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PRELIMS TEST: 02 (2020) DATE: 17/12/2019

TOTAL MARKS: 200 TIME: 2 HOURS
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Q 1. “Bordering the Red Sea, this country saw Q 4. Regarding the Parliamentary form of
months long popular uprising that resulted in government, which of the following statements
overthrowing of its long-term President. The is/are correct?
protesters had demanded a transfer of power to a 1. In this executive is responsible to the legislature
transitional civilian government. However, the for its policies and acts.
military with the regional and international support 2. It is also known as ‘Westminster model of
concentrated powers in their own hands. Darfur is government’.
an important region in this country.” 3. Russia, Brazil, USA and Sri Lanka have this kind of
The country being referred in the above passage is, government.
a) Sudan b) Egypt Select the correct answer:
c) Libya d) Yemen a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 2. In the context of Protection of Plant Varieties
and Farmers’ Rights Act (PPVFRA), consider the Q 5. Scientists are recommending the use of
following statements. Phosphine for killing insect pests, as a substitute for
1. PPVFRA recognizes farmers as plant breeders and Methyl Bromide.
allows them to register their plant varieties. What is/are the most plausible advantage/dis-
2. It recognizes and rewards the farmers engaged in advantages of using Phosphine?
the conservation of genetic resources of landraces 1. Phosphine, unlike Methyl Bromide, is not an
and wild relatives of economic plants. ozone-depleting substance.
3. It protects the traditional practices of the farmers 2. Phosphine, even when used repeatedly, does not
of saving seeds from one harvest either for sowing leave behind any residues.
for their next harvest or sharing them with other 3. Methyl Bromide is capable of killing pests in less
farmers. than 24 hours, whereas Phosphine takes almost five
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? days.
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 3 only Select the correct statements:
c) 1 and 2 only d) 2 and 3 only a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only d) 2 and 3 only
Q 3. Consider the following statements about
‘United Nations Commission on International Trade Q 6. Consider the following difference between
Laws (UNCITRAL)’- Federal system and Unitary system:
1. UNCITRAL is the core legal body of the United 1. Federal system has written constitution while
Nations system in the field of international trade Unitary system has written or unwritten
law. constitution.
2. The Commission comprises 60 member States 2. Federal system has a rigid Constitution while
elected by the United Nations General Assembly for Unitary system has a rigid or a flexible Constitution.
a term of six years. 3. Federal system has a bicameral legislature while
3. World Trade Organization (WTO) provides Unitary system has unicameral legislature.
secretariat services to UNCITRAL. 4. Federal system has supremacy of constitution
Which of the statements given above are correct? while Unitary system has no supremacy of
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only constitution.
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
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Which of the statements given above are NOT Q 10. When Rajya Sabha passes a resolution
correct? allowing Parliament to make Laws on subjects in the
a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 4 only State list:
c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 3 and 4 only 1. Such a resolution must be supported by simple
majority in Rajya Sabha.
Q 7. Consider the following. 2. The resolution remains in force for 6 months.
1. Equality before the law without discrimination 3. The laws cease to have effect on the expiration of
2. Right to work six months after the resolution has ceased to be in
3. Right to participate in political and public life force.
4. Respect for privacy Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
5. Freedom of movement and nationality a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only
Which of the above human rights are recognized c) 3 only d) 1 and 3 only
under the ‘Convention to Rights of Persons with
Disabilities’? Q 11. In the context of Election to the office of the
a) 1,2, 3 and 5 only b) 2 and 5 only Speaker of Loksabha, consider the following
c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 statements-
1. By convention, the Speaker of Loksabha gives up
Q 8. Consider the following statements: the membership of his/her political party.
1. Only Parliament can make ‘extra-territorial 2. G V Mavalankar was the first Speaker of the Lok
legislation’. Sabha.
2. Only the Parliament can make regulations for the 3. Other than the election of the first Speaker, every
peace, progress and good governance of all the other Lok Sabha Speaker has been elected
Union Territories. unanimously till 2019.
3. The governor is empowered to direct that an act Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
of Parliament does not apply to a scheduled area in a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only
the state or apply with specified modifications and c) 1 and 2 only d) None of the above
exceptions.
4. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred Q 12. Which of the following is/are the Unitary
certain subjects to Concurrent List from State List. features of the Constitution?
Which of the statements given above are correct? 1. The Rajya Sabha represents the States of Indian
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 b) 1, 2 and 4 only Federation, while the Lok Sabha represents the
c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) 2, 3 and 4 only people of India as a whole.
2. The Union List contains more subjects than the
Q 9. With reference to the ‘Corporate Average Fuel State List.
