Academy

of GeneralDentistry

ProcticeExomination

Fellowship Exarn
Study Guide
9tb Eclitiort
 I

D E N T AT
I M AGIN G 5. Panoramic radiographs are useful for evaluating:
l) incipient caries.
1. What are the three types of sensorscurrently used 2l early alveolar bone loss.
in digital imaging? 3) traumatic injuries.
1) Charged coupled devicc 4) the mixed dentition.
2) Pixelated sintered conrposite
3) CMOS/APS A . ( 1 )a n d ( 3 )
4) Phosphoratedpixel amplifier B . ( 1 )a n d { 4 )
5) PSP C. {2)and (3)
D.l2l and $)
A ( 1 ) ,l 2 l a n d @ l E. (3)and (a)
B ( 1 ) ,( 3 ) a n d ( 5 )
C. 1 2 \ ,{ a }a n d ( 5 )
D { 3 ) ,( a ) a n d ( 5 )
A radiograph reveals the presence of a root
fragment in an edentulous mandibular ridge. To
locate the position of the root fragment, two
L. Which of the following is the baseline radiologic radiographs are taken. In the first film, taken with
assessmentbefore initiating implant therapy? the X-ray tube perpendicular to the film and
mandible, the fragment appears in the middle of
A. Sagittal and cross-sectionallinear tomograms the radiograph. The second radiograph is exposed
B. Periapical films of each implant site using identical film placement with the X-ray tube
C. Occlusal films shifted 30 degrees mesially. The fragment now
D. Panoramic/cephalometricfilms appears more posteriorly on the radiograph. This
indicates that the root frasment is located in the
of the ridge

3. Which of the following statements comparing

A. middle
radiographs of granulomas and radicular cysts is
B. buccal portion
true?
C. lingual portion
D. superior portion
A. Radiographically it is not possible to E. inferior portion
differentiate between a dental granuloma and a
radicular cyst.
B. The radiolucency of a cyst is darker than that
of a granuloma.
C. Borders of a granuloma are more diffuse and DENTALMATERIALS
irregular than the borders of a cyst. There are two basic types of stressesin dental
D. The size of a cyst is smaller than that of a materials: compression and shear.
granuloma.
A. True
B. False
During a routine radiographic survey, a root
fragment is seen in the area of the maxillary
second molar. Which of the following is MOST The most common light-curing source used in
HELPFUL in determining if the root fragment is dentistry is:
located in the maxillary sinus?
A . l i g h t - e m i t t i n gd i o d e s ( L E D s ) .
A. The lamina dura around the root fragment B. plasma arc lights.
B. Relationship of the root fragment to the lateral C. quartz-tungsten-halogenlights.
sinus wall D. ultra-violet rays.
C. Relationship of the root fragment to the roots
of adjacent teeth
D. Cloudiness of the maxillary sinus

Q u e s t i o n-s 2
9. Compressive strength h a s i m p o r t a n tc l i n i c a l 1 3 Dentin bond strength is proportional to the:
s i g n i f i c a n c ef o r w h i c h of the following dental l) thickness of the hybrid layer.
materials? 2) number of microtags.
3) length of microtags.
A. Amalgam 4) etchingtime.
B. Composites
C. Cements A. {2)only
D. All of the above B. (2)and (3)
E. None of the above C . l r ) , 1 2 )a n d { 3 )
D . 1 2 ) ,l 3 l a n d { 4 )
E. All of the above

t 0 Shear strength is a useful measurement when

comparing: T 4 Which of the following does NOT enhance bond
strength.when applied to a laboratory composite
A wear resistanceof restorations against natural onlay prior to luting?
toothstructure.
B. stiffness of restorative materials in function. A. Aluminum oxide microetching
C. stressesthat can occur at the interfaces B. Hydrofluoric acid etching
between two materials. C. Oxalic acid/aluminum nitrate etching
D. restorative materials resistanceto crushins D. Priming agent
forces. E. Silane
E. None of the above

1 5 . In a large, Class IV restoration, choosing a

1 1 . Common methods of classifying composite resin light-cured composite over any other tyfe of
are based on all of the followins EXCEPT: composite would offer which unique advantage?

A. particle size. A Lower overhead cost to the doctor

B. particle shape. B. Contour can be achieved more adequately
C. filler. through incremental addition
D. coupling agent. C . M o r e e s t h e l i cr e s t o r a t i o n
D None of the above

t 2 . Although comprehensive treatment of less severe

malocclusions can be accomplished with lingual
appliances,the difficulty, duration and cost of ENDODONTICS
treatment are all significantly increased. Using 16. Which of the following statements regarding the
ceramic brackets on the labial surface is Profile@rotary instruments is accurate?
considerably easier for the doctor and patient than
u s i n g ,a l i n g u a l a p p l i a n c e .
4 T l " V a r e u s e d a t a r a n g e o f 1 5 0 0t o 2 0 0 0 r p m .
ts. They are NiTi instruments manufactured in
A Both statements are TRUE.
half sizes.
B. Both statements are FALSE.
C. They are offered in sizes that are ISO and
C. The first statement is TRUE; the second is
ANSI standardized.
FALSE. D. They incorporate radial lands in the flute
D. The first statement is FALSE; the second is
design.
TRUE.

