CCNA QUESTION --- FINAL VERSION

1. Which two technologies can combine multiple physical switches into one logical switch?
(Choose two)
A. VRRP
B. VSS
C. Stackwise
D. GLBP
E. HSRP
2.    Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about router R1 are true? (Choose Two)
A. The router has two EIGRP neighbors and one OSPF neighbor.
B. At least three IGP routing protocols are running on the router.
C. The router has an OSPF Area 0 adjacency with the device at 10.82.4.42.
D. At least two IGP routing protocols are running on the router.
E. The router is learning external OSPF and EIGRP routes.
3.  Which plane handles switching traffic through a Cisco router?
A. Control
B. Data
C. Management
D. Performance
4.  Which Command must you enter to enable OSPFV2 in an IPV4 network?
A. Router ospfv2 process-id
B. Router ospf process-id
C. Ip ospf hello- interval seconds
D. Router ospf value
5. Which command should you enter to configure a single port to bypass the spanning-
tree Forward and Delay timers?
A. Spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default
B. Spanning-tree portfast
C. Spanning-tree portfast default
D. Spanning-tree portfast bpdufiter default
6.  Which two options are fields in an Ethernet frame? (Choose two)
A. Header
B. Type
C. Destination IP address
D. Frame check sequence
E. Source IP address
7.  Which two tasks can help you gather relevant facts whe you troubleshoot a network problema? (Choose two)
A. Ask questions of the users who are affected by the problem
B. Change one setting or component and then analyze the result
C. Collect technical data from network management systems and logging servers
D. Define the problema in terms of symptoms and causes
E. Eliminate known issues first.
8.  Which command should you use to display detailed information about EBGP peers?
A. Show ip bgp
B. Show ip bgp paths
C. Show ip bgp summary
D. Show ip bgp neighbors
9. What are two common types of copper cable? (Choose two)
A. Single – mode
B. Shielded twisted pair
C. Multimode
D. OM4
E. Unshielded twisted pair
10.  Which port status does the interface enter when UDLD detects a unidirectional link?
A. up/up
B. errdisable
C. down/ down
D. shutdown
11.  Refer to the exhibit. How will switch SW2 handle traffic from VLAN 10 on SW1?
A. It drops the traffic
B. It sends the traffic to VLAN 10
C. It sends the traffic to VLAN 100
D. It sends the traffic to VLAN 1
12.  Refer to the exhibit which VLAN ID is associated with the native VLAN?
A. VLAN 1
B. VLAN 5
C. VLAN 20
D. VLAN 10
13. Which type frame is larger than 9000 bytes?
A. Runt
B. Beby giant
C. Jumbo
D. Giant
14.  Which command should you enter to configure an LLDP delay time of 5 seconds?
A. Idp holdtime 5
B. Lldp reinit 5
C. Lldp timer 5000
D. Lldp reinit 5000
15. Which command must you use to test DNS connectivity?
A. Show hosts
B. Show interfaces
C. Telnet
D. Ipcon
16.  Which effect does the switchport trunk native vlan 10 command have?
A. It configures the interface as a trunk port
B. It prevents traffic on VLAN 1 from passing on the trunk
C. It sets VLAN 10 as the native VLAN on the trunk
D. It allows traffic from native VLAN 10 on the trunk.
17. Which two TCP messages use a 32 – bit number as part of the initial TCP handshake? (Choose two)
A. Fin
B. Syn – ack
C. Syn
D. Rst
E. Ack
18.  How does a Cisco IP pone handle untagged traffic that if receives from an attached PC?
A. It drops the traffic
B. It tags the traffic with the native VLAN
C. It tags the traffic whth the default VLAN
D. It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged
19. Which feature or protocol determines whether the qos on the network is sufficient to support IP services?
A. CDP
B. EEM
C. LLDP
D. IP SLA
20. Which feature or protocol must you enable so that the output of the show interfaces
trunk command includes information native VLAN mismatches?
A. CDP
B. DTP
C. RSTP
D. Portfast
21.  Which two types of NAT addresses are used in a Cisco NAT device? (choose two.)
A. External local
B. Inside private
C. Inside global
D. Outside private
E. Inside local
F. External global
22.  Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the configuration?