Efficiency (CAFE) regulations’, consider the 3. The bulk of the Constitution can be amended by
following statements. the Parliament, either by simple majority or by
1. The regulation aims to lower the fuel special majority.
consumption of vehicles by lowering carbon dioxide Select the correct answer using the codes given
(CO2) emissions. below:
2. These regulations are applicable only to the a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 and 3 only
vehicle running on LPG and CNG. c) 1 only d) 3 only
3. In India, CAFE regulations came into force from
April 1, 2017. Q 13. Consider the following statements about the
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ‘Patent Cooperation Treaty (PCT)’.
a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 only 1. The PCT is an international treaty between more
c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 and 2 only than 140 Paris Convention countries.
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2. The treaty provides for patent protection for an
invention simultaneously in different countries by
filing a single international patent application.
3. Under the treaty, the right and control to grant a
patent remains with the WIPO secretariat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 3 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 1 and 2 only
Q 14. With reference to Indian Councils Act of 1861,
consider the following statements:
1. Sir Dinkar Rao was one of the three non-official
members inducted in the Viceroy’s legislative
council.
2. This Act provided for the establishment of
separate legislative council for Punjab province.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q 15. Consider the following statements.
The Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and
Small Enterprises (CGTMSE) provides guarantee to,
1. Collateral free credit facility, extended by eligible
lenders, to new as well as existing Micro and Small
Enterprise, with a minimum credit cap of Rs. 200
lakh.
2. Credit facility extended by the Scheduled
commercial Banks and Scheduled Urban Co-
operative Banks as well as NBFC’s.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) both 1 and 2 d) neither 1 nor 2
Q 16. How was the Government of India Act of 1919
different from the Government of India Act 1935?
1. Government of India Act of 1919 gave separate
electorate to Sikhs, Indian Christians and Europeans
whereas Government of India Act 1935 provided
separate electorate to Scheduled Castes.
2. Government of India Act of 1919 provided for the
establishment of Federal Court whereas
Government of India Act of 1935 provided for the
establishment of a Public Service Commission.
Select the correct answer:
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
TEST 02 (2020)
IAS PRAYOJAN NAGPUR
Q 17. In the context of UN Convention against
torture, which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. It defines torture as any act that intentionally
inflicts severe physical and mental pain or suffering,
including that arising from lawful sanctions.
2. The convention prohibits state parties from
extraditing a person to another State, when there is
a danger of such person being subjected to torture.
3. India has ratified the Convention in June 2019.
Select the correct answer:
a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 and 2 only
Q 18. With reference to the State Reorganisation
Act of 1956, consider the following statements:
1. Kutch state and the Saurashtra state were merged
to create Bombay state.
2. Kannada-speaking areas of Hyderabad state were
merged with the Andhra state to create the Andhra
Pradesh state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q 19. In the context of comparison between the
standard Radiation therapy and the Proton therapy,
consider the following statements-
1. Both standard radiation therapy and proton
therapy work on the same principle of damaging
cellular DNA.
2. Protons after depositing the radiation dose on the
tumor cell, travel no further through the body,
whereas the conventional radiation continue
traveling through the body until exiting out the
other side.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) both 1 and 2 d) neither 1 nor 2
Q 20. Regarding the ‘Freedom to form Association’
under Fundamental Rights, consider the following
statements:
1. It provides the right to start an association.
2. Public order and morality can be the grounds
which can be used to impose reasonable restrictions
on freedom of association.
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3. Right to obtain recognition of the association
under Freedom to form Association is a
fundamental right.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 21. Recently, a report titled “Healthy States,
Progressive India” was released. In this context
consider the following statements:
1. It is a biennial systematic performance tool to
measure the performance of the States and UTs
based on incremental change in health outcomes
and overall performance with respect to each other.
2. Meghalaya is adjudged as the best performing
state in terms of overall performance.
3. The report was released by Ministry of Health and
Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) None of the above d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 22. With reference to Anti-Defection law,
consider the following statements:
1. Only the Presiding Officer of the legislature is
entitled to disqualify any member on grounds of
defection.
2. The law does not specify a time-period for the
Presiding Officer to decide on a disqualification plea.
3. Decision of the Presiding Officer is not subject to
judicial review.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only d) 1 and 3 only
Q 23. Consider the following statements about the
‘PUNCH mission’.
1. The mission aims to fully discern the physical
processes that unify the solar corona and
heliosphere.
2. PUNCH mission consist of a constellation of four
micro-satellites that will orbit the Earth in
formation.
