SSC Je Electrical Engineering Tier 1 2017 29 Jan Shift 1 PDF

SSC JE Electrical Engineering
Tier 1 2017 29 Jan Shift 1

Conducted on 29-Jan-2018
Total time 120 mins
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SSC JE Electrical Engineering Tier 1 2017 29 Jan Shift 1 Question Paper
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SSC JE Electrical Engineering Tier 1 2017 29 Jan

Shift 1
Duration: 120 mins Max Score: 200
Test Instructions
1. The total question in the test is 200
2. The total test duration for the test is 120 minutes
3. The maximum marks for the paper is 200
4. One mark will be awarded for every correct answer and 0.25 marks will be deducted for every
incorrect answer
5. There is no negative marking for un-attempted question
Te st Se ctions
Se ction Q ue stions Marks

Reasoning 50 Questions (1 - 50) 50
General Knowledge 50 Questions (51 - 100) 50
Electrical 100 Questions (101 - 200) 100
Color coding for type s of Q ue stions
Code Type of Q ue stion

Single Option Correct Multiple Choice Question
One or More Options Correct Multiple Choice Question with Multiple Answers
Numerical Numerical
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Q. 1 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25
In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.
Smash : Badminton : : ? : ?
A. Board : Chess
B. Bowled : Cricket
C. Ball : Golf
D. Stick : Polo
In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.
School : Student : : ? : ?
A. Hospital : Bed
B. Judge : Court
C. Shop : Selling
D. Prison : Convict
In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.
Temperature : Degree : : Area : ?
A. Watt
B. Hectare
C. Kilogram
D. Ampere
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In the following question, select the related letter pair from the given alternatives.
LACK : GWXG : : MYST : ?
A. TCPH
B. HUNP
C. TUMC
D. HUMT
In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.
PIT : UNY : : FAX : ?
A. LGB
B. KEB
C. KFC
D. LAE
In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.
FK : CI : : GL : ?
A. AH
B. RV
C. KP
D. DJ
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In the following question, select the related number pair from the given alternatives.
45 : 90 : : ? : ?
A. 48:96
B. 24:50
C. 12:50
D. 31:63
In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
62 : 155 : : 74 : ?
A. 185
B. 165
C. 170
D. 190
In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
41 : 5 : : 23 : ?
A. 5
B. 3
C. 8
D. 9
In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.
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A. Sitar
B. Violin
C. Harmonium
D. Guitar
A. Rice
B. Wheat
C. Maize
D. Potato
A. Cuboid
B. Cone
C. Traingle
D. Cube
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In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.
A. NJFB
B. KGCZ
C. BXTP
D. LHDZ
A. RLFZ
B. KDXR
C. PJDX
D. TNHB
A. XAD
B. ILO
C. TWZ
D. FIM
In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.
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A. 13-5
B. 15-7
C. 12-6
D. 14-6
In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives
A. 93-97
B. 84-88
C. 54-58
D. 29-35
In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives
A. 11-13
B. 17-19
C. 23-31
D. 31-37
Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.
1. Reality
2. Receptive
3. Rebound
4. Realism
5. Realize
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A. 45132
B. 41532
C. 41523
D. 45123
1. Shapely
2. Shoddy
3. Shelve
4. Short
5. Sharp
A. 15234
B. 51234
C. 15324
D. 51324
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1. Stern
2. Startle
3. Steep
4. Storm
5. Stick
A. 23451
B. 23154
C. 23145
D. 23415
A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones
that will complete the series.
APRQ, ZLQM, YHPI, XDOE, ?
A. VXNZ
B. WXOA
C. VXMB
D. WZNA
RIM, UNT, XSA, AXH, ?
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A. CBM
B. DCO
C. DBN
D. CCO
FC, DA, BY, ZW, ?
A. YU
B. XU
C. YV
D. XV
In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.
14, 35, 87.5, ?, 546.875
A. 218.75
B. 262.5
C. 192.75
D. 178.5
In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives..
43, 21.5, 21.5, 43, ?, 1376
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A. 172
B. 138
C. 124
D. 194
In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.
81, 23, 104, 127, 231, ?
A. 392
B. 440
C. 324
D. 358
E is taller than D, C is taller than E, A is taller than E and B is taller than C. Who is the second
shortest?
A. D
B. E
C. A
D. C
D's mother's father is C's father's father-in-law. How are C and D related if D is male and C
female?
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A. D is C's wife's brother