A. traffic from PC A is sent untagged when it uses the trunk to communicate with PC B
B. traffic from PC B is dropped when it uses the trunk to communicate with PC A
C. traffic from PC B is sent untagged whrn it uses the trunk to communicate with PC A
D. traffic from PC is dropped when it uses the trunk to communicate with PC B
23.  which  task should you perform before you use APIC-EM path trace tolos to perform ACL analysis?
A. Verify that DNS is configure don the controller.
B. Configure the IP address from which to generate the trace.
C. Execute a
D. tandard tracerouteto the destination.
E. Verify that the devices of interest are included in the divice inventory.
24.  which two protocols does the internet layer in the TCP/IP model encapsulate? (choose two).
A. DNS
B. ARP
C. TCP
D. ICMP
E. SMTP
25.  which   command   must   you   use   to   verify   hostname-to-IP   address   mapping
information?
A. Show sessions
B. Show mac-address-table
C. Show hosts
D. Show arp
26.  which two pins does an RJ-45 connector use to transmit data? (choose two).
A. 1
B. 3
C. 2
D. 6
E. 4
27.  which  IOS  troubleshooting  tool  shoul  you  use  to  direct  system  messages  to  your screen?
A. Log events
B. Local SPAN
C. Terminal monitor
D. APIC-EM
28.  which two VLAN IDs indicate a default VLAN? (Choose two.)
A. 4096
B. 1005
C. 1006
D. 0
E. 1
29.  You notice that packets that are sent from a local host to well-know service on TCO port 80 of a remote host are
lost.you suspect an ACL issue. Wich two APIC- EM path trace ACL analysis options should you use to troubleshoot th
(choose two).
A. Performance monitor
B. Destination port
C. QoS
D. Debug
E. Protocol
30.  Refer to the Exhibit. When PC 1 send a packet PC2. The packet has which source and
destination IP address when it arrives at interface G0/0 on route R2?
A. Source 192.168/10/10 and destination 10.10.2.2
B. Source 192.168.20.10 and destination 192.168.20.1
C. Source 10.10.1.1ad destination 10.10.2.2
D. Source 192.168.10.10 and destination 192.168.20.10
31.  according to security best practices, which two actions must you take to protect an unused switch port? (choos
A. Enable CDP.
B. Administratively shutdown the port.
C. Configure ther port as a trunk port.
D. Configure the port ti automatically come online.
E. Configure the port as an Access port on a VLAN other than VLAN 1.
32.  which two statements correctly describe distance-vector routing protocols? (choose two)
A. They use a variety of metrics to identify the distance to a destination network.
B. They require quick network convergence to support normal operations.
C. They generate a complete topology of the network.
D. They update other devices on the network when one device detects a topogy chage.
E. They specify the next hop toward the destination subnet.
33.  in which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (choose three.)
A. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
B. IPv6 headers use the fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 fragmentation field.
C. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.
D. IPv6 uses an extensión header instead of the IPv4 fragmentacion field.
E. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 checksum field.
F. Unlile IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
34.  Which two statements about exterior routing protocols are true? (choose two).
A. Most modern networking supports both EGP an BGP for external routing.
B. They determine the optimal path within an autonomous system
C. Most modern network routers support both EGP and EIGRP for external routing
D. BGP is the current standard exterior routing protocol
E. They determine the optimal path between autonomous systems
35.  which two actions must you take to correctly configure PPPoE on a client? (choose two)
A. Créate a dialer pool and bind it to the virtual template.
B. Define a dialer interface.
C. Créate BBA group an link it to the dialer interface.
D. Define a virtual template interface
E. Créate a dialer pool and bind it to the physical interface.
36.  which two statements about MPLS are true? (choose two)
A. It provides automatic authentication
B. It uses ñabels to separate and forward customer traffic.
C. It tags customer traffic using 802.1q
D. It can carry multiple protocols, including IPv4 and IPv6.
E. It encapsulates all traffic in an IPv4 header
37.  frame flooding can occur in which circumstance?
A. The destination MAC address is missing from the CAM table.
B. The source IP address is missing from the route table.
C. The source MAC address is missing from the CAM table.
D. The destination IP address is missing from the route table .
38. which three circumstances can cause a GRE tunnel to be in an up/down state? (choose three.)
