Forouzan MCQs

(Pinoy Bix)
MCQ in Introduction to Data  A) multipoint
Communications and  B) point-to-point Answer: Option C
Networking  C) (a) and (b) :
 D) none of the above
14. Which agency developed standards
1. There are ______________ Internet for physical connection interfaces and
service providers. Answer: Option B
: electronic signaling specifications?

 A) regional 8. The information to be communicated  A) ISO

 B) local in a data communications system is the  B) ITU-T
 C) national and international _______.  C) ANSI
 D) all of the above  D) EIA
 A) Medium
Answer: Option D  B) Protocol Answer: Option D
:  C) Message :
2. ______ refers to the physical or logical  D) Transmission
15. A _______ is a data communication
arrangement of a network. system within a building, plant, or
Answer: Option C
: campus, or between nearby buildings.
 A) Topology
 B) Mode of operation 9. ________ defines how a particular  A) LAN
 C) Data flow pattern to be interpreted, and what  B) MAN
 D) None of the above action is to be taken based on that  C) WAN
interpretation.  D) none of the above
Answer: Option A
:  A) Syntax Answer: Option A
3. A ______ is a data communication  B) Semantics :
system spanning states, countries, or the  C) Timing
 D) None of the above 16. _______ refers to two characteristics:
whole world. when data should be sent and how fast it
Answer: Option B can be sent.
 A) MAN
:
 B) WAN  A) Semantics
 C) LAN 10. Frequency of failure and network  B) Timing
 D) none of the above recovery time after a failure are  C) Syntax
measures of the _______of a network.  D) none of the above
Answer: Option B
:  A) Performance Answer: Option B
4. A _______ connection provides a  B) Security :
dedicated link between two devices.  C) Reliability
 D) Feasibility 17. This was the first network.

 A) primary  A) CSNET
Answer: Option C
 B) multipoint  B) NSFNET
:
 C) point-to-point  C) ARPANET
 D) secondary 11. A television broadcast is an example  D) ANSNET
of _______ transmission.
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C
:  A) half-duplex :
5. Which topology requires a multipoint  B) simplex
 C) full-duplex 18. Devices may be arranged in a _____
connection? topology.
 D) automatic
 A) Bus  A) mesh
Answer: Option B
 B) Star  B) ring
:
 C) Mesh  C) bus
 D) Ring 12. Data flow between two devices can  D) all of the above
occur in a _______ way.
Answer: Option A Answer: Option D
:  A) simplex :
6. A ________ is a set of rules that  B) half-duplex
 C) full-duplex 19. _______ is the protocol suite for the
governs data communication. current Internet.
 D) all of the above
 A) protocol  A) UNIX
Answer: Option D
 B) forum  B) NCP
:
 C) standard  C) TCP/IP
 D) none of the above 13. _______ are special-interest groups  D) ACM
that quickly test, evaluate, and
Answer: Option A standardize new technologies. Answer: Option C
: :
7. In a ______ connection, two and only  A) Standards organizations
 B) Regulatory agencies 20. ________ is a collection of many
two devices are connected by a separate networks.
dedicated link.  C) Forums
 D) All of the above
  A) A WAN 27. In a _______ connection, more than  A) File transfer and access
 B) An internet two devices can share a single link.  B) Mail service
 C) A LAN  C) Remote log-in
 D) None of the above  A) multipoint  D) All the above
 B) point-to-point
Answer: Option B  C) primary Answer: Option D
:  D) secondary
21. In a ________ connection, three or 3. When data are transmitted from
Answer: Option A
more devices share a link. device A to device B, the header from A’s
:
layer 4 is read by B’s _______ layer.
 A) point-to-point 28. _______ refers to the structure or
 B) multipoint format of the data, meaning the order in  A) Transport
 C) (a) and (b) which they are presented.  B) Application
 D) none of the above  C) Physical
 A) Semantics  D) None of the above
Answer: Option B  B) Syntax
:  C) Timing Answer: Option A
 D) All of the above
22. Which organization has authority over
interstate and international commerce in 4. __________ provides full transport
Answer: Option B
the communications field? layer services to applications.
:

 A) FCC 29. An unauthorized user is a network  A) UDP

 B) IEEE _______ issue.  B) TCP
 C) ITU-T  C) ARP
 D) ISOC  A) Security  D) none of the above
 B) Reliability
Answer: Option A  C) Performance Answer: Option B
:  D) All the above
23. In the original ARPANET, _______ 5. The process-to-process delivery of the
Answer: Option A
were directly connected together. entire message is the responsibility of the
:
_______ layer.
 A) routers 30. ________ is an idea or concept that is
 B) host computers a precursor to an Internet standard.  A) Transport
 C) networks  B) Application
 D) IMPs  A) RCF  C) Physical
 B) ID  D) Network
Answer: Option D  C) RFC
:  D) none of the above Answer: Option A

24. Communication between a computer

Answer: Option C
and a keyboard involves ______________ 6. The ______ layer is responsible for
:
transmission. moving frames from one hop (node) to
31. In ______transmission, the channel the next.
 A) simplex capacity is shared by both
 B) half-duplex communicating devices at all times.  A) transport
 C) full-duplex  B) data link
 D) automatic  A) simplex  C) physical
 B) half-duplex  D) none of the above
Answer: Option A  C) full-duplex
:  D) half-simplex Answer: Option B

25. Which topology requires a central

Answer: Option C
controller or hub? 7. The _______ layer is responsible for
MCQ in Network Models delivering data units from one station to
 A) Mesh the next without errors.
 B) Bus 1. The ______ layer adds a header to the
 C) Star packet coming from the upper layer that  A) physical
 D) Ring includes the logical addresses of the  B) data link
sender and receiver.  C) transport
Answer: Option C  D) network
:  A) data link
 B) network Answer: Option B
26. The _______ is the physical path over
which a message travels.  C) physical
 D) none of the above 8. The session, presentation, and
 A) Protocol application layers are the ____ support
Answer: Option B layers.
 B) Signal
 C) Medium
 D) All the above 2. Which of the following is an application  A) user
layer service?  B) network
Answer: Option C  C) both (a) and (b)
:  D) neither (a) nor (b)
  B) port 22. The_____ address identifies a process
Answer: Option A  C) specific on a host.
 D) physical
 A) specific
9. The physical, data link, and network Answer: Option A  B) port
layers are the ______ support layers.
 C) IP
 D) physical
 A) network 16. The _______ layer coordinates the
 B) user functions required to transmit a bit
Answer: Option B
 C) both (a) and (b) stream over a physical medium.
 D) neither (a) nor (b)
 A) data link 23. The_________ layer is responsible for
Answer: Option A  B) transport the delivery of a message from one
 C) network process to another.
 D) physical
10. The ________ layer is responsible for
 A) transport
the process-to-process delivery of the Answer: Option D  B) network
entire message.
 C) physical
 D) none of the above
 A) transport 17. The ______ layer is responsible for
 B) physical the source-to-destination delivery of a
Answer: Option A
 C) network packet across multiple network links.
 D) data link
 A) network 24. The _________ layer enables the
Answer: Option A  B) physical users to access the network.
 C) data link
 D) transport  A) application
11. The _______ layer lies between the
 B) physical
network layer and the application layer. Answer: Option A  C) data link
 D) transport
 A) Data link
 B) Transport 18. Mail services are available to network
Answer: Option A
 C) Physical users through the _______ layer.
 D) None of the above 25. The TCP/IP _______ layer is
 A) Transport equivalent to the combined session,
Answer: Option B  B) Physical presentation, and application layers of
 C) Data link the OSI model.
 D) Application
12. The Internetworking Protocol (IP) is a
 A) data link
________ protocol. Answer: Option D  B) network
 C) physical
 A) connection-oriented  D) application
 B) reliable 19. The ____ created a model called the
:
 C) both a and b Open Systems Interconnection, which
Answer: Option D
 D) none of the above allows diverse systems to communicate.

Answer: Option D  A) IEEE 26. When a host on network A sends a

 B) ISO message to a host on network B, which
 C) OSI address does the router look at?
13. The _______ layer links the network  D) none of the above
support layers and the user support
 A) logical
layers. Answer: Option B  B) physical
 C) port
 A) session  D) none of the above
 B) transport 20. The _______ layer changes bits into
:
 C) data link electromagnetic signals.
Answer: Option A
 D) network
 A) Physical
Answer: Option B  B) Transport 27. As the data packet moves from the
 C) Data link upper to the lower layers, headers are
 D) None of the above _______.
14. ICMPv6 includes _______.
Answer: Option A  A) Rearranged
 A) IGMP  B) Removed
 B) ARP  C) Added
 C) RARP 21. IPv6 has _______ -bit addresses.
 D) Modified
 D) a and b :
 A) 128 Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D  B) 32
 C) 64
 D) variable 28. The physical layer is concerned with
15. The ____ address uniquely defines a the movement of _______ over the
host on the Internet. Answer: Option A physical medium.

 A) IP
  A) dialogs
 B) protocols
 C) bits 35. Why was the OSI model developed? 41. _______ is a process-to-process
 D) programs protocol that adds only port addresses,
:  A) The rate of data transfer was checksum error control, and length
Answer: Option C increasing exponentially information to the data from the upper
 B) Standards were needed to allow layer.
any two systems to communicate
29. To deliver a message to the correct  C) Manufacturers disliked the  A) IP
application program running on a host, TCP/IP protocol suite.  B) TCP
the _______ address must be consulted.  D) None of the above  C) UDP
:  D) none of the above
 A) physical Answer: Option B :
 B) port Answer: Option C
 C) IP
 D) none of the above 36. In the OSI model, as a data packet
: moves from the lower to the upper 42. The ______ layer establishes,
Answer: Option B layers, headers are _______. maintains, and synchronizes the
interactions between communicating
 A) removed devices.
30. Ethernet uses a ______ physical  B) added
address that is imprinted on the network  C) rearranged  A) session
interface card (NIC).  D) modified  B) physical
:  C) transport
 A) 32-bit Answer: Option A  D) network
 B) 6-byte :
 C) 64-bit Answer: Option A
 D) none of the above 37. In the OSI model, when data is
: transmitted from device A to device B,
Answer: Option B the header from A’s layer 5 is read by B’s 43. A port address in TCP/IP is ______
_______ layer. bits long.

31. The _______ layer is the layer closest  A) session  A) 16

to the transmission medium.  B) physical  B) 32
 C) transport  C) 48
 A) Network  D) presentation  D) none of the above
 B) Transport : :
 C) Physical Answer: Option A Answer: Option A
 D) Data link
:
Answer: Option C 38. The seven-layer _____ model 44. In the OSI model, encryption and
provides guidelines for the development decryption are functions of the ________
of universally compatible networking layer.
32. The OSI model consists of _______ protocols.
layers.  A) application
 A) ISO  B) presentation
 A) eight  B) OSI  C) session
 B) seven  C) IEEE  D) transport
 C) five  D) none of the above :
 D) three : Answer: Option B
: Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
45. TCP/IP is a ______ hierarchical
39. The Internet model consists of protocol suite developed ____ the OSI
33. The ________ address, also known as _______ layers. model.
the link address, is the address of a node
as defined by its LAN or WAN.  A) Eight  A) five-layer; before
 B) Seven  B) six-layer; before
 A) IP  C) Five  C) seven-layer; before
 B) port  D) Three  D) five-layer; after
 C) specific : :
 D) physical Answer: Option C Answer: Option A
:
Answer: Option D
40. In the OSI model, what is the main 46. The ________ address, also known as
function of the transport layer? the link address, is the address of a node
34. Layer 2 lies between the physical as defined by its LAN or WAN.
layer and the _______ layer.  A) process-to-process message
delivery  A) logical
 A) Data link  B) node-to-node delivery  B) port
 B) Transport  C) synchronization  C) physical
 C) Network  D) updating and maintenance of  D) none of the above
 D) None of the above routing tables :
: : Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C Answer: Option A
47. The _______ model shows how the 5. Baseband transmission of a digital  B) inverse of each other
network functions of a computer ought signal is possible only if we have a ____  C) the same
to be organized. channel.  D) none of the above

 A) ANSI  A) bandpass Answer: Option B

 B) CCITT  B) low-pass
 C) ISO  C) high rate
12. When propagation speed is multiplied
 D) OSI  D) low rate
by propagation time, we get the
:
________.
Answer: Option D Answer: Option B

 A) wavelength of the signal

48. The _______ layer ensures 6. ________ is a type of transmission  B) throughput
interoperability between communicating impairment in which the signal loses  C) distance a signal or bit has
devices through transformation of data strength due to the resistance of the traveled
into a mutually agreed upon format. transmission medium.  D) distortion factor

 A) network  A) Distortion Answer: Option C

 B) presentation  B) Attenuation
 C) transport  C) Noise
13. A _________ sine wave is not useful
 D) data link  D) Decibel
in data communications; we need to send
:
a _______ signal.
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B

MCQ in Data and Signals  A) single-frequency; composite

7. A sine wave in the ______ domain can  B) composite; single-frequency
1. If the maximum amplitude of a sine be represented by one single spike in the This is the correct answer.
wave is 2 V, the minimum amplitude is _____ domain.  C) single-frequency; double-
________ V. frequency
 A) time; phase  D) none of the above
 A) 2  B) frequency; time
 B) 1  C) time; frequency Answer: Option A
 C) -2  D) phase; time
 D) between -2 and 2 14. The _________ product defines the
Answer: Option C
number of bits that can fill the link.
Answer: Option C
8. If the bandwidth of a signal is 5 KHz  A) delay-amplitude
2. _________ can impair a signal. and the lowest frequency is 52 KHz, what  B) frequency-amplitude
is the highest frequency?  C) bandwidth-period
 A) Noise  D) bandwidth-delay
 B) Attenuation  A) 5 KHz
 C) Distortion  B) 47 KHz Answer: Option D
 D) All of the above  C) 57 KHz
 D) 10 KHz
15. _______ signals can have only a
Answer: Option D limited number of values.
Answer: Option C

3. ________is the rate of change with  A) Digital

respect to time. 9. In a time-domain plot, the horizontal  B) Analog
axis is a measure of ________.  C) (a) or (b)
 A) Time  D) None of the above
 B) Frequency  A) phase
 C) Amplitude  B) signal amplitude Answer: Option A
 D) Voltage  C) frequency
 D) time
16. Before data can be transmitted, they
Answer: Option B must be transformed to ________.
Answer: Option D

4. A signal is measured at two different  A) periodic signals

points. The power is P1 at the first point 10. _______ data are continuous and  B) electromagnetic signals
and P2 at the second point. The dB is 0. take continuous values.  C) aperiodic signals
This means ________.  D) low-frequency sine waves
 A) digital
 A) P2 equals P1  B) analog Answer: Option B
 B) P2 is zero  C) (a) or (b)
 C) P2 is much larger than P1  D) none of the above
17. Data can be ________.
 D) P2 is much smaller than P1
Answer: Option B
 A) digital
Answer: Option A
 B) analog
11. Frequency and period are ______.  C) (a) or (b)
 D) none of the above
 A) proportional to each other
Answer: Option C
  C) (a) or (b) 31. As frequency increases, the period
 D) None of the above ________.
18. ________ is a type of transmission
impairment in which the signal loses Answer: Option A  A) increases
strength due to the different propagation
 B) decreases
speeds of each frequency that makes up
 C) doubles
the signal. 25. A(n)_________ signal is a composite
 D) remains the same
analog signal with an infinite bandwidth.
 A) Noise Answer: Option B
 B) Distortion  A) digital
 C) Attenuation  B) analog
 D) Decibel  C) either (a) or (b) 32. If the available channel is a ____
 D) neither (a) nor (b) channel, we cannot send a digital signal
Answer: Option B directly to the channel.
Answer: Option A
 A) low-pass
19. Signals can be ________.
 B) low rate
26. A periodic signal completes one cycle
 C) bandpass
 A) digital in 0.001 s. What is the frequency?
 D) high rate
 B) analog
 C) either (a) or (b)  A) 1 Hz Answer: Option C
 D) neither (a) nor (b)  B) 100 Hz
 C) 1 KHz
Answer: Option C  D) 1 MHz 33. For a ______ channel, the Nyquist bit
rate formula defines the theoretical
Answer: Option C maximum bit rate.
20. A sine wave is ________.
 A) low-pass
 A) periodic and discrete 27. The _____ of a composite signal is the
 B) bandpass
 B) aperiodic and discrete difference between the highest and the
 C) noisy
 C) periodic and continuous lowest frequencies contained in that
 D) noiseless
 D) aperiodic and continuous signal.
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C  A) period
 B) bandwidth
 C) frequency 34. In a frequency-domain plot, the
21. _______ data have discrete states  D) amplitude horizontal axis measures the ________.
and take discrete values.
Answer: Option B  A) phase
 A) Analog  B) frequency
 B) Digital  C) slope
 C) (a) or (b) 28. ________ is a type of transmission
 D) peak amplitude
 D) None of the above impairment in which an outside source
such as crosstalk corrupts a signal.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
 A) Noise MCQ in Digital Transmission
 B) Distortion
22. For a ______ channel, we need to use  C) Attenuation 1. Which of the following encoding
the Shannon capacity to find the  D) Decibel methods does not provide for
maximum bit rate. synchronization?
Answer: Option A
 A) noiseless  A) RZ
 B) noisy  B) NRZ-L
 C) low-pass 29. _______ describes the position of the  C) NRZ-I
 D) bandpass waveform relative to time 0.  D) Manchester

Answer: Option B  A) Amplitude Answer: Option B

 B) Phase Solution:
 C) Frequency
23. What is the bandwidth of a signal that  D) Voltage 2. If the frequency spectrum of a signal
ranges from 1 MHz to 4 MHz? has a bandwidth of 500 Hz with the
Answer: Option B highest frequency at 600 Hz, what should
 A) 1 KHz be the sampling rate, according to the
 B) 3 MHz Nyquist theorem?
 C) 4 MHz 30. Given two sine waves A and B, if the
 D) none of the above frequency of A is twice that of B, then the  A) 200 samples/s
period of B is ________ that of A.  B) 500 samples/s
Answer: Option B  C) 1000 samples/s
 A) one-half  D) 1200 samples/s
 B) twice
24. _____ signals can have an infinite  C) the same as Answer: Option D
number of values in a range.  D) indeterminate from Solution:

 A) Analog Answer: Option B 3. In asynchronous transmission, the gap

 B) Digital time between bytes is _______.
  A) variable Solution: 16. There are three sampling methods:
 B) fixed __________.
 C) zero 10. In ______ schemes, the voltages are
 D) a function of the data rate on the both sides of the time axis. For
 A) ideal, natural, and flat-top
example, the voltage level for 0 can be
 B) ideal, sampled, and flat-top
Answer: Option A positive and the voltage level for 1 can be
 C) quantized, sampled, and ideal
Solution: negative.
 D) none of the above
4. ______ substitutes eight consecutive  A) unipolar Answer: Option A
zeros with 000VB0VB.  B) bipolar Solution:
 C) polar
 A) B4B8  D) all of the above 17. In _______encoding, we use three
 B) B8ZS levels: positive, zero, and negative.
 C) HDB3 Answer: Option C
 D) none of the above Solution:  A) unipolar
 B) polar
Answer: Option B 11. The ________ rate defines the
 C) bipolar
Solution: number of data elements sent in 1s; the
 D) none of the above
______ rate is the number of signal
5. The most common technique to elements sent in 1s.
Answer: Option C
change an analog signal to digital data is
Solution:
called __________.  A) signal; data
 B) data; signal 18. Block coding can help in _______ at
 A) sampling  C) baud; bit the receiver.
 B) PAL  D) none of the above
 C) PCM  A) Synchronization
 D) none of the above Answer: Option B  B) Error detection
Solution:  C) Attenuation
Answer: Option C  D) (a) and (b)
Solution: 12. The idea of RZ and the idea of NRZ-L
are combined into the ________ scheme.
Answer: Option D
6. The minimum bandwidth of
Solution:
Manchester and differential Manchester  A) Manchester
is ____ that of NRZ.  B) differential Manchester 19. In Manchester and differential
 C) both (a) and (b) Manchester encoding, the transition at
 A) the same as  D) neither (a) nor (b) the middle of the bit is used for
 B) twice __________.
 C) thrice Answer: Option A
 D) none of the above Solution:  A) bit transfer
 B) synchronization
Answer: Option B 13. ________ provides synchronization
 C) baud transfer
Solution: without increasing the number of bits.
 D) none of the above
7. The signal rate is sometimes called the  A) Line coding Answer: Option B
____ rate.  B) Block coding Solution:
 C) Scrambling
 A) bit  D) None of the above 20. _______ encoding has a transition at
 B) baud the beginning of each 0 bit.
 C) signal Answer: Option C
 D) none of the above Solution:  A) Differential Manchester
 B) Manchester
Answer: Option B 14. The Nyquist theorem specifies the
 C) RZ
Solution: minimum sampling rate to be_______.
 D) All the above
8. Unipolar, bipolar, and polar encoding  A) equal to the lowest frequency Answer: Option A
are types of _______ encoding. of a signal Solution:
 B) equal to the highest frequency
 A) line of a signal 21. In ______, the change or lack of
 B) block  C) twice the bandwidth of a signal change in the level of the voltage
 C) NRZ  D) twice the highest frequency of a determines the value of the bit.
 D) Manchester signal
 A) NRZ-L
Answer: Option A Answer: Option D  B) NRZ-I
Solution: Solution:  C) both (a) and (b)
 D) neither (a) nor (b)
9. ________ is normally referred to as 15. PCM is an example of _______
mB/nB coding; it replaces each m-bit conversion.
Answer: Option B
group with an n-bit group.
Solution:
 A) analog-to-analog
 A) Line coding  B) analog-to-digital 22. In ___________ there is always a
 B) Block coding  C) digital-to-digital transition at the middle of the bit, but the
 C) Scrambling  D) digital-to-analog bit values are determined at the
 D) None of the above beginning of the bit. If the next bit is 0,
Answer: Option B there is a transition; if the next bit is 1,
Answer: Option B Solution: there is none.
  A) Manchester 28. ______ finds the value of the signal  A) asynchronous serial
 B) differential Manchester amplitude for each sample; ____ finds  B) synchronous serial
 C) both (a) and (b) the change from the previous sample.  C) parallel
 D) neither (a) nor (b)  D) (a) and (b)
 A) DM; CM
Answer: Option B  B) DM; PCM Answer: Option D
Solution:  C) PCM; DM Solution:
 D) none of the above
23. In _______ encoding, the duration of 35. The first step in PCM is ________.
the bit is divided into two halves. The
Answer: Option C
voltage remains at one level during the  A) quantization
Solution:
first half and moves to the other level in  B) sampling
the second half. The transition at the 29. ______ substitutes four consecutive  C) modulation
middle of the bit provides zeros with 000V or B00V.  D) none of the above
synchronization.
 A) HDB3 Answer: Option B
 A) Manchester  B) B4B8 Solution:
 B) differential Manchester  C) B8ZSf
 C) both (a) and (b) 36. _______ encoding has a transition at
 D) none of the above
 D) neither (a) nor (b) the middle of each bit.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C Solution:  A) Manchester
Solution:  B) Differential Manchester
30. The ______ scheme uses three levels  C) RZ
24. The ________ mode provides (+V, 0, and -V) and three transition rules  D) All the above
synchronization for the entire stream of to move between the levels.
bits must. In other words, it guarantees Answer: Option D
that the data arrive at a fixed rate. Solution:
 A) 4B5B
 B) MLT-3
 A) isochronous 37. In ______ transmission, we send 1
 C) 2B1Q
 B) synchronous start bit (0) at the beginning and 1 or
 D) none of the above
 C) asynchronous more stop bits (1s) at the end of each
 D) none of the above byte.
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Answer: Option A  A) synchronous
Solution: 31. While there is (are) only _____ way(s)  B) asynchronous
to send parallel data, there is (are) _____  C) isochronous
25. The idea of RZ and the idea of NRZ-I subclass(es) of serial transmission.  D) none of the above
are combined into the ________ scheme.
 A) one; two Answer: Option B
 A) Manchester  B) one; three Solution:
 B) differential Manchester  C) two; three
 C) both (a) and (b) 38. In _______ transmission, bits are
 D) none of the above
 D) neither (a) nor (b) transmitted simultaneously, each across
its own wire.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B Solution:
Solution:  A) Asynchronous serial
32. Which quantization level results in a  B) Synchronous serial
26. In decoding a digital signal, the more faithful reproduction of the signal?  C) Parallel
receiver calculates a running average of  D) (a) and (b)
the received signal power, called the
 A) 2
_______. Answer: Option C
 B) 8
 C) 16 Solution:
 A) base  D) 32
 B) line 39. Which encoding method uses
 C) baseline alternating positive and negative values
Answer: Option D
 D) none of the above for 1s?
Solution:

Answer: Option C 33. A _________ digital signal includes  A) AMI

Solution: timing information in the data being  B) RZ
transmitted.  C) NRZ-I
27. In _________ transmission, we send  D) Manchester
bits one after another without start or
 A) self-synchronizing
stop bits or gaps. It is the responsibility of Answer: Option A
 B) self-transmitted
the receiver to group the bits. Solution:
 C) self-modulated
 D) none of the above
 A) synchronous 40. The data rate is sometimes called the
 B) asynchronous ___ rate.
Answer: Option A
 C) isochronous Solution:
 D) none of the above  A) bit
34. In _______ transmission, bits are  B) baud
Answer: Option A transmitted over a single wire, one at a  C) signal
Solution: time.  D) none of the above

