics? B. Clean and sanitize with 10%
A. Client relationships bleach solution
B. Image/advertising claims C. Clean with latex gloves and
C. Insurance oil
D. Appropriate techniques D. The table must be discarded
111. What is an appropriate way 116. What is a universal

to improve the quality of precaution?
massages, retain clients, and A. Wash hands with bleach
get referrals? before and after contact
A. Effective communication with every client
B. Dating a client B. Use cloth towels after
C. Both A and B are correct washing hands
D. None of the above C. Both A and B are correct
112. What provides a safe
experience for clients? 117. What is a safety practice
A. Provide informed consent regarding housekeeping and
B. Choose appropriate music sanitation?
C. Both A and B are correct A. Sanitize all restrooms and
D. None of the above bathing facilities
B. Make sure all floors in wet
113. What is a guideline for the areas are slip proof
massage table? C. Sanitize all equipment that
A. 72 to 76 inches long comes in contact with clients
B. 27 to 30 inches wide D. All of the above
C. 1 to 2 inches of high density
foam padding
D. All of the above
Page 154
118. What is a client safety 124. What form is used for

practice? employee business expenses?
A. Check to see if clients are A. Form 1099-MISC
allergic to products B. Form 5498
B. Use clean linens weekly C. Form W-2
C. Never assist clients on and D. Form 2106
off massage table
D. All of the above 125. What would be found in a
brochure?
119. Which first aid kit item A. Business plan
would be used against B. Qualifications
infection? C. Tax information
A. Antibiotic D. Start up costs
B. Antiseptic
C. Aspirin
D. Hydrocortisone
120. What is the observation of

body postures in relation to
safe and efficient movement?
A. Sanitation
B. Draping
C. Body mechanics
D. All of the above
121. What draping method

requires a minimum sheet
width of 80 inches?
A. Top cover method
B. Full sheet method
122. What vitamin is in milk?

A. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D

self-employment?
A. Control
B. Flexibility
C. Keep greater portion of fees
D. All of the above
Page 155
Exam 12 Answer Key
1. A 43. B 85. A
2. B 44. B 86. C
3. C 45. A 87. A
4. A 46. D 88. A
5. D 47. A 89. B
6. D 48. D 90. A
7. B 49. D 91. A
8. B 50. B 92. B
9. B 51. D 93. D
10. C 52. D 94. B
11. C 53. B 95. A
12. B 54. D 96. D
13. D 55. D 97. D
14. A 56. C 98. C
15. D 57. C 99. A
16. B 58. B 100. A
17. C 59. C 101. D
18. D 60. D 102. A
19. C 61. D 103. A
20. D 62. A 104. A
21. C 63. D 105. C
22. D 64. B 106. A
23. B 65. B 107. D
24. C 66. D 108. D
25. C 67. B 109. D
26. B 68. B 110. C
27. A 69. B 111. A
28. C 70. A 112. C
29. C 71. A 113. D
30. C 72. D 114. C
31. D 73. B 115. B
32. A 74. B 116. D
33. D 75. C 117. D
34. D 76. C 118. A
35. C 77. C 119. A
36. B 78. C 120. C
37. B 79. C 121. B
38. A 80. B 122. D
39. A 81. B 123. D
40. A 82. A 124. D
41. B 83. B 125. B
42. B 84. C
Page 156
Exam 13
1. Which refers to the 6. What bony landmarks are

examination of tissues removed processes to which tendons and
from cadavers or living people ligaments attach?
for the purpose of studying A. Fissure, foramen, meatus,
disease? sinus
A. Reflexology B. Canal, fossa, groove, notch
B. Anatomic pathology C. Condyle, head, facet,
C. Ortho-bionomy process, trochlea
D. Pathophysiology D. Crest, epicondyle, line,
spine, trochanter, tuberosity
2. Which is a high-energy
compound stored in the body? 7. What carries out the response
A. DNA in the reflex arc?
B. ATP A. Effector organ
C. AB B. Eccrine gland
D. RNA C. Afferent neuron
D. Epidermis
3. Which is connective tissue?
A. Nerve tissue 8. Which is part of the endocrine
B. Glandular secretions system?
C. Saliva A. Nails
D. Blood B. Hair
C. Adrenal glands
4. Which type of epithelial D. Sweat glands
membrane is the skin?
A. Molecular 9. Which system returns excess
B. Serous fluid and produces cells for
C. Cutaneous defense?
D. Synovial A. Lymphatic
B. Respiratory
5. Which bones are included in C. Gastrointestinal
the appendicular skeleton? D. Urinary
A. Shoulder and pelvic girdle,
lower and upper limbs 10. What specific type of
B. Pelvic girdle, ribs, lower and immunity can result from
upper limbs antibodies transferred from
C. Pelvic girdle, vertebrae, feet the mother to the fetus?
D. Skull, vertebrae, ribs, and A. Innate
hyoid bone B. Diarthrotic
C. Active
D. Passive
Page 157
11. In what order of the colons 16. Where is the distal ulna in
does food pass through the anatomical position?
large intestine, after the A. Medial wrist
ascending colon? B. Lateral wrist
A. Descending, transference, C. Medial knee
sigmoid D. Lateral elbow
B. Sigmoid, descending,
transverse 17. Which method involves the
C. Transverse, descending, heart meridian from the axilla
sigmoid to the little finger, and being
D. Descending, fibrin, associated with emotions?
transverse A. Shiatsu
B. Ayurveda
12. What prevents night C. Five elements
blindness? D. All of the above
A. Zinc
B. Vitamin K 18. Under what theory does the
C. Mugwort earth correspond to the
D. Vitamin A spleen and the stomach?
A. Esalen massage
13. Which means to the front? B. Reflexology
A. Dorsal C. Five elements
B. Ventral D. All of the above
C. Medial
D. Peripheral 19. Which of these muscles
inserts on the tuberosity of
14. Which means standing erect the radius?
and facing forward? A. Biceps brachii
A. Anatomical position B. Triceps brachii
B. Supine position C. Tibialis anterior
C. Prone position D. Piriformis
D. Laterally recumbent position
20. What is the zygomatic bone?
15. What is the order of the A. Cheek bone
regions of the trunk from the B. Wrist
most superior to the most C. Ankle
inferior, after the cervical D. Heel bone
region?
A. Thoracic, lumbar, sacral, 21. What is the attachment site
coccyx for trapezius and splenius
B. Thoracic, abdominal, pelvic, capitis?
vertebral A. Lateral malleolus
C. Lumbar, cervical, sacral, B. Greater trochanter of femur
coccyx C. Medial epicondyle of the
D. Vertebral, pelvic, thoracic, humerus
abdominal D. Nuchal line of the occiput
Page 158
22. Does extension increase or 28. Which is responsible for

decrease the angle between extending the knee?
bones? A. Abductors
A. Increase B. Adductors
B. Decrease C. Hamstrings
C. Either increases or decreases D. Quadriceps
29. Which muscle flexes,
23. What is a broad flat tendon laterally rotates, and adducts
that attaches muscle to bone? the hip?
A. Ligament A. Sternocleidomastoid
B. Bursae B. Biceps femoris
C. Joint C. Gluteus minimus
D. Aponeurosis D. Psoas major
24. What type of joint is 30. What type of lever has the
attached to the thumb? effort applied at one end and
A. Pivot the fulcrum at the other end,
B. Saddle like a wheelbarrow?
C. Ball and socket A. First class lever
D. Gliding B. Second class lever
C. Isotonic
25. Which is deep to the upper D. Concentric
trapezius?
A. Supraspinatus 31. What describes a joint with a
B. Scalenes range of motion of less than
C. Teres minor what it normally would be?
D. Deltoid A. Hypermobility
B. Hypomobility
26. Which muscles are C. Close-packed position
responsible for abduction of D. Loose-packed position
the scapula?
A. Deltoid and trapezius 32. What is the limit on the
B. Serratus anterior and range of motion that prevents
pectoralis minor movement to the point where
C. Biceps brachii and triceps injury could occur?
brachii A. Sagittal plane
D. Trapezius and hamstrings B. Physiologic range of motion
C. Hypomobility
27. Which muscle inserts on the D. Pathologic range of motion
medial cuneiform and the
base of the first metatarsal? 33. What is acute pain?
A. Tibialis anterior A. Pain with no known cause
B. Biceps brachii B. Pain with a long duration
C. Sartorius C. Chest pain
D. Teres major D. Temporary pain
Page 159
34. What describes a group of 40. What are the implications for
signs and symptoms that massage for a client taking
identify a condition? antiulcer medications?
A. An epidemic A. The stress reduction capacity
B. A syndrome of massage may enhance the
C. Exacerbation effectiveness
D. Systemic B. Prescribe alternative
medication
35. What refers to the wasting C. Advise the client to contact
effect of advancing age? their primary care provider
A. Atrophy immediately
B. Entrainment D. All of the above
C. Stress
D. Ambulatory 41. How do recreational drugs
impact the hypothalamus?
36. What describes the manner A. They have no impact
in which abuse is recalled? B. They reduce inflammation
A. State-dependent memory C. They become a constructive
B. Confidentiality subconscious habit
C. Right of refusal D. They interact with feel-good
D. Integration neurotransmitters
37. Is massage indicated or 42. What is characterized by

contraindicated for an rapid shallow breaths that
aneurysm? require the use of the
A. Indicated accessory muscles of
B. Contraindicated inspiration?
C. Local contraindication A. Arteriosclerosis
D. Contraindicated in the acute B. Anxiety
stage C. Emphysema
D. Peritonitis
38. Which is a feature of
melanoma but not a mole? 43. What is the partial
A. Symmetrical displacement of the bones of
B. Borders are irregular a joint?
C. One color A. Whiplash
D. Less than 6 cm in diameter B. Subluxation
C. Dislocation
39. What are NSAIDS and D. Fracture
adrenocorticosteroids?
A. Analgesics 44. What are feelings driven by
B. Anti-inflammatory thoughts?
medications A. Self-concept
C. Antineoplastics B. Emotions
D. Central nervous system C. Behavior
medications D. Coping
Page 160
45. What is tenosynovitis? 51. What is an effect of massage

A. Inflammation of a tendon on the cardiovascular system?
sheath A. Increases ischemia
B. Hernia B. Increases heart rate and
C. Fracture pulse rate
D. Full displacement of bones C. Increases red blood cell
count
46. What is an angular deformity D. Decreases stroke volume
of a collapsed vertebra?
A. List 52. Which condition can benefit
B. Gibbus from massage?
C. Kyphosis A. Alzheimer's disease
D. Tinnitus B. Appendicitis
C. Autoimmune diseases
47. Which area is associated with D. All of the above
the radial nerve?
A. Lateral epicondyle of the 53. What applies heat for
humerus therapeutic purposes?
B. Medial epicondyle of the A. Hydrotherapy
humerus B. Cryotherapy
C. Temporal region C. Thermotherapy
D. Sciatic notch D. Hunting response
48. What is in danger of being 54. What involves the client

compressed in the axillary sitting in a tub?
area endangerment site? A. Immersion bath
A. Hypogastric region B. Shower
B. Radial nerve C. Spray
C. Nerves of the brachial plexus D. Sauna
D. Ulnar nerve
55. Which stroke uses localized
49. What is the result of the pressure to break up
interplay of body, mind, and adhesions?
emotions in health and disease A. Deep fiber friction
processes? B. Superficial friction
A. Mechanical effects C. Tapotement
B. Post-isometric contraction D. Vibration
C. Reflex effects
D. Mind-body effects 56. Which stroke is effective for
applying pressure during
50. What are muscle relaxation sports massage?
and pain reduction? A. Vibration
A. Mechanical effects B. Compression
B. Assisted static stretching C. Jostling
C. Swedish massage D. Gliding
D. Reflexive effects
Page 161
57. What is another name for 62. Which stroke is preferred for
positional release? rehabilitation of tissue
A. Strain / counterstrain injuries?
B. Stretching A. Vibration
C. Trigger point therapy B. Deep gliding
D. Swedish massage C. Cross-fiber friction
D. Percussion
58. What is a psychological
effect of massage? 63. What is knuckling?
A. Promotes sense of relaxation A. Effleurage
and renewed energy B. Vibration
B. Increases tension and anxiety C. Slapping
C. Relieves muscle cramps D. Tapping
D. Increases circulation
64. Which stroke is not
59. What is an effect of massage petrissage?
on the muscular system? A. Active joint movement
A. Heals injured muscle tissue B. Kneading
more quickly C. Skin rolling
B. Relieves stiffness and D. Fulling
soreness of muscles
C. More quickly restore muscles 65. Which stretching technique
fatigued by exercise is a slow gentle movement to
D. All of the above lengthen muscles when
resistance is minimal?
60. What is an effect of passive A. Ballistic stretching
joint movements? B. Passive stretching
A. Increases movement of blood C. Assisted static stretching
and lymph D. Reciprocal inhibition (RI)
B. Nourishes the skin
C. Relaxes and lengthens 66. Which is a tapotement stroke
muscles appropriate for the face?
D. All of the above A. Effleurage
B. Rocking
61. What massage movement C. Tapping
affects blood and lymph D. Pummeling
channels?
A. Petrissage or kneading 67. Which condition can benefit
B. Light massage from pregnancy massage?
C. Compression A. Pre-eclampsia
D. All of the above B. Strained leg muscles
C. Pre-eclampsia
D. Pregnancy is always
contraindicated
Page 162
68. What should massage for the 73. Where would a trigger point
critically ill do? on the sternocleidomastoid
A. Stimulate circulation refer pain?
B. Rehabilitate A. Head and face, occipital
C. Sooth and add comfort regions, ear, forehead
D. Remove toxins B. Down the lateral side of the
arm
69. What is an effect of C. Sacroiliac region, buttock
R.I.C.E.S. treatment? and down posterior thigh
A. Vasodilation D. Posterior axillary area,
B. Increased inflammation scapula, and ulnar side of
C. Increased swelling arm
D. Vasoconstriction
74. In general, about how many
70. If a client has kyphotic- stretches should be
lordotic posture, what is the recommended for homework?
most appropriate treatment? A. None
A. Lengthen semimembranosus B. One or two
and platysma C. Five or six
B. Lengthen rectus femoris and D. Ten or more
splenius
C. Shorten palmar aponeurosis 75. Where on the SOAP chart are
D. Lengthen semitendinosus and test recommendations
anterior scalene documented?
A. Subjective
71. If a client has knock-knees, B. Objective
what is the most appropriate C. Assessment
treatment? D. Plan
A. Stretch the levator scapula
B. Stretch the low back muscles 76. What measures the
C. Stretch the fascia lata efficiency of coordinated
D. Stretch the movement?
metatarsophalangeal joints A. Exercise
B. Functional assessment
72. If a client has the wrist C. Gait
flexed to the ulnar side, what D. Compensation pattern
is the most appropriate
treatment? 77. Which usually weaken in
A. Lengthen flexor carpi radialis response to postural muscle
B. Lengthen flexor carpi ulnaris shortening?
C. Lengthen tibialis anterior A. Slow-twitch fibers
D. Refer to a primary care B. Stabilizer muscles
provider immediately C. Phasic muscles
D. Soft tissues
Page 163
78. What is the general muscle 82. Which are short and strong
firing pattern? with the pelvis laterally tilted
A. Prime movers, then and high left, left hip
synergists, then stabilizers adducted and medially
B. Prime movers, then rotated, and right hip
stabilizers, then synergists abducted?
C. Stabilizers, then prime A. Left lateral trunk muscles,
movers, then synergists right hip abductors and left
D. Stabilizers, then synergists, hip adductors
then prime movers B. Right peroneus longus and
brevis and left tibialis
79. What is there in the back posterior
with a posterior tilt of the C. Left flexor hallucis longus
pelvis? and left flexor digitorum
A. Flat back or sway back longus
B. Lordosis D. All of the above
C. Normal anterior curve
D. All of the above 83. Regarding faulty posture of
the feet, what happens when
80. Which muscles are short and the toes are out while
strong with lordotic posture? walking?
A. Low back and hip flexors A. Pronation
B. Hamstrings B. Slue-footed
C. Anterior abdominals C. Pigeon-toed
D. All of the above D. Supination
81. What happens to the feet 84. Which muscle tends to show
when the foot speed increases acquired postural weakness in
from walking to sprinting? right handed individuals?
A. The heels do not contact the A. Right hip abductors
ground B. Right tibialis anterior
B. The weight is borne on the C. Right flexor digitorum longus
anterior side of the foot D. Right lateral trunk muscles
C. There is a tendency for in-
toeing 85. What is the next step of the
D. All of the above client consultation after
determining the client's needs
and explaining procedures and
policies?
A. Schedule next appointment
B. Perform preliminary
assessment
C. Formulate treatment plan
D. SOAP chart
Page 164
86. What is part of the 91. Which method associates the

treatment for plantar fasciitis? heart with a point proximal to
A. Apply heat in the acute stage the great toe and medial to
B. Apply cold in the chronic the ball of the foot?
stage A. Shiatsu
C. Treat the shortened B. Ayurveda
gastrocnemius and soleus C. Polarity therapy
D. Treat the shortened SCM D. Reflexology
87. What could cause frozen 92. Which is a muscle energy

shoulder? technique that uses active
A. Unrestricted range of motion movement?
B. Painful abduction and A. Post isometric relaxation
external rotation B. Touch for Health
C. Hypermobility C. Therapeutic touch
D. All of the above D. Polarity therapy
88. What is the contracture of 93. What uses thermal properties

one sternocleidomastoid to temporarily overwhelm
muscle resulting in an sensors and decrease
abnormal head position? sensation to a skin area?
A. Bursitis A. Aromatherapy
B. Congenital torticollis B. Topical anesthetics
C. Trigger finger C. Muscle relaxants
D. Frozen shoulder D. NSAIDs
89. What is treated by stretching 94. Who developed reflexology

the hamstrings and based on Asian roots?
abdominals? A. Dr. Emil Vodder and Dr.
A. Whiplash Estrid Vodder
B. Iliotibial band contracture B. Dr. William Fitzgerald and
C. Thoracic outlet syndrome Eunice Ingram
D. Flat-back posture C. Elizabeth Dicke
D. Paul St. John
90. What is a lateral rotary
deviation of the spine? 95. What is the light, energetic
A. Hyperlordosis aspect of the universe?
B. Hyperkyphosis A. Amma
C. Scoliosis B. The Five Elements
D. Whiplash C. Yin
D. Yang
Page 165
96. Which Japanese massage 102. What are examples of how

technique comes from a word boundaries are created,
for finger pressure? managed, and changed?
A. Hara A. Power differences, space,
B. Kata and clothing
C. Shiatsu B. Time and money
D. Ayurveda C. Both A and B are correct
violation of a code of ethics? 103. What is appropriate if a
A. Lack of accessibility minor requests a massage
B. Right of refusal without parental consent?
C. Rights as professionals A. Perform the massage if
D. All of the above another relative says it is OK
B. Do not perform the massage
98. What is an example of a C. Answers A and B are correct
violation of a code of ethics? D. None of the above
A. Dating a client
B. Ignoring contraindications 104. Ignoring signs or conditions
C. Informed consent violations that preclude physical
D. All of the above contact is what type of
unethical behavior?
99. What is not a violation of a A. Confidentiality violation
code of ethics? B. Practicing beyond scope of
A. Sexual misconduct practice
B. Dating a client C. Contraindication violation
C. Working on a minor with D. None of the above
parental consent
D. All of the above 105. When can information
about a client be revealed to
100. What is in the therapeutic others without the client's
relationship? consent?
A. Spiritual advice A. When required by law
B. Medical advice B. When required under a court
C. Consistency order
D. All of the above C. When necessary to protect
the public
101. What is out of the D. All of the above
A. Informed consent 106. What is assuming more than
B. Psychological counseling one role in relation to the
C. Right of refusal same person?
D. All of the above A. Dual relationships
B. Transference
C. Countertransference
D. Discrimination
Page 166
107. What should the therapist 111. What is the appropriate

do if a client says that action if a new client who
because of the massage they was asked to get under the
are going to stop taking covers is naked and on top of
prescription medication? the covers?
A. Tell the client to consult A. Refer the client to another
with their primary care practitioner
provider before stopping to B. Proceed with the massage
take any prescription C. Leave the room and ask the
medication client to get under the
B. Suggest an herb to replace covers
the prescription medication D. None of the above
C. Suggest an alternative
prescription medication 112. What provides a safe
D. Nod and agree with the experience for clients?
client A. Sexual comments about the
client's body
108. Guidance on which topic is B. Treat all clients equally
typically not found in a code C. Both A and B are correct
of ethics? D. None of the above
A. Professionalism
B. Income and expense 113. What is a guideline for the
measurement massage room?
C. Scope of practice A. Minimum 24 feet by 30 feet
D. All of the above B. 80 to 85 degrees
C. Proper ventilation
109. What is often based on D. All of the above
fantasy or feelings towards
another person in the past? 114. What is the best way to
A. Dual relationships launder linens?
B. Transference A. Warm water and soap
C. Confidentiality B. 70% ethyl alcohol solution
D. Countertransference C. Cold water and bleach
D. Hot water and bleach
110. What is the most
appropriate response if a 115. How are hands washed and
caller asks if the massage sanitized?
includes sex? A. Soap and warm water
A. Schedule an appointment B. Bleach
B. Call 911 C. Sodium hypochlorite
C. Remain professional and D. All of the above
explain the services
D. Provide a referral
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116. What removes pathogens 121. What is the minimum size