Q u e s t i o n-s 3
1.7
A patient presents complaining of chronic
low-grade pain in the mandibular left first molar.
Adjusting the occlusion gives relief, but the pain
returns in a week. The tooth has been
endodontically treated and has a NARROW, 9 mm
periodontal pocket on the mesial surface of the
mesial root. The most probable diagnosiswould
be:
21. What is the initial treatment of choice when a
patient calls with moderate to severe pain two
hours following the obturation of a root canal?
A. Remove the root canal filling material
B. Prescribe analgesics
C. Apply moist heat and use warm water rinses
D. Use an ice pack and cold water rinses

A incomplete apical seal of the root canal.

B. bruxism.
C. vertical fracture.
D. periodontal abscess.
E. external resorption.
1 8 . A patient presents with severe spontaneouspain of
36 hours duration from the maxillary right first
molar. The tooth was restored three days ago with
a deep MOD restoration and a base. The tooth
gives a positive responseto the electric pulp tester
and is not sensitive to percussion as tested with a
Tooth Slooth@.Based on this evidence, the MOST
PROBABLE diagnosis would be:
ENVIRONMENTAL
SAFETY
22. STERILIZATION is the destruction of all microbial
forms, including viruses and bacterial spores.
DISINFECTION refers to a less lethal destruction
o f p a t h o g e n i cm i c r o o r g a n i s m s .
A. Both statements are TRUE.
B. Both statements are FALSE.
C. The first statement is TRUE; the second is
FALSE.
D. The first statement is FALSE; the second is
TRUE.

A. acute apical periodontitis.

B. hyperocclusion. 2 3 . Prior to sending a polyvinylsiloxane impression to
C. irreversible pulpitis. the dental laboratory, it should be rinsed under
D. r e v e r s i b l ep u l p i t i s . running water and:

A. sprayed with l:10 sodium hypochlorite.

1 9 . The day following pulpal extirpation and extensive
root canal instrumentation, the patient reports
extreme discomfort. In addition to
overinstrumentation, this may be related to:
1) immunologic responsesto therapy.
2) periapical lesion.
3) incomplete removal of pulpal tissue.
4) forcing debris into the periapical tissue.
)A
A. ( 1 )a n d ( 2 )
B. (2)and (3)
C ( 1 ) ,( 3 ) a n d ( a )
D. All of the above
20. A nine-year-old boy is seen two days after
receiving a traumatic blow to the face.
Examination reveals a fracture involving enamel
and dentin. There is no responseto electric pulp
testing. The condition of the pulp is:
B. immersed in 1:10 sodium hypochlorite for two
minutes.
C. immersed in 1:10 sodium hypochlorite for ten
minutes.
D. immersed in 1:10 sodium hvpochlorite for 24
hours.
According to ADA and CDC guidelines, which of
the following measures are required to prevent the
spread of infectious diseasesin the dental
operatory environment?
1) Obtain a thorough medical history from the
patient
2) Wash hands thoroughly and then put on gloves
3) Wear surgical masks and protective eyewear or
plastic face shields
4) Wear gowns, surgical scrub-suits or laboratory
coats when blood or bodv fluids mav be
splattered

A. nonvital. A ( 1 ) , ( 2 )a n d ( 3 )
B. ischemic. B. {1), l2l and lal
C. hyperemic. C . ( 1 ) ,( 3 ) a n d ( a )
D. currently indeterminable. D l2l, (3)and (a)
E. All of the above

Q u e s t i o n-s 4
 2 5 . No diseasetransmission arising from microbial
contamination of dental unit water lines has been
conclusively documented. However, disease
transmission in associationwith biofilm formation
has been well documented in other health care
settinss.
A. Both statements are TRUE.
B. Both statements are FALSE.
C . T h e f i r s t s t a t e m e n i is TRUE;the secondis
FALSE.
D. The first statementis MLSE; the second is
TRUE.
W h e n c o m p a r i n gp o l y m e t h y l m e t h a c r v l a r e
( P M M A ) r e s i n a n d b i s - a c r y lc o m p o s i t er e s i n
used
in fabricating custom made provisional
restorations:
1) there are fewer allergic reactions to composite
resin provisionals than pMMA resins.
2) PMMA resin is the material of choice when
long term strength and color stability are
desired.
3) both composite resin and PMMA resin perform
equivalently when used to fabricate provisional
restorations.
4) contours, finishing, and strength are better
when composite resins ur" ,r'"d.

A . ( 1 )a n d ( 2 )
FIXEDPROSTHODONTICS B . ( 1 )a n d ( 3 )
26. The location of the gingival finish lines in C . ( 1 )a n d ( a )
crown D. (2)and (3)
preparations is influenced by:
E. l2l and @l
A. existing restorations.
B. crown length available.
C. oral hygiene practices. 29. When a tooth has adequate attached gingiva,
D. periodontal considerations. which of the following factors is MOST itxEty
E. All of the above to
contribute to gingival recession when the tooth
is
restored with a crown?

