UROSURGERY d.

periprostatic zone
1. The best metnod to detect prostate cancer is 19. Length of an adult ureter is about
A. PSA B. DRE C. PSA + DRE D. CT scan a. 10cm
2. The kidney weighs about b. 30cm
a. 10 g b. 15g c. 150 g d. 1 kg c. 100 cm
3. The blood supply of the testis d. 1 m
a. Testicular artery b. differential artey c. cremasteric 20. Main venous drainage of the left adrenal gland
artery a. left renal vein
4. Premalignant lesions of the penis b. inferior vena cava
a. Cutaneous horn b. balanile xerotica obliterans d. all c. inferior vena cava
of the above d. splenic vein
5. The classic triad of symptom of renal cell Ca EXCEPT 21. Struvate stones are composed of
a. Weight loss a. calcium oxalate dehydrate
b. TRIAD includes :flank pain, gross hematuria, b. magnesium ammonium phosphate
abdominal mass c. calcium oxalate monohydrate
6. Most common testis tumor in infants and yolk sac d. uric acid
a. Choriocarcinoma 22. Struvite stones are infection stones associated with the following
b. Spermatocyte seminoma except:
c. Emrbyonal CA a. proteus
d. Yolksac tumor b. providencia
7. The right testicular veins drains into the inferior vena cava while c. staphylococcus
while the left testicular vein drains to the d. streptococcus
a. Adrenal vein 23. Type of stone not visualized by plain x-ray
b. Inferior vena cava (I think its B… check it out for a. Calcium stones
yourself) b. Uric acid
c. left renal vein c. Apatite
d. left iliac vein d. struvites
8. The main artery to the penile shaft is the 24. Most common stone in the urinary tract
a. Dorsal artery a. Calcium oxalate
b. Cremasteric artery I b. Struvite
c. Internal pudendal artery c. Uric acid
d. External pudendal artery d. Brushica
9. Vascular supply to the adrenals EXCEPT 25. Radiographic evaluation of the urinary tract for the aid of
a. Inferior phrenic artery radiopaque material
b. renal artery a. IV urography (IVP)
c. superior mesenteric vein b. Conography
d. branch of aorta c. Panodoscopy
10. The areas of the narrowing along the uterer EXCEPT d. Arteria….
a. Uteropelvic junction 26. Minor calices
b. at the level of the 4th lumbar vertebra a. 8-12
c. Uterovesicular junction 27. Areas of Narrowing (different wording to describe these areas)
d. point of crossing of the iliac vessels a. Ureteropelvic Junction (2 mm)
11. The number of the papillae may vary but the typical kidney has b. Where ureter crosses OVER*** the iliac vessels
a. 4-6 b. 7-9 c. 10-12 d. 11-13 (4mm) also another question concerning this choice
12. True of wilms tumor___hereditary if c. Where ureter courses the bladder wall (1-5 mm)
a. bilateral 4-5 % 28. Average weight of the Kidney
b. history of familial tumors a. 150gm
c. tumors asstd aniridia or GU anomalies, mental 29. Avereage descent of the kidney on inspiration or assuming an
retardation upright position
d. *not true short arm of chromosome 12 it should be a. 4-5 cm
chromosome 11 30. Signigicant Hematuria
e. WAGR syndrome a. > 5 RBC/HPF (spun urine)
f. Palpable abdominal flank mass 90% b. >2 RBC/HPF (unspun urine)
13. GFR pressure- 6-12 mm HG 31. Precipitous loss of urine preceded by a strong urge to void
14. common renal CA in women- Urethral CA (Cystitis and Neurogenic Bladder***)
15. Urine flow that is significant of bladder outlet obstruction a. Urgency Incontenence
a. <25 cc/sec 32. Advanced urinary retention and produces intravesical pressures
b. <10cc/sec that overcome outlet resistence
c. <30cc/sec 33. Passage of gas in the urine
d. <20cc/sec a. Pneumaturia
16. Normal length of an adult female urethra: 4cm 34. DRE findings of prostates (done after 40 y/o):
17. PSA normal value a. Prostate Cancer = Hard mass
a. 0-4 ng/ml b. BRH = soft doughy
b. 4-10ng/ml c. Prostatitis = Tender and boggy
c. 10-15 ng/ml 35. Renal Function test:
d. 15-20ng/ml a. DMSA renal scan
18. Most common site of CA in prostate 36. In outlet obstruction, the intravesicual voiding pressure must
a. peripheral zone rises to ______ in order to overcome the outlet resistence
b. transitional zone a. > 50cmH20
c. central zone 37. The NORMAL intrapelvic pressure of the kidney:
 a. Approx ZERO d. Bladder neck
38. Lower/Middle UT Obstruction S/S: e. Needs further evaluation
a. Hesitancy
b. Decreased force and size of stream 6. The following are radiologic/imaging studies in investigation of stone
c. Terminal dribbling disease, which is the most important and accurate?
d. Hematuria a. CT STONOGRAM
e. Acute Urinary Retention AUR b. KUB-IVP
f. Dysuria (both upper and lower)
c. RETROGRADE PYELOGRAPHY
39. Normal urinary flow:
a. Males 20-25 cc/sec d. ULTRASOUND
b. Females 25-30 cc/sec
40. the end stage of severely infected and functionless, filled with 7. Which of the following is true about the advantages of CT-scan in
thick pus assessing stone diseases?
a. Pyonephrosis a. Shorter period of preparation
41. The most common cause of Urinary Stone Disease: b. Less expensive compared to MRI
a. UTI c. The dye are able to assess stones less than <3mm
42. RCC originate d. Able to visualize uric and non-calcium stones
a. proximal renal tubular epithelium
43. Stauffer Syndrome: 8. In an ultrasound, what are the findings of a patient with stones?
a. Hepatic dysfunction w/o hepatic metastasis associated a. Echogenic structure with anterior lighting
with RCC b. Echogenic structure with anterior shadowing
b. Elevated phosphatase c. Echogenic structure with posterior shadowing
c. Elevated bilirubin
d. Echogenic structure with posterior lighting
d. Hypoalbuminemia
e. Hypergammaglobinemia
9. What is the size of the stone that have a lesser chance of passing thru in
44. Remember that there are no clinically relevant tumor markers to
calculi?
help screen, dx, or evaluate RCC at present
a. < 5mm
45. Treatment of RCC: Sx Radical nephrectomy
b. > 6mm
c. > 4mm
1. Which of the following is/are factor/s in development of stones? d. > 6.5mm
a. Name
b. It 11. Mang Jose, 65 years old, went to your clinic complaining of urinary
c. You incontinence. Upon DRE you noted a mass in the prostate that is soft in
character and you diagnosed him of having BPH. During your history
d. Have
Mang jose confessed of having multiple partners during his younger years.
e. It Which of the following statements is true in the development of BPH?
f. All of the above
a. Having multiple partners increases the risk
2. The following are the narrowest portions of the ureter except: b. Having multiple partners decreases the risk
a. UPJ
c. Having multiple partners has no association in the development of
b. portion in the urinary bladder neck BPH
c. Portion traversing the urinary bladder d. None of the above
d. Portion over the iliac crest
e. All are true 12. What is the most potent hormone of the testes?
a. DHT
3. What is the most common component of kidney/urinary tract stones? b. Estradiol
a. Cholesterol c. FSH
b. Phosphates d. LH
c. Calcium
d. Uric acid 13. Which of the following test/s is/are the most important in indicating
e. All of the above probability of prostatic cancer?
a. DRE
4. Which of the following is true about the borders of costo-vertebral b. PSA
angle? c. Both
a. Inferior border of the 12th rib d. Neither
b. Psoas muscle
c. Lateral to sacrospinalis 14. The following are complications of stone diseases except?
d. A and C a. Renal failure
e. All of the above b. Cyst stone
c. Recurrent uti
5. Patient went to your clinic and complained of presence of blood in his d. All of the above
urine. During history taking he said that the blood is present all throughout
his urination. Among the different types of hematuria, most probably 15. All of the following are mechanism about microwave therapy except:
where is the site of bleeding of the patient? a. Apoptosis
a. Anterior urethra b. Tissue necrosis
b. Prostatic urethra c. Increases alpha receptors
c. Bladder d. Decreases alpha receptors
 21. Chancroid:
When we talk about stones, how may types of stones can you recall that we a. Haemophilus ducreyi (gram negative streptobacillus) EXAM
have talked about? Calcium, uric acid, struvite, cysteine, so when you talk ANSWER
about cysteine 22. Lymphogranuloma venerum:
1. PSA normal value is a. Chlamydia trachomatis. EXAM; a/w Intradermal frei and
a. 0-4ng/ml complement fixation tests; complication Elephantiasis of
b. 4-10ng/ml genitalia
c. 10-15ng/ml 23. Granuloma inguinale:
d. 15-20ng/ml a. Calymmato bacterium granulomatis: (infection agent) EXAM
2. What are the Benign tumors of the kidneys?: EXAM 24. Condyloma acuminata: for genital warts
a. Fibroma 25. Treatment for prostatitis? Ciprofloxacin. You give antibiotics for
b. Lipoma your prostatitis: ciprofloxacin.