3. It is the first mission of European Space Agency to
study the solar corona.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
TEST 02 (2020)
IAS PRAYOJAN NAGPUR
Q 24. With reference to Pitts India Act of 1784,
consider the following statements:
1. It made the governors of Bombay and Madras
Presidencies subordinate to the Governor General
of Bengal.
2. It prohibited the servants of the company from
engaging in any private trade.
3. It distinguished between the commercial and
political functions of the company.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 25. The term ‘Paris Pact Initiative’ was seen in the
news recently. Which of the following statements
correctly describes it?
a) It is an international agreement on cyber security
principles, initiated by the France.
b) It is an international coalition for combating illicit
traffic in opiates originating in Afghanistan.
c) It is a platform launched to mobilize funds to help
developing countries to fight the climate change.
d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given
above is correct in this context.
Q 26. Regarding the Foreigners Tribunals, consider
the following statements:
1. The Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, 1964 was issued
by the Central Government under Section 3 of The
Foreigners Act, 1946.
2. Foreigners Tribunals have been established only
in Assam.
3. District Magistrates are entitled to give their
opinion to the Tribunal as to whether the Appellant
is a ‘foreigner’ or not.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 27. Consider the following statements:
Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board
(PNGRB) is,
1. A statutory body under the administrative control
of Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
2. Responsible for identification of the Geographical
Areas (GAs) for the development of City Gas
Distribution (CGD) network.
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3. Authorized to receive complaints from any person
and hold inquiry connected with the activities
relating to petroleum and natural gas that are in
contravention with the laws and regulations.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 28. With reference to UPSC, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. The UPSC consists of a chairman and 2 members
appointed by the President of India.
2. In the case of Mis-behaviour, President can refer
the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry but
advise tendered is non-binding on the President.
3. The salaries, allowances and pensions of the
chairman and members of the UPSC are charged on
the Contingency Fund of India.
Select the correct answer:
a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) None of the above
Q 29. Consider the following statements about “
Corporate Social Responsibility” (CSR) :
1. Companies with a minimum net worth of Rs 500
crore, turnover of Rs 1000 crore or net profit of Rs 5
crore are required to spend at least 2% of their
average profit for the previous three years on CSR
activities.
2. Presently, violation of CSR norms does not treated
as criminal offence.
3. CSR is an embodiment of the principle of
“Trusteeship” enunciated by Mahatma Gandhi.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 30. With reference to National Commission for
SCs and National Commission for STs which of the
following statements are correct?
1. Both the Commissions came into existence by
89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003.
2. Both submit their annual report to the President.
3. Both the Commission, while investigating any
matter or inquiring into any complaint, have all the
powers of a civil court.
4. The members of the Commissions are appointed
Select the correct answer:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 31. With reference to the National Cooperative
Development Corporation (NCDC), consider the
following statements:
1. NCDC is not a statutory body.
2. NCDC functions under the Ministry of Agriculture
and Farmers Welfare.
3. NCDC has launched the Yuva Sahakar Scheme to
promote cooperative to venture into new and
innovative areas and to cater to the needs of the
aspirational youth.
Which of the statements given above are incorrect?
a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) None of the Above
Q 32. Representation of the People Act, 1950 was
enacted to provide for the allocation of seats in the
following:
1. House of the People
2. Legislative Assemblies of States
3. Legislative Councils of States
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 33. Consider the following statements about the
Drone Innovators Network Summit 2019:
1. The summit organised by the World Economic
Forum under the aegis of the Ministry of Civil
Aviation.
2. India’s Directorate General of Civil Aviation issued
Civil Aviation Requirements (CAR ) for the regulation
of drones.
3. The First Drone Innovators Network Summit was
held in New Delhi in October 2019.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 34. With reference to the Delimitation Act, 2002,
which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Articles 82 and 170 of the Constitution of India
provide for readjustment and the division of each
State into territorial constituencies on the basis of
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2. Articles 330 and 332 of the Constitution of India
provide for re-fixing the number of seats reserved
for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in
the House of the People and Legislative Assemblies
of the States on the basis of the 2001 census.
Select the correct answer:
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q 35. Consider the following statements about the
“Green Wall of India”:
1. As envisaged, it is a 1400 km and 5 km wide green
belt from Gujarat to Delhi-Haryana border.
2. It is expected to combat land degradation in India.
3. It was part of the agenda of the Conference of
Parties (CoP)-14 of UNCCD held recently in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 36. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled
Areas) Act, 1996?
1. In Scheduled Areas, all seats of Chairpersons of
Panchayats at all levels shall be reserved for the
Scheduled Tribes.