B. C is sister of D's wife
C. D is C's brother
D. C is mother of D's wife
From the given alternative words select the word which cannot be formed using the letters
of the given word.
WAVELENGTH
A. wheat
B. valet
C. halve
D. given
If MORTALS is coded as LNQSZKR, then how will BIN be coded as?
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A. YRM
B. AHM
C. DKP
D. CJO
In a certain code language, 6532 means 'change the TV channel', 8965 means 'give back the
change' and 1246 means 'channel the inner energy'. Find the code for 'channel'.
A. 3
B. 5
C. 6
D. 2
In a certain code language, '+' represents '-', '-' represents 'x', 'x' represents '÷' and '÷'
represents '+'. Find out the answer to the following question.
950 x 50 + 8 - 5 ÷ 20 = ?
A. 4
B. 58
C. -32
D. -1
If 7 @ 3 = 8, 10 @ 2 = 16 and 70 @ 40 = 60, then find the value of 7 @ 5 = ?
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A. 35
B. 4
C. 2
D. 75
if A * B means A is mother of B, A + B means A is sister of B and If A % B means A is daughter

of B, then what does G % H * I + J mean?
A. G is sister of J
B. G is mother of J
C. G is daughter of J
D. G is sister of J's wife
Select the missing number for the figure from the given responses
A. 3
B. 4
C. 1
D. -4
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Which of the following terms follows the trend of the given list?
OOOXOO, OOOOXO, OOOOOX, XOOOOO, OXOOOO, ____________.
A. OOXOOO
B. OXOOOO
C. OOOXOO
D. OOOOXO
A women leaves her hut and walks 2 km West, then she turns North and walks 7 km, then
she turns East and walks 1 km, then she turns South and walks 3 km, then she turns to her
left and walks 1 km to reach the well. Where is this well with respect to her hut?
A. 4 km South
B. 10 km North
C. 10 km South
D. 4 km North
Two siblings start from home to go to their respective schools. The brother goes 6 km
West, then turns right and goes 3 km and reaches his school. The sister goes 2 km South,
then 4 km East, then turns left and goes 5 km and reaches her school. Where is the sister's
school with respect to the brother's school?
A. 10 km West
B. 10 km East
C. 2 km East
D. 2 km West
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In the question two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to
consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be
at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given
conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.
Statement I: No soldiers are french
Statement II: All europeans are french
Conclusion I: Some french are europeans
Conclusion II: Some soldiers are europeans
A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Both conclusions I and II follow
D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
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In the question three statements are given, followed by three conclusions, I, II and III. You
have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems
to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given
conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.
Statement I: All passes are valleys
Statement II: Some passes are mountains
Statement III: Some hills are mountains as well as valleys
Conclusion I: Some hills are passes
Conclusion II: Some mountains are valleys
Conclusion III: All valleys are hills
A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Only conclusions I and II follow
D. All conclusions I, II and III follow
Which of the following cube in the answer figure cannot be made based on the unfolded
cube in the question figure?
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A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Which of the following answer figure patterns can be combined to make the question
figure?
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A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
In the following figure, square represents Dentists, triangle represents Collectors, circle
represents Indians and rectangle represents Women. Which set of letters represents
Indians who are either collectors or women?
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A. DEF
B. GFH
C. IEH
D. CDE
Which of the following Venn diagrams represents the relationship between Gold, Silver and
Gold coins?
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A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?
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A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
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From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is
hidden/embedded
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A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the
given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened
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A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of
the given figure?
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A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives.
The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets
as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from
0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be
represented first by its row and next by its column, for example 'E' can be represented by
41,32 etc and 'U' can be represented by 95,87 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for
the word 'MAXI'
A. 02,34,67,89
B. 01,56,32,98
C. 30,11,96,13
D. 34,76,43,01
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Which of the following is called a 'banker's cheque'?
A. IPO
B. DD
C. FD
D. RD
The place where bankers meet and settle their mutual claims and accounts is known as
A. Clearing House
B. Treasury
C. Cheque Scanning
D. No option is correct.
Which among the following formulates fiscal policy?
A. RBI
B. SEBI
C. IRDA
D. Finance Ministry
The Zero Base Budgeting in India was first experimented from which year?
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A. 1984
B. 1985
C. 1987
D. 1989
In economic terms, which of the following factors determine the 'Individual's demand' of a
product/commodity?
A. Price of a commodity
B. Income of the consumer
C. Taste and Preference of consumer
D. All options are correct.
Who among the following was never the Lok Sabha Speaker?
A. Meira Kumar
B. Balram Jakhar
C. Chandrashekhar
D. GMC Balyogi
On whose advice does the President of India appoint a state governor?
A. Chief Justice of India