c. Myomas 26. Common pathogen in prostatitis:
d. Lymphangiomas/hemangiomas a. Escherichia coli
e. All of the above b. Enterobacter
3. EXAM: WHAT IS Included in your Paraneoplastic syndrome? c. Proteus
a. It will signify RCC!!! Erythrocytosis, hypercalcemia, HPN and d. Klebsciella
non-metastasis hepatic dysfunction e. Pseudomonas
4. Radical nephrectomy: includes what organ besides kidney and the o Some are urease positive to form staghorn calculi.
mass? Adrenal glands! Prostatitis secretion: presence of bacteria
5. EXAM: TUMORS IS DERIVED FROM chromaffin cells which 27.
secrete catecholamines? Pheochromocytoma. 28. biopsy if the ultrasound of the prostate will reveal? concretion,
6. Nonurothelial tumors in the bladder: exam calcification, and hypoechoic lesion,
a. Small cell carcinoma 29. Central and peripheral zone is common for malignancy
b. Lymphoma 30. Transitional zone is common for BPH.
c. Sarcoma 1. What is significant about cysteine stones?
d. Pheochromocytoma a. Autosomal recessive.
e. Carcinosarcoma i. Cystine, cysteine: radioluscency: is autosomal recessive. b/c
f. Metastatic tumor they look like uric acid stones and they have something to do
7. Hematuria: is more predominant in prostatic CA. EXAM with chromosomes that were diluted during birth.
8. DHT (dihydrotestosterone) activates testosterone: by 5 alpha 1. This is how to remember stones: this is how you rank it
reductase which increases your prostate gland size. EXAM a. Radioopaque give a whitish in xray: and US. Also bones.
b. What you see in xray is hydronephrosis: nothing you can see is
9. Hormones: male will have testosterone, and as you “mature”. So stone. You can only see hydronephrosis and hydroureter and you
testosterone goes down and estrogen goes up. So enlarged prostate can know there is obstruction and possibility of stones.
are termed benign prostatic hyperplasia. Hyperplasia is increase in 2. Struvite stones, are the following, except:
the number of cells, due to slight elevation of ESTROGEN. a. Produce for organism
10. Chromosomes 3, 5, 7, 9 small: responsible for TCC b. Klebsiella
11. Intravesical agent for treating noninvasive TCC: EXAM c. Pseudomonas
a. Bacilli calmette: guerin (BCG) d. Staphylococcus
b. Mitomycin C e. Infectious stone
c. Interferon: L f. Magnesium blahblah
d. Epodyl i. Struvite: radioopaque: this is also termed as INFECTIOUS
e. Thiotepa stones. Or you can call them STAGHORN or your
12. Metastasis or locally inresectable tumors: aluminum magnesium phosphate stones
a. Platinum based combination chemotherapy for inresectable 1. Staghorn b/c they look like horns of male deer: they are
tumor: very big
b. MVAC (methotrexate, vinblastine, doxorubicin, cisplatin) 2. Why infectious stones? b/c predominantly you have urease
13. Germ cell tumor: producing bacteria.
a. Seminoma: most common!!! 3. i.e. your
14. What are the tumor markers requested for testicular tumors? AFP, a. PROTEUS
beta-HCG. EXAM b. KELBSIELLA
15. Nonseminomatous tumors: composed histologically of embryonal c. Staphyloccus
carcinoma, teratoma, choriocarcinoma and yolk sac elements alone or d. Pseudomonas
in combination. EXAM e. These are all urease producing. That will cause infectious
16. Teratoma: tumor contains elements derived from more than one germ- stones
cell layer (mesoderm, ectoderm, endoderm) EXAM f. So when you have infectious stones, these are very big
17. What is the age limit if your patient is cryptoorchid it has to be stones and pt’s goes into fever and flank pain
corrected before he reaches the age of 4. So 2 years age and below he 3. How do you diagnose stones?
needs to be corrected. ORCHIDOPEXY: orchidopexy. So when a. Urinalysis
patient is less than 2 years old with undescended testes, you need to b. IVP
do? c. Ultrasound
a. orchidopexy. (putting down the testicle and putting it in the d. KUB
proper place) e. Ct scan or ct stone-agram
18. MOST COMON KIDNEY TUMOR IS? RCC. EXAM f. All of the above
19. Most common carcinoma of prostate? Adenocarcinoma 4. EXAM: there is difficulty of hydronephrosis: and US revealed
20. Syphilis: hydronephrosis: what is next diagnostic modality to request? CT
a. Caused by spirochete treponema pallidum, with painless stonogram:
chancre, DARKFIELD EXAMINATION: Rx: penicillin, 5. Most common stone
tetracycline. a. Calcium oxalate
6. dissolution agent d. PSA
a. pictra preparation 15. Indications for surgery of bph: what is indication for surgery of your
b. potassium bicarbonate enlarged prostate?
c. potassium citrate a. Severe obstruction
d. Are they all the solution agent? Yes b. Low testosterone
16. What are drugs for bph
7. the following are adequate open type surgery for staghorn calculi? a. Phinasteride
a. Peviolythotopmy b. Terasazine
b. Radialnephropothy c. Alfuzozine
c. Anetropic nephrolithotomy: Anatrophic nephrolithotomy d. Toxazocine
d. Percutaneous e. Tamsungtozine
8. To prevent renal ischemia what do you put around the kidney? You i. REMEMBER ALL THE AGENTS: these are all alpha
put ice. This is termed “ice lashing”. You freeze the kidney and this receptors
will prevent renal ischemia or renal shock to the kidney and you put a a. Terazosin, American drug
lot of ice there and kidney becomes whitish and cut kidney into half i. terazosin act by relaxing the smooth muscle of the bladder
very quickly. You have 15 minutes to cut the kidney. neck and increasing peak urinary flow rates.
b. Alfuzosin, French drug
9. There is an imaginary line: REMEMBER THIS: this is a vascular line c. Tamsulosin, Japanese drug
that surgeons follow: called? BOYLE’S LINE. Exam. This 17. Some of the surgical treatment of the enlarged prostate, BPH?
procedure is termed: Boyle’s procedure. Cutting the kidney in half. a. Turd -- transurethral
So you remove the stone before 15 minutes b. Tuip – incision of the prostate
10. ureterolithiasis c. turp
a. Stones in the ureter d. Open prostectomy
11. Stones in bladder e. Hormonal aplation
a. Cystolithiasis, (old term is vesico) old term is 18. What’s the most common endoscopic surgery for enlarged prostate is?
Vesicolithiasis a. TURP: transurethral resection of the prostate: you get
12. Prostate and stones are bread and butter of urologists. Etiology factors prostatic chips
of BPH: 19. Size measurement of the prostate that’s favorable for open
a. Dihydrotestosterone prostectomy
b. Aging a. 20
c. Decrease in testosterone levels b. 60
13. Symptoms of bph c. 10
a. Frequency d. 30
b. Difficulty of urination e. Jinky said 50 in class??? Need to verify
c. Urgency 20. Indications for cystocopy
d. Low stream a. Hematuria
e. Loss of parabolic curve b. Infection
1. feeling of retention c. Verrucosil
a. at what pressure do you have the urge to urinate? 125 to 150 mls. 21. Indication for scope: when do you do a scope?