2. The recommendations of the Gram Sabha or the
Panchayats shall be mandatory for grant of
prospecting licence or mining lease for minor
minerals in the Scheduled Areas.
Select the correct answer:
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q 37. Consider the following statements about the
“Shirui Lily Festival”:
1. Shirui Lily is the state flower of Nagaland.
2. It is an annual festival.
3. Shirui Lily is an Endangered species.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 2 only b) 2 and 3
c) 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 38. Consider the following statements regarding
74th Amendment Act of 1992:
1. The reservation for Women is not less than one-
fourth of the total number of seats.
TEST 02 (2020)
IAS PRAYOJAN NAGPUR
2. The Act provides for a five-year term of office for
every municipality.
3. A person can only be a member of a municipality
if he has attained the age of 25 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 only d) 2 and 3 only
Q 39. Consider the following statements about the
Siachen glacier:
1. It is part of the Karakoram Range System.
2. It is the world’s longest glacier in the non-polar
areas.
3. It is the source of the Nubra and Shyok rivers.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
a) 2 only b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) None of the above
Q 40. Consider the following statements:
1. Both the cabinet ministers and the non-cabinet
ministers can be the members of the cabinet
committees.
2. Home minister can also act as a chairman of the
cabinet committees.
3. Cabinet committees are constituted under the
Transaction of Business Rules, 1961.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 41. Consider the following statements about the
Association of World Election Bodies (A-WEB).
1. A-WEB was established as a response to Arab
spring, to promote democracy across the world.
2. The permanent secretariat of A-WEB is located at
New Delhi.
3. Recently, India took over as the chair of
Association of World Election Bodies (A-WEB).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 and 3 only
Q 42. With reference to Electoral Reforms, consider
the following statements:
1. 61st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1988
reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years for
the Lok Sabha as well as the assembly elections.
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2. The Electronic voting machines were used for the
first time in the general elections to the Assembly of
Kerala in 1999.
3. Any person who insults the National Honour will
be disqualified to contest elections of the
Parliament and state legislatures for 10 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only d) 1 only
Q 43. Consider the following pairs.
Places in news : Country
1. Sa’dah: Palestine
2. Abqaiq: Saudi Arabia
3. KiryatShemona: Yemen
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
matched?
a) 2 only b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 44. With reference to Political Parties in India,
consider the following statements:
1. India has the largest number of political parties in
the world.
2. The Election Commission specifies ‘free symbols’
which are meant for recognised parties and
‘reserved symbols’ which are meant for registered-
unrecognised party.
3. A party is recognised as a national party, if it is
recognised as a state party in three or more states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only d) 1 only
Q 45. Consider the following statements about the
recently launched ‘National Animal Disease Control
Programme (NADCP)’-
1. The programme aims at vaccinating over 500
Million Livestock including cattle, buffalo, sheep,
goats and pigs against the Foot and Mouth Disease
(FMD).
2. The programme aims to control the Foot and
Mouth Disease (FMD) and Brucellosis by 2025 and
eradicate them by 2030.
3. It is fully funded by the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
Q 46. Consider the following statements regarding
qualification for being a judge in the High Court?
1. It is mandatory to be a citizen of India.
2. He should be a distinguished jurist.
3. He should have held a judicial office in the
territory of India for ten years.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT
correct?
a) 2 and 3 only b) 2 only
c) 3 only d) 1 and 3 only
Q 47. In the context of ‘Global Antimicrobial
Resistance Research and Development Hub’, seen in
the news recently, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. The Hub supports global priority setting and
evidence-based decision making on the allocation of
resources for research in Antimicrobial Resistance.
2. It was launched in 2018 following a call from G20
Leaders in 2017.
3. India is Associate member of the Global
Antimicrobial Resistance Research and
Development Hub.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 48. With reference to Special provisions for some
States, consider the following statements:
1. Articles 371 to 371-J in Part XXI of the constitution
contain special provisions for twelve states.
2. Article 371-A is related to special provisions for
Nagaland.
3. The 36th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1975
made Assam a full-fledged state of the Indian Union.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above
Q 49. With reference to the ‘School Education
Quality Index’, which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. The index is prepared by NITI Aayog.
2. The index ranks the states and the Union
territories on two broad categories –outcome and
governance.
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3. NCT of Delhi has been graded as a top performer
under the School Education Quality Index 2019.
Select the correct answer:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 50. Which of the following can be considered as
accountability checks on Executive?
1. Voting on Demands for Grants.
2. Economy Cut and Token Cut.
3. Close scrutiny by Departmental Standing
Committees.
4. Post Budget auditing by the Comptroller and
Auditor General of India.