B. Chief Minister of the State
C. Prime Minister of India
D. Vice President of India
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The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in which of the following countries?
A. England
B. USA
C. Russia
D. China
Who among the following decides whether a particular bill is a Money Bill or not?
A. Finance Minister
B. President of India
C. Loksabha Speaker
D. Vice President of India
Which of the following States sends the maximum number of members to the Rajya Sabha?
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Rajasthan
C. Maharashtra
D. Madhya Pradesh
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Chandella Kings are related to which of the following temples?
A. Khajuraho
B. Tirupati
C. Rameshwaram
D. Badrinath
In which language did most Buddhist texts were written?
A. Sanskrit
B. Magadhi
C. Prakrit
D. Pali
Who established the “Atmiya Sabha” a precursor organization in the socio-religious

reforms in Bengal?
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A. Tulsidas
B. Malik Muhammad Jayasi
C. Surdas
D. Kabirdas
Who was the first Indian to get selected in ICS?
A. Dadabhai Naorojee
B. Subhash Chand Bose
C. Ravindra Nath Tagore
D. Satyendra Nath Tagore
Who established the “Atmiya Sabha” a precursor in the socio-religious reforms in Bengal?
A. Vivekanand
B. Dayanand Saraswati
C. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
D. Arbindo
In which State is the Guru Shikhar Peak located?
A. Tamil Nadu
B. Rajsthan
C. Himachal Pradesh
D. Andhra Pradesh
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Through which of the following countries does the Tropic of Capricorn pass?
A. Australia
B. Brazil
C. Chile
Which among the following countries has the world’s largest reserves of Uranium?
A. Russia
B. Kazakhstan
C. Australia
D. Jordan
What is the new name of Jog or Gerosoppa waterfall?
A. Mahatma Gandhi Waterfall

B. Jawaharlal Nehru Waterfall
C. Sardar Patel Waterfall
D. Rajiv Gandhi Waterfall
Which one of the following states receives the highest rainfall during winter months?
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A. Mizoram
B. Uttarakhand
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Bihar
Which state passed a bill awarding death penalty to those found guilty of raping minors in
December, 2017?
A. Punjab
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Haryana
D. Uttar Pradesh
Union Government has framed a scheme for setting up how many special courts to fast
track criminal cases against tainted MP and MLA leaders?
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A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 13
India’s Manushi Chhillar won the coveted Miss World 2017 crown. Where was held it?
A. China
B. France
C. India
D. Canada
Which of the following countries hosted a world chess tournament for the first time in year
2017?
A. Norway
B. Armenia
C. Azerbaijan
D. Saudi Arabia
India won the first-ever South Asian Regional Badminton Team Championship. India
defeated which of the following team?
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A. Pakistan
B. Bhutan
C. Nepal
D. Bangladesh
“Non-Stop India” is written by ______.
A. Sudha Murthy
B. Dalai Lama
C. Mark Tully
D. Chetan Bhagat
Which musical artist won the Indira Gandhi Award for National Integration in October
2017?
A. T. M. Krishna
B. M. S. Subbulakshmi
C. A. R. Rahman
‘Festival of India’ was organized in which country from 31 August to 9 September 2017?
A. Italy
B. London
C. Brazil
D. New York
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Which of the following agreement has been signed between India and Israel in July 2017?
A. Agreement for transfer of sentenced person

B. MoU on cooperation in organ transplantation
C. Agreement on technology in civil aviation
D. MoU on state water utility reform in India
Which of the following operation was launched by Indian government to help Rohingya
refugees in Bangladesh?
A. Manavta
B. Insaniyat
C. Mother
D. Pahel
Servers are computers that provide resources which are connected to a ______.
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A. client
B. network
C. supercomputer
D. mainframe
Which of the following is a binary number?
A. 100101
B. 2341
C. 101C11
D. 5F6034
Which alloy is made of essentially copper and tin?
A. Brass
B. Bronze
C. Solder
D. Ranga
Incomplete combustion of a fuel gives poisonous ______ gas.
A. carbon dioxide
B. isocynate
C. Carbon monoxide
D. nitrogen
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What is value of pH of a neutral solution?
A. 7.0
B. 6.5
C. 7.5
D. 6.0
Which base is generally found in soaps?
A. Calcium hydroxide
B. Ammonium hydroxide
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Magnesium hydroxide
Which type of image is always formed by a convex mirror?