b. At 350 to 400 mL that is full distension of your bladder and you a. Do you do scope for hematuria? no
cannot smile now b/c you have goose bumps and this is full b. Do you do scope for infection? No
distension of your bladder. Normal physiology of micturation 22. What are the signs and symptoms for your RCC
from 125 to 150 will expel the urine to urinary tract reminding a. Gross or microscopic hematuria
you that there are sphincter that will help to open up and close. b. Abdominal or flank pain
c. You have internal and external sphincters. So when there is 23. if you have 10 sperms, and verrucosil, you have high chances of
obstruction, can you imagine, urine cannot be fully expelled out. infertility, and high chances of becoming infertile, you may not
So what happens? You have a symptom of feeling of retension so impregnate your partner, so you have to work out your problem,
patient comes in and says I have the feeling of retension: which is verrucosilectomy, not treated medically, we clip off the bad
d. Benign (enlarged) BPH: benign prostatic hyperplasia (b/c there is spermatic veins or vessels. What is verrucosil
an increase in the number prostatic cells). a. Bag of worms
2. Dribbling: b. Enlargement of spermatic veins
3. Intermittency: 24. Indications for ivp/kub
a. what is intermittency? Long, short, long, short, during urination. a. Hematuria
4. Frequency: b. Trauma
a. b/c of obstruction the sphincter cannot coordinate which opens c. Suspected obstruction
up b/c the sphincter are confused to release or not. So you keep 25. Most common childhood tumor
on urinating b/c sphincter open up and close. a. Wilm’s tumor
b. Pt’s with diabetes mellitus is your frequency: so you can have 26. What are the benign kidney tumors
male pt’s with diabetes with concurrent prostatic enlargement. a. Lipoma
5. Nocturia: EXAM b. Fibroma
a. You wake up early in the morning and urinate more than 3 or 4 c. Lymphangioma
times in the morning and the pattern of your sleep is affected. 27. Prosthatic ca is noted in what zone
b. THIS IS SIGNIFICANT FOR BPH. a. Peripheral
c. I.e. you can have dribbling for UTI. 28. Tumor marker for prosthatic
6. Dysuria: a. PSA
ii. 29. Premalignant lesions of penis
14. How do we, patient with bph, how do you diagnose? a. Erythoplasia of queyrat
a. Ultrasound b. Balanitis xerotica obliterans
b. Cystoscopy 30. Most common pathogen in females w/ uti
c. Uroflometric examination for pressure a. E. coli
31. Syphilis is for which organism 47. Steinstrasse means? (comes in after the shockwave procedure)(stone
a. Triponoma pallidum street) obstructed in:
32. Chancoid is for a. Distal: Steinstrasse: this is usually the term used for post
a. Heamophilus ducray ESW: after the stones are fragmented it is lodged in the
33. Lymphogranuloma venerium distal 3rd of your ureter and you term this a
a. Chalmydia trachomatis STEINSTRASSE.
34. Indication for surgical stone removal? 48. Normal size of prostate gland
a. Obstruction a. 20-25 g
35. Struvite stone? b. What is the weight of prostate gland? 25 to 30 grams.
a. Infectious stone EXAM.
36. Which animal can have uric acid stone? 49. What are the films of your KUB?
a. Dalmation dog KUB-IVP: kidney ureter bladder: intravenous pylography: you
37. This stone is of recessive nature? do intravenous pylography: which means you inject dye, contrast
a. Cystine stone! dye, retrograde (remember when you are in urology: you insert
38. Test for chancroid something from downward coming up: and antergrade is from
a. Ducreyi test kidney downwards) so retrograde is from urethra to kidney: so
39. Lymphogranuloma venerium test KUB-IVP you insert contrast material so the contrast material
a. Intradermal frei test which is a dye will fill up your kidney and the rest of your
40. Forms of prostatitis? urinary tract and to check for any obstruction. So you have
a. ??? several films and have 5 minutes for kidney and 10 minutes film
41. Most common prosthatic ca and 15 minute film and you have 30 minutes and then you have
a. Adenocarcinoma post film. When you have post film, you ask the patient and you
42. Right kidney is usually palpable for? make the contrast material go down to the bladder to the point
a. Obese patient where you check residual volume. Remember when dye is
b. Mobid patient injected you will see full blown urinary tract from upper to
c. Children. lower. If you do not see any obstruction: then you request this
43. Most common use for radionuclei is? one with US.
a. Technitiam 99 50. Appearance of your Angiomyolipoma: appearance is?
44. Need to know different type of radioluscent stone!!! And a. Composed of blood vessles (angio) smooth muscle (myo)
Radioopaque stone: he made a list and fat (lipoma)
45. Need to know elements of struvite stones! b. You have to be very careful: it could be different: smooth
What are the types of stones? muscle could be skeletal muscle. HE MIGHT TRICK US.
 Calcium oxalate: radioopaque: this is MOST COMMON: has a Skeletal muscle is not included.
lot of oxalate: most of them are round structures 51. Struvite stones elements:
 Calcium phosphate: radioopaque: has a lot of phosphate: most of a. Manganese
them are round structures b. Magnesium
 Struvite: radioopaque: this is also termed as INFECTIOUS c. Phosphate
stones. Or you can call them STAGHORN or your aluminum d. Ammonium
magnesium phosphate stones 52. The right kidney is palpable in who?
o Staghorn b/c they look like horns of male deer: they a. Obese
are very big b. Morbid dude
o Why infectious stones? b/c predominantly you have c. Children
urease producing bacteria. 53. Indication for stone removal surgically
o i.e. your a. Persistent pain
 PROTEUS b. Recurrent hematuria
 KELBSIELLA c. Obstruction with progressive renal damage
 Staphyloccus 54. Cysteine Stones can be impacted or lodged on the following areas
 Pseudomonas a. Ureteropelvic junction
 These are all urease producing. That will cause b. As ureter crosses pelvic plain
infectious stones c. Ureterovesical junction
 So when you have infectious stones, these are very 55. STONES CAN be impacted where?
big stones and pt’s goes into fever and flank pain a. Need to know three areas?
 Uric acid: radioluscency: (black): these are spiculated ( very 56. Which of the following animals can has high possibility having uric
sharp) and they have nothing to do with hyperuricemia. acid calculi?
Allopurinal has no bearing uric acid stones. Allopurinol is a. Lion
treatment for hyperuricemia. b. Whale
o You can have both elevated but treatment is not the c. Persian cat
same d. Dalmation
 So if you have hyperurecemia it doesn’t 57. Struvite stones are called
mean you have uric acid stones. a. Infectious
 Cystine: radioluscency: is autosomal recessive. b/c they look 58. What are the common s & s of renal cell ca?
like uric acid stones and they have something to do with a. Abdominal/flank pain
chromosomes that were diluted during birth. b. Gross or microscopic hematuria
o This is how to remember stones: this is how you rank it c. Palpable abd mass
 Radioopaque give a whitish in xray: and US. Also bones. 59. The following are radioluscent except: calcium oxalate, calcium
 What you see in xray is hydronephrosis: nothing you can see phosphate and struvite stones. Radioluscent are cysteine and uric acid
is stone. You can only see hydronephrosis and hydroureter stones.
and you can know there is obstruction and possibility of 60. Treatment for prostatitis? Ciprofloxacin or TMP-SMX
stones. 61. Following are forms of prostatitis
46. Common pathogens of prostatitis a. Parasitic
 b. Mycotic of fungal 31. Normal intravesical pressure at the beginning of micturition
c. Gonococcal a. 100 cm H2O
Other forms of prostatitis: b. 30cm H2O
d. Gonococcal prostatitis c. Zero cm H2O
e. Tuberculous prostatitis d. None of the above
f. Parasitic prostatitis 32. The following is/are symptom/s of upper urinary tract obstruction
g. Mycotic prostatitis a. Hesitancy
h. Nonspecific Granulomatous prostatitis b. Terminal dribbling
62. Rest will be the few that we missed are easy already, it’s like the ones c. Acute urinary obstruction
that are more tricky are what we went over. d. Flank pains
63. Most common blunt renal tumor: non penetrating: can you have blunt e. None of the above
tumor for vehicular accident? Yes, 33. The entire bladder mucosa forces its way out to form an outpouching
a. Fall? Yes in cases of bladder obstruction this term as
b. Sports injuries? Yes a. Saccules
b. Cellules
1. Urinay bladder located outside of the abdominal wall with the c. Diverticulum
anterior abdominal wall open is: d. Tracheculations
a. Urinary bladder e. None of the above
b. Bladder diverticulum 34. The following is/are symptom/s of lower mid urinary tract obstruction
c. Exstorphy a. Hesitancy
d. Epispadias b. Terminal dribbling
e. None of the above c. Decreases size of urinary stream
2. The best way to diagnose urinary bladder rupture d. Dysuria
a. KUB-IVP e. All of the above
b. Cystogram 35. Urine flow rate that is significant of bladder outlet obstruction
c. Cystoscopy a. <25cc/sec
d. Catherizatoin b. <10cc/sec
e. None of the above c. <30cc/sec
3. The class triad of pain, hematuria and tumor mass in renal d. <20cc/sec
malignancy indicates: 36. The earliest sign noted in the presence of bladder outlet
a. Poor surgical risk a. Cuccules
b. Stage I disease b. Diverticulum
c. Poor prognosis c. None of the above
d. Advanced disease d. Trabeculation
e. None of the above 37. The difficulty of initiating urination in the presence of bladder outlet