27. One recent five-year clinical review of porcelain
lamlnate veneers demonstrated a ggTosuccessrate
More importantly, the failures were in t h e
restoration and did not result in tooth mortality.
A. Both statements are TRUE.
B. Both statements are FALSE.
C. The first statement is TRUE; the second is
FALSE.
D. The first statement is FALSE; the second is
TRUE.
A. Overcontouring-the facial surface of the
crown
D. rmptngement ot a temporary crown on the
_ gingival attachment for a period of two weeks
9 9r".of intraligamentary injection
D. Placing the margin at the epithelial attachment
30. Which of the following luting agents is MOST
LIKELY to exhibit marginal lealiage after six
months?

A. Composite resin
B. Polycarboxylate
C. Adhesive resin
D. Zinc oxide-eugenol
E. Resin-reinforcedglass ionomer

3 1 . A crown is planned for tooth #2I . The deepest

probing depths are 2 and 3mm in attached
erythematous gingival with no mobility and mild
horizontal bone loss. What is the next clinical
procedure?

A. Proceed with the crown preparation

B. Perform a mucogingival graft
C. Treat the period6ntil infl-ammation
D. Combine the periodontal treatment with the
m u c o g i n g i v a lg r a f t

- 5
Questions
32. The most practical method to achieve a fully
seated (cemented)ceramometal crown is to:
A. paint a spacer on the die, avoiding the margin
area.
B. place a vent hole in the occlusal surface of the
casting.
C. relieve the internal surface of the casting by
electromilling.
D. strip the internal surface of the crown with an
airbrush.
One week after cementation of a porcelain-fused-
to-metal crown, the patient noticed flaking and
chipping of the porcelain. What is the MOST
LIKELY cause of this failure?
A. Inadequate reduction of the tooth during
preparation
B. Identical coefficients of thermal expansion of
the porcelain and metal substructure
C. High modulus of elasticity of the metal alloy
D. Underglazing of the porcelain during final
firing
IMPTANTS
34. Larger diameter root form implants (5.0 and 6.0
mm) have become desirable because:
l) a larger perimucosal diameter improves oral
hygiene conditions.
2l a greater implant body diameter reduces stress
to the surrounding crestal bone.
3) larger diameter implants are more likely to
engagethe cortical bone.
4) a greater abutment surface/diameterprovides
greater retention of the crown/abutment.
5) it affords increased esthetics.
A . ( 1 ) ,l 2 l , l 3 l a n d ( 4 )
s. itl izl i+iu"aisi
C . ( 1 ) ,( 3 ) ,( a ) a n d ( 5 )
D . l z l , l 3 l ,{ a }a n d( 5 )
E. All of the above
Q u e s t i o n s- 6
3 5 . In treatment planning an implant-retained
removable prosthesis,the interarch space is an
important consideration. The construction of the
removable prosthesis may be compromised when
the interarch space is increased.
A. Both statements are TRUE.
B. Both statements are FALSE.
C. The first statement is TRUE; the second is
FALSE.
D. The first statement is FALSE: the second is
TRUE.
An increase in implant diameter is more effective
in increasing the amount of bone in contact with
the implant than an increase in implant length. A
narrow-platform implant used in the posterior
region should be considered a major risk factor.
A. Both statements are TRUE.
B. Both statements are MLSE.
C. The first statement is TRUE; the second is
FALSE.
D. The first statement is FALSE: the second is
TRUE.
37. Osseointegrationnever occurs on 1007oof the
implant surface. Successfulcaseshave between
30% and 95Vo of. the implant surface in contact
with the bone.
A. Both statements are TRUE.
B. Both statements are FALSE.
C. The first statement is TRUE; the second is
EALSE.
D. The first statement is FALSE: the second is
TRUE,
38 Implant stability depends on the nature of the
contact between bone and the implant surface.
Bone healing prior to loading is not always a
prerequisite for long-term success.
A. Both statements are TRUE.
B. Both statements are FALSE.
C. The first statement is TRUE; the second is
FALSE.
D. The first statement is FALSE: the second is
TRUE.
 39. Advantagesof intraoral autogenousbone for
42 p_c9lus3tappliances,when used for diagnosed
g.raftinga deficient implant site include which
of TMD, function to alter muscle physiolo"gyand
the following?
recapture the patient,s most deiirible cJntric
1) Osteogenic
occlusion. However, the most recent research
2) Osteoinductive
s u g g e s t st h a t t h e a p p l i a n c e sw o r k b e s t a s
3) Antigenic response
Denavloral rnterventions and have little or n<r
4) Large quantity available
effect.on physical changes in the position of
5) Custom shaping the
mandible.
A . ( 1 )a n d ( 2 )
A. Both statements are TRUE.
B . l 1 l , 1 2 )a n d { 5 )
B. Both statements are MLSE.
C. l2l l3), {a) and (5)
C. The first statement is TRUE; the second I S
D. All of the above
FALSE.
D. The first statement is MLSE; the second
is
TRUE.
40. Using a crestal incision and full_thicknessflap
for
implant abutment connection results in:
1) better accessto the cover screws and
43 The basic
anchoring bone. _requirementsof a mutually protected
occlusion MUST permit:
2) reduced tension in the peri_implant mucosa
1 ) t h e a n t e r i o r t e e t h t o d i s c l u d et h e p o s t e r i o r
following suturing.
teeth in excursive movements.
3 ) r e v e r s e ds o f t t i s s u ea r c h i t e c t u r e .
2) group function on the working side when
4) papillae-like, peri-implant mucosa. the
mandible is moved laterally.
3) minimal or light contact o., th" anterior teeth
A . { 1 )a n d ( 3 )
when the posterior teeth are closed in
B. {2)and (3)
maximum intercuspation.
C { 1 ) ,{ 2 )a n d ( 3 ) 4) bilateral canine guidu.r." in lateral movement
D . { 1 ) , ( 2 )a n d l a l
E. All of the above
A. ( 1 )a n d ( 2 )
B. { 1 )a n d ( 3 )
C. ( 2 )a n d ( 3 )
D. (21and @l
OCCI-USION
41. Most semi-adjustablearticulators reproduce
with
relative accuracy the: 44. Which of the following is the LEAST VALIT)
1) direction and end point of some condylar reason for selective occlusal re_shapingin
movements. the
natural dentition?
2) intermediate track of some condylar
movements. A. To direct forces to the long axis of the tooth
3 ) Bennett side shift. B. To increase the masticatin"gefficiency of
Al
tooth arc of closure. the
dentition
C. To eliminate premature balancing contacts in
A . { 1 )a n d ( 2 ) the posterior teeth
B. { 1 ) a n d ( a ) D. To eliminate interferences without destroying
C . (2)and (3) cusp height
D . {3)and (a)
E . lI), (21and {4)