A. An ACL is blocking the outbound traffic.
B. The tunnel address is routed through the tunner itself.
C. The tunnel interface is down.
D. The tunnel interface IP address is misconfigured.
E. The ISP is blocking the traffic.
F. A valid route to the destination address is missing from the routing table.
39. which  command  should  you  enter  t  view  the  error  log  in  an  EIGRP  for  IPv6
environment?
A. Show ipv6 eigr neighbors
B. Show ipv6 eigrp traffic
C. Show ipv6 eigrp events
D. Show ipv6 eigrp topology
40. which address prefix does OSPFv3 use multiple IPv6 addresses are configure don a
single interface?
A. The highest prefix on the interface
B. The lowest prefix on the interface
C. All prefixes on the interface
D. The prefix that administrator configures for OSPFv3 use
41.  which function does traffic shaping perform?
A. It buffers and queues excess packets
B. It drops packets to control the output rate.
C. It queues traffic whithout buffering it
D. It buffers traffic without queuing it.
42.  which two statements about RFC 1918 address are true? (choose two.)
A. They provide security to end users when tu users Access the internet
B. They increase network performance
C. They must be registered
D. They require network address translation or Port Address Translation to Access the internet.
E. They have reserved address space for Class B networks only.
43.  which command can you use to test whether a swich support secure connections and strong authentication?
A. Router>ssh-v2-I admin 10.1.1.1
B. Switch#ssh-I admin 10.1.1.1
C. Switch>ssh-v1-Iadmin 10.1.1.1
D. Router#ssh-v1-Iadmin 10.1.1.1
44.  which feature or protocol is requiered for an IP SLA to measure UDP jitter?
A. EEM
B. NTP
C. LLDP
D. CDP
45.  Refer  to  the  exhibit.  If  all  routers  on  this  network  run  RIPv2,  which  configuration
should you apply router R3 to produce their routing table.
A. Router rip Versión 2
Network 192.168.3.0
Network 192.168.4.0
Network 192.168.23.0
Distance 70
Passive-interface default
B. Router rip
Network 192.168.3.0
Network 192.168.4.0
Network 192.168.23.0 Passive-interface default
C. Router rip Versión 2
Network 192.168.3.0
Network 192.168.23.0
Distance 50
D. Router rip Versión 2
Network 192.168.3.0
Network 192.168.4.0
Networrk 192.168.23.0
Distance 50
46.  refer  to  the  exhibit.  The  network  administrator  must  establish  a  route  by  which
London workstations can forward traffic to the manchester workstations. What is the simplest way to accomplish th
A. configure a static route on London to direct all traffic destined for 172.16.0.0/22 to 10.1.1.2
B. configure dynamic routing protocol manchesterto advertise a default route to the London router.
C.configure astatic default route on London with a next hop of 10.1.1.1.
D. configure a dynamic routing protocolo n London to advertise all routes to manchester.
E. Configure a dynamic routing protocolo n London to advertise summarized routes to manchester.
47.  which two statements about static routing are truc? (choose two.)
A. It provides only limited security unless the administrator performs additional configuration.
B. It allows the administrator to determine the entire path of a packet.
C. It allows packet to transit a different path if the topology changes.
D. Its default administrative distance is lower than EIGRP.
E. Its initial implementation is more complex than OSPF.
48.  which three options are types of layer 2  network attack? (choose three.)
A. Brute forcé attacks
B. ARP attacks
C. DDOS attacks
D. Botnet attacks
E. Spoofing attacks
F. VLAN hopping
49.  A BPDU guard is configure don an interface that has PortFast enabled. Which state does the interface enter whe
BPDU?
A. Listening
B. Errdisable
C. Shutdown
D. Blocking
50.  which  three  encapsulation  layers  in  the  OSI  model  are  combined  into  the  TCP/IP
application layer? (choose three.)
A. Application
B. Session
C. Data link
D. Transport
E. Presentation
F. Network
51.  Refer to the exhibit. If the router attempts to send a frame out of the interface, but the carrier is busy, which co
increment?
A. Collisions
B. Lost carrier
C. Deferred
D. Late collision
52.  which two statements about NTP operatios are true? (choose two.)