4. Hypospadias is associated with some problems and the more obstruction is termed
severe the hypospadias the higher the incidence of: a. Urgency
a. Intersexuality b. Frequency
b. Stricture c. Hesitancy
c. Chordate d. Dysuria
d. Tumor association e. Terminal dribbling
e. None of the above 38. The end stage of severely infected kidney is termed
5. Mechanism of injury in anterior urethral injury a. Hydronephrosis
a. Fractured pelvis b. Pyelonephritis
b. Urethra is crushed between pubic bone and object c. Pyonephrosis
c. Vehicular accidents d. Purulent kidney
d. Urethra traumatized from urologic instrumentation e. None of the above
6. Utero-vaginal fistula is best diagnosed by: 39. Burning sensation experienced during urination in the presence of
a. Cystoscopy cystitis
b. Methylene blue test a. Urgency
c. KUB-IVP b. Frequency
d. Retrograde pyelography c. Hesitancy
e. None of the above d. Dysuria
7. Diagnosis of renal tumor is achieved by the following procedures e. Terminal dribbling
except: 40. Urologic diseases manifesting some gastrointestinal symptoms are
a. Renal ultrasonography attributed to the following reason/s
b. Needle biopsy a. Renointestinal reflex
c. CT scan b. Organ relationships
d. Renal arteriogram c. Peritoneal irritation
e. KUB-IVP d. All of the above
8. Stage III renal malignancy means that: e. B & C only
a. Tumor still within renal capsule 41. The type of pain felt by the patient on the site of the diseased organ
b. Renal vein and inferior vena cava involvement with a. Local pain
tumor b. Referred pain
c. Tumor confined to gerota’s fascia c. CVA tenderness
d. Tumor metastasis d. Radiculitis
e. None of the above e. None of the above
42. The type of incontinence that is related to the loss of urine due to
Urosurgery chronic urinary retention or secondary to a faccid bladder
a. Urge incontinence
 b. Paradoxic incontinence d. All of the above
c. True incontinence e. A & C only
d. Stress incontinence 54. Loss of urine involuntarily & w/o warming is and or associated with
e. None of the above a. True incontinence
43. The passage of gas in the urine strongly suggests b. Vesicovacinal fistula
a. Pneumaturia c. Epispadias
b. Colovesical fistula d. All of the above
c. Abnormal communication of urinary tract and the bowel e. A&C only
d. All of the above 55. A useful diagnostic test to determine the differential functions of the
e. A & B only kidney
44. Possible cause/s of oliguria or anuria EXCEPT a. IVP
a. Bilateral ureteral obstruction b. CT Scan
b. Hypovolemic shock c. DMSA Scan
c. Dehydration d. Ultrasound
d. Fluid-ion imbalance e. MRI
e. None of the above 56. The normal urine flow rate in female
45. The presence of “milky-white” urine signifies a. 10-15cc/sec
a. ??-urinary system fistula b. 20-25cc/sec
b. Presence of urethral lesions c. 40-45cc/sec
c. Urinary tract infection d. 25-30cc/sec
d. All of the above 57. Where is functional impairment of the kidney greater and faster?
e. A & B only a. Unilateral obstructive uropathy
46. The presence of bloody urine from initiation to termination of urinary b. Bilateral obstructive uropathy
stream c. Unilateral vesicoureteral fraflux
a. Fetal hematuria d. A&C
b. Source of bleeding is w/in the urethra e. None of the above
c. Source of bleeding is above the urethra 58. The following is/are congenital cause/s of urinary tract obstruction
d. A & B EXCEPT
e. A & C a. Ureteropelvic junction sterions
47. The condition of bedwetting at night b. Ureterocoeles
a. Retained incontinence c. Vesicoureteral reflux
b. Physiologic at 2~3yrs of life d. Ectopic ureters
c. An abnormal condition e. None of the above
d. All of the above 59. The normal renal intrapelvic pressure
e. None of the above a. 30cm H2O
48. The most common cause of bladder (vesical) pain is b. Zero cm H2O
a. Infection c. 20cm H2O
b. Hematuria d. 50 cm H2O
c. Prostatitis e. None of the above
d. Dysuria 60. The urinary obstruction this is where the earliest changes in the upper
e. Frequency collecting system can be noted
49. A strong, sudden desire to urinate due to hyperactivity & irritability of a. Renal pelvis
bladder b. Calices
a. Cystitis c. Ureter
b. Hesitancy d. Glomeruli
c. Urgency e. None of the above
d. Dysuria 61. In case of the chronic lower tract obstruction the bladder mucosa
e. Frequency forces its way entirely though the musculature of the bladder wall and
50. Abnormally small penis for his age is/associate with develop in outpouching this is called a
a. Fetal testosterone deficiency a. Saccule
b. Adrenal cortex overactivity b. Cellute
c. Gynecomastia c. Diverticulum
d. Renal tumor d. Trabeculation
e. None of the above e. None of the above
51. Conditions associated with hematuria EXCEPT 62. Abnormal opening of the urethral meatus on the ventral side of the
a. Renal tumor penis
b. Calculi a. Epispadias
c. Infection b. Urethrocutaneous fistula
d. Bladder tumor c. Urethral stricture
e. None of the above d. Exstrophy
52. The type of incontinence associated with physical activity/strain e. Hypospadias
a. True incontinence 63. Urinary obstruction may be classified as
b. Urge incontinence a. To cause
c. Stress incontinence b. To duration
d. Overflow incontinence c. To degree
e. None of the above d. All of the above
53. Presence of blood in the ejaculate is an or associated with e. A&B only
a. Hematospermia 64. The most common obstructive lesions in male infants and newborns
b. Inflammation of the bladder a. Posterior urethral valves
c. Inflammation of the seminal vesicles or prostate b. Distal urethral stenosis
 c. Urethral stricture b. Supports the testis
d. Anterior urethral valves c. Skin is corrugated
e. Duplication of urethra d. All of the above
65. Abnormal opening of the utrethral meatus on dorsal side of the penis e. A&C
a. Hypospasdias 77. The penis is composed of
b. Epispadias a. Corpora cavernosum
c. Dyspahgia b. Corpora spongiosum
d. Fistula c. Corpora amylase
e. Patent urachus d. All of the above
66. A complete ventral defect of the urogenital signs and the overlying e. A&B
skeletal system 78. The average descent of the kidney or inspiration on assuming the
a. Persistent urachus upright position
b. Exstrophy of the bladder a. 5-7cm
c. Hypospadias b. 4-5cm
d. Obstruction c. 5-6cm
67. The normal capacity of the adult bladder d. 2-3cm
a. 200-250ml e. None
b. 350-450ml 79. The part of the kidney where in a large portion of the secretory
c. 110-250ml function is taking place
d. 250-350ml a. Medulla
e. None of the above b. Cortex
68. The normal length of an adult female urethra c. Collecting tubule
a. 4cm d. A&B
b. 4in e. B&C
c. 6cm 80. Origin of renal cell carcinoma
d. 6in answer: proximal renal tubular epithelium; cortexperinephric tissue
e. 2cm a. Renal pelvis
69. Abnormal collection of fluid within the tunical vaginalis testis b. Renal parenchyma
a. Spermatocoele 81. Most common urea tumor of renal origin
b. Hydrocoele a. Adenoma
c. Hernia b. Oncocytoma
d. Cystocoele c. Hamartoma
e. Testocoel d. Glomerular tumor
70. The normal intravesical pressure a the start of micturitation 82. Most sensitive test to diagnose renal tumor
a. 30cm H2O a. Ultrasound
b. Zero b. Kub-IVP
c. 15cm H2O c. CT scan
d. 100cm H20 d. Angiography
e. None of the above 83. Most common histologic type of renal cell CA is : clear cell and
71. The blood supply (ies) of the adrenal glands granular25%
a. Inferior phrenic 84. Treatment for renal pelvic carcinoma
b. Renal artery a. Salguration
c. Aorta b. Radiation
d. All of the above c. Excision
72. The function unit of the kidney d. Nephroa???ectomy
a. Nephron 85. Most common site of CA in the prostate
b. Calyx a. Peripheral zone
c. Renal pelvis b. Transition zone
d. Zona glomerulosa c. Central zone
e. None d. Periprostatic zone
73. Supporting structures of the kidney 86. Most common site of BPH
a. Perirenal fats a. Peripheral zone
b. Renal vascular pedicle b. Transition zone
c. Abdominal muscle tone c. Central zone
d. Bulk of the abdominal viscera d. Periprostateic zone
e. All of the above 87. Most common type of prostatitis
74. Physiologic anatomic constriction(s) of the urater a. cute bacterial
a. Uteropelvic junction b. chronic bacterial
b. Renal pelvis c. chronic pelvic pain syndrome
c. Ureterovesical junction d. granulomatous prostatitis
d. All of the above 88. Main hormones that stimulates prostate growth
e. A&C only a. Dihydrotestosterone
75. The prostate gland is described as b. Estrogen
a. Fibromuscular organ c. Progesterone
b. Glandular organ d. Prolactin
c. An accessory reproductive organ 89. PSA normal value is
d. All of the above a. 0-4ng/ml
e. A&B b. 4-10ng/ml
76. The adult scrotum is described as c. 10-15ng/ml
a. Divided into 2 sacs by a septum d. 15-20ng/ml
90. In primary obstruction, this is where the earliest changes in the upper e. None of the above
collecting system can be noted or seen 101. Abnormally small penis for his age is associated with
a. Renal pelvis a. Fetal testosterone deficiency
b. Calices b. Adrenal cortex overactivity
c. Ureter c. Gynecomastia
d. Glomeruli d. Renal tumor
e. None of the above e. None of the above
91. The normal renal intrapelvic pressure 102. A strong, sudden desire to urinate due to hyperactivity & irritability of
a. 30cm H2O the bladder
b. Zero cm H2O a. Cystitis
c. 20cm H2O b. Hesitancy
d. 50cm H2O c. Urgency
e. None of the above d. Dysuria
92. The following is/are congenital cause/s of urinary tract obstruction e. Frequency
EXCEPT 103. Indications of doing retrograde pyelography as a diagnostic modality