I. Real
II. Virtual
III. Enlarged
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Only I and III
D. Only II and III
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There is a circular coil having n turns. The field produced is how many times larger than
produced by a coil of single turn?
A. n
B. n²
C. n/2
D. n²/2
Which of the following is NOT an example of a biomass energy source?
A. Wood
B. Gobar gas
C. Atomic energy
D. Coal
Density of water ______ when it freezes.
A. decreases
B. increases
C. remain constant
D. No option is correct.
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Which human organ gets majorly affected due to Vitamin D deficiency?
A. Eyes
B. Skin
C. Hair
D. Bone
Match the structures given in column(A) with the functions given in column(B) from the
figure
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A. I-1, II-2, III-3, IV-4

B. I-2, II-4, III-1, IV-3
C. I-1, II-2, III-4, IV-3
D. I-1, II-3, III-2, IV-4
What is called the process of fusion of the male and the female gametes?
A. Fertilisation
B. Pollination
C. Reproduction
D. Seed formation
Which of the following is in monera group?
A. Mushrooms
B. Yeast
C. Bacteria
D. Moss
Eyes must be removed within ______ hours after the death for eye donation.
A. 6
B. 8
C. 12
D. 24
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Which of the following is/are agent(s) of infection?
A. Physical contact
B. Vectors
C. Water
Which of the following is NOTa forest product?
A. Gum
B. Plywood
C. Sealing wax
D. Kerosene
According to World Wide Fund, which of the following river of India is one of the ten most
endangered rivers in the world?
A. River Jamuna
B. River Ganges
C. River Brahamputra
D. River Godavari
Montreal Protocol is related to which of the following?
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A. E-waste
B. Ozone layer
C. Water pollution
D. No option is correct
Mission of Ramsar Convention is to conserve ______.
A. wetland
B. rivers
C. oceans
D. deserts
Which of the following materials has a large number of free electrons in it?
A. Insulators
B. Semiconductors
C. Conductors
D. Resistors
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Ampere is the S.I unit of __________.
A. Charge
B. Voltage
C. Resistance
D. Current
Which one of the following material has lowest resistivity?
A. Conductors
B. Insulators
C. Semiconductors
D. Resistors
What will be the value of current (in A) through a resistor of 40 Ohms when the potential
difference between two ends of the resistor is 20 V?
A. 2
B. 0.5
C. 4
D. 0.2
Determine the capacitance(in F) of a parallel plate capacitor placed in air if the area of the
parallel plate capacitor is 2 m² and the distance between the plates is 0.02m
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A. 7.56*10⁻¹¹
B. 9.65*10⁻¹⁰
C. 8.85*10⁻¹⁰
D. 6.65*10⁻¹⁰
What will be the value of current (in A) through a resistor, when the power dissipated
through the resistor is 40 W and the potential difference between the ends of the resistor
is 100 V?
A. 0.4
B. 4
C. 40
D. 0.04
What will be the length (in m) of a 10 Ohm wire, when the resistivity of the wire is 0.1 Ohms-
m and the diameter of the wire is 0.5 m?
A. 18.65
B. 19.62
C. 16.68
D. 14.25
Two wires of the same cross sectional area have equal length. The resistance of first wire is
three times the resistance of the other. What will be the resistivity (in Ohms-m) of the wire
that has low value of resistance, if the resistivity of the other wire is 3 Ohms-m?
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A. 2
B. 3
C. 0.1
D. 1
Determine the total resistance of the circuit given in the figure below
A. 24.12
B. 23.36
C. 26.66
D. 28.86
What will be the value of current 'I'(in A) for the given circuit diagram?
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A. 1.77
B. 2.24
C. 2.63
D. 1.12
Which one of the following statement is TRUE?
A. Kirchhoff’s current law is applicable to only junctions in a network

