FMS FLT – 1

Answers and Explanations

1 2 2 4 3 3 4 2 5 1 6 2 7 3 8 3 9 2 10 4
11 1 12 1 13 4 14 4 15 3 16 3 17 3 18 1 19 4 20 2
21 1 22 4 23 2 24 3 25 4 26 3 27 1 28 2 29 1 30 4
31 3 32 4 33 4 34 1 35 2 36 2 37 1 38 3 39 4 40 4
41 2 42 4 43 3 44 1 45 2 46 1 47 2 48 2 49 3 50 3
51 4 52 1 53 1 54 2 55 4 56 3 57 1 58 1 59 2 60 2
61 4 62 1 63 3 64 2 65 1 66 4 67 3 68 1 69 3 70 4
71 3 72 4 73 4 74 3 75 2 76 4 77 3 78 1 79 2 80 3
81 3 82 2 83 2 84 3 85 3 86 4 87 3 88 2 89 2 90 3
91 4 92 1 93 1 94 1 95 3 96 2 97 2 98 3 99 4 100 2
101 4 102 4 103 2 104 1 105 3 106 4 107 1 108 4 109 1 110 3
111 1 112 1 113 4 114 1 115 3 116 4 117 4 118 3 119 3 120 4
121 4 122 4 123 3 124 3 125 4 126 2 127 4 128 3 129 3 130 2
131 3 132 2 133 4 134 3 135 4 136 2 137 2 138 3 139 4 140 1
141 3 142 4 143 3 144 3 145 3 146 3 147 3 148 2 149 2 150 1
151 1 152 3 153 3 154 3 155 1 156 3 157 1 158 4 159 4 160 4
161 2 162 3 163 3 164 1 165 3 166 3 167 1 168 4 169 1 170 2
171 4 172 1 173 2 174 4 175 4

FLT-0011/10

FMS – FLT 1 MBA Page 1

Test Prep
1. 2 Let the total population of the state be ‘x’. 6. 2 Let the number of Upper-class, Lower-class and Middle
So, the amount paid by the Central Government in class students in School 1 and School 2 be
situation A = Rs. 100000 × 0.2x = Rs. 20,000x. 2x, 5x, 3x and 2y, 3y, 3y respectively.
Given that the number of victims of the floods is 40% Now, we can write
of the total population. 3x = 3y … (i)
Therefore, the amount paid by the Central Government 10x – 8y = 500 … (ii)
Solving (i) and (ii), we get x = 250.
3
to the State Government = × 20000x = Rs. 30000x. Therefore, number of students in School 1
2 = (250 × 2) + (5 × 250) + (3 × 250) = 2500
Therefore, the amount paid by the Central Government
to the State Government for each victim 7. 3 Let, A be the total profit earned on the investment done
(30000x) by Suresh, Ramesh and Rajesh.
= = Rs. 75,000. As per their share in the investment, the amounts
(0.4x)
received by Suresh, Ramesh and Rajesh are 0.2A,
0.4A and 0.4A respectively.
2. 4 The percentage of flood victims Let, C be the total investment in the business project.
3 So, the income of Suresh when the rate of profit was
=   × 100 = 37.5%. 10% = 0.2 × 0.1C = 0.02C.
8
Income of Suresh when the rate of profit was 5%
Amount paid by the Central Government to the state = 0.2 × 0.05C = 0.01C.
(30000x) As per the information given in the question, 20000
government = = Rs. 80,000. = 0.02C – 0.01C = 0.01C.
(0.375x)
Therefore, the value of C = Rs. 2000000.
Therefore, capital of Rajesh = 0.4 × 2000000
3. 3 Let the total work be equal to 100 units. = Rs. 800000.
100
Godhan’s 1 hour work = = 20 units. 8. 3 The total wages earned during the 15 days that the
5
worker worked = 15 × 92 = Rs. 1380.
3 The total wages earned during the first 7 days
Liladhar as well as Ravinder’s 1 day work = × 20 = 7 × 80 = Rs. 560.
4
The total wages earned during the last 7 days
= 15 units.
= 7 × 90 = Rs. 630.
1 Total wages earned during the 15 days = wages
Fateh as well as Ketan’s 1 day work = × 20 during first 7 days + wage on 8th day + wages
5
= 4 units. during the last 7 days.
⇒ In one day all five of them can do ⇒1380 = 560 + wage on 8th day + 630
⇒ Wage on 8th day = 1380 – 560 – 630 = Rs.190
= 20 + 15 + 15 + 4 + 4 = 58 units of work.
100 9. 2 Plan with Simple Interest rate 10%:
Hence, they can complete the total work in
58 (2 × 10A)
days. Amount after 2 years = A + = 1.2A.
100
4. 2 Let the cost price of the two items A and B be ‘a’ and ∴ 1.2A = 3000.
‘b’ respectively. Plan with Compound Interest rate 10%:
Given that 0.25a = 0.2b or 5a = 4b. ...(i) Amount after 2 years = B × (1.1)2 = 1.21B = 3000.
Also, 0.2a – 0.1b = Rs. 2000.
Or, 2a – b = 20000. ...(ii) ∴ Required difference
∴ a = Rs. 26666.66.  1 1  (3000 × 0.01)
= 3000  –  = (1.2 × 1.21) = Rs. 20.66.
5. 1 By impulse momentum theory -  1.2 1.21 
Average force applied × time taken = Change in
momentum = mass × (change in velocity)