a. Ureteropelvic junction sterious a. Non-visualize kidney/s on IVP
b. Ureterocoeles b. Hypersensitivity to intravenous contrast inaterial
c. Ectopic ureters c. Patients who have increased creatinine value
d. Vesicoureteral reflux d. All of the above
e. None of the above e. A&B only
93. Normal intravesical pressure at the beginning of micturation 104. Advantage of ultrasound as a diagnostic tool EXCEPT
a. 100cm H2O a. Readily available
b. 30cm H2O b. Cheap
c. Zero c. Operator reader dependent
d. 60cm H2O d. No ionizing radiation
e. None of above e. None of the above
94. The following is/are symptom/s of upper urinary tract obstruction 105. The radiographic procedure allows visualization of the entire urinary
a. Hesitancy tract
b. Terminal dribbling a. Intravenous pyelogram (IVP)
c. Acute urinary obstruction b. Excretory urography (EXU)
d. Flank pain c. Intravenous urography (IU)
e. All of the above d. All of the above
95. A useful diagnostic test to determine the differential functions of the e. A&C only
kidney 106. Intravenous contrast material used in radiography
a. IVF a. Is a hypertonic agent
b. CT scan b. Normally given at EBW
c. DMSA scan c. Can induce anaphylactoid reaction
d. Ultrasound d. All of the above
e. MRI e. B&C only
96. The type of incontinence that is related to the loss of urine due to 107. A plain radiograph of the abdomen & pelvis is termed
chronic urinary retention or secondary to a flaccid bladder a. KUB film
a. Urge incontinence b. Retrograde pyelography
b. Paradoxic incontinence (Overflow) c. IVP
c. Stress incontinence d. VCUG
d. None of the above e. None of the above
97. Loss of urine involuntarily and without warming is and or associated 108. A patient complained of right lumbar pains with concomitant presence
with of right testicular pain. This type of pain is called
a. True incontinence a. Local pain
b. ??? fistula b. Direct tenderness
c. Epispadias c. Radiculitis
d. All of the above d. Referred pain
e. A&C only e. None of the above
98. The presence of bloody urine from initiation to termination of urinary 109. End stage of severely infected and obstructed kidney
stream a. Hydronephrosis
a. Total hematuria b. Pyonephrosis
b. Source of bleeding within the urethra c. Stagnation
c. Source of bleeding is above the bladder d. Cold ischemia
d. A&B e. None of the above
e. A&C 110. A 70 y/o man complained of bloody ejaculate. The consideration
99. The condition of bedwetting at night woulb be
a. Incontinence a. Normal finding
b. Physiologic at 2-3yrs of life b. STD
c. Abnormal condition c. Seminal vesiculitis
d. All of the above d. Bladder tumor
e. None of the above e. None of the above
100. Conditions associated with hematuria except 111. Presence of blood in the urine is a danger signal. The conditions that
a. Renal tumor give rise to such are the ff.
b. Hematuria a. Renal CA
c. Prostatitis b. Bladder tumor
d. Urinary retention c. Calculi
 d. All of the above d. All of the above
112. Symptoms of obstruction of the upper urinary tract are typified by the e. A & B
ff. findings 123. The adult scrotum is described as
a. Flank pain a. Divided into 2 sacs by a septum
b. Total hematuria b. Supports the testis
c. Hesitancy c. Skin is corrugated
d. A & B d. All of the above
e. All of the above e. A & C
113. The earlies symptoms of bladder neck obstruction are the ff. 124. Location of the site of bleeding in terminal hematuria
a. Urgency a. Penile urethra
b. Frequency b. Bladder neck & trigone
c. Hesitancy c. Ureter
d. All of the above d. Kidney
e. A & B 125. Most common cause of bladder pain
114. The condition where in there is strong sudden desire to urinate. Which a. Infection
is caused by hyperactivity and irritability of the bladder b. Stones
a. Hesitancy c. Tumor
b. Urgency d. None of the above
c. Terminal dribbling 126. Most common benign tumor of the kidney
d. Oliguria a. Adenoma
e. None of the above b. Oncocytoma
115. The normal bladder capacity of an adult c. Renal hamartoma
a. 200-250ml d. Leiomyoma
b. 350-450ml 127. Most common cause of paraneoplastic erythrocytosis
c. 150-250ml a. Renal CA
d. 250-350ml b. Bladder Ca
e. None c. Penile CA
116. In cases of chronic lower tract obstruction, the bladder mucosa forces d. Prostatic CA
its way entirely through the musculature of the bladder wall land 128. PSA
develop an outpouching. This is called a. Prostate specific antigen
a. Saccule b. Prostate serum antigen
b. Cellule c. Prostate serum antibody
c. Diverticulum d. Prostate specific antibody
d. Trabeculation 129. Most common location of prostatic CA
e. None of the above a. Peripheral zone
117. Abnormal opening of the urethral meatus on the ventral side of the b. Transitional zone
penis c. Perimentral zone
a. Epispadias d. Apical zone
b. Urethrocutnaeous fistula 130. Normal intravesical pressure at the beginning of micturition
c. Urethral stricture a. 100 cm H2O
d. Exstrophy b. 30cm H2O
e. Hypospadias c. Zero cm H2O
118. The prostate gland is described as d. None of the above
a. Fibromuscular organ 131. The following is/are symptom/s of upper urinary tract obstruction
b. Glandular organ a. Hesitancy
c. An accessory reproductive organ b. Terminal dribbling
d. All of the above c. Acute urinary obstruction
e. A & B d. Flank pains
119. The penis is composed of e. None of the above
a. Corpora cavernosum 132. The entire bladder mucosa forces its way out to form an outpouching
b. Corpora spongiosum in cases of bladder obstruction this term as
c. Corpora amylacea a. Saccules
d. All of the above b. Cellules
e. A & B c. Diverticulum
120. Common cause of acquired obstruction to the urinary tract d. Tracheculations
a. Meatal stenosis e. None of the above
b. BPH 133. The following is/are symptom/s of lower mid urinary tract obstruction
c. Pregnancy a. Hesitancy
d. All of the above b. Terminal dribbling
e. B & C c. Decreases size of urinary stream
121. Symptoms of obstruction of the upper tract d. Dysuria
a. Flank pain e. All of the above
b. Nausea & vomiting 134. Urine flow rate that is significant of bladder outlet obstruction
c. Gross total hematuria a. <25cc/sec
d. All of the above b. <10cc/sec
e. B & C c. <30cc/sec
122. Symptoms of lower/midtract obstruction d. <20cc/sec
a. Hesitancy 135. The earliest sign noted in the presence of bladder outlet
b. Decrease in the force of stream a. Cuccules
c. Hematuria b. Diverticulum
 c. None of the above c. An abnormal condition
d. Trabeculation d. All of the above
136. The difficulty of initiating urination in the presence of bladder outlet e. None of the above
obstruction is termed 147. The most common cause of bladder (vesical) pain is
a. Urgency a. Infection
b. Frequency b. Hematuria
c. Hesitancy c. Prostatitis
d. Dysuria d. Dysuria
e. Terminal dribbling e. Frequency
137. The end stage of severely infected kidney is termed 148. A strong, sudden desire to urinate due to hyperactivity & irritability of
a. Hydronephrosis bladder
b. Pyelonephritis a. Cystitis
c. Pyonephrosis b. Hesitancy
d. Purulent kidney c. Urgency
e. None of the above d. Dysuria
138. Burning sensation experienced during urination in the presence of e. Frequency
cystitis 149. Abnormally small penis for his age is/associate with
a. Urgency a. Fetal testosterone deficiency
b. Frequency b. Adrenal cortex overactivity
c. Hesitancy c. Gynecomastia
d. Dysuria d. Renal tumor
e. Terminal dribbling e. None of the above
139. Urologic diseases manifesting some gastrointestinal symptoms are 150. Conditions associated with hematuria EXCEPT
attributed to the following reason/s a. Renal tumor
a. Renointestinal reflex b. Calculi
b. Organ relationships c. Infection
c. Peritoneal irritation d. Bladder tumor
d. All of the above e. None of the above
e. B & C only 151. The type of incontinence associated with physical activity/strain
140. The type of pain felt by the patient on the site of the diseased organ a. True incontinence
a. Local pain b. Urge incontinence
b. Referred pain c. Stress incontinence
c. CVA tenderness d. Overflow incontinence
d. Radiculitis e. None of the above
e. None of the above 152. Presence of blood in the ejaculate is an or associated with
141. The type of incontinence that is related to the loss of urine due to a. Hematospermia
chronic urinary retention or secondary to a faccid bladder b. Inflammation of the bladder
a. Urge incontinence c. Inflammation of the seminal vesicles or prostate
b. Paradoxic incontinence d. All of the above
c. True incontinence e. A & C only
d. Stress incontinence 153. Loss of urine involuntarily & w/o warming is and or associated with
e. None of the above a. True incontinence
142. The passage of gas in the urine strongly suggests b. Vesicovacinal fistula
a. Pneumaturia c. Epispadias
b. Colovesical fistula d. All of the above
c. Abnormal communication of urinary tract and the bowel e. A&C only
d. All of the above 154. A useful diagnostic test to determine the differential functions of the
e. A & B only kidney
143. Possible cause/s of oliguria or anuria EXCEPT a. IVP
a. Bilateral ureteral obstruction b. CT Scan
b. Hypovolemic shock c. DMSA Scan
c. Dehydration d. Ultrasound
d. Fluid-ion imbalance e. MRI
e. None of the above 155. The normal urine flow rate in female
144. The presence of “milky-white” urine signifies a. 10-15cc/sec
a. ??-urinary system fistula b. 20-25cc/sec
b. Presence of urethral lesions c. 40-45cc/sec
c. Urinary tract infection d. 25-30cc/sec
d. All of the above 156. Where is functional impairment of the kidney greater and faster?