B. Kirchhoff’s current law is applicable to only closed loops in a network
C. Kirchhoff’s current law is applicable to only electric circuits.
D. Kirchhoff’s current law is applicable to only electronic circuits
On which of the following concept, the superposition theorem is based?
A. Duality
B. Linearity
C. Reciprocity
D. Non-linearity
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The internal resistance of an ideal current source is _________.
A. zero
B. one
C. negative
D. infinite
A point where two or more branches connect is called as ___________.
A. branch
B. node
C. terminal
D. circuit
Determine the value of Norton'e resistance(in Ω) for the given circuit.
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A. 12
B. 16
C. 6
D. 4
What will be the value of current(in A) through the 50 Ω resistor of the given circuit
diagram?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 2
D. 3
Determine the voltage (in V) across 40 Ohms resistor for the given circuit diagram
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A. 20
B. 30
C. 15
D. 10
What will be the value of current(in A) through 4 Ohms resistance for the given circuit
diagram?
A. 8.9
B. 7.2
C. 3.5
D. 6.3
Determine Thevenin's equivalent(in Ohms) and voltage (in V) respectively across terminal
'a' and 'b' for the given electrical circuit.
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A. 12,40
B. 20,80
C. 10,30
D. 10,50
Determine the value of current(in A) through the load resistance of the given circuit
A. 0.54
B. 1
C. 2
D. 0.38
The S.I unit of Intensity of magnetization is __________.
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A. A.m⁻¹
B. N.Wb⁻¹
C. Wb
D. N.A⁻¹
Which one of the following material does not have a constant relative permeability?
A. Diamagnetic
B. Paramagnetic
C. Ferromagnetic
D. Free space
Which one of the following is the reciprocal of magnetic permeability?
A. Reluctance
B. Permeance
C. Susceptibility
D. Reluctivity
The mathematical expression for magnetic permeability is __________.
A. φ/Fₘ
B. B/H
C. m/A
D. Ni/l
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What will be the magnetic susceptibility of material if the magnetic field strength of the
material is 1200 A/m and the intensity of magnetization is 0.084 A/m?
A. 0.5*10⁻⁴
B. 0.7*10⁻⁴
C. 0.7*10⁻⁵
D. 0.5*10⁻⁵
Determine the pole strength of a magnet(in Wb) when the intensity of magnetization is 10
Wb-m⁻² and the pole area of the magnet is 8 m²
A. 60
B. 80
C. 20
D. 30
Determine the value of current (in A) in a coil, if it has 60 numbers of turns and produces a
mmf of 30 Amp-turns.
A. 0.8
B. 1.4
C. 1.2
D. 0.5
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What will be the magnetic susceptibility of a material kept in free space if the field strength
of the material is 0.4*10⁷ A-m⁻¹ and the flux density of the material is 12T
A. 1
B. 0.65
C. 1.38
D. 2.36
A coil having area of 300 cm² and 120 turns is removed from a 60 T magnetic field acting
normally in 2 seconds. What is the magnitude of the induced EMF(in V) in the coil?
A. 108
B. 112
C. 104
D. 120
What will be the value of critical current(in A) through a wire that has a diameter of 4 mm at
10 K? If the critical temperature of the material is 20 K and the magnetic field strength is
2*10³ A-m⁻¹
A. 6.28
B. 18.84
C. 21.54
D. 22.68
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What will be the peak value (in A) of the current used by a washing machine rated at 230 V,
16 A?
A. 0
B. 16
C. 20.38
D. 22.62
Which of the following wave will have the highest RMS value for equal peak values?
A. Sine wave
B. Sawtooth wave
C. Square
D. Triangular
What will be the frequency (in Hz) of a sinusoidal wave when the time period is 0.05 ms?
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A. 200
B. 2000
C. 20000
D. 200000
What is the value of capacitance susceptance(in Siemens) of the circuit given below?
A. 0.0314
B. 0.314
C. 31.83
D. 318.3
What is the value of the phase angle (in degrees) of a series RL circuit having an impedance
of 150 Ohms and inductance reactance of 90 Ohms when supplied with a frequency of 50
Hz?
A. 0
B. 36.87
C. 53.13
D. 80
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In parallel LC circuit, what will be the value of current (in A) at resonance?
A. 0
B. 10
C. 100
D. ∞
Calculate the time (in seconds) taken by the capacitor of a series RC circuit having a
capacitance of 0.01 mF and resistance of 300 Ohms, to get fully charged.
A. 0.007
B. 0.015
C. 0.15
D. 0.3
Which of the following is NOT correct about a delta connected balanced 3-phase circuit?
A. The phase current is less than the line current.