from implements and sheet for the top cover
surfaces? method of draping?
A. Sanitation A. 36 inches by 36 inches
B. Sterilization B. 72 inches by 36 inches
C. Both A and B are correct C. 72 inches by 72 inches
D. None of the above D. 144 inches by 72 inches
117. What is a universal 122. What is a recommended

precaution? calorie distribution for a diet
A. Wash hands with soap and with less than 30% of calories
water before and after from fats?
contact with every client A. 50%-60% carbohydrates, 12%-
B. Cleaning of walls, floors, and 15% proteins
surfaces should be done B. 60%-70% carbohydrates, 2%-
using products effective for 5% proteins
sanitation C. 30% minerals, 40% proteins
C. Both A and B are correct D. 35% vitamins, 35% proteins
123. What must be included in
118. What equipment should be income reported to the IRS?
sanitized? A. Overhead
A. Electrical cords B. Barter income
B. Electrical outlets C. Marketing expenses
C. All equipment that comes in D. The value of referrals
contact with clients
D. Table locks and hinges 124. What pays attorney's fees?
A. Additional insured
119. What is a client safety endorsement
practice regarding sanitation? B. Legal defense coverage
A. Use clean linens daily C. Professional liability
B. Wash hands once a day insurance
C. Do not practice massage D. Premises fire damage
when sick or contagious insurance for renters
D. All of the above
125. Costs for what could be a
120. Which first aid kit item deductible business expense?
would be used for symptoms A. Barter income
of a heart attack? B. Licensing
A. Antibiotic C. Both A and B
B. Antiseptic D. None of the above
C. Aspirin
D. Hydrocortisone
Page 168
Exam 13 Answer Key
1. B 43. B 85. B
2. B 44. B 86. C
3. D 45. A 87. D
4. C 46. B 88. B
5. A 47. A 89. D
6. D 48. C 90. C
7. A 49. D 91. D
8. C 50. D 92. A
9. A 51. C 93. B
10. D 52. A 94. B
11. C 53. C 95. D
12. D 54. A 96. C
13. B 55. A 97. A
14. A 56. B 98. D
15. A 57. A 99. C
16. A 58. A 100. C
17. A 59. D 101. B
18. C 60. D 102. C
19. A 61. D 103. B
20. A 62. C 104. C
21. D 63. A 105. D
22. A 64. A 106. A
23. D 65. B 107. A
24. B 66. C 108. B
25. A 67. B 109. B
26. B 68. C 110. C
27. A 69. D 111. C
28. D 70. B 112. B
29. D 71. C 113. C
30. B 72. B 114. D
31. B 73. A 115. A
32. B 74. B 116. C
33. D 75. D 117. C
34. B 76. B 118. C
35. A 77. C 119. C
36. A 78. B 120. C
37. B 79. A 121. B
38. B 80. A 122. A
39. B 81. D 123. B
40. A 82. D 124. B
41. D 83. B 125. B
42. B 84. A
Page 169
Exam 14
1. Which refers to laboratory 6. What type of muscle tissue is

medicine? the bladder?
A. Polarity therapy A. Cardiac
B. Anatomic pathology B. Skeletal
C. Clinical pathology C. Elastic
D. Transverse friction D. Smooth
2. The bones of the skull 7. Which is a function of the

protecting the brain are an autonomic nervous system
example of what? under parasympathetic control?
A. Histology A. Slow heartbeat
B. The structure of a part B. Constricted blood vessels
related to function C. Decreased peristalsis
C. The level of structural D. Decreased secretion of
organization digestive juices
D. Mitosis
8. What does the left side of the
3. What is a flat sheet of pliable heart do?
tissue that covers or lines a A. Pumps oxygenated blood to
part of the body? all tissues except the lungs
A. Spongy bone B. Pumps oxygenated blood to
B. Blood vessel the lungs
C. Lymph node C. Pumps deoxygenated blood
D. Membrane to all tissues except the
lungs
4. Which system is a supporting D. Pumps deoxygenated blood
framework and protects to the lungs
organs?
A. Lymphatic 9. What is the general term for
B. Respiratory immunity not present at birth?
C. Endocrine A. Innate
D. Skeletal B. Acquired
C. Active
5. What is the quality in which D. Terminal
bones deform slightly and
vibrate when current passes
through them?
A. Periosteum
B. Piezoelectric
C. Cancellous
D. Spongy
Page 170
10. What is the order of these 15. What is the thoracic region?
parts of the respiratory A. Sacrum
system, starting with the B. Hips
upper respiratory tract? C. Chest
A. Trachea, larynx, pharynx, D. Neck
bronchi
B. Pharynx, larynx, trachea, 16. Where is the distal radius in
bronchi anatomical position?
C. Larynx, leukocyte, trachea, A. Medial wrist
bronchi B. Medial knee
D. Larynx, trachea, pharynx, C. Lateral elbow
jejunum D. Lateral wrist
11. Which are types of 17. Which method involves the

connective tissue fibers? bladder meridian, from the
A. Loose, ground, and dense head to the little toe, being
B. Cellular, protein, and associated with purification?
adipose A. Ayurveda
C. Collagen, reticular, and B. Feldenkrais
elastic C. Acupressure
D. Mucous, respiratory, and D. All of the above
smooth
18. Under what theory does fire
12. Which are the building blocks correspond to the heart and
of protein? small intestine?
A. Amino acids A. Five elements
B. Glucose B. Reflexology
C. Vitamins and minerals C. Aromatherapy
D. Enzymes D. All of the above
13. Which means relating to the 19. Which of these muscles

middle? inserts on the olecranon
A. Dorsal process of the ulna?
B. Ventral A. Biceps femoris
C. Medial B. Triceps brachii
D. Peripheral C. Vastus lateralis
D. Deltoid
14. Which means lying on the
side? 20. Where does piriformis insert?
A. Erect position A. Femur
B. Supine position B. Tibia
C. Prone position C. Ribs
D. Laterally recumbent position D. Calcaneus
Page 171
21. What is the attachment site 26. Which muscle inverts the
for supraspinatus, foot and plantar flexes the
infraspinatus, and teres ankle?
minor? A. Latissimus dorsi
A. Greater tubercle of the B. Biceps brachii
humerus C. Sartorius
B. Greater trochanter of femur D. Tibialis posterior
C. Cervical lamina groove
D. Nuchal line of the occiput 27. Phasic muscles have a higher
percentage of what kind of
22. Does flexion increase or fibers?
decrease the angle between A. Slow-twitch red fibers
bones? B. Bipennate
A. Increase C. Fast-twitch white fibers
B. Decrease D. Fusiform
C. Either increases or decreases
D. Does not increase or 28. What is the range of motion
decrease that could be greater than or
less than the normal range of
23. What protects against medial motion?
stress to the talocrural joint? A. Joint play
A. Deltoid ligament B. Anatomic range of motion
B. Carotid tubercle C. Concentric
C. Subscapularis D. Pathologic range of motion
D. Clavicle
29. What is the positioning in
24. Which muscle is on the which the movement of one
scapula's anterior surface? joint moves another joint?
A. Supraspinatus A. Closed kinematic chains
B. Palmaris longus B. Open kinematic chains
C. Triceps brachii C. Isometric contraction
D. Subscapularis D. Cartilaginous joint
25. Which muscles are 30. What occurs about a sagittal

responsible for adduction of axis in a coronal direction?
the scapula? A. Circumduction
A. Biceps brachii and triceps B. Lateral flexion
brachii C. Gliding
B. Trapezius and rhomboids D. Flexion and extension
C. Deltoid and flexor carpi
ulnaris 31. What functional class are the
D. Serratus anterior and joints between the vertebrae?
pectoralis minor A. Saddle
B. Multi-belly
C. Diathrosis
D. Amphiarthrosis
Page 172
32. What is the type of 38. What is like hibernation?

contraction in which muscle A. Entrainment
shortens? B. Biological rhythms
A. Concentric C. Conservation withdrawal
B. Hypertonia D. Homeostasis
C. Eccentric
D. Isometric 39. What are anticholinergics
and antiulcer medications?
33. What is example of phantom A. Cardiovascular medications
pain? B. Gastrointestinal medications
A. Pain from an amputated limb C. Hormones
B. Chest pain D. Anti-infectives
C. Temporary pain
D. Degenerative 40. What are the implications for
massage for a client taking
34. What describes an infectious antidiabetic medications?
disease that attacks many A. Changes in stress level may
people at the same time? impact the dose
A. An epidemic B. The client's physician should
B. A syndrome monitor the dose
C. Exacerbation C. Avoid vigorous massage
D. Systemic D. All of the above
35. What refers to the 41. What depletes or inhibits the

physiological mechanics of natural production of feel-
aging? good transmitters in the
A. Ambulatory hypothalamus?
B. Entrainment A. Beta-blockers
C. Stress B. Recreational drugs
D. Stages of lifecycle C. Aspirin
D. Melatonin
36. Which is generally
contraindicated for massage? 42. What is an inflamed mucous
A. Arthritis membrane that lines the
B. Strains abdominal cavity?
C. Fibrositis A. Arteriosclerosis
D. Thrombophlebitis B. Anxiety
C. Emphysema
37. Is massage indicated or D. Peritonitis
contraindicated for bulimia?
A. Indicated 43. What is caused by deficiency
B. Contraindicated of a Vitamin C?
C. Local contraindication A. Osteoporosis
D. Contraindicated in the acute B. Fracture
stage C. Scurvy
D. Rickets
Page 173
44. What is what we do in 49. What is a mind-body effect

response to feelings? of massage?
A. Self-concept A. Venous return
B. Emotions B. Lymph flow
C. Behavior C. Anxiety reduction
D. Denial D. All of the above
45. What causes the popping 50. Which effect of massage

sound of the processed through the
temporomandibular joint? autonomic nervous system
A. Tennis elbow involves the influence of the
B. Golfer's or pitcher's elbow treatment itself?
C. Partial displacement of A. Toughening / hardening
bones of a joint B. The placebo effect
D. Frozen shoulder C. Neuroendocrine interactions
D. Hydrotherapy
sway-back posture? 51. Which condition can benefit
A. Forward head from massage?
B. Increased flexion in thoracic A. Constipation
spine B. Diabetes
C. Posterior pelvic tilt C. Eating disorders
D. All of the above D. All of the above
47. Which area is associated with 52. What involves the client
the tibial nerve? sitting in a tub and receiving
A. Lateral epicondyle of the jets of water against the skin?
humerus A. Whirlpool
B. Medial epicondyle of the B. Shower
humerus C. Spray
C. Pectoral region D. Sauna
D. Popliteal fossa
53. Water at what temperature
48. What is in danger of being would raise the body
compressed in the medial temperature to a dangerous
epicondyle of the humerus level after a prolonged period?
endangerment site? A. 32 degrees Fahrenheit or 0
A. Radial nerve degrees Celsius
B. Ulnar nerve B. 98 degrees Fahrenheit or 37
C. Vagus nerve degrees Celsius
D. Mastoid C. 110 degrees Fahrenheit or 43
degrees Celsius
D. 140 degrees Fahrenheit or 60
degrees Celsius
Page 174
54. Which is Swedish massage? 60. What massage movement

A. Post isometric relaxation stimulates the flow of blood
B. Trigger point therapy through the deeper arteries
C. Rolfing and veins?
D. Effleurage A. Petrissage or kneading
B. Light massage
55. Which is best for breaking up C. Light stroking
areas of hard tissue build up? D. All of the above
A. Polarity therapy
B. Hellerwork 61. What massage movement
C. Tapotement produces an increased flow of
D. Friction or deep effleurage interstitial fluid?
A. Light percussion
56. What is immune response B. Light stroking
process of destroying foreign C. Polarity theory
cells? D. Friction
A. Homeostasis
B. Inflammation 62. Which is a petrissage
C. Vasodilatation movement?
D. Phagocytosis A. Compression
B. Skin rolling
57. What is a physical effect of C. Gliding
massage? D. Effleurage
A. Increases in muscle cramps
and spasms 63. Which stroke is a rapid back
B. Decreases circulation of and forth movement?
blood and lymph A. Gliding
C. Increases removal of B. Compression
metabolic waste C. Rolling
D. Reduces stress D. Percussion
58. What is an effect of massage 64. Which are strokes that glide?
on the skin? A. Effleurage
A. Cooling of skin B. Petrissage
B. Decreased activity of sweat C. Percussion
and oil glands D. Tapotement
C. Decreased circulation
D. Nutrition to the skin is 65. What promotes joint
improved flexibility?
A. Effleurage
59. What is a massage technique B. Friction
with a sedative effect? C. Slapping
A. Holding pressure D. Tapotement
B. Gentle stroking
C. Light friction and petrissage
D. All of the above
Page 175
66. Which is uncomfortable and 71. If a client has over flexed

dangerous for pregnancy knees, what is the most
massage in the second and appropriate treatment?
third trimesters? A. Stretch knee flexors and hip
A. Light effleurage flexors
B. Lying prone B. Stretch hip medial rotators
C. Side-lying position C. Stretch left lateral trunk and
D. Supine position right lateral thigh muscles
D. Stretch platysma
67. What is contraindicated for
massaging persons with 72. What is done if a client has
cancer? an extended great toe, with
A. Deep pressure the head of the first
B. Area of tumor metatarsal driven downward?
C. Area of lymph nodes A. Lengthen supinator
D. All of the above B. Lengthen extensor hallucis
longus
68. What is the application of C. Lengthen flexor digitorum
cold to reduce swelling? longus
A. Sitz bath D. Lengthen external oblique
B. Contrast method
C. Antiedemic 73. Where would a trigger point
D. Vasoconstriction on the piriformis refer pain?
A. Above eyelid, sinuses
69. What most likely results in B. Down the lateral side of the
increased range of motion? arm
A. Ice bath C. Sacroiliac region, buttock
B. R.I.C.E.S and down posterior thigh
C. Thermotherapy D. Posterior axillary area,
D. Cryotherapy scapula, and ulnar side of
arm
70. If a client has lordotic
posture, what is the most 74. What is the best way to turn
appropriate treatment? a client?
A. Shorten extensor digitorum A. Feet first
longus B. Head first
B. Lengthen brachialis C. Shoulders first
C. Lengthen external obliques D. Hold edge of sheet and have
and semitendinosus client turn towards therapist
D. Lengthen tensor fasciae
latae and longissimus
thoracis
Page 176
75. How would a client stretch 80. What position of the pelvis is
the pectoralis major? associated with a flat back?
A. Abduct and laterally rotate A. Anterior tilt
the arm B. Neutral position
B. Pronate and supinate the C. Posterior tilt
forearm D. Lateral tilt
C. Flex and extend the neck
D. Elevate the scapulae 81. Which muscles are short and
strong with kyphotic-lordotic
76. Where on the SOAP chart are posture?
activities that aggravate or A. Neck extensors
relieve the symptoms B. External obliques
recorded? C. Upper back erector spinae
A. Subjective D. All of the above
B. Objective
C. Assessment 82. Where are the scapulae in
D. Plan good alignment?
A. Winged
77.Which is more subjective? B. Adducted and elevated
A.Assessing range of motion C. Flat against the upper back
B.Muscle testing about 4 inches apart
C.Client says they did not sleep D. Abducted
well
D. Pain in left lumbar when 83. Which are short and strong
palpated with the left hip adducted and
medially rotated, right hip
78. What is generally the abducted and feet pronated?
appropriate massage A. Left lateral trunk muscles,
technique for shortened right hip abductors and left
muscles? hip adductors
A. Strengthen B. Left peroneus longus and
B. Exercise brevis and right tibialis
C. Lengthen and stretch posterior
D. Reduce activity C. Right flexor hallucis longus
and right flexor digitorum
79. When a jointed area moves longus
into flexion and the joint D. All of the above
angle is decreased, what do
the fixators do? 84. In how many dimensions
A. Concentrically contract must the body be balanced to
B. Eccentrically contract while withstand the forces of
lengthening gravity?
C. Isometrically contract and A. None
stabilize B. One
D. Eccentrically contract while C. Two
shortening D. Three
Page 177
85. Which muscle tends to show 91. Which method associates the
acquired postural weakness in shoulder with a point proximal
right handed individuals? to the great toe and lateral to
A. Right flexor digitorum longus the ball of the foot?
B. Left lateral trunk muscles A. Shiatsu
C. Left hip abductors B. Acupressure
D. Right tibialis anterior C. Reflexology
D. Acupuncture
86. What is generally the first
step in the massage process? 92. Which increases flexibility?
A. Make initial appointment A. Proprioceptive
B. Perform massage neuromuscular facilitation
C. Update SOAP chart B. Relaxation massage
D. Get referrals C. Craniosacral therapy
D. Polarity therapy
87. Where on the SOAP chart
would the therapist's 93. Who developed a
observations during the neuromuscular approach, a
massage of deep muscle nervous or reflexive method?
thickening be documented? A. Dr. Emil Vodder
A. Subjective B. Dr. William Fitzgerald and
B. Objective Eunice Ingram
C. Assessment C. Paul St. John
D. Plan D. Joseph Heller
88. What is inflammation of the 94. What is the dark, dense,

common flexor tendon? deep aspect of the universe?
A. Medial epicondylitis A. Yin
B. Lateral epicondylitis B. Yang
C. Trigger finger C. Marketing
D. Tennis elbow D. The Five Elements
89. What postural condition may 95. What is a sequence of

accompany flat-back posture? movements in Shiatsu?
A. Torticollis A. Effleurage
B. Iliotibial band contracture B. Petrissage
C. Thoracic outlet syndrome C. Chakra
D. Hyperkyphosis D. Kata
90. What is treated by 96. Which massage system is

lengthening a short latissimus based on Western concepts of
dorsi? anatomy and physiology?
A. Scoliosis A. Greek
B. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Indian
C. Hyperlordosis C. Chinese
D. Hyperkyphosis D. Swedish
Page 178
97. Where are guidelines for 103. Massage or counseling

sexual conduct found? without the proper training is
A. Tax forms what type of unethical
B. Insurance forms behavior?
C. Code of ethics and standards A. Accessibility
of practice B. Confidentiality
D. Ledger C. Practicing beyond the scope
of practice
98. What is inappropriate touch? D. None of the above
A. Mechanical touch
B. Expressive touch 104. Refusing to adapt an office
C. Therapeutic touch for clients with physical
D. Sexual touch challenges is what type of
unethical behavior?
99. What is an example of a A. Misleading claims of curative
violation of a code of ethics? abilities
A. Informed consent B. Accessibility violation
B. Violations of laws C. Exploiting the power
C. Working on a minor with differential
parental consent D. None of the above
D. All of the above
105. What if a therapist cannot
100. What is an example of a assess a condition?
violation of a code of ethics? A. Try to diagnose the condition
A. Financial impropriety B. Suggest the client discuss it
B. Exploiting the power with their primary care
differential provider
C. Misrepresentation of C. Both A and B
educational status D. None of the above
D. All of the above
106. What is an issue if a
101. What is out of the therapist treats a friend and
therapeutic relationship? the friend is disappointed in
A. Contract the results?
B. Informed consent A. Transference
C. Right of refusal B. Countertransference
D. None of the above C. Scope of practice
D. Dual relationship
102. What might be occurring in
the mind of a client who does
not want to fill out a health
intake form?
A. Projection
B. Boundary crossing
C. Dual relationship
D. Networking
Page 179
107. What if a therapist is aware 112. What is a possible

of someone practicing explanation for an
massage therapy without a inadvertent sexual response
license? during a massage?
A. Ignore the issue A. Stimulation of nerves in
B. File a complaint with the lumbar and sacral plexuses
massage board B. Parasympathetic nervous
C. Contact the unlicensed system response
therapist to discuss the issue C. Influence of limbic system
D. Tell the unlicensed D. All of the above
therapist's clients
113. What is a guideline for the
108. What are guiding principles massage table?
by which professionals should A. 54 to 58 inches long
conduct themselves? B. 27 to 30 inches wide
A. HIPPA C. 5 to 6 inches of high density
B. Transference foam padding
C. Countertransference D. All of the above
D. Standards of practice
114. How can linens be
109. Guidance on which topic is disinfected?
typically found in a code of A. Wash in hot water and
ethics? bleach and dry in hot dryer
A. Professionalism B. Wash in hot water and
B. Tax bleach and hang out to dry
C. Insurance C. Wash in cold water and
D. All of the above bleach and hang out to dry
D. Wash in cold water and
110. What if a client wants to bleach and dry in hot dryer
discuss personal matters?
A. Just listen and be 115. What is done with soap and
compassionate water?
B. Refer the client to another A. Sanitation
therapist B. Disinfection
C. Discuss the personal issues C. Sterilization
D. Tell the client to be quiet D. All of the above
111. What is inappropriate 116. What removes pathogens

behavior from clients? from implements and
A. Sexual innuendos surfaces?
B. Provocative jokes A. Sanitation
C. Aggression B. Disinfection
D. All of the above C. Sterilization
D. All of the above
Page 180
117. What is a safety practice 122. What one-page document