e. A & B only a. Unilateral obstructive uropathy
145. The presence of bloody urine from initiation to termination of urinary b. Bilateral obstructive uropathy
stream c. Unilateral vesicoureteralfraflux
a. Fetal hematuria d. A&C
b. Source of bleeding is w/in the urethra e. None of the above
c. Source of bleeding is above the urethra 157. The following is/are congenital cause/s of urinary tract obstruction
d. A & B EXCEPT
e. A & C a. Ureteropelvic junction sterions
146. The condition of bedwetting at night b. Ureterocoeles
a. Retained incontinence c. Vesicoureteral reflux
b. Physiologic at 2~3yrs of life d. Ectopic ureters
 e. None of the above e. Testocoel
158. The normal renalintrapelvic pressure 169. The normal intravesical pressure a the start of micturitation
a. 30cm H2O a. 30cm H2O
b. Zero cm H2O b. Zero
c. 20cm H2O c. 15cm H2O
d. 50 cm H2O d. 100cm H20
e. None of the above e. None of the above
159. The urinary obstruction this is where the earliest changes in the upper 170. The blood supply (ies) of the adrenal glands
collecting system can be noted a. Inferior phrenic
a. Renal pelvis b. Renal artery
b. Calices c. Aorta
c. Ureter d. All of the above
d. Glomeruli 171. The function unit of the kidney
e. None of the above a. Nephron
160. In case of the chronic lower tract obstruction the bladder mucosa b. Calyx
forces its way entirely though the musculature of the bladder wall and c. Renal pelvis
develop in outpouching this is called a d. Zonaglomerulosa
a. Saccule e. None
b. Cellute 172. Supporting structures of the kidney
c. Diverticulum a. Perirenal fats
d. Trabeculation b. Renal vascular pedicle
e. None of the above c. Abdominal muscle tone
161. Abnormal opening of the urethral meatus on the ventral side of the d. Bulk of the abdominal viscera
penis e. All of the above
a. Epispadias 173. Physiologic anatomic constriction(s) of the urater
b. Urethrocutaneous fistula a. Uteropelvic junction
c. Urethral stricture b. Renal pelvis
d. Exstrophy c. Ureterovesical junction
e. Hypospadias d. All of the above
162. Urinary obstruction may be classified as e. A&C only
a. To cause 174. The prostate gland is described as
b. To duration a. Fibromuscular organ
c. To degree b. Glandular organ
d. All of the above c. An accessory reproductive organ
e. A&B only d. All of the above
163. The most common obstructive lesions in male infants and newborns e. A&B
a. Posterior urethral valves 175. The adult scrotum is described as
b. Distal urethral stenosis a. Divided into 2 sacs by a septum
c. Urethral stricture b. Supports the testis
d. Anterior urethral valves c. Skin is corrugated
e. Duplication of urethra d. All of the above
164. Abnormal opening of the utrethral meatus on dorsal side of the penis e. A&C
a. Hypospasdias 176. The penis is composed of
b. Epispadias a. Corpora cavernosum
c. Dyspahgia b. Corpora spongiosum
d. Fistula c. Corpora amylase
e. Patent urachus d. All of the above
165. A complete ventral defect of the urogenital signs and the overlying e. A&B
skeletal system 177. The average descent of the kidney or inspiration on assuming the
a. Persistent urachus upright position
b. Exstrophy of the bladder a. 5-7cm
c. Hypospadias b. 4-5cm
d. Obstruction c. 5-6cm
166. The normal capacity of the adult bladder d. 2-3cm
a. 200-250ml e. None
b. 350-450ml 178. The part of the kidney where in a large portion of the secretory
c. 110-250ml function is taking place
d. 250-350ml a. Medulla
e. None of the above b. Cortex
167. The normal length of an adult female urethra c. Collecting tubule
a. 4cm d. A&B
b. 4in e. B&C
c. 6cm 179. Origin of renal cell carcinoma
d. 6in answer: proximal renal tubular epithelium; cortexperinephric tissue
e. 2cm a. Renal pelvis
168. Abnormal collection of fluid within the tunicalvaginalis testis b. Renal parenchyma
a. Spermatocoele 180. Most common urea tumor of renal origin
b. Hydrocoele a. Adenoma
c. Hernia b. Oncocytoma
d. Cystocoele c. Hamartoma
 d. Glomerular tumor 194. A useful diagnostic test to determine the differential functions of the
181. Most sensitive test to diagnose renal tumor kidney
a. Ultrasound a. IVF
b. Kub-IVP b. CT scan
c. CT scan c. DMSA scan
d. Angiography d. Ultrasound
182. Most common histologic type of renal cell CA is :clear cell and e. MRI
granular25% 195. The type of incontinence that is related to the loss of urine due to
183. Treatment for renal pelvic carcinoma chronic urinary retention or secondary to a flaccid bladder
a. Salguration a. Urge incontinence
b. Radiation b. Paradoxic incontinence (Overflow)
c. Excision c. Stress incontinence
d. Nephroa???ectomy d. None of the above
184. Most common site of CA in the prostate 196. Loss of urine involuntarily and without warming is and or associated
a. Peripheral zone with
b. Transition zone a. True incontinence
c. Central zone b. ??? fistula
d. Periprostatic zone c. Epispadias
185. Most common site of BPH d. All of the above
a. Peripheral zone e. A&C only
b. Transition zone 197. The presence of bloody urine from initiation to termination of urinary
c. Central zone stream
d. Periprostateic zone a. Total hematuria
186. Most common type of prostatitis b. Source of bleeding within the urethra
a. cute bacterial c. Source of bleeding is above the bladder
b. chronic bacterial d. A&B
c. chronic pelvic pain syndrome e. A&C
d. granulomatous prostatitis 198. The condition of bedwetting at night
187. Main hormones that stimulates prostate growth a. Incontinence
a. Dihydrotestosterone b. Physiologic at 2-3yrs of life
b. Estrogen c. Abnormal condition
c. Progesterone d. All of the above
d. Prolactin e. None of the above
188. PSA normal value is 199. Conditions associated with hematuria except
a. 0-4ng/ml a. Renal tumor
b. 4-10ng/ml b. Hematuria
c. 10-15ng/ml c. Prostatitis
d. 15-20ng/ml d. Urinary retention
189. In primary obstruction, this is where the earliest changes in the upper e. None of the above
collecting system can be noted or seen 200. Abnormally small penis for his age is associated with
a. Renal pelvis a. Fetal testosterone deficiency
b. Calices b. Adrenal cortex overactivity
c. Ureter c. Gynecomastia
d. Glomeruli d. Renal tumor
e. None of the above e. None of the above
190. The normal renal intrapelvic pressure 201. A strong, sudden desire to urinate due to hyperactivity & irritability of
a. 30cm H2O the bladder
b. Zero cm H2O a. Cystitis
c. 20cm H2O b. Hesitancy
d. 50cm H2O c. Urgency
e. None of the above d. Dysuria
191. The following is/are congenital cause/s of urinary tract obstruction e. Frequency
EXCEPT 202. Indications of doing retrograde pyelography as a diagnostic modality
a. Ureteropelvic junction sterious a. Non-visualize kidney/s on IVP
b. Ureterocoeles b. Hypersensitivity to intravenous contrast inaterial
c. Ectopic ureters c. Patients who have increased creatinine value
d. Vesicoureteral reflux d. All of the above
e. None of the above e. A&B only
192. Normal intravesical pressure at the beginning of micturation 203. Advantage of ultrasound as a diagnostic tool EXCEPT
a. 100cm H2O a. Readily available
b. 30cm H2O b. Cheap
c. Zero c. Operator reader dependent
d. 60cm H2O d. No ionizing radiation
e. None of above e. None of the above
193. The following is/are symptom/s of upper urinary tract obstruction 204. The radiographic procedure allows visualization of the entire urinary
a. Hesitancy tract
b. Terminal dribbling a. Intravenous pyelogram (IVP)
c. Acute urinary obstruction b. Excretory urography (EXU)
d. Flank pain c. Intravenous urography (IU)
e. All of the above d. All of the above
 e. A&C only c. Diverticulum