 64 
 × 8
∴ Average force applied =  1000  = 2.048 N .
1
4

Page 2 MBA FMS – FLT 1

Test Prep
 ( )
10. 4 Let, A be the price of a ticket and B be the number of
people viewing the TEST matches. 15. 3 log13 log11 x + 2x − 3 = log11 log13 2
New price of ticket = Rs. 0.75A
Number of people that should view the TEST matches
⇒
(
log x + 2x − 3 )= log2
B 4B log13 × log11 log13 × log11
so the revenue remains unchanged = = .
0.75 3
⇒ x + 2x − 3 = 2
Percentage increase in the viewership should be
4  ∴ x =3± 2
 3 – 1 × 100 = 33.33% .
  If we put x = 3 + 2 , then the equation
x + 2x − 3 = 2 is not satisfied.
11. 1 The circumference of the front wheel is 20 m and that
of the rear wheel is 40 m. ∴ x = 3 − 2.
Let the rear wheel make ‘N’ revolutions. At this time,
the front wheel should have made (N + 5)revolutions. 16. 3 As per the property of matrices, the given matrix is a
As both the wheels would have covered the same skew-symmetric matrix.
distance, therefore N × 40 = (N + 5) × 20.
⇒ 40N = 20N + 100. 17. 3 The probability that none of the four shots hit the
⇒ N = 5. terrorist is given by (1 – 0.7)(1 – 0.6)(1 – 0.5)(1 – 0.4)
Distance covered by the cart = 5 × 40 = 200 m. = 0.3 × 0.4 × 0.5 × 0.6 = 0.036.
So, the probability that at least one of the four hits the
terrorist = 1 – 0.036 = 0.964.
12. 1 Length of the side of the square = 10 2 cm.
Let ‘r’ be the radius of the circle drawn, such that the 18. 1 5% is the rate of interest. 20% of the interest amount
value of ‘r’ is maximum possible. is paid as tax which means that 80% of the interest
Or, 2r + 5 2 = 10. amount stays back. Therefore, if we compute the rate
of interest as 80% of 5% = 4% p.a., we will get the
∴ r = 5 – 2.5 2 cm. same value.
Required Amount after 3 years = 5000(1.04) 3
13. 4 Number of weeks in one non-leap year is 52, and = Rs. 5624.32.
there is one extra day as the number of days = 365 =
364 + 1 = 52 × 7 + 1. 19. 4 Let, the player P3 score ‘x’ runs more.
For leap year there will be 2 extra days. According to the condition given, we have
May 1, 2007 must be a Friday (as 2008 was leap
year and we’ll go 2 days back for 2007). 5350 + x 6
= ⇒ x = 3308.
May 1, 2006 must be a Thursday. 7215 5
May 1, 2005 must be a Wednesday.
May 1, 2004 must be a Tuesday. 20. 2 The required percentage
Hence, in the first week of May 2004, May 5 must
be a Saturday. 5350 + 7215
=
(2600) + (1070) + (5350) + (7215) + (2400) + (1440)
14. 4 Let, the edge of the cube measure ‘a’ cm. + (2110) + (1840) + (1900) + (3880) + (3315)
Let, the densities of the two liquids be ‘3d’ and ‘2d’
respectively and the density of the cube be ‘d1’ = 38%.

When the cube is placed in liquid X: 21. 1 Except P3, P7, P10 and P11 all the players satisfy the
a3 × d1 = (a – 4) a2 × 3d condition given in the question.

When the cube is placed in liquid Y: 22. 4 Runs scored by P5 = 1440.

a3 × d1 = (a – 1) a2 × 2d Runs scored by P2 = 1070.
Difference = 1440 – 1070 = 370 runs.
Therefore, 2(a – 1) = 3(a – 4) 370
Or, a = 12 – 2 = 10 cm. Required percentage = ; 35% .
1070

FMS – FLT 1 MBA Page 3

Test Prep
23. 2 Given that tan θ + cot θ = 4. 29. 1 Given that y2 = x z
Taking log both sides, we get that
sin θ cos θ
⇒ + = 4. 2 log y = log x + log z
cos θ sin θ So, log x, log y and log z are in A.P.
1
⇒ = 2.
sin2θ 1
30. 4 Let, x + = y.
1 x
⇒ sin 2θ = .
2
1
∴ θ = 15° or 75°. So, x 2 + = y 2 − 2.
x2
24. 3 Price at which Gautam purchased one stock Or, y2 + y2 – 2 = 16.
= Rs. 80 + Rs. 20 = Rs. 100. Or, y2 = 9.
∴ y = 3 or – 3.
40000
∴ Total number of stocks he could buy is = 1 1
100 ∴x+ = 3 or x + = −3.
x x
= 400
The dividend will be paid on the actual/par value of the ⇒ x 2 − 3x + 1 = 0 and x 2 + 3x + 1 = 0
stock or 400 × 80 = Rs. 32000. The equations x2 + 3x + 1 and x2 – 3x + 1 = 0 have real
Interest earned = 10% of 32000 = Rs. 3200 roots. So, there are 4 real values of ‘x’ that satisfy the
Actual investment made by Gautam is Rs. 40000. equation.
3200
Rate of return received = × 100 = 8%. 31. 3 Given that the height of the wall is 30 m.
40000
Let d1 and d2 be the distances of the two points from
the wall.
25. 4 Fraction of work completed by Rohan, Mohan and Now the distance of the point corresponding to
1 1 1 13
Sohan working together is + + or . 45° from the wall will be 30 m, since tan 45° =
30
.
8 12 16 48 d1
39 And the distance of the point corresponding to
So, fraction of work done by them in 3 days = .
48 30
60° from the wall will be d2 = = 10 3 m.
9 3
Fraction of work left = .
48 The required distance = 30 + 10 3 m
Fraction of work done by Rohan and Mohan together
= 10(3 + 3) m = 47.32 m
1 1 5
in one day = + or .
8 12 24
32. 4 The equation of the circle 2x2 + 2y2 + 8x – 4y – 10 = 0.
So, it will take little less than 1 day to complete the Also, 2(–1)2 + 2x(2)2 + 8(–1) – 8 – 10 < 0
remaining work. Hence, the point (–1, 2) lies inside the circle.

26. 3 The value of ‘c’ at d = 300 is not the same when we
use the two relations given in the question.
Hence, c is discontinuous at d = 300.
27. 1
Therefore, a tangent cannot be drawn.
33. 4 Given that y2 – 4y – 8x + 20 = 0.
or, (y – 2)2 = 8(x – 2)
So, x = 2 will be the equation of one of its tangents.

28. 2 We have P = 34 + 2 5
2x 2 − 11x + 15 (x − 3)(2x − 5)
34. 1 lim = lim = 1.
 34 − 2 5  (34)2 − 4 × 5 x →3 x−3 x →3 (x − 3)
( )
∴ P = 34 + 2 5 ×   =
 34 − 2 5  34 − 2 5
35. 2 Applying L’ hospital rule,
1156 − 20 568 2e2x − cos x 2 − 1 1
= = . ⇒ lim = = .
34 − 2 5 17 − 5 x →0 2 2 2