regarding housekeeping and would include the career
sanitation? objective?
A. Dry hands with paper towels A. Business plan
B. Hang linens out to dry B. Resume
C. Sterilize all entryways, floors C. Marketing material
and surfaces D. Financial records
D. Commercially launder all
linens 123. What is a business with one
owner and employee?
118. What is a client safety A. Corporation
practice? B. Networking
A. Check to see if clients are C. Partnership
allergic to products D. Sole proprietorship
B. Provide safe and clear
entryways and passages 124. What would be the most
C. Do no harm appropriate method for giving
D. All of the above a referral?
A. Refer the client to the
119. What is characterized by Internet
redness, swelling, heat, and B. Provide contact information
pain? for a friend or relative
A. Hemostasis C. Provide a list of practitioners
B. Inflammation D. Request a fee for the
C. Vasodilatation referral
D. Phagocytosis
125. What would be protected
120. What is the minimum width under general premises
sheet for the full sheet liability insurance?
method of draping? A. Slips and falls
A. 36 inches wide B. Malpractice
B. 48 inches wide C. Marketing
C. 80 inches wide D. Start up costs
D. 160 inches wide
121. Which fat-soluble vitamin is

found in fats, grains, and
fishmeal?
A. Eucalyptus
B. Melatonin
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin K
Page 181
Exam 14 Answer Key
1. C 43. C 85. B
2. B 44. C 86. A
3. D 45. C 87. C
4. D 46. D 88. A
5. B 47. D 89. D
6. D 48. B 90. A
7. A 49. C 91. C
8. A 50. B 92. A
9. B 51. D 93. C
10. B 52. A 94. A
11. C 53. C 95. D
12. A 54. D 96. D
13. C 55. D 97. C
14. D 56. D 98. D
15. C 57. C 99. B
16. D 58. D 100. D
17. C 59. D 101. D
18. A 60. A 102. B
19. B 61. D 103. C
20. A 62. B 104. B
21. A 63. C 105. B
22. B 64. A 106. D
23. A 65. B 107. B
24. A 66. B 108. D
25. B 67. D 109. A
26. D 68. C 110. A
27. C 69. C 111. D
28. D 70. D 112. D
29. A 71. A 113. B
30. B 72. B 114. A
31. D 73. C 115. A
32. A 74. D 116. D
33. A 75. A 117. A
34. A 76. A 118. D
35. D 77. C 119. B
36. D 78. C 120. C
37. A 79. C 121. D
38. C 80. C 122. B
39. B 81. A 123. D
40. D 82. C 124. C
41. B 83. A 125. A
42. D 84. D
Page 182
Exam 15
1. Which refers to the study 6. What is an opening in a bone

specific body structures such as through which nerves pass?
the nervous or respiratory A. Fissure
systems? B. Foramen
A. Endocrinology C. Meatus
B. Neurophysiology D. Synovial
C. Trigger point therapy
D. Systemic anatomy 7. Which lobe of the cerebral
cortex contains the auditory
2. The bones of the finger being and olfactory areas?
loose to allow more movement A. Femoral
are an example of what? B. Occipital
A. Smooth muscle fibers C. Temporal
B. Catabolism D. Frontal
C. The structure of a part
related to function 8. Which system helps maintain
D. The level of structural the body temperature?
organization A. Gastrointestinal
B. Respiratory
3. Which are fat cells? C. Circulatory
A. Fibroblasts D. Urinary
B. Adipocytes
C. Mesenchymal 9. Which is the main function of
D. Lymphocytes the lymphatic system?
A. Secretion of chemicals
4. Which type of serous B. Defense against infection
membrane covers the C. Circulation
abdominal organs? D. Gas exchange
A. Pleura
B. Lymph 10. What are crystallized mineral
C. Cutaneous chunks that develop in the
D. Peritoneum urinary tract?
A. Body lice
5. Which system is a reservoir for B. Urinary tract infection
minerals and is where blood C. Cystitis
cells are manufactured? D. Renal calculi
A. Lymphatic
B. Muscular
C. Endocrine
D. Skeletal
Page 183
11. In what order of the colons 17. Which method involves the
does food pass through the large intestine meridian
large intestine, before beginning at the first finger,
reaching the sigmoid colon? ending in the nostril, and
A. Ascending, descending, being associated with the
transverse process of elimination?
B. Ascending, transverse, A. Chakra
descending B. Acupuncture
C. Descending, ascending, C. Dosha
jejunum D. All of the above
D. Descending, transference,
ascending 18. Under what theory does fire
correspond to the pericardium
12. Which chemical substances and the triple heater?
includes sugars and starches A. Aromatherapy
that only contain carbon, B. Trager method
hydrogen, and oxygen? C. Touch for Health
A. Proteins D. Five elements
B. Fats or triglycerides
C. Vitamins and minerals 19. What kind of muscle fibers
D. Carbohydrates are red, small in diameter,
with abundant capillaries?
13. Which means away from the A. Fast twitch
center? B. Slow twitch
A. Dorsal C. Intermediate
B. Ventral D. Isotonic
C. Medial
D. Peripheral 20. Where does the pectoralis
minor insert?
14. Which means standing up? A. Scapula
A. Erect position B. Clavicle
B. Supine position C. Calcaneus
C. Prone position D. Radius
D. Laterally recumbent position
21. Where is the tibial tubercle?
15. What is the lumbar region? A. Between the patella and the
A. Loin head of the fibula
B. Chest B. Anterior to the lateral
C. Head malleolus
D. Neck C. Posterior to the thoracic
vertebra
16. What is the popliteal region? D. Directly medial from
A. Back of knee olecranon process
B. Thigh
C. Navel
D. Abdomen
Page 184
22. What is between the medial 28. Which group is more lateral?
epicondyle and the olecranon A. Abductors
process? B. Adductors
A. Carotid artery C. Hamstrings
B. Patella D. Quadriceps
C. Ulnar nerve
D. Radial nerve 29. Which muscle flexes and
medially rotates the knee?
23. What is the shape of A. Tibialis anterior
orbicularis oris muscle? B. Sartorius
A. Parallel C. Coracobrachialis
B. Fusiform D. Gluteus minimus
C. Multipennate
D. Circular 30. Standing on one's toes is an
example of what type of
24. What is a synarthrotic joint lever?
in which two bony components A. First class lever
are held together by dense B. Second class lever
fibrous tissue? C. Bipennate
A. Joint capsule D. Fulcrum
B. Synovial joint
C. Synovial fluid 31. What describes the unlocked
D. Suture position of a joint?
A. Closed kinematic chains
25. Which inserts on the lesser B. Synovial
tubercle of the humerus? C. Close-packed position
A. Subscapularis D. Loose-packed position
B. Supraspinatus
C. Gastrocnemius 32. What occurs moving forward
D. Erector spinae and backward from the
coronal plane in a sagittal
26. Which muscles are direction?
responsible for retraction of A. Circumduction
the scapula? B. Lateral flexion
A. Biceps and triceps brachii C. Abduction and adduction
B. Trapezius and rhomboids D. Flexion and extension
C. Deltoid and piriformis
D. Serratus anterior and 33. What is a disease with no
pectoralis minor known cause?
A. Degenerative
27. Which muscle medially B. Fungal
rotates the shoulder? C. Idiopathic
A. Iliotibial tract D. Congenital
B. Subscapularis
C. Supinator
D. Teres major
Page 185
34. What describes the increase 39. What are antidiabetic

in the severity of a disease? medications, estrogens,
A. An epidemic progesterones, androgens,
B. A syndrome steroids, and thyroid
C. Exacerbation medications?
D. Systemic A. Cardiovascular medications
B. Gastrointestinal medications
35. What refers to the process of C. Hormones
growing old or the period of D. Anti-infectives
old age?
A. Sensate 40. What are the implications for
B. Senopia massage for a client taking sex
C. Sensitivity hormones?
D. Senescence A. Blood clotting abilities may
be changed
36. Is massage indicated or B. Fluid retention may increase
contraindicated for deep vein C. Emotional states may
thrombosis? fluctuate
A. Indicated D. All of the above
B. Contraindicated
C. Local contraindication 41. What natural supplement is a
D. Contraindicated in the acute peptide hormone produced by
stage the pineal gland that
influences sleep-wake cycles?
37. Is massage indicated or A. Neurotransmitter
contraindicated for a bunion? B. Dopamine
A. Indicated C. Norepinephrine
B. Contraindicated D. Melatonin
D. Contraindicated in the acute 42. What results in a decreased
stage ability to exhale, with the
diaphragm and intercostals
38. What is the tendency for not able to work efficiently?
oscillating bodies to move in a A. Arteriosclerosis
harmonic motion, or B. Anxiety
coordination or C. Emphysema
synchronization to a rhythm? D. Peritonitis
A. Entrainment
B. Exhaustion 43. What is a form of necrosis in
C. Conservation withdrawal which the cartilage and
D. Toughening/hardening adjacent bone separate from
the bone itself?
A. Legg-Calve'-Perthes disease
B. Torticollis
C. Greenstick fracture
D. Osteochondritis dissecans
Page 186
44. What is the way the body 50. Which is an effect of

responds to stressors? massage processed through
A. Emotions the somatic nervous system
B. Defense measures (ANS)?
C. Demands A. Neuromuscular mechanisms
D. Relaxation B. Hyperstimulation analgesia
C. Reduction of impingement
45. What can be caused by D. All of the above
repetitive extension of the
wrist? 51. What is an effect of massage
A. Tennis elbow on the cardiovascular system?
B. Golfer's elbow A. Increases ischemia
C. Pitcher's elbow B. Decreases heart rate and
D. Frozen shoulder pulse rate
46. What is pain and count
inflammation from the D. Pain reduction
calcaneus to the metatarsals?
A. Torticollis 52. Which condition can benefit
B. Tinnitus from massage?
C. Plantar fasciitis A. Appendicitis
D. Whiplash B. Anemia
C. Cardiac arrest
47. Which would become D. All of the above
entrapped from pressure on
the back of the knee? 53. What uses hot air from 170
A. Radial nerve to 210 degrees Fahrenheit
B. Ulnar nerve with 10% to 20% humidity?
C. Peroneal nerve A. Steam bath
D. Coronal chakra B. Sauna
C. Whirlpool
48. What is in danger of being D. Shower or spray
compressed in the inguinal
triangle endangerment site? 54. What is the concept that the
A. Femoral nerve suppression of emotions
B. Radial nerve causes muscular tension?
C. Transverse plane A. The invisible body and mind
D. Tibial nerve B. Character armor
C. Body-centered therapy
49. What is a mind-body effect D. Denial
of massage?
A. Venous return 55. Which reduces scar tissue?
B. Relaxation response A. Kneading
C. Breaking adhesions B. Gliding
D. All of the above C. Cross fiber friction
D. Cupping
Page 187
56. What is the name for the 61. Which is an effleurage

widening of the blood vessels? movement?
A. Hemostasis A. Compression
B. Inflammation B. Skin rolling
C. Vasodilatation C. Gliding
D. Phagocytosis D. Petrissage
57. What is a proprioceptive 62. Which is a push and release

neuromuscular facilitation movement?
(PNF) technique that uses A. Rocking
active movement to lengthen B. Compression
the muscle? C. Wringing
A. Transverse friction D. Percussion
B. Petrissage
C. Post-isometric contraction 63. Which stroke is appropriate
(PIR) for treating a golfer with a
D. Reciprocal inhibition (RI) sore arm?
A. Vibration
58. What creates a pumping B. Deep gliding
action that moves blood and C. Cross-fiber friction
lymph? D. Percussion
A. Petrissage
B. Kneading 64. Variations of which stroke
C. Compression includes one handed, the "C"
D. All of the above hand position, and the "V"
hand position?
59. What is initiated by A. Effleurage
stimulation of the B. Petrissage
parasympathetic nervous C. Percussion
system? D. Tapotement
A. Adrenal secretions increased
B. Sweat glands activated 65. What is contraction with
C. Body is more alert and joint movement?
attentive A. Isometric contraction
D. Reduced heart rate B. Isotonic contraction
C. Isokinetic contraction
60. What massage movement D. Palpation
stimulates the flow of blood
through the deeper arteries 66. Which is not appropriate for
and veins? a pregnant client?
A. Petrissage or kneading A. Effleurage
B. Light stroking B. Feather stroking
C. Deep stroking C. Gliding
D. All of the above D. Tapotement
Page 188
67. What is contraindicated for 71. If a client has lordotic

massaging persons with posture, what is the most
cancer? appropriate treatment?
A. Deep pressure A. Lengthen rectus femoris and
B. Polarity therapy quadratus lumborum
C. Reiki B. Lengthen internal obliques
D. All of the above and semimembranosus
C. Shorten peroneus longus and
68. What initially induces soleus
vasoconstriction? D. Refer to a primary care
A. Whirlpool bath provider immediately
B. Full body steam bath
C. Diathermy 72. What is done if a client has
D. Cryotherapy decreased overhead range of
motion in flexion and
69. What does abduction of the shoulder?
strain/counterstrain use? A. Lengthen tibialis anterior
A. Trigger points B. Lengthen lower fibers of
B. Vibration pectoralis major
C. Slapping C. Lengthen serratus anterior
D. Tapping D. Lengthen biceps brachii
70. Which muscles are 73. What is done if a client has

overactive if a client has pain the thigh in a position of
in the low back, buttocks, abduction and medial
sacroiliac joint, lateral knee, rotation, with a lateral pelvic
and anterior knee? tilt?
A. Gluteus maximum and A. Lengthen gluteus minimus
splenius capitis B. Lengthen hamstrings
B. Adductors, tensor fasciae C. Lengthen occipitofrontalis
latae, and quadratus D. Lengthen biceps femoris
lumborum
C. Erector spinae, psoas, and 74. Where would a trigger point
rectus abdominis on tensor fasciae latae refer
D. Upper trapezius and pain?
ipsilateral quadratus A. Posterior axillary area,
lumborum scapula, and ulnar side of
arm
arm
C. Hip and down lateral side of
leg
D. Posterior axillary area,
scapula, and ulnar side of
arm
Page 189
75. Where on the SOAP chart is 80. Which muscles are short and
the patient's response to the strong with kyphotic-lordotic
massage documented? posture?
A. Subjective A. Neck flexors
B. Objective B. Hip flexors
C. Assessment C. Sartorius and vastus medialis
D. Plan D. All of the above
76. Where is the place for a 81. Where does the standard
massage therapist to report side-view line of reference
functional outcomes? through the lower extremities
A. Diagnosis pass?
B. Gross income A. Posterior to the cervical
C. Assessment region
D. Prescription B. Anterior to the outer
malleolus and through the
77. What is the joint movement apex of the arch
that requires the therapist to C. Posterior to the center of
move the relaxed client? the hip joint and anterior to
A. Active range of motion the axis of the knee joint
B. Compensation pattern D. Anterior to the center of
C. Passive range of motion brachial region
D. Range of motion
82. Which are short and strong
78. When a jointed area moves with the left hip adducted and
into flexion and the joint medially rotated, right hip
angle is decreased, what do abducted and feet pronated?
the antagonists do? A. Right lateral trunk muscles,
A. Concentrically contract left hip abductors and right
B. Eccentrically contract while hip adductors
lengthening B. Right peroneus longus and
C. Isometrically contract and brevis and left tibialis
stabilize posterior
D. Eccentrically contract while C. Right brachialis and right
shortening pectoralis minor
D. All of the above
79. What position of the pelvis is
associated with a normal 83. Regarding faulty posture of
anterior curve of the low the feet, what happens when
back? the ankle rolls in?
A. Anterior tilt A. Pronation
B. Neutral position B. Knock-knees
C. Posterior tilt C. Bowlegs
D. Lateral tilt D. Supination
Page 190
84. How does a therapist test 89. What postural condition may
the left leg flexors? accompany sway-back
A. Client holds left leg position posture?
against therapist's A. Torticollis
superior/cephalad pressure B. Iliotibial band contracture
B. Client holds right leg position C. Thoracic outlet syndrome
against therapist's D. Hyperkyphosis
C. Client holds left leg position 90. What involves a posterior
against therapist's pelvic tilt and tight
inferior/caudal pressure abdominals and hamstrings?
D. Client holds right arm A. Hyperlordosis
position against therapist's B. Hyperkyphosis
inferior/caudal pressure C. Scoliosis
D. Flat-back posture
85. What may be caused by
throwing sports such as 91. What method is for the
baseball? purpose of locating blocked
A. Plantar fasciitis energy and releasing it?
B. Whiplash A. Ortho-bionomy
C. Torticollis B. Craniosacral therapy
D. Rotator cuff tendinitis C. Bindegewebmassage
D. Polarity therapy
86. What is inflammation of the
common flexor tendon? 92. Which method associates the
A. Tennis elbow sinuses with the four lateral
B. Golfer's elbow toes?
C. Lateral epicondylitis A. Shiatsu
D. Trigger finger B. Reflexology
C. Swedish
87. What is a symptom of frozen D. Ayurveda
shoulder?
A. Restricted range of motion 93. Which uses scented oils and
B. Painful abduction and lotions?
external rotation A. Aromatherapy
C. Hypomobility B. Trigger point therapy
D. All of the above C. Therapeutic touch
D. Polarity therapy
88. What is a painful unilateral
shortening or spasm of neck
muscles resulting in an
abnormal head position?
A. Tendonitis
B. Acute acquired torticollis
C. Lordosis
D. Frozen shoulder
Page 191
94. Who developed 100. What is not a violation of a

neuromuscular therapy, a soft code of ethics?
tissue approach? A. Exploiting the power
A. Dr. Emil Vodder differential
B. Dr. William Fitzgerald and B. Misrepresentation of
Eunice Ingram educational status
C. Boris Chaitow and Stanley C. Consistency
Leif D. Financial impropriety
D. Joseph Heller
101. What is in the therapeutic
95. What NMT technique can be relationship?
active or passive? A. Spiritual advice
A. Ischemic compression B. Psychological counseling
B. Skin rolling C. Other business deals
C. Stretching D. None of the above
D. All of the above
96. Which was developed in boundary?
India? A. Lines that separate
A. Ayurveda B. Limits
B. Shiatsu C. Both A and B are correct
C. Amma D. None of the above
D. Acupressure
103. What occurs when a person
97. What refers to keeping has uncomfortable feelings
information private? and projects them onto
A. Dual role another person?
B. Scope of practice A. Power differential
C. Confidentiality B. Projection
D. Transference C. Dual relationship
D. Body mechanics
98. What are classifications of
touch technique? 104. Watching a client undress is
A. Mechanical or expressive what type of behavior?
touch A. Unethical
B. Self-employed or employee B. Sexual misconduct
C. Symmetric or asymmetric C. Answers A and B are correct
D. Sexual or erotic touch D. None of the above
99. What is an example of a 105. What is treating a person

violation of a code of ethics? unfairly due to race, gender
A. Informed consent violations or ethnicity?
B. Confidentiality A. Dual relationships
C. Not working on B. Transference
contraindicated areas C. Countertransference
D. All of the above D. Discrimination
Page 192
106. What is appropriate for a 111. What is a barrier if a

therapist to do when seeing a comment about a client's
client in the grocery store? tense muscles resulted in the
A. Ask how the last massage client feeling put down and
was humiliated?
B. Ask when the therapist can A. Fee structure
expect payment B. Communication
C. Do not bring up anything C. Safety practices
about the massage D. Clinical reasoning
D. All of the above
112. What is unethical behavior
107. What is legislation that from therapists in a
involves the security and professional relationship?
privacy of health A. Sexual pleasures
information? B. Sexual intercourse
A. HIPPA C. Being involved in a sexual
B. Code of Ethics manner
C. Standards of Practice D. All of the above
D. All of the above
113. What is a guideline for the
108. What is an issue if a client massage room?
asks for a recommendation A. Minimum 10 feet by 12 feet
on prescription medication? B. 72 to 74 degrees
A. Transference C. Soothing music
B. Countertransference D. All of the above
D. Scope of practice 114. How can be used as a rinse
to sanitize the hands?
109. What is a condition that A. Mild ethyl alcohol solution
prompts dual relationships? B. Bleach
A. Socializing C. Sodium hypochlorite
B. Group affiliation D. None of the above
D. None of the above 115. What is nearly as effective
as sterilization but does not
110. Who might require a permit destroy bacterial spores?
for a business operated from A. Sanitation
a home? B. Disinfection
A. Local governments C. Both A and B are correct
B. Professional massage D. None of the above
associations
Page 193
116. What must be freshly 121. When is revenue from a gift