s- 7
Question
 When complete anterior dislocation of the disk 4 9 . In relation to the contact area, where is an
affects only one condyle, the range of opening is incipient interproximal carious lesion usually
,USUALLY: located?

A. Facial to the contact area

A. limited, with deviation occurring toward the
B. Lingual to the contact area
affected side.
C. Occlusal to the contact area
B. limited, with deviation occurring toward the
D. Gingival to the contact area
unaffected side.
E. At the contact area
C. unlimited, with deviation occurring toward the
affected side.
D. unlimited, with deviation occurring toward the
unaffected side. A common reason for failure of porcelain
inlays/onlays is that they:

A have poor esthetics.

DENTISTRY
OPERATIVE B. are not resistant to solubility.
C exhibit poor marginal fit.
46. In restorative dentistry the size of the contact area,
D have a higher fracture rate than indirect
the extent of the interproximal spaces,and the
comoosite.
design of appropriate embrasure areas are
physiologically and functionally important
because:
1) they help determine centric relation. 5 1 . Although the wedge is used against a matrix band
2) they help establish freeway space on the mesial of a maxillary first premolar, an
measurements. overhanging margin is OFTEN created because:
3) they help maintain proper tooth position in the
arch. A. an appropriately shaped wedge was not used-
4) they serve to protect the supporting B. the root proximity of the canine makes using a
periodontium. wedge difficult.
C. there is often an open contact between the
A. ( 1 )a n d (3) canine and first premolar.
B. (2) and (a) D. the concavity in a mesial root surface makes it
C. {2)and (3) difficult to adapt the matrix band tightly to the
D. (3)and {a) tooth.

4.7
In preparing a composite veneer, the removal of 52. Of the following restorative procedural errors,
some enamel is recommended to establish a which three are MOST likely to contribute to
definite finish line. If the defect or discoloration periodontal disease?
does not extend subgingivally then the veneer 1) Inadequate proximal contact area
preparation should not extend subgingivally. 2) Under contoured embrasure form
3) Laceration of sulcus with a matrix band
A. Both statements are TRUE. 4) Overhanging restoration
B. Both statements are FALSE. 5) Overcontoured restoration
C. The first statement is TRUE; the second is
EALSE, A { 1 } , ( 3 )a n d ( 5 )
D. The first statement is FALSE; the second is B ( 1 ) , { a )a n d ( 5 }
TRUE. C . t z l ,( 3 )a n d( a )
D . 1 2 \(,a )a n d( 5 )
E. (3),{a)and(5)
Ideally the gingival margin of a mandibular Class
II restoration should be located:

A. at the gingival crest.

B. above the gingival crest.
C. well below the gingival crest.

-B
Questions
53. When preparing a tooth to receive a direct veneer, 57. A 37-year-oldwhite female in her seventh month
which of the following reasonsjustify removal of of pregnancy presents with pain and bleeding
sound enamel? gums. She has had no consistent dental care. Her
1) To provide space for opaque and veneer blood pressure is 180/110 and pulse rate, 100 beats
material per minute. Oral examination reveals extensive
2) To create a rough finish for improved bonding periodontitis. Dental management of this patient
3) To allow the margin to be hidden beneath the would include:
gingiva 1) consultation and referral to her physician for
4) To create a definite finish line BP evaluation.
5) To remove the etch-resistantfluoride-rich 2) begin scaling and root planing and prophylaxis
surface layer immediately.
3) appoint for aggressivecurettage and flap.
A ( 1 ) ,{ 2 ) a n d ( 3 ) 4) give oral hygiene instructions.
5) prescribe chlorhexidine rinse.
B. { 1 ) ,( 3 ) a n d { s 1
C (1),l2l, l3l and (4)
D ( 1 ) ,l 2 ) , t 4 l a n d { 5 ) A ( 1 ) ,( 2 ) a n d { 3 )
E. All of the above B . ( 1 ) ,{ 2 } a n d ( 4 }
C { 1 ) , ( a )a n d ( 5 )
D ( 1 ) ,t z l ,t 4 la n d( 5 )
E. All of the above
ORAIMEDICINE
54. Currently, what are the two most prevalent
therapies for oral cancer? 58' A review article in a 2003 issue of JADA showed
1) Surgery the relationship between alcohol-containing
2) Chemotherapy mouthwashes (ACM) and orpharyngeal cancer
( O P C )t o b e :
3) Radiation
4) Gene therapy
A. highly correlated, suggestinga causal
relationship between ACM and OPC.
A. { 1 )a n d ( 2 )
B. ( 1 )a n d ( 3 ) B. negligible, i.e. ACM use is unlikely to be a
C. ( 1 )a n d { a ) cause of OPC.
D. (2)and (3) C. strongly correlated in patients considered to be
alcoholics.
D. life-threatening, but only in those patients with
a history of both excessive alcoholic
A reasonably controlled, insulin-dependent consumption and smoking.
diabetic complains of pain from a nonrestorable
mandibular second premolar. What would you do
if there is no swelling and the patient is afebrile?
Following an extraction of an impacted third
molar, which of the following analgesics would be
A. Plan to immediately extract the tooth
B. Prescribe antibiotics and analgesics,then contraindicated for a 16-year-old severely
reappoint the patient in four days to extract the asthmatic patient?
tooth 1) Ibuprofen (Motrin@)
C. Prescribe antibiotics and analgesicsbut defer 2) Meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol@)
the extraction to the following day so that the 3) Acetaminophen (T!lenol@)
patient can decreasetheir insulin intake in the 4) Diflunisal (Dolobid@)
morning
D. Refer for medical consultation A. ( 1 )a n ( 2 )
B. (1)and {a)
C. ( 1 ) ,( 2 ) a n d ( 3 !
D (1), l2l and lal
56. Which of the following conditions is LEAST likely E. l2l, (3)and (a)
to predispose a patient to infective endocarditis?

A. Prosthetic heart valve

B. Mitral valve prolapse with valvular
regurgitation
C. Implanted cardiac pacemaker
D. Radiotherapy

- 9
Questions
60. Radiation treatment to the head and neck 6 4 . Which of the following pathological conditrons can
produces an increased salivary flow. The saliva appear as a multilocular radiolucency?
from irradiated patients has a lower pH than saliva 1) Ameloblastoma
in untreated patients. 2) Cherubism
3) Odontogenic m1'xoma
A. Both statements are TRUE. 4) Central giant cell granuloma
B. Both statements are FALSE.
C. The first statement is TRUE; the second is A . ( 1 )a n d { 3 )
FALSE. B. (1)and {a)
D. The first statement is EALSE; the second is C.l2) and pl
TRUE. D ( 1 ) ,( 3 ) a n d ( a )
E. All of the above

61. Prothrombin Time {PT) is used to check the

extrinsic pathways (factor VII) and the common
pathways (factors V and X, prothrombin, and
fibrinogen). The INR format is a method that
standardizesPT assays.
A. Both statements are TRUE.
B. Both statements are FALSE.
C. The first statement is TRUE; the second is
EALSE.
D. The first statement is FALSE; the second is
TRUE.
6 5 . Signs and symptoms of Acquired Immune
Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) may include:
1) upper or lower gastrointestinaltract
disturbance.
2) undiagnosed febrile illness.
3) reddish-blue intraoral lesions.
4) lymphadenopathy.
5) painful, swollen joints.
A. {1),lzl, t3)and {4)
B. { 1 ) , l 2 l , 1 3 )a n d ( 5 )
C. ( 1 ) ,t 3 ) , { 4 ) a n d ( 5 )
D l 2 l , ( 3 ) ,{ 4 ) a n d ( 5 )
E. All of the above

ORAI PATHOLOGY
62. Which of the following mandibular teeth are most
6 6 . An eight-year-old has tender, palpable
often congenitally missing?
submandibular lymph nodes and an oral
temperature of lol.2 degrees F for three days'
A. Second premolars
Following these symptoms he had a painful mouth
B. First premolars
for four days. Oral examination reveals a
C. First molars
generalizedinflammation of the attached gingiva
D. Central incisors
and alveolar mucosa. Loose white debris covers
the free gingival margins and fills the
interproximal embrasures. Discrete areas of
63. Cavernous sinus thrombosis arising from an acute ulceration within rings of intense inflammation are
infection of the maxillary central incisors would noted on the buccal mucosa and the palate. The
most likely have developed from the pathway interdental papillae are intact. The salivary flow is
involving the: heavy and viscous. There are no lesions on the
1) lymph vessels. extremities. The condition described is:
2) retropharyngeal sPace.
3) major blood vessels. A. acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
4l facial emissary veins to the cavernous sinus' B. Moniliasis.
C. acute herpetic gingivostomatitis.
D. Erythema multiforme.
A. (1)and (a)
B. (3) and (a)
c (11,lzl andPl
D . ( 1 ) ,( 3 !a n d( a )