A. Cisco routers can act only as NTP servers
B. NTP uses TCP over IP
C. Cisco routers can act both NTP authoritative servers and NTP clients
D. NTP uses UDP over IP
E. Cisco routers can act only as NTP clients
53.  which two pieces of information can you learn by viewing the routing table? (choose
two)
A. Whether a route was learned via IGP o EGP
B. Whether a route was tagged
C. Whether Access lists are blocking incoming routes
D. The interface on which traffic is sent
E. Whether routes were summarized
54.  which port security violation mode drops traffic from unknown MAC addresses and sends an SNMP trap?
A. Shutdown
B. Restrict
C. Shutdown VLAN
D. Protect
55.  which two options are primary responsabilities of the APIC-EM controller? (choose two)
A. It automates network actions between different device types.
B. It automates network actions between legacy equipment.
C. It makes network functions programmable.
D. It tracks license usage and Cisco IOS versions.
E. It provides robust asset management.
56.  which componet of an Ethernet frame is used to notify a host that traffic is coming?
A. Data field
B. Start of frame delimiter
C. Type field
D. Preamble
57.  which address class includes network 191.168.0.1/27
A. Class B
B. Class A
C. Class D
D. Class C
58.  what is the default Syslog facility level?
A. Local7
B. Local6
C. Local4
D. Local5
59.  what is the easiest way to verify the layer 3 path from router to host 192.168.2.1?
A. Add a static route for host 12.168.2.1 to the routing table of the router.
B. Use telnet to connect the router to host 192.168.2.1.
C. Execute a ping from the router to host 192.168.2.1.
D. Execute a traceroute from ther router to host 192.168.2.1.
60.  which layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous circuits and has built- in security mechanisms?
A. PPP
B. X.25
C. HDLC
D. Frame Relay
61.  which  command  must  you  enter  to  guaraantee  that  an  HSRP  router  with  priority becomes the HSRP prim
it is reloaded?
A. Standby 10 priority 150
B. Standby 10 version 1
C. Standby 10 preempt
D. Standby 10 version 2
62.  which command can yoy enter to display duplicate IP addresses that the DHCP server Assigns?
A. Show ip dhcp server statistics
B. Show ip dhcp confict 10.0.2.12
C. Show ip dhcp database 10.0.2.12
D. Show ip dhcp binding 10.0.2.12
63.  which two server types are used to support DNS lookup? (choose two.)
A. Web server
B. Authoritative name server
C. Name resolver
D. File transfer server
E. ESX host
64.  which two statements about TACACS+ are true? ( choose two.)
A. It uses a managed database
B. It is enabled on Cisco routers by default.
C. It can runo n a UNIX server.
D. It is more secure than AAA authentication.
E. It authenticates against the user database on the local device.
65.  which cloud service that usually provides software beyond the basic operating system is normally used for deve
A. Software-as-a-service
B. Platforms-as-a-service
C. Infrastructure-as-a-service
D. Database-as-a-service
66.  which  two  statements  describe  key  differences  between  single-and   dual  – homed
WAN connections? (choose two)
A. Dual-homed WAN connections have higher WAN speed than single-homed connections
B. Dual-homed WAN connections are more expensive than single-homed connections
C. Dual-homed WAN connections requiere more skill to administer than single-homed connections
D. Dual-homed WAN connections have a simpler topology than single-homed connections
E. Dual-homed WAN connections have more management-application overhead than single-homed connection
67.  which two pieces of information about a cisco device can cisco discovery protocol communication (choose two)
A. The spanning tree protocol
B. The trunking protocol
C. The VTP domain
D. The spanning tree priorty
E. The native VLAN
68.  which keyboard shortcut can you use to exit the system configuration dialog on a cisco networking device and r
privileged EXEC mode without making changes?