laundered and sanitary? certificate reportable as
A. Top cover only income?
B. Table cover only A. When it is redeemed
C. Any material coming in B. When the buyer uses it for a
contact with the client's skin gift
D. None of the above C. When it is purchased
D. When it is barter income
117. What is a safety practice
regarding housekeeping and 122. What is a company with two
sanitation? or more persons with
A. Maintain handwashing ownership and personal
facilities with bleach liability?
B. Wash linens in cold water A. Corporation
C. Maintain handwashing B. Networking
facilities with germicidal C. Partnership
soap D. Sole proprietorship
D. All of the above
123. What describes the goals
118. What is the recommended and purpose of a business?
number of servings per day of A. Mission statement
the bread, cereal, rice, and B. Resume
pasta group? C. Marketing material
A. Use sparingly D. Financial records
B. 1 to 2 servings
C. 3 to 4 servings 124. Which protects against
D. 6 to 11 servings malpractice?
A. Liability insurance
119. What are disadvantages of B. Life insurance
self-employment? C. Health insurance
A. Less steady income D. Flood insurance
B. Responsible for own taxes
C. Must pay for own facilities 125. What is keeping track of
and supplies income and expenses and
D. All of the above verifying credentials an
example of?
120. Who files tax forms for an A. Licensing
independent contractor? B. Tax
A. The independent contractor C. Marketing
B. The employer D. Management
C. The IRS
Page 194
Exam 15 Answer Key
1. D 43. D 85. D
2. C 44. B 86. B
3. B 45. A 87. D
4. D 46. C 88. B
5. D 47. C 89. D
6. B 48. A 90. D
7. C 49. B 91. D
8. C 50. D 92. B
9. B 51. B 93. A
10. D 52. B 94. C
11. B 53. B 95. C
12. D 54. B 96. A
13. D 55. C 97. C
14. A 56. C 98. A
15. A 57. C 99. A
16. A 58. D 100. C
17. B 59. D 101. D
18. D 60. A 102. C
19. A 61. C 103. B
20. A 62. A 104. C
21. A 63. C 105. D
22. C 64. B 106. C
23. D 65. B 107. A
24. D 66. D 108. D
25. A 67. A 109. C
26. B 68. D 110. A
27. B 69. A 111. B
28. A 70. B 112. D
29. B 71. A 113. D
30. B 72. B 114. A
31. D 73. A 115. B
32. D 74. C 116. C
33. C 75. B 117. C
34. C 76. C 118. D
35. D 77. C 119. D
36. B 78. B 120. A
37. C 79. B 121. C
38. A 80. B 122. C
39. C 81. C 123. A
40. D 82. B 124. A
41. D 83. A 125. D
42. C 84. C
Page 195
Exam 16
1. What is knowing something 6. What is a tunnel or canal

without going through a within a bone?
conscious process of thinking? A. Connective tissue
A. Centering B. Foramen
B. Art C. Meatus
C. Hypothesis D. Sinus
D. Intuition
7. Which lobe of the cerebral
2. What is an example of how cortex is responsible for visual
the structure of a part is reception?
related to its function? A. Parietal
A. Thin air sacs in lung move B. Occipital
oxygen rapidly C. Temporal
B. Catabolism D. Frontal
C. Exercise physiology
D. Dissection 8. Which system controls growth?
A. Endocrine
3. Which is the packaging center B. Cardiovascular
of the cell? C. Lymphatic
A. Nervous tissue D. Reproductive
B. Infra-hyoid
C. Reticular fibers 9. What happens in systemic
D. Golgi apparatus or complex circulation?
A. Blood unloads carbon dioxide
4. Which type of epithelial and picks up oxygen
membrane lines a body cavity B. Blood unloads oxygen and
that opens directly to the picks up carbon dioxide
exterior? C. Blood unloads carbon dioxide
A. Mucous and oxygen
B. Striated D. Blood picks up oxygen and
C. Cutaneous carbon dioxide
D. Synovial
10. What specific type of
5. Which system includes bones, immunity is produced when an
ligaments, tendons, and joints? individual is exposed to a
A. Nervous foreign organism?
B. Musculoskeletal A. Innate
C. Lymphatic B. Pandemic
D. Integumentary C. Active
D. Passive
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11. If the ovum lives for about 72 17. Which method involves the
hours and the sperm live for heart constrictor meridian
about 48 hours, how long is beginning at the thorax,
the fertile period? ending at the middle finger,
A. 24 hours and being associated with
B. 48 hours circulation?
C. 72 hours A. Shiatsu
D. 120 hours B. Reflexology
C. Aromatherapy
12. Which are essential nutrients D. All of the above
that can serve as coenzymes
or cofactors in an essential 18. Which chakra is located
metabolic process? between the eyebrows?
A. Vitamins and minerals A. Patellar
B. Proteins B. Frontal
C. Fats or triglycerides C. Deltoid
D. Carbohydrates D. Cervical
13. Which means toward the tail 19. Where does the pectoralis
or posterior? major insert?
A. Cephalad A. Scapula
B. Caudad B. Calcaneus
C. Plantar C. Humerus
D. Volar D. Radius
14. Which means lying face 20. Where is the pes anserinus?
down? A. Distal to the mandible
A. Erect B. Anterior to the lateral
B. Supine malleolus
C. Prone C. Medial to the tibial
D. Laterally recumbent tuberosity
D. Posterior to the skull
15. What is the cervical region?
A. Sacrum 21. What muscle originates at
B. Loin the external surface of the
C. Chest ilium and inserts at the
D. Neck greater trochanter?
A. Rhomboids
16. In which cavity does the B. Deltoid
spinal cord lie? C. Gluteus medius
A. Vertebral D. Piriformis
B. Caudal
C. Thoracic
D. Pelvic
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22. What classification of joint 28. Lifting the head is an

has a cavity with fluid? example of what type of
A. Fibrous lever?
B. Connective A. First class lever
C. Synovial B. Second class lever
D. Cartilaginous C. Isometric
D. Fulcrum
23. Which muscle abducts the
shoulder? 29. What describes the locked
A. Supraspinatus position of a joint?
B. Infraspinatus A. Closed kinematic chains
C. Vastus lateralis B. Fusiform
D. Semimembranosus C. Close-packed position
D. Loose-packed position
24. Which is an action of teres
minor? 30. What is a fibrous joint that
A. Abduct the leg joins bones with a ligament,
B. Medially rotate the shoulder cord, or membrane, such as
C. Adduct the shoulder the joint of the tibula and
D. Flex the knee fibula?
A. Syndesmosis
25. Which muscle inserts at the B. Synovial
last rib and the transverse C. Isotonic
processes of the first through D. Unipennate
fourth lumbar vertebrae?
A. Trapezius 31. What is the movement of the
B. Biceps femoris scapula an example of?
C. Sartorius A. Circumduction
D. Quadratus lumborum B. Lateral flexion
C. Gliding
26. Which muscle contracts for D. Flexion and extension
abdominal inhalation?
A. Platysma 32. What best describes the
B. Diaphragm shape of the stylohyoid
C. Internal costals muscle?
D. External costals A. Parallel
B. Multi-belly
27. Which muscle dorsiflexes the C. Diathrosis
ankle and inverts the foot? D. Circular
A. Tibialis anterior
B. Brachialis 33. What kind of disease is a
C. Vastus lateralis caused by molds or yeast?
D. Deltoid A. Degenerative
B. Fungal
C. Idiopathic
D. Congenital
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34. What refers to the body as a 39. What are the implications for
whole? massage for a client taking
A. Infectious steroids?
B. Bacterial A. Changes in stress level may
C. Viral impact the dose
D. Systemic B. The client's physician should
monitor the dose
35. What is a stimulus that C. Avoid massage methods that
causes a psychological may produce inflammation
imbalance? D. All of the above
A. Homeostasis
B. Entrainment 40. What do depressants such as
C. Stress alcohol block?
D. Stages of lifecycle A. Neurotransmitters and beta
blockers
36. What arrangements would be B. Dopamine and
needed for a client with norepinephrine
cystitis? C. Norepinephrine and
A. Hydrotherapy melatonin
B. Aromatherapy D. Melatonin and lavender
C. Barrier free access
D. Frequent bathroom breaks 41. What kind of fracture is a
break that does not go across
37. Is massage indicated or the entire bone?
contraindicated for a cyst? A. Incomplete fracture
A. Indicated B. Compound fracture
B. Contraindicated C. Topical
C. Local contraindication D. Open fracture
D. Contraindicated in the acute
stage 42. What is also known as
ischemic necrosis in which the
38. What are antibodies, blood supply to a bone is
antivirals, antifungals, diminished or cut off?
anthelmintics, scabicides, and A. Malignant neoplasia
pediculicides? B. Scheuermann's disease
A. Natural supplements C. Osteonecrosis
B. Gastrointestinal medications D. Hepatitis B
C. Hormones
D. Anti-infectives 43. What is the reaction to
repeated exposure to stimuli
that explains the autonomic
reaction to massage?
A. Inflammation
B. Toughening / hardening
C. Biological rhythm
D. Homeostasis
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44. What involves the re- 49. What are muscle relaxation,
experiencing of flashback increased mental clarity, pain
memory or state-dependent reduction, and normalizing
memory? system function examples of?
A. Posttraumatic stress disorder A. Mechanical effects
B. Trauma B. Active joint movements
C. Integration C. Reflexive effects
D. Denial D. Muscle energy techniques
45. What is the third stage of the 50. Which refers to healing
general adaptation syndrome? energy and the subtle energy
A. The fight-or-flight response fields around the body?
B. Visceral pain A. Biofields or energetic
C. Alarm reaction methods
D. Exhaustion reaction B. Valid research
C. Science
46. What is jock itch? D. General adaptation
A. Tennis elbow syndrome
B. Spasm in SCM causing head
to tilt 51. Which condition can benefit
C. Frozen shoulder from massage?
D. Tinea cruris A. Injuries
B. Insomnia
47. Which area is associated with C. Low back pain
sartorius, adductor longus, D. All of the above
and the inguinal ligament?
A. Lateral epicondyle of the 52. What is a name for hot
humerus packs?
B. Cranial cavity A. Empty end feel
C. Inguinal triangle B. Fomentations
D. Popliteal fossa C. Baths
D. Wraps
48. Which endangerment site
includes the aorta? 53. What are increased blood
A. Area of the sternal notch and flow, increased metabolism,
anterior throat reduced pain, and increased
B. Umbilicus area range of motion effects of?
C. Twelfth rib, dorsal body A. Tonic friction
D. Oblique plane B. Heat
C. Cold
D. Ice
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54. What is an example of 60. What stimulates the

cryotherapy? parasympathetic nervous
A. Contrasting hot and cold system?
applications A. Pre-event sports massage
B. Application of heat B. 15-minute chair massage
C. Ice massage C. Longer, relaxing massage
D. Immersion D. Percussion
55. Which establishes a boundary 61. What is an effect of massage

between the therapist and the on the cardiovascular system?
client? A. Reduces hyperthermia
A. Compression B. Reduces cortisol levels
B. Grounding C. Increases systolic stroke
C. Effleurage volume
D. Petrissage D. Reduces superficial keloid
formation
56. Which is petrissage?
A. Cross fiber friction 62. Which is a shaking or
B. Cupping trembling movement?
C. Kneading A. Vibration
D. Gliding B. Compression
C. Kneading
57. Which stroke would be best D. Percussion
for the mandibular region?
A. Circular friction 63. Which is not effleurage?
B. Cupping A. Superficial gliding
C. Kneading B. Deep gliding
D. Gliding C. Kneading
D. Aura stroking
58. What is a psychological
effect of massage? 64. What stretching technique is
A. Reduces aversion to touch not recommended due to the
for sexual abuse victims possibility of muscle strain or
B. Increases tension and anxiety tear?
C. Relieves muscle cramps A. Unassisted static stretching
D. Increases circulation B. Ballistic stretching
59. What is a massage technique (PIR)
with a sedative effect? D. Reciprocal inhibition (RI)
A. Ischemic compression
B. Slapping 65. What is most appropriate for
C. Shaking reducing blood pressure?
B. Friction
C. Slapping
D. Tapotement
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66. Which is not appropriate for 71. What is done if a client has
massage for the critically ill? arm pain and a depressed
A. Abbreviated length of session coracoid process of the
B. Slow, gentle strokes scapula?
C. Methods that stimulate A. Lengthen pectoralis major
circulation B. Lengthen pectoralis minor
D. Energy work C. Lengthen pronator teres
D. Lengthen triceps brachii
67. What is contraindicated for
massaging persons with 72. What is done if a client has
cancer? dorsiflexion of the ankle joint,
A. Deep pressure with inversion of the foot?
B. Scar massage 4 to 6 weeks A. Lengthen flexor digitorum
after surgery with doctor longus
approval B. Lengthen extensor digitorum
C. Reiki longus
D. All of the above C. Lengthen tibialis posterior
D. Lengthen tibialis anterior
68. Which hydrotherapy
application would improve 73. Which muscles is weak if a
circulation most? client has achilles tendinitis
A. Ice bath and pain behind the knee
B. Contrast method when flexing the knee?
C. Diathermy A. Gluteus medius
D. Cryotherapy B. Quadratus lumborum
C. Psoas
69. What treats trigger points? D. Hamstrings
A. Strain/counterstrain
B. Percussion 74. Where would a trigger point
C. Slapping on latissimus dorsi refer pain?
D. Tapping A. Above eyelid, sinuses
70. If a client has a prominent or arm
high right hip, what is the C. Hip and down lateral side of
most appropriate treatment? leg
A. Stretch SCMs D. Posterior axillary area,
B. Stretch low back muscles scapula, and ulnar side of
C. Stretch left lateral thigh arm
muscles
D. Stretch hamstrings 75. What is the development of
relationship based on mutual
trust and harmony?
A. Rapport
B. Care plan
C. Assessment
D. Palpation
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76. Where on the SOAP chart are 81. If a client has flat back
the short-term goals based on posture, which muscles are
the activities of daily living likely elongated and weak?
recorded? A. Arm flexors
A. Subjective B. Hamstrings
B. Objective C. Abdominals
C. Assessment D. Hip flexors
D. Plan
82. Regarding faulty posture of
77. What is a desired result the feet, what happens with a
following a massage after low metatarsal arch?
identifying short tissues? A. Flat foot
A. Functional assessment B. Slue-footed
B. Muscle testing C. Pigeon-toed
C. Lengthen and stretch tight D. Calluses under ball of foot
areas
D. Compression 83. Which muscle tends to show
acquired postural weakness in
78. When a jointed area moves right handed individuals?
into flexion and the joint A. Right peroneus longus and
angle is decreased, what do brevis
the prime mover and B. Temporalis
synergists do? C. Transverse abdominis
A. Concentrically contract D. Left peroneus longus and
B. Eccentrically contract while brevis
lengthening
C. Isometrically contract and 84. Which are short and strong
stabilize with the left hip adducted and
D. Repair injured cells medially rotated, right hip
abducted and feet pronated?
79. If a client has kyphotic- A. Right lateral trunk muscles,
lordotic posture, which left and right hip abductors
muscles are most likely B. Deltoid and trapezius
elongated and weak? C. Left flexor hallucis longus
A. Neck flexors and left flexor digitorum
B. Neck extensors longus
C. Lateral rotators of flexed D. All of the above
knee
D. Temporalis and soleus 85. What is generally the next
step in a massage session after
80. What is natural when performing the massage?
standing barefoot? A. Obtain informed consent
A. Slight in-toeing B. Update SOAP chart and
B. Slight out-toeing client records
C. Parallel C. Get referrals
D. Outward rotating D. Medical history forms
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86. What inflammation of a 92. Which is based on a balance

bursa caused by overuse of flow of energy as an important
surrounding structures? element for a healthy body?
A. Trigger finger A. Polarity therapy
B. Lateral epicondylitis B. Reciprocal inhibition
C. Tennis elbow C. Deep transverse friction
D. Bursitis D. Myofascial release
87. What could cause frozen 93. Who developed a method

shoulder? that uses trigger points?
A. Intrinsic muscle trauma A. Dr. Emil and Dr. Estrid
B. Trigger points in Vodder
subscapularis B. Dr. William Fitzgerald and
C. Hyperkyphosis Eunice Ingram
D. All of the above C. Boris Chaitow and Stanley
Leif
88. What is a condition that D. Janet Travel
involves compression of the
brachial plexus and its artery? 94. Which massage system uses
A. Frozen shoulder many of the Swedish
B. Bursitis movements?
C. Torticollis A. Chinese
D. Thoracic outlet syndrome B. English
C. Greek
89. What is treated by focusing D. Indian
on the muscle that provides
lateral support at the knee? 95. Which early massage system
A. Piriformis syndrome included anatripsis, the art of
B. Iliotibial band contracture rubbing a body part upward?
C. Thoracic outlet syndrome A. Chinese
D. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. French
C. Greek
90. What is a characteristic of D. German
flat-back posture?
A. Weak abdominals 96. What NMT technique involves
B. Tight hamstrings digital pressure directly into a
C. Anterior pelvic tilt trigger point?
D. All of the above A. Ischemic compression
B. Skin rolling
91. Which is a structural and C. Stretching
postural integration approach? D. All of the above
A. Reflexology
B. Craniosacral therapy
C. Bindegewebmassage
D. Ayurveda
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97. Which section of a standards 102. Doing spinal adjustments

of practice would contain without the proper training is
guidance on insurance and what type of unethical
accounting? behavior?
A. Communication A. Informed consent violation
B. Legal and Ethical B. Confidentiality
Requirements C. Practicing beyond the scope
C. Confidentiality of practice
D. Business practices D. None of the above
98. What is an agreement to 103. Hugging a client in a sexual

participate in an activity after manner is what type of
the purpose has been behavior?
explained? A. Unethical
A. Code of ethics B. Sexual misconduct
B. Informed consent C. Answers A and B are correct
C. Marketing D. None of the above
D. Standards of practice
104. Using a provocative picture
99. What is an example of a in a brochure is what type of
violation of a code of ethics? unethical behavior?
A. Informed consent A. Misleading claims of curative
B. Confidentiality abilities
C. Working on a minor without B. Accessibility violation
parental consent C. Inappropriate advertising
100. What is out of the 105. What is appropriate when a

therapeutic relationship? client says they are going to
A. Rights as professionals stop their medical treatment
B. Contract now?
C. Right of refusal A. Tell the client it is OK to
D. None of the above stop the medical treatment
B. Suggest the client discuss it
101. What might explain a with their primary care
therapist taking on symptoms provider
and conditions experienced C. Prescribe a different medical
by clients? treatment
A. Excessive permeable D. None of the above
boundary
B. Passive range of motion
D. Networking
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106. What is an issue if a 111. What is a sexual misconduct

therapist agrees to trade boundary violation?
massages for taking care of a A. Sexual comments about the
pet, then the pet is injured? client's body
A. Scope of practice B. Sexual jokes
B. Dual relationship C. Failure to ensure a client's
C. Transference privacy
D. Countertransference D. All of the above

the state government level experience for clients?
rather than the local A. Sexual arousal
government level? B. Inform clients of their rights
A. Licensing requirements C. Both A and B are correct
B. Restrictions on businesses D. None of the above
operated from a home
C. Answer A and B are correct 113. What is the main factor in
D. None of the above determining the proper
height of the massage table?
108. What supports professional A. Therapist's height
ethics? B. Client's height
A. Sexual misconduct C. Therapist's experience
B. Continuing education D. All of the above
D. None of the above 114. How can electrodes and
implements be sanitized?
109. What occurs when a A. Warm water
therapist gets angry because B. 70% ethyl alcohol solution
a client complains about C. Cold water
personal problems? D. All of the above
A. Transference
B. Dual relationship 115. What is the secondary
C. Boundaries infection precaution?
D. Countertransference A. Hand washing with 10%
bleach
110. What is more important B. Hanging linens out to dry
during the pre-massage C. Use of latex gloves
interview if a client felt D. Washing linens in cold water
treated as an object while
filling out forms in the
waiting room?
A. Dual relationships
B. Scope of practice
C. Laws and regulations
D. Sincere and clear
communication
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116. What is a therapist personal 121. What is the purpose of

safety practice? draping?
A. Use proper body mechanics A. Warmth
B. Maintain first aid and CPR B. Modesty
certification C. Comfort
C. Give contact information to D. All of the above
an associate when leaving to
perform in-house massage 122. Which vitamin can be
D. All of the above synthesized by the body?
A. Ginseng
117. What is the first step when B. Vitamin C
responding to a first aid C. Vitamin D
emergency? D. Vitamin E
A. Call 911
B. Check the scene and the 123. What is the purpose of
victim Schedule K-1 of Form 1065-B?
C. Provide care for the victim A. Sole proprietor's income or
D. Stop the bleeding loss
B. Partner's share of income or
118. What protects the loss
practitioner's hands? C. Corporation's income or loss
A. Hyperextend the wrist D. Deductible expenses
B. Use the forearms and elbows
for deep pressure 124. What is similar to a
C. Use the heel of the hand for corporation but with the
deep pressure partners having limited
D. Stay on top of the massage personal liability?
movement rather than in A. S Corporation
front B. Partnership
C. Sole proprietorship
119. In which stance is the D. LLC
therapist facing the massage
table with the toes in a line, 125. What are systems of mass
pointed forward? communication?
A. Asymmetric A. Mission statements
B. Body mechanics B. Business cards
C. Symmetric C. Resumes
D. Laterally recumbent D. Media

deep effleurage?
A. Asymmetric
B. Seated
C. Laterally recumbent
D. Symmetric
Page 207
Exam 16 Answer Key
1. D 43. B 85. B
2. A 44. A 86. D
3. D 45. D 87. D
4. A 46. D 88. D
5. B 47. C 89. B
6. C 48. B 90. B
7. B 49. C 91. C
8. A 50. A 92. A
9. B 51. D 93. D
10. C 52. B 94. B
11. D 53. B 95. C
12. A 54. C 96. A
13. B 55. B 97. D
14. C 56. C 98. B
15. D 57. A 99. C
16. A 58. A 100. D
17. A 59. A 101. A
18. B 60. C 102. C
19. C 61. C 103. C
20. C 62. A 104. C
21. C 63. C 105. B
22. C 64. B 106. B
23. A 65. A 107. A
24. C 66. C 108. B
25. D 67. A 109. D
26. B 68. B 110. D
27. A 69. A 111. D
28. A 70. C 112. B
29. C 71. B 113. A
30. A 72. D 114. B
31. C 73. D 115. C
32. A 74. D 116. D
33. B 75. A 117. B
34. D 76. C 118. B
35. C 77. C 119. C
36. D 78. A 120. A
37. C 79. A 121. D
38. D 80. B 122. C
39. D 81. D 123. B
40. B 82. D 124. D
41. A 83. A 125. D
42. C 84. C
Page 208
Exam 17
1. What is the intellectual 6. What part of a muscle