B. The phase voltage is equal to the line voltage.
C. The system does not contain a neutral point
D. It is a four wire system.
What is the CORRECT expression from the figure for apparent power of a balanced 3-phase
delta connected system?
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A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
What is the reactive power of a 3-phase delta connected system having a line voltage of 200
V and line current of 80 A and the phase difference between the voltage and current is
36.87 degrees?
A. 13.856 KW
B. 16.62 KVAR
C. 22.17 KW
D. 27.71 KVAR
shift-1
Calculate the value of quality in the Hay's Bridge given below when supplied by a frequency
of 50 Hz?
A. 31.83
B. 15.91
C. 10.61
D. 6.36
shift-1
Which of the following is used to avoid the errors due to creeping in the
electrodynamometer type energy meter?
A. Disc with large radius is used

B. Disc with small radius is used.
C. Holes are drilled in the disc
D. Very heavy disc is used.
In two wattmeter method of power calculation of a 3-phase balanced star connected

system, what is the power factor of the system, if both the wattmeters show same the
positive reading?
A. 0
B. Greater than 0 but less than 0.5
C. Greater than 0.5 but less than 1
D. 1
What is the phase angle (in degrees) of a balanced 3-phase star connected system, if the
first and the second wattmeter show readings of 0 W and 1600W respectively?
A. 30
B. 45
C. 60
D. 90
shift-1
Which of the following is used to measure value of quality factor below 10?
A. Anderson’s Bridge
B. Maxwell’s Inductance Bridge
C. Hay’s Bridge
D. Wheatstone Bridge
Which of the following is the most commonly used measurement unit for a typical 1-phase
energy meter?
A. Erg
B. J
C. kWh
D. W
What is the value of unknown capacitance Cₓ(in μF) and unknown resistance Rₓ(in kΩ)
respectively, in the circuit given below when no current flows through the detector(D)?
shift-1
A. 25.64
B. 25,100
C. 50,64
D. 50,100
What is the percentage voltage error of a potential transformer with system voltage of
6,600 V and having turns ratio of 50, if the measured secondary side voltage is 130 V?
A. 1.51
B. 3.02
C. 4.53
D. 6.04
Which of the following is the cause of meter phase error in induction type energy meter?
shift-1
A. Incorrect position of brake magnets.

B. Incorrect adjustment of the position of shading bands.
C. Slow but continuous rotation of aluminum disc
D. Temperature variations.
The operation of a Megger is based on which of the following?
A. Dynamometer
B. Electrostatic meter
C. Moving coil meter
D. Moving iron meter
The speed of the motor exceeds the synchronous speed. This braking method is called
A. Plugging type braking

B. Regenerative Braking
C. Dynamic braking
D. none of these
shift-1
An Isolation Transformer Has Primary to Secondary turns ratio of
A. 1:2
B. 2:1
C. 1:1
D. Can be any ratio
Input of a transformer is square wave, then the output will be______.
A. pulsed wave.
B. square wave
C. triangular wave
D. sine wave
The current drawn by the a 230 V DC motor of armature resistance 0.5 Ω and back emf 200
V is
A. 60
B. 40
C. 600
D. 660
Find the short circuit current with Vr=7.5 and Ra=0.5Ω.
shift-1
A. 5A
B. 10A
C. 15A
D. 20A
The type of DC generator used for arc welding purpose is a
A. series generator
B. shunt generator
C. cumulatively compounded generator
D. differentially compounded generator
Total Core loss is also referred as
A. eddy current loss

B. Hysteresis Loss
C. Magnetic Loss
D. Copper Loss
The magnitude of the induced emf in the primary winding, will be_______________ but
opposite to the applied voltage.
A. higher
B. almost equal
C. lower
D. negligible
shift-1
Blocked rotor test is used to find which of the following losses ?
A. Constant losses
B. Variable losses
C. Constant losses and Variable losses Both
D. Rotational loss
In three induction motor the initial inrush of current is produce
A. large line voltage drop

B. large phase voltage drop
C. damage the rotor windings
D. high starting torque
The starting winding of a single-phase motor is placed in
shift-1
A. Rotor
B. Stator
C. Armature
D. Field
The type of single-phase induction motor having the highest power factor at full load is
A. shaded pole type

B. split-phase type
C. capacitor-start type
D. capacitor-run type
The shaded pole motor is used for________.
A. high starting torque

B. low starting torque
C. medium starting torque
D. very high starting torque
Which of the following motors can be used for unity power factor ?
A. Capacitor run motor

B. Shaded pole motor
C. Hysteresis motor
D. Schrage motor
shift-1
The dummy coil in DC machines is used to _____
A. eliminate reactance voltage

B. eliminate armature reaction
C. bring about mechanical balance of armature
D. eliminate harmonics developed in the machine
When a D.C. series motor is connected to A.C. supply, the power factor will be low because
of
A. high inductance of field and armature circuits