Q u e s t i o n-s 1 0
 67. A patient presents with generalizedcircumoral I L. While extracting a mandibular third molar, it is
pigmentation suggestiveof Peutz-Jeghers noted that the tip of the distal root is missing. The
syndrome. The patient should be referred to a root tip is most likely in the:
physician to evaluate for:
A. submental space.
A. diabetes mellitus. B. parapharyngeal space.
B. intestinal polyps. C. submandibular space.
C. hyperlipidemia. D. ptergomandibular space.
D. lung cancer. E. inferior alveolar canal.
E. kidney disease.

72. During the extraction of a mandibular premolar,

68. Odontogenic keratocysts are a component of:
A. Gardner's syndrome.
B. Gorlin's syndrome.
C . B e c h e t ' sd i s e a s e .
D. Von Recklinghausen'sdisease.
the crown is fractured 3mm below the crest of the
bone. Which of the following is the LEAST
traumatic method for removing the fractured root?
A. Luxate the root using an elevator
B. Firmly grip the tooth using needle nose forceps
C. Divide the root using surgical burs
D. Flap and remove sufficient bone for access

O R A LSU R GE R Y
69. A 65-year-oldwhite female presents with periodic
swelling of the right submandibular area closely
correlated with food ingestion. Patient is afebrile
and panoramic and occlusal films do not suggest
any soft or hard tissue pathology. Which of the
following would be the most appropriate for initial
therapy?
t 1) Prescription for penicillin therapy
2) Dilate submandibular duct with lacrimal
probes
3) Prescribe a regular course of salivary
stimulation
4) Attempt to "milk" duct by forcing the
obstruction back into the submandibular gland
5) Refer immediately to an oral surgeon for
'74
lithotripsy therapy
A. ( 1 )a n d ( 3 )
B. ( 1 )a n d ( a )
C l 2 ) , ( 3 )a n d ( 5 )
D l2l, (a)and (5)
70. Following an extraction, the socket should
routinely be curetted. The purpose of curetting
the tooth socket is to remove remnants of the
periodontal ligament.
A Both statementsare TRUE.
B. Both statementsare FALSE.
C. The first statement is TRUE; the second is
FALSE.
D. The first statement is FALSE; the second is
Three days following the routine extraction of #32,
a patient experiencessevere socket pain and a foul
odor in their mouth. What is the next step?
A. Comfort the patient and reassure them that
this is normal
B. Prescribe an analgesic and reevaluate in three
days
C. Irrigate the socket with normal saline and
place a medicated dressing
D. Place the patient on an antibiotic and do not
disrupt the socket
A small accidental opening into the maxillary
sinus results from the removal of a maxillary first
molar, but the sinus membrane shows no
perforation. The preferred initial treatment is to:
A. elevate a buccal sliding flap and cover the
entire extraction site.
B. rotate a pedicle flap from the palate over the
socket and suture tightly with nonresorbable
sutures.
C. have the patient perform the Valsalva
maneuver until bubbles can be seen in the
socket.
D. pack the socket with antibiotic-saturated
iodoform gauze.
E. perform routine postoperative care to assure
the formation and organization of a blood clot.

e TRUE,

Q u e s t i o n s- 1 1
O RT H O D O N TIC S
75. During eruption of the permanent teeth in the
canine-premolar region of the mandible, the most
favorable eruption sequence with regard to arch
stability is:
A. canine, first premolar, second premolar.
B. second premolar, canine, first premolar.
C. first premolar, canine, second premolar.
D. first premolar, second premolar, canine.
76. Generally, the direction of facial growth and
development is:
PATIENT
& RISKMANAGEMENT
79. 'Active listening" is used early in the initial
interview appointment in order to help reduce
patient anxiety. 'Active listening" gives the dentist
a chance to explain to the patient the advantages
of modern dental treatment.
A Both statements are TRUE.
B. Both statements are FALSE.
C. The first statement is TRUE; the second is
FALSE.
D. The first statement is FALSE; the second is
TRUE.

A. vertical. 80. In order to minimize anxiety in a fearful patient,

B. anterior and lateral. the dentist should:
C. downward and forward.
D. the direction of facial growth cannot be A. discuss the origin of the patient's fear with
predicted. them and indicate what you will do to help
them.
B. minimize the indications of fear by explaining
that dentistry has changed and their fear is no
77. The PRIMARY consideration in planning longer valid.
orthodontic treatment for adults is the: C. complete the necessarytreatment in a few
longer appointments to minimize the number
A. density of bone. of visits the patient must make.
B. presence of impacted third molars. D. complete the necessarytreatment in short
C. health of supporting structures. appointments to minimize the duration of
D. length of time needed to complete treatment. stresson the patient.
E. impaired physiological response to tooth
movement.