process of using all resources attaches to bone?
available to better understand A. Aponeurosis
and predict natural B. Perimysium
phenomena? C. Tendon
A. Science D. Belly
B. Centering
C. Art 7. Why are behaviors such as
D. Marketing substance abuse, gambling,
eating, and thrill seeking
2. What is an example of how potentially addictive?
the structure of a part is A. Reticular activation system
related to its function? B. The pleasure center in the
A. Thick air sacs in lung move midbrain and pons release
oxygen slowly feel-good neurotransmitters
B. Loose skull bones C. Homeostasis
C. Thick bladder lining prevents D. The pleasure center in the
urine from escaping into hypothalamus releases feel-
pelvic cavity good neurotransmitters
D. Cardiovascular physiology
8. Which system produces
3. Which fibers are very strong hormones?
and resist pulling forces but A. Lymphatic
are not stiff? B. Respiratory
A. Collagen C. Endocrine
B. Loose D. Urinary
C. Chakra
D. Fibrillin 9. What receives oxygenated
blood from the left atrium?
4. Which type of epithelial A. Jejunum
membrane lines the digestive, B. Aorta
respiratory, and reproductive C. Right atrium
tracts? D. Left ventricle
A. Mucous
B. Cerebral 10. Which system includes the
C. Cutaneous kidneys, ureter, bladder, and
D. Synovial urethra?
A. Digestive
5. What bone structure has little B. Lymphatic
space between tissues? C. Reproductive
A. Compact bone D. Urinary
B. Spongy bone
C. Endoskeleton
D. Cancellous bone
Page 209
11. Which system controls 17. Which method involves the

testosterone secretion? chest meridian beginning in
A. Circulatory the chest, ending in the
B. Lymphatic thumb, and being associated
C. Reproductive with the intake of ki?
D. Urinary A. Acupressure
B. Pin and stretch
12. What nutrient is a C. Soft tissue release
component of enzymes D. All of the above
required for synthesis of ATP?
A. Lavender 18. Which chakra is located at
B. Saw palmetto the base of the spine?
C. Magnesium A. Root
D. Vitamin A B. Cranium
C. Umbilical
13. Which means toward the D. Popliteal
head?
A. Cephalad 19. What is the action of a
B. Caudad muscle to shorten and
C. Plantar thicken?
D. Volar A. Expansion
B. Striation
14. Which means lying face up? C. Contractility
A. Erect D. Spasm
B. Supine
C. Prone 20. Where does the flexor carpi
D. Laterally recumbent ulnaris insert?
A. Humerus
15. Which region of the trunk B. Radius
has four vertebrae fused into C. Tibia
one? D. Carpal
A. Coccyx
B. Cervical 21. Where is the tibial
C. Lumbar tuberosity?
D. Thoracic A. Anterior to the lateral
malleolus
16. What refers to movement B. Posterior to the clavicle
around a longitudinal axis in a C. Directly medial from
transverse plane? olecranon process
A. Circumduction D. Distal to the patella on the
B. Lateral flexion shaft of the tibia
C. Gliding
D. Rotation
Page 210
22. What muscle originates at 28. What are the actions of the
the coccyx, sacrum and iliac sternocleidomastoid?
crest and inserts at the gluteal A. Flex knee and hip
tuberosity and IT tract? B. Assist in depression of the
A. Gluteus maximus mandible
B. Piriformis C. Laterally flex and rotate
C. Tibialis anterior head and neck, flex neck
D. Serratus anterior D. Flex the shoulder
23. What is the shape of the 29. Which muscles adduct,

digastric muscle? elevate, and downwardly
A. Convergent rotate the scapula?
B. Fusiform A. Levator scapula, brachialis
C. Multi-belly B. Levator scapula, rectus
D. Circular femoris
C. Latissimus dorsi, teres major
24. What is the functional class D. Rhomboid major and minor
of a slightly moveable joint?
A. First class lever 30. What does the tibialis
B. Isotonic posterior do?
C. Diathrosis A. Plantar flexes and inverts
D. Amphiarthrosis the foot
B. Dorsiflexes and everts the
25. What is the zebra striped foot
pattern called? C. Flexion of the arm
A. Dorsal root ganglion D. Extension of the wrist
B. Reflex mechanism
C. Dermatome 31. Which muscle flexes the
D. Myotome neck?
A. Sternocleidomastoid
26. What group includes rectus B. Rectus capitis posterior
femoris, vastus medialis, major
vastus lateralis, and vastus C. Trapezius
intermedius? D. Levator scapula
A. Quadriceps
B. Hamstrings 32. Which proprioceptors are
C. Adductors stretch receptors that respond
D. Abductors to sudden and excessive
lengthening?
27. Which originates on the A. First class levers
superior half of the lateral B. Golgi tendon organs
border of the scapula? C. Synovial joints
A. External oblique D. Muscle spindles
B. Infraspinatus
C. Teres minor
D. All of the above
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33. What is pain? 38. What is a condition in which

A. An unpleasant subjective the arteries become inelastic
sensation and brittle?
B. Hyperplasia A. Arteriosclerosis
C. An unpleasant sensation from B. Anemia
an internal organ C. Hepatitis B
D. Endangerment site D. HIV
34. What means capable of being 39. What are the implications for
transmitted with or without massage for a client taking
contact? calcium channel blockers?
A. Infectious A. The client may be
B. Bacterial susceptible to cold
C. Viral B. The medication may result in
D. Syndrome dizziness after the massage
C. Massage may help with
35. What is a prognosis? constipation
A. The categorization of a D. All of the above
disease
B. The expected outcome of a 40. What type of medication
disease might be used for allergies?
C. The observed evidence of a A. Melatonin
disease B. Antidepressants
D. A pandemic disease C. Antihistamines
D. Anti-inflammatory
36. Is massage indicated or
contraindicated for a 41. What is a natural supplement
hematoma? used for warts and cold sores?
A. Indicated A. Camphor
B. Contraindicated B. Brewer's yeast
C. Local contraindication C. Anticoagulant
D. Indicated in the acute stage D. NSAID
37. Is massage indicated or 42. What is golfer's or pitcher's

contraindicated for elbow, caused by repetitive
gastroenteritis? flexion of the wrist as in
A. Indicated throwing?
B. Contraindicated A. Bursitis
C. Local contraindication B. Lateral epicondylitis
D. Contraindicated in the acute C. Medial epicondylitis
stage D. Adhesive capsulitis
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43. What involves degeneration 49. What is the result of pressure

and necrosis at the head of or movement on one part of
the femur? the body having an effect in
A. Legg-Calve'-Perthes disease another part?
B. Scoliosis A. Mechanical effects
C. Malignant melanoma B. Physiological effects
D. Osteochondritis dissecans C. Reflexive effects
44. What occurs as a result of
physical injury by violent or 50. What is an effect of massage
disruptive action? on the cardiovascular system?
A. Conservation withdrawal A. Creates hyperthermia
B. Trauma B. Reduces cortisol levels
C. Integration C. Constricts blood vessels
D. Denial D. Reduces superficial keloid
formation
45. A deficiency of which
vitamin would cause beriberi? 51. Which condition can benefit
A. Vitamin A from massage?
B. Thiamine A. Lung disease
C. Vitamin C B. Lymphedema
D. Aloe C. Multiple sclerosis
D. All of the above
46. What is acute?
A. Widespread 52. What is a bag or sack used to
B. Sudden onset apply heat or cold?
C. Mild A. Bath
D. Long duration B. Pack
C. Hydrocollator
47. Which nerve pierces the D. Cryotherapy
psoas major muscle?
A. Greater occipital 53. What is the neurological
B. Femoral state in which painful stimuli
C. Axillary are moderated?
D. Chakra A. Vasoconstriction
B. Inflammation
48. Which endangerment site C. Slight analgesia
includes the location of the D. Cryotherapy
kidney?
A. Area of the sternal notch and 54. Which is a type of superficial
anterior throat effleurage?
B. Umbilicus area A. Resting stroke
C. Twelfth rib, dorsal body B. Grounding
D. Occipital region C. Nerve stroke
D. Centering
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55. Which is more effective 61. What is initiated by

without oil? sympathetic stimulation?
A. Cross fiber friction A. Adrenal secretions increased
B. Petrissage B. Sweat glands activated
C. Kneading C. Body is more alert and
D. Gliding attentive
D. All of the above
56. Which uses a grasping and
lifting action to pull tissue 62. What is reduced by massage?
from bone? A. Serotonin
A. Effleurage B. Dopamine
B. Petrissage C. Endorphins
C. Cross fiber friction D. Pain
D. Tapotement
57. What is the body's automatic on the cardiovascular system?
response to stop blood loss? A. Decreases serotonin
A. Hemostasis B. Reduces dopamine levels
B. Inflammation C. Decreases systolic stroke
C. Vasodilatation volume
D. Phagocytosis D. Dilates capillary beds
58. What is a psychological 64. Which is not Swedish

effect of massage? massage?
A. Increases aversion to touch A. Effleurage
for sexual abuse victims B. Petrissage
B. Reduces depression and C. Cryotherapy
anxiety D. Tapotement
C. Relieves muscle cramps
D. Increases circulation 65. What is not kneading?
A. Skin rolling
59. What is an effect of massage B. Light stroking
on the muscular system? C. Lifting
A. Fresh supply of blood to D. Grasping
muscles
B. Removal of waste products 66. What is a vigorous rhythmic
C. Helps nourish tissues movement?
B. Gliding
60. What is light tapping or C. Friction
slapping? D. Nerve strokes
A. Vibration
B. Percussion
C. Friction
D. Ischemic compression
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67. What is the causative agent

for AIDS? 73. Which muscles is overactive
A. Herpes if a client has Achilles
B. HIV tendinitis and pain behind the
C. T-cell knee when flexing the knee?
D. Kaposi's sarcoma A. Gluteus medius
B. Gastrocnemius
68. What induces C. Psoas
vasoconstriction? D. Hamstrings
A. Effleurage
B. Cryotherapy 74. What includes all
C. Friction recommendations for future
D. Nerve strokes treatment?
A. Ergonomics
69. What would benefit from the B. Referral
contrast method? C. Self help
A. Infectious diseases D. Treatment plan
B. High blood pressure
C. Acute muscle spasms 75. Where on the SOAP chart is
D. Chronic muscle spasms range-of-motion testing
documented?
70. If a client has lordotic A. Subjective
posture, what is the most B. Objective
appropriate treatment? C. Assessment
A. Stretch right lateral trunk D. Plan
muscles
B. Stretch left lateral thigh 76. What is the limit on the
muscles range of motion of a joint?
C. Stretch low back muscles A. Soft tissue dysfunction
D. Stretch hamstrings B. Inflammation
C. Protective muscle
71. What is done if a client has contraction
limited range of motion in D. Normal end feel
lateral rotation and abduction
of the shoulder? 77. What involves a hypertonic
A. Lengthen rhomboid major muscle stabilizing or splinting
B. Lengthen trapezius an area?
C. Lengthen teres minor A. Antagonist
D. Lengthen teres major B. Trigger point
C. Target muscle
72. What is the treatment if a D. Muscle guarding
client walks with the toes out?
A. Stretch gluteus medius
B. Stretch plantar flexors
C. Stretch gluteus maximus
D. Stretch psoas
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78. If a client says an area is 82. Which are long and weak
tight, what type of issue is it with the right hip adducted
usually? and medially rotated, left hip
A. Muscle tone issue abducted and feet pronated?
B. Connective tissue or fluid A. Right lateral trunk muscles,
retention issue left and right hip abductors
C. Joint issue B. Right peroneus longus and
D. An issue that requires an brevis and left tibialis
immediate referral to a posterior
primary care provider C. Right deltoid and right
triceps brachii
79. What is happening when the D. All of the above
pelvis maintains its ideal
alignment? 83. What is a characteristic of
A. The arm flexors pull upward good alignment of the knees?
B. The back muscles pull A. The plumb line passes
downward slightly anterior to the axis
C. The abdominal muscles pull of the knee joint
downward B. The plumb line passes
D. The posterior hip flexors pull slightly posterior to the axis
downward of the knee joint
C. The ankle joint is in plantar
80. If a client has lordotic flexion
posture, which muscles are D. Genu varum
most likely somewhat
elongated and may or may not 84. Where is the center of
be weak? gravity with ideally aligned
A. Lateral flexors of neck posture?
B. Hamstrings A. Slightly anterior to the first
C. Muscles of feet or second sacral segment
D. Hip flexors B. Atlas
C. Axis
81. What is the normal position D. Knees
of the foot in relation to the
lower leg? 85. How does a therapist test
A. Slight in-toeing the right leg extensors?
B. Slight out-toeing A. Client holds left foot position
C. Parallel against therapist's
D. Outward rotating superior/cephalad pressure
B. Client holds right leg position
against therapist's
C. Client holds left leg position
against therapist's
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86. What is not part of the 91. What type of approach is

treatment for plantar fasciitis? Hellerwork which was
A. Apply cold in the acute stage developed by Joseph Heller?
B. Apply heat in the chronic A. Trigger point therapy
stage B. Myofascial approach
C. Treat the lengthened C. Energetic method
gastrocnemius and soleus D. Structural integration
D. Cross fiber friction on
adhesions 92. What type of sports massage
is given after an event when
87. What is a treatment for there are no injuries present?
bursitis? A. Pre-event massage
A. Compression on the bursa B. Recovery massage
B. Joint play for hypomobile C. Chair massage
joints D. Rehabilitation massage
C. Heat in the acute stage
D. Cold in the chronic stage 93. Who formalized a myofascial
approach focusing on
88. What is most frequently connective tissue?
painful in abduction and A. Dr. Emil Vodder and Dr.
external rotation? Estrid Vodder
A. Frozen shoulder B. Dr. William Fitzgerald and
B. Bursitis Eunice Ingram
C. Trigger finger C. John F. Barnes
D. Whiplash D. Janet Travel
89. What results in numbness 94. What was developed in

and tingling in the lateral Hawaii?
three and one-half digits? A. Shiatsu
A. Trigger finger B. Ayurveda
B. Piriformis syndrome C. Anma
C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Lomi lomi
D. Thoracic outlet syndrome
95. Which uses doshas such as
90. What is characterized by vata, pitta, and kapha?
weak abdominals, gluteus A. Sushumna
maximus, and hamstrings? B. Effleurage
A. Hyperlordosis C. Ayurveda
B. Hyperkyphosis D. Petrissage
C. Scoliosis
D. Flat-back posture 96. Which is an energy
technique?
A. Polarity therapy
B. Reiki
C. Touch for Health
D. All of the above
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97. Which section of a standards 102. Which duty of health

of practice would contain professionals is more
guidance on hygiene and compelling if they are in
draping? conflict?
A. Professionalism A. Do no harm
B. Legal Requirements B. Do positive good
C. Informed consent C. Both A and B are correct
D. Accounting D. None of the above
98. What is an example of a 103. What occurs when a

violation of a code of ethics? therapist who is sad assumes
A. Client-centered actions and that a client is sad?
words A. Projection
B. Inappropriate advertising B. Power differential
C. Working on a minor with C. Dual relationship
parental consent D. Networking
D. All of the above
104. What should the therapist
99. What is not a violation of a do if a child under 18 asks for
code of ethics? an exception to getting
A. Informed consent parental consent for a
B. Misleading claims massage?
C. Inappropriate advertising A. Do the massage if a friend
D. All of the above says it is OK
B. Do not do the massage
100. What is in the therapeutic C. Do the massage if the minor
relationship? promises to get permission
A. Personal needs later
B. Medical advice D. Do the massage but decrease
C. Client-centered actions and the duration
words
D. All of the above 105. What is beyond the scope of
practice for massage
101. What is an example of a therapists?
type of boundary? A. Soft tissue techniques
A. Interpersonal B. Assessment
B. Physical C. Bodywork
C. Both A and B are correct D. Diagnosis
prompts dual relationships?
A. Self-care
B. Friendship
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the local government level experience for clients?
rather than the state A. Use appropriate language
government level? B. Use appropriate draping
A. Zoning C. Both A and B are correct
B. Restrictions on businesses D. None of the above
operated from a home
C. Answer A and B are correct 113. What keeps massage oil,
D. None of the above cream, or lotion from being
contaminated?
108. Guidance on which topic is A. Remove from containers with
typically found in a code of the fingers
ethics? B. Remove from containers
A. Fee structure without touching the product
B. Tax C. Both A and B are correct
C. Insurance D. None of the above
114. Where is the best place to
109. What is the response of the store clean linens?
therapist's unconscious A. Floor
towards the client? B. Hamper
A. Dual relationships C. Dryer
B. Transference D. Closed cabinet
C. Confidentiality
D. Countertransference 115. What is used on surgical
instruments in hospitals?
110. What happens if a therapist A. Sanitation
asks a client about their sex B. Disinfection
life? C. Sterilization
A. Dual relationship D. All of the above
B. Boundary crossing
C. Countertransference 116. What is a system of
D. Sincere and clear infection control?
communication A. Universal precautions
B. Strategic planning
111. What is a sexual misconduct C. Contraindication
boundary violation? D. Scope of practice
A. Strong interest in or
disapproval of client's sexual
orientation
B. Comments about sexual
performance
C. Conversations about sexual
preferences or fantasies
D. All of the above
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117. What is a client safety 122. Costs for what could be

practice? deductible as a business
A. Understand paths of expense?
infection A. Linens
B. Provide safe and clear B. Licensing
entryways and passages C. Memberships
C. Assist clients on and off D. All of the above
massage table
D. All of the above 123. What is promoting a
business?
118. In which stance does the A. Insurance
therapist have one foot in B. Marketing
front of the other with the C. Mission statement
back foot laterally rotated? D. Start up costs
A. Symmetric
B. Body mechanics 124. What protects against
C. Laterally recumbent lawsuits for claims of
D. Asymmetric professional misconduct?
A. Unemployment insurance
119. What draping method can B. Disability insurance
be used with a large bath C. Liability insurance
sheet towel or one half of a D. Property insurance
full or double sheet?
A. Top cover method 125. What is a simple way to
B. Full sheet method provide contact information?
C. Both A and B are correct A. Mission statements
D. None of the above B. Business cards
C. Resumes
120. Which helps in the D. Advertising
formation of teeth and
bones?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Iron
D. Calcium

being an employee?
A. Keep more of fee collected
B. Flexible hours
C. Steady income
D. All of the above
Page 220
Exam 17 Answer Key
1. A 43. A 85. B
2. C 44. B 86. C
3. A 45. B 87. B
4. A 46. B 88. A
5. A 47. B 89. C
6. C 48. C 90. A
7. D 49. C 91. D
8. C 50. A 92. B
9. D 51. D 93. C
10. D 52. B 94. D
11. C 53. C 95. C
12. C 54. C 96. D
13. A 55. A 97. A
14. B 56. B 98. B
15. A 57. A 99. A
16. D 58. B 100. C
17. A 59. D 101. C
18. A 60. B 102. A
19. C 61. D 103. A
20. D 62. D 104. B
21. D 63. D 105. D
22. A 64. C 106. B
23. B 65. B 107. A
24. D 66. C 108. D
25. C 67. B 109. D
26. A 68. B 110. B
27. C 69. D 111. D
28. C 70. C 112. C
29. D 71. D 113. B
30. A 72. B 114. D
31. A 73. B 115. A
32. D 74. D 116. A
33. A 75. B 117. D
34. A 76. D 118. D
35. B 77. D 119. A
36. B 78. A 120. D
37. D 79. D 121. C
38. A 80. B 122. D
39. D 81. B 123. B
40. C 82. B 124. C
41. A 83. A 125. B
42. C 84. A
Page 221
Exam 18
1. What is not a science but a 6. What classification of bones