Answer: Option A
Solution:  A) Line coding
 B) Block coding Answer: Option B
41. _______ provides redundancy to  C) Scrambling Solution:
ensure synchronization and inherent  D) None of the above
error detection. 6. Analog-to-analog conversion is needed
Answer: Option A if the available bandwidth is _______.
 A) Line coding Solution:
 B) Block coding  A) band-pass
 C) Scrambling 48. In a _____ scheme, all the signal  B) low-pass
 D) None of the above levels are on one side of the time axis,  C) either (a) or (b)
either above or below.  D) neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: Option B
Solution:  A) unipolar Answer: Option A
 B) polar Solution:
42. In _______ transmission, a start bit  C) bipolar
and a stop bit frame a character byte.  D) all of the above 7. In _____ transmission, the frequency
of the carrier signal is modulated to
 A) synchronous serial Answer: Option A follow the changing voltage level
 B) asynchronous serial (amplitude) of the modulating signal. The
 C) parallel MCQ in Analog Transmission peak amplitude and phase of the carrier
 D) (a) and (b) signal remain constant, but as the
1. In ________, the amplitude of the amplitude of the information signal
carrier signal is varied to create signal changes, the frequency of the carrier
Answer: Option B
elements. Both frequency and phase changes correspondingly.
Solution:
remain constant
43. Two common scrambling techniques  A) AM
are ________.  A) PSK  B) FM
 B) ASK  C) PM
 A) B8ZS and HDB3  C) FSK  D) none of the above
 B) AMI and NRZ  D) QAM
 C) NRZ and RZ Answer: Option B
 D) Manchester and differential Answer: Option B Solution:
Manchester Solution:
8. How many carrier frequencies are used
2. How many carrier frequencies are used in QPSK?
Answer: Option A
in BPSK?
Solution:
 A) 0
44. ___________ conversion involves  A) 0  B) 2
three techniques: line coding, block  B) 1  C) 1
coding, and scrambling.  C) 2  D) none of the above
 D) none of the above
 A) Analog-to-analog Answer: Option B
 B) Analog-to-digital Answer: Option B Solution:
 C) Digital-to-analog Solution:
 D) Digital-to-digital 9. Which of the following is not a digital-
3. The constellation diagram of 16-QAM to-analog conversion?
has ______ dots.
Answer: Option D
Solution:  A) FSK
 A) 4  B) ASK
45. The _____ scheme uses data patterns  B) 8  C) AM
of size 2 and encodes the 2-bit patterns  C) 16  D) PSK
as one signal element belonging to a  D) none of the above
four-level signal. Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C Solution:
 A) MLT-3 Solution:
 B) 4B5B 10. _______ conversion is the process of
4. AM and FM are examples of ________ changing one of the characteristics of an
 C) 2B1Q
conversion. analog signal based on the information in
 D) none of the above
the digital data.
Answer: Option C  A) analog-to-analog
Solution:  B) digital-to-digital  A) Analog-to-analog
 C) analog-to-digital  B) Digital-to-digital
46. In _____, the level of the voltage  D) digital-to-analog  C) Digital-to-analog
determines the value of the bit.  D) Analog-to-digital
Answer: Option A
 A) NRZ-I Solution: Answer: Option C
 B) NRZ-L Solution:
5. The Federal Communications
 C) both (a) and (b)
Commission (FCC) allows ______ kHz for 11. If the baud rate is 400 for a QPSK
 D) neither (a) nor (b)
each FM station. signal, the bit rate is ________ bps.
Answer: Option B
Solution:  A) 20  A) 100
 B) 100  B) 400
47. ________ is the process of converting  C) 200  C) 800
digital data to a digital signal.  D) none of the above  D) 1600
 18. The constellation diagram of BPSK has
Answer: Option C ______ dots. Answer: Option C
Solution: Solution:
 A) 0
12. In ________, the phase of the carrier 25. The Federal Communications
 B) 1
is varied to represent two or more Commission (FCC) allows ______kHz for
 C) 2
different signal elements. Both peak each AM station.
 D) none of the above
amplitude and frequency remain
constant.  A) 20
Answer: Option C
Solution:  B) 10
 A) PSK  C) 5
 B) FSK 19. The constellation diagram of QPSK  D) none of the above
 C) ASK has ______ dots.
 D) QAM Answer: Option B
 A) 4 Solution:
Answer: Option A  B) 2
Solution: 26. How many carrier frequencies are
 C) 1
used in BFSK?
 D) none of the above
13. Which of the following is not an
analog-to-analog conversion?  A) 2
Answer: Option A
Solution:  B) 1
 A) QAM  C) 0
 B) AM 20. In _______, the peak amplitude of  D) none of the above
 C) PM one signal level is 0; the other is the same
 D) FM as the amplitude of the carrier frequency. Answer: Option A
Solution:
Answer: Option A  A) OOK
Solution: 27. In _____ transmission, the phase of
 B) PSK
the carrier signal is modulated to follow
 C) FSK
14. How many carrier frequencies are the changing voltage level (amplitude) of
 D) none of the above
used in BASK? the modulating signal.
Answer: Option A
 A) 0 Solution:  A) AM
 B) 1  B) FM
 C) 2 21. If the bit rate for a 16-QAM signal is  C) PM
 D) none of the above 4000 bps, what is the baud rate?  D) none of the above

Answer: Option B  A) 1200 Answer: Option C

Solution:  B) 1000 Solution:
 C) 400
15. Quadrature amplitude modulation 28. _________ conversion is the
 D) 300
(QAM) is a combination of ___________. representation of analog information by
an analog signal.
Answer: Option B
 A) PSK and FSK Solution:
 B) ASK and FSK  A) Analog-to-analog
 C) ASK and PSK 22. ASK, PSK, FSK, and QAM are examples  B) Digital-to-digital
 D) none of the above of ________ conversion.  C) Analog-to-digital
 D) Digital-to-analog
Answer: Option C  A) analog-to-analog
Solution:  B) digital-to-digital Answer: Option A
 C) analog-to-digital Solution:
16. In _________, the frequency of the
 D) digital-to-analog
carrier signal is varied to represent data. 29. In _____ transmission, the carrier
Both peak amplitude and phase remain signal is modulated so that its amplitude
Answer: Option D
constant. varies with the changing amplitudes of
Solution:
the modulating signal.
 A) ASK 23. If the bit rate for an FSK signal is 1200
 B) FSK bps, the baud rate is ________.  A) PM
 C) PSK  B) FM
 D) QAM  A) 1200  C) AM
 B) 600  D) none of the above
Answer: Option B  C) 400
Solution:  D) 300 Answer: Option C
Solution:
17. If the bit rate for an ASK signal is 1200
Answer: Option A
bps, the baud rate is ________. 30. In QAM, both ________ of a carrier
Solution:
frequency are varied.
 A) 1200 24. The constellation diagram of BASK
 B) 600 has ______ dots.  A) phase and frequency
 C) 400  B) amplitude and phase
 D) 300  A) 0  C) frequency and amplitude
 B) 1  D) none of the above
Answer: Option A  C) 2
Solution:  D) none of the above Answer: Option B
Solution:
31. ________ uses two carriers, one in-  C) 0 to n Solution:
phase and the other quadrature.  D) n
9. In TDM, the transmission rate of the
Answer: Option D multiplexed path is usually _______ the
 A) QAM
Solution: sum of the transmission rates of the
 B) ASK
signal sources.
 C) FSK
3. Which multiplexing technique
 D) PSK
transmits digital signals?  A) equal to
Answer: Option A  B) less than
Solution:  A) WDM  C) greater than
 B) FDM  D) not related to
32. Given an AM radio signal with a  C) TDM
bandwidth of 10 KHz and the highest-  D) None of the above Answer: Option C
frequency component at 705 KHz, what is Solution:
the frequency of the carrier signal? Answer: Option C
Solution: 10. In a multiplexed system, ____ lines
share the bandwidth of _____ link.
 A) 710 KHz
4. The sharing of a medium and its link by
 B) 705 KHz
two or more devices is called _______.  A) 1; n
 C) 700 KHz
 D) Cannot be determined from  B) n; 1
given information  A) modulation  C) 1; 1
 B) multiplexing  D) n; n
Answer: Option C  C) encoding
Solution:  D) line discipline Answer: Option B
Solution:
33. A constellation diagram shows us the Answer: Option B
__________ of a signal element, Solution: 11. _________ utilization is the use of
particularly when we are using two available bandwidth to achieve specific
carriers (one in-phase and one 5. _______ is designed to be used in goals.
quadrature). wireless applications in which stations
must be able to share the medium  A) Amplitude
without interception by an eavesdropper  B) Frequency
 A) amplitude and frequency
and without being subject to jamming  C) Bandwidth
 B) amplitude and phase
from a malicious intruder.  D) None of the above
 C) frequency and phase
 D) none of the above
 A) Multiplexing Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B  B) Spread spectrum Solution:
Solution:  C) Modulation
 D) None of the above. 12. ____ is designed to use the high
34. If the baud rate for a 64-QAM signal is bandwidth capability of fiber-optic cable.
2000, what is the bit rate? Answer: Option B
Solution:  A) WDM
 A) 12000  B) FDM
6. ______ is an analog multiplexing  C) TDM
 B) 1000
technique to combine optical signals.  D) None of the above
 C) 400
 D) 300
 A) WDM Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A  B) FDM Solution:
 C) TDM
13. We can divide ____ into two different
MCQ in Bandwidth Utilization:  D) None of the above
schemes: synchronous or statistical.
Multiplexing and Spreading
Answer: Option A
1. The _______ technique uses M Solution:  A) WDM
different carrier frequencies that are  B) TDM
modulated by the source signal. At one 7. FDM is an _________technique.  C) FDM
moment, the sign modulates one carrier  D) none of the above
frequency; at the next moment, the  A) digital
signal modulates another carrier  B) analog Answer: Option B
frequency.  C) either (a) or (b) Solution:
 D) none of the above
14. In ________ TDM, each input
 A) DSSS
Answer: Option B connection has an allotment in the
 B) FHSS
Solution: output even if it is not sending data.
 C) FDM
 D) TDM
8. ______ can be applied when the  A) isochronous
bandwidth of a link (in hertz) is greater  B) statistical
Answer: Option B
than the combined bandwidths of the  C) synchronous
Solution:
signals to be transmitted.  D) none of the above
2. In synchronous TDM, for n signal
sources of the same data rate, each  A) TDM Answer: Option C
frame contains _______ slots.  B) FDM Solution:
 C) Both (a) or (b)
 D) Neither (a) or (b) 15. In ________ TDM, slots are
 A) n + 1
dynamically allocated to improve
 B) n – 1
Answer: Option B bandwidth efficiency.
  A) isochronous  A) DSSS  D) physical
 B) synchronous  B) FHSS
 C) statistical  C) FDM Answer: Option D
 D) none of the above  D) TDM Solution:

Answer: Option C Answer: Option A 3. _________ cable consists of an inner

Solution: Solution: copper core and a second conducting
outer sheath.
16. The word ______ refers to the 22. ________ is a digital process that
portion of a _______ that carries a allows several connections to share the  A) Twisted-pair
transmission. high bandwidth of a link.  B) Shielded twisted-pair
 C) Coaxial
 A) line; channel  A) WDM  D) Fiber-optic
 B) channel; link  B) TDM
 C) link; channel  C) FDM Answer: Option C
 D) line; link  D) None of the above Solution:

Answer: Option B Answer: Option B 4. __________ consists of a central

Solution: Solution: conductor and a shield.

17. Which multiplexing technique shifts 23. _______ is a digital multiplexing  A) Twisted-pair
each signal to a different carrier technique for combining several low-rate  B) Coaxial
frequency? channels into one high-rate one.  C) Fiber-optic
 D) none of the above
 A) FDM  A) WDM
 B) TDM  B) TDM Answer: Option B
 C) Both (a) and (b)  C) FDM Solution:
 D) None of the above  D) None of the above
5. _______ cable can carry signals of
Answer: Option A Answer: Option B higher frequency ranges than _______
Solution: Solution: cable.

18. Which multiplexing technique 24. In ________, we combine signals  A) Coaxial; twisted-pair
transmits analog signals? from different sources to fit into a larger  B) Twisted-pair; fiber-optic
bandwidth.  C) Coaxial; fiber-optic
 A) WDM  D) none of the above
 B) TDM  A) line coding
 C) FDM  B) block coding Answer: Option A
 D) (a) and (c)  C) spread spectrum Solution:
 D) none of the above
Answer: Option D 6. _________ are used for cellular phone,
Solution: Answer: Option C satellite, and wireless LAN
Solution: communications.
19. ________ is the set of techniques that
allows the simultaneous transmission of 25. Which multiplexing technique  A) Radio waves
multiple signals across a single data link. involves signals composed of light  B) Infrared waves
beams?  C) Microwaves
 A) Demodulating  D) none of the above
 B) Multiplexing  A) WDM
 C) Compressing  B) FDM Answer: Option C
 D) None of the above  C) TDM Solution:
 D) none of the above
Answer: Option B 7. The inner core of an optical fiber is
Solution: Answer: Option A _________ in composition.

20. ________ can be achieved by using MCQ in Transmission Media  A) copper

multiplexing; ______ can be achieved by  B) glass or plastic
using spreading. 1. When the angle of incidence is
 C) bimetallic
____________ the critical angle, the light
 D) liquid
beam bends along the interface.
 A) Privacy and antijamming;
efficiency Answer: Option B
 B) Privacy and efficiency;  A) less than Solution:
antijamming  B) equal to
 C) Efficiency; privacy and  C) more than 8. What is the major factor that makes
antijamming  D) none of the above coaxial cable less susceptible to noise
 D) Efficiency and antijamming; than twisted-pair cable?
privacy Answer: Option B
Solution:  A) insulating material
Answer: Option C  B) inner conductor
2. Transmission media lie below the
Solution:  C) diameter of cable
__________ layer.
 D) outer conductor
21. The ______ technique expands the
bandwidth of a signal by replacing each  A) application Answer: Option D
data bit with n bits.  B) transport Solution:
 C) network
9. Signals with a frequency below 2 MHz 22. Which of the following primarily uses
use _______ propagation. Answer: Option B guided media?
Solution:
 A) line-of-sight  A) radio broadcasting
16. ________ cable is used for voice and
 B) sky  B) satellite communications
data communications.
 C) ground  C) local telephone system
 D) none of the above  D) cellular telephone system
 A) Twisted-pair
Answer: Option C  B) Coaxial Answer: Option C
Solution:  C) Fiber-optic Solution:
 D) none of the above
10. In an optical fiber, the inner core is 23. When a beam of light travels through
_________ the cladding. Answer: Option A media of two different densities, if the
Solution: angle of incidence is greater than the
 A) less dense than critical angle, _______ occurs.
17. Signals with a frequency between 2
 B) denser than
MHz and 30 MHz use _______
 C) the same density as  A) refraction
propagation.
 D) another name for  B) reflection
 C) criticism
Answer: Option B  A) ground  D) incidence
Solution:  B) line-of-sight
 C) sky Answer: Option B
11. ________ cable consists of two  D) none of the above Solution:
insulated copper wires twisted together.
Answer: Option C 24. Which of the following is not a guided
 A) Twisted-pair Solution: medium?
 B) Coaxial
18. Transmission media are usually
 C) Fiber-optic  A) fiber-optic cable
categorized as ___________.
 D) none of the above  B) coaxial cable
 C) twisted-pair cable
Answer: Option A  A) determinate or indeterminate  D) atmosphere
Solution:  B) fixed or unfixed
 C) guided or unguided Answer: Option D
12. In fiber optics, the signal is  D) metallic or nonmetallic Solution:
__________ waves.
Answer: Option C 25. Microwaves are _________.
 A) radio Solution:
 B) light  A) omnidirectional
19. ________ are used for short-range
 C) infrared  B) bidirectional
communications such as those between a
 D) very low-frequency  C) unidirectional
PC and a peripheral device.
 D) none of the above
Answer: Option B
Solution:  A) Radio waves Answer: Option C
 B) Infrared waves Solution:
13. Signals with a frequency above 30  C) Microwaves
MHz use _______propagation.  D) none of the above 26. ________ cables carry data signals in
the form of light.
 A) line-of-sight Answer: Option B
 B) sky Solution:  A) Twisted-pair
 C) ground  B) Coaxial
20. _________ media transport
 D) none of the above  C) Fiber-optic
electromagnetic waves without the use
 D) none of the above
of a physical conductor.
Answer: Option A
Solution: Answer: Option C
 A) Guided Solution:
14. A parabolic dish antenna is a(n)  B) Unguided
___________ antenna.  C) Either (a) or (b) 27. Radio waves are _________.
 D) None of the above
 A) unidirectional  A) unidirectional
 B) bidirectional Answer: Option B  B) omnidirectional
 C) omnidirectional Solution:  C) bidirectional
 D) horn  D) none of the above
21. ________ cables are composed of a
glass or plastic inner core surrounded by
Answer: Option A Answer: Option B
cladding, all encased in an outside jacket.
Solution: Solution:

15. A(n) _______ medium provides a  A) Twisted-pair 28. In a fiber-optic cable, the signal is
physical conduit from one device to  B) Coaxial propagated along the inner core by
another.  C) Fiber-optic __________.
 D) none of the above
 A) unguided  A) refraction
 B) guided Answer: Option C  B) reflection
 C) either (a) or (b) Solution:  C) modulation
 D) none of the above  D) none of the above
 7. In a three-stage space division switch,  A) virtual-circuit
Answer: Option B if N = 200, the number of crosspoints is  B) datagram
______.  C) circuit-switched
MCQ in Switching  D) none of the above
1. Packet-switched networks can also be  A) 40,000
 B) less than 40,000 Answer: Option A
divided into _________ subcategories:
 C) greater than 40,000 Solution:
virtual-circuit networks and datagram
networks.  D) greater than 100,000
14. We can say that a packet switch has
_______ types of components.
Answer: Option B
 A) five
Solution:
 B) three  A) four
 C) two 8. A ________ network is made of a set  B) three
 D) four of switches connected by physical links,  C) two
in which each link is divided into n  D) none of the above
Answer: Option C channels.
Solution: Answer: Option A
 A) circuit-switched Solution:
2. In __________, each packet is treated
independently of all others.  B) line-switched
15. In a one-stage space division switch, if
 C) frame-switched
N = 200, the number of crosspoints is
 D) none of the above
 A) circuit switching ______.
 B) datagram switching
Answer: Option A
 C) frame switching  A) 20,000
Solution:
 D) none of the above  B) 40,000
9. In a banyan switch, for 8 inputs and 8  C) 30,000
outputs, we have _____ microswitches at  D) 10,000
3. Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200,
each stage.
then k must be equal to or greater than
Answer: Option B
_________.
 A) 2 Solution:
 B) 3
 A) 19 16. In a banyan switch, for 8 inputs and 8
 C) 4
 B) 21 outputs, we have _____ stages.
 D) 8
 C) 31
 D) 41  A) 2
Answer: Option C
Solution:  B) 3
Answer: Option A  C) 4
Solution: 10. In _________, there is no resource  D) 8
allocation for a packet.
4. In _________, resources are allocated
Answer: Option B
on demand.
 A) circuit switching Solution:
 B) datagram switching
 A) circuit switching 17. A switch in a datagram network uses
 C) frame switching
 B) datagram switching a routing table that is based on the
 D) none of the above
 C) frame switching ______ address.
 D) none of the above
Answer: Option B
Solution:  A) destination
Answer: Option B  B) source
Solution: 11. A _________ network is a cross  C) local
between a circuit-switched network and  D) none of the above
5. In _______ switching, the paths in the
a datagram network. It has some
circuit are separated from one another
characteristics of both. Answer: Option A
spatially.
Solution:
 A) packet-switched
 A) time-division 18. Traditionally, _____ methods of
 B) frame-switched
 B) two-dimensional switching have been important.
 C) virtual-circuit
 C) space-division
 D) none of the above
 D) three-dimensional  A) six
Answer: Option C  B) five
Answer: Option C  C) four
Solution:
Solution:  D) three
12. The most popular technology in time-
6. In a ________ network, two types of
division switching is called the Answer: Option D
addressing are involved: global and local.
_________. Solution:

 A) datagram 19. The network layer in the Internet is

 A) TSI
 B) virtual-circuit designed as a __________ network.
 B) STI
 C) circuit-switched
 C) ITS
 D) none of the above  A) circuit-switched
 D) none of the above
 B) datagram
Answer: Option B  C) virtual-circuit
Answer: Option A
Solution:  D) none of the above
Solution:

13. A switched WAN is normally Answer: Option B

implemented as a _______ network. Solution:
20. A ________ switch combines space-  A) five  A) packet-switched
division and time-division technologies to  B) four  B) message-switched
take advantage of the best of both.  C) three  C) circuit-switched
 D) two  D) none of the above
 A) SSS
 B) TST Answer: Option C Answer: Option C
 C) TTT Solution: Solution:
 D) none of the above
27. A ________ switch is a multistage 3. A traditional cable TV network
switch with microswitches at each stage transmits signals ______.
Answer: Option B
that route the packets based on the
Solution:
output port represented as a binary  A) downstream
21. In _______, the resources need to be string.  B) upstream
reserved during the setup phase; the  C) upstream and downstream
resources remain dedicated for the entire  A) TSI  D) none of the above
duration of data transfer phase until the  B) banyan
teardown phase.  C) crossbar Answer: Option A
 D) none of the above Solution:
 A) frame switching
Answer: Option B 4. The traditional cable TV system used
 B) datagram switching
Solution: ________cable end to end.
 C) circuit switching
 D) none of the above
28. The _______ address in the header of  A) twisted-pair
a packet in a datagram network normally  B) fiber-optic
Answer: Option C
remains the same during the entire  C) coaxial
Solution:
journey of the packet.  D) none of the above
22. Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200,
then n must be equal to or greater than  A) destination Answer: Option C
____.  B) source Solution:
 C) local
 D) none of the above 5. The telephone network is made of
 A) 40
______ major components.
 B) 30
 C) 20 Answer: Option A
 D) 10 Solution:  A) 4
 B) 3
29. Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200,  C) 2
Answer: Option D
then the minimum number of crosspoints  D) none of the above
Solution:
is greater than or equal to _______.
23. Circuit switching takes place at the Answer: Option B
________ layer.  A) 42,000 Solution:
 B) 20,000
 C) 18,000 6. Data from a computer are _______;
 A) physical
 D) 15,200 the local loop handles _______ signals.
 B) data line
 C) network
 D) transport Answer: Option D  A) analog; analog
Solution:  B) digital; digital
Answer: Option A  C) digital; analog
30. The simplest type of switching fabric  D) analog; digital
Solution:
is the ______ switch.
24. A ________ switch combines crossbar Answer: Option C
switches in several (normally three)  A) crossbar Solution:
stages.  B) crosspoint
 C) TSI 7. The original telephone network, which
 D) STS is referred to as the plain old telephone
 A) multiple path
system (POTS), was an ________ system.
 B) multiple crossbar
 C) multistage Answer: Option A
 D) none of the above  A) analog
MCQ in Telephone and Cable  B) digital
Answer: Option C Networks  C) digital as well as analog
Solution:  D) none of the above
1. To use a cable network for data
25. In _______ there are no setup or transmission, we need two key devices: a Answer: Option A
teardown phases. ________ and a _________. Solution:

 A) CT; CMTS 8. The protocol that is used for signaling

 A) circuit switching
 B) CM; CMTS in the telephone network is called
 B) datagram switching
 C) CM; CMS ______.
 C) frame switching
 D) none of the above  D) none of the above
 A) SSS
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B  B) SS7
Solution: Solution:  C) POP
 D) none of the above
26. We can divide today’s networks into 2. A local telephone network is an
____ broad categories. example of a _______ network. Answer: Option B
Solution:
9. _______technology is a set of  A) FDM; QAM 22. Another name for the cable TV office
technologies developed by the telephone  B) FDM; TDM is the _______.
companies to provide high data rate  C) PSK; FSK
transmission.  D) QDM; QAM  A) head end
 B) combiner
 A) LDS Answer: Option A  C) fiber node
 B) ASL Solution:  D) splitter
 C) DSL
16. The carrier that handles inter-LATA
 D) none of the above Answer: Option A
services is called a(n) _______.
Solution:
Answer: Option C
Solution:  A) IXC 23. The term modem is a composite word
 B) LEC that refers to the two functional entities
10. The local loop has _______ cable that  C) POP that make up the device: a signal
connects the subscriber telephone to the  D) none of the above _______ and a signal _______.
nearest end office.
Answer: Option A  A) demodulator; modulator
 A) fiber-optic Solution:  B) modulator; demodulator
 B) coaxial  C) modern; demo
17. The modern telephone network is
 C) twisted-pair  D) none of the above
now ________.
 D) none of the above
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C  A) digital Solution:
Solution:  B) digital as well as analog
 C) analog 24. The two most common digital
11. The second generation of cable  D) none of the above services are ________ service and
networks is called a(n) _________ ______.
network. Answer: Option B
Solution:  A) switched/56; DDS
 A) HCF  B) switched/56; switched/64
18. In an HFC network, the upstream data
 B) HFC  C) DDS; switched 64
are modulated using the _______
 C) CFH  D) leased; out-of-band
modulation technique.
 D) none of the above
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B  A) ASK Solution:
Solution:  B) PCM
 C) QAM 25. The United States is divided into
12. The largest portion of the bandwidth  D) QPSK many _______.
for ADSL carries _______.
Answer: Option D  A) IXCs
 A) upstream data Solution:  B) LECs
 B) downstream data  C) LATAs
19. _______ was designed as an
 C) control data  D) none of the above
alternative to the T-1 line.
 D) voice communication
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B  A) ADSL Solution:
Solution:  B) HDSL
 C) VDSL 26. The standard for data transmission
13. _______ is suitable for businesses  D) SDSL over an HFC network is called _______.
that require comparable upstream and
downstream data rates. Answer: Option B  A) ADSL
Solution:  B) CMTS
 A) SDSL  C) DOCSIS
20. HDSL encodes data using _______.
 B) ADSL  D) MCNS
 C) VDSL
 D) (b) and (c)  A) 2B1Q Answer: Option C
 B) 1B2Q Solution:
Answer: Option A  C) 4B/5B
Solution:  D) 6B/8T 27. In ________signaling, a portion of the
bandwidth is used for signaling and
14. The carrier that handles intra-LATA Answer: Option A another portion for data.
services is called a(n) _____ . Solution:
 A) mixed
21. In an HFC network, the downstream
 A) IXC  B) in-band
data are modulated using the _______
 B) LEC  C) out-of-band
modulation technique.
 C) POP  D) none of the above
 D) none of the above
 A) PCM Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B  B) QAM Solution:
Solution:  C) PSK
 D) ASK 28. Telephone companies provide two
15. DMT is a modulation technique that types of analog services: analog _______
combines elements of _______ and Answer: Option B services and analog _____services.
_______. Solution:
  A) leased; out-of-band 4. In cyclic redundancy checking, the  D) none of the above
 B) out-of-band; in-band divisor is _______ the CRC.
 C) switched; in-band Answer: Option B
 D) switched; leased  A) one bit less than Solution:
 B) one bit more than
Answer: Option D 11. A _____ error means that two or
 C) The same size as
Solution: more bits in the data unit have changed.
 D) none of the above
29. The HFC network uses _______ cable.  A) burst
Answer: Option B
Solution:  B) double-bit
 A) coaxial  C) single-bit
 B) twisted-pair 5. The ________ between two words is  D) none of the above
 C) fiber-optic the number of differences between
 D) a combination of (a) and (c) corresponding bits. Answer: Option A
Solution:
Answer: Option D  A) Hamming rule
Solution: 12. Adding 1 and 1 in modulo-2
 B) Hamming code
arithmetic results in _________.
 C) Hamming distance
30. In ______signaling, the same circuit is
 D) none of the above
used for both signaling and data.  A) 0
Answer: Option C  B) 1
 A) mixed Solution:  C) 2
 B) out-of-band  D) none of the above
 C) in-band 6. The _______ of a polynomial is the
 D) none of the above highest power in the polynomial. Answer: Option A
Solution:
Answer: Option C  A) range
Solution: 13. In ________ error correction, the
 B) power
receiver corrects errors without
 C) degree
31. Most popular modems available are requesting retransmission.
 D) none of the above
based on the ________standards.
Answer: Option C  A) onward
 A) X-series Solution:  B) forward
 B) V-series  C) backward
 C) VX-series 7. In modulo-2 arithmetic, __________  D) none of the above
 D) none of the above give the same results.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B  A) addition and subtraction Solution:
 B) addition and multiplication
MCQ in Error Detection and  C) addition and division
14. If the Hamming distance between a
Correction  D) none of the above
dataword and the corresponding
codeword is three, there are _____ bits in
1. Checksums use _________ arithmetic. error.
Answer: Option A
Solution:
 A) one’s complement arithmetic  A) 5
 B) two’s complement arithmetic 8. In cyclic redundancy checking, what is  B) 4
 C) either (a) or (b) the CRC?  C) 3
 D) none of the above  D) none of the above
 A) The quotient
Answer: Option A  B) The dividend Answer: Option C
Solution:  C) The divisor Solution:
2. The checksum of 1111 and 1111 is  D) The remainder
15. A simple parity-check code can detect
_________. __________ errors.
Answer: Option D
Solution:
 A) 0000  A) an odd-number of
 B) 1111 9. Which error detection method consists  B) an even-number of
 C) 1110 of just one redundant bit per data unit?  C) two
 D) 0111  D) no errors
 A) CRC
Answer: Option A  B) Checksum Answer: Option A
Solution:  C) Simple parity check Solution:
3. In modulo-11 arithmetic, we use only  D) Two-dimensional parity check
16. The Hamming distance between
the integers in the range ______, equal codewords is _________.
inclusive. Answer: Option C
Solution:
 A) 0
 A) 1 to 10 10. In _____ coding, we divide our  B) 1
 B) 0 to 10 message into blocks, each of k bits, called  C) n
 C) 1 to 11 ___.  D) none of the above
 D) none of the above
 A) block; blockwords Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B  B) block; datawords Solution:
Solution:  C) linear; datawords
17. In a linear block code, the _______ of  A) 4 Solution:
any two valid codewords creates another  B) 8
valid codeword.  C) 2 30. We add r redundant bits to each
 D) none of the above block to make the length n = k + r. The
resulting n-bit blocks are called
 A) ANDing
Answer: Option A _________.
 B) XORing
 C) ORing Solution:
 D) none of the above  A) codewords
24. The checksum of 0000 and 0000 is  B) datawords
__________.  C) blockwords
Answer: Option B
Solution:  D) none of the above
 A) 0000
18. In ________ error correction, the  B) 1111 Answer: Option A
receiver asks the sender to send the data  C) 0111 Solution:
again.  D) 1110
31. To guarantee the detection of up to 5
Answer: Option B errors in all cases, the minimum
 A) forward
Solution: Hamming distance in a block code must
 B) backward
be _______.
 C) retransmission
25. In one’s complement arithmetic, if
 D) none of the above
positive 7 is 0111, then negative 7 is  A) 11
________.  B) 5
Answer: Option C
Solution:  C) 6
 A) 1101  D) none of the above
19. We can divide coding schemes into  B) 1000
two broad categories: ________ and  C) 1111 Answer: Option C
______coding.  D) none of the above Solution:

Answer: Option B 32. A generator that contains a factor of

 A) linear; nonlinear
Solution: ____ can detect all odd-numbered errors.
 B) block; convolution
 C) block; linear
26. In block coding, if n = 5, the maximum  A) x
 D) none of the above
Hamming distance between two  B) 1
codewords is ________.  C) x+1
Answer: Option B
Solution:  D) none of the above
 A) 5
20. In modulo-2 arithmetic, we use only  B) 3 Answer: Option C
______.  C) 2 Solution:
 D) none of the above
33. _______codes are special linear block
 A) 1 and 2
Answer: Option A codes with one extra property. If a
 B) 0 and 1
Solution: codeword is rotated, the result is another
 C) 0 and 2
codeword.
 D) none of the above
27. Which error detection method uses
one’s complement arithmetic?  A) Convolution
Answer: Option B
Solution:  B) Cyclic
 A) Checksum  C) Non-linear
21. To guarantee correction of up to 5  B) CRC  D) none of the above
errors in all cases, the minimum  C) Simple parity check
Hamming distance in a block code must  D) Two-dimensional parity check Answer: Option B
be ________. Solution:
Answer: Option A
Solution: 34. The Hamming distance between 100
 A) 11
and 001 is ________.
 B) 6
28. The divisor in a cyclic code is normally
 C) 5
called the _________.  A) 0
 D) none of the above
 B) 1
Answer: Option A  A) redundancy  C) 2
Solution:  B) degree  D) none of the above
 C) generator
22. The _____of errors is more difficult  D) none of the above Answer: Option C
than the ______.
Answer: Option C MCQ in Data Link Control
 A) detection; correction Solution:
1. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if 5 is the number of
 B) correction; detection
29. In modulo-2 arithmetic, we use the bits for the sequence number, then the
 C) creation; correction
______ operation for both addition and maximum size of the receive window
 D) creation; detection
subtraction. must be _______.
Answer: Option B
Solution:  A) OR  A) 1
 B) XOR  B) 15
23. In block coding, if k = 2 and n = 3, we  C) AND  C) 16
have _______ invalid codewords.  D) none of the above  D) 31

Answer: Option B Answer: Option A

Solution: 8. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if 5 is the number of Answer: Option B
bits for the sequence number, then the Solution:
2. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if frames 4, 5, and 6 maximum size of the send window must
are received successfully, the receiver be _____. 14. In a Go-Back-N ARQ, if the window
may send an ACK _______ to the sender. size is 63, what is the range of sequence
numbers?
 A) 1
 A) 6  B) 15
 B) 7  C) 16  A) 1 to 63
 C) 5  D) 31  B) 1 to 64
 D) any of the above  C) 0 to 63
Answer: Option D  D) 0 to 64
Answer: Option B Solution:
Solution: Answer: Option C
9. In Stop-and-Wait ARQ, the Solution:
3. The Stop-And-Wait ARQ, Go-Back-N acknowledgment number always
ARQ, and the Selective Repeat ARQ are announces in ______ arithmetic the 15. Both Go-Back-N and Selective-Repeat
for ______ channels. sequence number of the next frame Protocols use a _________.
expected.
 A) noiseless  A) sliding window
 B) noisy  A) modulo-m  B) sliding frame
 C) either (a) or (b)  B) modulo-2  C) sliding packet
 D) neither (a) nor (b)  C) modulo-4  D) none of the above
 D) none of the above
Answer: Option B Answer: Option A
Solution: Answer: Option B Solution:

4. The _________Protocol, adds a simple Solution: 16. In _________, the configuration is

error control mechanism to the 10. In Selective Repeat ARQ, if 5 is the balanced. The link is point-to-point, and
_______Protocol. number of bits for the sequence number, each station can function as a primary
then the maximum size of the send and a secondary.
 A) Selective Repeat ARQ; Go-Back- window must be _____.
N ARQ  A) ARM
 B) Go-Back-N ARQ; Stop-and-Wait  A) 1  B) ABM
 C) Stop-and-Wait ARQ; Stop-and-  B) 15  C) NBM
Wait  C) 16  D) NRM
 D) none of the above  D) 31
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C Solution:
Solution: Solution: 17. Byte stuffing means adding a special
5. In PPP, the ________ is responsible for 11. _______ control refers to a set of byte to the data section of the frame
establishing, maintaining, configuring, procedures used to restrict the amount when there is a character with the same
and terminating links. of data that the sender can send before pattern as the ______.
waiting for acknowledgment.
 A) PAP  A) trailer
 B) CHAP  A) Flow  B) flag
 C) LCP  B) Error  C) header
 D) NCP  C) Transmission  D) none of the above
 D) none of the above
Answer: Option C Answer: Option B
Solution: Answer: Option A Solution:

6. HDLC is an acronym for _______. Solution: 18. The ______ Protocol has neither flow
12. In the Go-Back-N Protocol, if the size nor error control.
 A) Half-duplex digital link of the sequence number field is 8, the
combination sequence numbers are in ________  A) Selective-Repeat ARQ
 B) Host double-level circuit arithmetic,  B) Go-Back-N ARQ
 C) High-duplex line communication  C) Stop-and-Wait
 D) High-level data link control  A) modulo-256  D) Simplest
 B) modulo- 8
Answer: Option D  C) modulo-2 Answer: Option D
Solution:  D) none of the above Solution:

7. In Selective Repeat ARQ, if 5 is the 19. The most common protocol for point-
number of bits for the sequence number, Answer: Option A to-point access is the Point-to-Point
then the maximum size of the receive Solution: Protocol (PPP), which is a
window must be _____. 13. ______ control refers to methods of _________protocol.
error detection and correction.
 A) 1  A) byte-oriented
 B) 15  A) Flow  B) bit-oriented
 C) 16  B) Error  C) character-oriented
 D) 31  C) Transmission  D) none of the above
 D) none of the above
Answer: Option C Answer: Option A
Solution: Solution:
20. For Stop-and-Wait ARQ, for 10 data  A) ARM  D) neither (a) nor (b)
packets sent, _______ acknowledgments  B) NBM
are needed.  C) NRM Answer: Option A
 D) ABM Solution:
 A) less than 10
Answer: Option C 33. The _______Protocol has flow
 B) more than 10
Solution: control, but not error control.
 C) exactly 10
 D) none of the above
27. In a _________ protocol, the data  A) Selective-Repeat ARQ
section of a frame is a sequence of bits.  B) Stop-and-Wait
Answer: Option C
Solution:  C) Simplest
 A) bit-oriented  D) Go-Back-N ARQ
21. _________framing uses two  B) byte-oriented
categories of protocols: character-  C) either (a) or (b) Answer: Option B
oriented and bit-oriented.  D) none of the above Solution:

Answer: Option A 34. In Stop-and-Wait ARQ, we use

 A) Standard
Solution: sequence numbers to number the
 B) Fixed-size
frames. The sequence numbers are based
 C) Variable-size
28. In ________ framing, we need a on __________arithmetic.
 D) None of the above
delimiter (flag) to define the boundary of
two frames.  A) modulo-m
Answer: Option C
Solution:  B) modulo-2
 A) standard  C) modulo-4
22. _______ control refers to a set of  B) fixed-size  D) none of the above
procedures used to restrict the amount  C) variable-size
of data that the sender can send before  D) none of the above Answer: Option B
waiting for acknowledgment. Solution:
Answer: Option C
Solution: 35. In the _____ Protocol, the sender
 A) Flow
sends its frames one after another with
 B) Error
29. High-level Data Link Control (HDLC) is no regard to the receiver.
 C) Transmission
a _______ protocol for communication
 D) none of the above
over point-to-point and multipoint links.  A) Simplest
Answer: Option A  B) Selective-Repeat ARQ
Solution:  A) byte-oriented  C) Stop-and-Wait
 B) bit-oriented  D) Go-Back-N ARQ
23. In a ________ protocol, the data  C) character-oriented
section of a frame is a sequence of  D) none of the above Answer: Option A
characters. Solution:
Answer: Option B
Solution: 36. _________control in the data link
 A) bit-oriented
layer is based on automatic repeat
 B) character-oriented
30. Bit stuffing means adding an extra 0 request, which is the retransmission of
 C) either (a) or (b)
to the data section of the frame when data.
 D) none of the above
there is a sequence of bits with the same
pattern as the ________.  A) Flow
Answer: Option B
Solution:  B) Error
 A) trailer  C) Transmission
24. In _______ framing, there is no need  B) flag  D) none of the above
for defining the boundaries of frames.  C) header
 D) none of the above Answer: Option B
 A) standard Solution:
 B) fixed-size Answer: Option B
Solution: 37. In PPP, _______ is a three-way hand-
 C) variable-size
shaking authentication protocol in which
 D) none of the above
31. In the _________Protocol, if no the password is kept secret; it is never
acknowledgment for a frame has arrived, sent online.
Answer: Option B
we resend all outstanding frames.
Solution:
 A) PAP
25. The _______Protocol has both flow  A) Go-Back-N ARQ  B) LCP
control and error control.  B) Selective-Repeat ARQ  C) NCP
 C) Stop-and-Wait ARQ  D) CHAP
 A) Stop-and-Wait  D) none of the above
 B) Selective-Repeat ARQ Answer: Option D
 C) Go-Back-N ARQ Answer: Option A Solution:
 D) both (b) and (c) Solution:
38. In PPP, ________ is a simple
32. The Simplest Protocol and the Stop- authentication procedure with a two-step
Answer: Option D
and-Wait Protocol are for ______ process:
Solution:
channels.
26. In _________, the station  A) CHAP
configuration is unbalanced. We have  A) noiseless  B) PAP
one primary station and multiple  B) noisy  C) LCP
secondary stations.  C) either (a) or (b)  D) NCP
 Solution:
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B
Solution: 45. Data link control deals with the design Solution:
and procedures for ______
39. In the _________ protocol we avoid communication. 5. __________ augments the CSMA
unnecessary transmission by sending only algorithm to detect collision.
frames that are corrupted.  A) node-to-node
 B) process-to-process A) CSMA/CD
 A) Selective-Repeat ARQ  C) host-to-host B) CSMA/CA
 B) Stop-and-Wait ARQ  D) none of the above C) either (a) or (b)
 C) Go-Back-N ARQ D) both (a) and (b)
 D) none of the above Answer: Option A
Solution: Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A Solution:
Solution: 46. In _________ protocols, we use
________. 6. In the _________ method, after the
40. In ________ protocols, we use station finds the line idle, it sends its
________.  A) bit-oriented; character stuffing frame immediately. If the line is not idle,
 B) character-oriented; bit stuffing it continuously senses the line until it
 A) byte-oriented; bit stuffing  C) character-oriented; byte finds it idle.
 B) bit-oriented; bit stuffing stuffing
 C) character-oriented; bit stuffing  D) none of the above A) p-persistent
 D) none of the above B) nonpersistent
Answer: Option C C) 1-persistent
Answer: Option B D) none of the above
Solution: MCQ in Multiple Access
Answer: Option C
41. In the _____ Protocol, the sender 1.In _______, the stations share the Solution:
sends one frame, stops until it receives bandwidth of the channel in time.
confirmation from the receiver, and then 7. In the _____ method, time is divided
sends the next frame. A) FDMA into intervals. In each interval, a
B) CDMA reservation frame precedes the data
 A) Simplest C) TDMA frames sent in that interval.
 B) Stop-and-Wait D) none of the above
 C) Selective-Repeat ARQ A) token passing
 D) Go-Back-N ARQ Answer: Option C B) reservation
Solution: C) polling
Answer: Option B D) none of the above
Solution: 2. In ______, the chance of collision can
be reduced if a station senses the Answer: Option B
42. Stop-and-Wait ARQ is a special case medium before trying to use it. Solution:
of Go-Back-N ARQ in which the size of the
send window is ___. A) CSMA 8. In the _______ method, each station
B) MA has a predecessor and a successor.
 A) 1 C) CDMA
 B) 2 D) FDMA A) token passing
 C) 8 B) polling
 D) none of the above Answer: Option A C) reservation
Solution: D) none of the above
Answer: Option A
Solution: 3. In the _______ method, the stations in Answer: Option A
a network are organized in a logical ring. Solution:
43. ARQ stands for _______.
A) polling 9. The vulnerable time for CSMA is the
 A) Acknowledge repeat request B) token passing ________propagation time.
 B) Automatic retransmission C) reservation
request D) none of the above A) three times
 C) Automatic repeat quantization B) two times
 D) Automatic repeat request Answer: Option B C) the same as
Solution: D) none of the above
Answer: Option D
Solution: 4. In _______, the sequences are Answer: Option C
generated using orthogonal codes such Solution:
44. _______ in the data link layer the Walsh tables.
separates a message from one source to 10. In the _________ method, a special
a destination, or from other messages A) TDMA packet called a ______ circulates through
going from other sources to other the ring.
destinations.
B) CDMA
A) polling: poll request
 A) Controlling B) token passing: token
C) FDMA
 B) Framing C) reservation: control frame
 C) Digitizing D) none of the above
 D) none of the above D) none of the above
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B Solution:
11. The maximum throughput for Answer: Option A A) four
pure ALOHA is ________ per cent. Solution: B) three
C) two
A) 36.8 17. To avoid collisions on wireless D) none of the above
B) 18.4 networks, ________was invented.
C) 12.2 Answer: Option B
D) none of the above A) CSMA/CD Solution:
B) CSMA/CA
Answer: Option B C) either (a) or (b) 24. In __________, each station is forced
Solution: D) both (a) and (b) to send only at the beginning of the time
slot.
12. In ________, the available bandwidth Answer: Option B
is divided into frequency bands. Solution: A) pure ALOHA
B) slotted ALOHA
A) TDMA 18. In _____, each station is allocated a C) both (a) and (b)
B) CDMA time slot during which it can send data. D) neither (a) nor (b)
C) FDMA Each station transmits its data in its
D) none of the above assigned time slot. Answer: Option B
Solution:
Answer: Option C A) TDMA
Solution: B) CDMA 25. In _______ methods, the stations
C) FDMA consult one another to find which station
13. In ___________ methods, no station D) none of the above has the right to send.
is superior to another station and none is
assigned the control over another. Answer: Option A A) channelization
Solution: B) random access
A) controlled access C) controlled access
B) random access 19. In the _______ method, the primary D) none of the above
C) channelization device controls the link; the secondary
D) none of the above devices follow its instructions. Answer: Option C
Solution:
Answer: Option B A) token passing
Solution: B) reservation 26. In ________ each station sends a
C) polling frame whenever it has a frame to send.
14. In the ________method, a station D) none of the above
that has a frame to send senses the line. A) slotted ALOHA
If the line is idle, it sends immediately. If Answer: Option C B) pure ALOHA
the line is not idle, it waits a random Solution: C) both (a) and (b)
amount of time and then senses the line D) neither (a) nor (b)
again. 20. In _____, each station transmits its
data in its assigned time slot. Answer: Option B
A) 1-persistent A) TDMA Solution:
B) nonpersistent B) CDMA
C) p-persistent C) FDMA 27. In ______, the stations use different
D) none of the above D) none of the above codes to achieve multiple access.

Answer: Option B Answer: Option A A) CDMA

Solution: Solution: B) TDMA
C) FDMA
15. In ______, each station is allocated a 21. We discussed ________
D) none of the above
band to send its data. In other words, channelization protocols.
each band is reserved for a specific Answer: Option A
station, and it belongs to the station all A) four Solution:
the time. B) three
C) two 28. In _______, collisions are avoided
A) CDMA D) none of the above through the use of three strategies: the
B) FDMA interframe space, the contention
C) TDMA Answer: Option B window, and acknowledgments.
D) none of the above Solution:
A) CSMA/CD
22. In the ______ method, all data
Answer: Option B B) CSMA/CA
exchanges must be made through the
Solution: C) either (a) or (b)
primary device even when the ultimate
D) both (a) and (b)
16. In the _______method, after the destination is a secondary device.
station finds the line idle it sends or Answer: Option B
refrain from sending based on the A) polling Solution:
outcome of a random number generator. B) token passing
If the line is busy, it tries again. C) reservation 29. In the ________ method, a station
D) none of the above needs to make a reservation before
A) p-persistent sending data. Time is divided into
B) nonpersistent Answer: Option A intervals.
C) 1-persistent Solution:
D) none of the above A) token passing
23. We discussed ______ popular
B) polling
controlled-access methods.
C) reservation
D) none of the above 36. In slotted ALOHA, the vulnerable time C) 1000Base-T
is ______ the frame transmission time. D) none of the above
Answer: Option C
Solution: A) two times Answer: Option B
B) three times Solution:
30. In pure ALOHA, the vulnerable time is
C) the same as
______ the frame transmission time. 5. What is the hexadecimal equivalent of
D) none of the above
the Ethernet address 01011010
A) two times 00010001 01010101 00011000 10101010
Answer: Option C
B) three times 00001111?
Solution:
C) the same as
D) none of the above 37. In ________, a station monitors the A) 5A:81:BA:81:AA:0F
medium after it sends a frame to see if B) 5A:11:55:18:AA:0F
Answer: Option A the transmission was successful. If so, the C) 5A:88:AA:18:55:F0
Solution: station is finished. If, however, there is a D) 5A:18:5A:18:55:0F
collision, the frame is sent again.
31. The maximum throughput for slotted Answer: Option B
ALOHA is ________ per cent. Solution:
A) CSMA/CD
B) CSMA/CA 6. In Ethernet addressing, if all the bits
A) 36.8 C) either (a) or (b) are 1s, the address is _________.
B) 18.4 D) both (a) and (b)
C) 12.2
D) none of the above A) multicast
Answer: Option A
B) broadcast
Solution:
Answer: Option A C) unicast
Solution: 38. _______ is based on coding theory D) none of the above
and uses sequences of numbers called
32. _________ is a multiple-access chips. Answer: Option B
method in which the available bandwidth Solution:
of a link is shared in time, frequency, or
A) TDMA 7. If an Ethernet destination address is
through code, between different stations.
B) CDMA 07:01:02:03:04:05, then this is a ______
C) FDMA address.
A) Controlled access D) none of the above
B) Channelization
C) Random access A) broadcast
Answer: Option B
D) none of the above B) unicast
MCQ in Wired LANs: Ethernet C) multicast
Answer: Option B D) any of the above
Solution:
1. __________ uses four twisted pairs. Answer: Option C
33. ________ requires that each station A) 1000Base-LX Solution:
first listen to the medium before sending. B) 1000Base-T
8. Each station on an Ethernet network
C) 1000Base-SX
has a unique _______ address imprinted
A) FDMA D) none of the above
on its network interface card (NIC).
B) CDMA
C) MA Answer: Option B
A) 48-bit
D) CSMA Solution:
B) 32-bit
2. 1000Base-SX, 1000Base-LX, and C) 5-byte
Answer: Option D
1000Base-CX use _________ block coding D) none of the above
Solution:
and ________ line coding.
34. We have categorized access methods Answer: Option A
into _______ groups. A) 8B/10B; NRZ Solution:
B) 4B/5B; NRZ 9. Gigabit Ethernet has a data rate of
A) five C) 8B/10B; MLT-3 ________Mbps.
B) three D) 4B/5B; MLT-3
C) four
A) 10,000
D) two Answer: Option A
B) 1000
Solution:
C) 100
Answer: Option B
3. _________ uses two fiber-optic cables. D) 10
Solution:

35. In _______ methods, a station cannot A) 100Base-FX Answer: Option B

send unless it has been authorized by B) 100Base-T4 Solution:
other stations. C) 100Base-TX 10. In the Ethernet frame, the _______
D) none of the above field contains error detection
A) controlled access information.
B) channelization Answer: Option A
C) random access Solution:
A) address
D) none of the above
4. __________ uses two optical fibers B) preamble
and a short-wave laser source. C) CRC
Answer: Option A
D) none of the above
Solution:
A) 1000Base-LX
B) 1000Base-SX Answer: Option C
Solution: 17. In Ethernet addressing, if the least C) 10GBase-S
significant bit of the first byte is 1, the D) none of the above
11. 100Base-T4 uses ________ line address is _________.
coding. Answer: Option C
A) multicast Solution:
A) 8B6T B) broadcast
B) Manchester 24. Which of the following could not be
C) unicast
C) MLT-3 an Ethernet multicast destination?
D) none of the above
D) NRZ
Answer: Option A A) 7B:AA:C1:23:45:32
Answer: Option A Solution: B) 7C:56:21:1A:DE:F4
Solution: C) 83:32:21:21:4D:34
18. Gigabit Ethernet access methods D) B7:7B:6C:DE:10:00
12. ________uses long-wave 1310-nm include _______ mode.
single mode fiber. Answer: Option B
A) full-duplex Solution:
A) 10GBase-E B) half-duplex
B) 10GBase-S 25. __________ uses thin coaxial cable.
C) both (a) and (b)
C) 10GBase-L D) neither (a) nor (b)
D) none of the above A) 10Base2
Answer: Option C B) 10Base5
Answer: Option C Solution: C) 10Base-F
Solution: D) 10Base-T
19. _________ uses four pairs of voice-
13. ______defines a protocol data unit grade, or higher, twisted-pair cable. Answer: Option A
(PDU) that is somewhat similar to that of
HDLC. 26. In the Ethernet, the _______field is
A) 100Base-T4
actually added at the physical layer and is
B) 100Base-FX
A) LLC not (formally) part of the frame.
C) 100Base-TX
D) none of the above
B) LLU A) address
Answer: Option A B) CRC
Solution: C) preamble
C) MAC
D) none of the above
20. Standard Ethernet (10-Mbps) uses
D) none of the above _______ encoding. Answer: Option C
Solution:
A) AMI
Answer: Option A 27. Fast Ethernet has a data rate of
B) Manchester
Solution: ________Mbps.
C) NRZ
14. 100Base-TX uses _________ block D) differential Manchester
A) 10,000
coding and ________ line coding. B) 1000
Answer: Option B
Solution: C) 100
A) 8B/10B; NRZ D) 10
B) 4B/5B; MLT-3 21. In _________, auto negotiation allows
C) 4B/5B; NRZ two devices to negotiate the mode or Answer: Option C
D) 8B/10B; MLT-3 data rate of operation. Solution:

Answer: Option B 28. The purpose of the _______ is to

A) Ten-Gigabit Ethernet
Solution: provide flow and error control for the
B) Gigabit Ethernet
upper-layer protocols that actually
15. The _____ sublayer is responsible for C) Fast Ethernet
demand these services.
the operation of the CSMA/CD access D) Standard
method and framing. A) LLC
Answer: Option C
Solution: B) LLU
A) MAC C) MAC
B) MII 22. If an Ethernet destination address is D) none of the above
C) LLC 08:07:06:05:44:33, then this is a ______
D) none of the above address. Answer: Option A
Solution:
Answer: Option A A) broadcast
Solution: 29. __________ uses two pairs of
B) unicast
twisted-pair cable.
16. _______ is the most widely used local C) multicast
area network protocol. D) any of the above
A) 100Base-T4
Answer: Option B B) 100Base-TX
A) Token Bus C) 100Base-FX
Solution:
B) Ethernet D) none of the above
C) Token Ring 23. ________ uses short-wave 850-nm
D) none of the above multimode fiber. Answer: Option B
Solution:
Answer: Option B A) 10GBase-E
Solution: 30. ________ uses fiber-optic cable.
B) 10GBase-L
A) 10Base2 37. The _______ layer of Ethernet D) 1
B) 10Base-F consists of the LLC sublayer and the MAC
C) 10Base-T sublayer.
D) 10Base5 Answer: Option D
A) network Solution:
Answer: Option B B) data link
Solution: C) physical 2. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going
D) none of the above from a station to an AP, the address flag
31. In Ethernet addressing, if the least is _____.
significant bit of the first byte is 0, the
Answer: Option B
address is _________.
Solution: A) 01

A) broadcast 38. 100Base-FX uses _________ block

B) 10
B) multicast coding and ________ line coding.
C) unicast A) 8B/10B; NRZ
D) none of the above B) 4B/5B; MLT-3 C) 11
C) 8B/10B; MLT-3
Answer: Option C D) 4B/5B; NRZ-I D) 00
Solution:
Answer: Option D
32. ________ uses 1550-mm single mode Solution: Answer: Option B
fiber.
Solution:
39. Which of the following could not be
A) 10GBase-E an Ethernet unicast destination? 3. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going
B) 10GBase-S from one station in a BSS to another
C) 10GBase-L A) 46:56:21:1A:DE:F4 without passing through the distribution
D) none of the above B) 43:7B:6C:DE:10:00 system, the address flag is _________.
C) 48:32:21:21:4D:34
Answer: Option A D) 44:AA:C1:23:45:32 A) 11
Solution: B) 00
Answer: Option B C) 10
33. 1000Base-T uses ________ line Solution: D) 01
coding.
40. _________ uses thick coaxial cable.
Answer: Option B
A) MLT-3 Solution:
B) 4D-PAM5 A) 10Base2
C) Manchester B) 10Base5 4. In IEEE 802.11, the access method used
D) 8B6T C) 10Base-F in the PCF sublayer is ______.
D) 10Base-T
Answer: Option B A) polling
Solution: Answer: Option B B) controlled
Solution: C) contention
34. The maximum frame length for 10-
D) none of the above
Mbps Ethernet is ________ bytes. 41. The IEEE 802.3 Standard defines
_________ CSMA/CD as the access
Answer: Option A
A) 1200 method for first-generation 10-Mbps
Solution:
B) 1518 Ethernet.
C) 1500 5. In IEEE 802.11, a BSS without an AP is
D) none of the above A) non-persistent called an _________.
B) p-persistent
Answer: Option B C) 1-persistent A) an infrastructure network
Solution: D) none of the above B) an ad hoc architecture
C) either (a) or (b)
35. The minimum frame length for 10- Answer: Option C D) neither (a) nor (b)
Mbps Ethernet is _______bytes. Solution:
Answer: Option B
A) 128 42. _________ uses four twisted-pair
Solution:
B) 80 cables that connect each station to a
C) 32 common hub. 6. In IEEE 802.11, the addressing
D) none of the above mechanism can include up to
A) 10Base-F ______addresses.
Answer: Option D B) 10Base-T
Solution: C) 10Base5 A) six
D) 10Base2 B) five
36. __________uses two optical fibers
C) four
and a long-wave laser source. Answer: Option B D) none of the above

A) 1000Base-T MCQ in Wireless LANs Answer: Option C

B) 1000Base-SX Solution:
1. The original IEEE 802.11, has a data
C) 1000Base-LX
rate of ________ Mbps. 7. In Bluetooth, the _______ layer is
D) none of the above
roughly equivalent to the physical layer
Answer: Option C A) 11 of the Internet model.
Solution: B) 22
C) 6
A) baseband A) IEEE 802.5
B) radio Answer: Option D B) IEEE 802.11
C) L2CAP Solution: C) IEEE 802.2
D) none of the above D) IEEE 802.3
14. In IEEE 802.11, a BSS with an AP is
Answer: Option B sometimes referred to as ____________. Answer: Option B
Solution: Solution:
A) an infrastructure network
8. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________ B) an ad hoc architecture 21. In IEEE 802.11, a station with
mobility is either stationary (not moving) C) either (a) or (b) ________ mobility can move from one
or moving only inside a BSS. D) neither (a) nor (b) ESS to another.

A) ESS-transition Answer: Option A A) BSS-transition

B) no-transition Solution: B) ESS-transition
C) BSS-transition C) no-transition
D) none of the above 15. In IEEE 802.11, the ______ is a timer D) none of the above
used for collision avoidance.
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B
Solution: A) BSS Solution:
B) ESS
9. In Bluetooth, the L2CAP sublayer, is C) NAV 22. The IEEE 802.11g, uses _________.
roughly equivalent to the LLC sublayer in D) none of the above
LANs. A) DSSS
Answer: Option C B) OFDM
A) baseband Solution: C) FHSS
B) L2CAP D) either (a) or (c)
C) radio 16. In IEEE 802.11, the MAC layer frame
D) none of the above has ______ fields. Answer: Option B
Solution:
Answer: Option B A) four
Solution: B) six 23. In IEEE 802.11, the access method
C) five used in the DCF sublayer is _________.
10. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going D) none of the above
from one AP to another AP in a wireless A) CSMA/CA
distribution system, the address flag is Answer: Option D B) CSMA/CD
_____. Solution: C) ALOHA
D) none of the above
A) 10 17. Bluetooth uses ______method in the
B) 01 physical layer to avoid interference from Answer: Option A
C) 11 other devices or other networks. Solution:
D) 00
A) FHSS 24. The RTS and CTS frames in CSMA/CA
Answer: Option C B) DSSS ____ solve the hidden station problem.
Solution: C) FDMA The RTS and CTS frames in CSMA/CA
D) none of the above ____ solve the exposed station problem.
11. A Bluetooth network is called a
________. Answer: Option A A) cannot; cannot
Solution: B) can; cannot
A) scatternet C) cannot; can
B) bluenet 18. In Bluetooth, the _____ link is used D) can; can
C) piconet when data integrity is more important
D) none of the above than avoiding latency. Answer: Option B
Solution:
Answer: Option C A) SCL
Solution: B) ACO 25. In IEEE 802.11, communication
C) ACL between two stations in two different
12. A Bluetooth network consists of D) SCO BSSs usually occurs via two ________.
_____ primary device(s) and up to ____
secondary devices. Answer: Option C A) ESSs
Solution: B) APs
A) one; seven C) BSSs
B) one; five 19. In Bluetooth, the _____layer is D) none of the above
C) five; three roughly equivalent to the MAC
D) two; six sublayer in LANs. Answer: Option B
A) L2CAP
Answer: Option A B) radio 26. Bluetooth is a _______ technology
Solution: C) baseband that connects devices (called gadgets) in
D) none of the above a small area.
13. In Bluetooth, the current data rate is
____Mbps. Answer: Option C A) VLAN
Solution: B) wired LAN
A) 11 C) wireless LAN
20. IEEE has defined the specifications for
B) 5 D) none of the above
a wireless LAN, called _______, which
C) 2
covers the physical and data link layers.
D) none of the above Answer: Option C
Solution: A) 22
B) 11 Answer: Option C
27. The original IEEE 802.11, uses C) 2 Solution:
_________. D) 1
40. The IEEE 802.11b, uses _________.
A) FHSS Answer: Option A
B) OFDM Solution: A) OFDM
C) DSSS B) FHSS
D) either (a) or (c) 34. In IEEE 802.11, a station with C) DSSS
________mobility can move from one D) either (a) or (b)
Answer: Option D BSS to another, but the movement is
Solution: confined inside one ESS. Answer: Option C
Solution:
28. The IEEE 802.11a, uses _________. A) ESS-transition
B) no-transition 41. IEEE 802.11a, has a data rate of
A) DSSS C) BSS-transition _____Mbps.
B) OFDM D) none of the above
C) FHSS A) 6
D) either (a) or (c) Answer: Option C B) 2
Solution: C) 1
Answer: Option B D) none of the above
Solution: 35. The access method in Bluetooth is
________. Answer: Option A
29. In IEEE 802.11, a ___ is made of
stationary or mobile wireless stations and A) TDD-TDMA MCQ in Connecting LANs,
an optional central base station, known B) CDMA Backbone Networks, and
as the access point (AP). C) FDMA Virtual LANs
D) none of the above
A) BSS 1. VLANs create _________ domains.
B) CSS Answer: Option A A) multicast
C) ESS Solution: B) broadcast
D) none of the above C) unicast
36. The IEEE 802.11 wireless LANs use D) none of the above
Answer: Option A ________ types of frames.
Solution: Answer: Option B
A) five Solution:
30. The IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless B) six
LANs defines two services: ______ and 2. A ________ operates in both the
C) four
_______. physical and the data link layer.
D) none of the above
A) router
A) ESS; SSS Answer: Option D
B) bridge
B) BSS; ESS Solution:
C) repeater
C) BSS; ASS
37. In IEEE 802.11, _______ is an optional D) passive hub
D) BSS; DCF
access method that can be implemented
in an infrastructure network (not in an ad Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
hoc network). Solution:
Solution:
3. A _______ is a device that operates
31. In Bluetooth, the _____ link is used A) PCF only in the physical layer.
when avoiding latency (delay in data B) DCF
delivery) is more important than integrity C) either (a) or (b)
(error-free delivery). A) bridge
D) neither (a) nor (b) B) router
C) passive hub
A) SCL Answer: Option A
D) repeater
B) ACL Solution:
C) ACO
38. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is Answer: Option D
D) SCO
coming from an AP and going to a station, Solution:
Answer: Option D the address flag is _______. 4. A ______ switch is a faster and more
Solution: sophisticated router.
A) 00
32. IEEE 802.11b, has a data rate of B) 11
_____Mbps. A) two-layer
C) 10
B) four-layer
D) 01
C) three-layer
A) 5.5
D) none of the above
B) 2 Answer: Option D
C) 1 Solution:
Answer: Option C
D) none of the above
39. In Bluetooth, multiple ________ form Solution:
Answer: Option A a network called a _________.
5. _________ is just a connector.
Solution:
A) piconets: bluenet A) A passive hub
33. IEEE 802.11g, has a data rate of B) scatternet; piconets
_____Mbps. B) An active hub
C) piconets: scatternet
C) either (a) or (b)
D) bluenet; scatternet
D) neither (a) nor (b) 12. A bridge can use the _________ B) router
algorithm to create a loopless topology. C) bridge
Answer: Option A D) repeater
Solution: A) multiway tree
B) binary tree Answer: Option A
6. A ______ normally connects LANs and Solution:
C) spanning tree
WANs in the Internet and has a table that
D) none of the above
is used for making decisions about the 19. A ________ is a device in which the
route. stations are completely unaware of its
Answer: Option C
existence.
Solution:
A) router
B) bridge 13. ________ is actually a multiport A) simple bridge
C) repeater repeater. It is normally used to create B) transparent bridge
D) none of the above connections between stations in a C) passive hub
physical star topology. D) repeater
Answer: Option A
Solution: A) A passive hub Answer: Option B
B) An active hub Solution:
7. A repeater is a connecting device that C) either (a) or (b)
operates in the _______ layer of D) neither (a) nor (b) 20. A ______ has a table used in filtering
the Internet model. decisions.
A) network Answer: Option B
B) data link Solution: A) bridge
C) physical B) passive hub
D) all of the above 14. In a _____ backbone, the backbone is C) repeater
just one switch. D) none of the above
Answer: Option C
Solution: A) star Answer: Option A
B) bus Solution:
8. A _______ regenerates a signal,
C) ring
connects segments of a LAN, and has no 21. In a star-topology Ethernet LAN,
D) none of the above
filtering capability. _______ is just a point where the signals
Answer: Option A coming from different stations collide; it
A) router Solution: is the collision point.
B) repeater
C) bridge 15. A spanning tree is a graph in which A) A passive hub
D) none of the above there is no _____. B) An active hub
C) either (a) or (b)
Answer: Option B A) arc D) neither (a) nor (b)
Solution: B) loop
C) node Answer: Option A
9. In a(n) _______ configuration, the
D) branch Solution:
administrator types the port numbers,
the IP addresses, or other characteristics, 22. VLANs can_________.
Answer: Option B
using the VLAN software.
Solution:
A) provide an extra measure of security
A) automatic 16. A ________ bridge can forward and B) reduce network traffic
B) manual filter frames and automatically build its C) either (a) or (b)
C) semiautomatic forwarding table. D) both (a) and (b)
D) none of the above
A) dual Answer: Option D
B) transparent Solution:
Answer: Option B C) simple
Solution: D) none of the above 23. A ________ link acts as a LAN in a
remote backbone connected by remote
10. A _______ LAN allows several LANs to Answer: Option B bridges.
be connected. Solution:
A) multidrop
A) wired 17. A virtual local area network (VLAN) is B) point-to-point
B) wireless configured by _________. C) multipoint
C) backbone D) none of the above
D) none of the above A) hardware
B) physical wiring Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C C) software Solution:
Solution: D) none of the above
24. A __________ forwards every frame;
11. A backbone is usually a ______. Answer: Option C it has no filtering capability.
Solution:
A) star A) router
B) bus 18. A ________ is normally a computer B) bridge
C) either (a) or (b) that operates in all five layers of the C) passive hub
D) neither (a) nor (b) Internet model or seven layers of OSI D) repeater
model. 25. A _______ is a connecting device that
Answer: Option C operates in the physical and data link
Solution: A) gateway layers of the Internet model.
A) router 38. Some new two-layer switches, called
B) repeater Answer: Option B _______ switches, have been designed to
C) bridge Solution: forward the frame as soon as they check
D) none of the above the MAC addresses in the header of the
32. A _____ can be used as a connecting frame.
Answer: Option C device between two internetworks that
Solution: use different models.
A) come-through
B) go-through
26. A _______ can check the MAC A) gateway C) cut-through
addresses contained in the frame. B) router D) none of the above
C) bridge
A) repeater D) repeater Answer: Option C
B) bridge
C) router Answer: Option A MCQ in Wireless WANs: Cellular
D) passive hub Solution: Telephone and Satellite
33. Membership in a VLAN can be based Networks
Answer: Option B
Solution: on _________. 1. IS-95 uses the _______ satellite system
for synchronization.
27. ________ is part of the media; its A) MAC addresses
location in the Internet model is below B) IP addresses A) Iridium
the physical layer. C) port numbers B) GPS
D) all of the above C) Teledesic
A) A passive hub D) none of the above
B) An active hub Answer: Option D
C) either (a) or (b) Solution: Answer: Option B
D) neither (a) nor (b) Solution:
34. A ________receives a signal and,
Answer: Option A before it becomes too weak or corrupted, 2. ________ satellites can provide direct
Solution: regenerates the original bit pattern. It universal voice and data communications
then sends the refreshed signal. for handheld terminals.
28. In a(n) _____ configuration, the
stations are automatically connected or A) router A) Teledesic
disconnected from a VLAN using criteria B) bridge B) GPS
defined by the administrator. C) repeater C) Iridium
D) passive hub D) none of the above
A) automatic
B) semiautomatic Answer: Option C Answer: Option C
C) manual Solution: Solution:
D) none of the above
35. In a(n) ______ configuration, the 3. ________ is a second-generation
Answer: Option A initializing is done manually, with cellular phone system based on CDMA
Solution: migrations done automatically. and DSSS.

29. IEEE 802.1d specification, defines A) automatic A) IS-95

_________ criteria for a transparent B) semiautomatic B) D-AMPS
bridges. C) manual C) GSM
D) none of the above D) none of the above
A) two
B) four Answer: Option B Answer: Option A
C) three Solution: Solution:
D) none of the above
36. A _______ is a three-layer device that 4. GSM allows a reuse factor of _______.
Answer: Option C handles packets based on their logical
Solution: addresses. A) 7
B) 5
30. A two-layer switch is a ______. A) router C) 3
B) repeater D) 1
A) router C) bridge
B) repeater D) none of the above Answer: Option C
C) bridge Solution:
D) none of the above Answer: Option A
Solution: 5. In the third generation of cellular
Answer: Option C phones, ________ uses CDMA2000.
Solution: 37. A three-layer switch is a kind of
________. A) IMT-MC
31. In a bridged LAN, the _______ B) IMT-TC
algorithm creates a topology in which A) bridge C) IMT-SC
each LAN can be reached from any other B) router D) IMT-DS
LAN through one path only. C) repeater
D) none of the above Answer: Option A
A) binary tree Solution:
B) spanning tree Answer: Option B
C) unary tree Solution: 6. Iridium satellites are
D) none of the above ________satellites.
A) MEO 13. In a ______ handoff, a mobile station D) none of the above
B) LEO can communicate with two base stations
C) GEO at the same time. Answer: Option B
D) none of the above Solution:
A) soft
Answer: Option B 20. __________ is a second-generation
B) hard
Solution: cellular phone system.
C) medium
D) none of the above
7. In an IS-95 system, the frequency- A) GSM
reuse factor is normally _____. B) AMPS
Answer: Option A
Solution: C) D-AMPS
A) 7 D) none of the above
B) 5 14. IS-95 uses the ISM _______band.
C) 3 Answer: Option C
D) 1 A) 800-MHz Solution:
B) 900-MHz
Answer: Option D 21. In AMPS, each band is divided into
C) 1900-MHz
Solution: ______ channels.
D) either (a) or (c)
8. ___________ is a second-generation A) 1000
Answer: Option D
cellular phone system used in Europe. B) 900
Solution:
C) 800
A) IS-95 15. ________ satellites provide time and D) none of the above
B) GSM location information for vehicles and
C) D-AMPS ships. Answer: Option D
D) none of the above Solution:
A) Teledesic
Answer: Option B 22. In the third generation of cellular
B) GPS
Solution: phones, _______ uses W-CDMA.
C) Iridium
D) none of the above
9. A GEO is at the ________ orbit and A) IMT-TC
revolves in phase with Earth. B) IMT-DS
Answer: Option B
Solution: C) IMT-SC
A) inclined D) IMT-MC
B) polar 16. There is (are) _____ orbit(s) for a GEO
C) equatorial satellite. Answer: Option B
D) none of the above Solution:
A) two
Answer: Option C 23. In a ______ handoff, a mobile station
B) one
Solution: only communicates with one base
C) many
station.
D) none of the above
10. _______ is a first-generation cellular
phone system. A) soft
Answer: Option B
Solution: B) medium
A) GSM C) hard
B) AMPS 17. GPS satellites are ________ satellites. D) none of the above
C) D-AMPS
D) none of the above A) MEO Answer: Option C
B) LEO Solution:
Answer: Option B C) GEO
Solution: 24. AMPS uses ______ to divide each 25-
D) none of the above
MHz band into channels.
11. ____________ is a digital version of
Answer: Option A
AMPS. A) TDMA
Solution:
B) FDMA
A) GSM 18. The period of a satellite, the time C) CDMA
B) IS-95 required for a satellite to make a D) none of the above
C) D-AMPS complete trip around the Earth, is
D) none of the above determined by _________ law. Answer: Option B
Solution:
Answer: Option C A) Ohm’s
Solution: 25. ______ is based on a principle called
B) Newton’s
trilateration.
C) Kepler’s
12. In the third generation of cellular
D) none of the above
phones, _______ uses TDMA. A) Iridium
Answer: Option C B) Teledesic
A) IMT-TC Solution: C) GPS
B) IMT-SC D) none of the above
C) IMT-MC 19. LEO satellites are normally below an
D) IMT-DS altitude of ________ km. Answer: Option C
Solution:
Answer: Option B A) 3000
Solution: 26. ________ satellites will provide
B) 2000
universal broadband Internet access.
C) 1000
A) Teledesic 33. Teledesic satellites are B) 64
B) GPS _________satellites. C) 125
C) Iridium D) none of the above
D) none of the above A) MEO
B) LEO Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A C) GEO Solution:
Solution: D) none of the above
2. A linear SONET network can be
27. The __________ cellular phone __________.
Answer: Option B
system will provide universal personal
Solution:
communication. A) multipoint
34. GSM is a digital cellular phone system B) point-to-point
A) second-generation using ________. C) either (a) or (b)
B) third-generation D) neither (a) nor (b)
C) first-generation A) FDMA
D) none of the above B) CDMA Answer: Option C
C) TDMA Solution:
Answer: Option B D) both (a) and (c)
Solution: 3. The path overhead consists of ______
bytes.
Answer: Option D
28. AMPS has a frequency reuse factor of
Solution:
_______. A) 18
35. In the third generation of cellular B) 9
A) 7 phones, ______ uses a combination of W- C) 6
B) 5 CDMA and TDMA. D) 1
C) 3
D) 1 A) IMT-TC Answer: Option B
B) IMT-SC Solution:
Answer: Option A C) IMT-DS
Solution: 4. _______ is a standard developed by
D) IMT-MC
ITU-T.
29. AMPS operates in the ISM _____
Answer: Option A
band. A) SONET
Solution:
B) SDH
A) 1800-MHz 36. MEO satellites are located at altitudes C) either (a) or (b)
B) 900-MHz between km. D) neither (a) nor (b)
C) 800-MHz
D) none of the above A) 5000 and 10,000 Answer: Option B
B) 5000 and 15,000 Solution:
Answer: Option C C) 3000 and 5000
Solution: 5. A ______ is the portion of the network
D) none of the above
between two multiplexers.
30. Low-Earth-orbit (LEO) satellites have
Answer: Option B
_____ orbits. A) line
Solution:
B) path
A) polar 37. IS-95 is based on ____________. C) section
B) inclined D) none of the above
C) equatorial A) DSSS
D) none of the above B) FDMA Answer: Option A
C) CDMA Solution:
Answer: Option A D) all of the above
Solution: 6. A ________ is a repeater.
Answer: Option D
31. The signal from a satellite is normally A) ADM
Solution:
aimed at a specific area called the B) regenerator
_________. 38. D-AMPS uses ______ to divide each C) STS multiplexer/demultiplexer
25-MHz band into channels. D) none of the above
A) effect
B) footprint A) FDMA Answer: Option B
C) path B) CDMA Solution:
D) none of the above C) TDMA
7. The ______ layer is responsible for the
D) both (a) and (c)
Answer: Option B movement of a signal across a physical
Solution: section.
Answer: Option D
32. _______ is an analog cellular phone MCQ in Synchronous Optical A) path
system using FDMA.
Network (SONET) / B) section
Synchronous Digital Hierarchy C) photonic
A) GSM D) line
(SDH)
B) AMPS
C) D-AMPS 1. In SONET each frame lasts _______ Answer: Option B
D) none of the above microseconds. Solution:

Answer: Option B 8. In ______ APS, there is one working

A) 20 line and one protection line. The data are
Solution:
normally sent on the working line until it D) section A) line
fails. B) path
Answer: Option A C) section
A) one-to-one Solution: D) none of the above
B) one-plus-one
15. An STS multiplexer is a ______ device. Answer: Option B
C) one-to-many
D) none of the above Solution:
A) four-layer
B) three-layer 22. The _______ layer corresponds to the
Answer: Option A
C) two-layer physical layer of the OSI model.
Solution:
D) one-layer
9. Line overhead consists of ________ A) photonic
bytes. Answer: Option A B) path
Solution: C) line
A) 18 D) section
16. A ring SONET network can be
B) 9
_________. Answer: Option A
C) 6
D) 1 Solution:
A) bidirectional
B) unidirectional 23. SONET is a _______ TDM system.
Answer: Option A
Solution: C) either (a) or (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b) A) statistical
10. In SONET, for each frame, the bytes B) asynchronous
are transmitted __________. Answer: Option C C) synchronous
Solution: D) none of the above
A) from left to the right, bottom to top
17. _______ is a standard developed by Answer: Option C
B) from left to the right, top to bottom
ANSI for fiber-optic networks. Solution:
C) from right to the left, top to bottom
D) from right to the left, bottom to top
A) SDH 24. An STS-3 frame is made of ______
B) SONET rows.
Answer: Option B
Solution: C) either (a) or (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b) A) 27
11. Each ________in a SONET frame can B) 9
carry a digitized voice channel. Answer: Option B C) 1
Solution: D) none of the above
A) frame
18. An add/drop multiplexer is a ______ Answer: Option B
B) bit
device. Solution:
C) byte
D) none of the above
A) four-layer 25. SONET defines _______ layers.
Answer: Option C B) three-layer
Solution: C) two-layer A) five
D) one-layer B) four
12. An STS-1 frame is made C) three
______columns. Answer: Option B D) two
Solution:
A) 90 Answer: Option B
19. In SONET, for each byte, the bits are Solution:
B) 9
transmitted ____________.
C) 1
26. In ________ APS, there are normally
D) none of the above
A) from most significant to the least two lines: one working line and one
significant protection line. Both lines are active all
Answer: Option A
B) from least significant to the most the time.
Solution:
significant
13. The ______ layer is responsible for C) three at a time A) one-to-one
the movement of a signal from its optical D) two at a time B) one-to-many
source to its optical destination. C) one-plus-one
Answer: Option A D) none of the above
A) line Solution:
B) path Answer: Option C
20. A _______ is the optical Solution:
C) photonic
link connecting two neighbor devices.
D) section
27. __________ allow insertion and
A) path extraction of signals.
Answer: Option B
B) line
Solution:
C) section A) STS multiplexer/demultiplexers
14. The ____ layer is responsible for the D) none of the above B) regenerators
movement of a signal across a physical C) ADMs
line. Answer: Option C D) none of the above
Solution:
A) line Answer: Option C
21. A ______is the end-to-end portion of
B) path Solution:
the network between two STS
C) photonic multiplexers.
28. An STS-3 frame is made of ________ Answer: Option A 2. In Frame Relay, an address can be
columns. Solution: ________ bytes.