8 1 . Which of the following is TRUE regarding consenl

78 An 11-year-oldfemale patient presents with
crowding of the mandibular anterior teeth
requesting treatment. The dentist should:
A. wait, as the intercanine width will increase,
allowing for adequate space.
B. wait for the growth spurt in the maxillary arch
to reduce crowding.
C. wait for the growth spurt in the mandible to
angle the teeth horizontally.
D. refer the patient for orthodontic consultation
and/or treatment as the intercanine width will
not change.
for treatment in a life-threatening emergency?
A. It is implied by law.
B. It must be obtained from a third party for
treatment of a minor.
C. It must be obtained from a third party for
treatment of an unconscious patient.
D. It is not limited to the nominallv reouired
treatment.
82. Patient records are critical to the defense of
litigation brought against a dentist. If at all
possible, the patient records should be kept
forever.

A. Both statements are TRUE.

B. Both statements are FALSE.
C. The first statement is TRUE; the second is
FALSE.
D. The first statement is FALSE: the second is
TRUE.

Q u e s t i o n-s 1 2
 PEDIATRIC
DENTISTRY PERIODONTICS
83. A diastema between the two permanent maxillary 87. Prostaglandinsare associatedwith:
central incisors in a nine-year-oldpatient should 1) bone resorption.
not be closed until after eruption of the: 2) periodontal inflammation.
3) attachment loss.
A. permanent maxillary second molars. 4) reattachment of gingival fibers.
B. maxillary premolars.
C. maxillary permanent canines. A. (1)and (2)
D. maxillary permanent lateral incisors. B. (3)and (a)
c {1),l2l and(31
D. All of the above
84 Examination of a three-year-old child reveals
multiple superficial ulcers and generalized
reddening of the oral mucosa. If the child is 8 8 . Which of the following are characteristics of
drooling, irritable, restlessand in pain, the dentist Grade IV furcations?
should suspect: 1) Most frequently in maxillary first molars
2) Entrance is visible clinicallv
A. candidiasis. 3) Through and through tunnel
B. primary teething. 4) A portion of the alveolar bone and periodontal
C. riboflavin deficiency. ligament remains intact
D. primary herpetic gingivostomatitis.
E. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis. A. (2)and (3)
B ( 1 ) ,( 2 ) a n d ( 3 )
C . ( 2 1 ,( 3 )a n d ( a )
D. All of the above
8 5 A radiograph of a four-year-old child reveals the
absence of mandibular second premolars. This
indicates that:
89 Which of the following is NOT characteristic of
( A. the child will not develop second premolars. slowly progressiveperiodontitis (Spp|?
B. the maxillary lateral incisors will ilso be
missing. A. Pain
C. the child's chronologic age and physiologic age B. Gingival inflammation
may not be closely related and the teeth mav C. Gram negative subgingival flora
develop later. D. Onset may occur during adolescence
D. extraction of primary second molars should be
performed to allow permanent first molars to
move forward during this period of rapid
growth. 90. Which statements are TRUE concerning a patient
with periodontal diseaseon dicumarol
fcoumadin)
therapy?
1) Periodontal scaling or surgery requires a
8 6 . An opalescentappearanceof the permanent prothrombin time less than two times normal.
dentition combined with small oientirely absent 2) Changes in prothrombin time will not be
pulp chambers radiographically is characteristicof: apparent until two days after changing dosages.
3) Complex periodontal surgery is
A. ameolgenesisimperfecta. contraindicated.
B. dentinogenesisimperfecta. 4) There are no contraindications to local
C. regional odentodysplasia. anesthesiawith epinephrine.
D. dentin dysplasia.
A ( 1 ) , { 2 )a n d ( 3 )
B. {1),l2l and gl
C ( 1 ) ,( 3 ) a n d ( 4 )
D . l 2 l , { 3 )a n d ( a )
E. All of the above

c
Q u e s t i o n-s 1 3
r

9 1 Metronidazole (Flagyl) is: 95. Which of the following is considered an

1) effective against anaerobesand specific aerobic ABSOLUTE contraindication to periodontal
organisms. surgery?
2) primarily effective against anaerobes.
3) effective in the management of cellulitis and
early acute infections. A. Hypertension
4) appropriate when used in combination with B. Angina pectoris
penicillin for serious odontogenic infections. C. Oral anticoagulant therapy
D. Agranulocytosis
A. E. Reduced adrenal function
{ 1 }a n d ( a )
B. {2)and (3)
C. l2l and pl
D. { l ) , ( 3 )a n d ( 4 )
E. ( 2 ) ,( 3 ) a n d ( 4 ) REMOVABLE
PROSTHODONTI
CS
96. While designing a removable partial denture
utilizing a chrome cobalt clasp, the most
Which of the following agents used to control preferable ways to decreasethe retentiveness of
plaque has the best long-term successrate? that clasp are to:
1) reduce the amount of undercut engaged.
A. Fluoride gel 2) decreasethe bulk of the retentive clasp arm.
B. Chlorhexidine 3) switch to a gold alloy.
C. Tetracycline 4) rely upon bending the clasp arm after delivery
D. Peroxide rinse
A . ( 1 )a n d ( 3 )
B. {1)and (a)
C. (2)and (3)
9 3 . Which is the most effective adjunctive therapy in D.l2) and lal
the management of localized aggressive
periodontitis?
97. An advantage to using polyether impression
A. Amoxicillin
material for border molding complete denture
B. Tetracycline
impressions instead of compound modeling plastic
C. Clindamycin
D. is that:
Metronidazole