craft, skill, technique, or includes the round bones
talent? embedded in joints and
A. Anatomy tendons such as the patella?
B. Art A. Sesamoid
C. Hypothesis B. Sutural
D. Diagnosis C. Flat
D. Irregular
2. Which are two or more atoms
joined together? 7. Which lobe of the cerebral
A. Cells cortex is responsible for speech
B. Organs and thought?
C. Systems A. Parietal
D. Molecules B. Occipital
C. Femoral
3. Which fibers are smaller in D. Frontal
diameter than collagen and
join together to form a 8. Which system initiates gradual
network within a tissue? changes in the body that last a
A. Fibroblasts long time?
B. Lymph A. Nervous
C. Hyaline cartilage B. Muscular
D. Elastic C. Endocrine
D. Cardiovascular
4. Which type of epithelial
membrane lines a body cavity 9. What receives oxygenated
that does not open directly to blood from the lungs?
the exterior? A. Pulmonary arteries
A. Mitosis B. Right atrium
B. Serous C. Pulmonary veins
C. Cutaneous D. Liver
D. Synovial
10. Which is part of the urinary
5. What bone structure has system?
larger spaces between cells, A. Pancreas
producing lighter bones? B. Esophagus
A. Compact bone C. Small Intestine
B. Spongy bone D. Kidney
C. Dense bone
D. Irregular bone
Page 222
11. Which system includes the 17. Which method involves the
ovaries, uterine tubes, uterus, triple heater meridian
and vagina? beginning at the middle
A. Lymphatic finger, ending at the eyebrow,
B. Reproductive and being associated with
C. Urinary protection?
D. Circulatory A. Craniosacral therapy
B. Shiatsu
12. What is the range of the C. Swedish massage
length of the phase of healing D. All of the above
in which the remodeling of the
tissue is completed? 18. Which chakra is located on
A. Less than 24 hours the top of the head?
B. 1-2 days A. Gluteal
C. 2-3 days to 1 week B. Lumbar
D. 6 weeks to one year or C. Coronal
longer D. Kidney
13. Which means to the back? 19. What is usually the proximal
A. Dorsal attachment of a muscle?
B. Lateral A. Insertion
C. Medial B. Origin
D. Peripheral C. Belly
D. Spindle
14. Which plane divides the body
into left and right sides? 20. Where does the anconeus
A. Midsagittal insert?
B. Sagittal A. Clavicle
C. Median B. Scapula
D. All of the above C. Ulna
D. Metacarpal
15. Which region of the trunk
has seven vertebrae? 21. Where is the iliac tubercle?
A. Sacral A. Anterior to the lateral
B. Cervical malleolus
C. Lumbar B. Posterior to the iliac crest
D. Gastric C. Distal to the ulna
D. Distal to the patella on the
16. What are structures farthest shaft of the tibia
away from the transverse
plane?
A. Anterior or posterior
B. Cranial or caudal
C. Medial or lateral
D. Frontal or sagittal
Page 223
22. Which muscles are shortened 27. Which muscle inserts on the
by wearing high heeled shoes? olecranon process of the ulna?
A. Tibialis anterior and tibialis A. Triceps brachii
posterior B. Deltoid
B. Latissimus dorsi and teres C. Trapezius
major D. Biceps femoris
C. Gastrocnemius and soleus
D. Geniohyoid and stylohyoid 28. Which muscle flexes,
laterally rotates, and abducts
23. What best describes the the hip?
shape of the rectus abdominis A. Psoas major
muscle? B. Biceps femoris
A. Convergent C. Sartorius
B. Fusiform D. Deltoid
C. Multi-belly
D. Circular 29. What movement occurs at
the radioulnar joint?
24. What is the functional class A. Depression
of a freely moveable joint? B. Rotation
A. Synarthrosis C. Radial deviation
B. Gomphosis D. Ulnar deviation
C. Diathrosis
D. Third class lever 30. Which is a hip flexor?
A. Splenius capitis
25. What is a sensory segment of B. Rectus abdominis
the skin supplied by a specific C. Erector spinae
nerve root? D. Iliopsoas
A. Myelin
B. Rhodopsin 31. What type of joint only
C. Dermatome allows flexion and extension?
D. Myotome A. Gliding
B. Ellipsoid
26. Which muscles laterally C. Hinge
rotate, adduct, extend, and D. Ball and socket
horizontally abduct the
shoulder? 32. Which proprioceptors are
A. Splenius capitis and found in joints and respond to
infraspinatus pressure and joint movement?
B. Infraspinatus and teres minor A. Joint kinesthetic receptors
C. Teres minor and vastus B. Golgi tendon organs
lateralis C. Somatic reflex arcs
D. Supraspinatus and D. Muscle spindles
subscapularis
Page 224
33. What is visceral pain? 39. What are cancer treatment

A. Persistent chronic pain agents?
B. Trauma A. Hormones
C. An unpleasant sensation from B. Bee pollen
an internal organ C. Antineoplastics
D. Neoplasm D. Central nervous system
medications
34. What means caused by a
pathogen that can grow after 40. What are the implications for
infecting a host cell? massage for a client taking
A. Trauma anti-infectives?
B. Bacterial A. Recommend changes in the
C. Viral dose
D. Systemic B. Avoid exposing the client to
a cold
35. What is a diagnosis? C. Avoid energetic massage
A. The categorization of a methods
disease D. Do not perform the massage
B. The expected outcome of a
disease 41. What is the inflammation of
C. Exacerbation of a disease more than one vertebra?
D. A syndrome A. Hepatitis B
B. Lupus
36. Which is generally indicated C. Spondylitis
for massage? D. Torticollis
A. Lymphangitis
B. Sprains 42. What kind of fracture
C. Acutely inflamed joints involves a break in a bone that
D. Acute burns does not break the skin or
injure soft tissue?
37. Is massage indicated or A. Ossification
contraindicated for influenza? B. Compound fracture
A. Indicated C. Open fracture
B. Contraindicated D. Simple or closed fracture
D. Contraindicated in the acute 43. What is caused most
stage commonly by necrosis or
inflammation of a bone or disk
38. Which is true regarding the in the thoracic vertebrae?
goal of massaging clients with A. Legg-Calve'-Perthes disease
a terminal illness? B. Scheuermann's disease
A. Focus on the cure C. Lateral epicondylitis
B. Recommend alternative D. Hernia
medicine
C. Provide comfort
D. Do not grieve upon death
Page 225
44. In general, for which client 49. What are organic processes
would massage be of the body on cellular, tissue,
appropriate? or organ system levels?
A. Terminally ill client A. Hard end feel
B. Unaccompanied minor child B. Physiological effects
C. Athlete with an acute C. Placebo effects
fracture D. Mind-body effects
D. Client under the influence of
non-prescribed drugs 50. What are the two categories
of physiological effects of
45. In which phase of stress do massage?
vital systems collapse? A. Art and intuition
A. Exhaustion B. Reflexive methods and
B. Resistance mechanical methods
C. Alarm C. The mind/body effect and
D. All of the above the placebo effect
D. Stress and the general
46. What can be caused by adaptation syndrome
repetitive flexion of the wrist?
A. Tennis elbow 51. Which condition can benefit
B. Golfer's or pitcher's elbow from massage?
C. Peritonitis A. Nerve entrapment
D. Frozen shoulder B. Poor circulation
C. Pregnancy and postpartum
47. Which nerve emerges D. All of the above
through the space bounded by
the teres major, teres minor, 52. What is a wet cloth with
long head of the triceps and water wrung from it that is
humerus? applied to the skin's surface?
A. Greater occipital A. Compress
B. Femoral B. Pack
C. Axillary C. Bath
D. Transverse D. Cryotherapy
48. Which endangerment site 53. What is a bath with salt?

includes a nerve under the A. Steam bath
piriformis muscle? B. Sauna
A. Lumbar region C. Saline bath
B. Umbilicus area D. Paraffin bath
C. Twelfth rib, dorsal body
D. Sciatic notch 54. Which stroke is skin rolling?
A. Vibration
B. Cupping
C. Kneading
D. Gliding
Page 226
55. Which stroke applies 60. What massage movement

pressure to soft tissues to produces an instantaneous
squeeze them together temporary dilation of the
without any slip? capillaries?
A. Compression A. Petrissage or kneading
B. Grounding B. Light stroking
C. Effleurage C. Deep stroking
D. Petrissage D. All of the above
56. Which is true regarding the 61. Which is a petrissage

application of petrissage? movement?
A. Stay in the same spot A. Percussion
B. Start with maximum pressure B. Fulling
and gradually decrease the C. Gliding
pressure D. Friction
C. Keep the fingers apart
D. Use a rhythm of about one 62. Which lifts, squeezes and
stroke per second presses the tissues?
A. Deep effleurage
57. What is a physical effect of B. Kneading
massage? C. Tapping
A. Increases metabolism D. Cross fiber friction
B. Hastens healing
C. Relaxes and refreshes the 63. When is effleurage typically
muscles used during a session?
D. All of the above A. Only at the beginning
B. Only at the end
58. What is an effect of massage C. At the beginning and the end
on the skin? D. In the middle
A. Improved posture
B. Increased activity of sweat 64. Which stroke is not
and oil glands petrissage?
C. Decreased circulation to the A. Superficial gliding
skin B. Kneading
D. Reduction in serotonin C. Skin rolling
D. Fulling
59. What is an effect of passive
joint movements? 65. What reduces the intensity
A. Increases movement of blood of deep tissue techniques?
and lymph A. Percussion
B. Sooths the nerves B. Vibration
C. Lubricates the joints C. Friction
D. All of the above D. Tapotement
Page 227
66. Which is not advisable for 72. What is done if a client has
pregnancy massage? an everted or valgus position
A. Light effleurage of the foot?
B. Deep tissue massage A. Lengthen soleus
C. Side-lying position B. Lengthen peroneus brevis
D. Supine position C. Lengthen tibialis posterior
D. Lengthen gastrocnemius
67. What is the purpose massage
for the critically ill? 73. Which muscles is overactive
A. Bring comfort and relaxation if a client has plantar
B. Remove toxins tendinitis and knee pain under
C. Stimulate circulation the patella when extending
D. It is contraindicated the knee?
A. Gluteus medius
68. Where is HIV rarely found? B. Vastus medius
A. Blood C. Vastus lateralis
B. Semen and vaginal secretions D. Hamstrings
C. Saliva
D. Mother's milk 74. What coordinates activities
with work equipment?
69. What most likely results in A. Ergonomics
decreased joint stiffness? B. Referral
A. Ice bath C. Self help
B. R.I.C.E.S D. Treatment plan
C. Thermotherapy
D. Cryotherapy 75. Where on the SOAP chart are
the long-term goals based on
70. What is appropriate for the activities of daily living
sway-back posture? recorded?
A. Stretch right lateral trunk A. Subjective
muscles B. Objective
B. Stretch left lateral thigh C. Assessment
muscles D. Plan
C. Stretch low back muscles
D. Stretch hamstrings 76. When the range of motion of
a joint normally allows 0 to 90
71. If a client has a C-curve of degrees of flexion, what is
the back, what is the most anything more?
appropriate treatment? A. Relaxed
A. Lengthen erector spinae B. Hypomobile
B. Lengthen short lateral C. Hypermobile
internal and external D. Tensed
obliques
C. Lengthen left internal and
right external obliques
D. Lengthen hamstrings
Page 228
77. What is a likely 82. Which are long and weak

characteristic of a tense with the left hip adducted and
muscle? medially rotated, right hip
A. Too strong abducted and feet pronated?
B. Inhibited A. Occipitofrontalis and
C. Too weak temporalis
D. Atrophy B. Right peroneus longus and
brevis and left tibialis
78. What change in muscle size posterior
do massage methods usually C. Right flexor hallucis longus
produce? and right flexor digitorum
A. Smaller muscles longus
B. Larger muscles D. All of the above
C. Shorter muscles
D. Longer muscles 83. Which is an incorrect set up
considering ergonomics at a
79. Which muscles are elongated computer workstation?
and weak with kyphotic- A. Phone headset
lordotic posture? B. Chair has armrests
A. Neck flexors C. Monitor at or below eye level
B. Upper back erector spinae D. Computer in a corner on a
C. External obliques platform
D. All of the above
84. Which muscle tends to show
80. If a client has flat back acquired postural weakness in
posture, which muscles are right handed individuals?
most likely short and strong? A. Posterior superior iliac spine
A. Neck flexors B. Left tibialis anterior
B. Hamstrings C. Ischial tuberosity
C. Splenius capitis and deltoid D. Right lateral trunk muscles
D. Hip flexors
85. What paperwork is
81. What is associated with ideal completed before the massage
alignment in the posterior to help the therapist develop
view? a treatment plan?
A. Elevated shoulders A. Assessment
B. Medial borders of scapulae B. SOAP chart
parallel C. Informed consent
C. In-toeing D. Intake and medical history
D. All of the above forms
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86. What may be caused by 91. What approach focusing on

occupations requiring connective tissue was
hammering or using a formalized by John F. Barnes?
screwdriver? A. Trigger points
A. Rotator cuff tendinitis B. Myofascial approach
B. Lateral epicondylitis C. Acupressure
C. Medial epicondylitis D. Structural integration
D. Tennis elbow
92. What method developed by
87. Which is not a treatment for Dr. John Upledger is for the
bursitis? purpose of manipulating the
A. Cold in the acute stage rhythmic flow of the
B. Deep moist heat in the cerebrospinal fluid?
chronic stage A. Ortho-bionomy
C. Compression on the bursa B. Craniosacral therapy
D. Joint play for hypomobile C. Bindegewebmassage
joints D. Polarity therapy
88. What is a symptom of frozen 93. What would an aromatherapy

shoulder? bath or massage oil of
A. Unrestricted range of motion lavender, clary sage, melissa,
B. Painful abduction and ylang ylang, bergamot and
external rotation chamomile be used for?
C. Hypermobility A. Relaxing
D. All of the above B. Assessment
C. Stimulating
89. What refers pain down the D. Draping
posterior thigh?
A. Torticollis 94. Which early system of
B. Piriformis syndrome massage uses anmo techniques
C. Carpal tunnel syndrome including rubbing, pressing,
D. Thoracic outlet syndrome and manipulation?
A. Chinese
90. What is treated by stretching B. Swedish
the SCM, upper trapezius, C. German
suboccipitals, levator D. French
scapulae, and scalenes?
A. Flat-back posture 95. Which massage system uses
B. Hyperlordosis many of the Swedish
C. Hyperkyphosis movements?
D. Scoliosis A. Chinese
B. French
C. Greek
D. Indian
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96. What was developed in 101. What is out of the

California? therapeutic relationship?
A. Shiatsu A. Spiritual advice
B. Ayurveda B. Confidentiality
C. Esalen massage C. Scope of practice
D. Lomi lomi D. All of the above
97. Which section of a standards 102. What should the therapist

of practice would contain do if a client reveals that
guidance on violations and they abuse their children on a
complaints? regular basis?
A. Power differential A. Do nothing
B. Legal and Ethical B. Contact the child welfare
Requirements authorities where required
C. Confidentiality by law
D. Overhead C. Tell the client not to reveal
that information
98. What is an example of a D. Recommend prescription
violation of a code of ethics? medication
A. Informed consent violations
B. Misleading claims 103. Implying that attending a
C. Exploiting the power workshop is the same as
differential having an advanced degree is
D. All of the above what type of unethical
behavior?
99. What is not a violation of a A. Misrepresentation of
code of ethics? educational status
A. Dating a client B. Sexual misconduct
B. Misleading claims of curative C. Practicing beyond the scope
abilities of practice
C. Working on a minor with D. None of the above
parental consent
D. All of the above 104. What relates to privacy?
A. Dual relationship
100. What is in the therapeutic B. Transference
relationship? C. Countertransference
A. Right of refusal D. HIPPA
B. Other business deals
C. Psychological counseling 105. What is the knowledge base
D. All of the above and practice parameters of a
profession?
A. Advertising
B. Dual relationship
C. Boundaries
D. Scope of practice
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106. What is an issue if a health 111. What is misconduct

care professional loses a involving sexual contact?
client after a referral to a A. Rape
massage therapist friend? B. Masturbation
A. Dual relationship C. Inappropriate work
B. Transference D. All of the above
C. Countertransference
D. Therapist hygiene 112. What is appropriate for
addressing erections in
107. What is a way for clients if the client displays
governments to keep track of sexual intent?
practitioners? A. Establish and maintain
A. Registration appropriate boundaries
B. Credentialing B. The therapist is obligated to
C. Answer A and B are correct talk to the client and
D. None of the above intervene
108. Guidance on which topic is D. None of the above
typically found in a code of
ethics? 113. What is a guideline for the
A. Image/advertising claims massage room?
B. Client relationships A. Minimum 6 feet by 8 feet
C. Scope of practice B. 55 to 65 degrees
D. All of the above C. Indirect lighting
D. All of the above
109. What occurs when client
gives the therapist gifts that 114. How are surfaces and
show affection? implements disinfected?
A. Transference A. Warm water
B. Dual relationship B. 10% bleach solution
C. Boundaries C. Cold water
D. Countertransference D. All of the above
110. What is advising clients of a 115. What is a universal

policy of charging for missed precaution?
appointments? A. Wash hands with soap and
A. Dual relationship water before and after
B. Boundary crossing contact with every client
C. Countertransference B. Gloves shall be worn if there
D. Proactive communication is potential for direct
contact with body fluids
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116. When must clean linens be 120. Which stance has the
used? practitioner's shoulders at an
A. For each client angle to the table?
B. When the linens are soiled A. Symmetric
C. If the client requests clean B. Body mechanics
linen C. Archer stance
D. Daily D. Horse stance
117. What is a safety practice 121. What uses the top cover
regarding auxiliary heating method or the full sheet
devices? method?
A. Use only UL-approved A. Protective gear
devices B. Assessment
B. Regularly inspect devices C. Draping
C. Turn off when not in use D. Body mechanics
D. All of the above
118. What is a therapist personal number of servings per day of
safety practice? the vegetable group?
A. Wash hands before and after A. Use sparingly
every treatment B. 1 to 2 servings
B. Perform within the scope of C. 3 to 5 servings
practice D. 10 to 11 servings
C. Give contact information to
an associate when leaving to 123. What is a limited liability
perform in-house massage corporation?
D. All of the above A. SSN
B. EIN
119. What protects the C. DBA
practitioner's hands? D. LLC
A. Use the palmar sides of the
fingers and thumbs when 124. What taxes is an S
applying pressure corporation liable for?
B. Use the heel of the hand for A. Income tax
deep pressure massage B. Estimated tax
movement rather than on C. Employment tax
top D. All of the above
C. Hyperextend the wrist
D. Avoid using the forearms and 125. What is a component of
elbows for deep pressure wellness?
A. Sleep
B. Denial
C. Posttraumatic stress disorder
D. Trauma
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Exam 18 Answer Key
1. B 43. B 85. D
2. D 44. A 86. C
3. D 45. A 87. C
4. B 46. B 88. B
5. D 47. C 89. B
6. A 48. D 90. C
7. D 49. B 91. B
8. C 50. B 92. B
9. C 51. D 93. A
10. D 52. A 94. A
11. B 53. C 95. B
12. D 54. C 96. C
13. A 55. A 97. B
14. D 56. D 98. D
15. B 57. D 99. C
16. B 58. B 100. A
17. B 59. D 101. A
18. C 60. B 102. B
19. B 61. B 103. A
20. C 62. B 104. D
21. B 63. C 105. D
22. C 64. A 106. A
23. C 65. B 107. A
24. C 66. B 108. D
25. C 67. A 109. A
26. B 68. C 110. D
27. A 69. C 111. D
28. A 70. D 112. C
29. B 71. B 113. C
30. D 72. B 114. B
31. C 73. C 115. C
32. A 74. A 116. A
33. C 75. C 117. D
34. C 76. C 118. D
35. A 77. A 119. A
36. B 78. D 120. C
37. D 79. D 121. C
38. C 80. B 122. C
39. C 81. B 123. D
40. B 82. C 124. D
41. C 83. D 125. A
42. D 84. B
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Exam 19
1. What is tested through 6. What bony landmarks are

experiments? processes that form joints?
A. Objective A. Condyle, head, facet,
B. Art process, trochlea
C. Hypothesis B. Crest, epicondyle, line,
D. Intuition spine, trochanter, tuberosity
C. Fissure, foramen, meatus,
2. Which is the sum of all sinus
chemical processes in the body D. Canal, fossa, groove, notch
including catabolism and
anabolism? 7. How can massage replace
A. Responsiveness potentially addictive behaviors
B. Metabolism such as substance abuse and
C. Movement gambling?
D. Homeostasis A. Reticular activation system
B. The pleasure center in the
3. What type of tissue covers midbrain and pons release
body surfaces and forms feel-good neurotransmitters
glands? C. Homeostasis
A. Epithelial D. The pleasure center in the
B. Connective hypothalamus releases feel-
C. Axial good neurotransmitters
D. Muscular
8. Which system helps with the
4. Which is a function of the regulation of body fluids,
epithelia? metabolism, energy
A. Heat production, and the
B. Gas exchange reproductive system?
C. Memory A. Lymphatic
D. Protection B. Respiratory
C. Endocrine
5. What describes an inside bone D. Cardiovascular
support structure?
A. Periosteum 9. What is the universal donor
B. Piezoelectric blood type?
C. Endoskeleton A. AB positive
D. Endosteum B. RH negative
C. O positive
D. O negative
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10. Which system eliminates 15. Which plane divides the body
waste products and conserves into upper and lower portions?
nutrients? A. Transverse
A. Lymphatic B. Horizontal
B. Respiratory C. Cross-sectional
C. Urinary D. All of the above
D. Nervous
16. Which body cavities are
11. Which system includes the generally more inferior to the
testes, penis, prostate gland, diaphragm?
seminal vesicles, and A. Cranial and vertebral
spermatic ducts? B. Abdominal and pelvic
A. Reproductive C. Thoracic and vertebral
B. Urinary D. Vertebral and thoracic
C. Endocrine
D. Lymphatic 17. Which chakra is located at
the front of the throat?
12. What is the range of the A. Gluteal
length of the phase of healing B. Frontal
in which tissue regeneration C. Lumbar
occurs? D. Laryngeal
A. Less than 24 hours
B. 1-2 days 18. Which dermatome is located
C. 2-3 days to 6 weeks at the skull cap, the most
D. 2 months to one year or superior?
longer A. C2
B. T1
13. Which body cavities are in C. S1
the ventral region? D. L5
A. Cranial and vertebral
B. Thoracic, abdominal, and 19. Which of these muscles
pelvic inserts on the humerus?
C. Thoracic, pelvic, and A. Rectus femoris
vertebral B. Trapezius
D. Cranial, abdominal, and C. Serratus anterior
pelvic D. Deltoid
14. Which means the sole of the 20. Where does the pronator
foot? teres insert?
A. Varus A. Mandible
B. Valgus B. Radius
C. Plantar C. Ulna
D. Volar D. Metacarpal
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21. Where is the greater 26. Which muscle flexes and