Page 4 MBA FMS – FLT 1

Test Prep
 For years 2006 and 2007:
r3 dS 3 2 Average salary drawn by a person per day in India in
36. 2 Given that S = 2000 + ⇒ = r .
8 dr 8 2006 : $8.
Average salary drawn by a person per day in India in
37. 1 Let the heights of the cylinders CA and CB be 3k and 2007 : $9.
7k respectively. Also, the radius of CA and CB will be Percentage increase is 12.5%.
Average salary drawn by a person per day in India in
7k 6k 2006 : $260.
and respectively.
2 2 Average salary drawn by a person per day in India in
∴ Ratio of volumes of the cylinders CA and CB 2007 : $250.
Percentage decline is 3.8%.
2 Hence, (3) is also not correct.
 7k 
π ×   × 3k So, option (4) is the correct choice.
=  2  =
7
.
2 12
 6k 
π ×   × 7k 41. 2 Average of the average salary drawn by a person
 2  per day in India from the year 2002 to 2006
(2 + 3 + 6 + 6 +8)
38. 3 Average salary drawn by a person per day for India = = $5.
in the year 2003 = $3. 5
Average salary drawn by a person per day for India Average of the average salary drawn by a person in
in the year 2006 = $8. US from the year 2002 to 2006
(190 + 180 + 220 + 270 + 260)
Total percentage growth in the average salary drawn = = $224.
5
by a person per day = 
8 – 3
 × 100 = 166.66%. 5
 3  So, the required ratio =
224
Hence, the average annual growth rate in the average
166.66 42. 4 Let A = 100.
salary drawn by a person per day is = 55.55%.
3
 30 
⇒B =   100 = 30.
39. 4 Average salary drawn in US in the year 2005 = $270.  100 
Average salary drawn in US in the year 2007 = $250.
 20 
Percentage decline in the average salary ⇒C=   30 = 6.
 100 
 270 – 250 
=   × 100 = 7.40%.
 270   10 
⇒D=   (106) = 10.6.
 100 
40. 4 For years 2001 and 2002:
 5 
Average salary drawn by a person per day in India in ⇒E =   (36) = 1.8.
2001 : $3.  100 
Average salary drawn by a person per day in India in ⇒ C + D + E = 18.4.
2002 : $2. ⇒ B + C + D = 46.6.
Percentage decline = 33.33%.
Average salary drawn by a person per day in US in (46.6 – 18.4)
∴ (C + D + E) is ×100% less than
2001 :$180. 46.6
Average salary drawn by a person per day in US in (B + C + D).
2002 :$190. Required answer = 60.5% less.
Average salary has increased
So, option (1) is not correct.
For years 2003 and 2004:
Average salary drawn by a person per day in India in
2003 : $3.
Average salary drawn by a person per day in India in
2004 : $6.
Percentage increase is 100%.
Average salary in US in 2003 : $180.
Average salary in US in 2004 : $220.
Percentage increase is 22.22%.
So, option (2) is not correct.

FMS – FLT 1 MBA Page 5

Test Prep
43. 3 Amount invested in 1st year must be in ratio 1 : 2 : 3 for 47. 2 Acceleration due to gravity = g = 10 m/s2.
A, B and C respectively. Time taken by the stone to reach the ground =
2000 1 (2 × height)
The next year A must receive × (as A’s time = 2 5 seconds
2 2 g
is half of B and his investment amount is also half that = 4.47 seconds (approximately).
of B) = Rs. 500. Distance covered by the stone is first 3.47 s
2000 × 2 × 3 1 1
The next year C must receive (as C’s = × g × t2 = × 10 × (3.47)2
2 2 2
time is twice of B and his investment amount is also = 60.2 m (approximately)
3 Distance covered in the last second = (100 – 60.2)
that of B) = Rs. 6,000. = 39.8 m
2
Difference between the annual profits earned by A
48. 2 The value of a can be 4 or 9 as it is a perfect square.
and C at the end of 2nd year = Rs. 5,500.
As b and c are also perfect squares, common ratio
has to be a perfect square greater than 1.
44. 1 Let xi denote the amount with the ith student and σx For minimum possible value of harmonic mean we
denote the standard deviation. would select a = 4 and common ratio equal to 4 as
well.
Given that σ x = 15 and σ x 2 = 225 and Σxi2 = 22500 So, c becomes 4 × 4 × 4 = 64.
Also, n = 15. (2 + 1) 64
∴ Weighted harmonic mean a and c = = .
 Σx 2  2 1  11
We know, σ x 2 =  i  − (xavg )2  4 + 64 
 n   
 
49. 3 Two mutually exclusive cases are possible
 22500  2 Case 1. Red ball is picked from Box A and Box B
or, 225 =   – (xavg ) . Case 2. Red ball is picked from Box B after white ball
 15 
was picked from Box A
or, (xavg)2 = 1275.
Case 1:
∴ xavg = 35.707.
5
Probability of picking a Red ball from Box A = .
45. 2 If we do not follow any constraints, then total number 12
of ways of arranging 8 letters = 8!. If the above happens, then there should be (2 + 2)
In the above 8! ways, half cases will be where B will White balls and (2 + 1) Red Balls in Box B.
be to the left of D and in other half D will be to the left
of B. 3
Probability of picking a Red ball from Box B = .
7
1
So, overall probability of B being to the left of D is .
2 5 3 5
Overall probability = × = .
12 7 28
1
Similarly, probability of G being to the left of C is as
2 Case 2 :
well.
7
Probability of B being always to the left of D and G Probability of picking a White ball from Box A = .
12
1 1 1
being to the left of C = × = . If the above happens, then there should be (2 + 1)
2 2 4 White balls and (2 + 3) Red Balls in Box B.
1 8! 5
Therefore, total such ways = × 8! = . Probability of picking a Red ball from Box B = .
4 4 8

46. 1 Let the time taken on each of the days be 2T hours. 7 5 35

Overall probability = × = .
For day 1, 40T + 60T = 200 or 2T = 4 hours. 12 8 96

1 11 5 35
Next day the car drove for 4 – = hours. So overall Probability = + = 0.543 (approx.)
3 3 28 96

600
Uniform Speed = = 54.54 km / hr.
11

Page 6 MBA FMS – FLT 1

Test Prep
For questions 50 to 52: 58. 1 For Step 1 to be 03, only inputs that are possible are
As per the information given in the question, we can conclude 12, 21 and 30.
the following:
R, V, T and Q are females, whereas P, W, U and S are males. 59. 2
Also, W is married to V.
U and V are the son and daughter of P respectively. 60. 2
S and T are the son and daughter of W respectively.
For questions 61 and 62:
Q is the sister of W.
Given that the German scientist was seated to the left of the
Indian scientist. The Danish and the English scientist were
P (m a le ) R (F em ale) seated next to each other and the French scientist was seated
directly opposite to the English scientist.
Fa th er M othe r
So, the Danish, English and the Italian scientists were seated
B ro th er W ife S ister on the same side of the table and the French, German and the
U (m a le) V (F em a le ) W (M a le ) Q (Fe m ale) Indian scientists were seated on the other side of the table.

Also, the Danish scientist occupied the middle seat as the

English scientist was not seated on the middle seat.
T(F em a le ) S (M a le )
So, the two possible cases were:
50. 3 CASE 1
Italian Danish English
51. 4
German Indian French
52. 1
CASE 2
For questions 53 and 54: English Danish Italian
2 French German Indian
3 Q
R
2 3
4 P 2 61. 4 Either of the two cases are possible.

62. 1 Only Case I is possible.