B. induced current in rotor due to variations of flux
C. fine copper wire winding
D. none of these
The speed of a DC shunt motor is required to be more than F.L. speed. This is possible by
_____.
A. increasing the armature current

B. decreasing the armature current
C. increasing the excitation current
D. reducing the field current
Due to low supply voltage for a 40 HP, 3 –phase induction motor, which of the following
equipment can be used to boost the voltage?
shift-1
A. Synchronous condenser
B. Additional tap changing transformer
C. Series capacitors
D. Shunt capacitors
In case of transmission line conductors, with the increase in atmospheric temperature
A. length increases but stress. Decreases

B. length increases and stress also increases
C. length decreases but stress increases
D. Both length as well as stress decreases
Insulators are generally made of________.
A. glass
B. porcelain
C. RCC
D. cadmium
shift-1
HT cables are generally used upto
A. 11 kV
B. 33 kV
C. 66 kV
D. 132 kV
In an underground cable, insulating material used is________.
A. oil impregnated paper

B. PVC
C. rubber
D. None of these
In wiring and winding an Abbreviation for S.W.G is
A. Synthetic Winding Guard

B. Simple Winding Gauge
C. Standard wire gauge
D. Single Wire Guard
As the load is increases, the speed of a DC shunt motor will _____.
shift-1
A. remain constant
B. increase proportionately
C. increase slightly
D. reduce slightly
In case of core type transformer which type of winding is done near the core ?
A. low voltage
B. high voltage
C. Primary winding
D. secondary winding
Calculate the January month electricity bill for a room containing 40W lamp working 10
hours daily and unit cost is 1 rupee
A. 13.4 rupees
B. 12.4 rupees
C. 11.4 rupees
D. 10.4 rupees
Earth wire is connected to the
A. appliance
B. ground
C. power house
D. transformer
shift-1
A feeder, in a transmission system, feeds power to
A. Distributors
B. service mains
C. substation
D. All options are correct
At a dead end of a transmission line or at a corner or sharp curve, which type of insulator is
used
A. Pin
B. shackle
C. suspension
D. strain
Shaded pole induction motor used in
A. fan
B. compressor
C. blower
D. electric clocks
shift-1
No ceiling fan should be installed at height of less than
A. 2.5M from the floor

B. 5.5 M from the floor
C. 4.5M from the floor
D. 3.5M from the floor
What is the function of turbine in hydro power plant?
A. Produce electrical power

B. produce hydropower
C. produce heat power
D. produce mechanical power
Radiant efficiency of a luminous source depends on_____.
shift-1
A. Shape of the source

B. Temperature of the source
C. Wave length of light rays
To save wastage which lamp is the cheapest?
A. Sodium vapour lamp

B. Mercury vapour lamp
C. Fluorescent tube
D. GLS lamps
The disadvantage of fluorescent lamps as compared to GLS lamps is____.
A. Noise in choke
B. Stroboscopic effect
C. High cost
Gray iron is usually welded by
A. Arc welding
B. Gas welding
C. TIG welding
D. MIC welding
shift-1
The quantity of heat absorbed from the heater by convection depends upon
A. The temperature of heating element

B. The surface area of the heater
C. The position of the heater
Which of the following falls under the category of fusion or non-pressure welding?
A. Resistance welding
B. Metal-arc welding
C. Ultrasonic welding
D. Explosive welding
When an electron is removed from an atom, it becomes
A. covalent
B. positron
C. molecule
D. ionised
The donor type of impurity is
shift-1
A. phosphorous
B. aluminium
C. boron
D. iron
In figure the forward characteristics of a silicon diode is represented by
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
shift-1
The number of diodes required in a bridge rectifier circuit is
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
In the figure below you see an electronic component. Which type of electronics component
is shown in the figure?
A. Thyristor
B. High power transistor
C. Low power transistor
D. Photo transistor
The current gain of common base amplifier is
shift-1
A. more than 1
B. less than 1
C. equal to 1
D. greater than 100
synchronous motor can be made self starting by providing
A. damper winding on rotor poles

B. damper winding on stator
C. damper winding on stator as well as rotor poles
D. None of these
A synchronous motor working at leading power factor can be used as
A. current booster
B. voltage booster
C. mechanical synchronizer
D. Power factor corrector
In a synchronous motor hunting occurs due to______.
A. Over-excitation
B. Over-loading for long periods
C. Periodic variation of load
D. Small and constant load
shift-1
A synchronous motor is running with normal excitation. When the load is increased the
armature current drawn by it increases because
A. Resultant voltage in armature is increased