trochanter of the femur? laterally rotates the knee,
A. Anterior to the lateral extends and laterally rotates
malleolus the hip, and tilts the pelvis?
B. Posterior to the ribs A. Psoas major
C. Distal to iliac crest on side of B. Biceps femoris
hip C. Serratus posterior inferior
D. Distal to the patella on the D. Quadratus lumborum
shaft of the tibia
27. Which muscles are complete
22. Where does the sciatic nerve synergists?
pass through the hip? A. Biceps brachii, pronator
A. Lamina groove teres
B. Coracoid process B. Supinator, pronator
C. Synovial joint C. Latissimus dorsi, teres major
D. Ischial tuberosity and greater D. Brachioradialis, vastus
trochanter of the femur lateralis
23. Where is the deltoid 28. Which is an action of the

ligament? external oblique?
A. Medial malleolus, talus, A. Depression
navicular B. Extension
B. Cuboid, talus, cuneiforms C. Lateral flexion
C. C5 to T1, scalenes, clavicle D. Elevation
D. Junction between
manubrium and sternum 29. Which muscles flex the first
toe?
24. What is the functional class A. Extensor hallucis longus and
of an immoveable joint? abductor hallucis
A. Synarthrosis B. Flexor hallucis longus and
B. Gomphosis abductor hallucis
C. Diathrosis C. Tibialis anterior and
D. Multi-belly abductor digiti minimi
D. Erector spinae
25. Which is an action of
subscapularis? 30. Which proprioceptors protect
A. Abduct the shoulder a muscle from contracting
B. Medially rotate the shoulder with excess force and speed?
C. Adduct the hip A. Joint kinesthetic receptors
D. Extend the leg B. Golgi tendon organs
C. Somatic reflex arcs
D. Muscle spindles
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31. What is a joint with thin 37. Is massage indicated or

layers of hyaline cartilage contraindicated for irritable
over bone separated by bowel syndrome?
fibrocartilage such as the two A. Indicated
pubic bones? B. Contraindicated
A. Convergent C. Local contraindication
B. Synovial D. Contraindicated in the acute
C. Symphysis stage
D. Bipennate
38. Which is an aggressive form
32. What is only possible with of cancer that spreads through
ball-and-socket joints? the lymph nodes?
A. Circumduction A. Actinic keratosis
B. Lateral flexion B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Gliding C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Flexion and extension D. Malignant melanoma
33. What is chest pain from a 39. What are tranquilizers,

heart attack an example of? antidepressants,
A. Hypermobility amphetamines, and
B. Phantom pain adrenergic medications?
C. Referred pain A. Hormones
D. Denial B. Natural supplements
C. Antineoplastics
34. What means caused by tiny D. Central nervous system
cells that secrete toxins, eat medications
body cells, or form colonies?
A. Infectious 40. What are the implications for
B. Bacterial massage for a client taking
C. Malignant antineoplastics?
D. Epidemic A. Recommend changes to the
dose
35. What are signs of a disease? B. Avoid chair massage
A. Congenital disease C. Avoid energetic massage
B. The expected outcome of a methods
disease D. Work under the direct
C. The observed evidence of a supervision of the client's
disease physician
D. Pathology
41. What natural supplement is
36. Which is generally used for urination problems?
contraindicated for massage? A. Saw palmetto
A. Contusions B. Bee pollen
B. Back pain C. Anticonvulsant
C. Muscle spasm D. Lavender
D. Acute dermatitis
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42. What is a break in which the 48. Which endangerment site

bone is twisted apart? includes the nerves and
A. Impacted fracture vessels to the thyroid gland
B. Comminuted fracture and the vagus nerve?
C. Spiral fracture A. Area of the sternal notch and
D. Scoliosis anterior throat
B. Umbilicus area
43. What is a developmental C. Abdominal cavity
problem in which the D. Sciatic notch
vertebral arches do not fuse
into the spinous processes? 49. How does massage support
A. Spina bifida the treatment of addictive
B. Cleft palate behaviors?
C. Clubfoot or talipes A. Stimulates the release of
D. Osteogenesis imperfect feel-good neurotransmitters
B. Replaces destructive manner
44. What is required for of mood alteration with
physically challenged constructive method
individuals? C. Stimulates the release of
A. Barrier free access feel-good hormones
B. Referral D. All of the above
C. Boundaries 50. What is an effect of massage
D. Interpretation of touch on the nervous and endocrine
systems?
45. In which phase of stress is A. Reduces heart rate
the response triggered by the B. Increases cortisol levels
sympathetic nervous system? C. Increases serotonin levels
A. Exhaustion D. Reduces superficial keloid
B. Acute formation
C. Alarm
D. All of the above 51. Which condition can benefit
from massage?
46. What can be caused by A. Premenstrual syndrome
repetitive pronation and B. Psychiatric patients
supination of the forearm? C. Rheumatoid arthritis
A. Tennis elbow D. All of the above
B. Golfer's or pitcher's elbow
C. Carpal tunnel syndrome 52. When should heat be
D. Frozen shoulder avoided?
A. Inflammation
47. Which nerve pierces the B. Spasms
trapezius? C. Pain
A. Greater occipital D. Circulatory problems
B. Femoral
C. Axillary
D. Cranial
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53. Which are hydrotherapy 59. What is the most effective

applications? massage for reducing
A. Baths adhesions and excessive
B. Packs scarring?
C. Frictions A. Kneading
D. All of the above B. Percussion
C. Friction
54. Which would be most D. Effleurage
effective in reducing
spasticity? 60. What is an effect of massage
A. Deep heat on the cardiovascular system?
B. Whirlpool-type heat A. Decreases serotonin
C. Heat pack B. Reduces work load on heart
D. Cold C. Decreases systolic stroke
volume
55. Which is a fast rhythmic D. Decreases number of red and
stroke? white blood cells
A. Deep fiber friction
B. Superficial friction 61. Which is a percussion
C. Tapotement movement?
D. Vibration A. Cupping
B. Kneading
56. Which stroke would be best C. Gliding
for removing waste? D. Friction
A. Knuckling
B. Nerve strokes 62. Which moves one layer of
C. Kneading tissue over another?
D. Gliding A. Deep effleurage
B. Kneading
57. What is not a physical effect C. Tapping
of massage? D. Friction
A. Relieves muscle cramps and
spasms 63. When is petrissage typically
B. Increases circulation of blood used during a session?
and lymph A. Only at the beginning
C. Increases removal of B. Only at the end
metabolic waste C. To apply lubricant
D. Calms the nervous system D. In the middle
58. What is hyperplasia? 64. Which is a variation of

A. Scarring petrissage?
B. Thickening of connective A. One handed
tissue B. The "C" hand position
C. Flexibility C. The "V" hand position
D. Improved posture D. All of the above
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65. What is the most appropriate 71. If a client has tight muscles
stroke for massaging the from holding a telephone on
intercostals? the left shoulder, what is the
A. Percussion most appropriate treatment?
B. Compression A. Shorten left upper trapezius
C. Friction B. Lengthen right upper
D. Tapotement trapezius
C. Lengthen quadratus
66. How is HIV transmitted? lumborum
A. Blood D. Lengthen left splenius
B. Semen and vaginal secretions
C. Mother's milk 72. What is done if a client has
D. All of the above hallux valgus?
A. Lengthen abductor hallucis
67. What is the application of B. Lengthen adductor hallucis
ice? C. Lengthen flexor digitorum
A. Whirlpool bath longus
B. Full body steam bath D. Lengthen tibialis anterior
C. Diathermy
D. Cryotherapy 73. Which muscle is weak if a
client has low back pain,
68. What is the "R" in the buttock pain, and hamstring
R.I.C.E.S. first aid principle? strains when extending the
A. Rest trunk?
B. Recover A. Gluteus maximum
C. Rehabilitate B. Gastrocnemius
D. Run C. Erector spinae
D. Upper trapezius
69. Which is a proprioceptive
neuromuscular facilitation 74. What is also called side-
(PNF) technique? lying?
A. Hydrotherapy A. Asymmetric
B. Positional Release B. Body mechanics
C. Reiki C. Laterally recumbent
D. Effleurage D. Symmetric
70. If a client has flat-back 75. Where on the SOAP chart are
posture, what is the most symptoms related to the
appropriate treatment? current health concerns
A. Stretch right lateral trunk recorded?
muscles A. Subjective
B. Stretch left lateral thigh B. Objective
muscles C. Assessment
C. Stretch shoulder adductors D. Plan
D. Stretch hamstrings
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76. How many degrees of motion 81. Which are long and weak
is anatomic position with the left hip adducted and
considered? medially rotated, right hip
A. 0 degrees abducted and feet pronated?
B. 45 degrees A. Right lateral trunk muscles,
C. 90 degrees left hip abductors and right
D. 180 degrees hip adductors
B. Right peroneus longus and
77. When a muscle contracts brevis and left tibialis
with too much force, what posterior
does it usually overpower? C. Left mylohyoid and left
A. Flexors flexor digitorum longus
B. Abductors D. All of the above
C. Antagonist group
D. Synergists 82. What is genu varum?
A. Knee hyperextension
78. If a client has a forward head B. Knock-knees
position, what is most likely to C. Bowlegs
be true? D. Genu valgum
A. The hamstrings are long
B. The neck extensors are 83. What is used as a reference
strong when viewing a standing
C. The neck rotators are long posture?
D. The neck rotators are strong A. Plumb line
B. Tilt
79. If a client has kyphotic- C. Rotation
lordotic posture, which D. Zero position
muscles are most likely short
and strong? 84. How does a therapist test leg
A. Hip flexors adductors?
B. Neck flexors A. Client holds left leg position
C. External obliques against therapist's
D. Stylohyoid superior/cephalad pressure
80. As feet are influenced by position against therapist's
shoes with heels, what tends superior/cephalad pressure
to increase with heel height? C. Client holds position against
A. Abduction therapist's lateral pressure
B. Slight out-toeing on legs
C. Tendency away from parallel D. Client holds right foot
position position against therapist's
D. In-toeing inferior/caudal pressure
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85. Where on the SOAP chart 91. What therapy changes a

would the client's descriptions movement pattern and
of pain be documented? improves posture?
A. Subjective A. Feldenkrais
B. Objective B. Reflexology
C. Assessment C. Polarity therapy
D. Plan D. Swedish gymnastics
86. What is inflammation of a 92. Which identifies tender spots

tendon due to overuse? on muscle tissues that can
A. Plantar fasciitis refer pain to other parts of
B. Whiplash the body?
C. Tendonitis A. Hellerwork
D. Migraine B. Craniosacral therapy
C. Trigger point therapy
87. What is the freezing phase of D. Rolfing
frozen shoulder?
A. Acute 93. Which massage system uses
B. Subacute effleurage, petrissage,
C. Second stage vibration, friction, and
D. Chronic tapotement?
A. Greek
88. What is a condition that B. Indian
involves nerve compression? C. Chinese
A. Frozen shoulder D. Swedish
B. Bursitis
C. Torticollis 94. Which early massage system
D. Thoracic outlet syndrome used a gymnasium as a center
for exercise and massage?
89. What is treated by applying A. Chinese
techniques to the IT band, B. French
hamstrings, adductors, and C. Greek
quadriceps? D. German
A. Piriformis syndrome
B. Carpal tunnel syndrome 95. What NMT technique is a
C. Thoracic outlet syndrome variation of kneading?
D. Patellofemoral syndrome A. Ischemic compression
B. Skin rolling
90. What is characterized by C. Stretching
weak rhomboids, middle D. All of the above
trapezius, and thoracic
erector spinae?
A. Scoliosis
B. Flat-back posture
C. Hyperlordosis
D. Hyperkyphosis
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96. What uses long flowing 102. What is an example of a

strokes to connect the body as type of boundary?
a whole? A. Emotional
A. Trigger point therapy B. Passive range of motion
B. Aromatherapy C. Both A and B are correct
C. Esalen massage D. None of the above
D. Reiki
103. What are examples of how
97. Which section of a standards boundaries are created,
of practice would most likely managed, and changed?
contain guidance on breast A. Dual relationships
massage? B. Self-disclosure
A. Tax C. Touch
B. Business practices D. All of the above
C. Insurance
D. Prevention of sexual 104. Massaging a minor involves
misconduct what type of issue?
98. What is most likely to be a B. Scope of practice
consideration regarding C. Parental consent
geriatric massage? D. None of the above
A. Hostile touch
B. Influence of age on touch 105. What is the issue if a client
C. Cultural influences asks for information about
D. Gender issues another client who is their
former partner?
99. What is an example of a A. Dual relationship
violation of a code of ethics? B. Transference
A. Financial impropriety C. Countertransference
B. Right of refusal D. Confidentiality
C. Informed consent
D. All of the above 106. When can information
about a client be revealed to
100. What is an example of a others without the client's
violation of a code of ethics? consent?
A. Dating a client A. When required by law or a
B. Violations of laws court order
C. Violations of confidentiality B. When required to protect the
D. All of the above public
C. Answers A and B are correct
101. What is in the therapeutic D. None of the above
relationship?
A. Social needs
B. Rights as professionals
C. Medical advice
D. All of the above
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107. What is within the scope of 112. What provides a safe

practice for massage experience for clients?
therapists? A. Allow privacy for client while
A. Assessment changing
B. Diagnosis B. Sexual harassment
C. Both A and B are correct C. Both A and B are correct
108. What is assigning a name or 113. A therapist having

label to a certain group of discomfort in what area
signs or symptoms? would indicate the massage
A. Assessment table is probably too low?
B. Diagnosis A. Upper back
C. Both A and B are correct B. Lower back
D. None of the above C. Shoulders
D. Arms
prompts dual relationships? 114. What should be done with
A. Bartering rancid linens?
B. Protective gear A. Wash in ethyl alcohol
C. Both A and B are correct B. Hang out to dry
D. None of the above C. Discard
D. Save for undesirable clients
110. A therapist being
uncomfortable massaging a 115. What should be used to
client with hepatitis involves rinse the hands if there is
what type of issue? suspicion of bacterial
A. Dual relationship contamination?
B. Therapist's right of refusal A. Mild ethyl alcohol solution
C. Scope of practice B. Bleach
D. None of the above C. Sodium hypochlorite
111. What is appropriate if
sexual arousal occurs during a 116. What is the first step when
massage? administering first aid after a
A. Establish and maintain person has had a heart
appropriate boundaries attack?
B. Do not mention it under any A. Call 911
circumstances B. Loosen restrictive clothing
C. Both A and B are correct C. Assist with prescribed
D. None of the above medication
D. Have the person stop activity
and rest
Page 245
117. What are components of 123. What is gross income minus

wellness? expenses?
A. Nutrition and breathing A. Start-up costs
B. Relaxation and sleep B. Overhead
C. Exercise and stretching C. Net income
D. All of the above D. Marketing
118. Which archer stance is best 124. Which protects against slips
for which stroke? and falls?
A. Petrissage A. General premise liability
B. Effleurage insurance
C. Both A and B are correct B. Product liability insurance
D. None of the above C. Professional liability
insurance
119. What is the purpose of D. Premises fire damage
draping? insurance for renters
A. The client feels safe and
comfortable 125. Where is the code for
B. To make assessment easier massage therapy for
C. To comply with federal law insurance billing?
D. None of the above A. Business plan
B. Form 1099
120. What is the recommended C. 97000 series
number of servings per day of D. Schedule K-1
the fruit group?
A. Use sparingly
B. 1 to 2 servings
C. 3 to 5 servings
D. 11 to 12 servings

being an employee?
A. Steady income
B. Employer calculates and
withholds taxes
C. Employer provides facilities
and supplies
D. All of the above
122. What would be found in a

brochure?
A. Qualifications
B. Types of massages
C. Fees
D. All of the above
Page 246
Exam 19 Answer Key
1. C 43. A 85. A
2. B 44. A 86. C
3. A 45. C 87. A
4. D 46. A 88. D
5. C 47. A 89. D
6. A 48. A 90. D
7. D 49. D 91. A
8. C 50. C 92. C
9. D 51. D 93. D
10. C 52. A 94. C
11. A 53. D 95. B
12. C 54. D 96. C
13. B 55. C 97. D
14. C 56. C 98. B
15. D 57. D 99. A
16. B 58. B 100. D
17. D 59. C 101. B
18. A 60. B 102. A
19. D 61. A 103. D
20. B 62. D 104. C
21. C 63. D 105. D
22. D 64. B 106. C
23. A 65. B 107. C
24. A 66. D 108. B
25. B 67. D 109. A
26. B 68. A 110. B
27. C 69. B 111. A
28. C 70. D 112. A
29. B 71. D 113. B
30. B 72. B 114. C
31. C 73. A 115. A
32. A 74. C 116. D
33. C 75. A 117. D
34. B 76. A 118. B
35. C 77. C 119. A
36. D 78. B 120. C
37. A 79. A 121. D
38. D 80. D 122. D
39. D 81. A 123. C
40. D 82. C 124. A
41. A 83. A 125. C
42. C 84. C
Page 247
Exam 20
1. How is research validated? 7. What are irregular small bony

A. Further research to replicate plates found at the end of long
findings bones and in the center of
B. Publication other bones?
C. Revised hypothesis A. Periosteum
D. Internet search B. Piezoelectric
C. Trabeculae
2. What are the heart, liver, and D. Endoskeleton
lungs?
A. Tissues 8. Which system includes glands
B. Organs such as the hypothalamus,
C. Systems hypophysis, thyroid, and
D. Organelles thymus?
A. Gastrointestinal
3. What consists of elongated B. Urinary
cells that can use ATP to C. Endocrine
generate force? D. Respiratory
A. Nervous tissue
B. Muscle tissue 9. What is the universal recipient
C. Elastic fibers blood type?
D. Blood A. AB positive
B. AB negative
4. Which system includes C. RH positive
sebaceous glands, sweat D. O negative
glands, and breasts?
A. Reproductive 10. What type of immunity is
B. Musculoskeletal genetically determined?
C. Lymphatic A. Innate
D. Integumentary B. Acquired
C. Active
5. What is the fleshy part in the D. Pandemic
middle of the muscle?
A. Perimysium 11. Which system controls sex
B. Belly hormones and includes the
C. Tendon female mammary glands?
D. Aponeurosis A. Circulatory
B. Lymphatic
6. Which is the "rest and digest" C. Reproductive
nervous system? D. Urinary
A. Gastric
B. Sympathetic
C. Somatic
D. Parasympathetic
Page 248
12. What is the range of the 18. Which dermatome is located

length of the phase of healing by the toes, the most inferior?
in which the bleeding stops A. C2
and inflammation occurs? B. T12
A. Less than 24 hours C. S5
B. 2-3 days to 2-3 weeks D. L5
C. 5 to 6 weeks
D. 6 weeks to one year or 19. Which of these muscles
longer inserts on the clavicle?
A. Subclavius
13. Which region of the trunk B. Rhomboid major
has twelve vertebrae? C. Soleus
A. Dorsal D. Pec minor
B. Cervical
C. Lumbar 20. Shin splints are pain in what
D. Thoracic bone?
A. Humerus
14. Which means the ends are B. Tibia
bent inward, or bent toward C. Ulna
the midline: ><, knock-kneed? D. Metacarpal
A. Varus deformity
B. Valgus deformity 21. Where is the medial
C. Plantar epicondyle of the humerus?
D. Volar A. Anterior to the lateral
malleolus
15. Where is the humerus B. Inferior and lateral to
relative to the radius? acromion
A. Proximal C. Distal to iliac crest on side of
B. Distal hip
C. Superficial D. Directly medial from
D. Deep olecranon process
16. Which region of the trunk 22. What progresses down the
has five vertebrae? spine?
A. Synovial A. Lamina groove
B. Cervical B. Coracoid process
C. Lumbar C. Pubic crest
D. Thoracic D. Ischial tuberosity
17. What is the belly referred to

in the Shiatsu method?
A. Hara
B. Cervical region
C. Occipital region
D. Intercostal area
Page 249
23. Where are the jugular notch, 29. What is an eccentric

sternal angle, and xiphoid contraction of the biceps
process? femoris?
A. Medial malleolus, talus, A. Sit ups
navicular B. Deep knee bends
B. Left lumbar region C. Squats
C. C5 to T1, scalenes, clavicle D. All of the above
D. T2, T4 and T10 of vertebral
column 30. Which proprioceptors send
impulses to the central
24. What is the functional class nervous system that lead to
of the joints where the bones muscle relaxation?
of skull meet? A. Joint kinesthetic receptors
A. Synarthrosis B. Golgi tendon organs
B. Gomphosis C. Somatic reflex arcs
C. Ball and socket D. Muscle spindles
D. Biceps
31. What are small movements
25. Which is an action of essential for proper joint
infraspinatus? function?
A. Abduct the arm A. Hypomobility
B. Medially rotate the shoulder B. Joint play
C. Adduct the shoulder C. Arthrokinematics
D. Flex the knee D. Osteokinematics
26. Which muscle inserts on the 32. Which is a hinge joint?