205. Intravenous contrast material used in radiography d. Trabeculation
a. Is a hypertonic agent e. None of the above
b. Normally given at EBW 216. Abnormal opening of the urethral meatus on the ventral side of the
c. Can induce anaphylactoid reaction penis
d. All of the above a. Epispadias
e. B&C only b. Urethrocutnaeous fistula
206. A plain radiograph of the abdomen & pelvis is termed c. Urethral stricture
a. KUB film d. Exstrophy
b. Retrograde pyelography e. Hypospadias
c. IVP 217. The prostate gland is described as
d. VCUG a. Fibromuscular organ
e. None of the above b. Glandular organ
207. A patient complained of right lumbar pains with concomitant presence c. An accessory reproductive organ
of right testicular pain. This type of pain is called d. All of the above
a. Local pain e. A & B
b. Direct tenderness 218. The penis is composed of
c. Radiculitis a. Corpora cavernosum
d. Referred pain b. Corpora spongiosum
e. None of the above c. Corpora amylacea
208. End stage of severely infected and obstructed kidney d. All of the above
a. Hydronephrosis e. A & B
b. Pyonephrosis 219. Common cause of acquired obstruction to the urinary tract
c. Stagnation a. Meatal stenosis
d. Cold ischemia b. BPH
e. None of the above c. Pregnancy
209. A 70 y/o man complained of bloody ejaculate. The consideration d. All of the above
woulb be e. B & C
a. Normal finding 220. Symptoms of obstruction of the upper tract
b. STD a. Flank pain
c. Seminal vesiculitis b. Nausea & vomiting
d. Bladder tumor c. Gross total hematuria
e. None of the above d. All of the above
210. Presence of blood in the urine is a danger signal. The conditions that e. B & C
give rise to such are the ff. 221. Symptoms of lower/midtract obstruction
a. Renal CA a. Hesitancy
b. Bladder tumor b. Decrease in the force of stream
c. Calculi c. Hematuria
d. All of the above d. All of the above
211. Symptoms of obstruction of the upper urinary tract are typified by the e. A & B
ff. findings 222. The adult scrotum is described as
a. Flank pain a. Divided into 2 sacs by a septum
b. Total hematuria b. Supports the testis
c. Hesitancy c. Skin is corrugated
d. A & B d. All of the above
e. All of the above e. A & C
212. The earlies symptoms of bladder neck obstruction are the ff. 223. Location of the site of bleeding in terminal hematuria
a. Urgency a. Penile urethra
b. Frequency b. Bladder neck &trigone
c. Hesitancy c. Ureter
d. All of the above d. Kidney
e. A & B 224. Most common cause of bladder pain
213. The condition where in there is strong sudden desire to urinate. Which a. Infection
is caused by hyperactivity and irritability of the bladder b. Stones
a. Hesitancy c. Tumor
b. Urgency d. None of the above
c. Terminal dribbling 225. Most common benign tumor of the kidney
d. Oliguria a. Adenoma
e. None of the above b. Oncocytoma
214. The normal bladder capacity of an adult c. Renal hamartoma
a. 200-250ml d. Leiomyoma
b. 350-450ml 226. Most common cause of paraneoplasticerythrocytosis
c. 150-250ml a. Renal CA
d. 250-350ml b. Bladder Ca
e. None c. Penile CA
215. In cases of chronic lower tract obstruction, the bladder mucosa forces d. Prostatic CA
its way entirely through the musculature of the bladder wall land 227. PSA
develop an outpouching. This is called a. Prostate specific antigen
a. Saccule b. Prostate serum antigen
b. Cellule c. Prostate serum antibody
 d. Prostate specific antibody 239. The type of pain felt by the patient on the site of the diseased
228. Most common location of prostatic CA organ
a. Peripheral zone a. Local pain
b. Transitional zone b. Referred pain
c. Perimentral zone c. CVA tenderness
d. Apical zone d. Radiculitis
229. Normal intravesical pressure at the beginning of micturition e. None of the above
a. 100 cm H2O 240. The type of incontinence that is related to the loss of urine due to
b. 30cm H2O chronic urinary retention or secondary to a faccid bladder
c. Zero cm H2O a. Urge incontinence
d. None of the above b. Paradoxic incontinence
230. The following is/are symptom/s of upper urinary tract c. True incontinence
obstruction d. Stress incontinence
a. Hesitancy e. None of the above
b. Terminal dribbling 241. The passage ??? in the urine strongly suggests
c. Acute urinary obstruction a. Pneumaturia
d. Flank pains b. Colovesical fistula
e. None of the above c. Abnormal communication of urinary tract and the
231. The entire bladder mucosa forces its way out to form an bowel
outpouching in cases of bladder obstruction this term as d. All of the above
a. Saccules e. A & B only
b. Cellules 242. Possible cause/s of oliguria or anuria EXCEPT
c. Diverticulum a. Bilateral ureteral obstruction
d. Tracheculations b. Hypovolemic shock
e. None of the above c. Dehydration
232. The following is/are symptom/s of lower mid urinary tract d. Fluid-ion imbalance
obstruction e. None of the above
a. Hesitancy 243. The presence of “milky-white” urine signifies
b. Terminal dribbling a. ??-urinary system fistula
c. Decreases size of urinary stream b. Presence of urethral lesions
d. Dysuria c. Urinary tract infection
e. All of the above d. All of the above
233. Urine flow rate that is significant of bladder outlet obstruction e. A & B only
a. <25cc/sec 244. The presence of bloody urine from initiation to termination of
b. <10cc/sec urinary stream
c. <30cc/sec a. Fetal hematuria
d. <20cc/sec b. Source of bleeding is w/in the urethra
234. The earliest sign noted in the presence of bladder outlet c. Source of bleeding is above the urethra
a. Cuccules d. A & B
b. Diverticulum e. A & C
c. None of the above 245. The condition of bedwetting at night
d. Trabeculation a. Retained incontinence
235. The difficulty of initiating urination in the presence of bladder b. Physiologic at 2-3yrs of life
outlet obstruction is termed c. An abnormal condition
a. Urgency d. All of the above
b. Frequency e. None of the above
c. Hesitancy 246. The most common cause of bladder (vesical) pain is
d. Dysuria a. Infection
e. Terminal dribbling b. Hematuria
236. The end stage of severely infected kidney is termed c. Prostatitis
a. Hydronephrosis d. Dysuria
b. Pyelonephritis e. Frequency
c. Pyonephrosis 247. A strong, sudden desire to urinate due to hyperactivity &
d. Purulent kidney irritability of bladder
e. None of the above a. Cystitis
237. Burning sensation experienced during urination in the presence b. Hesitancy
of cystitis c. Urgency
a. Urgency d. Dysuria
b. Frequency e. Frequency
c. Hesitancy 248. Abnormally small penis for his age is/associate with
d. Dysuria a. Fetal testosterone deficiency
e. Terminal dribbling b. Adrenal cortex overactivity
238. Urologic diseases manifesting some gastrointestinal symptoms c. Gynecomastia
are attributed to the following reason/s d. Renal tumor
a. Renointestinal reflex e. None of the above
b. Organ relationships 249. Conditions associated with hematuria EXCEPT
c. Peritoneal irritation a. Renal tumor
d. All of the above b. Calculi
e. B & C only c. Infection
d. Bladder tumor
 e. None of the above c. Urethral stricture
250. The type of incontinence associated with physical activity/strain d. Exstrophy
a. True incontinence e. Hypospadias
b. Urge incontinence 261. Urinary obstruction may be classified as
c. Stress incontinence a. To cause
d. Overflow incontinence b. To duration
e. None of the above c. To degree
251. Presence of blood in the ejaculate is an or associated with d. All of the above
a. Hematospermia e. A&B only
b. Inflammation of the bladder 262. The most common obstructive lesions in male infants and
c. Inflammation of the seminal vesicles or prostate newborns