35. SONET network topologies can be

A) 270 A) 2 to 3
__________.
B) 90 B) 2 to 4
C) 9 C) only f2
D) none of the above A) ring D) none of the above
B) mesh
Answer: Option A C) linear Answer: Option B
Solution: D) all of the above Solution:

29. SONET has defined a hierarchy of Answer: Option D 3. In ATM, the _____ layer defines the
signals called ________. Solution: transmission medium, bit transmission,
encoding, and electrical-to-optical
36. SONET sends ________ frames per transformation.
A) STMs
second.
B) STSs
C) either (a) or (b) A) AAL
D) neither (a) nor (b) A) 8000 B) physical
B) 4000 C) ATM layer
Answer: Option B C) 2000 D) none of the above
Solution: D) 1000
Answer: Option B
30. An ______ signal is the optical Answer: Option A Solution:
modulation of an STS-n (or STM-n) signal. Solution:
4. A _______ ATM LAN combines
37. A SONET system can use _________. features of a pure ATM LAN and a legacy
A) FDM-n
B) OC-n ATM LAN.
C) TDM-n A) regenerators
D) none of the above B) add/drop multiplexers A) legacy
C) STS multiplexers B) pure
Answer: Option B D) all of the above C) mixed architecture
Solution: D) none of the above
Answer: Option D
31. A regenerator is a ________ device. Solution: Answer: Option C
Solution:
38. In ________APS, there is only one
A) three-layer
protection line for many working lines. 5. A(n) ______ is the interface between a
B) one-layer
When a failure occurs in one of the user and an ATM switch.
C) two-layer
working lines, the protection line takes
D) four-layer
control until the failed line is repaired. A) NNN
Answer: Option C B) UNI
Solution: A) one-to-one C) NNI
B) one-plus-one D) None of the above
32. An STS-1 frame is made of ________ C) one-to-many
rows D) none of the above Answer: Option B
Solution:
A) 90 Answer: Option C
Solution: 6. In ATM, a virtual connection is defined
B) 9
by _________.
C) 1
39. The section overhead consists of
D) none of the above
______octets. A) DLCI
Answer: Option B B) VPI
Solution: A) 18 C) VCI
B) 9 D) a combination of (b) and (c)
33. SDH has defined a hierarchy of signals C) 6
called ________. D) 1 Answer: Option D
Solution:
A) STMs Answer: Option B
7. In ATM, _______is for short packets.
B) STSs
C) either (a) or (b)
MCQ in Virtual-Circuit
D) neither (a) nor (b) Networks: Frame Relay and A) AAL5
ATM B) AAL3/4
Answer: Option A C) AAL2
1. To handle frames arriving from other D) AAL1
Solution:
protocols, Frame Relay uses a device
34. To make SONET backward-compatible called a _________. Answer: Option C
with the current hierarchy, its frame Solution:
design includes a system of ____. A) MUX
B) VOFR 8. In Frame Relay, when a _____ is
selected, the corresponding table entry is
A) VTs C) FRAD
recorded for all switches by the
B) STSs D) none of the above administrator.
C) STMs
D) OCs Answer: Option C
Solution: A) SVC
B) PVC
C) either (a) or (b) A) NNI 22. In a _____ ATM LAN, an ATM switch
D) neither (a) nor (b) B) NNN connects stations.
C) UNI
Answer: Option B D) none of the above A) legacy
Solution: B) pure
Answer: Option A C) mixed architecture
9. In ATM, the _______layer accepts Solution: D) none of the above
transmissions from upper-layer services
and maps them into ATM cells. 16. Frame Relay networks offer an option
Answer: Option B
called ______________ that sends voice
Solution:
A) AAL through the network.
B) physical 23. The VPI of an NNI is _______ bits in
C) ATM A) FRAD length.
D) none of the above B) VOFR
C) MUX A) 24
Answer: Option A D) none of the above B) 16
Solution: C) 12
Answer: Option B D) 8
10. The VPI of a UNI is _______ bits in Solution:
length.
Answer: Option C
17. A _______ is defined as a small, fixed-
Solution:
A) 32 size block of information.
B) 16 A) packet 24. At the data link layer, Frame Relay
C) 12 B) cell uses a protocol that supports
D) 8 C) frame _____control.
D) none of the above
Answer: Option D A) error
Solution: Answer: Option B
B) flow
Solution:
C) either (a) or (b)
11. The ATM standard defines ______
18. In ATM, the ______ layer provides D) neither (a) nor (b)
layers.
routing, traffic management, switching,
and multiplexing services. Answer: Option D
A) five Solution:
B) four
C) three A) ATM 25. ________ is the cell relay protocol
D) two B) AAL designed by the corresponding Forum
C) physical and adopted by the ITU-T.
Answer: Option C D) none of the above
Solution: A) Frame Relay
Answer: Option A
B) ATM
12. ________ technology can be adapted Solution:
C) X.25
for use in a LAN (ATM LAN).
19. In ATM, _____ is for conventional D) none of the above
packet switching (virtual-circuit approach
A) ATM Answer: Option B
or datagram approach).
B) X.25 Solution:
C) Frame Relay
D) none of the above A) AAL5 26. In Frame Relay, when ______ is
B) AAL3/4 selected, it requires establishing and
Answer: Option A C) AAL2 terminating phases.
Solution: D) AAL1
A) a PVC
13. VCIs in Frame Relay are called Answer: Option B
B) an SVC
______. Solution:
C) either (a) or (b)
20. Frame Relay provides ________. D) neither (a) nor (b)
A) SVC
B) DLCIs Answer: Option B
C) PVC A) SVCs
Solution:
D) none of the above B) PVCs
C) either (a) or (b) 27. In a _______ ATM LAN, the backbone
Answer: Option B D) neither (a) nor (b) that connects traditional LANs uses ATM
Solution: technology.
Answer: Option C
14. The AAL is divided into _______ Solution:
A) legacy
sublayers.
21. In Frame Relay, the EA field defines B) pure
the number of bytes; it is _____ in the C) mixed architecture
A) four D) none of the above
last byte of the address.
B) three
C) two Answer: Option A
D) none of the above A) 0
Solution:
B) 1
Answer: Option C C) 2 28. In ATM, connection between two
Solution: D) 3 endpoints is accomplished through
_______.
15. _________ is the interface between Answer: Option B
two ATM switches. Solution:
A) VCs Answer: Option A
B) TPs Answer: Option C
C) VPs MCQ in Network Layer: Logical Solution:
D) all of the above Addressing
7. What is the result of ANDing 255 and
1. Identify the class of the following IPv4 15?
Answer: Option D
address: 4.5.6.7.
Solution:
A) 255
29. Frame Relay has _______. A) A B) 15
B) B C) 0
A) the physical, data link, and network C) C D) none of the above
layers D) none of the above
B) the physical and data link layers Answer: Option B
C) only the data link Answer: Option A Solution:
D) only the physical layer Solution:
8. In IPv6, _______ address defines a
2. What is the first address of a block of single computer.
Answer: Option B
classless addresses if one of the
Solution:
addresses is 12.2.2.76/10? A) a unicast
30. In ATM, ______ is for packets B) a multicast
requiring no sequencing and no error A) 12.0.0.0 C) an anycast
control mechanism. B) 12.2.0.0 D) none of the above
C) 12.2.2.2
A) AAL5 D) none of the above Answer: Option A
B) AAL3/4 Solution:
C) AAL2 Answer: Option A
D) AAL1 Solution: 9. What is the result of ANDing 254 and
15?
3. In IPv6, the___________ address is
Answer: Option A
generally used by a normal host as a A) 254
Solution:
unicast address. B) 14
31. ______ eliminates the varying delay C) 0
times associated with different-size A) provider-based unicast D) none of the above
packets. B) link local
C) site local Answer: Option B
A) Frame Relay D) none of the above Solution:
B) ATM
C) X.25 Answer: Option A 10. An IPv6 address can have up to
D) all of the above Solution: __________ colons.

4. Find the number of addresses in a A) 8

Answer: Option B
block of classless addresses if one of the B) 7
Solution:
addresses is 12.2.2.7/24. C) 4
32. In ATM, ______ is for constant-bit- D) none of the above
rate data. A) 32
B) 64 Answer: Option B
A) AAL5 C) 256 Solution:
B) AAL3/4 D) none of the above
C) AAL2 11. Which address could be the beginning
D) AAL1 Answer: Option C address of a block of 16 classless
Solution: addresses?
Answer: Option D
5. The number of addresses in a class C A) 2.4.6.5
Solution:
block is _______. B) 2.4.6.15
33. ________ is a virtual-circuit wide-area C) 2.4.6.62
network that was designed in response to A) 65,534 D) none of the above
demands for a new type of WAN in the B) 16,777,216
late 1980s and early 1990s. C) 256 Answer: Option D
D) none of the above Solution:
A) ATM
B) Frame Relay Answer: Option C 12. Identify the class of the following IPv4
C) X.25 Solution: address: 229.1.2.3.
D) none of the above
6. In classless addressing, the prefix A) A
length defines the _____________. B) B
Answer: Option B
Solution: C) D
A) netid D) none of the above
34. The ATM data packet is a cell
composed of ______ bytes. B) hostid Answer: Option C
Solution:
A) 53 C) mask
B) 52 13. What is the default mask for class A in
C) 43 CIDR notation?
D) none of the above
D) 42
A) /9
B) /8 Solution: 26. In hexadecimal colon notation, a 128-
C) /16 bit address is divided into _______
D) none of the above 20. Find the number of addresses in a sections, each _____ hexadecimal digits
block of classless addresses if one of the in length.
Answer: Option B addresses is 12.2.2.7/30.
Solution: A) 8: 2
A) 2 B) 8: 3
14. What is the first address of a block of B) 4 C) 8: 4
classless addresses if one of the C) 8 D) none of the above
addresses is 12.2.2.127/28? D) none of the above
Answer: Option C
A) 12.2.2.0 Answer: Option B Solution:
B) 12.2.2.96 Solution:
C) 12.2.2.112 27. In a block, the mask is 255.255.192.0;
D) none of the above 21. In IPv6, ____ address defines a group what is the prefix length?
of computers with addresses that have
Answer: Option C the same prefix.
A) /20
Solution: B) /28
A) a unicast C) /18
15. What is the default mask for class B in B) a multicast D) none of the above
CIDR notation? C) an anycast
D) none of the above Answer: Option C
A) /9 Solution:
B) /8 Answer: Option C
C) /16 Solution: 28. An organization is granted a block of
D) none of the above classless addresses with the starting
22. An organization is granted a block of address 199.34.32.0/27. How many
Answer: Option C classless addresses with the starting addresses are granted?
Solution: address 199.34.76.128/29. How many
addresses are granted?
A) 8
16. Identify the class of the following IPv4
B) 16
address: 191.1.2.3. A) 8 C) 32
B) 16 D) none of the above
A) A C) 32
B) B D) none of the above Answer: Option C
C) C Solution:
D) none of the above Answer: Option A
Solution: 29. Which one is not a contiguous mask?
Answer: Option B
Solution: 23. An organization is granted a block of
A) 255.255.255.254
classless addresses with the starting
B) 255.255.224.0
17. In IPv6, a ______address is used if a address 199.34.76.64/28. How many
C) 255.148.0.0
site with several networks uses the addresses are granted?
D) all are
Internet protocols but is not connected
to the Internet for security reasons. A) 8 Answer: Option C
B) 16 Solution:
A) link local C) 32
B) site local D) none of the above 30. To make addresses more readable,
C) mapped IPv6 specifies ____________notation.
D) none of the above Answer: Option B
Solution: A) dotted decimal
Answer: Option B B) hexadecimal colon
Solution: 24. An organization is granted a block;
C) both a and b
one address is 2.2.2.64/20. The
D) none of the above
18. In IPv6, _________ address defines a organization needs 10 subnets. What is
group of computers. the subnet prefix length?
Answer: Option B
Solution:
A) a unicast A) /20
B) a multicast B) /24 31. In a block, the prefix length is /15;
C) an anycast C) /25 what is the mask?
D) none of the above D) none of the above
A) 255.254.0.0
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B B) 255.255.255.0
Solution: Solution: C) 255.255.255.128
D) none of the above
19. The number of addresses assigned to 25. What is the default mask for class C in
an organization in classless addressing CIDR notation?
Answer: Option A
_______.
Solution:
A) /24
A) can be any number B) /8 32. An IPv6 address can have up to
B) must be a multiple of 256 C) /16 __________ hexadecimal digits.
C) must be a power of 2 D) none of the above
D) none of the above A) 16
Answer: Option A
B) 32
Answer: Option C
C) 8 39. In classless addressing, the ______ is C) 64
D) none of the above another name for the common part of D) none of the above
the address range.
Answer: Option B Answer: Option C
Solution: A) suffix Solution:
B) prefix
33. In IPv6, a ___________ address is an 46. In IPv4, class _______ has the
C) netid
address of 96 bits of zero followed by 32 greatest number of addresses in each
D) none of the above
bits of IPv4 address. block.
Answer: Option B
A) link local Solution: A) A
B) site local B) B
C) mapped 40. An IPv6 address is _________ bits C) C
D) none of the above long. D) D

Answer: Option D A) 32 Answer: Option A

Solution: B) 64 Solution:
C) 128
34. In classless addressing, the _______ is 47. The first address assigned to an
D) none of the above
the varying part (similar to the hostid). organization in classless addressing
_______.
Answer: Option C
A) suffix Solution:
B) prefix A) must be a power of 4
C) hostid 41. The number of addresses in a class A B) must be evenly divisible by the number
D) none of the above block is _______. of addresses
C) must belong to one of the A, B, or C
Answer: Option A A) 65,534 classes
Solution: B) 16,777,216 D) none of the above
C) 256
35. Which address could be the beginning Answer: Option B
D) none of the above
address of a block of 256 classless Solution:
addresses?
Answer: Option B
48. In IPv6, a _________address
Solution:
A) 2.4.6.5 comprises 80 bits of zero, followed by 16
B) 2.4.6.15 42. What is the last address of a block of bits of one, followed by the 32-bit IPv4
C) 2.4.6.0 classless addresses if one of the address.
D) none of the above addresses is 12.2.2.6/30?
A) link local
Answer: Option C A) 12.2.2.2 B) site local
Solution: B) 12.2.2.6 C) mapped
C) 12.2.2.7 D) none of the above
36. What is the result of ANDing 0 and
D) none of the above
15? Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C Solution:
A) 255 Solution:
B) 15 49. The number of addresses in a class B
C) 0 43. Which address could be the beginning block is _______.
D) none of the above address of a block of 32 classless
addresses? A) 65,536
Answer: Option C A) 2.4.6.5 B) 16,777,216
Solution: B) 2.4.6.16 C) 256
C) 2.4.6.64 D) none of the above
37. What is the first address of a block of D) none of the above
classless addresses if one of the Answer: Option A
addresses is 12.2.2.76/27? Answer: Option C Solution:
Solution:
A) 12.2.2.0 50. What is the last address of a block of
B) 12.2.2.32 44. In IPv6, a _______ address is used if a classless addresses if one of the
C) 12.2.2.64 LAN uses the Internet protocols but is not addresses is 12.2.2.127/28?
D) none of the above connected to the Internet for security
reasons. A) 12.2.2.16
Answer: Option C B) 12.2.2.112
Solution: A) link local C) 12.2.2.127
B) site local D) none of the above
38. An IPv4 address consists of _______ C) mapped
bits. D) none of the above Answer: Option C
Solution:
A) 4 Answer: Option A
B) 8 Solution: 51. In IPv6, the ________ prefix defines
C) 32 the purpose of the address.
D) 64 45. What is the result of ANDing 192 and
65? A) type
Answer: Option C B) purpose
Solution: A) 192 C) both a and b
B) 65 D) none of the above
 4. In IPv6, the _______ field in the base Solution:
Answer: Option A header and the sender IP address
Solution: combine to indicate a unique path 10. The IPv4 header size _______.
identifier for a specific flow of data.
52. In a block, the prefix length is /24; A) is 20 to 60 bytes long
what is the mask? B) is 20 bytes long
A) flow label
B) next header C) is 60 bytes long
A) 255.255.255.0 C) hop limit D) none of the above
B) 255.255.242.0 D) destination IP address
C) 255.255.0.0 Answer: Option A
D) none of the above Answer: Option A Solution:
Solution: 11. In IPv6, when a datagram needs to be
Answer: Option A
Solution: 5. In IPv4, what is the value of the total discarded in a congested network, the
length field in bytes if the header is 28 decision is based on the _______ field in
53. An IPv6 address consists of ________ bytes and the data field is 400 bytes? the base header.
bytes (octets);
A) 428 A) hop limit
A) 4 B) 407 B) priority
B) 8 C) 107 C) next header
C) 16 D) 427 D) none of the above
D) none of the above
Answer: Option A Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C Solution: Solution:
Solution:
6. The term ________ means that IP 12. In IPv4, which field or bit value
54. An organization is granted a block; provides no error checking or tracking. IP unambiguously identifies the datagram as
one address is 2.2.2.64/25. If the subnet assumes the unreliability of the a fragment?
prefix length is /28, what is the maximum underlying layers and does its best to get
number of subnets? a transmission through to its destination, A) Do not fragment bit ? 0
but with no guarantees. B) More Fragment bit ? 0
A) 2 C) Fragment offset = 1000
B) 4 A) reliable delivery D) none of the above
C) 8 B) connection-oriented delivery
D) none of the above C) best-effort delivery Answer: Option C
D) none of the above Solution:
Answer: Option C
13. Which of the following is a necessary
Answer: Option C
MCQ in Network Layer: part of the IPv6 datagram?
Solution:
Internet Protocol
7. The ________ protocol is the A) Base header
1. In IPv6, the _______ field in the base B) Extension header
transmission mechanism used by the
header restricts the lifetime of a C) Data packet from the upper layer
TCP/IP suite.
datagram. D) (a) and (c)
A) ARP
A) version Answer: Option A
B) IP
B) next-header Solution:
C) RARP
C) hop limit
D) none of the above 14. In IPv4, when a datagram is
D) neighbor-advertisement
encapsulated in a frame, the total size of
Answer: Option B the datagram must be less than the
Answer: Option C
Solution: _______.
Solution:
8. In IPv4, what is the length of the data
2. In IPv4 header, an HLEN value of A) MUT
field given an HLEN value of 12 and total
decimal 10 means _______. B) MAT
length value of 40,000?
C) MTU
A) there are 10 bytes of options D) none of the above
A) 39,988
B) there are 40 bytes of options
B) 40,012
C) there are 10 bytes in the header Answer: Option C
C) 40,048
D) there are 40 bytes in the header Solution:
D) 39,952
Answer: Option D 15. In IPv6, options are inserted between
Answer: Option D the _________ and the ___________
Solution:
Solution: data.
3. In IPv4, an HLEN value of decimal 10
9. In IPv4, what is needed to determine
means _______. A) base header; extension header
the number of the last byte of a
fragment? B) base header; upper-layer data
A) there are 10 bytes of options C) base header; frame header
B) there are 40 bytes of options D) none of the above
A) Identification number
C) there are 40 bytes in the header
B) Offset number
D) none of the above Answer: Option B
C) Total length
D) (b) and (c) Solution:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
Answer: Option D
16. An IPv4 datagram is fragmented into D) none of the above C) three membership reports are
three smaller datagrams. Which of the
following is true? Answer: Option D D) none of the above
Solution:
A) The do not fragment bit is set to 1 for
22. The IPv4 header size _______.
all three datagrams. Answer: Option B
Solution:
A) is 20 to 60 bytes long
B) The more fragment bit is set to 0 for all
B) is 20 bytes long 6. The _______ is used by a router in
three datagrams.
C) is 60 bytes long response to a received leave report.
D) none of the above
C) The identification field is the same for
all three datagrams. A) general query message
Answer: Option A
B) special query message
MCQ in Network Layer: Address C) membership report
D) The offset field is the same for all
D) none of the above
three datagrams. Mapping, Error Reporting, and
Multicasting Answer: Option B
1. The IP packet that carries an IGMP Solution:
Answer: Option C packet has a value of _______ in its
Solution: 7. Which of the following is true about
protocol field.
ICMP messages?
17. In IPv4, if the fragment offset has a
value of 100, it means that _______. A) 3
A) An ICMP error message may be
B) 2
generated for an ICMP error message.
A) the datagram has not been C) 1
B) An ICMP error message may be
fragmented D) none of the above
generated only for the first fragment.
B) the datagram is 100 bytes in size C) An ICMP error message may be
C) the first byte of the datagram is byte Answer: Option B
generated for a multicast datagram.
100 Solution:
D) none is true
D) the first byte of the datagram is byte 2. IGMP is _______ protocol.
800 Answer: Option B
Solution:
Answer: Option D A) an error reporting
Solution: B) a group management 8. An IGMP packet is carried in an
C) a transmission __________ packet.
18. IP is _________ datagram protocol. D) none of the above
A) UDP
A) an unreliable Answer: Option B
B) IP
B) a connectionless Solution:
C) Ethernet frame
C) both a and b 3. If the sender is a host and wants to D) none of the above
D) none of the above send a packet to another host on the
same network, the logical address that Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C must be mapped to a physical address is Solution:
Solution: ______.
9. An IGMP query is sent from a _______
19. IPv6 allows _________ security to a _______.
provisions than IPv4. A) the destination IP address in the
datagram header
A) host; host
A) more B) the IP address of the router found in
B) host; router
B) less the routing table
C) router; host or router
C) the same level C) either a or b
D) none of the above
D) none of the above D) none of the above
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A Answer: Option A
Solution:
Solution: Solution:
10. In _______, a table associating a
20. The IPv4 header field formerly known 4. The target hardware address on an
logical address with a physical address is
as the service type field is now called the Ethernet is _______ in an ARP request.
updated manually.
_______ field.
A) 0x000000000000
A) static mapping
A) IETF B) 0.0.0.0
B) dynamic mapping
B) checksum C) variable
C) physical mapping
C) differentiated services D) class dependent
D) none of the above
D) none of the above
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C Solution:
Solution:
Solution: 5. If four hosts on a network belong to
11. A multicast message is sent from
21. A best-effort delivery service such as the same group, a total of _______ sent
_______ to _______.
IPv4 includes _______. in response to a general query message.