53. 1 Distance between the points Q and P
63. 3 Option (1) refers to ‘young’ and ‘old’ man which has
= 42 + 32 = 5 kms. not been mentioned anywhere in the paragraph. Option
(2) only replicates the same idea mentioned in the
54. 2 Distance between the points Q and R paragraph. It does not present an inference. Option
(4) mentions the true representation of a good life
= (112 + 12 ) = (122) kms . whereas the paragraph suggests that ‘anger’ too can
be a part of the good life. Option (3) can be inferred
from the paragraph as it explains how anger can be a
55. 4 (4) is correct because there is a disagreement
part of the good life and the value that it can have in an
between the two parties.
individual’s life. Hence option (3) is correct.
56. 3 As per the ministry’s reply (3) is the obvious reason.
64. 2 The ice-cream freezer and the people buying at a sale
are metaphors and examples used by Dr. Bethelard to
57. 1 The nth term of the given series is n3 – n.
prove the point that we are giving into our impulses.
Hence, next number will be 53 – 5 = 120.
Thus options (1) and (3) are rejected. Words and
phrases like ‘self-defeating actions’ ‘Unthinkingly
For questions 58 to 60:
tripping yourself up’ and ‘less likely to get in the way of
The above program performs the following operations in the
your goals’ are more representative of what the
steps as given below:
psychologist is trying to help with. Thus option (2)
Step 1 : Sum of the digits of the number (input).
which states – ‘sabotage their own goals’ is the most
Step 2 : Input + (number in Step 1)2.
likely reason why the course of action was suggested.
Step 3 : Number in Step 2 + Input.
Option (d) states that people do not know their goals
Step 4 : (Sum of digits of the number in Step 3) – 1
which would require a solution stating goal identifying
Step 5 : Number in Step 1 + Number in Step 4.
activities and not activities to correct behavioral
patterns to attaining a goal. Hence, (2).

FMS – FLT 1 MBA Page 7

Test Prep
65. 1 The given paragraph states the outcome of a study
based on a controversial subject of whether women
should be allowed to drink lightly during pregnancy.
The paragraph explains the positive impact of light
drinking on children. The validity of the findings is in
question. These findings are clearly challenged by
option (1) that suggests that family backgrounds of
these children were not taken into account during the
study. Because a good family background could
possibly be responsible for these outcomes in children
as well. Option (2) strengthens the results of the study
by revealing the impact on girls. Option (3) does not
cast a doubt on the study. It only refers to the doubts
of health specialists and doctors. Also, it does not
clearly suggest that this specific piece of advice is for
‘pregnant’ women. Option (4) strengthens the findings
of the study by explaining one of the possible reasons
of this finding.
66. 4 This statement properly identifies a theory that explains
the shorter time period for the female’s acceptance of
the pup. Option (1) does not apply as the difference
between the sense of smell does not explain why the
females without a sense of smell accept pups more
quickly. Option (2) is irrelevant and does not apply.
Option (3) is irrelevant to experiments involving females
that have given birth and those that have not.
67. 3 Dylan and Drake were moving in the same direction.
Dylan crossed Drake twice and then met him at the
starting point again in the end.
The first time Dylan crossed Drake was while he was
in his second round. Then he would have crossed
Drake again during his third round. Finally at the end of
his fourth round they would have met at the starting
point. So we can say that Dylan covered four rounds.
Distance covered by Dylan = 2400 m
68. 1 Bob and Drake were moving in opposite direction.
Bob crossed Drake twice and then met him at initial
point again in the end.
So in a way Bob met Drake thrice while Drake
completed a full circle.
Bob must have covered the circle twice. Distance
covered by Bob = 1200 m.
Dylan and Drake were moving in the same direction.
Dylan crossed Drake twice and then met him at initial
point again in the end.
The first time Dylan crossed Drake was while he was
in his second round. Then he would have crossed
Drake again during his third round. Finally at the end of
his fourth round they would have met at the starting
point. So we can say that Dylan covered four rounds.
Distance covered by Dylan = 2400 m.
Ratio = 1200 : 2400 = 1 : 2.
Page 8
69. 3 Bob and Drake were moving in opposite direction.
Bob crossed Drake twice and then met him at initial
point again in the end.
So in a way Bob met Drake thrice while Drake
completed a full circle.
Bob must have covered the circle twice.
Nick and Drake were moving in the same direction.
Nick crossed Drake thrice and then met him at initial
point again in the end.
The first time Nick crossed Drake was while he was
in his second round. Then he would have crossed
Drake again during his third round. Then he would
have crossed Drake again during his fourth round.
Finally at the end of his fifth round they would have
met at the starting point. So, we can say that Nick
covered five rounds.
Hence, Nick completed 5 rounds while moving
clockwise and in the same time Bob covered 3 rounds
moving in the anti-clockwise manner.
Let Nick’s speed be 5V m/s.
Hence Bob’s speed = 2V m/s.
2
Nick and Bob met when Bob had covered of a
(2 + 5)
circle.
In the end Bob covered 2 circles and hence the number
2
of times he met Nick = = 7 times .
2
(2 + 5)
One of these is their meeting at the end.
So, Nick and Bob must have crossed 6 times.
70. 4 C+H=H+C
But E is not equal to F.
So, C + H must be greater than 9.
As I is not equal to A, 1 must have been carried on
from D + D.
Hence, D must be greater than 4.
I must be smaller than A as I is not equal to A.
E must be smaller than F and not greater. This is
because C + H at the maximum can be 17. In this case
E must be 7 and F must be 8. In all cases F will be equal
to E + 1.
71. 3 Option (1) weakens the above argument by suggesting
that it is not possible to retain the lost goodwill of the
company. Option (2) does not impact the argument as
it explains one way of going about the problem. Option
(4) weakens the argument by suggesting that only
one of the two steps is sufficient to retain the goodwill.
Option (3) re-confirms the positive impact of the solution
mentioned in the argument. Hence, (3) strengthens
the above argument.
MBA FMS – FLT 1
Test Prep
72. 4 Options (1) and (2) are extreme view points that Now, Bhola must have been assigned a duty on Tuesday
cannot be inferred from the author’s opinion. Option because he was assigned a duty before than the third youngest
(3) is also somewhat extreme in its position as it puts watchmen and only two days (Tuesday and Thursday) are
the entire responsibility of reporting on the scientists. left unoccupied.
Option (4) matches with the author’s approach to this
issue that does not sideline media whereas it suggests
credibility and accuracy in media reporting. Hence, (4)
Name of the Day on which a
watchman duty was
is correct.
assigned
73. 4 Option (1) leads to a profit of Rs. 20. Parthav Thursday Youngest
Option (2) leads to a profit of Rs. 21.
Option (3) leads to a profit of Rs. 19. Satendra Wednesday Third youngest
Let us consider - Bhola Tuesday Second youngest
Increase the number of ‘Article 1’ units by 3 and
increase the number of ‘Article 2’ units by 1. Raju Friday Eldest
This leads to a profit of 3(5) + 1(7) = Rs. 22. Golu Monday Fourth youngest
None of the first three options gives the best option
available.
77. 3
For questions 74 to 76:
74. 3 The maximum quantity that G can receive is 78. 1
8(H) + 5(E) + 3(F) = 16 units
79. 2
75. 2 Two towns which definitely have pumping plants are
F and D because F receives 11 units of water from C For questions 80 to 82:
and D combined while releases 11 units of water to E
and G combined. Similarly D receives 7 units of water From (3): It can be concluded that exactly two of the five
from C, A and E combined while releases same 7 units events were instrumental based.
of water to F.
From (5): The event “Spot the Pot” was scheduled to start at
76. 4 G can receive a maximum of 16 units from A because 11 pm.
H, E and F combined can only transfer 16 units in total.
The event “Kanthkathor” was scheduled to start at 10:30 pm,
For questions 77 to 79: was song based and had a spiritual element.
Given that:
Satendra - Wednesday. From (3): The event “Gyandhara” was song based and had a
Raju - Eldest - Friday. spiritual element.
Golu - Not the youngest - Monday.
Bhola - Second youngest. From (1) and (3): The events that were song based were
Also, given that Bhola, who is the second youngest among all scheduled at 10 pm, 10:30 pm and 11 pm, whereas the events
the five watchmen was assigned a duty before than the that were instrumental based were scheduled at 11:30 pm
watchman who is the third youngest among all. Therefore, and 12 am.
Golu cannot be the third youngest of all the five watchmen.
From (2): The event “Bhulbhulaiya” was instrumental based
Also, Golu is not the youngest so Golu is second eldest among and had a spiritual element.
all. The event “Dharohar” was instrumental based and had a com-
The following can be concluded: edy element.