head of the fibula? A. Hip
A. Psoas major B. Thumb
B. Biceps femoris C. Wrist
C. Pectoralis major D. Elbow
33. What is pain from an
27. Which muscle pronates and amputated limb?
supinates? A. Intractable pain
A. Deltoid B. Phantom pain
B. Supinator C. Referred pain
C. Pronator teres D. Acute pain
D. Brachioradialis
34. What is a physical injury or
28. Which muscle decreases the wound caused by external
space of the thoracic cavity? force or violence?
A. Trapezius A. Trauma
B. Internal oblique B. Inflammation
C. Internal intercostals C. Carpal tunnel syndrome
D. External intercostals D. Neoplasm
Page 250
35. What is the relative constant 40. What are the implications for
state maintained by the massage for a client taking
physiology of the body? anti-inflammatory
A. Homeostasis medications?
B. Feedback loop A. Avoid techniques that could
C. Stress cause inflammation
D. Stages of lifecycle B. Feedback mechanisms are
not accurate
36. Which is generally indicated C. The massage could reduce
for massage? muscle spasms
A. Infectious diseases D. All of the above
B. Hematoma
C. Joint stiffness 41. What natural supplement is
D. Vertigo used for coughs?
A. Eucalyptus
37. What refers to the tendency B. Bee pollen
for oscillating bodies to move C. NSAID
in a synchronized, harmonic D. Lavender
manner?
A. Entrainment 42. What is mainly caused by a
B. Biological rhythms Vitamin D deficiency?
C. Acute A. Osteoporosis
D. Homeostasis B. Greenstick fracture
C. Scurvy
38. What is a progressive D. Rickets
inflammatory condition that
may affect any part of the GI 43. What are symptoms of a
tract? disease?
A. Cirrhosis A. The study of a disease
B. Crohn's disease B. The expected outcome of a
C. Hepatitis B disease
D. Pneumonia C. An idiopathic disease
D. The described problems of a
39. What are the implications for disease
massage for a client taking
anticoagulants? 44. What are internal
A. Prescribe alternative perceptions or external stimuli
medications that demand a change in the
B. Stop the massage if the heart body?
rate slows to below 100 A. Circadian rhythms
beats per minute B. Denial
C. Avoid massage methods that C. Demands
can lead to bruising, D. Stressors
including compression
D. All of the above
Page 251
45. What is the second stage of 51. Which condition can benefit
the general adaptation from massage?
syndrome? A. Skin conditions such as mild
A. The fight-or-flight response dryness
B. Resistance reaction B. Stress and anxiety
C. Alarm reaction C. Temporomandibular joint
D. Pain dysfunction
D. All of the above
46. What is medial epicondylitis?
A. Tennis elbow 52. Which is increased as one of
B. Golfer's or pitcher's elbow the effects of massage?
C. Dislocation A. Lactic acid
D. Frozen shoulder B. Number of red and white
blood cells
47. Which nerve is associated C. Cortisol
with both the supinator and D. Substance P
the lateral head of the
triceps? 53. What are body polishes, cold
A. Greater occipital mittens, dry brush massages,
B. Femoral ice massages, salt glows, and
C. Axillary shampoos examples of?
D. Radial A. Baths
B. Packs
48. Where is the inguinal triangle C. Frictions
endangerment site? D. All of the above
A. Between the biceps and
triceps 54. For which condition could
B. SCM, mandible, and trachea cold be applied?
C. SCM, clavicle, and trapezius A. Frostbite
D. Sartorius, adductor longus, B. Cold allergy
inguinal ligament C. Swelling
D. Arthritis
49. What is a reflexive effect of
massage? 55. Which is best for moving
A. Venous return from one stroke to another?
B. Lymph flow A. Effleurage
C. Pain reduction B. Connective tissue massage
D. All of the above C. Jostling
D. Petrissage
on the skin? 56. Which stroke would be best
A. Reduces heart rate for bronchitis?
B. Reduces gland activity A. Cross fiber friction
C. Increases serotonin levels B. Cupping
D. Reduces superficial keloid C. Kneading
formation D. Gliding
Page 252
57. What is not a physical effect 63. Which stroke is appropriate

of massage? for tendonitis?
A. Relieves muscle cramps and A. Vibration
spasms B. Deep gliding
B. Improves circulation of blood C. Deep-transverse friction
and lymph D. Percussion
C. Enhances removal of
metabolic waste 64. Which lifts muscles off bone?
D. Reduced stress A. Effleurage
B. Petrissage
58. What is a psychological C. Percussion
effect of massage? D. Tapotement
A. Increases anxiety
B. Reduces stress 65. Which stroke is best for
C. Relieves muscle cramps insomnia?
D. Increases circulation A. Effleurage
B. Rocking
59. What is a stimulating C. Deep tissue
massage technique? D. Percussion
A. Gentle stroking
B. Strong percussion for a short 66. Which is a contraindication
period for pregnancy massage?
C. Prolonged percussion A. Pre-eclampsia
D. All of the above B. Back strain
C. Second or third trimester
60. What massage movement D. Pregnancy is always
brings about a dilation and contraindicated
flushing of the massaged area?
A. Reiki 67. What is a benefit of massage
B. Light stroking for the critically ill?
C. Deep stroking A. Improve mobility
D. All of the above B. Control pain
C. Allow for a more positive
61. Which is a petrissage attitude
movement? D. All of the above
A. Percussion
B. Kneading 68. When should heat therapy be
C. Gliding avoided?
D. Friction A. Pain
B. Stiffness in joints
62. Which is a trembling or C. Acute stage of injury
shaking movement? D. Chronic muscle spasms
A. Vibration
B. Kneading
C. Tapping
D. Friction
Page 253
69. What is not an effect of 73. What would trigger points

R.I.C.E.S. treatment? along the lateral neck flexors,
A. Vasodilation horizontal arm abductors,
B. Reduced inflammation internal arm rotators
C. Reduced swelling contribute to?
D. Vasoconstriction A. Brachial plexus impingement
B. Sciatica
70. If a client has kyphotic- C. Tension headaches
lordotic posture, what is the D. Low back pain
most appropriate treatment?
A. Lengthen gluteus maximus 74. What would be a good
and longus capitis position for performing on-site
B. Shorten rectus femoris and corporate massage?
splenius A. Supine
C. Lengthen adductor longus B. Prone
and oblique capitis superior C. Side-lying
D. Lengthen semimembranosus D. Seated
and internal intercostals
75. What is the use of touch to
71. If a client has a tendency examine?
towards kyphosis and a A. Gait assessment
depressed chest, what is the B. Needs assessment
most appropriate treatment? C. Posture assessment
A. Lengthen erector spinae D. Palpation
B. Lengthen left internal and
right external obliques 76. Where on the SOAP chart is
C. Lengthen anterior internal verbal information that clients
and external obliques share documented?
D. Lengthen hamstrings A. Subjective
B. Objective
72. What is done if a client has C. Assessment
the knee in a flexed position D. Plan
with medial rotation of the leg
on the thigh? 77. Which are relatively slow to
A. Lengthen soleus respond?
B. Lengthen peroneus brevis A. Postural muscles
C. Lengthen tibialis posterior B. Mover muscles
D. Lengthen popliteus C. Phasic muscles
D. Soft tissues
78. What could cause a hot area?

A. Increased connective tissue
formation
B. Diminished blood flow
C. Muscle spasm
D. Inactivity
Page 254
79. Which muscles are elongated 84. How does a therapist test
and weak with kyphotic- arm adductors?
lordotic posture? A. Client holds left leg position
A. Neck extensors against therapist's
B. External obliques superior/cephalad pressure
C. Arm flexors B. Client holds right hand
D. All of the above position against therapist's
80. As feet are influenced by C. Client holds position against
shoes with heels, what tends therapist's lateral pressure
to increase with heel height? on arms
A. In-toeing D. Client holds right arm
B. Pigeon-toes position against therapist's
C. Tendency toward parallel inferior/caudal pressure
position from out-toeing
D. All of the above 85. What is the next step of the
client consultation after
81. Which are long and weak performing a preliminary
with the left hip adducted and assessment?
medially rotated, right hip A. Schedule next appointment
abducted and feet pronated? B. Perform massage
A. Left lateral trunk muscles, C. Formulate treatment plan
right hip abductors and left D. SOAP chart
hip adductors
B. Left peroneus longus and 86. Where on the SOAP chart
brevis and right tibialis would the therapist's
posterior suggestions for stretches be
C. Tibia and fibula documented?
D. All of the above A. Subjective
B. Objective
82. What is the assessment when C. Assessment
the shoulders are depressed D. Plan
and the scapulae abducted?
A. Tight serratus anterior 87. What would not require
B. Tight soleus treatment for whiplash?
C. Weak upper trapezius A. Infra-hyoid
D. Weak quadratus lumborum B. Supra-hyoid
C. SCM
83. Where is the gravity line in D. Quadriceps
the side view of standing
posture? 88. What is golfer's elbow?
A. Coronal plane A. Trigger finger
B. Sagittal plane B. Lateral epicondylitis
C. Popliteal region C. Medial epicondylitis
D. Zero position D. Tennis elbow
Page 255
89. Which is a treatment for 94. Which massage system uses

bursitis? many of the Swedish
A. Cold in the acute stage movements?
B. Deep moist heat in the A. Chinese
chronic stage B. German
C. Joint play for hypomobile C. Greek
joints D. Indian
D. All of the above
90. What involves a thickening of neuromuscular therapy?
the IT band? A. Ischemic compression
A. Piriformis syndrome B. Skin rolling
B. Iliotibial band contracture C. Stretching
C. Thoracic outlet syndrome D. All of the above
D. Patellofemoral syndrome
96. Which is an energy
91. In polarity therapy, what technique?
does the right side represent? A. Trager method
A. Tschanpua B. Therapeutic touch
B. Positive expanding energy C. Trigger point therapy
C. The five elements D. All of the above
D. Yin and yang
97. What would exist when a
92. What was developed by Boris therapist sold products to a
Chaitow and Stanley Leif to client?
relieve tender muscle tissue A. Informed consent
and compressed nerves that B. Power differential
refer pain? C. Right of refusal
A. Reflexology D. Dual role
B. Neuromuscular therapy
C. Deep transverse friction 98. What is appropriate touch?
D. Hellerwork A. Hostile touch
B. Erotic touch
93. What would an aromatherapy C. Therapeutic touch
bath or massage oil of D. Sexual touch
chamomile, jasmine,
geranium, and rose be used 99. Which section of a standards
for? of practice would contain
A. Injury prevention guidance on personal
B. First aid limitations and relationships?
C. Stimulating A. Power differential
D. Soothing B. Accounting
C. Roles and boundaries
D. Prevention of insurance
fraud
Page 256
100. What is a consideration 105. Who can provide consent to

regarding touch when giving working on a minor?
chair massages at an A. Parents
international airport for B. Any relatives
foreign tourists? C. A Friend
A. Hostile touch D. All of the above
B. Influence of age on touch
C. Cultural influences 106. Practicing from home
D. Gender issues without the required permits
is what type of unethical
101. What is an example of a behavior?
violation of a code of ethics? A. Financial impropriety
A. Consistency B. Practicing beyond scope of
B. Right of refusal practice
C. Working on a minor without C. Violation of law
parental knowledge D. None of the above
D. Informed consent
107. What is appropriate for a
102. What is not a violation of a therapist to do when seeing a
code of ethics? client in a restaurant?
A. Violations of confidentiality A. Ask how the last massage
B. Scope of practice was
C. Dating a client B. Do not bring up anything
D. Violations of laws about the massage
C. Ask for a referral
103. What is out of the D. All of the above
A. Client-centered actions and 108. What is the therapist doing
words when observing tight
B. Consistency muscles?
C. Personal needs A. Assessment
D. All of the above B. Diagnosis
104. How are boundaries D. None of the above
created, managed, and
changed? 109. What is a condition that
A. Power differences, dual prompts dual relationships?
relationships, self-disclosure A. Employment
B. Time, location, language B. Pathologies
C. Clothing, space, touch, C. Both A and B are correct
money D. None of the above
D. All of the above
Page 257
110. What is done by 115. What is a safety practice

associations rather than regarding housekeeping and
governments? sanitation?
A. Licensing A. Store clean linens in a closed
B. Credentialing cabinet
C. Answer A and B are correct B. Store soiled linens in a
D. None of the above closed container
C. Maintain handwashing
111. Which is unethical? facilities with germicidal
A. Marketing soap
B. Business cards D. All of the above
C. Discrimination based on
gender or sexual orientation 116. What is a first aid safety
D. None of the above practice?
A. Keep a first aid kit on the
112. A recently licensed premises
therapist working under the B. Learn first aid and CPR
supervision of an experienced C. Keep emergency information
professional involves what in plain view
type of issue? D. All of the above
B. Power differential 117. What reduces strain on the
C. Scope of practice practitioner's neck?
D. None of the above A. Use the palmar sides of the
fingers and thumbs when
113. What is a guideline for the applying pressure
massage table? B. Keep the head up and the
A. 72 to 76 inches long shoulders down and relaxed
B. 20 to 24 inches wide C. Hyperextend the wrist
C. 5 to 6 inches of high density D. Use the forearms and elbows
foam padding for deep pressure
D. All of the above
118. Which horse stance is best
114. What uses phenols, bleach, for which stroke?
or alcohol? A. Effleurage
A. Sanitation B. Petrissage
B. Disinfection C. Both A and B are correct
C. Sterilization D. None of the above
D. All of the above
119. What ensures that the
client stays warm and feels
safe and comfortable?
A. Protective gear
B. Assessment
C. Draping
D. Body mechanics
Page 258

number of servings per day of
the milk, yogurt and cheese
group?
A. Use sparingly
B. 2 to 3 servings
C. 5 to 6 servings
D. 6 to 11 servings
121. Who prepares W-2 forms?

A. Independent contractors
B. Employer
C. Employees
122. How are donated services

used?
A. Marketing
B. Insurance
C. Licensing
D. Tax
123. What is the initial cost of

beginning a business?
A. Business plan
B. Form 1099
C. Mission statement
D. Start up costs
124. Which protects against

malpractice?
A. Life insurance
B. Product liability insurance
C. Professional liability
insurance
D. Premises fire damage
insurance for renters
125. What should be most

important for therapeutic
massage and bodywork
professionals?
A. Deductions
B. Overhead
C. Caring
D. Balance sheet
Page 259
Exam 20 Answer Key
1. A 43. D 85. C
2. B 44. D 86. D
3. B 45. B 87. D
4. D 46. B 88. C
5. B 47. D 89. D
6. D 48. D 90. B
7. A 49. C 91. B
8. C 50. D 92. B
9. A 51. D 93. D
10. A 52. B 94. B
11. C 53. C 95. D
12. B 54. C 96. B
13. D 55. A 97. D
14. B 56. B 98. C
15. A 57. D 99. C
16. C 58. B 100. C
17. A 59. B 101. C
18. D 60. C 102. B
19. A 61. B 103. C
20. B 62. A 104. D
21. D 63. C 105. A
22. A 64. B 106. C
23. D 65. A 107. B
24. A 66. A 108. A
25. C 67. D 109. A
26. B 68. C 110. B
27. D 69. A 111. C
28. C 70. C 112. B
29. D 71. C 113. A
30. B 72. D 114. B
31. B 73. A 115. D
32. D 74. D 116. D
33. B 75. D 117. B
34. A 76. A 118. B
35. A 77. A 119. C
36. C 78. C 120. B
37. A 79. B 121. B
38. B 80. D 122. A
39. C 81. B 123. D
40. D 82. C 124. C
41. A 83. A 125. C
42. D 84. C
Page 260
About the Author

Philip Martin McCaulay is the
President of Medical Massage Care
Authority LLC and a graduate of
Bodymechanics School of
Myotherapy and Massage in
Olympia, Washington. His other
massage publications include
Medical Massage Care’s Therapeutic
Massage National FSMTB Massage &
Bodywork Licensing Examination
MBLEx Study Guide, Medical Massage Care’s Therapeutic Massage
National Certification Practice Exams 2008 Edition and Medical Massage
Care’s Therapeutic Massage National Certification Exam Study Guide.
Martin has also written and published practice exam books and study
guides for licensing and certification exams in the pension, investment,
and real estate fields. With a B.A. in Mathematics from Indiana
University, Martin is a Fellow of the Society of Actuaries (FSA), a Fellow
of the Conference of Consulting Actuaries (FCA), a Member of the
American Academy of Actuaries (MAAA), and an Enrolled Actuary (EA).
Martin serves on the Education and Examination Committee of the
Society of Actuaries.
Page 261
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Fingertips. 3rd Edition. Barrytown, New York: Massage Therapy: Understanding, Assessing
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Benjamin, Ben and Cherie Sohnen-Moe. The
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Beck, Mary F. Theory and Practice of
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Biel, Andrew. Trail Guide to the Body. 3rd
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Braun, Mary Beth and Stephanie Simonson. 2005.
Introduction to Massage Therapy. Baltimore:
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Clemente, Carmine. Anatomy: A Regional 1997.
Atlas of the Human Body. 4th Edition.
Baltimore: Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, 1997. Thomas, C.L., ed. Taber’s Cyclopedic Medical
Dictionary. 19th Edition. Philadelphia: Davis
Fritz, Sandy. Fundamentals of Therapeutic Co., 2001.
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Thompson, Diana L. Hands Heal,
Fritz, Sandy and M. James Grosenbach. Communication, Documentation, and
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Anatomy, Physiology, Biomechanics and Edition. Baltimore: Lippincott Williams and
Pathology. 2nd Edition. St. Louis: Mosby, 2004. Wilkins, 2006.
Kendall, Florence Peterson, Elizabeth Kendall Tortora, Gerald, and Sandra Reynolds
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Muscles: Testing and Function with Posture and Collins Publishers, Inc., 2004.
and Pain. 5th Edition. Baltimore: Lippincott
Williams and Wilkins, 2005. Werner, Ruth. A Massage Therapist’s Guide
to Pathology. 2nd Edition. Baltimore: Lippincott
McIntosh, Nina. The Educated Heart: Williams and Wilkins, 2002.
Professional Boundaries for Massage
Therapists, Bodyworkers, and Movement Wible, Jean. Pharmacology for Massage
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Connection: Anatomy and Physiology. 2nd
Edition. Baltimore: Lippincott Williams and
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Medical Massage Care’s

FSMTB Massage &

Philip Martin McCaulay

Medical Massage Care Authority, LLC

Permission may be sought by contacting

Published in Cary, North Carolina, USA

Library of Congress Control Number: 2008912239

Reference List 262

Percent of Number of Question

1. Which refers to the 6. What type of cartilage is rigid

10. What receives oxygenated 16. Which actions occur in the

21. Where is the medial 27. Which muscle of the right

32. Which is a ball and socket 38. Which rhythms repeat

33. What is inflammation of the 39. What is the growth of a

52. What is the external 57. What is a physical effect of

62. Which stroke is generally 68. Which is not advisable for

64. Which stroke is not a type of 70. What is appropriate for a

86. What should be obtained 92. What type of sports massage

98. What is an example of a 104. What is name-dropping?

105. What is appropriate for a 110. What is appropriate for the

115. Which is a noninfectious 120. Which vitamin is

117. What uses leverage and 122. What would be used as a

Exam 1 Answer Key

1. Which is the study of how 6. What is a thin membrane of

24. What is the thick, lubricating 30. What is a contraction in

26. Which is an action of teres 32. What happens in an isometric

35. What is nonmalignant or not 40. What are non-narcotic pain

39. Which is true regarding 44. What is lateral epicondylitis?

46. What is associated with 51. What is an effect of massage

48. Which of the following is a 53. Which is decreased as one of

57. What is another name for 62. Which is a percussion

68. Which method applies cold? 73. Which muscles are

84. How does a therapist test 89. What is a painful significant

87. What is an overuse condition 93. How does aromatherapy

95. Which early massage system 100. What is not a violation of a

105. What is the issue if a client 110. What is needed if a client

115. The following are standard 120. What draping method

116. What is a universal 121. What amount of water is

Exam 2 Answer Key

1. Which refers to the structures 6. What is a connective tissue

3. What are lysosomes, 8. Which is a function of the

11. Which system provides 17. Where is the axillary region?

13. What is required for tissue 19. Which muscle is considered

22. How many metacarpals does 28. Which is an action of

34. What is a fungal disease? 40. What are antianginals,

45. What is a cervical 50. Which effect of massage

47. Which muscle does the 52. How do inactive muscles

49. What is a mechanical effect 54. What is the temperature of a

85. How does a therapist test 90. What is swayback posture?

96. Which uses doshas such as 102. What is out of the

97. What occurs when a 103. What is an example of a

107. What should the therapist 111. What is any action or

109. Guidance on which topic is 114. What is the most common

116. The following are steps for 121. A deficiency of which

Exam 3 Answer Key

1. What does physiology refer to? 6. What is an air cavity within a

3. What is the name for 8. Which is the main function of

22. Where is the peroneus 28. Which muscle abducts,

27. Which muscle originates at 33. What is the scientific field of

50. What is a reflex effect of 56. What is a PNF technique in

58. What is a physical effect of 64. What is the change in the

59. What is a massage technique 65. What is shaking?

70. In which muscles would a 74. What is a recommendation