A. Shift-Esc
B. Ctrl-C
C. Ctrl-Alt-Delete
D. Ctrl-V
69.  After you configure a DHCP server on VLAN 10 to service clients on VLAN 10 and VLAN 20. Clients on VLAN 10 a
address assignments, but clients on VLAN 20 fail to receive IP address. Which action must you take to correct the pr
A. Configure a separate DHCP server on VLAN 20
B. Configure the ip helper-address command in the DHCP server configuration
C. Configure the default Gateway in the DHCP server configuration
D. Configure the DNS name option in the DHCP server configuration
70.  which two benefits can you get by stacking Cisco switches? (choose two)
A. Each switch in the stack handles the MAC table independently from the others
B. You can add or remove switches without taking the stack down.
C. You can license the entire stack with a single master license
D. Easch switch in the stack can use a different IOS image
E. The stack enables any active member to take over as the master switch if the existing master fails
71.  Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the network environment of router R1 must be
true? (choose two)
A. A static default route to 10.85.33.14 was defined
B. The 10.0.0.0/8 network was learned via external EIGRP
C. There are 20 different network masks within the 10.0.0.0/8 network
D. The EIGRP administrative distance was manually changed from 90 to 170
E. Ten routes are equally load balanced between Te0/1/0.100 and Te0/2/0.100
72.  which NAT function can map multiple inside addresses to a single outside address?
A. ARP
B. RARP
C. SFTP
D. TFTP
E. PAT
73.  refer to the exhibit. Which command do you enter so that R1 advertises the loopback0 interface
to the BGP peers?
A. Network 172.16.1.0.0.0.0.255
B. Network 172.16.1.32.0.0.0.31
C. Network 172.16.1.32 mask 255.255.255.224
D. Network 172.16.1.32.255.255.255.224
E. Network 172.16.1.32 mask 0.0.0.31
74.  refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the interface that generated the output is true?
A. A syslog message is generated when a violation occurs
B. One secure MAC address is manually configured on the interface
C. One secure MAC address is dynamically learned on the interface
D. Five secure MAC addresses are dynamically learned on the interface
75.  which two conditions can be used to elect the spanning –tree root bridge? (choose two)
A. The lowest MAC address
B. The lowest switch priority
C. The highest port priority
D. The lowest system ID
E. The highest MAC address
76.  which definition of a host route is true?
A. A route that is manually configured
B. A route to the exact /32 destination address
C. A route used when a route to the destination network is missing
D. A dynamic route learned from a server
77.  which type of device should you use to preserve IP addresses on your network?
A. Firewall
B. Load balancer
C. Intrucion prevention device
D. WLAN controller
78.  refer to the exhibit. Users in your office are complaining that they cannot connect to the servers at a remote sit
troubleshooting, you find that you can successfully reach the servers from router R2. What is the most likely reason
users are experiencing connection failure?
A. The ip helper-address command is missing on the R2 interface connects to the switch .
B. Interface ports are shut down on the remote servers
C. The DHCP address pool has been exhausted.
D. VLSM is misconfigured between the router interface and the DHCP pool.
79.  which network appliance check the state of packet to determine whether the packet  is legitimate?
A. The load balance
B. The layer 2 switch
C. The firewall
D. The LAN controller
80.  you apply a new inbound Access list to routers, blocking UDP packets to the HSRP group. Which two effects doe
hace on the HSRP group process? (choose two)
A. The routers in the group generate duplicate IP address warnigs
B. Both the active and standby routers become active
C. The active router immediately become the standby router
D. HSRP redundancy Works as expected
E. HSRP redundancy fails
81.  which feature can cause a port to shut down immediately after a switch reboot?
A. Port security
B. DTP
C. COPP
D. PortFast
82.  what happens to new traffic that is sent to a destination Mac address after the MAC aging time expires
A. It is dropped
B. It is process switched
C. It is queued
D. It is flooded
83.  which two command sequences must you configure on a switch to establish a layer 3 EtherChannel with an ope
protocol? (choose two)
A. Interface GigabitEthernet0/01 Channel –group 10 mode active
B. Interface port-channel 10 Switchport
C. Interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 Channel group 10 mode on
D. Interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 Channel-group 10 mode auto
E. Interface port-channel 10 No switchport
Ip address 172.16.0.1.255.255.255.0
84.  which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? (choose two)
A. It burdens the source host without affecting remote hosts.
B. It uses a mínimum amount of network bandwidth.
C. It is bandwidth-intensive.
D. It is the most efficient way to deliver data to multiple receivers.
E. It simultaneously delivers multiple streams of data.
85.  which command can you enter on a switch to display the IP addresses associated with connected devices?