A) one source; one destination

A) error checking A) one membership report is
B) one source; multiple destinations
B) error correction C) multiple sources; one destination
C) datagram acknowledgment B) two membership reports are D) none of the above
 Answer: Option B A) data link
Answer: Option B Solution: B) transport
Solution: C) network
18. The sender is a router that has D) none of the above
12. An ARP request is normally _______. received a datagram destined for a host
on the same network. The logical address Answer: Option C
A) broadcast that must be mapped to a physical Solution:
B) multicast address is ______.
C) unicast 25. An ARP reply is normally _______.
D) none of the above A) the destination IP address in the
datagram header A) broadcast
Answer: Option A B) the IP address of the router found in B) multicast
Solution: the routing table C) unicast
C) either a or b D) none of the above
13. If the sender is a host and wants to D) none of the above
send a packet to another host on another Answer: Option C
network, the logical address that must be Answer: Option A Solution:
mapped to a physical address is ______. Solution:
26. _______ is a dynamic mapping
A) the destination IP address in the 19. IGMP operates __________. protocol in which a physical address is
datagram header found for a given logical address.
B) the IP address of the router found in A) locally
the routing table B) globally A) ARP
C) either a or b C) both a and b B) RARP
D) none of the above D) none of the above C) both a and b
D) none of the above
Answer: Option B Answer: Option A
Solution: Solution: Answer: Option A
Solution:
14. The _______ field of the IGMP 20. IGMP helps a ________ router create
message is all zeros in a query message. and update a list of loyal members 27. ICMP messages are divided into two
related to each router interface. broad categories: _____________.
A) version
B) type A) broadcast A) query and error reporting messages
C) group address B) unicast B) request and response messages
D) none of the above C) multicast C) request and reply messages
D) none of the above D) none of the above
Answer: Option C
Solution: Answer: Option C Answer: Option A
Solution: Solution:
15. A technique called ______ is used to
create a subnetting effect. 21. In IGMP, the general query message 28. An ICMP message has _____ header
___________________ group. and a variable-size data section.
A) ARP
B) RARP A) does not define a particular A) a 16-byte
C) proxy ARP B) explicitly defines a B) a 32-byte
D) none of the above C) can define more than one C) an 8-byte
D) none of the above D) none of the above
Answer: Option C
Solution: Answer: Option A Answer: Option A
Solution: Solution:
16. A ________ is a local address. Its
jurisdiction is over a local network. 22. A _______ is an ARP that acts on 29. The logical addresses in the Internet
behalf of a set of hosts. are called _______ addresses.
A) physical
B) logical A) ARP A) port
C) a and b B) RARP B) IP
D) none of the above C) proxy ARP C) Email
D) none of the above D) none of the above
Answer: Option A
Solution: Answer: Option A Answer: Option B
Solution: Solution:
17. The sender is a router that has
received a datagram destined for a host 23. IGMP is a companion to the ______ 30. Which of the following is true about
on another network. The logical address protocol. ICMP messages?
that must be mapped to a physical
address is ______. A) UDP A) An ICMP error message may be
B) TCP generated for an ICMP error message.
A) the destination IP address in the C) ICM B) An ICMP error message may be
datagram header D) none of the above generated for each fragment.
B) the IP address of the router found in C) An ICMP error message may be
the routing table Answer: Option D generated for a multicast datagram.
C) either a or b Solution: D) none is true
D) none of the above
24. ICMP is a _________ layer protocol. Answer: Option D
Solution: 3. _________ broadcasts packets, but D) none of the above
creates loops in the systems.
31. In networks that do not support Answer: Option B
physical multicast addressing, Solution:
A) Forwarding
multicasting can be accomplished
B) Flooding
through _______. 10. In multicast routing, each involved
C) Backwarding
router needs to construct a ________
D) none of the above
A) mapping path tree for each group.
B) queries Answer: Option B
C) tunneling Solution: A) average
D) none of the above B) longest
4. CBT is a ________ protocol that uses a C) shortest
Answer: Option C core as the root of the tree. D) none of the above
Solution: A) source-based
B) group-shared Answer: Option C
32. The least significant 23 bits in a 48-bit C) a or b Solution:
Ethernet address identify a ________. D) none of the above
11. In ________, the multicast packet
A) multicast router Answer: Option B must reach only those networks that
B) host Solution: have active members for that particular
C) multicast group group.
D) none of the above 5. RPF guarantees that each network
receives only ____ of the multicast A) RPF
Answer: Option C packet. B) RPB
Solution: C) RPM
A) one copy D) none of the above
33. A _______ address is an internetwork B) two copies
address with universal jurisdiction. C) a or b Answer: Option C
A) physical D) none of the above Solution:
B) logical
C) a and b Answer: Option D 12. In ________, each node maintains a
D) none of the above Solution: vector (table) of minimum distances to
every node.
Answer: Option B 6. Routing between autonomous systems
Solution: is referred to as ____________. A) path vector
B) distance vector
34. In IGMP, a membership report is sent
A) interdomain routing C) link state
_______.
B) intradomain routing D) none of the above
C) both a and b
A) once D) none of the above Answer: Option B
B) twice Solution:
C) three times Answer: Option A
D) none of the above Solution: 13. A _______ message tells an upstream
router to start sending multicast
Answer: Option B 7. DVMRP is a ________routing protocol, messages for a specific group through a
based on RIP. specific router.
MCQ in Network Layer:
Delivery, Forwarding and A) source-based A) weed
Routing B) group-shared B) graft
C) both a and b C) prune
1. In _______ delivery, the deliverer of D) none of the above D) none of the above
the IP packet and the destination are on
different networks. Answer: Option A Answer: Option B
Solution: Solution:
A) a connection-oriented
B) a direct 8. In _______, the router may forward 14. RPB guarantees that each destination
C) an indirect the received packet through several of its receives _________ of the packet.
D) none of the above interfaces.
A) one copy
Answer: Option C A) unicasting B) no copies
Solution: B) multicasting C) multiple copies
C) broadcasting D) none of the above
2. The input and output ports of a router D) none of the above
perform the ________ layer functions of Answer: Option A
the router. Answer: Option B Solution:
Solution:
A) physical and data link 15. Emulation of ________ through
B) network 9. __________ is an implementation of ___________ is not efficient and may
C) transport multicast distance vector routing. It is a create long delays.
D) none of the above source-based routing protocol, based on
RIP. A) unicasting; multiple unicasting
Answer: Option A B) multicasting; multiple unicasting
Solution: A) MOSPF C) broadcasting; multicasting
B) DVMRP D) none of the above
C) CBT
Answer: Option B D) none of the above 29. _______ adds pruning and grafting to
Solution: _______ to create a multicast shortest
Answer: Option A path tree that supports dynamic
16. MOSPF is a _______ protocol. Solution: membership changes.

A) data-driven 23. The idea of address aggregation was

A) RPM; RPB
B) command-driven designed to alleviate the increase in
B) RPB; RPM
C) both a and b routing table entries when using
C) RPF: RPM
D) none of the above ________.
D) none of the above

Answer: Option A A) classful addressing Answer: Option A

Solution: B) classless addressing Solution:
C) both a and b
17. RPB creates a shortest path _______ D) none of the above 30. In OSPF, when the link between two
tree from the source to each destination. routers is broken, the administration may
Answer: Option B create a _________ link between them
A) unicast Solution: using a longer path that probably goes
B) multicast through several routers.
C) broadcast 24. In _______ forwarding, the full IP
D) none of the above address of a destination is given in the
A) point-to-point
routing table.
B) transient
Answer: Option C C) stub
Solution: A) next-hop D) none of the above
B) network-specific
18. The _______ protocol allows the C) host-specific
administrator to assign a cost, called the Answer: Option D
D) default
metric, to each route. 31. The Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
Answer: Option C protocol is an intradomain routing
A) OSPF Solution: protocol based on _______ routing.
B) RIP
C) BGP 25. The Routing Information Protocol
A) distance vector
D) none of the above (RIP) is an intradomain routing based on
B) link state
_________ routing.
C) path vector
Answer: Option A D) none of the above
Solution: A) distance vector
B) link state Answer: Option B
19. A one-to-all communication between C) path vector
one source and all hosts on a network is Solution:
D) none of the above
classified as a _______ communication. 32. In unicast routing, each router in the
Answer: Option A domain has a table that defines a ______
A) unicast Solution: path tree to possible destinations.
B) multicast A) average
C) broadcast 26. ____________ is a group of networks B) longest
D) none of the above and routers under the authority of a C) shortest
single administration. D) none of the above
Answer: Option C
Solution: A) An autonomous system Answer: Option C
B) An area Solution:
20. For purposes of routing, the Internet C) both a and b
is divided into ___________. D) none of the above 33. In _______, a logical tunnel is
established by encapsulating the
A) wide area networks Answer: Option A multicast packet inside a unicast packet.
B) autonomous networks Solution:
C) autonomous systems A) UNIBONE
D) none of the above 27. In the group-shared tree approach, B) MULTBONE
_________ involved in multicasting. C) MBONE
Answer: Option C D) none of the above
Solution: A) only the core router is
B) all routers are Answer: Option C
21. The metric used by _______ is the C) only some routers are Solution:
hop count. D) none of the above
34. _______ deals with the issues of
A) OSPF Answer: Option A creating and maintaining routing tables.
B) RIP Solution:
C) BGP A) Forwarding
D) none of the above 28. In OSPF, a ________ link is a network B) Routing
is connected to only one router. C) Directing
Answer: Option B D) none of the above
Solution: A) point-to-point
B) transient Answer: Option B
22. A static table is one _______. C) stub Solution:
D) none of the above
A) with manual entries 35. To create a neighborhood
B) which is updated automatically Answer: Option C relationship, a router running BGP sends
C) either a or b Solution: an ________ message.
A) open C) hierarchical Answer: Option A
B) update D) none of the above Solution:
C) keep alive
D) none of the above Answer: Option A 48. In OSPF, a ________ link connects
Solution: two routers without any other host or
Answer: Option A router in between.
Solution: 42. PIM-DM is used in a _______
multicast environment, such as a LAN. A) point-to-point
36. The Multicast Open Shortest Path B) transient
First (MOSPF) protocol is an extension of A) dense C) stub
the OSPF protocol that uses multicast B) sparse D) none of the above
routing to create source-based trees. The C) a or b
protocol is based on _______ routing. D) none of the above Answer: Option A
Solution:
A) distance vector Answer: Option A
B) link state Solution: 49. In _______ forwarding, the routing
C) path vector table holds the address of just the next
D) none of the above 43. In distance vector routing, each node hop instead of complete route
periodically shares its routing table with information.
Answer: Option B _________ and whenever there is a
Solution: change. A) next-hop
B) network-specific
37. RPF eliminates the ________ in the A) every other node C) host-specific
flooding process. B) its immediate neighbors D) default
C) one neighbor
A) forwarding D) none of the above Answer: Option A
B) backwarding Solution:
C) flooding Answer: Option B
D) none of the above Solution: 50. In _______ forwarding, the
destination address is a network address
Answer: Option D 44. Routing inside an autonomous system in the routing table.
Solution: is referred to as _______________.
A) next-hop
38. A _______ routing table is updated A) interdomain routing B) network-specific
periodically using one of the dynamic B) intradomain routing C) host-specific
routing protocols. C) both a and b D) default
D) none of the above
A) static Answer: Option B
B) dynamic Answer: Option B Solution:
C) hierarchical Solution:
D) none of the above 51. Pruning and grafting are strategies
45. In RPF, a router forwards only the used in _______.
Answer: Option B copy that has traveled the _______ path
Solution: from the source to the router. A) RPF
B) RPB
39. A one-to-many communication A) shortest C) RPM
between one source and a specific group B) longest D) none of the above
of hosts is classified as a _______ C) average
communication. D) none of the above Answer: Option C
Solution:
A) unicast Answer: Option A
B) multicast Solution: 52. The task of moving the packet from
C) broadcast the input queue to the output queue in a
D) none of the above 46. In ________ routing, we assume that router is done by _________.
there is one node (or more) in each
Answer: Option B autonomous system that acts on behalf A) input and output ports
Solution: of the entire autonomous system. B) routing processor
C) switching fabrics
40. A one-to-one communication A) distant vector D) none of the above
between one source and one destination B) path vector
is classified as a _______ communication. C) link state Answer: Option C
D) none of the above Solution:
A) unicast
B) multicast Answer: Option B 53. In _______ delivery, both the
C) broadcast Solution: deliverer of the IP packet and the
D) none of the above destination are on the same network.
47. ___________ is an interdomain
Answer: Option A routing protocol using path vector A) a connectionless
Solution: routing. B) a direct
C) an indirect
41. A _______ routing table contains A) BGP D) none of the above
information entered manually. B) RIP
C) OSPF Answer: Option B
A) static D) none of the above Solution:
B) dynamic
54. In _______ forwarding, the mask and B) multicasting 67. A _______ message tells an upstream
destination addresses are both 0.0.0.0 in C) broadcasting router to stop sending multicast
the routing table. D) none of the above messages for a specific group through a
specific router.
A) next-hop Answer: Option A
B) network-specific Solution: A) weed
C) host-specific B) graft
61. In OSPF, a _______ link is a network
D) default C) prune
with several routers attached to it.
D) none of the above
Answer: Option D
Solution: A) point-to-point Answer: Option C
B) transient
55. In the _______ tree approach, each C) stub MCQ in Process-to-Process
router needs to have one shortest path D) none of the above Delivery: UDP, TCP, and SCTP
tree for each group.
Answer: Option B . Urgent data requires the urgent pointer
A) group-shared Solution: field as well as the URG bit in the
B) source-based _______ field.
62. The _________ routing uses the
C) a or b
Dijkstra algorithm to build a routing
D) none of the above A) control
table.
B) offset
Answer: Option B C) sequence number
Solution: A) distance vector D) none of the above
B) link state
56. The use of hierarchy in routing tables C) path vector Answer: Option A
can ________ the size of the routing D) none of the above Solution:
tables.
Answer: Option B 2. To accomplish flow control, TCP uses a
A) reduce Solution: ___________ window protocol.
B) increase
63. An area is _______.
C) both a and b A) limited-size
D) none of the above B) sliding
A) part of an AS C) fixed-size
Answer: Option A B) composed of at least two ASs D) none of the above
Solution: C) another term for an AS
D) none of the above Answer: Option B
57. In _______ routing, the least cost Solution:
route between any two nodes is the Answer: Option A
route with the minimum distance. Solution: 3. UDP and TCP are both _______ layer
protocols.
64. The principle of ________ states that
A) path vector
the routing table is sorted from the
B) distance vector A) data link
longest mask to the shortest mask.
C) link state B) network
D) none of the above C) transport
A) first mask matching D) none of the above
Answer: Option B B) shortest mask matching
Solution: C) longest mask matching Answer: Option C
D) none of the above Solution:
58. Multicast link state routing uses the
_______ tree approach. Answer: Option C 4. In TCP, one end can stop sending data
Solution: while still receiving data. This is called a
A) source-based ______.
65. PIM-SM is used in a _______multicast
B) group-shared
environment such as a WAN.
C) a or b A) half-close
D) none of the above B) half-open
A) dense C) one-way termination
Answer: Option A B) sparse D) none of the above
Solution: C) a or b
D) none of the above Answer: Option A
59. A dynamic table is one _______. Solution:
Answer: Option B
A) with manual entries Solution: 5. In SCTP, the acknowledgment number
B) which is updated automatically and window size are part of each
66. The routing processor of a router ________.
C) either a or b
performs the ________ layer functions of
D) none of the above
the router.
A) data chunk
Answer: Option B B) control chunk
Solution: A) physical and data link C) a or b
B) network D) none of the above
60. In ______, the router forwards the C) transport
received packet through only one of its D) none of the above Answer: Option B
interfaces. Solution:
Answer: Option B
A) unicasting Solution:
6. A connection in SCTP is called an A) unreliable
____________. Answer: Option B B) best-effort delivery
Solution: C) reliable
A) negotiation D) none of the above
13. TCP is a ___________ protocol.
B) association
C) transmission Answer: Option C
D) none of the above A) connection-oriented Solution:
B) connectionless
C) both a and b 20. TCP delivers _______ out-of-order
Answer: Option B
D) none of the above segments to the process.
Solution:

7. An ACK segment, if carrying no data, Answer: Option A A) all

consumes ______ sequence number(s). Solution: B) no
C) some
14. UDP uses ________ to handle D) none of the above
A) no
outgoing user datagrams from multiple
B) one
processes on one host. Answer: Option B
C) two
D) none of the above Solution:
A) flow control
B) multiplexing 21. Multiply the header length field by
Answer: Option A
C) demultiplexing _______ to find the total number of bytes
Solution:
D) none of the above in the TCP header.
8. The association identifier in SCTP is
__________________. Answer: Option B A) 2
Solution: B) 4
A) a unique verification tag C) 6
15. Because the sending and the D) none of the above
B) a combination of logical and port
receiving processes may not write or read
addresses
data at the same speed, TCP ________. Answer: Option B
C) either a or b
D) none of the above Solution:
A) speeds up the slower process
B) slows down the faster process 22. Which of the following does UDP
Answer: Option A
C) uses buffers guarantee?
Solution:
D) none of the above
9. In SCTP, a data chunk is numbered A) flow control
using ________. Answer: Option C B) connection-oriented delivery
A) a TSN Solution: C) either a or b
B) an SI D) none of the above
C) an SSN 16. SCTP association allows
D) none of the above _____________ for each end. Answer: Option D
Solution:
Answer: Option A A) only one IP address
Solution: B) multiple IP addresses 23. TCP allows the sending process to
C) only two IP address deliver data as a _______of bytes and
10. The bytes of data being transferred in D) none of the above allows the receiving process to obtain
each connection are numbered by TCP. data as a _________ of bytes.
The numbering starts with a Answer: Option B
__________________. Solution: A) message; message
B) stream; stream
A) 0 17. UDP needs the _______ address to C) block; block
B) 1 deliver the user datagram to the correct D) none of the above
C) randomly generated number application process.
D) none of the above Answer: Option B
A) port Solution:
Answer: Option C B) application
Solution: C) internet 24. To distinguish between different data
D) none of the above chunks belonging to the same stream,
11. In the sending computer, UDP SCTP uses ___________.
receives a data unit from the _______ Answer: Option A
layer. Solution: A) TSNs
A) application B) SIs
B) transport 18. In an SCTP packet, control chunks C) SSNs
C) IP come ___________ data chunks. D) none of the above
D) none of the above
A) after Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A B) before Solution:
Solution: C) a or b
D) none of the above 25. The ports ranging from 49,152 to
12. SCTP allows __________ service in 65,535 can be used as temporary or
each association. private port numbers. They are called the
Answer: Option B
Solution: ________ ports.
A) single stream
B) multistream 19. TCP is a(n) _______ transport A) well-known
C) double stream protocol. B) registered
D) none of the above C) dynamic
D) none of the above A) two
B) three Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C) one Solution:
D) none of the above
26. UDP does not add anything to the 39. The value of the window size is
services of IP except for providing Answer: Option C determined by _________.
_______ communication. Solution:
A) the sender
A) node-to-node 33. TCP uses _________________ to B) the receiver
B) process-to-process check the safe and sound arrival of data. C) both the sender and receiver
C) host-to-host D) none of the above
D) none of the above A) an acknowledgment mechanism
B) out-of-band signaling Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B C) the services of another protocol Solution:
Solution: D) none of the above
40. TCP assigns a sequence number to
27. The combination of an IP address and Answer: Option A each segment that is being sent. The
a port number is called a ____________. Solution: sequence number for each segment is
the number of the _______ byte carried
A) transport address 34. ACK segments consume _______ in that segment.
B) network address sequence number(s) and _______
C) socket address acknowledged. A) first
D) none of the above B) last
A) no; are not C) middle
Answer: Option C B) one; are not D) none of the above
Solution: C) no; are
D) none of the above Answer: Option A
28. The options field of the TCP header Solution:
ranges from 0 to _______ bytes. Answer: Option A
A) 10 Solution: 41. An SCTP packet can carry
B) 20 __________.
C) 40 35. In SCTP, acknowledgment numbers
D) none of the above are used to acknowledge A) only one data chunk
_____________. B) several data chunks
Answer: Option C C) no data chunks
Solution: A) both data chunks and control chunks D) none of the above
B) only control chunks
29. A port address in UDP is _______bits
C) only data chunks Answer: Option B
long.
D) none of the above Solution:

A) 8 Answer: Option C 42. UDP is an acronym for _______.

B) 16 Solution:
C) 32 A) User Delivery Protocol
D) none of the above 36. The source port address on the UDP B) User Datagram Procedure
user datagram header defines _______. C) User Datagram Protocol
Answer: Option B D) none of the above
Solution: A) the sending computer
B) the receiving computer Answer: Option C
30. The FIN segment consumes ____
C) the process running on the sending Solution:
sequence numbers if it does not carry
computer
data. 43. A SYN + ACK segment cannot carry
D) none of the above
data; it consumes _____ sequence
A) two Answer: Option C number(s).
B) three Solution:
C) no A) no
D) none of the above 37. __________ control regulates the B) three
amount of data a source can send before C) two
Answer: Option D receiving an acknowledgment from the D) none of the above
Solution: destination.
Answer: Option D
31. The inclusion of the checksum in the
A) Error Solution:
TCP segment is ________.
B) Flow
C) Congestion 44. TCP groups a number of bytes
A) optional together into a packet called a
D) none of the above
B) mandatory ___________.
C) at the discretion of the application
Answer: Option B
program
Solution: A) user datagram
D) none of the above
B) segment
38. To use the services of UDP, we need C) datagram
Answer: Option B ________ socket addresses. D) none of the above
Solution:

32. The FIN + ACK segment consumes A) four Answer: Option B

_____ sequence number(s) if it does not B) two Solution:
carry data. C) three
D) none of the above
45. There is no need for a header length D) none of the above
field in SCTP because ________________. Answer: Option A
Solution: Answer: Option B
A) there are no options in the general Solution:
52. A TCP segment is encapsulated in
header
__________. 59. The control information in SCTP is
B) the size of the header is fixed
A) an IP datagram included in the ________.
C) both a and b
B) an Ethernet frame
D) none of the above
C) a UDP user datagram A) header control field
D) none of the above B) control chunks
Answer: Option C
Solution: C) data chunks
Answer: Option A D) none of the above
46. Connection establishment in TCP is Solution:
called __________ handshaking. Answer: Option B
53. TCP is a __________protocol.
Solution:
A) two-way
A) stream-oriented 60. Communication in TCP is
B) four-way
B) message-oriented ___________.
C) one-way
C) block-oriented
D) none of the above
D) none of the above A) simplex
Answer: Option D B) half-duplex
Answer: Option A C) full-duplex
Solution:
Solution: D) none of the above
47. UDP packets are encapsulated in
54. UDP packets are called __________.
___________. Answer: Option C
Solution:
A) user datagrams
A) an Ethernet frame
B) segments 61. Stream Control Transmission Protocol
B) an TCP segment
C) frames (SCTP) is a new _____________protocol.
C) an IP datagram
D) none of the above
D) none of the above
A) reliable, character-oriented
Answer: Option A B) reliable, message-oriented
Answer: Option C
Solution: C) unreliable, message-oriented
Solution:
D) none of the above
55. In the sending computer, UDP sends a
48. The checksum in SCTP is ________
data unit to the _______ layer.
bits. Answer: Option B
Solution:
A) application
A) 16
B) transport 62. To distinguish between different
B) 32
C) IP streams, SCTP uses ___________.
C) 64
D) none of the above
D) none of the above
A) a TSN
Answer: Option C B) an SI
Answer: Option B
Solution: C) an SSN
Solution:
D) none of the above
56. In SCTP, control information and data
49. TCP sliding windows are __________
information are carried in _______
oriented. Answer: Option B
chunks.
Solution:
A) packet
A) the same chunk 63. Which of the following functions does
B) segment
B) different chunks UDP perform?
C) byte
C) either a or b
D) none of the above
D) none of the above A) process-to-process communication
Answer: Option C B) host-to-host communication
Answer: Option B C) end-to-end reliable data delivery
Solution:
Solution: D) none of the above
50. If a segment carries data along with
57. TCP has ____________; SCTP has
an acknowledgment, this is called Answer: Option A
____________.
_______. Solution:

A) packets; segments 64. IP is responsible for _______

A) backpacking
B) segments; packets communication while TCP is responsible
B) piggybacking
C) segments; frames for _______ communication.
C) piggypacking
D) none of the above
D) none of the above
A) host-to-host; process-to-process
Answer: Option B B) process-to-process; host-to-host
Answer: Option B
Solution: C) process-to-process; network-to-
51. If the ACK value is 200, then byte network
58. One of the responsibilities of the
_______ has been received successfully. D) none of the above
transport layer protocol is to create a
______ communication.
A) 199 Answer: Option A
B) 200 Solution:
A) host-to-host
C) 201
B) process-to-process 65. The connection establishment
D) none of the above
C) node-to-node procedure in TCP is susceptible to a
serious security problem called the C) next Answer: Option C
_________ attack. D) none of the above
MCQ in Congestion Control and
A) ACK flooding Answer: Option C Quality of Service
B) FIN flooding Solution:
C) SYN flooding 1. _______ is a flow characteristic that
72. A SYN segment cannot carry data; it
D) none of the above applications can tolerate in different
consumes _____ sequence number(s).
degrees.
Answer: Option C
Solution: A) no
B) one A) Reliability
66. UDP is called a C) two B) Delay
_____________transport protocol. D) none of the above C) Jitter
D) Bandwidth
A) connectionless, reliable Answer: Option B
B) connection-oriented, unreliable Solution: Answer: Option B
C) connectionless, unreliable Solution:
73. The acknowledgment number is
D) none of the above 2. The _______ defines the maximum
________.
data rate of the traffic.
Answer: Option C
Solution: A) independent
B) randomly generated A) peak data rate
67. In SCTP, ___________ can be carried C) cumulative B) maximum burst size
in a packet that carries an INIT chunk. D) none of the above C) effective bandwidth
D) none of the above
A) only data chunks Answer: Option C
B) only control chunks Solution: Answer: Option A
C) no other chunk Solution:
74. The local host and the remote host
D) none of the above 3. In Frame Relay, the _____________
are defined using IP addresses. To define
the processes, we need second identifiers defines an average rate in bits per
Answer: Option C second.
called ____________.
Solution:

68. UDP packets have a fixed-size header A) UDP addresses A) access rate
of _______ bytes. B) transport addresses B) committed burst size
C) port addresses C) committed information rate
A) 16 D) none of the above D) excess burst size
B) 8
C) 40 Answer: Option C Answer: Option C
D) none of the above Solution: Solution:

75. Although there are several ways to 4. In ________ congestion control,

Answer: Option B policies are applied to prevent congestion
achieve process-to-process
Solution: before it happens.
communication, the most common is
69. The SYN flooding attack belongs to a through the __________ paradigm.
group of security attacks known as a A) open-loop
_____ attack. A) client-server B) closed-loop
B) client-client C) either (a) or (b)
A) denial of service C) server-server D) neither (a) nor (b)
B) replay D) none of the above
C) man-in-the middle Answer: Option A
D) none of the above Answer: Option A Solution:
Solution:
5. In ________ we try to avoid traffic
Answer: Option A congestion.
76. A(n) _________ machine is a machine
Solution:
that goes through a limited number of
70. When the IP layer of a receiving host states. A) congestion control
receives a datagram, _______. B) quality of service
A) infinite state C) either (a) or (b)
A) delivery is complete B) finite state D) both (a) and (b)
B) a transport layer protocol takes over C) both a and b
C) a header is added D) none of the above Answer: Option A
D) none of the above Solution:
Answer: Option B
6. _________ is a characteristic that a
Answer: Option B Solution:
flow needs. Lack of it means losing a
Solution: packet or acknowledgment, which entails
77. UDP uses _______ to handle
71. The value of the acknowledgment incoming user datagrams that go to retransmission.
field in a segment defines the number of different processes on the same host.
the ______byte a party expects to A) Reliability
receive. A) flow control B) Delay
B) multiplexing C) Jitter
A) first C) demultiplexing D) Bandwidth
B) last D) none of the above
Answer: Option A
Solution: 19. A ___________ is a packet sent by a
Answer: Option A node to the source to inform it of
7. In a network, after the load reaches Solution: congestion.
the capacity, throughput _______.
13. In the ________ algorithm of TCP, the
A) backpressure
A) increases sharply size of the congestion window increases
B) choke packet
B) increases proportionally with the load exponentially until it reaches a threshold.
C) implicit signaling
C) declines sharply D) explicit signaling
D) declines proportionally with the load A) slow-start
B) congestion avoidance Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C C) congestion detection Solution:
Solution: D) none of the above
20. In ATM, the _________ class delivers
8. In _________ queuing, the packets are Answer: Option A cells at a minimum rate. If more network
assigned to different classes and Solution: capacity is available, this minimum rate
admitted to different queues. The can be exceeded.
queues, however, are weighted based on 14. In Frame Relay, the user can never
the priority of the queues; higher priority exceed the_________.
A) CBR
means a higher weight. The system
B) VBR
processes packets in each queue in a A) access rate C) ABR
round-robin fashion with the number of B) committed burst size D) UBR
packets selected from each queue based C) committed information rate
on the corresponding weight. D) excess burst size Answer: Option C
Solution:
A) FIFO Answer: Option A
B) priority Solution: 21. In the ________ traffic model, the
C) weighted fair rate of the data flow changes in time,
D) none of the above 15. In the ___________ algorithm of TCP, with the changes smooth instead of
the size of the threshold is dropped to sudden and sharp.
Answer: Option C one-half, a multiplicative decrease.
Solution: A) constant bit rate
A) slow-start B) variable bit rate
9. In ATM, the _________ class is a best- B) congestion avoidance C) bursty
effort delivery service that does not C) congestion detection D) none of the above
guarantee anything. D) none of the above
Answer: Option B
A) CBR Answer: Option C Solution:
B) VBR Solution:
C) ABR 22. In __________, there is no
D) UBR 16. In _________, when a source makes a communication between the congested
reservation, it needs to define a flow node or nodes and the source. The
Answer: Option D specification. source guesses that there is a congestion
Solution: somewhere in the network from other
A) Integrated Services symptoms.
10. The________ normally refers to the B) Differentiated Services
maximum length of time the traffic is C) Connectionless A) backpressure
generated at the peak rate. D) Connection-Oriented B) choke packet
C) implicit signaling
A) peak data rate Answer: Option A D) explicit signaling
B) maximum burst size Solution:
C) effective bandwidth Answer: Option C
D) none of the above 17. A _________ traffic model has a data
rate that does not change. Solution:

Answer: Option B 23. In a network, when the load reaches

Solution: A) constant bit rate the network capacity, the delay _______.
B) variable bit rate
11. In _______ congestion control, C) bursty A) increases sharply
mechanisms are used to alleviate D) none of the above B) decreases sharply
congestion after it happens.
C) remains constant
Answer: Option A D) cannot be predicted
A) open-loop Solution:
B) closed-loop Answer: Option A
C) either (a) or (b) 18. ________ is the variation in delay for
packets belonging to the same flow. Solution:
D) neither (a) nor (b)
24. The technique of ________refers to a
Answer: Option B A) Reliability congestion control mechanism in which a
Solution: B) Delay congested node stops receiving data
C) Jitter from the immediate upstream node or
12. _______ happens in any system that D) Bandwidth nodes.
involves waiting.
Answer: Option C A) backpressure
A) Congestion Solution: B) choke packet
B) Jamming C) implicit signaling
C) Error D) explicit signaling
D) none of the above
 31. In a network, when the load is much A) slow-start
Answer: Option A less than the capacity of the network, the B) congestion avoidance
Solution: delay is _________. C) congestion detection
D) none of the above
25. In ________ queuing, packets are first
A) at a maximum
assigned to a priority class. Each class has Answer: Option B
B) at a minimum
its own queue. Solution:
C) constant
D) none of the above
A) FIFO 38. In ATM, the _________ class is
B) priority divided into two subclasses: real-time
Answer: Option B
C) weighted fair (VBR-RT) and non-real-time (VBR-NRT).
Solution:
D) none of the above VBR-RT is designed for those users who
32. Congestion in a network or need real-time services (such as voice
Answer: Option B internetwork occurs because routers and and video transmission) and use
switches have _______. compression techniques to create a
26. In ________, queuing packets wait in variable bit rate. VBR-NRT is designed for
a buffer (queue) until the node (router or those users who do not need real-time
A) tables
switch) is ready to process them. services but use compression techniques
B) queues
to create a variable bit rate.
C) crosspoints
A) FIFO D) none of the above
B) priority A) CBR
C) weighted fair Answer: Option B B) VBR
D) none of the above Solution: C) ABR
D) UBR
Answer: Option A 33. In _________, we try to create an
Solution: appropriate environment for the traffic. Answer: Option B
Solution:
27. Traditionally, ________types of
A) congestion control
characteristics are attributed to a flow. 39. Traffic ______ are qualitative values
B) quality of service
that represent a data flow.
C) either (a) or (b)
A) two D) both (a) and (b)
B) three A) controls
C) four Answer: Option B B) descriptors
D) five Solution: C) values
D) none of the above
Answer: Option C 34. In Frame Relay, the ________ bit
Solution: warns the sender of congestion in the Answer: Option B
network. Solution:
28. In Frame Relay, the ___________ is
the maximum number of bits in excess of 40. _________ is a class-based QoS
A) BECN
Bc that a user can send during a model designed for IP.
B) FECN
predefined time.
C) either (a) or (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b) A) Integrated Services
A) access rate B) Differentiated Services
B) committed burst size Answer: Option A C) Connectionless
C) committed information rate Solution: D) Connection-Oriented
D) excess burst size
35. In Frame Relay, the ________ bit is Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D used to warn the receiver of congestion Solution:
Solution: in the network.
41. In the ______ bucket algorithm,
29. In a network, when the load is below bursty chunks are stored in the bucket
A) BECN
the capacity of the network, the and sent out at an average rate.
B) FECN
throughput ______________.
C) either (a) or (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b) A) leaky
A) increases sharply B) token
B) increases proportionally with the load Answer: Option B C) either (a) or (b)
C) declines sharply Solution: D) neither (a) nor (b)
D) declines proportionally with the load
36. The ________ is a function of three Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B values: average data rate, peak data rate, Solution:
Solution: and maximum burst size.
42. The _______ bucket algorithm allows
30. In the __________ method, the signal idle hosts to accumulate credit for the
A) peak data rate
is included in the packets that carry data. future in the form of tokens.
B) maximum burst size
C) effective bandwidth
A) backpressure D) none of the above A) leaky
B) choke packet B) token
C) implicit signaling Answer: Option C C) either (a) or (b)
D) explicit signaling Solution: D) neither (a) nor (b)

Answer: Option D 37. In the _________ algorithm of TCP, Answer: Option B

Solution: the size of the congestion window Solution:
increases additively until congestion is
detected.
43. In ATM, the _________ class is A) PQDN 11. A pointer query involves the _______
designed for customers who need real- B) FQDN domain.
time audio or video services. The service C) SQDN
is similar to that provided by a dedicated D) none of the above A) inverse
line such as a T line. B) reverse
A) CBR Answer: Option A C) root
B) VBR Solution: D) none of the above
C) ABR
D) UBR 5. What a server is responsible for or has
Answer: Option A
authority over is called a _________.
Solution:
Answer: Option A
Solution: A) domain 12. Each node in the tree has a _______,
B) label which is a string with a maximum of ___
44. In the ______ traffic model, the data C) zone characters.
rate changes suddenly in a very short D) none of the above
time.
A) label; 127
Answer: Option C B) name; 255
A) constant bit rate Solution: C) label; 63
B) variable bit rate D) none of the above
C) bursty 6. DNS can use the services of ________
D) none of the above using the well-known port 53.
Answer: Option C
Solution:
Answer: Option C A) UDP
Solution: B) TCP 13. To have a hierarchical name space, a
C) either (a) or (b) ______________ was designed.
45. In Frame Relay, a ___________ is the D) none of the above
maximum number of bits in a predefined
A) domain space
time that the network is committed to Answer: Option C B) domain name
transfer without discarding any frame or Solution: C) domain name space
setting the DE bit.
D) none of the above
7. In the domain name chal.atc.fhda.edu,
A) access rate _______ is the most specific label.
Answer: Option C
B) committed burst size Solution:
C) committed information rate A) chal
D) excess burst size B) atc 14. The _______ domains define
C) fhda registered hosts according to their
Answer: Option B D) none of the above generic behavior.

MCQ in Domain Name System Answer: Option A A) generic

Solution: B) country
1. A full domain name is a sequence of
labels separated by ________. C) inverse
8. The root of the DNS tree is _______.
D) none of the above
A) semicolons A) a string of characters Answer: Option A
B) dots B) a string of 63 characters Solution:
C) colons C) an empty string
D) none of the above D) none of the above 15. In a _________name space, each
name is made of several parts.
Answer: Option B Answer: Option C
Solution: Solution: A) flat
2. A ________ server loads all B) hierarchical
9. When the secondary downloads
information from the primary server. C) organized
information from the primary, it is called
D) none of the above
______ transfer.
A) primary
Answer: Option B
B) secondary A) domain Solution:
C) zone B) zone
D) none of the above C) label 16. In a _______ name space, a name is
D) none of the above assigned to an address. A name in this
Answer: Option B space is a sequence of characters without
Solution: Answer: Option B structure.
Solution:
3. The first level in the generic domains
section allows ______ possible labels. A) flat
10. A _______ is a server whose zone
B) hierarchical
consists of the whole tree.
C) organized
A) 10
D) Connection-Oriented
B) 12 A) domain server
C) 16 B) zone server Answer: Option A
D) none of the above C) root server Solution:
D) none of the above
Answer: Option D 17. The _________ domain is used to
Solution: Answer: Option C map an address to a name.
Solution:
4. If a label is not terminated by a null
string, it is called a __________. A) generic
B) country 24. In the domain name Solution:
C) inverse chal.atc.fhda.edu, _______ is the least
D) none of the above specific label. 3. If the sender wants an option enabled
by the receiver, it sends a _______
Answer: Option C command.
A) chal
Solution: B) atc
C) edu A) WILL
18. The ____________ domain section B) DO
D) none of the above
uses two-character country C) WONT
abbreviations. D) none of the above
Answer: Option C
Solution:
A) generic Answer: Option B
B) country 25. A host with the domain name Solution:
C) inverse pit.arc.nasa.gov. is on the _______ level
D) Bandwidth of the DNS hierarchical tree. (The root is 4. When the sender is connected to the
level one.) mail server via a LAN or a WAN, we need
Answer: Option B ______________.
Solution: A) third
B) fourth A) two MTA
19. A _________ is a subtree of the B) two UAs and two pairs of MTAs
C) fifth
domain name space. C) two UAs and a pair of MTAs
D) none of the above
D) none of the above
A) label Answer: Option C
B) name Solution: Answer: Option B
C) domain Solution:
D) none of the above 26. In __________ resolution, the
resolver expects the server to supply the 5. The ________ usually contains the
Answer: Option C final answer. sender address, the receiver address, and
Solution: other information.
A) iterative
20. In the DNS, the names are defined in A) message
B) recursive
___________ structure. B) envelope
C) straight
D) none of the above C) both a and b
A) a linear list D) none of the above
B) an inverted-tree Answer: Option B
C) a graph Solution: Answer: Option B
D) none of the above Solution:
27. A ________ server loads all
Answer: Option B information from the disk file. 6. NVT uses two sets of characters, one
Solution: for _____and one for __________.
A) primary
21. If a label is terminated by a null string, A) sending; receiving
B) secondary
it is called a __________. B) request; reply
C) zone
D) none of the above C) data; control
A) PQDN D) none of the above
B) FQDN Answer: Option A
C) SQDN Answer: Option C
D) none of the above MCQ in Remote Logging, Solution:
Electronic Mail, and File 7. In FTP, ASCII, EBCDIC, and image define
Answer: Option B Transfer
Solution: an attribute called _______.
1. . When both sender and receiver are
22. In the Internet, the domain name connected to a mail server via a LAN or a A) file type
space (tree) is divided into _______ WAN, we need ___________________. B) data structure
different sections: C) transmission mode
A) two UAs, two pairs of MTAs, and a pair D) none of the above
A) three of MAAs
B) two B) two UAs, and two pairs of MTAs Answer: Option A
C) four C) two UAs, two pairs of MTAs, and two Solution:
D) none of the above pairs of MAAs 8. The third stage in an email transfer
D) none of the above needs a ________ protocol.
Answer: Option A
Solution: Answer: Option A
A) pull
23. In __________ resolution, the server Solution:
B) push
returns the IP address of the server that it 2. The actual mail transfer is done C) both a and b
thinks can resolve the query. through ____________. D) none of the above

A) iterative A) UAs Answer: Option A

B) recursive B) MTAs Solution:
C) straight C) MAAs
D) none of the above 9. _______ is the standard mechanism
D) none of the above provided by TCP/IP for copying a file from
Answer: Option A one host to another.
Answer: Option B
Solution:
A) TELNET 16. In FTP, _______ is the service type 22. _________ is a supplementary
B) SMTP used by the IP protocol because this is an protocol that allows non-ASCII data to be
C) TFTP interactive connection between a user sent through email.
D) none of the above (human) and a server.
A) JPEG
Answer: Option D A) maximize throughput B) MPEG
Solution: B) minimize delay C) MIME
C) minimize error D) none of the above
10. In the _______ mode, each character
D) none of the above
typed is sent by the client to the server.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B Solution:
A) default Solution:
B) character 23. Which of the following services is not
C) line 17. When a user wants to access an provided by a UA?
D) none of the above application program or utility located on
a remote machine, he or she performs A) composing messages
Answer: Option B ___________ login. B) reading messages
Solution: C) replying messages
A) local D) all are
11. The _______ is software residing on
B) remote
the remote system that allows the
C) temporary Answer: Option D
remote system to receive characters from
D) none of the above Solution:
a TELNET server.
Answer: Option B 24. If the sender wants to enable an
A) terminal driver Solution: option, it sends a _______ command.
B) pseudoterminal driver
C) TELNET client 18. The third stage in an email transfer A) WILL
D) none of the above uses a(n) ________ protocol. B) DO
C) WONT
Answer: Option B A) UA D) none of the above
Solution: B) MTA
C) MAA Answer: Option A
12. FTP uses the services of ________.
D) none of the above Solution:

A) UDP Answer: Option C 25. In FTP, when we _______, it is copied

B) IP Solution: from the server to the client.
C) TCP
D) none of the above 19. TELNET uses only one TCP A) retrieve a file
connection. The server uses ________ B) retrieve a list
Answer: Option C port and the client uses ________ port. C) a and b
Solution: D) none of the above
A) a well-known; another well-known
13. For the control connection, FTP uses
B) an ephemeral; another ephemeral Answer: Option C
the __________ character set.
C) a well-known; an ephemeral Solution:
D) none of the above
A) regular ASCII 26. TELNET is an abbreviation for
B) EBCDIC Answer: Option C ____________.
C) NVT ASCII Solution:
D) none of the above A) terminal network
20. For control, NVT uses US ASCII B) telephone network
Answer: Option C characters with the highest order bit set C) telecommunication network
Solution: to ______. D) none of the above
14. In FTP, when we _______, it is copied
A) 1 Answer: Option A
from the client to the server.
B) 0 Solution:
C) a or b
A) retrieve a file D) none of the above 27. When a user logs into a local time-
B) store a file sharing system, it is called ________
C) retrieve a list Answer: Option A login.
D) none of the above Solution:
A) local
Answer: Option B 21. The formal protocol that defines the B) remote
Solution: MTA client and server in the Internet is C) temporary
called ___________. D) none of the above
15. During an FTP session the data
connection is opened _______.
A) SMTP Answer: Option A
B) SNMP Solution:
A) exactly once C) TELNET
B) exactly twice D) none of the above 28. Which part of the mail created by the
C) as many times as necessary UA contains the sender and receiver
D) none of the above Answer: Option A names?
Solution:
Answer: Option C A) envelope
Solution: B) address
C) header 35. SMTP is a __________protocol. A) ICA
D) none of the above B) IAC
A) pull C) AIC
Answer: Option C B) push D) none of the above
Solution: C) both a and b
D) none of the above Answer: Option B
29. ________ is part of a local hard drive, Solution:
a special file with permission restrictions.
Answer: Option B
42. When the sender and the receiver of
Solution:
A) A message an email are on different systems, we
B) A response 36. In FTP, there are three types of need only _____________.
C) An agent _______: stream, block, and compressed.
D) none of the above A) one MTA
A) file types B) two UAs
Answer: Option D B) data structures C) two UAs and one pair of MTAs
Solution: C) transmission modes D) none of the above
D) none of the above
30. ________ provides service to the user Answer: Option C
to make the process of sending and Solution:
Answer: Option C
receiving a message easier.
Solution:
43. During an FTP session the control
A) An MTA 37. For data, NVT uses US ASCII connection is opened _______.
B) An MAA characters with the highest order bit set
C) A UA to ______. A) exactly once
D) none of the above B) exactly twice
A) 1 C) as many times as necessary
Answer: Option C B) 0 D) none of the above
Solution: C) a or b
D) none of the above Answer: Option A
31. The message contains the ________ Solution:
and the __________.
Answer: Option B
44. If the sender wants an option
Solution:
A) header; envelop disabled by the receiver, it sends a
B) header; body 38. The _______ translates NVT _______ command.
C) envelop; body characters into a form acceptable by the
D) none of the above remote operating system. A) WILL
B) DO
Answer: Option B A) terminal driver C) DONT
Solution: B) TELNET client D) none of the above
C) TELNET server
32. In the ____ mode, line editing Answer: Option C
D) none of the above
(echoing, character erasing, line erasing, Solution:
and so on) is done by the client.
Answer: Option C
45. The _______ translates local
Solution:
A) default characters into NVT form.
B) character 39. When the sender and the receiver of
C) line an email are on the same system, we A) terminal driver
D) none of the above need only ___________. B) TELNET client
C) TELNET server
Answer: Option C A) one UA D) none of the above
Solution: B) two UAs
C) one UA and one MTA Answer: Option B
33. The MIME _______ header uses text Solution:
D) none of the above
to describe the type of data in the body
of the message. 46. Currently two message access
Answer: Option B
protocols are available: _______ and
Solution:
A) content-type _________.
B) content-transfer-encoding 40. In the Internet, the email address
C) content-description consists of two parts: a _______ and a A) POP3; IMAP2
D) none of the above _______. B) POP4; IMAP1
C) POP3; IMAP4
Answer: Option C A) local part; domain name D) none of the above
Solution: B) global part; domain name
C) label; domain name Answer: Option C
34. If the sender wants to disable an Solution:
D) none of the above
option, it sends a _______ command.
47. TELNET is a ________ client-server
Answer: Option A
A) WILL application program.
Solution:
B) DO
C) WONT 41. To distinguish data from control A) specific-purpose
D) none of the above characters, each sequence of control B) general-purpose
characters is preceded by a special C) both a and b
Answer: Option C control character called ________. D) none of the above
Solution:
Answer: Option B
Solution: MCQ in WWW and HTTP 7. The _________ is a standard for
specifying any kind of information on the
48. In FTP, a file can be organized into 1. A user needs to send the server some Internet.
records, pages, or a stream of bytes. information. The request line method is
These are types of an attribute called _______.
A) URL
_______.
B) ULR
A) OPTION C) RLU
A) file types B) PATCH D) none of the above
B) data structures C) POST
C) transmission modes D) none of the above Answer: Option A
D) none of the above Solution:
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B Solution: 8. _________ is a repository of
Solution: information linked together from points
2. In a URL, the _______ is the client- all over the world.
49. The process of transferring a mail server program used to retrieve the
message occurs in ________ phases. document.
A) The WWW
B) HTTP
A) two A) path C) HTML
B) four B) protocol D) none of the above
C) five C) host
D) none of the above D) none of the above Answer: Option A
Solution:
Answer: Option D Answer: Option B
Solution: Solution: 9. Which of the following is present in
both an HTTP request line and a status
50. In FTP, the well-known port ____ is 3. A _______ document is created by a line?
used for the control connection and the Web server whenever a browser requests
well-known port ________ for the data the document.
A) HTTP version number
connection.
B) URL
A) static C) status code
A) 21; 22 B) dynamic D) none of the above
B) 21; 20 C) active
C) 20; 21 D) none of the above Answer: Option A
D) none of the above Solution:
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B Solution: 10. Active documents are sometimes
Solution: referred to as _________ dynamic
4. One way to create an active document documents.
51. In the _______ mode, the echoing is is to use __________.
done by the client.
A) client-site
A) CGI B) server-site
A) default B) Java stand-alone programs C) both a and b
B) character C) Java applets D) none of the above
C) line D) none of the above
D) none of the above Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C Solution:
Answer: Option A Solution:
Solution: 11. HTTP uses the services of _________
5. A cookie is made by the ________ and on well-known port 80.
52. There are two types of user agents: eaten by the _________.
_________ and ___________.
A) UDP
A) client; client B) IP
A) command-driven; data-driven B) client; server C) TCP
B) command-driven; GUI-based C) server; server D) none of the above
C) command-based and data-based D) none of the above
D) none of the above Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C Solution:
Answer: Option B Solution:
Solution: 12. Dynamic documents are sometimes
6. A _______ document is a fixed-content referred to as _________ dynamic
53. _______ is more powerful and document that is created and stored in a documents.
complex than _______. server. The client can get a copy of the
document only.
A) client-site
A) POP3; IMAP4 B) server-site
B) IMAP4; POP3 A) static C) both a and b
C) SMTP; POP3 B) dynamic D) none of the above
D) none of the above C) active
D) none of the above Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B Solution:
Answer: Option A
Solution: 13. For many applications, we need a
program or a script to be run at the client
site. These are called _______________
documents.
A) static 26. In a URL, the _______ is the full name
B) dynamic Answer: Option B of the file where the information is
C) active Solution: located.
D) none of the above
20. _____________ is a language for
A) path
Answer: Option C creating Web pages.
B) protocol
Solution: C) host
A) HTTP D) none of the above
14. In HTTP, a _______ server is a B) HTML
computer that keeps copies of responses C) FTTP Answer: Option A
to recent requests. D) none of the above Solution:

A) regular Answer: Option B 27. In a URL, the ______ is the computer

B) proxy Solution: on which the information is located.
C) both a and b
D) none of the above 21. ___________ is a technology that
A) path
creates and handles dynamic documents.
B) protocol
Answer: Option B C) host
Solution: A) GIC D) none of the above
B) CGI
15. The HTTP request line contains a C) GCI Answer: Option C
_______ method to get information D) none of the above Solution:
about a document without retrieving the
document itself. Answer: Option B 28. HTTP version 1.1 specifies a
Solution: _________connection by default.
A) HEAD
B) POST 22. The HTTP request line contains a
A) persistent
C) COPY _______ method to request a document
B) nonpersistent
D) none of the above from the server.
C) both a and b
D) none of the above
Answer: Option A A) GET
Solution: B) POST Answer: Option A
C) COPY Solution:
16. A response message always contains D) none of the above
_______. 29. In HTTP, the first line in a request
Answer: Option A message is called a _______ line; the first
A) a header and a body Solution: line in the response message is called the
B) a request line and a header ________ line.
C) a status line and a header 23. In a ___________connection, the
D) none of the above server leaves the connection open for
A) request; response
more requests after sending a response.
B) response; request
Answer: Option C C) response; status
Solution: A) persistent D) none of the above
B) nonpersistent
17. In a URL, an optional ________ can be C) both a and b Answer: Option D
inserted between the host and the path, D) none of the above Solution:
and it is separated from the host by a
colon. Answer: Option A 30. The WWW today is a _______ client-
Solution: server service, in which a client using a
A) path browser can access a service using a
B) protocol 24. An HTTP request message always server.
C) host contains _______.
D) none of the above A) limited
A) a header and a body B) vast
Answer: Option D B) a request line and a header C) distributed
Solution: C) a status line, a header, and a body D) none of the above
D) none of the above
18. An applet is _______ document
Answer: Option C
application program. Answer: Option B
Solution: MCQ in Network Management:
A) a static
25. In a ___________ connection, one
SNMP
B) an active
C) a passive TCP connection is made for each 1. A manager is a host that runs the
D) a dynamic request/response. SNMP _______ process.