Name of the Day on which From (4) and (5): The event “Spot the Pot” had a comedy
watchman a duty was element and was scheduled to start at 11 pm and the event
assigned “Dharohar” which too had a comedy element was scheduled
Parthav to start at 12 am.
Therefore, the event “Bhulbhulaiya” was scheduled to start at
Satendra Wednesday Youngest or the third 11:30 pm.
youngest
Bhola Second youngest
Raju Friday Eldest
Golu Monday Fourth youngest

FMS – FLT 1 MBA Page 9

Test Prep
So, the following can be concluded: Given that Aman does not own a "Honda" in 2009, therefore
he owns a "Ford" in 2009 and Anil owns a "Honda" in 2009.
Name of the Scheduled Type Element
Given that there is exactly one businessman who owns the
event Time contained
same car in 2009 as he had owned in 2009. Therefore, Aman
Gyandhara 10 pm Song based Spiritual owned a "Ford" in 2008 and Anirudh owned a "Esteem" in
2008.
Kanthkathor 10:30 pm Song based Spiritual
Spot the Pot 11 pm Song based Comedy Therefore, the following can be concluded:

Bhulbhulaiya 11:30 pm Instrumental based Spiritual

Car Owner in 2008 Owner in 2009
Dharohar 12 am Instrumental based Comedy
Ford Aman Aman
Esteem Anirudh Arun
80. 3 Honda Arun Anil

81. 3 Maruti Anil Anirudh

82. 2
83. 2 The argument is based on the assumption that
indiscipline is caused by lack of control and insufficient
knowledge of the teacher. It concludes that a strict
teacher who is a subject matter expert can suppress
indiscipline. Option (1) does not weaken the argument
much because the passage does not clarify that
classroom management would be effective in
removing indiscipline. (3) is concerned with value
education classes which may weaken the argument
but does not address whether a strict teacher would
be required or not. Option (4) talks about debating
freely which also does not suggest control. Only option
(2) if true would weaken the need for a strict teacher
who maintains control over the classroom.
84. 3 Option (3) is correct as it provides evidence for the
statement that a major factor responsible for the
shortage is low pay scales. Options (1) and (4) point
towards mandatory requirements which has already
been rejected in the passage as the reason behind
shortage. Option (2) provides no evidence for staffing
shortage.
For questions 85 and 86:
Given that Anil owned a "Maruti" in 2008 and Anirudh either
owned a "Maruti" in 2008 or owns a "Maruti" in 2009.
Therefore, Anirudh owns a "Maruti" in 2009.
85. 3
86. 4
For questions 87 and 88:
87. 3 If the milkman wishes to travel minimum possible
distance, then he must follow the path:
Home - H5 - H1 - H4 - H3 - H2 - Home.
Distance traveled would be 3 + 1 + 3 + 5 + 2 + 7
= 21 km.
88. 2 As per the information given in the question, the path
that should be followed to travel minimum distance is
Home - H1 - H5 - H4 - H3 - H2 - Home. Total distance
traveled in this case = 4 + 1 + 3 + 5 + 2 + 7 = 22 km.
For questions 89 to 92:
89. 2 A maximum of 9 proposals namely P1, P2, P3, P6, P8,
P11, P12, P13 and P14 could be funded by the
management team of XYZ Ltd.
90. 3 The order in which the proposals will be funded by
the management team are P8, P14, P3, P2, P7, P11, P4
and P10.
So, the amount out of the special budget that will be
left unutilised = 75 lakhs – 74 lakhs = Rs. 1 lakh

Given that the businessmen who owns a "Esteem" in 2009 91. 4 A minimum of 5 proposals namely P4, P5, P7, P9 and
used to own a "Honda" in 2008. P10 could be funded by the management team of XYZ
Since, Anirudh owns a "Maruti" in 2009, therefore he cannot Ltd.
own a " Honda" in 2008.
Also, given that Aman neither owned a "Honda" in 2008 nor 92. 1 The total sum of the scores of the 5 proposals P4, P5,
does he own a "Honda" in 2009. P7, P9 and P10 is 14.
Therefore, Arun owned a "Honda" in 2008 and owns a
"Esteem" in 2009.