A. border molding may be accomplished in one

step with polyether.
94. In a periodontic-endodontic lesion, the prognosis B. polyether is easier to disinfect.
for regeneration of the attachment apparatus is C. polyether causes less tissue irritation.
MOST predictable when: D. taste and patient acceptanceare much better
1) the larger part of the lesion is due to pulpal with polyether.
disease.
2l the larger part of the lesion is due to
periodontal disease.
3) endodontic therapy is performed first. Which of the following are important
4) periodontal therapy is performed first. considerationsin preparing an abutment tooth for
a complete overdenture?
1) Removal of sufficient tooth structure to
A. ( 1 )a n d ( 3 )
provide a favorable crown/root ratio
B. (1)and (a)
2) Placement of parallel retention grooves in the
C. (2| and (3)
abutment
D. (2) and (a)
3) Reduction of the tooth so as to provide an
occluso-gingival taper
4) Reduction of the tooth occluso-gingivally in
order to have sufficient vertical space

A . ( 1 )a n d ( 3 )
B. l2l andlal
C . ( 1 ) ,( 2 ) a n d ( 3 )
D . ( 1 ) , ( 3 )a n d ( a )
E. All of the above

- 14
Questions
 A 3O-year-oldpoorly controlled diabetic with six
remaining anterior teeth requires a maxillary
immediate denture. The patient has a torus
palatinus that is 3mm thick, measures 1.5 x 2.5cm
and is 3mm anterior to the vibrating line. Which
of the following is the treatment of choice? The
torus should:

A. be removed at the time the anterior teeth are

extracted.
B. be removed six weeks before final impressions.
C. be removed before the anterior teeth are
extracted.
D. not be removed, the denture should be relieved
accordingly.

100 In developing occlusion for a mandibular

removable partial denture against a complete
maxillary denture,it is:

A. not necessaryfor simultaneous bilateral centric

contacts of opposing teeth to occur.
B. desirable to obtain balanced occlusion in
e c c e n l r i cp o s i t i o n s .
C. desirable if working side contacts of the
artificial and natural teeth do not occur
( simultaneously.
D. acceptableif mandibular posterior teeth are set
distally to the sharp incline of the retromolar
pad.

Q u e s t i o n s- 1 5
Answers
T h e s ea r e t h e c o r r e c ta n s w e r st o t h e e x a m i n a t i o nq u e s t i o n s .T h e y a r e r e c o r d e do n a r e p l i c ao f y o u r a n s w e r
s h e e ts o t h a t y o u c a n e a s i l ys c o r ey o u r s e l fb y p l a c i n gt h e s ea n s w e r sn e x t t o t h e c o r r e s p o n d i n gn u m b e r so f
y o u r a n s w e rs h e e t . T h e s u b j e c ta r e a sa r e i n d i c a t e do n t h e S c o r eS h e e t( s e ef o l l o w i n g p a g e )s o t h a t y o u c a n
d e t e r m i n eh o w w e l l y o u d i d i n e a c h s u b j e c t . U s i n g a r e d p e n c i l , m a k e a n " X " i n t h e c i r c l e c o r r e s p o n d i n g
to the correct answer for each questionyou had incorrect. Add up the red "X's" for each subject area and
record on your score sheet.
ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE
100000 2600000 s 10 0 0 0 0 7600000
ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE
2aoooo 2Taoooo 5200000 77|."r^o^000
ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE
300000 2800000 5300000 78000oo
ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE
400000 2sooooo s400000 Teooooo
ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE
500000 30ooooo 5500000 soooooo
ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE
600000 3 10 0 0 0 0 5600000 8 10 0 0 0 0
ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE
700000 3200000 5700000 8200000
ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE
800ooo 3300000 5800000 8300000
ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE
eooooo 3400000 5eooooo 8400000
ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE
1000000 3500000 6000000 8500000
ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE
1 10 0 0 0 0 3600000 6 10 0 0 0 0 8600000
ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE
1200000 3700000 6200000 8700000
ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE
1300000 3800000 ffiooooo 8800000
ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE
1400000 3eooooo 6400000 seaoooo
ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE
150oooo 40aoooo 65ooooo eoooooo
ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE
1600000 4 10 0 0 0 0 6600000 el 00aoo
ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE
1700000 42o^C-000 6700000 e200000
ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE
1800000 €ooooo 6800000 e300000
ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE
leooooo 44C-aooo 6sooooo e400000
ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE
2000000 45aoooo Toooooo esooooo
ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE
2 10 0 0 0 0 4600000 7 10 0 0 0 0 e600000
ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE
22aoooo 4Taoooo 72C^C^000 e700000
ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE
2300000 4sooooo 7300000 e800000
ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE
24ic^|c-000 4eooooo 74C-C^000 eeooooo
ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE ABCDE
25aoooo 50000oo 7500000 looooooo