A. Show cdp interface
B. Show cdp neighbors detail
C. Show cdp traffic
D. Show cdp neighbors
86.  which two tasks should you perform to begin troubeshooting a network problema? (choose two.)
A. Implement an action plan.
B. Monitor and verify the resolution
C. Analyze the results.
D. Gather all the facts
E. Define the problema as a set of symptpms and causes.
87.  which IPv6 address is the all-router multicast group?
A. FF02::4
B. FF02::1
C. FF02::2
D. FF02::3
88.  which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (choose three.)
A. HSRP supports only clear-text authentication.
B. The virtual IP address and virtual MAC+K44C address are active on the HSRP Master router.
C. The HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the router’s interfaces in the same LAN.
D. The HSRP virtual address must be the same as one of the router’s interface addresses on the LAN.
E. The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval.
F. The HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an administrative form of load balancing.
89.  which protocol does ipv6 use to discover other ipv6 nodes on the same segment?
A. NHRP
B. ARP
C. NDP
D. TCPv6
E. CLNS
90.  which value is used to build the CAM table?
A. Source IP address
B. Source MAC address
C. Destination IP address
D. Destination MAC address
91.  How does a router handle an incoming packet whose destination network is missing from the routing table?
A. It discards the packet
B. It broadcasts the packet to each network on the router
C. In routes the packet to the default route
D. It broadcasts the packet to each interface on the router
92.  which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (choose two)
A. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
B. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router
C. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
D. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.
E. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
F. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
G. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
93.  refer to the exhibit, the server on this network is configured with an MTU of  9216, and the two interface on
router R1 are configured for MTUs of 2000 and 3000. As shown, what is the largest packet size that can pass between the Work
server?
A. 3000 bytes
B. 1500 bytes
C. 2000 bytes
D. 9216 bytes
94.  A national retail chain needs to designa an IP addressing scheme to support nationwide network. The company needs a m
sub-neworks and a máximum od 50 host addresses per subnet. Working with only ine class B address, which of the following s
support an appropriate addessing scheme? (choose two)
A. 255.255.248.0
B. 255.255.252.0
C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.255.255.224
E. 255.255.255.128
F. 255.255.255.192
95.  which two statements correctly describe the ping utility? (choose two)
A. It can identify the source of an ICMP “time exceded” message.
B. It uses UDP
C. It uses ICMP
D. It can verify connectivity to a remote devicec without identifying the path.
E. It can identify the path that a packet takes to a remote device.
96.
The  Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1. What two function will occur when thus frame is received by 295
two)
A. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1
B. Hosts B and C may forward frames out fa0.1 but frames arriving from other switches wil not be forward out fa0/1
C. Only frames from source 000.00bb.bbbb. the first learned MAC address of 2950Switch will be forwarded our fa0/1
D. The mac address table will now have and additional entry of fa0/1 ffff.ffff.ffff
E. This frame will be discarded when it is received by 2950Switch.
F. All frame arriving on 2950 Switch with destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/1
97.  which two statements about stateful firewalls in an Enterprise network are true? ( choose two)
A. They can filter HTTP and HTTPS traffic in the inbound direction only.
B. They can track the number of active TCP connections
C. They can use information about previous packets to make decisions about future packets
D. They are most effective when placed in front of the router connected to the internet
E. Ther are more susceptible to DoS attacks than stateless firwalls
98.  which two pieces of information can you determine from the output of the shotw ntp status command? (choose two)
A. Whether the clock is synchronized
B. The configured NTP servers
C. Whether the NTP peer is statically configured
D. The IP address of the peer to which the clock is synchronized
E. The NTP versión number of the peer
99.  which three statements about IPv6 address fd14:920b:f83f:4079::/64 are true?  (choose three)
A. The global ID is 14920bf83d
B. The subnet ID is 14920bf83d
C. The address is a link-local address
D. The subnet ID is 4079
E. The address is a unique local address
F. The global ID is 4079
100. which QoS feature can drop traffic that excedes the committed Access rate?.
A. Shaping
B. Policing
C. Weighted fair queuing
D. FIFO
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