Answer: Option B A) persistent A) client

Solution: B) nonpersistent B) server
C) both a and b C) both a and b
19. The documents in the WWW can be D) none of the above D) none of the above
grouped into ______ broad categories.
Answer: Option B Answer: Option A
A) two Solution: Solution:
B) three
C) four 2. An SNMP agent can send _______
D) none of the above messages.
A) Response B) Store the value of an object defined in D) none of the above
B) GetRequest an agent.
C) SetRequest C) a and b Answer: Option A
D) none of the above D) none of the above Solution:

Answer: Option A Answer: Option C 15. SMI emphasizes three attributes to

Solution: Solution: handle an object: _____, ________, and
_________.
3. SMI uses another standard, 9. We can compare the task of network
___________, to encode data to be management to the task of writing a A) name; data type; size
transmitted over the network. program. Both tasks have actions B) name; size; encoding method
performed by statements. In network C) name; data type; encoding method
A) MIB management this is handled by _______. D) none of the above
B) ANS.1
C) BER A) SMNP Answer: Option C
D) none of the above B) MIB Solution:
C) SMI
Answer: Option C D) none of the above 16. SNMP uses the services of UDP on
Solution: two well-known ports, _______ and
Answer: Option A _______.
4. We can compare the task of network Solution:
management to the task of writing a A) 161; 162
program. Both tasks need variable 10. An agent is a host or computer that B) 160; 161
declarations. In network management runs the SNMP _______ process. C) 160; 162
this is handled by _________. D) none of the above
A) client
A) SMNP B) server Answer: Option A
B) MIB C) both a and b Solution:
C) SMI D) none of the above
D) none of the above 17. SNMP uses two other
Answer: Option B protocols:________ and _________.
Answer: Option B Solution:
Solution: A) MIB; SMTP
11. The Trap PDU is sent from the ______ B) SMI; MIB
5. We can compare the task of network to the _______ to report an event. C) FTP; SMI
management to the task of writing a D) none of the above
program. Both tasks need rules. In A) server; client
network management this is handled by B) client; server Answer: Option B
___________. C) network; host Solution:
D) none of the above
A) SMNP 18. _______ runs the SNMP client
B) MIB Answer: Option A program; _______ runs the SNMP server
C) SMI Solution: program.
D) none of the above
12. To name objects globally, SMI uses an A) A manager; a manager
Answer: Option C object identifier, which is a hierarchical B) An agent; an agent
Solution: identifier based on a _______ structure. C) A manager; an agent
D) An agent; a manager
6. The _______ data types are atomic A) linear
data types. B) tree Answer: Option C
C) graph Solution:
A) structure D) none of the above
B) simple 19. An object id defines a _______. Add a
C) both a and b Answer: Option B zero suffix to define the _______.
D) none of the above Solution:
A) variable; table
Answer: Option B 13. INTEGER, OCTET STRING, and Object B) table; variable
Solution: Identifier are _______ definitions used by C) variable; variable contents
SMI. D) none of the above
7. An SNMP agent can send _______
messages. A) MIB Answer: Option C
B) SNMP Solution:
A) GetRequest C) ASN.1
B) SetRequest D) none of the above 20. The _______ field in the SNMP PDU
C) Trap consists of a sequence of variables and
D) none of the above Answer: Option C their corresponding values.
Solution:
Answer: Option C A) version
Solution: 14. The Response PDU is sent from the B) community
______ to the ______ in response to C) VarBindList
8. Which is a manager duty? GetRequest or GetNextRequest. D) none of the above

A) Retrieve the value of an object defined A) server; client Answer: Option C

in an agent. B) client; server Solution:
C) network; host
21. SMI defines two structured data C) number of packets C) Q.991
types: ________ and _________. D) none of the above D) none of the above

A) sequence; atomic Answer: Option A Answer: Option B

B) sequence; sequence of Solution: Solution:
C) a sequence of; array
28. The GetRequest PDU is sent from the 2. When there is more than one source,
D) none of the above
_______ to the __________ to retrieve the _______ identifier defines the mixer.
the value of a variable or a set of
Answer: Option B
variables. A) synchronization source
Solution:
B) contributor
22. The _______ field in the SNMP PDU A) client; server C) timestamp
reports an error in a response message. B) server; client D) none of the above
C) server; network
A) community D) none of the above Answer: Option A
B) enterprise Solution:
C) error status Answer: Option A
Solution: 3. __________ is the protocol designed
D) none of the above
to handle real-time traffic on the
29. The _________ ordering enables a Internet.
Answer: Option C
manager to access a set of variables one
Solution:
after another by defining the first A) TCP
23. All objects managed by SNMP are variable. B) UDP
given an object identifier. The object A) lexicographic C) RTP
identifier always starts with _______. B) linear D) none of the above
C) non-linear
D) none of the above Answer: Option C
A) 1.3.6.1.2.1
B) 1.3.6.1.2.2 Solution:
Answer: Option A
C) 1.3.6.1.2.3
Solution: 4. Jitter is introduced in real-time data by
D) none of the above
the _______________.
30. To define the data type, SMI uses
Answer: Option A fundamental _______ definitions and
Solution: A) error caused during transmission
adds some new definitions.
B) delay between packets
24. Which of the following could be a C) both a and b
legitimate MIB object identifier? A) AMS.1 D) none of the above
B) ASN.1
C) ASN.2 Answer: Option B
A) 1.3.6.1.2.1.1
D) none of the above Solution:
B) 1.3.6.1.2.2.1
C) 2.3.6.1.2.1.2
Answer: Option B 5. In a real-time video conference, data
D) none of the above
Solution: from the server is _______ to the client
sites.
Answer: Option A 31. ________ defines the general rules
Solution: for naming objects, defining object types,
A) unicast
and showing how to encode objects and
25. SMI has two broad categories of data B) multicast
values.
type: _______ and _______. C) broadcast
D) none of the above
A) MIB
A) simple; complex
B) BER Answer: Option B
B) simple; structured
C) SMI Solution:
C) structured; unstructured
D) none of the above
D) none of the above
6. An RTP packet is encapsulated in
Answer: Option C _______.
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Solution:
A) a UDP user datagram
32. For a 1-byte length field, what is the
26. The _______ field in the SNMP PDU is B) a TCP segment
maximum value for the data length?
an offset that points to the variable in C) an IP datagram
error. D) none of the above
A) 127
B) 128 Answer: Option D
A) community
C) 255 Solution:
B) enterprise
D) none of the above
C) error index
7. A _______ changes the format of a
D) none of the above
Answer: Option A high-bandwidth video signal to a lower
quality narrow-bandwidth signal.
Answer: Option C MCQ in Multimedia
Solution:
1. _______ is a standard to allow A) timestamp
27. SNMP defines the telephones on the public telephone B) sequence number
___________________ to be sent from a network to talk to computers connected C) translator
manager to an agent and vice versa. to the Internet. D) none of the above

A) format of the packets Answer: Option C

A) SIP
B) encoding of the packets Solution:
B) H.323
8. ____________ is used to compress 21. In ________ encoding, the differences
video. Answer: Option B between the samples are encoded
Solution: instead of encoding all the sampled
A) MPEG values.
15. __________ means combining several
B) JPEG
streams of traffic into one stream.
C) either a or b A) predictive
D) none of the above B) perceptual
A) Translation C) both a and b
Answer: Option A B) Mixing D) none of the above
Solution: C) both a and b
D) none of the above Answer: Option A
9. Real-time traffic needs the support of Solution:
____________. Answer: Option B
Solution: 22. __________ encoding is based on the
A) broadcasting science of psychoacoustics, which is the
16. A real-time video performance lasts study of how people perceive sound.
B) multicasting
10 min. If there is jitter in the system, the
C) both a and b
viewer spends _______ minutes watching
D) none of the above A) Predictive
the performance.
B) Perceptual
Answer: Option B C) both a and b
Solution: A) less than 10 D) none of the above
B) more than 10
10. _______ are used to number the C) exactly 10 Answer: Option B
packets of a real-time transmission. D) none of the above Solution:

A) Timestamps Answer: Option B 23. _________ audio/video refers to the

B) Playback buffers Solution: use of the Internet for interactive
C) Sequence numbers audio/video applications.
17. ___________ audio/video refers to
D) none of the above
the broadcasting of radio and TV
A) Interactive
programs through the Internet.
Answer: Option C B) Streaming live
Solution: C) Streaming stored
A) Interactive D) none of the above
11. The third phase of JPEG is B) Streaming live
___________. C) Streaming stored Answer: Option A
D) none of the above Solution:
A) DCT transformation
B) quantization Answer: Option B 24. According to the Nyquist theorem, we
C) data compression Solution: need to sample an analog signal
D) none of the above ________times the highest frequency.
18. __________ means changing the
encoding of a payload to a lower quality
Answer: Option C A) three
to match the bandwidth of the receiving
Solution: B) two
network.
C) four
12. The second phase of JPEG is D) none of the above
___________. A) Translation
B) Mixing Answer: Option B
A) DCT transformation C) both a and b Solution:
B) quantization D) none of the above
C) data compression 25. ___________ is an application
D) none of the above Answer: Option A protocol that establishes, manages, and
Solution: terminates a multimedia session.
Answer: Option B
19. ____________ is used to compress
Solution: A) RIP
images.
B) SIP
13. A __________on each packet is C) DIP
required for real-time traffic. A) MPEG D) none of the above
B) JPEG
A) timestamp C) either a or b Answer: Option B
B) sequence number D) none of the above Solution:
C) both a and b
D) none of the above Answer: Option B 26. _________ is not suitable for
Solution: interactive multimedia traffic because it
Answer: Option C retransmits packets in case of errors.
20. A ________buffer is required for real-
Solution:
time traffic.
A) UDP
14. To prevent _________, we can B) TCP
timestamp the packets and separate the A) playback C) both a and b
arrival time from the playback time. B) reordering D) none of the above
C) sorting
A) error D) none of the above Answer: Option B
B) jitter Solution:
C) either a or b Answer: Option A
D) none of the above Solution:
27. RTCP uses an odd-numbered _______ C) sequence number 6. A(n) ______ is a keyless substitution
port number that follows the port D) none of the above cipher with N inputs and M outputs that
number selected for RTP. uses a formula to define the relationship
Answer: Option A between the input stream and the output
A) UDP Solution: stream.
B) TCP
34. The first phase of JPEG is
C) both a and b A) S-box
___________.
D) none of the above B) P-box
C) T-box
Answer: Option A A) DCT transformation D) none of the above
Solution: B) quantization
C) data compression Answer: Option A
28. We can divide audio and video D) none of the above Solution:
services into _______ broad categories.
Answer: Option A 7. A ________ cipher replaces one
A) three character with another character.
B) two
MCQ in Cryptography
C) four 1. One commonly used public-key A) substitution
D) none of the above cryptography method is the ______ B) transposition
algorithm. C) either (a) or (b)
Answer: Option A D) neither (a) nor (b)
Solution:
A) RSS
Answer: Option A
29. RTP uses a temporary even- B) RAS
Solution:
numbered _______ port. C) RSA
D) RAA 8. The ________ cipher reorders the
A) UDP plaintext characters to create a
Answer: Option C ciphertext.
B) TCP
Solution:
C) both a and b
D) none of the above 2. A(n) ______ algorithm transforms A) substitution
ciphertext to plaintext. B) transposition
Answer: Option A C) either (a) or (b)
Solution: D) neither (a) nor (b)
A) encryption
30. ________ audio/video refers to on- B) decryption
Answer: Option B
demand requests for compressed C) either (a) or (b)
Solution:
audio/video files. D) neither (a) nor (b)
9. _______ is a round cipher based on the
Answer: Option B Rijndael algorithm that uses a 128-bit
A) Streaming live
Solution: block of data.
B) Streaming stored
C) Interactive 3. The ________ is the message after
D) none of the above transformation. A) AEE
B) AED
Answer: Option B C) AER
A) ciphertext
Solution: D) AES
B) plaintext
31. ___________ is a protocol for C) secret-text
Answer: Option D
controlling the flow and quality of data. D) none of the above
Solution:
Answer: Option A 10. The ________is the original message
A) RTP
Solution: before transformation.
B) RTCP
C) UDP 4. A(n) _______ algorithm transforms
D) none of the above plaintext to ciphertext. A) ciphertext
B) plaintext
Answer: Option B C) secret-text
A) encryption
Solution: D) none of the above
B) decryption
32. A _______ adds signals from different C) either (a) or (b)
Answer: Option B
sources to create a single signal. D) neither (a) nor (b)
Solution:
Answer: Option A 11. A modern cipher is usually a complex
A) timestamp
Solution: _____cipher made of a combination of
B) sequence number
C) mixer different simple ciphers.
5. The ________ method provides a one-
D) none of the above time session key for two parties.
A) round
Answer: Option C B) circle
A) Diffie-Hellman
Solution: C) square
B) RSA
D) none of the above
33. A _______ shows the time a packet C) DES
was produced relative to the first or D) AES
Answer: Option A
previous packet. Solution:

A) timestamp Answer: Option A 12. The _________ attack can endanger

B) playback buffer Solution: the security of the Diffie-Hellman method
if two parties are not authenticated to 25. In a(n) ________ cipher, the same key
each other. Answer: Option C is used by both the sender and receiver.
Solution:
A) man-in-the-middle A) symmetric-key
19. ECB and CBC are ________ ciphers.
B) ciphertext attack B) asymmetric-key
C) plaintext attack C) either (a) or (b)
D) none of the above A) block D) neither (a) nor (b)
B) stream
Answer: Option A C) field Answer: Option A
Solution: D) none of the above Solution:

13. A combination of an encryption Answer: Option A 26. _________ ciphers can be categorized
algorithm and a decryption algorithm is Solution: into two broad categories:
called a ________. monoalphabetic and polyalphabetic.
20. A(n) _______is a keyless transposition
cipher with N inputs and M outputs that
A) cipher A) Substitution
uses a table to define the relationship
B) secret B) Transposition
between the input stream and the output
C) key C) either (a) or (b)
stream.
D) none of the above D) neither (a) nor (b)

Answer: Option A A) S-box Answer: Option A

Solution: B) P-box Solution:
C) T-box
14. In an asymmetric-key cipher, the D) none of the above 27. The _______ cipher is the simplest
receiver uses the ______ key. monoalphabetic cipher. It uses modular
Answer: Option B arithmetic with a modulus of 26.
A) private Solution:
B) public A) transposition
21. ________ DES was designed to
C) either a or b B) additive
increase the size of the DES key.
D) neither (a) nor (b) C) shift
D) none of the above
Answer: Option A A) Double
Solution: B) Triple Answer: Option C
C) Quadruple Solution:
15. AES has _____ different D) none of the above
configurations. 28. In an asymmetric-key cipher, the
Answer: Option B sender uses the__________ key.
A) two Solution:
B) three A) private
22. ________ is the science and art of
C) four B) public
transforming messages to make them
D) five C) either (a) or (b)
secure and immune to attacks.
D) neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: Option B
Solution: A) Cryptography Answer: Option B
B) Cryptoanalysis Solution:
16. DES is a(n) ________ method adopted C) either (a) or (b)
by the U.S. government. D) neither (a) nor (b) 29. In a(n) ________ cipher, a pair of keys
is used.
A) symmetric-key Answer: Option A A) symmetric-key
B) asymmetric-key Solution: B) asymmetric-key
C) either (a) or (b) C) either (a) or (b)
23. DES has an initial and final D) neither (a) nor (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b)
permutation block and _________
rounds. Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
Solution: Solution:
A) 14
17. DES uses a key generator to generate B) 15 30. The _______ is a number or a set of
sixteen _______ round keys. C) 16 numbers on which the cipher operates.
D) none of the above
A) 32-bit A) cipher
B) 48-bit Answer: Option C B) secret
C) 54-bit Solution: C) key
D) 42-bit D) none of the above
24. The DES function has _______
components. Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
Solution: Solution:
A) 2
18. The Caesar cipher is a _______cipher B) 3 31. In a(n) ________, the key is called the
that has a key of 3. C) 4 secret key.
D) 5
A) transposition A) symmetric-key
B) additive Answer: Option C B) asymmetric-key
C) shift Solution: C) either (a) or (b)
D) none of the above D) neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: Option A 7. A witness used in entity authentication D) neither (a) nor (b)
is ____________.
MCQ in Network Security
1. Message_____ means that the data A) something known Answer: Option C
must arrive at the receiver exactly as B) something possessed Solution:
sent. C) something inherent
D) all of the above 14. Digital signature cannot provide
________ for the message.
A) confidentiality
B) integrity
Answer: Option D A) integrity
C) authentication
Solution: B) confidentiality
D) none of the above
C) nonrepudiation
8. A _______ message digest is used as D) authentication
an MDC.
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B
Solution: Solution:
A) keyless
2. Message _______ means that the B) keyed
15. To authenticate the data origin, one
receiver is ensured that the message is C) either (a) or (b)
needs a(n) _______.
coming from the intended sender, not an D) neither (a) nor (b)
imposter.
Answer: Option A A) MDC
Solution: B) MAC
A) confidentiality C) either (a) or (b)
B) integrity 9. A(n)______ creates a secret key only D) neither (a) nor (b)
C) authentication between a member and the center.
D) none of the above
A) CA Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
B) KDC Solution:
Solution:
C) KDD
D) none of the above 16. A(n) _________ can be used to
3. A(n) ________function creates a
preserve the integrity of a document or a
message digest out of a message.
Answer: Option B message.
A) encryption
B) decryption Solution:
C) hash A) message digest
10. ________ means to prove the identity B) message summary
D) none of the above
of the entity that tries to access the C) encrypted message
system’s resources. D) none of the above
Answer: Option C
A) Message authentication
Solution:
B) Entity authentication Answer: Option A
4. The secret key between members C) Message confidentiality Solution:
needs to be created as a ______ key D) none of the above
when two members contact KDC. 17. Challenge-response authentication
Answer: Option B can be done using ________.
Solution:
A) public
B) session A) symmetric-key ciphers
11. A ________ signature is included in
C) complimentary B) asymmetric-key ciphers
the document; a _______ signature is a
D) none of the above C) keyed-hash functions
separate entity.
D) all of the above

A) conventional; digital Answer: Option D

Answer: Option B B) digital; digital Solution:
Solution: C) either (a) or (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b) 18. The _______criterion ensures that we
5. The ________ criterion ensures that a
cannot find two messages that hash to
message cannot easily be forged.
Answer: Option A the same digest.
Solution:
A) one-wayness
A) one-wayness
B) weak-collision-resistance 12. If _________ is needed, a
B) weak-collision-resistance
C) strong-collision-resistance cryptosystem must be applied over the
C) strong-collision-resistance
D) none of the above scheme.
D) none of the above
Answer: Option B A) integrity Answer: Option C
Solution: B) confidentiality Solution:
C) nonrepudiation
6. A(n) _____ is a trusted third party that
D) authentication 19. A digital signature needs
assigns a symmetric key to two parties.
a(n)_________ system.
Answer: Option B
A) KDC Solution: A) symmetric-key
B) CA
B) asymmetric-key
C) KDD 13. Digital signature provides ________.
C) either (a) or (b)
D) none of the above
D) neither (a) nor (b)
A) authentication
Answer: Option A B) nonrepudiation Answer: Option B
Solution: C) both (a) and (b) Solution:
20. A(n) ________is a federal or state A) Confidentiality C) PGP
organization that binds a public key to an B) Integrity D) SSL
entity and issues a certificate. C) Authentication
D) Nonrepudiation Answer: Option B
A) KDC Solution:
B) Kerberos Answer: Option D
C) CA Solution: 4. One security protocol for the e-mail
D) none of the above system is _________.
27. A hash function must meet ________
criteria.
Answer: Option C A) IPSec
Solution: B) SSL
A) two
C) PGP
21. Message ________ means that the B) three
sender and the receiver expect privacy. C) four
D) none of the above
D) none of the above
Answer: Option C
A) confidentiality Solution:
B) integrity Answer: Option B
C) authentication Solution: 5. Typically, ______ can receive
D) none of the above application data from any application
28. __________ is a popular session key
creator protocol that requires an layer protocol, but the protocol is
Answer: Option A normally HTTP.
authentication server and a ticket-
Solution:
granting server.
22. In ________ authentication, the A) SSL
claimant proves that she knows a secret A) KDC B) TLS
without actually sending it. B) Kerberos C) either (a) or (b)
C) CA D) both (a) and (b)
A) password-based D) none of the above
B) challenge-response Answer: Option D
C) either (a) or (b) Answer: Option B Solution:
D) neither (a) nor (b) Solution:
6. IKE is a complex protocol based on
29. Password-based authentication can ______ other protocols.
Answer: Option B
be divided into two broad categories:
Solution:
_______ and _______. A) two
23. In _______, a claimant proves her B) three
identity to the verifier by using one of the A) fixed; variable C) four
three kinds of witnesses. B) time-stamped; fixed D) five
C) fixed; one-time
A) message authentication D) none of the above Answer: Option B
B) entity authentication Solution:
C) message confidentiality Answer: Option C
D) message integrity 7. IPSec defines two protocols: _______
MCQ IN SECURITY IN THE and ________.
Answer: Option B INTERNET: IPSEC, SSL/TLS,
Solution: PGP, VPN, AND FIREWALLS A) AH; SSL
24. The _______ criterion states that it 1. _________ operates in the transport B) PGP; ESP
must be extremely difficult or impossible mode or the tunnel mode. C) AH; ESP
to create the message if the message D) all of the above
digest is given. A) IPSec
B) SSL Answer: Option C
Solution:
A) one-wayness C) PGP
B) weak-collision-resistance D) none of the above 8. In the ______ mode, IPSec protects
C) strong-collision-resistance information delivered from the transport
D) none of the above Answer: Option A layer to the network layer.
Solution:
Answer: Option A
2. IKE creates SAs for _____. A) transport
Solution:
B) tunnel
25. A(n) ______ is a hierarchical system C) either (a) or (b)
A) SSL
that answers queries about key D) neither (a) nor (b)
certification.
B) PGP
C) IPSec
Answer: Option A
D) VP Solution:
A) KDC
B) PKI
Answer: Option C 9. ______ is the protocol designed to
C) CA
Solution: create security associations, both
D) none of the above
inbound and outbound.
3. ______ provides either authentication
Answer: Option C or encryption, or both, for packets at the
Solution: IP level. A) SA
B) CA
26. _________ means that a sender must
A) AH C) KDC
not be able to deny sending a message
that he sent. B) ESP D) IKE
 16. IPSec uses a set of SAs called the A) X509
Answer: Option D ________. B) PGP
Solution: C) KDC
10. A _______network is used inside an A) SAD D) none of the above
organization. B) SAB
C) SADB Answer: Option B
D) none of the above Solution:
A) private
B) public 23. IPSec in the ______ mode does not
Answer: Option C
C) semi-private protect the IP header.
Solution:
D) semi-public
17. An ________ is a private network that A) transport
Answer: Option A uses the Internet model. B) tunnel
Solution: C) either (a) or (b)
11. SSL provides _________. A) intranet D) neither (a) nor (b)
B) internet
C) extranet Answer: Option A
A) message integrity Solution:
B) confidentiality D) none of the above
C) compression 24. ________ provides privacy, integrity,
Answer: Option A
D) all of the above and authentication in e-mail.
Solution:

Answer: Option D 18. ______ is actually an IETF version of A) IPSec

Solution: _____. B) SSL
12. The Internet authorities have C) PGP
reserved addresses for _______. A) TLS; TSS D) none of the above
B) SSL; TLS
C) TLS; SSL Answer: Option C
A) intranets Solution:
B) internets D) SSL; SLT
C) extranets 25. In _____, there can be multiple paths
Answer: Option C
D) none of the above from fully or partially trusted authorities.
Solution:

Answer: Option D 19. In ______, there is a single path from A) X509

Solution: the fully trusted authority to any B) PGP
certificate. C) KDC
13. An _________ is a network that
allows authorized access from outside D) none of the above
users. A) X509
B) PGP Answer: Option B
C) KDC Solution:
A) intranet
D) none of the above
B) internet 26. ______ provides authentication at the
C) extranet IP level.
Answer: Option A
D) none of the above Solution:
A) AH
Answer: Option C 20. The combination of key exchange, B) ESP
Solution: hash, and encryption algorithms defines a C) PGP
________ for each SSL session. D) SSL
14. _________ is a collection of protocols
designed by the IETF (Internet
Engineering Task Force) to provide A) list of protocols Answer: Option A
security for a packet at the network level. B) cipher suite Solution:
C) list of keys
27. In _______, the cryptographic
A) IPSec D) none of the above algorithms and secrets are sent with the
B) SSL message.
Answer: Option B
C) PGP
Solution:
D) none of the above A) IPSec
21. A ______ provides privacy for LANs B) SSL
Answer: Option A that must communicate through the C) TLS
Solution: global Internet. D) PGP
15. IKE uses _______.
A) VPP Answer: Option D
B) VNP Solution:
A) Oakley
C) VNN
B) SKEME 28. ______ is designed to provide
D) VPN security and compression services to data
C) ISAKMP
D) all of the above generated from the application layer.
Answer: Option D
Solution:
Answer: Option D A) SSL
Solution: 22. _______ uses the idea of certificate B) TLS
trust levels. C) either (a) or (b)
D) both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option D
Solution:

29. _______ provide security at the

transport layer.

A) SSL
B) TLS
C) either (a) or (b)
D) both (a) and (b)

Answer: Option D
Solution:

30. The _______ mode is normally used

when we need host-to-host (end-to-end)
protection of data.

A) transport
B) tunnel
C) either (a) or (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b)

Answer: Option A
Solution:

31. In the _______ mode, IPSec protects

the whole IP packet, including the original
IP header.

A) transport
B) tunnel
C) either (a) or (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b)

Answer: Option B
Solution:

32. ______ was invented by Phil

Zimmerman.

A) IPSec
B) SSL
C) PGP
D) none of the above

Answer: Option C
Solution:

33. A _______ layer security protocol

provides end-to-end security services for
applications.

A) data link
B) network
C) transport
D) none of the above

Answer: Option C
Solution:

34. In PGP, to exchange e-mail messages,

a user needs a ring of _______ keys.

A) secret
B) public
C) either (a) or (b)
D) both (a) and (b)

Answer: Option B