Select the correct answer:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 51. The Parliament recently passed the Motor
Vehicles (Amendment) Act 2019. In this context
consider the following statements:
1. It provides for the creation of a National Road
Safety Board by the central government.
2. Each state government is required to constitute a
Motor Vehicle Accident Fund, to provide
compulsory insurance cover to road users in the
respective states.
3. It proposes to create National Register for Driving
Licence and National Register for Vehicle
registration to bring uniformity in the process across
the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 52. In context of the power provided by the
Constitution to the Union Legislature to reorganize
the states, consider the following statements:
1. In case of Union Territory reorganization,
reference need to be made to the concerned
legislature to ascertain its views.
2. Views of the concerned state legislature/ UT are
binding on the President.
3. Such laws does not require a special majority but
can be passed by a simple majority.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
TEST 02 (2020)
IAS PRAYOJAN NAGPUR
Q 53. India recently conducted the first national
‘Time Release Study (TRS)’. In this context consider
the following statements:
1. The Time Release Study (TRS) is a tool advocated
by the the United Nations Commission on
International Trade Law (UNCITRAL) to measure the
efficiency and effectiveness of international trade
flows.
2. The national Time Release Study (TRS) was led by
the NITI Aayog.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) both 1 and 2 d) neither 1 nor 2
Q 54. Which of the following statements is/are
correct regarding Language of the Judiciary and
Texts of Laws?
1. Hindi translation of acts, ordinances and bye laws
published under the authority of the President are
deemed to be authoritative text.
2. President can authorize the use of Hindi for the
judgment, decrees and orders passed by the High
Court of the state.
3. Supreme Court hears only those petitions or
appeal which are either in Hindi or English.
Select the correct answer:
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 55. Consider the following statements.
1. The Changthangi is a special breed of goat
indigenous to the high altitude regions of Ladakh in
Jammu and Kashmir.
2. The Changthangigoats are raised for ultra-fine
cashmere wool, known as Pashmina.
3. Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) has published an
Indian Standard for identification, marking and
labelling of Pashmina products.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 only
c) 2 only d) 1 and 2 only
Q 56. Which among the following is correct
regarding Point of Order?
(a) It is only raised by an opposition member in order
to control the government.
(b) Debate is allowed on a point of order.
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(c) It does not suspend the proceedings of the
House.
(d) A member can raise a point of order when the
proceedings of the House do not follow the normal
rules of procedure.
Q 57. Consider the following statements.
1. Oxytocin is a uterine stimulant hormone
prescribed for the initiation of uterine contractions
and induction of labour in women.
2. Oxytocin is used in the dairy industry, agriculture
and horticulture to boost production.
3. Oxytocin is included in the National List of
Essential Medicines (NLEM).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1 and 2 only
Q 58. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Protem Speaker:
1. The Speaker of last Lok Sabha appoints a member
of newly elected Lok Sabha as the Protem Speaker.
2. The Protem Speaker has all the powers of the
Speaker.
3. He/she administers oath to the new ministers
only.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 59. Consider the following statements.
1. The subject ‘Citizenship’ is in the Union List under
the Indian Constitution.
2. Part II of the constitution of India defines the term
‘Citizenship’.
3. The provisions of the Indian Constitution relating
to Citizenship were enforced immediately on
November 26, 1949 and not on January, 1950.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 60. Which of the following statements is/are
correct regarding Lame-Duck session?
1. It is the last session of every existing Lok Sabha.
2. It refers to a session in which members participate
for last time because of failure to get re-elected to
3. This session requires minimum number of
members whose presence is essential to transact
the business of the House.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only
c) 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 61. The ‘NISHTHA’ programme was launched
recently. In this context consider the following
statements:
1. ‘NISHTHA’ is the National Mission to improve
Learning Outcomes at the primary and secondary
level schools.
2. The basic objective of ‘NISHTHA’ programme is to
motivate and equip teachers to encourage and
foster critical thinking in students.
3. It was launched by the Union Ministry of Human
Resource Development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 62. Consider the following statements regarding
the Contingency Fund of India:
1. According to the Article 267(I) of the Indian
constitution, Parliament may by law establish a
Contingency Fund of India.
2. Contingency Fund of India shall be placed at the
disposal of the Parliament.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q 63. Consider the following statements.
1. A person convicted under the Prevention of
Corruption Act is not eligible to contest an election
for six years from the date of release.