Page 10 MBA FMS – FLT 1

Test Prep
93. 1 This statement properly identifies a point that weakens
the conclusion. Option (2) does not weaken the
conclusion. Option (3) states the obvious and does
not weaken the conclusion. Option (4) tells us that
funding supports the claim that it will be difficult to
fund salaries of supporting staff.
For questions 94 and 95:
94. 1 Each printer will print 400 pages in 1 hour.
Cost incurred to the company for using printer P:
1.4 × 100 + 0.45 × 150 + 0.4 × 150 = Rs. 267.5.
Cost incurred to the company for using printer Q:
1.55 × 100 + 0.5 × 150 + 0.4 × 150 = Rs. 290.
Cost incurred to the company for using printer R:
1.5 × 100 + 0.55 × 150 + 0.3 × 150 = Rs. 277.5.
Hence, printer P would incur the lowest cost among
these three printers.
95. 3 Cost incurred to the company for using printer P:
1.4 × 100 + 0.45 × 150 + 0.4 × 1000 = Rs. 607.5.
Cost incurred to the company for using printer Q:
1.55 × 100 + 0.5 × 150 + 0.4 × 1000 = Rs. 630.
Cost incurred to the company for using printer R:
1.5 × 100 + 0.55 × 150 + 0.3 × 1000 = Rs. 532.5.
Hence, printer R would incur the lowest cost among
these three printers.
For questions 96 to 98:
U 2 hours
Y 2 hours
V 2 hours
W 1 hour X 4 hours
Z 1 hour
96. 2 X can only start after U (from table). So it will take 6
hrs from start to complete. So the earliest time when
Pankaj would complete X is 2 pm.
97. 2 If W takes 2 hours to complete, Z can start at 8 am +
6 hours = 2 p.m.
98. 3 The earliest time Pankaj can complete all the tasks is
8 am + 7 hours = 3 p.m.
99. 4 Options (1) is incorrect and untrue. Options (2) and
(3) are far-fetched assumptions. Option (4) can be
inferred from the last lines of the third paragraph- “It is
important that squint be treated .... the worse will be
the chances of vision, especially the ability to
appreciate depth.”, and also from the last lines of the
first paragraph, “...the need for early intervention, is
quite poor among the general public of Ludhiana and
its neighbouring districts.” . Moreover the passage
discusses various complications that might cause
FMS – FLT 1
partial or complete loss of vision due to strabismus
and ends on a cautionary note that the child would
never grow out of squint.
100. 2 Refer to the second paragraph. To consider ‘squint’
as a sign of good luck is to choose to remain in the
dark about the complexity of the disease; it is believing
in a traditional belief, or idea that is often of a
superstitious nature- an old wives’ tale. As considered
by many superstitious communities, it remains as a
misunderstood disease with a lot of false notions
attached to its treatment.
101. 4 Option (1) is incorrect in saying that in ‘amblyopia’
poor vision caused by abnormal growth of visual areas
of the brain. The passage does not mention about
abnormal growth of visual areas of the brain, rather it
mentions about abnormal development of visual areas
of the brain. Option (2) is incorrect in defining amblyopia
as dimness of sight only in one eye; the passage
clearly states in the second last paragraph that - ‘This
almost always affects only one eye but may manifest
with reduction of vision in both eyes.’ Moreover as
per passage, amblyopia is not caused due to any eye
disease. Hence option (2) is false. Option (3) is also
false in saying that amblyopia is opaqueness of sight
in both eyes. None of the options provide an apt and
adequate definition of amblyobia.
102. 4 Option (1) is ruled out as pseudo-strabismus mentioned
in option (1), is not discussed/mentioned in the passage.
Option (2) is incorrect as, strabismus to surpass in
growth has not been mentioned in the passage. Option
(3) is false, as the last line of the passage states that
the child would never grow out of squint. Option (4) is
correct and can be sufficiently concluded from various
portions of the passage.
103. 2 The opening lines of the last paragraph evidence option
(2). All the other options are either not mentioned in the
paragraph or inappropriate to be said true.
104. 1 The passage is not inquiring or investigating anything,
hence the tone is not inquisitive. We do not observe
any major disappointment or discontent reflected in
the passage, rather we see traces of discomfort in Dr
Satish Thomas’ speech. As the passage is not signaling
anything bad likely to happen in the future, hence its
tone cannot be portending. The tone here is informative
and helpful.
105. 3 The passage clearly hints about its source field
(Pediatric ophthalmology) while mentioning Dr Satish
Thomas’ speech who is a pediatric ophthalmologist.
This negates all options except option (3). Pediatric
ophthalmology is a sub-speciality of ophthalmology
concerned with eye diseases and vision care in
children.
MBA Page 11
Test Prep
106. 4 Option (1) is negated as it cannot be evidenced from
the passage. In the passage the author has not
criticized anyone. Option (2) talks about comparing
and contrasting the Golden Age with the Silver Age of
comic books, however, the passage nowhere
stresses or discusses any such comparison or
contrast. Option (3) is out of context as it talks about
criticizing comic books for their corrupting influence,
which is mentioned in the passage but not targeted/
focused on. The passage begins letting its readers
know that the Golden Age of comic books began with
the introduction of Superman in 1938, but there is less
agreement about when exactly the Golden Age ended.
This is followed by a discussion on how the end of
the Golden Age of comic books was brought in. It is
this discussion, on which the passage is primarily
aiming at. Hence the answer is (4).
107. 1 Read the lines, “The creators of superhero comic
books, not wanting to be left behind, responded by
matching their protagonists against darker criminals in
more violent encounters.” EC comics met the market
demand by providing the readers with more horror
and adult content in their comic books. Responding to
the competitive pressure from horror comic books,
the creators of superhero comic books increased the
amount of violence in their stories. Option (1) mentions
the same. Option (2) and (4) are untrue, option (3) is
inappropriate as it is a very flimsy conjecture.
108. 4 The clue to answering this question lies in carefully
reading the following lines of the second paragraph
of the passage, “....child psychologist Fredric Wertham,
who believed that comic books were leading the
nation’s youth into crime, violence, and drug abuse.
Wertham’s book, The Seduction of the Innocent, was
a national best-seller that helped bring about
congressional investigations into the corrupting
influence of comic books...” On basis of this, we can
validate option (4). Being insufficient to highlight the
actual message, option (1) is negated. Option (2) is
incorrect in saying that comic books introduced crime,
violence, and drug abuse to nation’s youth. It cannot
be ascertained that these were introduced by comic
books. Option (3) is too generic in nature and is negated.
109. 1 Option (1) is true about Silver Age. It can be validated
from the last lines of the last paragraph, “The comics
business did not recover until the Marvel revolution of
the early 1960s ushered in the Silver Age.” Option (2)
is incorrect as the passage does not hint/comment
about any differences or similarities between the comic
books of the two Ages. Option (3) and (4) are also
incorrect as we are not told in the passage if Comics
Code Authority regulations could or could not affect
the comic books of Silver Age.
Page 12
110. 3 In the second paragraph, we read, “These darker
comic books aroused the anger of child psychologist
Fredric Wertham, who believed that comic books were