d. All of the above a. Posterior urethral valves
e. A & C only b. Distal urethral stenosis
252. Loss of urine involuntarily & w/o warming is and or associated c. Urethral stricture
with d. Anterior urethral valves
a. True incontinence e. Duplication of urethra
b. Vesicovacinal fistula 263. Abnormal opening of the utrethral meatus on dorsal side of the
c. Epispadias penis
d. All of the above a. Hypospasdias
e. A&C only b. Epispadias
253. A useful diagnostic test to determine the differential functions of c. Dyspahgia
the kidney d. Fistula
a. IVP e. Patent urachus
b. CT Scan 264. A complete ventral defect of the urogenital signs and the
c. DMSA Scan overlying skeletal system
d. Ultrasound a. Persistent urachus
e. MRI b. Exstrophy of the bladder
254. The normal urine flow rate in female c. Hypospadias
a. 10-15cc/sec d. Obstruction
b. 20-25cc/sec 265. The normal length of the an adult female urethra
c. 40-45cc/sec a. 200-250ml
d. 25-30cc/sec b. 350-450ml
255. Where is functional impairment of the kidney greater and faster? c. 110-250ml
a. Unilateral obstructive uropathy d. 250-350ml
b. Bilateral obstructive uropathy e. None of the above
c. Unilateral vesicoureteral fraflux 266. The normal length of an adult female urethra
d. A&C a. 4cm
e. None of the above b. 4in
256. The following is/are congenital cause/s of urinary tract c. 6cm
obstruction EXCEPT d. 6in
a. Ureteropelvic junction sterions e. 2cm
b. Ureterocoeles 267. Abnormal collection of fluid within the tunical vaginalis testis
c. Vesicoureteral reflux a. Spermatocoele
d. Ectopic ureters b. Hydrocoele
e. None of the above c. Hernia
257. The normal renal intrapelvic pressure d. Cystocoele
a. 30cm H2O e. Testocoel
b. Zero cm H2O 268. The normal intravesical pressure a the start of micturitation
c. 20cm H2O a. 30cm H2O
d. 50 cm H2O b. Zero
e. None of the above c. 15cm H2O
258. The urinary obstruction this is where the earliest changes in the d. 100cm H20
upper collecting system can be noted e. None of the above
a. Renal pelvis 269. The blood supply (ies) of the adrenal glands
b. Calices a. Inferior phrenic
c. Ureter b. Renal artery
d. Glomeruli c. Aorta
e. None of the above d. All of the above none
259. In case of the chronic lower tract obstruction the bladder mucosa 270. The function unit of the kidney
forces its way entirely though the musculature of the bladder a. Nephron
wall and develop in outpouching this is called a b. Calyx
a. Saccule c. Renal pelvis
b. Cellute d. Zona glomerulosa
c. Diverticulum e. None
d. Trabeculation 271. Supporting structures of the kidney
e. None of the above a. Perirenal fats
260. Abnormal opening of the urethral meatus on the ventral side of b. Renal vascular pedicle
the penis c. Abdominal muscle tone
a. Epispadias d. Bulk of the abdominal niscera
b. Urethrocutaneous fistula e. All of the above
272. Physiologic anatomic constriction(s) of the urater c. Progesterone
a. Uteropelvic junction d. Prolactin
b. Renal pelvis 286. PSA normal value is
c. Ureterovesical junction a. 0-4ng/ml
d. All of the above b. 4-10ng/ml
e. A&C only c. 10-15ng/ml
273. The prostate gland is described as d. 15-20ng/ml
a. Fibromuscular organ 287. In primary obstruction, this is where the earliest changes in the
b. Glandular organ upper collecting system can be noted or seen
c. An accessory reproductive organ a. Renal pelvis
d. All of the above b. Calices
e. A&B c. Ureter
274. The adult scrotum is described as d. Glomeruli
a. Divided into 2 sacs by a septum e. None of the above
b. Supports the testis 288. The normal renal intrapelvic pressure
c. Skin is corrugated a. 30cm H2O
d. All of the above b. Zero cm H2O
e. A&C c. 20cm H2O
275. The penis is composed of d. 50cm H2O
a. Corpora cavernosum e. None of the above
b. Corpora spongiosum 289. The following is/are congenital cause/s of urinary tract
c. Corpora amylase obstruction EXCEPT
d. All of the above a. Ureteropelvic junction sterious
e. A&B b. Ureterocoeles
276. The average descent of the kidney or inspiration on assuming the c. Ectopic ureters
upright position d. None of the above
a. 5-7cm 290. Normal intravesical pressure at the beginning of micturation
b. 4-5cm a. 100cm H2O
c. 5-6cm b. 30cm H2O
d. 2-3cm c. Zero
e. None d. 60cm H2O
277. The part of the kidney where in a large portion of the secretory e. None of above
function is taking place 291. The following is/are symptom/s of upper urinary tract
a. Medulla obstruction
b. Cortex a. Hesitancy
c. Collecting tubule b. Terminal dribbling
d. A&B c. Acute urinary obstruction
e. B&C d. Flank
278. Origin of renal cell carcinoma e. All of the above
a. Renal pelvis 292. A useful diagnostic test to determine the differential functions of
b. Renal parenchyma the kidney
279. Most common urea tumor of renal origin a. IVF
a. Adenoma b. CT scan
b. Oncocytoma c. DMSA scan
c. Hamartoma d. Ultrasound
d. Glomerular tumor e. MRI
280. Most sensitive test to diagnose renal tumor 293. The type of incontinence that is related to the loss of urine due to
a. Ultrasound chronic urinary retention or secondary to a flaccid bladder
b. Kub-IVP a. Urge incontinence
c. CT scan b. Paradoxic incontinence
d. Angiography c. Stress incontinence
281. Most common histologic type of renal cell CA is d. None of the above
282. Treatment for renal pelvic carcinoma 294. Loss of urine involuntarily and without warming is and or
a. Salguration associated with
b. Radiation a. True incontinence
c. Excision b. ??? fistula
d. Nephroa???ectomy c. Epispadias
283. Most common site of CA in the prostate d. All of the above
a. Peripheral zone e. A&C only
b. Transition zone 295. The presence of bloody urine from initiation to termination of
c. Central zone urinary stream
d. Periprostatic zone a. Total hematuria
284. most common type of prostatitis b. Source of bleeding within the urethra
a. cute bacterial c. Source of bleeding is above the bladder
b. chronic bacterial d. A&B
c. chronic pelvic pain syndrome e. A&C
d. granulomatous prostatitis 296. The condition of bedwetting at night
285. Main hormones that stimulates prostate growth a. Incontinence
a. Dihydrotestosterone b. Physiologic at 2-3yrs of life
b. Estrogen c. Abnormal condition
 d. All of the above 301. Advantage of ultrasound as a diagnostic tool EXCEPT
e. None of the above a. Readily available
297. Conditions associated with hematuria except b. Cheap
a. Renal tumor c. Operator reader dependent
b. Hematuria d. No ionizing radiation
c. Prostatitis e. None of the above
d. Urinary retention 302. The radiographic procedure allows visualization of the entire
e. None of the above urinary tract
298. Abnormally small penis for his age is associated with a. Intravenous pyelogram (IVP)
a. Fetal testosterone deficiency b. Excretory urography (EXU)
b. Adrenal cortex overactivity c. Intravenous urography (IU)
c. Gynecomastia d. All of the above
d. Renal tumor e. A&C only
e. None of the above 303. Intravenous contrast material used in radiography
299. A strong, sudden desire to urinate due to hyperactivity & a. Is a hypertonic agent
irritability of the bladder b. Normally given at EBW
a. Cystitis c. Can induce anaphylactoid reaction
b. Hesitancy d. All of the above
c. Urgency e. B&C only
d. Dysuria 304. A plain radiograph of the abdomen & pelvis is termed
e. Frequency a. KUB film
300. Indications of doing retrograde pyelography as a diagnostic b. Retrograde pyelography
modality c. IVP
a. Non-visualize kidney/s on IVP d. VCUG
b. Hypersensitivity to intravenous contrast inaterial e. None of the above
c. Patients who have increased creatinine value
d. All of the above
e. A&B only