2. Election Commission of India (ECI) has the power
to remove any disqualification under the
Representation of the People Act or reduce its
duration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Q 64. Consider the following statements regarding Q 68. Supreme Court’s jurisdiction and powers can
the office of Speaker: be enlarged by which of the following:
1. Speaker is appointed by the President of India. 1. Parliament
2. Pro-tem speaker is elected by all the newly 2. State Legislature
elected Members of Parliament from among 3. President
themselves. 4. Special agreement of Centre and States
3. Speaker can be removed by the Lok Sabha by a Select the correct answer:
resolution passed by an absolute majority. a) 1 and 3 only b) 3 and 4 only
Which of the above statements are incorrect? c) 1 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Q 69. Consider the following statements about
‘CITES’ convention:
Q 65. Consider the following statements. 1. It as an international agreement aimed at
1. A legislative council in a state can be formed if a ensuring that international trade in specimens of
resolution is passed by the assembly of that state wild animals and plants does not threaten their
with special majority, followed by a law passed to survival.
that effect by the Parliament. 2. The convention is also referred to as the Malmo
2. Currently, only six states have Legislative Convention and entered into force on July 1, 1975.
Councils. 3. The Convention is legally binding on the Parties.
3. The legislative council has the powers similar to 4. Under the convention, the smooth-coated otter
that of Rajya Sabha, in the matters of state has been given highest degree of protection under
legislation. Appendix I.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 only a) All of these b) 1 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) 1, 3 and 4

Q 66. In India, the Chief Minister of a State is not
eligible to vote in the Presidential election if:
a) He is member of Legislative Assembly.
b) He is yet to prove his majority on the floor of the
Lower House of the State legislature.
c) He is a member of the Upper House of the State
Legislature.
d) He is a caretaker Chief Minister.
Q 67. In the context of delimitation of
constituencies, consider the following statements.
1. Constitution of India empowers the Election
Commission of India (ECI) to constitute Delimitation
Commission after every census.
2. The orders of the Delimitation Commission are
final and cannot be questioned before any court.
3. So far, Delimitation Commissions have been set
up only four times.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
Q 70. Which of the following parliamentary terms is/
are correctly described?
1. Whip - The office of whip is mentioned neither in
the Constitution of India nor in the rules of House
nor in the Parliamentary statue.
2. Crossing the floor - Passing between the member
addressing the House and the Chair which is
considered breach of Parliamentary etiquette.
3. Subordinate Legislation – Rules framed by the
Executive in pursuance of the power conferred on it
by the Constitution.
Select the correct answer:
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 71. Which of the following statement correctly
describes the term ‘gravitational lensing’, seen in
the news recently?
a. A phenomenon that occurs when a huge amount
of matter creates a gravitational field that distorts
10

c) 1, 2 and 3 d) None of the above and magnifies the light from objects behind it, but in
the same line of sight.
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b. The disturbances in the curvature of space-time,
generated by accelerated masses, that propagate as
waves outward from their source at the speed of
light.
c. Investigative tools used to detect Gravitational
Waves.
d. None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given
above is correct in this context.
Q 72. Which of the following statements are correct
pertaining to Consultative Committee?
1. It provides a forum for a formal discussion
between the ministers and the Members of the
Parliament on policies and programs of the
government and manner of their implementation.
2. These committees are constituted by the Ministry
of Parliamentary Affairs.
3. These committees shall stand dissolved upon
dissolution of every Lok Sabha and shall be
reconstituted upon constitution of each Lok Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 73. In the context of ‘Global Coalition to Protect
Pollinators’, seen in the news recently, consider the
following statements:
1. The coalition was formed to follow up on the ‘The
Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)’ finding
that many of the world’s pollinator species are on
the decline.
2. The initiative to form a coalition was taken at the
Conference of the Parties–Convention of Biological
Diversity held in Mexico in 2016.
3. India is not a signatory to the global coalition to
protect pollinators.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 74. Consider the following statements with
regard to the Parliamentary committees:
1. Committee on Public Undertaking consists of 22
members where the term of office does not exceed
two years.
2. Committee on Estimates consists of 30 members
where the term of office does not exceed one year.
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IAS PRAYOJAN NAGPUR
3. Committee on Public Accounts comprises of 25
members where the term of office remains one
year.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 75. Consider the following statements.
1. Both Articles 370 and 371 were part of the Indian
Constitution at the time of its commencement on
January 26, 1950.
2. Article 371 of the Constitution includes special
provisions for 10 schedule area states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q 76. Consider the following statements regarding
the Consolidated Fund of India:
1. No money can be withdrawn from the
Consolidated Fund of India without the approval of
the President.
2. All the legally authorised payments on behalf of
the State Governments are made out of the
Consolidated Fund of India.