leading the nation’s youth into ....” Thus we infer that
Wertham’s effort were an angry response to a trend
in the subject matter of the comic book industry. Being
irrelevant and untrue, options (1) and (4) are easily
struck down. Option (2) is partly incorrect.
111. 1 Option (2), (3) and (4) are untrue as these statement
are no where hinted in the passage. Only option (1) is
correct and inferable. Refer to lines, “When these
soldiers came home, .....sought out more adult content.
... with such grim and gritty titles as Weird Fantasy
and The Crypt of Terror.”
112. 1 As in the passage, we are not told about reason(s) of
commercial success of the comic book companies of
the Silver Age, we cannot derive option (2). The comic
book companies of the Silver Age, were able to
continue their business with firmness. Options (3)
and (4) are inappropriate, as these statements cannot
be evidenced from the passage.
113. 4 The correct answer is (4) which includes options (2)
and (3). Refer to the seventh paragraph, “It’s so difficult
to let go of that need to force a confession out of our
partners. I’ll let you in on a marital truth: Being “right” in
a relationship is the booby prize. You win; the
relationship loses.” Option (1) is irrelevant, as per
passage.
114. 1 Options (2) and (3) are incorrect and vague. Option
(4) is a part of option (1), which correctly addresses
the main purpose of the passage. The passage aims
at understanding the nature and causes of marital
discord which poses a danger for a marital relationship
and suggesting possible ways to overcome such
danger. Option (1) is comprehensive and appropriate.
115. 3 Option (1) is a mere assumption and not a certainty.
Although mentioned in the second paragraph, Option
(2) is flimsy and inappropriate. Option (4) is irrelevant.
The correct answer is (3) which can be evidenced
from the third paragraph of the passage. Refer to the
lines, “Thankfully, most of us are not contestants in
such a fierce and destructive battle.”
116. 4 All the options (1), (2) and (3) are the reasons for
aggravating the marital discord.
117. 4 The second last paragraph mentions the steps which
can mitigate a marital discord. Refer to the lines, “Try
looking hard at your part what is creating the conflict.
Ask yourself, “What am I doing to create distance and
hurt?” Except option (4), all the other option are out of
context.
MBA FMS – FLT 1
Test Prep
118. 3 The author in the passage is concerned and is
attempting to suggest people how to save their marital
relationships. He uses a conversational tone to do
this. However, ‘sympathy’, ‘casualness’, ‘pensiveness’,
‘humour’ or ‘nostalgia’ – none of these is a characteristic
seen in the passage.
119. 3 The passage to large extent discusses ‘the blame
game’ as one of the major causes leading to marital
discord and suggests us to stop blaming. Option (3) is
best equipped to strike down authors opinion about it.
Even if one takes responsibility for oneself and gets
rid of the habitual feeling of being the right one, certain
issues like promiscuity or caviling are not just blames
but true complaints which cannot be considered timid.
Option (1) is frail. While suggesting the partners to
introspect themselves, the author in the passage,
provides sufficient information which can refute option
(2). Option (4) in no way can affect author’s answer
to what’s the antidote to blaming- ‘Take responsibility
for yourself’.
120. 4 We read that western financiers and tourists were
lured by Dubai - a 21st Century boomtown, however,
nowhere in the passage, do we read that the western
investors were being criticized. Hence, option (1) is
incorrect. Option (2) is too shallow to be the correct
answer. The last paragraph lets us know that - ‘It
seems that the ruler and those around him are in denial,
not wanting to acknowledge the extent of their
troubles—even to themselves.’ However this is not
the main idea or purpose of the passage. As we read
in the passage that Dubai’s main development engine,
Dubai World, has asked creditors for a “standstill” on
paying back its $60 billion debt, and understand that
how Dubai – which was admired for it being a tourism
and finance hub, is now stripped to its essentials; we
can infer option (4) to be the correct answer.
121. 4 Refer to the last lines of the third paragraph and opening
line of the fourth paragraph. All except option (4), are
irrelevant options.
122. 4 Refer to the second paragraph. All except option (4),
are irrelevant options.
123. 3 The passage informs us that the ruler and those around
him denied and did not want to acknowledge the extent
of their troubles. Nasser al Shaikh who tried to force
some of Dubai’s big companies to sort out their
problems, was a candid (frank-speaking) young
minister. The result of his open act was his dismissal
which implies that he actually stirred a hornet’s nest.
Hence the correct answer is (3).
124. 3 Refer to the last lines of the sixth paragraph.
FMS – FLT 1
125. 4 The passage nowhere talks about India, hence the
answer to this question cannot be determined from
the information provided in the passage.
126. 2 Option (1) is insufficient to encompass the gist of the
passage. Option (3) is too generic to be chosen. Option
(4) does not boil down to the core of the passage.
Option (2) provides a wholesome and apt title
addressing the real issue discussed in the passage.
127. 4 Except option (4), all the other options are vague and
hence negated. Financial inclusion is a key dimension
of the overall strategy envisaged in the BC model.
Read the lines, “Banks need to accept the BC model
as extremely vital for achieving the goals of financial
inclusion,’’ the working group had recommended.”
These lines validate option (4).
128. 3 Option (1) seems like an assumption and not an
inference. Option (2) is out of scope as ‘ Empowering
women’ is nowhere discussed in the passage. Option
(4) is untrue. Option (3) is evidenced in the first
paragraph. Read the lines, “On Monday, RBI permitted
banks to appoint these entities to act as their agents
and carry out several of the bank’s operations.”
129. 3 Option (1) is too broad and generic in nature. Options
(2) and (4) are partially correct but not appropriate
enough to be chosen. Read the lines, “the BC model
could give banks a workable solution to provide
banking services in inaccessible areas in a cost-
effective manner. This validates option (3).
130. 2 Option (1) is negated as the passage no where
concludes that the BC model is lucrative. Option (3)
talks about winning working-class population which
has not been discussed in the passage. Moreover,
such far-fetched conclusions as mentioned in options
(3) and (4), have not been hinted in the passage.
Option (2) is correct. The traditional banking model fell
short of success in extending banking services to a
wider section of the population esp. the one living in
remote areas of India. However the BC model seems
likely to develop in the expected or needed manner.
131. 3 Option (1) states that the BCs are not acquainted with
banking terms. This cannot be substantiated from the
information given in the passage. ‘No security’
mentioned in option (2), is no where mentioned in the
passage. Option (4) is vague. Option (3) can be
evidenced from the last paragraph which highlights
the operational issues related with the BC model.
MBA Page 13
Test Prep
132. 2 The passage neither talks about ‘Self-help’ as
mentioned in option (1), nor does it pertain to any
conflict between the two models. This negates options
(1) and (3). Option (4) fails to address the core issue
discussed in the passage. Only option (2) is best to
serve this purpose. The passage begins with