B. power factor is decreased
C. back e.m.f. becomes less than supply voltage
D. speed of the motor is reduced
Due to which one of the following reasons a synchronous motor fails to pull into
synchronism after applying D.C. field current ?
A. High field current

B. Low short circuit ratio
C. High core losses
D. Low field current
As the load is applied to a synchronous motor, the motor takes more armature current
because
A. the increased load has to take more current

B. the back e.m.f. decreases causing an increase in motor current
C. the rotor by shifting its phase backward causes motor to take more current
D. the rotor strengthens the rotating field causing more motor current
shift-1
shift-1
SSC JE Electrical Engineering Tier 1 2017 29 Jan

Shift 1
Answers
1. B 2. D 3. B
4. B 5. C 6. D
7. A 8. A 9. A
10. C 11. D 12. C
13. B 14. B 15. D
16. C 17. D 18. C
19. B 20. C 21. B
22. D 23. B 24. B
25. A 26. A 27. D
28. B 29. C 30. D
31. B 32. D 33. D
34. B 35. A 36. D
37. A 38. D 39. B
40. A 41. B 42. C
43. C 44. A 45. C
46. B 47. C 48. A
49. C 50. C 51. B
52. A 53. D 54. C
55. D 56. C 57. C
58. B 59. C 60. A
61. A 62. D 63. B
64. D 65. C 66. B
67. D 68. C 69. A
70. C 71. B 72. C
73. A 74. D 75. C
76. C 77. A 78. C
79. D 80. B 81. B
82. A 83. B 84. C
85. A 86. C 87. B
shift-1
88. A 89. C 90. A

91. D 92. B 93. A
94. C 95. A 96. D
97. D 98. B 99. B
100. A 101. C 102. D
103. A 104. B 105. C
106. A 107. B 108. D
109. C 110. A 111. A
112. B 113. D 114. B
115. C 116. C 117. B
118. A 119. C 120. D
121. A 122. C 123. D
124. B 125. C 126. B
127. D 128. C 129. A
130. B 131. D 132. C
133. C 134. A 135. B
136. A 137. B 138. D
139. B 140. B 141. A
142. C 143. D 144. C
145. A 146. C 147. C
148. A 149. B 150. C
151. B 152. C 153. A
154. A 155. A 156. D
157. C 158. B 159. B
160. A 161. B 162. D
163. B 164. D 165. C
166. A 167. D 168. D
169. A 170. B 171. A
172. C 173. C 174. D
175. A 176. B 177. B
178. A 179. D 180. D
181. A 182. D 183. B
184. B 185. D 186. B
187. D 188. B 189. D
190. A 191. C 192. D
193. C 194. B 195. A
196. D 197. C 198. A
shift-1
199. D 200. C
shift-1
Suggested Papers
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shift-1
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SSC JE Electrical Engineering

Tier 1 2017 29 Jan Shift 1

Total time 120 mins

SSC JE Electrical Engineering Tier 1 2017 29 Jan

Duration: 120 mins Max Score: 200

Se ction Q ue stions Marks

Color coding for type s of Q ue stions

Code Type of Q ue stion

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Q. 1 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

Q. 2 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

Q. 3 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

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Q. 4 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

Q. 5 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

Q. 6 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

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Q. 7 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

Q. 8 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

Q. 9 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

Q. 10 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

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Q. 11 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

Q. 12 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

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Q. 13 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

Q. 14 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

Q. 15 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

Q. 16 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

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Q. 17 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

Q. 18 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

Q. 19 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

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Q. 20 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

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Q. 21 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

Q. 22 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

Q. 23 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

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Q. 24 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

Q. 25 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

Q. 26 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

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Q. 27 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

Q. 28 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

Q. 29 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

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A. D is C's wife's brother

Q. 30 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

Q. 31 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

If MORTALS is coded as LNQSZKR, then how will BIN be coded as?

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Q. 32 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

Q. 33 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

Q. 34 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

If 7 @ 3 = 8, 10 @ 2 = 16 and 70 @ 40 = 60, then find the value of 7 @ 5 = ?

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Q. 35 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

if A * B means A is mother of B, A + B means A is sister of B and If A % B means A is daughter

Q. 36 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25

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Q. 37 Single Option Correct +1 -0.25