3. Pensions of the judges of the high courts are
charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 2 and 3 only
Q 77. Consider the following statements.
1. Only parliament has the power to make changes
in the Scheduled Caste list.
2. Prior recommendation of the President is
required to make any changes in the list of
Scheduled Castes.
3. At present, India has no National Policy on Tribals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 only d) 2 and 3 only
Q 78. With reference to the office of Leader of
Opposition, consider the following statements:
1. The office of Leader of Opposition is not
mentioned in the Constitution of India.
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2. The Salaries and Allowances of Leaders of
Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977 states that the
Leader of Opposition is the leader of the largest
party that has not less than one-tenth of the total
strength of the house.
3. In case no party in opposition secures at least one-
tenth seats of the total strength of the house, the
numerically largest party in the opposition should
have the right to have a leader recognised as Leader
of the Opposition by the Speaker.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 79. Consider the following statements.
1. The Apprentices Act, 1961 makes it obligatory for
all employers who have a workforce of 40
employees or above, to engage apprentices.
2. The provisions of the Apprentices Act, 1961 are
applicable only to the public sector enterprises.
3. The Union Ministry of Labour is responsible for
implementation of the Apprentices Act, 1961.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 2 and 3 only
b. 1 only
c. 1 and 2 only
d. 1 and 3 only
Q 80. Consider the following statements regarding
the Ad hoc judges of Supreme Court of India:
1. He is appointed by the Chief Justice of India when
there is a lack of quorum of the permanent judges
to hold or continue any session of the Supreme
Court.
2. He can be appointed after consultation with the
Chief Justice of the High Court concerned.
3. He shall have all the jurisdiction, powers and
privileges of a Judge of the Supreme Court.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 81. Consider the following statements about
‘IMPS (Immediate Payment Service)’, often seen in
the news:
1. It is an interbank electronic fund transfer service
that could be accessed on mobile, internet, ATM,
SMS, USSD and branch.
TEST 02 (2020)
IAS PRAYOJAN NAGPUR
2. The IMPS facility is provided by the National
Payments Corporation of India through its National
Financial System switch.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) both 1 and 2 d) neither 1 nor 2
Q 82. Which of the following statements are correct
regarding the Supreme Court and High Courts in
India?
1. Number of judges in the Supreme Court can be
increased by the Parliament whereas number of
judges in the High Court can be increased by the
President.
2. Removal process of judges of the Supreme Court
and High courts is same.
3. Salaries, allowances, pensions and leaves of the
judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are
determined by the Parliament.
4. Salaries, allowances, and pensions of the judges
of Supreme Court and High Courts are charged on
the Consolidated Fund of India.
Select the correct answer:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 83. In the context of ‘Electoral Trusts’, seen in the
news recently, which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. Electoral Trusts are non-profit organizations
formed for the sole purpose of making donations to
political parties.
2. Electoral Trusts can receive contributions from
Indian citizens as well as Foreign Entities.
3. Electoral Trusts are regulated under the
provisions of the Representation of the Peoples Act,
1950.
Select the correct answer:
a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 only d) 2 and 3 only
Q 84. Which of the following are correct regarding
the duties and functions of CAG as laid down by the
Parliament and the Constitution of India?
1. He audits balance sheets and other subsidiary
accounts kept by any department of central and
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2. He can audit the accounts of Panchayati Raj Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Institutions and Urban Local Bodies on request of a) 1 only b) 2 only
the President or the Governor. c) 3 only d) None of the above
3. He ascertains and certifies the net proceeds of
any tax or duty. Q 88. Which of the following statements about
4. He audits and reports on the trade and Business Advisory Committee is/are incorrect?
manufacture by government departments. 1. This committee considers and advises on matters
Select the correct answer: concerning affairs of the House, which do not fall
a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only within the jurisdiction of any other parliamentary
c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 committee.
2. It consists of 22 members, 15 from the Lok Sabha
Q 85. The Global Multidimensional Poverty Index and 7 from the Rajya Sabha.
(MPI) 2019 report was released recently. Which of Select the correct answer:
the following indicators are used to capture the a) 1 only b) 2 only
incidence of multi-dimensional poverty? c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Nutrition
2. Sanitation Q 89. Consider the following statements about
3. Child mortality ‘Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot System
4. Housing (ETPBS)’.
5. Cooking fuel 1. It is a two-way channel to electronically send and
6. Years of schooling receive the postal ballots.
7. Electricity 2. Only those who are classified as Service Voters
Select the correct answer using the code given can cast their vote through ETPBS.
below. 3. ETPBS is secured by having four layers of security.
a) 1, 3, 4 and 7 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
b) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 only
c) 4, 5, 6 and 7 only c) all of the above d) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Q 90. Which of the following statements correctly
Q 86. Which of the following offi cials is/are describes the Equality of Power and Status of the
appointed as well as removed by the Governor? Rajya Sabha to that of the Lok Sabha?