announcement of the fact that RBI has permitted banks
to appoint various entities to act as ‘business
correspondents’. It then mentions the need for such a
banking model and also states limitations associated
with the traditional banking model. The passage also
elaborates on the two aspects while appointing BCs,
and the operational issues in executing the BC model.
Only option (2) provides a suitable title for the passage.
133. 4 The passage is not a confused piece of speech or
writing, and hence option (1) is negated. He is neither
skeptical nor critical. Option (3) is also negated as he
is not warning us about anything. The author presents
all the facts in a descriptive tone. Option (4) complies
with the tone and writing style of the author, as he
describes every detail about the newly launched
banking model, very clearly.
134. 3 ‘Mammon’ denotes wealth seen as having a debasing
influence. ‘Numen’ is a spiritual force or influence often
identified with a natural object, phenomenon or place.
‘Omen’ refers to an occurrence or phenomenon
believed to portend a future event. ‘Doyen’ is a person
considered to be knowledgeable or uniquely skilled as
a result of long experience in some field of endeavour.
135. 4 ‘Fugue’ is a musical composition in which one or two
themes are repeated or imitated by successively
entering voices and contrapuntally developed in a
continuous interweaving of the voice parts. ‘Dirge’ is
a song or hymn of grief or lamentation. ‘Allegro’ is a
musical composition or movement in a allegro tempo.
‘Libretto’ is the text of a work (as an opera) for the
musical theater.
136. 2 ‘Tureen’ is a deep and usually covered bowl from
which soup is served. ‘Colander’ is a perforated utensil
for washing or draining food. ‘Cauldron’ is a large
kettle or boiler ‘Scoop’ is a large ladle.
137. 2 A ‘teetotaller’ is one who follows the principle or
practice of complete abstinence from alcoholic drinks.
Similarly, a ‘pacifist’ is a person who is strongly and
actively opposed to conflict and war.
138. 3 ‘Slander’ (a false and defamatory oral statement about
a person) is a synonym of ‘Libel’ (a written or oral
defamatory statement or representation that conveys
an unjustly unfavourable impression). Similarly
‘influence’ is a synonym of ‘prestige’.
Page 14
139. 4 'Frustrate' means to balk or defeat in an endeavour.
'Exasperate' means to cause irritation or annoyance
to. 'Confront' means to face especially in challenge.
'Hamper' means to restrict the movement of by bonds
and obstacles or to interfere with. Although, 'hamper'
looks a close choice, it can be negated on the basis of
the tone.
140. 1 ‘Artless’ is the word that refers to being crude and
natural. ‘Arty’ means displaying a pretentious interest
in Art. ‘Asinine’ means silly. ‘Gullible’ refers to one who
can be easily duped or cheated.
141. 3 Ribs are in the chest, Femur is the thigh bone, Lumbar
is the lower back. But Patella which is the knee cap is
different from the ankle.
142. 4 The relation in each option is of a Group: animal. A
group of ‘insects’ is called a ‘swarm’; Similarly we
have a ‘pride’ of ‘lions’ and a ‘pack’ of ‘wolves’. But
‘Zeal’ refers to a group of ‘Zebras’ and not ‘Pups’.
143. 3 Each option has a main word and a related word.
‘Spire’ is a part of a church, ‘Farce’ is marked by broadly
satirical comedy. ‘Inter’ is part of a funeral as it means
to deposit (a dead body) in the earth or in a tomb. But
‘Albumen’ is the white of an egg and not really related
to the eye.
144. 3 The idiom was coined by John F Kennedy; it describes
then idea that when an economy is performing well,
all people will benefit from it.
145. 3 Option (3) is the correct interpretation of the proverb.
146. 3 Only option (3) has all words as philosophies. In the
other options , philosophies are - ‘Marxism’, ‘Buddhism’,
‘Atheism’, ‘Hedonism’ and ‘Modernism’. ‘Euphemism’ is
a mild expression substituted for a blunt one. The
other words are branches of study and not
philosophies.
147. 3 Option (3) has only nouns. Regarding the other options,
the nouns are- practice, locus, criminal , the verbs –
thought, deceive; the rest are adjectives.
148. 2 Option (2) has only adjectives. In Option (1), ‘grief’ is a
noun. Option (3) has ‘cogitate’-verb and ‘privacy’-
noun. Option (4) has ‘rubble’ which is a noun as well
as a transitive verb.
149. 2 The idiom "no love lost" means no affection or animosity.
150. 1 Option (1) is the correct idiom.
151. 1 Option (1) is the correct meaning of the idiom.
MBA FMS – FLT 1
Test Prep
152. 3 Only in option (3) ,all the discourse markers convey a
conclusion or summary. In option (1) only lastly
conveys a conclusion or a summary. In option (2) ‘as
a result’ conveys a conclusion or a summary.
153. 3 Only option (3) has discourse markers which convey
support to a main idea. Discourse markers like On the
other hand’, ‘whereas’ and ‘conversely’ convey an
opposition or a contrast to a main idea.
154. 3 In option (3), ‘Antithesis’ conveys opposite and ‘Anti-
Social’ is against society.
155. 1 Only Option (1) has words which mean ‘evil’.
‘Malapropism’- comical confusion of words and
‘maladroit’ - clumsy do not convey evil.
156. 3 A ‘plenary’ occasion is one marked by full attendance;
‘Peripatetic’ meaning restless, suits the minister;
‘panegyric’ is a verse of praise usually for kings;
‘polemic’ is a verbal confrontation especially in a debate
or discussion. Hence option (3) is correct.
157. 1 Option (1) gives the correct order of prepositions as
they appear in the sentence. ‘Absorption in’ is the
correct expression. So option (2) is out. ‘Problem for’
is correct. ‘Problem in’ is incorrect. So option (3) is out.
158. 4 ‘Sanguine mannerisms’ signify a cheerful person;
‘sanction’ is a permission to do something; ‘sanctify’
means to purify; ‘sacrosanct’ is something which
cannot be flexed -like office rules. Hence option (4)
gives the correct order.
159. 4 ‘Certificate’ is best for the first blank; ‘Certify’ for the
second blank and ‘Certitude’ is best for the last blank.
But options (1), (2) and (3) do not fulfill this.
160. 4 Apart from ‘colour’ and ‘sky’, the other words do not
really connect to ‘blue’. Hence option (4) is best.
161. 2 Option (2) is correct. ‘Antiquity’ means –‘of ancient
times’. ‘Space’ does not exactly belong to the headword
time. ‘Rhythm’ and ‘Clock’ are connected to time.
FMS – FLT 1
162. 3 The quote highlights the need for an immediate action
as delay can result in losing what one wants. Even if
you reach a second later, you may just get the shell
and lose the oyster.
163. 3 The quote is talking about anticipation-Anticipating
something before it actually happens.
164. 1 ‘Rectitude’ means morally correct behavior. Hence
‘immoral’ would be opposite in meaning to Rectitude.
165. 3 ‘Prodigal’ means wasteful or extravagant. Hence,
‘Restrained’ would be opposite in meaning.
166. 3 The meaning of ‘hapless’ is unfortunate. Hence the
opposite would be ‘lucky’.
167. 1 ‘Alacrity’ is to respond promptly with alertness. So
‘Laziness’ would have an opposite sense.
168. 4 It is Kanakavallabhamalini who could keep a good table-
‘entertain guests sumptuously’.
169. 1 Altabar hit the nail on the wall- ‘ did exactly the right
thing’.
170. 2 Manish ‘rubbed shoulders’- came into contact with a
large number of people.
171. 4 Chander made ducks and drakes- ‘ squandered’
whatever he had inherited.
172. 1 The minister’s actions fell flat- ‘caused no interest’ in
listeners.
173. 2 Ritu bid fair –‘ seemed likely’ to do something.
174. 4 No one created bad –blood – ‘create enemies or
animosity.’
175. 4 Arvind set the Thames on fire –‘ did a surprising thing’.
MBA Page 15
Test Prep