1. Advocate General of the state. 1. Introduction and passage of all types of financial
2. State Election Commissioner. bills involving expenditure
3. Members of the State Public Service Commission. from the Consolidated Fund of India.
4. Members of the State Human Rights Commission. 2. Approval of ordinances issued by the President.
Select the correct answer: 3. Approval of proclamation of all three types of
(a) 1 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only emergencies by the President.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 4. A resolution for the discontinuance of the
national emergency.
Q 87. The Botanical Survey of India has recently Select the correct answer:
published the first comprehensive census of orchids a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only
of India. In this context consider the following c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1 and 4 only
statements.
1. All orchid species found in India are epiphytes. Q 91. The drug ‘Dolutegravir (DTG)’ was seen in the
2. In India, the highest number of orchid species is news recently. In this context consider the following
recorded from Kerala. statements:
13

3. Any trade of wild orchid is completely banned 1. It is an antiretroviral medication used to treat HIV.
globally.
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2. DTG prohibited for the use by pregnant women
and those of childbearing potential.
3. DTG has a high genetic barrier to developing drug
resistance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) None of the statements give above is correct
Q 92. Consider the following statements regarding
the Annual Financial Statement in Parliament:
1. The term ‘budget’ has nowhere been mentioned
in the Constitution.
2. No money shall be withdrawn from the
Consolidated Fund of India except under
recommendation made by President.
3. The passing of Finance Bill legalises the income
side of the budget and completes the process of the
enactment of the budget.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 93. Consider the following statements.
1. In India, Madhya Pradesh has the highest number
of tigers.
2. As per the 2018 Tiger Census, all the states in India
that have Tiger reserves saw an increase in their
tiger numbers.
3. More than 80% of the world’s wild tigers are in
India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 94. Which of the following statements are correct
regarding the executive powers of the President?
1. All executive actions of the Government of India
are formally taken in his name.
2. He can make rules for more convenient
transaction of business of Union government.
3. He can preside over an inter-state council to
promote centre-state and inter-state cooperation.
4. He can make regulations for peace, progress and
good governance of the Daman and Diu.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 95. Consider the following statements about the
‘Union for the Protection of New Varieties of Plants
(UPOV)’.
1. UPOV provides an effective system of plant
variety protection, with the aim of encouraging the
development of new varieties of plants, for the
benefit of society.
2. UPOV was established by the Trade-Related
Aspects of Intellectual property rights (TRIPS)
Convention.
3. It is an intergovernmental organization with
headquarters in Geneva.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 96. With reference to the Constitution of India
which one of the following pairs is incorrectly
matched?
Subject - List
a) Stock Exchange -The State List
b) Forest -The Concurrent List
c) Insurance -The Union List
d) Marriage and divorce -The Concurrent List
Q 97. With reference to the differences between
Union territories of Delhi and Puducherry, which of
the following statement(s) is/are correct?
1. The Puducherry legislature is the creation of
parliamentary law, whereas the Delhi legislature has
been created by the Constitution itself.
2. The Puducherry Assembly is barred from dealing
with the subjects of public order, police and land,
whereas the Delhi Assembly has no such
restrictions.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
14

c) both 1 and 2
d) neither 1 nor 2
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Q 98. Which of the following statements are correct

regarding the Constitution of India?
1. It generates a degree of trust and coordination
among people.
2. It specifies how the government will be
constituted.
3. It lays down limits on the powers of the
government.
4. It provides a standard to examine and evaluate
any law and action.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q 99. With reference to the Asia Cooperation

Dialogue (ACD), consider the following statements.
1. The ACD was inaugurated in 2002 to rebuild
Afghanistan after the end of Taliban rule.
2. Only Asian countries can become members of
ACD.
3. India is one of the founding members of the Asia
Cooperation Dialogue.
Which of the following statement(s) given above
is/are correct?
a) 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only

Q 100. With reference to the Unlawful Activities

(Prevention) Act, 2008 (UAPA), consider the
following statements:
1. Under the UAPA, the central government can
designate only an organization and not individuals
as unlawful/terrorist.
2. It provides for constitution of Unlawful Activities
(Prevention) tribunals for adjudicating the matters
related to the Act.
3. So far, the central government has not
constituted any tribunals under the UAPA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
15

c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 only
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